Cssa Q&a

1) Setting the alert levels for the PegaAlert log is done in which file?
Choose one answer.

a. prlog4jsettings.xml Incorrect
b. prlogging.xml Incorrect
c. prsettings.xml Incorrect
d. prconfig.xml
Setting the alert levels for the PegaAlert log is done in which file?
Note: The prconfig.xml file includes all of the settings for the alerts. The prlogging.xml record
allows you to set the location and naming convention of the log files.
2) Which of the following statements are true regarding skimming? (Choose two)
a. Rules are automatically deleted once skimming has been completed to reduce the total
number of RuleSet versions in the application. Incorrect
b. Skimming is located in Tools > Rule Management > Skim a RuleSet.
c. When skimming to RuleSet 03-01-01, only the highest versioned rules from 02-01-01 and 0101-01 RuleSets are included in the skim. Incorrect
d. Withdrawn rules are included in a skim.
Note: RuleSets may be manually deleted but are not automatically deleted. Skims only select
rules in one major version
3) You can create a Rule-Admin-Product-Patch with the same name both in the MLS
RuleSet and in the MyCo RuleSet.
a. Yes - the system will allow for two separate instances of the rule if it is saved in different
RuleSets. This practice should be avoided.
b. No - the system does not allow for multiple instances of a Rule-Admin- Product-Patch with
the same name. Incorrect
Note: You can create a Rule-Admin-Product-Patch with the same name both in the MLS RuleSet
and in the MyCo RuleSet. The standard system validations allow you to create the rules with
the same name in two different
RuleSets; however, since this can cause confusion it is not considered a best practice.
4) True or False: When migrating a Rule-Admin-Product-Patch from one environment
to another, you must first have migrated a Rule-Admin-Product.
True Incorrect
False
Note: There is no edit when the zip archive is loaded in the system.
5) For which purpose can out of the box activities be used?
Choose one answer.
a. To route work Incorrect
b. To update the status of a work object Incorrect
c. To add work to a cover or folder Incorrect
d. All of the above
Note: There are many out of the box activities that can be used for work-related processing,
including routing to a work list or work basket, updating work status based on an input
parameter, and adding work to a cover or folder.
6) In which category would you expect to find activities under the Rules by Type
tab?
Choose one answer.
a. Process Incorrect
b. Technical
c. Decision Incorrect
d. SysAdmin Incorrect
MSAT Internal
Note: Activities are located under the Technical category in the Rules by Type tab in Manage
Rules.
7) When processing a For loop or iterating over a Value List or Page List, which
standard parameter would you inspect to get the value of the current iteration?
Choose one answer.
a. pyIterationNumber Incorrect
b. pyForEach Incorrect
c. pyCount Incorrect
d. pyForEachCount
Note: The standard parameter pyForEachCount holds the index value of the current iteration.
Note that if the iteration is a For loop, the increment may be a value other than 1.
8) Which index value would you use when referencing the index of the current
property within an iteration?
Choose one answer.
a. <THIS> Incorrect
b. <CURRENT>
c. <NEXT> Incorrect
d. <FIRST> Incorrect
Note: Use the index value of <CURRENT> to reference the current property within an
iteration.
9) Which of the following statements is false?
a. Local variables can be passed between activities

b. You cannot view local variables and their values in the tracer tool Incorrect
c. You cannot view the contents of the parameter page in the clipboard viewer
Incorrect
d. You can view parameters and their values in the tracer tool Incorrect
Note: Local Variables cannot be passed between activities and are valid only within the
activity where they are set. This is the principle difference between local variables and
parameters.
10) True or False: It is possible to comment out an activity step to prevent it from
executing.
True
False Incorrect
Note: To prevent an activity step from executing, comment it out by putting // in the Label
column. This is very useful in testing.
11) True or False: You must always define the primary page of an activity on the
Pages & Classes tab.
True Incorrect
False
Note: If you do not define the primary page on the Pages & Classes tab, PRPC assumes the
rules Applies To class as the class of the primary page (referenced using the keyword
PRIMARY).
12) Users need to make an adjustment to the case (cover) urgency and all the
claims (covered work objects) belonging to that case such that:
1. The value entered by the user, v, causes the new urgency to be equal to the
original urgency + v,
MSAT Internal
2. The urgency on the case and claims are ONLY updated if all claims can be
updated. If a claim cannot be updated, an error message displays explaining what
work object could not be updated and why, and
3. If the issue is locking, include the user name who has the lock.
How do you get the information for the user who has the lock?
Choose one answer.
a. You cant get the information so you cant satisfy this requirement Incorrect
b. Leverage the LockInfoPage to see who has the lock
c. DetermineLockString will lock the claim items for you so this situation will never arise
Incorrect
d. This information is stored in pxRequestor.pxUserIdentifier Incorrect
Note: In case a lock failure occurs when you do an obj -open or obj -open-by-handle, you can
use the lockinfo text box on the method to specify a page name. The lock information for the
object is stored under the pxUpdateOperator on the lockpage.
13) Can a cover and a covered work object belong to different class groups?
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: Covers and the work objects they contain must belong to the same application
classgroup.
14) What is the difference between a database lock and an object lock?
Choose one answer.
a. Object level locks persist for longer than database level lock and prevent two users from
making changes to the record simultaneously
b. Database locks are held for a longer duration than object locks Incorrect
c. None they are the same Incorrect
Note: An object level lock prevents two people from making changes at the same time, thus
protecting work object integrity. If you did not have object level locking, it would be possible for
person A to overwrite person Bs changes without realizing that Person B had already written
data to the database.
15) What is the entity relationship between covers and covered items?
Choose one answer.
a. One-to-Many
b. Many-to-Many Incorrect
c. Many-to-One Incorrect
d. One-to-One Incorrect
Note: There is a one-to-many relationship between the cover and its covered work objects.
Covered work objects can only belong to one cover.
16) What is the entity relationship between folders and foldered items?
Choose one answer.
a. One-to-One Incorrect
b. Many-to-One Incorrect
c. One-to-Many Incorrect
d. Many-to-Many
Note: There is a many-to-many relationship between folders and work objects. The same work
object can be added to multiple folders.
17) Which shape allows you to spawn a flow for each element in an embedded list?
Choose one answer.
a. Spin-Off Incorrect
MSAT Internal
b. Sub-Flow Incorrect
c. Swim Lane Incorrect
d. Split-forEach
Note: The Split-forEach shape allows you to spawn the same flow for each element in a page
list. This allows multiple assignments to be created on the given work object.
18) After a ticket is raised can you resume processing from the point where the
ticket was invoked?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: A ticket is a true goto or jump in the process and does not provide any functionality
to resume back to where the flow was. The ticket breaks the normal execution of the flow and
has no way to resume from where it was raised.
19) What value does having multiple end shapes in a flow provide?
a. None, because you cannot have multiple end shapes in a flow. Incorrect
b. Helps to keep the flow clean and also provides a status at each end-shape that can be used
from the parent flow.
c. It only keeps the flow clean. Incorrect
d. It allows you to run an activity at each end shape. Incorrect
Note: Multiple end shapes allow you to keep the flow clean and at the same set a status at
each end shape. This status can then be used by the parent flow to branch the flow down the
appropriate path.
20) True or False: Screen flows have the same stencil/flow shapes as any other flow?
True Incorrect
False
Note: Screen flows have a limited set of shapes available. This keeps the flows simple and at
the same time limits the functionality that can be done for a screen flow.
21) In a java step inside an activity, you need to create an instance of the vector
class. What is the valid way to do this in PRPC?
Choose one answer.
a. Vector x = new Vector () Incorrect
b. java.util.Vector x = new java.util.Vector()
c. java.library.Vector x = new java.library.Vector() Incorrect
Note: You must include the java.util.Vector library.

22) What does the tools.getDatabase () method do? (Tools is an instance of the
PublicAPI object.)
Choose one answer.
a. It connects to the database and creates a new page. Incorrect
b. It finds specific information in the database that can be used for current processing.
Incorrect
c. It associates a database instance with the current processing. Incorrect
d. It gets a connection to the PegaRULES database instance associated with the current
processing
Note: The tools.getDatabase() method enables you to interface with other systems to complete
current processing.
23) How do you obtain a lock on a row in the PegaRULES database through the
PublicAPI ?
Choose one answer.
MSAT Internal
a. tools.lock() Incorrect
b. tools.getDatabase().lock(, false).getLockManager(). where is set as a stringmap in a
clipboard page Incorrect
c. tools.getDatabase().getLockManager().lock(, false) where is set as a stringmap in a
clipboard page.
d. tools.getDatabse().lock() Incorrect
Note: You need to include the getLockManager() and lock() methods
24) How would you refer to the step page of a java step in an activity?
Choose one answer.

a. Tools.findPage(myStepPage) Incorrect
b. Use of the implicitly available instance myStepPage (e.g. myStepPage.addMessage)
c. Tools.findPage(pagename) Incorrect
Note: In activity steps, myStepPage is the object of class ClipboardPage. It refers to the page
that was defined as the step page for that particular step.
25) What should you do to update an external database?

a. Call your Lead System Architect and ask what you should do. Incorrect
b. Use the RDB-Save method.
c. Write a java step in an activity that creates and manages the database connection and
executes the SQL query. Incorrect
d. Write a java function that can be called in any activity within the application. More reuse
than option A. Incorrect
Note: By using an RDB-Save method, you are developing a system that is built for change. You
do not need to worry.
26) Which classes are history records created for?

Choose one answer.
a. Work Classes Incorrect
b. Data Classes Incorrect
c. Rule Classes Incorrect
d. All of the Above
Note: History is created for work, data, and rule classes.

27) Which of the following are out of the box routing algorithms?
Choose one answer.
a. Route to a balanced skilled group Incorrect
b. Route to a skilled workbasket Incorrect
c. Route to a specific user Incorrect
d. All of the Above
Note: PRPC offer out of the box routing activities that should always be reviewed when
working with routing. There are out of the box activities to push work to skilled workbaskets, to
an individual, or to an individual who has the necessary skills and balance the work to the user
with the least amount of work.
28) Which concept is associated with Pull Routing?

