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SAIL has projected vacancies of 558 for Technical and 82 for Administration
Management trainee post. The last day of online application is set to 3rd of April, 2013.
Admit card for SAIL recruitment can be downloaded from 13th may onwards.
At this time you should successfully submit your application on official website of
SAIL,www.sail.co.in. If you have already submitted your application, you might be in
dilemma that how should you prepare for Sail examination, what is the syllabus of SAIL
examination, what is the exam pattern of Sail examination, what are the subjects you
should choose to crack this exam, how to crack Sail examination etc. Here in this post i
will try to solve out of questions of your mind.
I start with the exam pattern as well as syllabus of SAIL recuitment, then i will give some
tips and tricks to crack this exam.
The written exam for both the posts above mentioned will be held on same day as per
the following schedule
1. For MT (Technical) - in the Forenoon session
2. For MT (Admin) - in the Afternoon session
Candidates can apply and compete for both the post of management trainee.
Overall this SAIL examination is of 200 marks in duration of 1.5 hours.There is negative
marking for wrong answered questions.
To be eligible for group discussion and interview, candidate will have to qualify in each
section by scoring minimum 50 percentile marks.
To crack SAIL Exam, the first thing you have to improve is your question attempting
speed and accuracy. To crack or qualify SAIL exam you have to score minimum marks
in each section, as there is individual cut off in all sections. Always make a proper idea in
your mind that for what section of exam you should start and proceed.
Domain Knowledge Test (Technical) :- This section consists of technical questions for
100 marks. This section tests your academics technical knowledge.
For electrical branch students - consist questions mainly from engineering mathematics,
control system, network circuit, digital electronics, dc machines, electromagnetic theory
(EMT).
General Awareness :- Just cram up dead general knowledge but mainly consist of
current affairs. This part will include questions relating to India especially pertaining
History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity & Scientic Research.
Here i advice you to refer Lucent general knowledge book , which will be more beneficial
to qualify this section.
(A) 10 A
(B) 3.33 A (Ans)
(C) 20 A
(D) 2.5 A
Solution : RT = 2 + 2 || [1 + (2 || 2)]
= 2 + 2 || (1 + 1)
= 2 + 2 || 2 = 2 + 1 = 3
So I = 40 A
3
By current division I0 = 1 * 1 * 40 = 10 A
2 2 3 3
I0 = 3.33 A
4. In the given circuit voltage V is reduced to half. The current will become
10. If the d.c. valve of a rectified output is 300 V and peak to peak ripple voltage is 10 V, the ripple
factor is
(A) 1.18%
(B) 3.33% (Ans)
(C) 3.36%
(D) 6.66%
Solution : rms value of output
= 3002 + 102 = 300.166 V
Average value = 300 V
Form factor RMS value = 300.166 = 1.00055.
Average value 300
Ripple factor = (Form factor)2 - 1
= (1.0005)2 - 1 = 0.0333
= 3.33%.
12. In a common base connection IE = 2 mA, IC = 1.9 mA. The value of base current is
(A) 0.1 m (Ans)
(B) 0.2 mA
(C) 0.3 mA
(D) zero
Solution : IE = 2 mA IC = 1.9 mA
Ib = IE - IC = (2 - 1.9) = 0.1 mA.
SAIL English paper for MT Management trainee Examination electronics and electrical verbal
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question papers,SAIL free solved sample placement papers with solutions, SAIL technical job
interview question for fresher job management trainee recruitment notification and details 2012-
2013 SAIL CSE,EEE,ECE Mechanical engineering cse and all branch wise solved question
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Mental ability,anlytical,english reasoning aptitude questions with answers and solution
SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT2010,2011,2012 question papers
1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance
of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is
A. 5.7 mH
B. 5.85 mH
C. 6 mH
D. 6.15 mH.
1.A. When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance is
Leff=L1+L22m.
Inthiscase,Leff=L1+L2-2M
=2+4-20.15
=5.7mH.
2. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If
the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be
2.C. The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular
to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that
ofAorC,i.e.,1V.
3. Optocouplers combine
A. SITs and BJTs
B. IGBTs and MOSFETS
C. Power transformers and silicon transistor
D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor
3.D. In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the
phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit.
4. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as
A. Gross error
B. Absolute error
C. Dynamic error
D. Relative error
4.C. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as
dynamic error.