Choose one answer.
a. Worklist Routing Incorrect
b. Load Balanced Routing Incorrect
c. GetNextWork
Note: The GetNextWork concept is used with Pull Routing. The system can determine how to
pull work and assign the given work to a user.
MSAT Internal
29) What drives the order in which work is pulled by the GetNextWork algorithm?
Choose one answer.
a. It is driven by the access group. Incorrect
b. It is controlled by the Operator ID tab.
c. It is controlled by the application rule. Incorrect
Note: The operator ID record allows you to define for each operator how work should be
pulled. The work can be pulled from the worklist first or from workbaskets. When deciding how
workbaskets should be processed you can now have it pull from the order on the operator ID,
or merge all workbaskets first then pull most urgent, or have it pull from all workbaskets for the
workgroup.
30) True or False: Can you define SLA's for assignments and also for work objects?
True
False Incorrect
Note: SLA's can be defined at each assignment and also for a work object. The work object SLA
is defined by the pySLANAME which is set in the model for the work object.
31) The calculation types (e.g. Sum Of, Value Of, etc.) available in a Rule-DeclareExpression are:
Choose one answer.
a. Dependent on the applies to class of the rule. Incorrect
b. Dependent on if the expression is context-free or context sensitive. Incorrect
c. Dependent on the type of the input properties. Incorrect
d. Dependent on the type of the target property.
Note: Calculation types are only dependent on the type of the target property.
32) Which of the following options in the Change Tracking field enable backward
chaining? (Select all that apply)
a. When used if no value present
b. When used if property is missing
c. Whenever used
d. Whenever inputs change Incorrect
Note: The Whenever inputs change and When applied by a Rule Collection options enable you
to forward chain, not backward chain.
33) Which of the following rules cannot be called by an expression in a manner in
which property changes are tracked?
Choose one answer.
a. Decision Trees Incorrect
b. Decision Tables Incorrect
c. Activities
d. Map Values Incorrect
Note: Activities can only be called via utility function and thus are not changed tracked.
34) The simplest way to test a declarative expression network that performs
aggregate functions (e.g. SUM OF) over a list of items is:

Choose one answer.
a. Create an activity that does property-sets on all of the necessary values. Incorrect
b. Use a model to preset the number of items in the list. Incorrect
c. Use the standard expression tester (the play button from the expression form) as it supports
adding pages to a page list.
Note: The standard expression tester supports adding pages to page lists and allows you to
quickly test a number of different values.
MSAT Internal
35) All of the following rule types are executed declaratively except
Choose one answer.
a. Constraints Incorrect
b. Activity
c. OnChange Incorrect
d. Expressions Incorrect
e. Declare Pages Incorrect
Note: An activity is executed procedurally rather than declaratively.

36) True or False: Backward chaining expressions always lead to worse performance
than forward chaining rules
True Incorrect
False
Note: This statement is false because in some situations, such as taking the sum over an
aggregate list, backward chaining can improve performance.
37) Which of the following statements regarding naming and best practice is true?
Choose one answer.

a. Declarative page names and load activities can be named using the normal naming rules of
PRPC. Incorrect
b. Load activity names must start with the string Load. Declare Page rules must start
Declare_. Incorrect
c. Declare Page rules must start Declare_ as a best practice. Load activities must have an
Activity Type of LoadDeclarativePage.
d. The name (key) of a Declare page is its Class followed by its name (purpose), such as DP1Products.ProductList. Incorrect
Note: The name of the Declare Page rule defines the name of the page it creates. Only
activities labeled as LoadDeclarativePage are referencable from a Declare Pages rule.
38) Which of the following statements are True for When rules in Declare Pages?
(Select all that apply)
a. The page is refreshed when the When condition evaluates to True. Incorrect
b. The When rule defines the logic for refreshing a Node scope Declare page.
Incorrect
c. The page is refreshed when the When condition evaluates to False.
d. The When rule defines the logic for refreshing a Thread scope Declare page.
Note: Thread scoped declared pages can be conditionally refreshed. The When rule that
governs this process tests the question, Is this page fresh? If false, the page is stale and is
refreshed.
39) Which operation is valid on Declare Pages in the clipboard?

Choose one answer.
a. Executing the Page-Remove method in an activity.
b. Executing the Property-Set method in an activity. Incorrect
c. Using the Delete Page action in the clipboard Viewer tool. Incorrect
d. Using the Update Page action in the clipboard Viewer tool. Incorrect
Note: Declare Pages in the clipboard are protected from being altered manually to maintain
data integrity. Removal, however, just forces the system to recreate the page when next
required.
40) Which of the following is a difference between a declarative page

defined as Node level versus Thread level?
Choose one answer.
a. Node level pages are read-only, and Thread level are not Incorrect
MSAT Internal
b. Thread level pages can use a When rule to determine if the page needs to be refreshed;
Node level cannot.
c. Node level pages must be named Declare_Node_. Incorrect
d. Node level pages are loaded when PRPC starts up, and Thread level pages are loaded when
the user logs in. Incorrect
Note: Node level rules can only be refreshed periodically. They cannot use When logic to
determine when to refresh.
41) True or False: Thread level declarative pages can be designed so that
they always hold data related to the current work object.
True
False Incorrect
Note: Using a When rule you can associate the declarative page with the work object and
refresh the declarative page when the work object changes.
42) True or False: You can include a section on a harness that refers to a
Declare_<pagename> page as long as all fields are marked read-only.
True
False Incorrect
Note: Declarative pages can have sections built on them and displayed on a work
object
harness.
43) Which of the following is true about debugging declarative pages?
Choose one answer.

a. You can use the Flush Page button on the rule form to force a page to be flushed. Incorrect
b. The Declare Page Tracer event type allows you to see the loading of declarative pages.
Incorrect
c. PAL contains a number of counters specific to declarative pages. Incorrect
d. All of the above.
Note: All of the above options can be used in debugging declarative pages.
Choose one answer.

a. Decision tables can call other decision tables without having to use a utility function.
Incorrect
b. Decision trees can call other decision trees without having to use a utility function. Incorrect
c. Decision trees can call other decision trees, decision tables, or map values without having to
use a utility function. Incorrect
d. Decision tables can call other decision tables, decision trees, or map values without having
to use a utility function.
Note: Decision tables can only call other decision tables using the Call syntax; to call a
different rule type would require the execution of a utility function.
45) Which of the following rule types can take advantage of function aliases to
improve the readability of business rules?
Choose one answer.
a. Map Values Incorrect
b. Decision Trees
c. Decision Tables Incorrect
d. Declarative Pages Incorrect
Note: Only decision tree forms utilize function aliases.
MSAT Internal
46) Which of the following rule types would normally NOT be delegated to business
users?
Choose one answer.
a. Rule-Declare-DecisionTable Incorrect
b. Rule-Obj-MapValue Incorrect
c. Rule-Obj-Activity
d. Rule-Declare-DecisionTree Incorrect
Note: Activities are normally not delegated to the business as they require a deeper technical
knowledge and often do not contain pure business logic.
47) True or False: Decision trees and decision tables allow you to set a number of
different properties for each result that is returned.
True
False Incorrect
Note: You can set multiple properties per rule using the Take Actions feature on decision
trees and the Additional Action Columns on a decision table.
48) Which of the following statements is true about Rule-Declare-Trigger execution?
Choose one answer.
a. Declarative triggers run directly in the database. Incorrect
b. Declarative triggers always run in a separate requestor from the user's session. Incorrect
c. By default declarative triggers run in the user's current requestor but can be configured to
run in a child requestor.
d. Declarative triggers run only in the current user's requestor. Incorrect
Note: Triggers provide the options to run the trigger activity in the current requestor (default)
or 'In Background On Copy'.
49) Unlike Rule-Declare-Trigger instances, Rule-Declare-OnChange instances:
Choose one answer.
a. Can only run once per user interaction. Incorrect
b. Can programmatically review the changes that caused the rule to fire. Incorrect
c. Can see the previous value of any changed property. Incorrect
d. Can be executed by PRPC running a property-set.
Note: OnChange rules can be executed by the simple act of changing a property's value.
Triggers require some type of persistence operation to occur.
50) Rule-Declare-OnChange rules are different from Rule-Declare-Expressions in
that:
Choose one answer.
a. OnChange rules can execute an activity directly, rather than set a single property.
b. OnChange rules require a front end user to make a change. Incorrect
c. OnChange rules can only track top level properties. Incorrect
d. OnChange rules ONLY use backward chaining to track changes whereas expressions can use
either forward or backward chaining. Incorrect
Note: Expressions can only set a single property at a time.
51) Which of the following allows you to create a zip archive containing rules?
Choose one answer.
a. Rule-Admin-Product Incorrect
b. Choosing File > Export Archive from the Developers Portal Incorrect
c. Choosing Tools > Rule Management > Delete a RuleSet Incorrect
d. All of the above Correct.
Note: Each of the listed processes has an output of a zip archive file. The Delete a Ruleset
option creates a zip archive for recovery purposes.
MSAT Internal
52) When selecting work from the WorkList the out of the box (OOTB) functionality
will be ranked on which of the following? (Choose one)
Choose one answer.
;lj09
a. Work Object urgency value defined by the pySLAName property of your work object and
depending on the assignment urgency. Incorrect
b. Both WorkObject and Assignment Urgency are considered in ranking. Incorrect
c. Assignment urgency only
d. Neither - it works on the FIFO principle Incorrect
53) On the Security Tab of an Activity there is a "May Start" checkbox. In which
circumstance would it be appropriate to leave this box unchecked? (Choose one)

Choose one answer.
a. You don't want the activity to be used yet as it is still under development Incorrect
b. This activity is to be limited in its scope and is not to start other activities. Incorrect
c. You would like to promote the security of your application and want to limit what actions can
start
this activity. Correct,
54) What is the only declarative rule that can use backward chaining?
a. Constraint Incorrect
b. Expressions
c. Index Incorrect
d. OnChange Incorrect
e. Trigger Incorrect
Note: Backward chaining is used only by declare expression when the change tracking option
has one of the following:
When used, if no value present.
When used, if property is missing.
Whenever used.
When applied by a Rule collection.
55) A context-free Declarative Expression allows you to define and execute

expressions on embedded data
classes. True or False
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
56) How would you delegate a rule to a specific group of users? (Choose two)
a. By adding this rule to System-User-MyRules through the Favorites and specifying the access
group
b. By creating a link to that rule in the portal Incorrect
c. By making sure security and portal configuration for this group of user is appropriate
d. By providing developer access to restricted set of users in that group Incorrect
Note: We have to add the rule in the Favorites; we also have to make necessary changes to
that Roles security setting so those users can actually save these rules.
57) Which query will require more memory in the PRPC clipboard memory? Please
choose one answer.
Choose one answer.
a. Select count (*) from pc-work Incorrect
b. Select pzINSKEY from pc-work where pzINSKEY = '1234' Incorrect
c. Select * from pc-work Correct!
d. Select PVZSTREAM from pc-work where pzINSKEY = '1234' Incorrect
MSAT Internal
58) A production system is suddenly running very slow. Looking at the PRPC Alert
log file you see thousands of "Query time exceeds limit" alert messages for the
same query with long elapsed time.
Which one of the following is the correct answer to resolve the problem?
Choose one answer.
a. Remove the "Where Clause" from the query. Incorrect
b. Verify that the database table contains an index on the column name used in the query
"where clause".
Correct!
c. Increase the alert threshold number of the "Query time exceeds limit" alert message to a
higher number to avoid the logging in the alert log file. Incorrect
59) Identify the two statements that are true in the context of the SMA? (Choose
two)
a. The SMA is available in both the prweb.war and prpc_j2ee14.ear deployment files. Incorrect
b. Using SMA you can get the PegaRULES build information. Correct
c. Using SMA you can manage the JDBC connection pool size. Incorrect
d. Using SMA you can see all the integration service listeners and their individual status
Correct
e. Size of the Rules Assembly Cache and Database Cache can be seen in the Memory
Management option. Incorrect
f. SMA cannot be configured to access multiple nodes. Incorrect
60) What is the best way to report on embedded data structures? (I.E. data that
lives within a pagelist)