1. at cut-off
2.at saturation
3.well into saturation
4.well into cut-off
7.B. Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A.
IC = 100 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v.
Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation.
12. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of
A. integrator
B. differentiator
C. sweep credit
D. sync separator.
12.A. Integrator.
A. V / 2R
B. V /
C. V /
16.C. V / 2 R
17. A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The
average electric field on the surface of the sphere will be
17.C. The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through
the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the
other. The first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement
density has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is
\ Average electric
field is :
Eav =
A. 50 to 55 percent
B. 65 to 72 percent
C. 82 to 87 percent
D. 92 to 99 percent
18.D. The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent.
19. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?
A. Hot wire instrument
B. Electrostatic voltmeter
C. Moving coil voltmeter
19.B. Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage. D. Moving iron
voltmeter.
20
Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the above figure :
20.A. it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is
G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s)
It is seen immediately that | G (jw) |
= 1 and hence gain is db = 0.
2050, OFFC
2251, OFFC
1025, OCCF
1025, OCCF
21.A. Memory address in hex Instruction Remarks
2000 LXI SP 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D We do not
2005 CALL 2025 know the
contents of
subroutine
at 2050.
2006 50
2007 20
2008 POP H
2009 HALT
At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and
the stack pointer contains OFFC.
22. With reference to figure, value of VCE is
0V
5V
-5V
none of the above
23. The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected
A. 1 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 10 dB
D. 20 dB.
23.B. Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102 = 10 0.3 = 3dB.
10
11
12
14
25.C. Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with
J=1,2
J=1
M=0+1+1=2
J=2
M=2+1+2=4
J=2
M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12
31. Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the given figure :
1. If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient
2. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the frequency of the
supply
3. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the circuit elements
4. There will always be a non-zero transient after the switch K is closed.
Ofthesestatements:
1aloneis correct.
1and2arecorrect.
1and3arecorrect
4aloneiscorrect.
31.C. If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete expression for current will be
32. A circular ring carrying a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the axis of the
ring are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the dipole moment of the charge system is
Qd
QR2/d
Q
QR.
32.A. For points far away, the charge on the ring may be considered to be located be at the
centre of the ring. Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd.
33. Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer
A. Buck regulator
B. Boost regulator
C. Buck-boost regulator
D. Cuk regulator
33.C. a puck-boost regulator provides on output voltage which may be less than or greater
than the input voltage. The output voltage polarity is opposite to that of the input voltage. It
has high efficiency.
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List-I List-II
(Response to a unit step input) (Location of poles in the s-plane)
Codes:
ABCD
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 3 4 1 2
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 4 3 2 1
36. Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide
2 mA
200 mA
Almost zero
0.02 mA
37.C. Since emitter and base have same polarity and same potential, EBJ is not biased
property. Hence, IB is zero and so is IC
.
38. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly
A. 250 - 300 MHz
B. 150 - 200 MHz
C. 90 - 105 MHz
D. 30 - 70 MHz
38.C. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 105 MHz.
43. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earths curvature. This due to
A. Ionospheric reflection
B. Faraday rotation
C. Ducting
D. Ionospheric scatter.
43.C. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earths curvature. This is due to ducting.
SAIL Latest Sample Question paper 2012, SAIL Latest Exam Pattern consist of 100 questions,
30 Questions from Aptitude Reasoning and English, 60 Questions from Technical, SAIL Latest
placement paper 2012, SAIL Latest Candidate Experience 2012, SAIL MT exam Sample
Questions for Mechnical Engineering 2012,
Hai friends,
I have attanded SAIL MT Exam, which was on 15 th July 2012.
1) A Signal Input to the Control system from feedback which affect the output of Control System is
called?
a) feedback signal
b) Stimulas
c) Input Signal
d) option i forgot
Current Affairs
SAIL Latest Sample Question paper 2012, SAIL Latest Exam Pattern consist of 100 questions,
30 Questions from Aptitude Reasoning and English, 60 Questions from Technical, SAIL Latest
placement paper 2012, SAIL Latest Candidate Experience 2012, SAIL MT exam Sample
Questions for Mechnical Engineering 2012,
Hello friends i have attained the SAIL MT exam on 15 july 2012 in Mechanical dicipline.