a. Build a list view which reports directly on the embedded data Incorrect
b. Build a declarative index that maps to the embedded data structure and build the report in
the index class
c. Expose as many columns as needed so you can build the listview report Incorrect
d. Use a custom activity to write the data to an external table and then build a listview to
report on the data. Incorrect
Note: b is the best option as it uses PRPC to map the embedded data to the index class and
your reports can run on the exposed columns in the index table.
61) Which of the following are true about Summary View but are not true for List
View? (Choose three)
a. Can have multiple criteria Incorrect
b. Can define threshold. True, we can only define threshold in summary view.
c. Can have paging. Incorrect
d. Can have charts. True, only summary view can have charts.
e. Can have trend reporting. True, only summary view can have trend reporting.
62) We can improve the reusability of a rule in PRPC in which of the following ways?
(Choose Three)
a. By using Application Profiler Incorrect
b. By following naming conventions and Documentation Correct.
c. By using Availability feature in the Rule form Incorrect
d. By using parameters in the rules where possible Correct.
e. By completing the history tab
63) Please complete the following sentence. Access When rules
Choose one answer.
a. Are instances of Rule-Obj-When referenced that determine which users have access to a
given application. Incorrect
b. Are used to dynamically grant privileges and define role entitlements based on the specified
criteria
Correct!
c. Can only refer to properties on the primary clipboard page. Incorrect
d. Are the same as Rule-Obj-When rules except that they can call utility functions. Incorrect
MSAT Internal
64) Which four statements are true about roles? (Choose four.)
a. A role defines the levels of access to rules that apply to a class and instances of that class
b. Roles can be created and modified using the Role Editor
c. A role defines various levels of access to RuleSets and RuleSet versions Incorrect
d. A role defines a list of privileges a user has on a class level
e. Rule-Access-When rules provide conditional grants of privileges.
f. An access group can only have one role defined Incorrect
65) In the context of PRPC Services and Connectors, identify the statement(s) that
are true? (Choose two)
a. Service Package is used to generate the WSDL file for an end client that wishes to use a
SOAP service.
WSDL files are used only in the context of web service integration.
b. The JMS integration interface supports both point-to-point and publish/subscribe messaging
models.
The JMS integration interface supports interactions between your Process Commander
application and other systems through the Java Message Service (JMS). Process Commander
supports JMS through both services and connectors. JMS services can receive (consume)
messages from a JMS topic or queue and produce responses to those messages. This facility
supports both point-to-point and publish/subscribe messaging models. It supports durable
subscriptions, automatic acknowledgment and, if Process Commander is deployed as an
enterprise application, transaction-based processing.
c. The service package locates the service rule and then assembles a response message from
the input
properties. Incorrect
d. Connector rules are used within PRPC to provide services to external systems. Incorrect
66) An extremely cost-conscious client uses Tomcat servers but need services
exported from PRPC. Can you implement Rule-Service-EJB?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: Tomcat is not a full application server and cannot support this
67) Which of the following is NOT a PRPC provided tool that assists in creating rich
and dynamic user interfaces?
Choose one answer.
a. A Style Wizard that assists in creating and maintaining CSS styles that are applied to
screens. Incorrect
b. A list to list control that allows users to simply drag and drop items from one list to another.
Incorrect
c. Selectable listviews, that allow users to view report style data and interact with it by
selecting one or many rows Incorrect
d. A carousel style widget for displaying related work objects
68) Which of the following is not true about portals?
Choose at least one answer.
a. An operator can have multiple portals. Incorrect
b. In PRPC v5.5 developers must use Composite Portal type No, it is not a requirement,
traditional
portal can also be used.
c. Portal is rule resolved Incorrect
d. Portal is specified in Data-Admin-Operator ID No, portals are specified in the access group
not in the operator record.
e. Skin of the user portal is specified in Portal Rule Incorrect
69) RuleSet prerequisites are part of rule resolution and enforced during run-time.
True or False
True Incorrect
MSAT Internal
False
Note: Correct, RuleSet prerequisitesare enforced at development time, not during run-time.
70) You can define a circumstance of a rule if a base rule does not exist. True or
False
True Incorrect
False
Note: False is the correct answer. A base rule must exist before a circumstanced version can be
created.
71) Can you create an agent in Legacy Mode in PRPC v5.5?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: Legacy Mode was been deprecated in PRPC v5.
72) When you create a Standard Agent to queue work, under which access group
does the agent process a work object?
Choose one answer.
a. Its own specified on the security tab. Incorrect
b. The requestor who queued the work.
c. The access group specified under Data-Admin-Requestor:Batch Incorrect
d. It doesn't need an access group as the system figures out how to process the queue.
Incorrect
Note: Standard agents that use Auto Queue management are context based. They use the
same Access Group to run as the requestor who queued the work.
73) What are the three modes in which an agent can run in PRPC v5.5?
a. Legacy
b. Advanced
c. Standard
d. Deprecated Incorrect
Note: Deprecated is not a mode.
74) Can you enable Auto Queue Management for Advanced agents?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: Auto Queue Management is available only for Standard Agents.
75) Do you have to explicitly create Schedule instances for the Agent on every
node?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: Schedule instances are auto created by PRPC.
76) What is the Agent Manager
Choose one answer.
a. An out of the box agent that manages PRPC requestor sessions and times them out.
Incorrect
b. A master agent that creates schedule instances from Agent definitions.
c. An out of the box agent that manages the queue for standard agents. Incorrect
d. A master agent that bypasses activity authentication for agents. Incorrect
MSAT Internal
77) Are Agent Schedule instances created if the Enable this Agent checkbox on the
Agents Definition is disable?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
78) What kind of a cache is the lookup list cache?
Choose one answer.
a. Database level cache for properties and metadata about properties Incorrect
b. App Server disk based cache
c. App server memeory based cache Incorrect
d. The only way to cache compiled rules Incorrect
Note: Lookup list cache is a mechanism to store the results of a query against the database on
the application server in the PRPC temporary directory.
79) How do you utilize the lookup list cache?
Choose one answer.
a. By calling @baseclass.lookuplist or one of its subclass variants in an activity step
b. By calling tools.retrieveLookupList() in a java step Incorrect
c. By calling out of the box supplied Rule Utility Function listLookup Incorrect
Note: @baseclass.lookuplist forms the basis for all lookuplist calls. This activity allows you to
specify two parameters for doing lookups.
80) What will happen if the System Pulse does not run in an multi-node
environment? Choose Two.
a. Rule changes made on one node will not be visible on other nodes
b. Static content caches wont be synchronized. Incorrect
c. Lucene indexes for full text searching wont be synchronized
d. Property conclusion cache wont be synchronized Incorrect
Note: general, the following four events are published to the pr_sys_updatescache table:
Cache (changes to the rules)
DELLC (Lookup list cache changes)
Index (Lucene Index)
RFDEL (Rule File Deletes)
The pulse running on each node will wake up and pick the records that were not created by it
within the window of time starting with the last pulse run which in turn would invalidate the
cache entries on the node and cause RA Cache and possible Rule Instance Cache to be
refreshed after compilation of that rule occurs.
81) What is the advantage of Rule Assembly Cache?
Choose one answer.
a. No advantage, databases are superfast and so is code generation this is an overhead
Incorrect
b. Generated and compiled code ensures that there is no further database activity to retrieve
rules and makes the system fast
c. Even though the code is generated external systems can update the rules thereby forcing
the system to regenerate the rules so there is no advantage Incorrect
d. First Use Assembly forces the system to regenerate the code every time the system restarts
thereby ensuring that the latest rules are always available to the user Incorrect
Note: The process of generating java code, compiling it and storing java compiled class files on
disk ensures that once a system is primed further database activity is minimized thus ensuring
faster performance.
82) What happens if the extract marker file is deleted from the temporary directory?
a. Only Rule-Utility-Function rules are recompiled Incorrect
MSAT Internal
b. Previously generated code is moved to the backup directory and full code regeneration
occurs
c. The usage of the file is deprecated and it makes no difference if the file is deleted Incorrect
d. The file is created every time you reboot the application server and tells the system to
regenerate the code Incorrect
Note: Contrary to what the contents of the extract marker file says, deleting the file will cause
code regeneration and compilation.
83) What is the Rule Instance Cache?
Choose one answer.
a. In Memory Cache of the XML of a frequently accessed rule
b. Disk based cache of the XML of a frequently accessed rule Incorrect
c. First Use Assembly cache Incorrect
d. Cache of the generated and instantiated rule instance Incorrect
84) What happens if you delete the java file for a rule and restart the system?
Choose one answer.
a. Code is regenerated and compiled again Incorrect
b. Nothing as the class file still exists
c. Code is retrieved from the PRGenBackup directory and recompiled Incorrect
d. Class file is deleted and code is regenerated and recompiled Incorrect
Note: The rule execution process is highly optimized if a class file is present it uses that to
prevent
compilations.
85) I am trying to find out who is holding the lock on a given work object. What is
the best way to do this without trying to lock the object?
Choose one answer.
a. Use Ob-Open-By-Handle and use the LockInfoPage Incorrect
b. Run a RDB method against the database to see who holds the lock Incorrect
c. Use the tools.getLockManager().isLocked method in a java step
Note: The public API has powerful facilities that can be leveraged to find information about
locks without locking the work object.
86) I am entering my expense report into PRPC and it always crashes due to bad
active controls. I log back in as the same person and I am prompted to release a
lock. If I am the same person, why I am prompted to release the lock?
Choose one answer.
a. PRPC locks are held at the requestor level
b. Someone else locked the object while your browser crashed. Incorrect
c. The lock went soft and someone stole it. Incorrect
d. The Expense Report system has special code in it that always asks you to release a lock.
Incorrect
Note: All PRPC locks are held at the requestor level. There can be multiple requestors for a
given user, which means you can open two IE windows to do work on the same object.
Requestor level locking prevents you from opening two windows to work on the same object.
87) When you select File > Open > Portal > WorkUser and a new portal opens in a
window, is this a new requestor, thread, Thread?
Choose one answer.
a. New Requestor, New Thread, and New thread Incorrect
b. New Requestor, New Thread, and Old thread Incorrect
c. Same Requestor, New Thread, and same thread
d. Same Requestor, same Thread, and same thread Incorrect
Note: One Requestor, one underlying Operating System thread and multiple Thread
namespaces.
MSAT Internal
88) If I perform the tasks listed below in the sequence shown in an Activity on an
Integer Property X, what is the final value in the database?
1. Property-Set (value = 5)
2. Obj-Save
4. Obj-Save with Write now
5. Commit
Choose one answer.
a. 10 Incorrect
b. 5
c. 0 Incorrect
d. 15 Incorrect
Note: The first obj-sav puts the value of 5 on teh deferred ops list. The second obj-save writes
the value of 10 to the database directly. The final commit flushes the deferred ops list which
means the at the value of 5 will overwrite the value of 10.
Integer Property X, what is the final value in the database?
2. Obj-Save
4. Obj-Save
5. Commit
Choose one answer.
a. 10
b. 5 Incorrect
c. 0 Incorrect
d. 15 Incorrect
Note: Only one update statement will be on the deferred ops list so 10 will overwrite 5.
Integer Property X, what happens?
2. Obj-Save
4. Obj-Save
5. Rollback
Choose one answer.
a. All Ob-Saves are rolled back and Deferred Ops list is empty
b. Ob-Save #4 is rolled back Incorrect
c. Obj-Save #2 is rolled back Incorrect
d. Nothing happens as there is no commit Incorrect
Note: PRPC rolls back the entire deferred operations list.
Integer Property X, how many SQL update call are made to the datatabasee?
2. Obj-Save
4. Obj-Save
5. Commit
Choose one answer.
a. 1
MSAT Internal
b. 2 Incorrect
c. 0 Incorrect
d. 3 (2 for Obj-Saves, 1 for Commit) Incorrect
Note: Updates are consolidated so only one statement is applied.
92) Which API in JEE is responsible for asynchronous messaging?
Choose one answer.
a. JMS
b. EJB Incorrect
c. JNDI Incorrect
d. JSF Incorrect
Note: JMS allows you to connect to queues and topics and thus provides for asynchronous
forms of messaging.
93) Can you delete a Declarative Page from the Clipboard using the controls in the
clipboard window?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: You cannot delete this from the clipboard, but you can flush it from the clipboard using
the
Rule-Declare-Page definition or the SMA.
94) If you log in as a Developer and then open the Work Manager portal from within
the Developer portal, can you view the Developer Portal clipboard from the
clipboard page of the Work Manager?
a. Yes
b. No Incorrect
Note: One Requestor has only one thread but can have multiple Threads. Clipboard facilities
allow you to switch context of the Threads.
95) Which two JavaMail protocols does PRPC support? Choose Two.
a. POP
b. IMAP
c. MAPI Incorrect
d. UDP Incorrect
Note: POP and IMAP are in the public domain and are free so Java supports them.
96) On what Page in the clipboard would you find the currently logged in requestor?
Choose one answer.
a. User Pages > pxRequestor Incorrect
b. pxRequestor
c. OperatorID Incorrect
d. psThread > pxRequestor Incorrect
97) What does VFS stand for?
Choose one answer.
a. Very Fine System Incorrect
b. Virtual File System
c. Virtual Federated System Incorrect
d. Vitrual Foreign System Incorrect
98) What is Requestor Persistence? Choose Two
a. You can put a requestor to sleep on demand. Incorrect
b. PRPC's way to store requestor details in the database so that sessions can be regenerated
on another node in case of a node failure
MSAT Internal
c. PRPC's way to duplicate a requestor on multiple application servers to do load balancing