TECHNICAL:
technical part was very esay, most of the questions were from TOM (vibration)
any one can easily score 60+ score.
GK/APTITUDE
this portion was moderated...as compare to last year there were no polotical questions from
constitution.
some ques are....
1. allum is used for....?
ans-water purification
2.fish which is used to clean water from moequeto...?
ans.-ghumbusia fish
3. 3-idiot is baed on which writer's novel...?
ans-cheta bhagat
4. Home rule league movement started on...?
ans-after the world war 1
5. book of A.P.J. kalam translated in which language..?
ans-Chines.
6. first atomic p[ower plant of india.....?
ans-Tarapur
7. first geostaticle sattelite of india...?
ans..INSAT 1
8. main criteria to decide inflation rate(mudrasfiti dar)
ans-CPI(consumer price index)
in my opinian 10+ marks in all sub sections of part 2 is enough. cut off may be between 110-120.
hope for the best and alll the best friends.....get fingure crossed.
Recently I gave the paper of SAIL from ELECTRICAL Branch the paper which included 250 questions.of which I
attempted 160 questions
Technical was ok and the questions mainly came from Psu book published by Galgotia Publications near
about 50 questions came from it. They mainly concentrated on Electrical Machines. Some questions based on
power system came from C.L. WADHWA (ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEM). However some of the questions which
came in exam are as follows.
(1) Which type of motor is used is used for self balanced machines
(a)dc servo motors (b)dc shunt motors (c)ac servo motors (d)ac shunt motors.
(a)Reluctance motors (b)Pole shaded motors (c)dc shunt motors (d)ac shunt motors.
(a)Hydel power plants (b)Nuclear power plants (c)Thermal power plants (d)Gas based power plants.
(a)analyze lead-lag points (b)know maximum stability (c)know relative stability(d)know absolute stability
(a)surge high voltage (b)acts as neutral (c)acts as a transmission wire (d)acts as ground wire.
APTI+G.K was simple. For more R.S AGARWAL However some of the questions which I remember are as
follows :-
(2) If the radius of a circle is increased by 100% how will then the area increase
(3) If the length, height and breadth of a cuboid is increased by 100%,200%&300% then the volume of the
cuboid will increase by (a)3 times (b)6 times (c)12 times (d)24 times
(4) A shopkeeper buys 30 pens .He sells 27 pen at the marked price of the 30 pens. Then what is his profit
(5) After seeing the picture person says his mother is the wife of my fathers son.Then how is the person in the
picture and the person
is related?
(6) A can do work in 30 days,B can do it in 40 days. A and B started the work and then A leaved it after 14 days
then how much
time did it take for B to complete the work
(a)5 days (b)6 days (c)3 days(d)2 days
5 proper words.
2.Verbal in that they have asked for meanings, opposites, appropriate words, Passages, analogy,
relationships, Coding and decoding ,cubes and dice, statement and conclusions, Mirror images,
Alphabet test, Mathematical Operations, Data sufficiency. follow Verbal and NON-verbal Reasoning
by R.S AGGARWAL.
3.General Awareness this all about general knowledge test of the student. So try to refer some G.K
general questions like some quotations given by great people like Mahatma Gandhi they will give
some quotation n they will ask who said this quotation like that, next O2 is carried out by red blood
cells n some on nature n some n history n some on current affairs n some on politics n some on food
products like that so try to know some general questions.
4.Technical Test In this they will ask about subject as I am from mechanical they asked questions
from Automobile engineering, Design of machine members, Strength of materials, Kinematics, MOF,
Thermal subject study all cycles n about working of piston n they have asked some problems from
DMM n some problems on turbines n some of determining speeds so frens do concentrate up on core
subjects which we have in our 2nd and 3rd and 4-1 sem subjects that too core subjects.
Frens we have negative marking for each wrong answer they will deduct 1/4 mark so first try to do
only known questions n they try other questions
we will have time for 2hrs and 20mins so try the best.
to day only I have given exam I donno any information regarding portion so I dint perform that much
good in General Awareness and some tech questions and I am poor at verbal........so I dont want
other people do the same as I did in the exam so I giving clear cut of this SAIL written test.Hope the
best frens........bubbye....
Pray for me frens (vasavi)
sail-2010 gk question
Hi All,
I appeared for SAIL MT (admin)-marketing. Mine was after noon slot reporting time at 1:30pm.Entry
closed at 2.00pm.They allow only the admit card and pen (blue/black ball point pen) .OMR marking by
blue/black ball point pen.
The test duration is 2 and half hours (150min).75 minutes for section1 and 75 minutes for
sectoion2.One single question booklet with two sections. You are only allowed to open the section 1
seal in the first half and 2 seal after 75minutes.
Negative marking: (-) 0.25 penalty for wrong attempt
Cut off mark for Section1 and cut mark for 4 subsections in Section2 is a criterion to qualify the exam.
Four test versions A, B, C, D
Section1-marketing/HR/Tech
Section2-General awareness, verbal, quantitative, reasoning
Section1-Marketing:
100 Questions specific to Marketing, 75 minutes
Questions asked from
-Advertisement
-promotions
-international business
-export, joint ventures
-product mix
-business communication
-Brand recall, loyalty
-promotions
-Push-pull strategy
-product width, depth, length
Questions
-During the break time one employee went to have Coke but found the vending machine not working.
Though Pepsi was available he went to the next building and purchased Coke
Its an example for
Brand loyalty, brand recall.
-Low risk option to enter a new international market
Joint venture, indirect export, direct investment
-A new product is release by advertisement should concentrate on
Persuasion, informative
-prerequisite to MISSION statement
Marketing Strategy, SWOT, marketing mix
-The tie up between Maruti Udyog limited and Suzuki is an example for
Join venture, direct investment, partnership
-Advantage for a direct investment in an international market
Advantage of domestic production, use of own company resources
Secction2(Only can start after the first 75 minutes)
-General Awareness
-Verbal
-Fill in the blank with a, an, the
5 questions
Difficulty level simple
-Fill in the blanks with on, over, above
5 questions
Difficulty level simple
-Reading comprehension
2 passages
5 question each
Technical article (One article was about data structures)
-Find the word with similar meaning
5 questions
-Quantitative
-Reasoning
Questions from
profit and los
percentages
Simple interest and compound interest (2 qs)
Discount, successive discounts
mixtures and allegations (2 qs)
Time and work (2 questions-easy)
Directions (1q)
clock (1q)
Blood relationship (1q, easy)
Statement (5 qs)
Seating arrangement
Time and work (1 q)
Questions
-Looking to a man photo Annie told his mothers only daughter is my mother. What is the
relationship?
A) Son B) daughter C) nephew D) niece
Ans: Niece
-A, B, C working together and As work is 3times Bs work and Bs work is 3 times Cs work. Find
the ration of work of A and C.
A) 1:9 B) 9:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:3
Ans:
A=3B, B=3C
A/C=3B/C=3*3C/C=9/1
Ie ratio 9:1
-Find the time after 5oclock at which the hour hand and minute hand
-A and B started working together and can finish the work in 30 days and after how many days that B
can leave the work, so that the work can be completed within 32 days
A) 15 days) 10daysc) 5daysD) none of this
-A and B start travelling from Bangalore to Hyderabad, starting point after ..(its a time and work
question after how many minutes they will meet )
-Successive discount questions-A got a 10% discount on selling price and received 5% discount later
what will be final price that he paid
-[(1+a/b)^2+(1-b/a)^2]/[function with a and b in ratio format ] the final value will be a/b.. easy
Most of the questions were from percentage, profit and loss, discount, simple and compound interest
-Statement Qs
Statement
Assumption1
Assumption2
1 and 2 requred
1 enough
2 enogh
Both 1 and 2 is not sufficient
5 question in this format
All the very best!
The number of questions in each section may vary year to year,but the number of sections and total
time will be same.
Time will be 2 hour 30 minutes.Separate sectional cut-offs will be there and overall cut-off will be
there.
SAIL is having five section
1. Reasoning (45 ) ,
2. Quanti. ques.( 35 ),
3. General knowledge ( 35 ),
4. English Comp ( 35 ).,
5. Technical Question ( 100 ).
In previous year their is some change in no of questions. And total time given is 2 hour 25 minutes....
Their is not separate time given for separate sections, all section have to solve in 2:25 hour, but
individual cut-off is their ....