Incorrect
d. PRPC's way to reduce the number of concurrent requestors in a JVM by passivating idle or
orphaned requestors thereby reducing the impact of memory usage in the JVM
Note: Failover configuration is achievable by configuring two settings in prconfig.xml.
PersistRequestor to AtInteractionEnd (never AtInteractionEnd OnTimeout) and
PersistRequestor/storage to database (database filesystem). If failover is not required, but
memory space taken by the requestor is a problem, you can choose filesystem instead of
database and OnTimeout instead of AtInteractionEnd.
99) If the client wants to do authentication and authorization using Siteminder,
which mode of deployment would you choose?
Choose one answer.
a. Doesn't matter
b. WAR Incorrect
c. EAR Incorrect
Note: Authentication with Siteminder does not require JEE facilities such as JAAS so the mode
of deployment can be EAR or WAR.
100) The client has a requirement to do JSR94 integration. What kind of deployment
model would you choose?
Choose one answer.
a. EAR with an application server like Tomcat Incorrect
b. WAR with an application server Websphere Incorrect
c. EAR with an application server like Weblogic Incorrect
d. Deployment is not required.
Note: JSR94 invokes PRPC outside the context of the application server so a deployment is NOT
required.
101) Select two statements that describe Manifest files.
a. A Manifest file is created by the jar tool and contains the details on when an archive was
created and by what JDK.
b. Manifest files can be used to declare classpath dependencies for the WAR file when it is
packaged inside an EAR file so that the jar files can be stored at the EAR level, thus reducing
the size of the WAR file.
c. Manifest files are a byproduct of doing a deployment on Tomcast and are automatically
produced by the Servlet container. Incorrect
d. Manifest files are usually shipped by the Global Customer Service (GCS) department for
Pegasystems and contain hot fixes. Incorrect
Note: MANIFEST files are created by the jar tool and can include references to jars located in
other places in an EAR hierarchy. These are independent of Pega or a container like
102) A client wants to monitor an email account and create work objects whenever
an email is received by that account. However, the client does not support IMAP or
POP and can only do MAPI integration. Does PRPC support this out of the box?
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: Javamail only supports POP and IMAP. To do MAPI integration would require a JNI-COM
Bridge or
leverage the new Outlook Wev services provided by Microsoft.
103) In an EAR deployment are MQ Listeners disabled by default?
a. Yes
b. No Incorrect
MSAT Internal
Note: They are disabled by default but can be enabled by making changes to prconfig.xml as
they are polling threads which are slower as compared to the dedicated ones in a WAR
deployment.
104) What does the -t option do on a jar command?
a. Verbosely describe what the command does Incorrect
b. Create a new archive file Incorrect
c. Unjar an existing archive file if used with the -f option Incorrect
d. List the table of contents for the archive
105) What is an advantage of externalizing prconfig.xml?
a. No need to repackage the deployment in the event of a change
b. No need to restart the application server to pick up changes in the prconfig.xm. Incorrect
c. No need to encrypt and decrypt prconfig.xm. every time you unzip the file Incorrect
106) The Byte Governor alert is triggered when:
Choose one answer.
a. The number of bytes read or written to the database exceeds the threshold Incorrect
b. The number of bytes in the clipboard exceeds the threshold Incorrect
c. The number of bytes read from the database in a single query exceeds the threshold
Incorrect
d. The number of bytes read from all queries in an interaction exceeds the threshold
Note: The sum of all the bytes read from the database are accumulated for the interaction, and
if the sum
exceeds the threshold it triggers this alert. Therefore, when running a number of smaller
queries that add
up to a lot of data, the last query that goes over the limit causes the alert.
107) If you get an alert for DB Time, a possible root cause could be all of the
following except:
Choose one answer.
a. Too many rows fetched
b. Missing index on a table Incorrect
c. Lock Contention Incorrect
d. Too few connections in the connection pool Incorrect
Note: The time measured by this alert is actually from the time the SQL is sent from PRPC to
the database to the time that the database responds that the results are ready. The actual
fetching of rows is not included when determining the time for this threshold.
108) Allowing class instances to be stored in a default table is a poor design
practice because:
Choose one answer.
a. The default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performance
b. Data is purged by the system cleaner. Incorrect
c. The default table is too small to hold all of your data. Incorrect
d. The default table names are too generic. Incorrect
Note: The default tables only contain a primary key index and have the minimal set of exposed
columns thus
insuring the worst performance. While it is possible to add indexes and expose columns from
these OOTB tables, it is better to isolate each classs instances to a dedicated table and create
indexes and columns that are unique to that class.
109) The PAL reading for Bytes read from database Storage Stream refers to
Choose one answer.
a. How many bytes were read from exposed columns. Incorrect
b. How many bytes were read from pzInsKey and other PRPC internally used properties.
Incorrect
c. How many bytes were read from pzPvStream.
MSAT Internal
d. All of the above Incorrect

e. None of the above Incorrect
Note: The term Storage Stream is synonymous with the terms BLOB and pzPvStream .
Excessive values
here are potentially due to ListViews and other rules that are not fully relying on exposed
columns.
110) pxOutputBytes is a measure of:
a. The number of bytes sent to the browser.
b. The number of bytes sent to PRPC from services. Incorrect
c. The number of bytes sent to connectors. Incorrect
d. The number of bytes sent to the PegaRULES database. Incorrect
Note: pxOutputBytes is a key indicator that measures how many bytes are sent from the PRPC
server to the
browser. A very large number indicates that too much information or a very complex structure
is being
sent to the browser and could be an indication for why the browser machine might be slow,
why the
network is strained, and/or why PRPC as a server might be CPU bound in generating all this
content.
111) The RA counter in the PAL summary screen pertain to:
Choose one answer.
a. How many Rule Alerts were generated. Incorrect
b. Rules Assembly counters.
c. These are for internal use only and can be safely ignored. Incorrect
d. None of the above Incorrect
112) Alert messages can be retrieved from a variety of sources, except:
Choose one answer.
a. Alert Log Incorrect
b. Autonomic Event Services (AES) Incorrect
c. PAL
d. MyAlerts Incorrect
Note: Alerts are generated by the system and are retrievable via the development portal on
MyAlerts ; via the System Management Application to retrieve the Alert log; and optionally
using the add-on product AES.
PAL is the tool used to show performance counters.
113) To speed up ListView reports that refer to certain properties, you can expose
the property. Which of the following can be directly exposed?
Choose one answer.
a. Embedded Property Incorrect
b. Page List/Group Incorrect
c. Value List/Group Incorrect
d. None of the above
Note: When you determine that you need to expose properties for reporting, consider the
following guidelines: For single-value, non-embedded properties, you can directly change the
schema of the storage
tables by adding new columns for the properties For complex or embedded properties, you
must use declarative indexing to expose the properties
114) Since performance related messages are sent to the ALERT Log file, it is not
important to inspect the Error Log file.
True Incorrect
False
MSAT Internal
Note: While most performance related issues will be reported in the ALERT log, there are times
that errors
reported in the Error log file are root causes for subtle and indirect performance issues. A clean
error log
is a PRPC best practice.
115) The CPU counters for PAL are always available.
True Incorrect
False
Note: CPU counters are produced only when PRPC is running on a Windows server, and then
only if the
Initialization/ usenativelibrary prconfig.xml setting is enabled.
116) The generation of alerts should be disabled in a production system.
True Incorrect
False
Note: It is not possible to disable this feature in PRPC. Also, it is desirable to continue to
monitor for and correct alerts that are generated in production.
117) When you export the results of a report to Excel, you can do which of the
following?
a. You can use Excel to only view data. Incorrect
b. You can export numbers to Excel using a different precision than what is displayed
c. You can both view data and modify data in Excel - submitting the changed values back to
your PRPC application.
d. You can bypass Excel and export directly into Access. Incorrect
118) If you have an embedded property, page list, or page group, you can easily use
these in PRPC Reporting via these mechanisms. (Select all that are true.)
a. There is no need to expose any additional properties, as PRPCs report mechanisms can
efficiently report on even unexposed columns. Incorrect
b. Declare Index rules can be used to expose many, or all, of the items in an embedded list or
group.
c. Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top-level
property, and this top-level property can be exposed so that it can be used in reports.
d. Declare Expression rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top-level
property, and this top-level property can be exposed so that it can be used in reports.
119) When Paging is enabled in a List View and the user clicks a column header at
runtime to sort, what happens?