SAIL Latest Sample Question paper 2012, SAIL Latest Exam Pattern consist of 100 questions,
30 Questions from Aptitude Reasoning and English, 60 Questions from Technical, SAIL Latest
placement paper 2012, SAIL Latest Candidate Experience 2012
General awareness:
Hello Friends,
Today was my SAIL paper and i want to share my experience with you.
1) First 100 questions were of your respective field, mine was ECE, which you have to
attempt within 1 hour and 15 mins.
2) The next 100 questions were related to general knowledge, english, cubes dices,
verbal.
Now I would like to say that in ECE more emphasis was given on Resonant
frequency questions, RLC circuits, instantaneous current, average power, some
questions were on control system (nyquist plot), amplifier questions on (CE, beta,
alpha), digital circuits, op amp, CMRR, slew rate, some questions on torque (which i
couldn't understand ha ha).
A cube is painted yellow on adjacent sides and blue on its opposite side and white on the
rest of the faces and divided into 64 pieces the which parts will have atleast blue, atleast
white
In the end i would just say that the paper was easy and you should remember the
formula in your tips to crack SAIL.
Dear All,
The question paper consisted of two sections each with 100 questions and
75 mins for each section.
Note: 1 mark for correct answer and -1/4 for wrong answer.
Section I
6) How many flip flops are required for input frequency to be divided by
32?
8) Nearly 8 questions were asked on RLC circuits like what is the effect on
resonance frequency when all the values of RLC are doubled?
a) 4f b) 3f c) f/4 d) f
13) What is the power transferred to a load if R+ix and with an internal
resistance of R-ix of the source with voltage V?
15) What is the percentage power loss when a battery of 6 V has internal
resistance of 0.2 ohms and applied to a load of 6 ohms?
18) What is the average value of current if the voltage of 10 sin (314t ) is
applied to a resistance of 10 ohms?
A) 0.485 B) 0.637
Section II
A situation was given and questions were based on that situation like
cube pained with 3 colors and then divided into 64 equal cubes what no of
cubes with single color and so on.
Two statements are given and asked whether the question can be solved
based on the statements?
A person traveled east west and finally how far is from the source?
Note: To clear the exam you need to clear the sectional cutoff of each
sub-section in Section-II also. This was the major deciding factor as after
attempting section-I for 75 min then only section-II can be attempted for
the next 75 mins
The technical paper of E&T was difficult as it was mainly theoretical and
were based on concepts of the subjects. Section-II will be easy for an
engineer, but the time may not be sufficient as there is sub sectional
cutoff.
Note: In the instructions of admit card it was told to bring only ball point
pen but in the exam they the answers were needed to be marked with HB
pencil. So, please take pencils with you for the examination. Good luck for
your attempts to be a part of SAIL. Awaiting result of the exam now.
Hi Friends,
I attended recently held SAIL exam and the exam pattern goes like this
Part: 1
Part 2:
2. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when standing-wave ratio
(SWR) becomes
A. 2 : 1
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 1
D. 1 :2
3. In resonant pulse inverters
A. dc output voltage variation is wide
B. the frequency is low
C. the output voltage is never sinusoidal
D. dc saturation of transformer core is minimsed
4. A 10 V full-scale voltmeter having 100 k-ohm / V sensitivity is used to measure the output of a photovoltaic cell
having an internal resistance of 1 M-ohm. The voltmeter reads 5V. The voltage generated by the photovoltaic cell is
A. 5 V
B. 10 V
C. greater than 5 V but less than 10 V
D. greater than 10 V.
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Transfer Function) (Transient Response)
o Battery.
o Control resistor.
o Rectifier diodes.
o Transformer.
8. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by sine wave with modulation indices of 30% and 40% respectively. The
overall modulation index will be
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 100%
D. indefinite as modulation by two waves simultaneously is not possible.
9. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / O
A. I / O devices have 16-bit addresses
B. I / O devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices
D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / O data.
10. Low grade fuels have
A. low moisture content
B. low ash content
C. low calorific value
D. low carbon content.
11. Aluminum has a higher atomic packing factor than molybdenum by about 6%. This means that
A. Aluminum is heavier than molybdenum
B. the ratio of the volume of the unit cell to the volume of the atoms per unit cell is lower
inaluminum
C. The ratio of the number of atoms per unit cell to size of the cell is roughly equal to
Both
D. The distance between atoms are equal for both
12. A microwave junction is supposed to be matched at all ports if in the S matrix
A. all the diagonal elements are zero
B. all the diagonal elements are equal but not zero
C. all the diagonal elements are complex
D. is Hermitian.
13. Radar becons are used for
A. target identification
B. navigation
C. causing significant extensions of the maximum range
D. all of these.
14. Which of the following statements is / are correct ?
A. All the resonant frequencies of a microwave cavity are harmonics of a single
frequency.