a. Nothing - the column headers aren't clickable. Incorrect
b. Pagination is only supported Summary Views Incorrect
c. The List View can be configured to sort all of the result set - not just rows that are currently
displayed.
d. The List View can be configured to just sort the rows that are currently displayed.
120) In an Activity, you can pass parameters to a ListView by:
Choose one answer.

a. In a step before calling Obj-List-View, include a Property-Set step to place values into the
parameter page.
b. List View rules cannot accept parameters. Incorrect
c. Including them directly into the parameters for the Obj-List-View method Incorrect
d. Include a Java step to place values onto the parameter page/ Incorrect
121) When creating reports, which of the following performance implications

should you consider (select all that apply)?
MSAT Internal
a. If incorrectly implemented, reports can have a huge drain on the systems performance.
b. If possible, you should limit untrained resources from changing the fields in the criteria
sections (the values are OK), since they may choose fields that are not properly indexed
c. PRPC Reports always run against the same database that is being used for ongoing work
transactions. Incorrect
d. You should insist in doing performance tests using a representative amount of data to what
you expect in production.
122) You can create reports as graphs using which of the following mechanisms?
Choose one answer.
a. Using the Obj-Graph Method Incorrect
b. List View Incorrect
c. Summary View
d. Either a Summary View or a List View Incorrect
123) Rule-Declare-Index rules . . . . (select all that are correct).
a. Provide a way to expose properties from the TOP and PARENT pages for the page list or
group
b. Automatically create database-level indexes Incorrect
c. Provide a way to expose properties on embedded and repeating Page Lists
d. Provide a way to expose properties that are Value Lists and Value Groups. Incorrect
124) You have a report where each row is really packed with data. However, 5% of
the time users need to see 10 additional fields. Which of the options below would be
your initial recommended way to approach this problem?
Choose one answer.
a. Leverage the Smart Info capability so that when users need the additional fields, all they
need to do is hover over the row of interest.
b. Convince the user that this requirement cannot be implemented. Incorrect
c. Provide an additional button or flow action that, when the is clicked, the initial report will be
replaced with a screen showing all of the detailed information for that single row. Incorrect
d. Reduce the font size of the report to cram in the additional 10 fields, even if this makes the
report barely readable. Incorrect
125) A Summary View provides multi-level report display with drill-down capability.
The drill-down can be (select all that are true).
a. Summary View
b. Detailed View
c. List View
d. Graph Incorrect
126) Select all of the statements below that are true about Summary View rules.
a. They provide Trend reporting - presenting counts of events that occurred at a past moment
in time
b. Can provide Averages over a list of values.
c. They support Thresholds - a colored background that appears behind rows of a report (or
behind values in an interactive chart) to mark a meaningful range.
d. They are often used to implement searches providing the user with a mechanism to select
one or more search results Incorrect
127) In the Application Profile, use cases are categorized by:
Choose one answer.
a. Work Types Only Incorrect
b. Work Party Incorrect
c. Project Resources Incorrect
d. Actors Incorrect
e. Work or Supporting Types
Note: Atomic use cases must be associated with a Work or Supporting type in the profile.
MSAT Internal
128) What is the primary purpose of the generated Framework class layer?
Choose one answer.
a. As a replacement for the Pega supplied Work- classes. Incorrect
b. To contain specialized rules used by the application. Incorrect
c. As a temporary placeholder for a Pega purchased Framework. Incorrect
d. To contain rules that will be used across the enterprise.
Note: The Framework class layer is a place to hold generalized rules that can be reused
throughout the
enterprise.
129) What is the best way to address a customers request to see custom default
text placed into the
Application Profile document each time it is generated?
Choose one answer.
a. The Application Profile document cannot be changed. Incorrect
b. Create a section rule named ApplicationProfile in an unlocked RuleSet and edit and save
changes. Incorrect
c. Locate the Word template named ApplicationProfile and save a copy into an unlocked
RuleSet to edit and save changes.
d. Locate the Word template named ApplicationProfile, edit, and save changes. Incorrect
Note: The Word Template ApplicationProfile exists in a locked RuleSet and cannot be edited. To
make changes you must save a copy of the template in an unlocked RuleSet and then make
changes.
130) Checking the Store Separately checkbox on the Work Types screen implies:
Choose one answer.
a. A new database table will be automatically created for this work type. Incorrect
b. A new database will be automatically generated for this work type. Incorrect
c. The work class will inherit from the Work-Folder- class. Incorrect
d. A new class group will be generated for this work type.
Note: The Store Separately checkbox indicates that you want the work objects from this work
type to be stored in a separate database table. The Accelerator will create a separate class
group for this work type, which can be mapped to an existing database table. PRPC does not
automatically create databases or tables.
131) The Application Accelerator bases the class and RuleSet names on two
configuration records. What two records are used to determine the names and must
be configured prior to running the accelerator?
Choose one answer.
a. Work Pool and Work Group Incorrect
b. Division and Unit Incorrect
c. Organization and Division
d. Operator ID and Access Group Incorrect
Note: The class names and RuleSets generated from the Accelerator use the developers
current Organization and Division name. This can be changed, but the Organization and
Division records must exist in the system.
132) According to Pega best practices, in which class should rules that are reusable
across the work classes of all divisions reside?
Choose one answer.
a. Work- Incorrect
b. MyCo- // MyCo stands for an arbitrary company name
c. MyCo-Work- Incorrect
d. MyCo-Div1-Work- // Div1 stands for an arbitrary division name Incorrect
MSAT Internal
133) The Enterprise Application Accelerator will generate a work class in the
implementation layer for each corresponding work class in the Framework layer.
Choose one answer.
a. Correct. There will be one Implementation layer class for each Framework layer class.
b. Not Correct. I can choose which Implementation layer classes to generate. Incorrect
134) Pegasystems provided frameworks are part of the:

Choose one answer.
a. Pega Product Layer Incorrect
b. Framework Layer
c. Enterprise Reuse Layer Incorrect
135) What are the two methods of inheritance in PRPC?

Choose one answer.
a. Named and Pattern inheritance Incorrect
b. Directed and Indirect inheritance Incorrect
c. Pattern and Directed inheritance
136) What does CBF stand for?
Choose one answer.

a. Customer Built Framework
b. Core Business Framework Incorrect
137) What is class pollution?
Choose one answer.

a. The burgeoning numbers of custom rules in the Work- class that make navigation in
application work classes difficult.
b. The improper creation of sub-classes to the Work- class. Incorrect
c. The creation of too many rules in the application work class. Incorrect
138) What is the Int- class in the Divisional Reuse Organizational Layer used for?
Choose one answer.
a. For generated connector classes and rules that are shared by all applications within a
division
b. For classes and rules internal to a given division Incorrect
c. For generated connector classes and rules that are shared across all divisions Incorrect
139) Which layer is not part of the 5.4 Enterprise Class Structure?
Choose one answer.
a. The Framework Layer Incorrect
b. The Divisional Reuse Layer Incorrect
c. The Shared Layer
Choose one answer.
a. The Enterprise Class Structure allows building enterprise-grade applications that are
scalable and extendable. Incorrect
b. Pega best practices call for all applications on PRPC v5 platform be built using the Enterprise
Class Structure patterns. Incorrect
c. The Enterprise Class Structure provides the foundation for superior application performance.
141) True or False: Data and work should always reside in separate RuleSets.
True Incorrect
False
142) True or False: It is best practice to call reusable flows that are part of the
framework layer directly from the work portal.
True Incorrect
False
MSAT Internal
143) Which of the following is a good way to minimize the need for hard-coded class
names?
Choose one answer.
a. Use the New Class parameter on the Page-New method and pass in a dynamic value from a
clipboard property.
b. Clone rules and change the name of the class on the Pages & Classes tab. Incorrect
c. Using java code to instantiate pages programmatically. Incorrect
d. Specialize the rule in a new RuleSet and change the class definition. Incorrect
Note: You would use the New Class parameter on the Page-New method to pass in a dynamic
value from a
clipboard property.
144) Which of the following is least important in promoting reuse?
Choose one answer.
a. Building a single activity with many steps all doing different things.
b. Creating a robust and intuitive class structure and placing rules in the right class. Incorrect
c. Creating rules that execute a single logical function. Incorrect
d. Documenting rules well so they can be read by other users. Incorrect
Note: Building a single activity with many steps all doing different things is least important in
promoting reuse.
Choose one answer.
a. Reuse can occur within an application and across applications. Incorrect
b. Specialization is only important to BRE implementations.
c. Reuse and Specialization are key aspects of good PRPC design. Incorrect
d. Specialization can occur based on many different factors. Incorrect
Note: Specialization is important in all types of implementations.
146) Security and Persistence Type models are often implemented as classes
because:
Choose one answer.
a. Classes provide the most OOTB security options. Incorrect
b. Classes provide the most work object persistence flexibility. Incorrect
c. Creating classes is easy and can be done live in production. Incorrect
d. All of the above Incorrect
e. A & B only
Note: Classes provide the security and work object persistence required in SP Type model
implementations.
147) The most beneficial type of reuse is being able to copy a rule from one class to
another.
True. Incorrect
False
Note: This is false because copying a rule is not true reuse. Reusability is the ability execute
the same rule from multiple places. Creating copies of rules leads to maintenance issues as
more and more copies are
created.
148) Do workgroups (Data-Admin-WorkGroup) get rule-resolved?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
Note: Rule types inheriting from Data- do not get rule-resolved.
MSAT Internal
149) During the "Find Best Candidate Instance" step in rule resolution, which of the
following criteria takes precedence over the rest?
Choose one answer.
a. Exact match of a circumstanced rule, either multivariate or property.
b. The base rule. Incorrect
c. The correct circumstance date. Incorrect
d. A correct date/time range. Incorrect
Note: Exact match of a circumstanced rule, either multivariate or property, is considered first.
150) What is the 'Skim RuleSet feature?
Choose one answer.
a. A default performance report. Incorrect
b. An administration option to bring rules forward among RuleSets versions.
c. An administration option to bring rules forward among RuleSets. Incorrect
d. It does not exist. Incorrect
Note: Since the Rule Resolution algorithm does not look at previous RuleSet version major
releases, you might need to bring all the original rules forward to use as a starting point.
151) Which of the following options is false regarding the role played by the Rule
Cache in the Rule Resolution process?
Choose one answer.
a. Makes the rule resolution process operate faster. Incorrect
b. Includes all rules on the final rule candidate list. Incorrect
c. Clearing the Rule Cache has significant performance implications. Incorrect
d. Does not include the RuleSet list the request was based on.
Note: Rule Cache does include the RuleSet list the request is based on.
152) True or False: Availability = Blocked halts the processing of your application
and throws an exception.
True
False Incorrect
Note: The correct answer is True as Availability = Blocked does indeed halt the processing.
153) True or False: It is more important to have fewer variations in RuleSet lists
than small lists.
True
False Incorrect
Note: The correct answer is True, since fewer variations in RuleSet lists are better for overall
performance.
154) Order the Rule Resolution Algorithm steps as they occur during rule-resolution:
Discard inapplicable RuleSets and Versions Step 4
Discard rules where Availability = No/Draft Step 3
Find best instance (and check to make sure there is not a duplicate) Step 8
Choose all instances with correct purpose Step 2
Verify that the user is authorized to reach the rule (security) Step 10
Discard all candidates not defined on a class in the ancestor tree Step 5
Rank remaining candidates by: Override, Class, RuleSet, Circumstancing, Date/Time Step 6
Set the cache Step 7
Check that Availability does not show BLOCKED Step 9
Check Rule Cache. If rule is present in cache, go to Step X. Step 1
155) Given the class structure below, what are the first eight classes PRPC will
interrogate to find rules if the initial reference class is B5?
MSAT Internal
B0
B1
B2
B3
B4
B5
C1
C2
6
5
4
3
2
1
8
7
156) Given the example class structure shown below, in what order will PRPC
interrogate classes to find an activity called MyActivity if the request begins at
class TRN-Work-Curr?
MSAT Internal
The correct interrogation order is:

1. TRN-Work-Curr
2. TRN-Work
3. TRN4. Work-Cover5. Work6. @baseclass
157) A user requests an activity called MyActivity for the first time. This activity
has been previously used by another user. All of the following must be true for PRPC
to find the cached rule except:
Choose one answer.
a. A user will never use the cache of another user.
b. The RuleSet list of both users match exactly. Incorrect
c. The class from which the rule is being requested is exactly the same as that of the first
request. Incorrect
Note: Rule Cache does not belong to any user. In order for PRPC to find and use the cached
rule, both users must have exactly the same RuleSet list (in the same order) and the Applies To
class of the rule must be the same as that of the first request.
158) All of the following are rule features considered in the Rule Cache except:
Choose one answer.
a. The Applies To class of the rule. Incorrect
b. The rule requested. Incorrect
c. The maximum number of circumstances allowed.
d. The RuleSet list of the user when executing the rule. Incorrect
MSAT Internal
Note: Rule Cache includes all the circumstanced versions instances of the rule, but not any
maximum number of circumstances, since such a limitation does not exist.
159) All of the following circumstancing options are considered during candidate
rule ranking except:
Choose one answer.
a. Multivariate Incorrect
b. Single property Incorrect
c. Date/Time Range Incorrect
d. Duplicate rule
e. Effective date Incorrect
Note: All except Duplicate rule are circumstancing options taken into account during the
candidate rule ranking step in rule resolution.
160) Do Rule-Declare-OnChange rules get rule-resolved?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes
b. No Incorrect
c. Depends on the rule context Incorrect
161) Regarding ranking of rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range, which
of the following statements is true?
Choose one answer.
a. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked first by their end date in
ascending order, and then by the start date in descending order
b. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked last by their end date in
ascending order, and then by the start date in descending order. Incorrect
c. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked first by their end date in
descending order, and then by the start date in ascending order Incorrect
d. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked last by their end date in
descending order, and then by the start date in ascending order Incorrect
Note: Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked first by their end date in
ascending order, and then by the start date in descending order.
162) Which of the following are not rule availability statuses?
a. Final Incorrect
b. Blocked Incorrect
c. Yes Incorrect
d. Withdrawn Incorrect
e. Override
f. No Incorrect
g. Circumstanced
Note: Override and Circumstanced are not rule availability statuses.
163) Which of the following are valid Rule Resolution Algorithm outputs?
Choose one answer.
a. A security exception Incorrect
b. The best rule is ready to be executed Incorrect
c. A duplicate rule exception Incorrect
d. All of the above
Note: All options are valid Rule Resolution Algorithm outputs.
164) Which rule is ranked higher given Circumstance Property = Membership Level
and Circumstance date as listed?
Choose one answer.
MSAT Internal
a. Platinum, March 2007 Incorrect

b. Gold, March 2006
c. Silver, January 2007 Incorrect
Note: The correct answer is Gold, March 2006, since the circumstance property Membership
Level is
considered first when ranking candidates, and the candidate order applied is alphabetical.
165) You have just created a custom rule called Rule-Declare-BusinessDecision and
want to enable
class-based inheritance for rule resolution of that rule. What would you do?
Choose one answer.
a. Check the Use class-based inheritance to arrive at the correct rule to execute? box in the
rule definition.
b. Check the Allow multiple versions with the same key value? (rule resolution) box in the rule
definition. Incorrect
c. It is not possible for that particular rule. Incorrect
Note: By checking the Use class-based inheritance to arrive at the correct rule to execute?
box, you enable
class-based inheritance during rule resolution for that rule.
166) True or False: Availability = No halts the rule resolution process and throws
an exception.
True Incorrect
False
Note: The correct answer is False. Availability = No does not halt the processing. It just
discards that rule from the candidate list.
167) True or False: Rule-Declare-Constraints rules use class-based inheritance while
rule-resolved.
True
False Incorrect
Note: Rule-Declare-Constraint rule types, as do all inheriting from the Rule-Declare-, have
class-based
inheritance enabled by default.
168) Which TWO statements are true about Access Groups? (Choose Two)
a. An operator ID record can reference only a single access group. Incorrect
b. To switch between multiple access groups, users must log off and log back on. Incorrect
c. In the Work User portal, users can dynamically switch between multiple access groups using
a portal drop-down.
Note: This application selector will be displayed above the work pool selector in the standard
WorkUser and WorkManager portals if a users operator record references more than one
access group.
d. A requestor Thread (browser, batch, or other) can only be associated with a single access
group at a
time.
Note: If a user with multiple access groups switches access groups PRPC will create a new
Thread and associate that requestor Thread with the selected access group. That means that
this session will contain
multiple Threads; each Thread is associated with a single access group.
169) Which two statements are true about access roles?
MSAT Internal
a. The order in which access roles are referenced in the access group is significant in
determining the users access rights. Incorrect
b. It is a best practice to use standard access roles such as PegaRULES:User4 in lieu of
application specific custom access roles. Incorrect
c. It is a best practice to list only roles for one application in each access group.
Note: As a best practice to reduce future maintenance, list only roles for one application. For
workers or managers who routinely work in multiple applications, create separate access
groups for each application, and list all but one in the Additional array on the Operator tab of
the Operator ID instance.
d. Access roles implement the PRPC class based security model.
Note: Each access role is comprised of a series of Access of Role to Object instances. Each of
these instances controls access of the bearer of the role to a single class. Therefore, security is
class based, where each class inherits security properties from their parent classes. Security
settings for a leaf class override the settings for its parent classes.
170) Which TWO statements accurately describe Access Roles in PRPC? (Choose
Two.)
a. Access of Role to Object rules are not subject to rule resolution
Note: Rule resolution does not apply to Access of Role to Object rules. Your system can contain
at most one
Access of Role to Object rule for each Applies To class and Role Name combination. Stated
another way, you can't override Access or Role to Object rules.
b. Access roles convey privileges to a user
Note: The privilege form defines only the existence (name and Applies To class) of a new
privilege. It contains no other information and conveys no capabilities by itself. By referencing
privileges in Access of Role to Object rules and in certain rules rule types such as flows,
privilege rules can affect which application users can do what.
c. Every Access of Role to Object rule instance must have an associated Privilege rule instance
Incorrect
d. Production levels are the only way to control access to the class that the Access of Role to
Object instance refer to Incorrect
171) Which two statements are true concerning privileges? (Choose Two)
a. Privileges offer finer access control than access roles alone.
Note: Privileges complement the security and access control features provided by access roles
and RuleSet lists, by restricting access to specific rules rather than to entire classes or
RuleSet versions.
b. Privileges can limit operations that can be performed on an attachment category.
Note: The Security tab of the Attachment Category rule form allows you to reference a
combination of when rules and privileges to define conditions so that a specific operator is
allowed a specific capability while disallowing another.
c. Users must hold all privileges associated with a flow action in order for the flow action to be
available to them.
d. Privileges can be used to enable or disable access to entire classes. Incorrect
172) Choose TWO statements that accurately describe Production Levels in PRPC.
(Choose two.)
a. Users with access to production level 3 automatically have access to all higher production
levels (4 and 5). Incorrect
MSAT Internal
b. Production levels should be used in Access When rules to enable or disable access to an
object class.
Incorrect
c. A system's production level should be used to conditionalize certain operations of your
application.
Note: Through System Setting rules, you can assign distinct values for a setting based on the
current production level. For example, you can use the production level to circumstance an
activity or model, which can be useful when configuring global resource settings, i.e. external
server names, URLs, JNDIs, etc.
d. If the production level of an Access Deny rule is zero (or blank), access to the respective
class is permitted.
Note: For Access Deny rules, access is denied when the access control value is greater than or
equal to the
production level of this system. If an access control field contains 0 or is blank, access is
permitted (not denied).
173) To successfully configure the security of a PRPC application, what role should
you be assigned in your access group?

a. PegaRULES:SysAdm4
b. PegaRULES:SysArch4 Incorrect
c. PegaRULES:ProArch4 Incorrect
d. PegaRULES:User4 Incorrect
Note: You must have the SysAdm role and have the Developer portal assigned to your access
group. Only the PegaRULES:SysAdmn4 access role provides sufficient access to be able to
create rules of the
Rule-Access child classes, such as Access Role Names, Access of Role to Object, Access Deny,
Access
When, etc.
174) In which class would you find out-of-the-box and custom authentication
activities?
Choose one answer.
a. Rule-Obj-Activity Incorrect
b. Code-Security
c. Embed-AccessSetting Incorrect
d. System-Security Incorrect
Note: Search for authentication activities in the Find Gadget. LDAP authentication activities,
the single sign-on sample activities, and the example EstablishOperatorExternally activity all
apply to Code-Security. The Authentication Service form expects authentication activities in the
Code-Security class.
175) Even if you have a centralized identity management system for authentication
and authorization, you will need to keep Operator ID records in the PRPC database.
True
False Incorrect
Note: Even if you use an external directory to maintain user credentials and entitlement
information (application access), your authentication activity will need to create an operator
record in PRPC. PegaRULES needs the operator ID to associate it with work objects,
assignments, create drop-down lists for transferring assignments, and so on. The operator
record can be created on the fly when the user first logs on to PRPC.
176) When executing a PRPC service, it is possible to change the state of an
existing work object by executing a flow action. What is the standard activity rule
used for this purpose?
Choose one answer.
MSAT Internal
a. ResumeFlow Incorrect
b. resumeWorkProcess
c. performFlowAction Incorrect
d. runFlowActionActivity Incorrect
e. DisplayFlowAction Incorrect
Note: resumeWorkProcess is specifically designed to process flow actions during a service
interaction. It takes in parameters for the key of the work object, the name of the flow, and the
name of the flow action.
177) Which component of web services is typically used at design-time to perform

code generation?
Choose one answer.
a. SOAP Envelope Incorrect
b. SOAP Body Incorrect
c. WSDL
d. UDDI Incorrect
Note: A WSDL is a file that describes the operations available in a web service. All other
options have run-time usage.
178) You have a service rule configured to return simple values such as a string.
When performing unit testing, where are the return values listed in the Clipboard?
Choose one answer.
a. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponseHeaderValues Incorrect
b. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponsePropertyValues Incorrect
c. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponseContext Incorrect
d. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponseParameterValues
Note: pyResponseParameterValues is a PageList where each row of the PageList identifies a

value to be sent back in the service response.
179) What is the default error handling mechanism for connector rules generated
through the Connector Wizard?

Choose one answer.
a. The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Transition. Incorrect
b. The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Precondition on the step
following the call to the connector. Incorrect
c. The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector. Processing is transferred to
the ConnectionProblem flow.
d. The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector. Processing is transferred to
the FlowProblems flow. Incorrect
Note: The Service tab of a connector rule specifically allows you to identify a flow as the Error
Handler Flow.
180) What is the most appropriate data transformation technique given the need to
parse out the contents of the following string containing an organization, division,
and unit: "BIG.com#BIGDiv#BIGUnit."
a. Use an Apply-Parse-Delimited rule. Incorrect
b. Use an Apply-Parse-Structured rule. Incorrect
c. Use an Apply-Parse-XML rule. Incorrect
d. Use a custom Rule-Utility-Function rule.
Note: It would be a custom parse to break up the string at the # sign and divide the various
portions into
properties representing an Org, Div, and Unit. Although Apply-Parse-Delimited may be used to
parse out
information based on a single character delimiter such as #; it is meant to be used to
process records of
MSAT Internal
a file that would be read in via a File Listener.
181) Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of
a Listener?
Choose one answer.
a. SQL Incorrect
b. SOAP Incorrect
c. JMS
d. BPEL Incorrect
e. EJB Incorrect
Note: JMS is based on processing incoming messages, and that requires a Listener.
182) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding Service Oriented
Architectures?
Choose one answer.
a. Supports tight coupling between applications.
b. Can execute composite applications. Incorrect
c. Communication may be performed via a variety of transport protocols. Incorrect
d. Supports reuse. Incorrect
e. Orchestrates system to system communications. Incorrect
Note: Service Oriented Architectures are about flexibility in how applications communicate
with one another,
and tight coupling removes this flexibility.
183) Which of the following types of service rules contain an Exceptions or Faults
tab in support of error handling?
Choose one answer.
a. COM, EJB, JSR94, Java, JMS, MQ, dotNET, SOAP Incorrect
b. COM, EJB, JSR94, Java, dotNET, SOAP
c. EJB, JSR94, Java, Email, File Incorrect
d. COM, EJB, Java, JMS, MQ Incorrect
e. Email, File, BPEL, dotNET, SOAP Incorrect
Note: These are the set of service rules containing either an Exception or Faults tab.
184) True or False: You should configure an instance of Data-Admin-ISClientSimulation to set up a connector simulator.
True Incorrect
False
Note: An instance of Data-Admin-IS-Simulation is configured, not Data-Admin-ISClientSimulation .

Data-Admin-IS- ClientSimulation exists, but is for a different purpose.
185) What is a Disintegrator shape?
Choose one answer.

a. A shape in a flow that defines a reverse of what an Integrator shape is Incorrect
b. There is no such shape
c. A shape in a flow that allows you to setup synchronous connector calls Incorrect
d. A shape in a flow that allows you to setup asynchronous service calls Incorrect
186) Which rule type allows you to connect to non SOAP compliant web services?
Choose one answer.
a. Rule-Connect-HTTP
b. Rule-Service-HTTP Incorrect
c. Rule-JMS-Listener Incorrect
d. Rule-MQ-Listener Incorrect
MSAT Internal
187) Can you connect to a stored procedure which returns a result set using
cursors?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes with PRPC v5.5
b. No Incorrect
188) What does {Asis} keyword do in Rule-Connect-SQL?

a. {Asis} defines the name of a class Incorrect
b. {Asis} defines the name of a table Incorrect
c. {Asis} tells the system not to place quotes around the value
d. Allows you to generate Dynamic SQL
Note; {Asis: property-name} instructs the system to not place spaces or quotes around the
value. For example, using dynamic SQL - SELECT Property1 FROM Table1 WHERE {Asis:
.MyDynamicSQL}
189) Do RDB calls do a commit on their own?

a. Yes
b. No Incorrect
190) Can you retrieve a CLOB data type from the RDB call?
a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
191) Can a File Listener listen on a read only volume/directory?

a. Yes Incorrect
b. No
192) Select three statements that correctly describe a Service?
a. A pool of Requestors that respond to service calls similar to database connection pooling
b. Allows you to generate deployment files for certain service types
c. Allows you to specify an access group for the incoming calls
d. Allows you to specify an operator ID so that the service can run as that operator Incorrect
193) How will you let an external caller read the PRPC database table pc_work?
a. Rule-Service-SQL Incorrect
b. Create a different service type such as SOAP or HTTP and expose a service which in turn can
read the database using PRPC facilities such as Obj Methods
c. Use RDB methods Incorrect
194) What mode of deployment should you choose if you need to expose a SOAP
service?
a. WAR Incorrect
b. EAR Incorrect
c. Doesn't matter
195) Which two HTTP Methods does Rule-Connect-HTTP allow? (Choose Two.)
a. PUT Incorrect
b. GET
c. POST
196) Which two SOAP versions are supported by PRPC?

a. SOAP 1.1
b. SOAP 1.2
c. SOAP 2.1 Incorrect
MSAT Internal
197) Choose which statements describe why you would choose Axis 2? (Choose all
that apply.)
a. If you are connecting to a service which has SOAP attachments.
b. If you are connecting to SOAP 1.2 based web services
c. If there are any XSD constructs in the Web service's WSDL file that the Connector
Accelerator could not interpret (untyped elements, wildcards, nested choice groups)
198) If the client requires the standard blue colors in the portal to be replaced with
green colors, which style sheet class would you NOT change?
Choose one answer.
a. .portalBarTitleBackground Incorrect
b. .dataTableHeadCenter Incorrect
c. A.portalLinks Incorrect
d. BODY.spaceBarTitle
Note: Look through the style sheet classes to identify what each class controls. Use the style
picker and style view to help you.
199) Can you create a completely new portal?

a. Yes
b. No Incorrect
Note: You can create new portals. For example, you may want to create a portal that is useful
to Business
Architects.
200) CSS styles are instances of which class?

Choose one answer.
a. Rule-File-Text
b. Rule-PortalSkin Incorrect
c. Rule-HTML-Fragment Incorrect
Note: CSS styles are instances of the Rule-File-Text class and have css as part of the key
name. For
example, desktop_metal.css. See the Rule-File-Text rule form type for details.
201) Where do you define the name of a report to be displayed in a gadget?
Choose one answer.

a. A) In the short description of the report rule (Rule-Obj-ListView or Rule-Obj-SummaryView).
Incorrect
b. In the report model.
c. PRPC decides the appropriate name based on rule-resolution. Incorrect
d. It is defined by the name of the report rule. Incorrect
Note: In the Reports activity, modify the model used to populate the reports list in the gadget
by appending new values to the Property-Set method.
202) Which of the following gadgets are NOT found on the standard WorkUser
Portal? Check all that apply.
a. Dashboard
b. Rules
c. Tools
d. Work Incorrect
e. Administer
Note: Work is the only gadget not displayed on the standard WorkUser Portal.------wrong
MSAT Internal
203) Which gadgets on the standard WorkManager Portal are NOT on the standard
WorkUser Portal?
Check all that apply.
a. Dashboard
b. Rules Incorrect
c. Tools Incorrect
d. Work Incorrect
e. Reports
Note: The Dashboard and Reports gadgets are displayed on the standard WorkManager Portal
but do not
appear in the WorkUser Portal.
204) Can the Developers Portal be modified?

a. Yes
b. No Incorrect
Note: The correct answer is Yes, though it is rarely done.
205) Which portal rule should be used for BRE applications?

a. WorkUser Incorrect
b. WorkManager Incorrect
c. Developer Incorrect
d. Any of the Above Incorrect
e. None of the above
Note: The definition of a BRE application includes the absence of a graphical UI. Therefore, no
portal is
required for the end-user
206) Portal rules specify which of the following? Check all that apply.
a. Skins
b. Gadgets
c. Menus
d. Toolbars
207) Can you reuse the same activity for different gadgets?
Choose one answer.

a. No Incorrect
b. Yes, but each gadget must have a unique activity within each portal rule. Incorrect
c. Yes, and the activity should be parameterized for reuse.
Note: For example, multiple gadgets can each call a single Reports activity. Each gadget
passes a unique
parameter of Name which tells the application which type of report to retrieve for that
gadget.
208) In which tab of the Rule-Portal form do you define gadgets?

a. Skins Incorrect
b. Tabs
c. Custom Incorrect
d. Options Incorrect
e. History Incorrect
Note: Gadgets are defined in the Narrow and Wide columns on the Tabs tab. The gadgets listed
in the Narrow Column are displayed in the navigation pane of the portal when that tab is
clicked. The gadgets listed in the Wide column are displayed in the work space portion of the
screen.
209) Which activity method is used to display a gadget?
MSAT Internal
Choose one answer.

a. Display-Gadget Incorrect
b. Show-Gadget Incorrect
c. Display-HTML Incorrect
d. Show-HTML
Note: Gadgets do not normally have a matching Rule-Obj-HTML record in the Data-Gadget
class. Rather, an activity is called that processes information needed to produce the gadget
and uses the Show-HTML
method to create the gadget. The activity is built in the Data-Gadget class.
210) Which cache should be cleared during testing to ensure accurate rendering of
the portal user interface?
a. Client-side cache
b. Server-side cache Incorrect
Note: Clear your browser cache by clicking Tools > Internet Options > Delete Files in the
section labeled
Temporary Internet Files. Select OK, then press F5 to refresh the portal.
211) Which PRPC tool is best used to identify the style elements used in skin rules?
a. Style Viewer
b. Style Picker Incorrect
Note: The Style Viewer is used to preview the runtime HTML rendering of CSS styles defined in
Rule-File-Text rules. The Style Viewer presents the name and a sample rendering of each style
in a set of CSS files,
organized for review and access. This helps identify the style elements used in skin rules.
212) To create a right-to-left portal view, copy a standard style with a _ rtl suffix,
customize it and include the new style sheet in your custom Rule- PortalSkin,
True
False Incorrect
Note: Copy one of the OOTB stylesheets that end in _ rtl and customize it as needed.
213) True or False: Portal Rules (Rule-Portal) are rule-resolved.

True
False Incorrect
Note: Portal Rules are rule-resolved. See the rule form type. Note: Standard OOTB Portal rules
are marked as final, so you cannot name your portal rules the same name as the standard
portal rules.
214) What are three out of the box ways to present flow actions? (Choose Three)
a. Task Action Dropdown
b. Buttons
c. Links
d. Images Incorrect
Note: Images are not a currently supported option for Flow Actions.
215) True or False: While using the Application Skin Wizard is the preferred method
for styling an application, using inline styles for small amount of properties in the UI
is acceptable.
True
False Incorrect
MSAT Internal
Note: Inline styles in certain specific cases can preferred method especially if not available
through the branding wizard. Since Inline styles need to be maintained and updated
separately, make sure you document the places where inline styles were applied.
216) A customer does not want to use a dropdown to present local actions. They
want to be hyperlinks on a page. Is this out of the box behavior available in PRPC?
a. Yes
b. No Incorrect
Note: Local actions can be presented as hyperlinks and placed anywhere on the screen.
217) Skinning a customer's application should be done:
Choose one answer.

a. At the beginning of the project Incorrect
b. At the end of the project Incorrect
c. In the miiddle of the project Incorrect
d. Whatever the customer prefers, provided you have sufficient style information
Note: Skinning an application can be done at any point during a project. To minimize the
amount of reword,
ensure you have the explicit style information available from the customer.
218) User experience activities take place during:

Choose one answer.
a. Construction and Inception Incorrect
b. Elaboration and Inception Incorrect
c. Construction and Elaboration Incorrect
d. All implementation phases
Note: All stages of implementation require attention paid to the user experience. It is not
simply a line on a
project plan, but rather a holistic process that permeates throughout an implementation.
219) Regular Screen Flows have "Next" and "Back" buttons. Without changing
labels, what other buttons are part of the default Screen Flow?
a. Cancel and Submit
b. Done and Previous Incorrect
c. Stop and Go Incorrect
d. Continue and Restart Incorrect
220) Which of the following is NOT a standard edit validation rule for automatically
formatting an input field?
a. SSN Incorrect
b. USZipCode Incorrect
c. USAddress
d. TIN Incorrect
221) True or False: The Autocomplete control can be used to drive a Dynamic
Select.
True Incorrect
False
Note: Currently autocomplete controls cannot be used to drive a dynamic selection control.
222) To make multiple selections in a List to List control you use:
a. Ctrl + Click Incorrect
b. Shift + Click
c. ALT + Click Incorrect
MSAT Internal
223) Which of the following is NOT an out of the box configuration option for the
PegaWAI RuleSet?
a. Style Control Incorrect
b. Frames Control Incorrect
c. Date Control Incorrect
d. TextArea Control
Note: TextArea Control is not a configuration option for PegaWAI.

224) All of the following rule types enable parameters to be defined and passed
directly using the out of the box parameter form except:
Choose one answer.
a. Rule-Obj-Property (from v5.3) Incorrect
b. Rule-HTML-Section Incorrect
c. Rule-Obj-FlowAction Incorrect
Rule-HTML-Fragment
d.
Rule-HTML-Fragments do not include the out of the box parameter control.
225) Which of the following rule types has a form that allows Rule-HTML-Property
rules to be referenced directly?
Choose one answer.
a. Rule-Obj-Corr Incorrect
b. Rule-HTML-Fragment Incorrect
c. Rule-Obj-FlowAction
d. Rule-Obj-HTML Incorrect
Note: Rule-Obj-FlowAction allows Rule-HTML-Property rules to be referenced directly. All other
HTML rules
such as Rule-Obj-Corr, Rule-HTML-Fragment, and Rule-Obj-HTML allow for the manual inclusion
of
Rule-HTML-Property references via the Reference JSP tags or HTML directives (which is
deprecated).
226) To maintain guardrail compliance when using a section to display an individual

element within a page group property, the JSP tag should be defined within a
Choose one answer.
a. Custom built Rule-HTML-Section Incorrect
b. Rule-Obj-Property Incorrect
c. Custom built Rule-HTML-Fragment
d. Rule-Obj-HTML Incorrect
Note: By defining the JSP tag within a custom built Rule-HTML-Fragment, the flow action
displays the desired element when displaying the work object while remaining guardrail
compliant.
1. An unordered selection of rules should be executed if a property

(state=ohio) and an audit of the rules run should be displayed. How is this
implemented?
ans: using Rule-Delare Collection & list view
using Rule-Declare-Collection & summary view
cannot be implemented OOTB, custom implementation
2. Question on PRPC Threads, type of threads, and features of PRPC Threads
ans. Standard, Developer, OpenPortal (not sure on the answer)
MSAT Internal
3. The same activity (in 2 different rulesets 02-01-02, 02-02-02) is worked on

by two different operators. Is this possible?
ans: This is not possible, checkout would not be possible
possible, both operators can work at the same time
possible, but rule would show a merge option
possible, but warning would be displayed at the bottom of the rule
4. 'As-Of' date circumstancing
(How does it function?)
Date-circumstance rules, also created by the Save As operation, identify a

property of type DateTime, and a constant DateTime value. Such rules
support as-of processing, in which a fact such as a property value in a
work object determines a date that determines which rule is applied.
5. About 4 questions on Declare pages, please review the theories thoroughly

6. Requestor Timeout and Authentication timeout how to set those values,
and in which file do you have to set them if so..
The system enforces five timeout intervals as follows:
Authentication timeouts, established in the Settings tab of the access group

form, apply to browser-based users only. The system may challenge users who have
not sent input during a period, forcing them to reenter an Operator ID and password.
Requestor timeouts, based on the values in the timeout/browser and

timeout/application elements of the prconfig.xml file, apply to interactive users and
service requestors respectively. If no processing is initiated during this interval, the
requestor session ends. The default timeout for browser sessions is 1 hour (3600
seconds). For services, the default is 600 seconds.
Requestor timeouts, based on two optional time values on the Options tab of
portal rules, providing a warning and session expiration interval.
Lock timeouts are determined by a setting on the System form (Data-Admin-System

class). Locks held for longer than this interval are marked as "soft" and may be forcibly
released, even when the requestor session is active and processing. (Locks held for
long intervals may indicate looping or design problems.)
7. Features of Rule-HTML-Property,
ans. it belongs to a ruleset
ans. it has an applies to class
ans. (another 2ans )
MSAT Internal
Use HTML Property rules to control how properties appear on work object forms,
correspondence, and other HTML forms, for both display and for accepting user input.
It doesnt have Applies class and its a rule resolved.
8. What rules do the Service Accelerator Create?
9. Features of List View Vs. Summary View
A summary view rule defines a two-level report display, presenting summary counts, totals
or averages to be displayed initially, and allowing users to click a row to drill down to
supporting detail for that row.
Summary view rules support interactive charts, trend reports, and the use of AJAX for pop-up
Smart Info windows.
A summary view rule is an instance of the Rule-Obj-SummaryView rule type. This rule type is
part of the Reports category.
Listview:
Purpose
Use a list view rule to define a report or personal version of a report. This rule generates HTML
that provides an attractive interactive display. The resulting reports can be run from a link in
the Monitor Activity workspace, presented in a flow action, or executed through other
processing.
In an activity, the Obj-List-View can execute a list view rule to provide searching and sorting
with no display.
10.Are ruleset prerequisites used during design time or development

11.Usage of Log-Message method
Use the Log-Message method to append a message to the Pega log when the step is reached.
Depending on method parameters and the current logging level, a line is added to the Pega
log on the current node.
Additions to the Pega log consume system resources. Select the LoggingLevel parameter
carefully. For best performance, remove or convert to comments the steps containing this
method when they are no longer needed.
12. Which services can be Run in Parallel
What connector rules can be run Parallel ? Except FTP and File
13. Requestor Pooling of Services
A requestor pool is a set of requestors that Process Commander reserves for use by
the services in a specific service package. Requestor pooling is available for
MSAT Internal
stateless, unauthenticated service requests only. Requestor pooling often improves

the performance of a service because requestors are reused, their allocated
resources
are shared, and the service does not have to wait for a requestor to be created.
MSAT Internal

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1) Setting the alert levels for the PegaAlert log is done in which file?

Choose one answer.

9) Which of the following statements is false?

a. Local variables can be passed between activities

Note: You must include the java.util.Vector library.

Choose one answer.

25) What should you do to update an external database?

26) Which classes are history records created for?

Note: History is created for work, data, and rule classes.

28) Which concept is associated with Pull Routing?

aggregate functions (e.g. SUM OF) over a list of items is:

Note: An activity is executed procedurally rather than declaratively.

Choose one answer.

39) Which operation is valid on Declare Pages in the clipboard?

40) Which of the following is a difference between a declarative page

Choose one answer.

44) Which of the following statements is false?

Choose one answer.

Note: Only decision tree forms utilize function aliases.

circumstance would it be appropriate to leave this box unchecked? (Choose one)

55) A context-free Declarative Expression allows you to define and execute

lives within a pagelist)

c. PRPC's way to duplicate a requestor on multiple application servers to do load balancing

d. All of the above Incorrect

runtime to sort, what happens?

120) In an Activity, you can pass parameters to a ListView by:

Choose one answer.

121) When creating reports, which of the following performance implications

123) Rule-Declare-Index rules . . . . (select all that are correct).

134) Pegasystems provided frameworks are part of the:

135) What are the two methods of inheritance in PRPC?

136) What does CBF stand for?

Choose one answer.

137) What is class pollution?

Choose one answer.

The correct interrogation order is:

a. Platinum, March 2007 Incorrect

you be assigned in your access group?

176) When executing a PRPC service, it is possible to change the state of an

Note: resumeWorkProcess is specifically designed to process flow actions during a service

177) Which component of web services is typically used at design-time to perform

Note: pyResponseParameterValues is a PageList where each row of the PageList identifies a

through the Connector Wizard?

a file that would be read in via a File Listener.

Note: An instance of Data-Admin-IS-Simulation is configured, not Data-Admin-ISClientSimulation .

185) What is a Disintegrator shape?

Choose one answer.

188) What does {Asis} keyword do in Rule-Connect-SQL?

189) Do RDB calls do a commit on their own?

191) Can a File Listener listen on a read only volume/directory?

192) Select three statements that correctly describe a Service?

196) Which two SOAP versions are supported by PRPC?

199) Can you create a completely new portal?

200) CSS styles are instances of which class?

201) Where do you define the name of a report to be displayed in a gadget?

Choose one answer.

204) Can the Developers Portal be modified?

Note: The correct answer is Yes, though it is rarely done.

205) Which portal rule should be used for BRE applications?

Choose one answer.

208) In which tab of the Rule-Portal form do you define gadgets?

209) Which activity method is used to display a gadget?

Choose one answer.