B. No two of the resonant frequencies of a microwave cavity are harmonics of a single
frequency
C. Resonant frequencies of a microwave cavity form distinct sets of harmonically related
frequencies
D. None of the above, because a microwave cavity does not resonate at a number of
frequencies.
15. Satellite repeater serves to
A. to receive signal from the satellite
B. to repeat the satellite signals received
C. to change the frequency of signals received from the repeater
D. none of these
16. For the circuit shown in figure below, match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
Codes:
A B C D
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 1 2 3 4
C. 2 3 4 1
D. 4 3 1 2
17. The relationship between SWR and Kr of a transmission line is
A. SWR =
B. SWR =
C. SWR =
D. SWR =
18. The speed and torque of induction motor can be varied by which of the following means
1. Stator voltage control
2. Rotor voltage control
3. Frequency control
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3.
19. A 2 V peak to peak symmetrical wave is given to a rectifier type ac voltmeter. The voltmeter will read
A. 2.22 V
B. 1.11 V
C. 1 V
D. zero
20. A control system whose step response is -0.5(1 + e-2t) is cascaded to another control block whose impulse
response is e-t. The transfer function of the cascaded combination is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
21. For the logic circuit shown in figure below, the output Y is equal to
o
o
o
o
22. A full wave peak rectifier (using capacitor input filter) has a percentage ripple of 2 and load resistance of 10 k-
ohms. Minimum filter capacitance, in mF, required is
A. 12
B. 50
C. 24
D. 100
23. The intermediate frequency of a superheat receiver is 450 KHz. If it is tuned to 1200 KHz, the image frequency
will be
A. 750 KHz
B. 900 KHz
C. 1650 KHz
D. 2100 KHz
24. The following program is run on an 8085 microprocessor:
Memory Address Instruction
in hex
2000 LXI SP, 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D
2005 CALL 2050
2008 POP H
2009 HLT
At the completion of execution of the program, the program Counter of the 8085 contains . And the
Stack Pointer contains
o 2050, OFFC
o 2020, OCCF
o 2000, CCFC
o 2020, OFFC
25. A student would like to separate the various components of a sample of ink in the laboratory. Which of the
following techniques would be most suitable for him to use ?
A. Filtration
B. Distillation
C. Titration
D. Paper chromatography.
26. The nature of atomic bond found in diamond is
A. ionic
B. covalent
C. metallic
D. none of the above
27. Waveguides are pressurized above normal atmospheric pressure for
A. increasing their power handling capacity
B. improving the conductivity of their walls
C. preventing higher order modes from propagating
D. varying the wave impedance.
28. The Doppler effect is used in
A. Pulsed Radar
B. CW Radar
C. MTI
D. both (a) and (c)
29. Two dissimilar antennas having their maximum directivities equal.
A. must have their beam widths also equal
B. cannot have their beam widths equal because they are dissimilar antennas
C. may not necessarily have their maximum power gains equal
D. must have their effective aperture areas (capture areas) also equal.
30. A satellite earth station has
A. only transmitting equipment
B. only receiving equipment
C. both transmitting as well as receiving equipment
D. none of these
31. Assertion (A) : In the given network, the source is delivering maximum power.
A.
B.
C.
D.
33. Static induction thyristors have
A. high dv / dt and low di / dt
B. low dv / dto and high di / dt
C. low dv / dt and low di / dt
D. high dv / dt and high di / dt
34. An advantage of a permanent magnet moving coil instrument is that it is
A. free from friction error
B. has high (torque / weight of the moving parts) ratio
C. has low (torque / weight of moving parts) ratio
D. can be used on both a.c. and d.c.
35. The error response of a second order system to a step input is obtained as
E(t) = 1.66 e-st sin(6t + 37).
The damping ratio is
o 0.4
o 0.5
o 0.8
o 1.0
o F=A C
o F=A C
o F=B C
o F=B C
37. A zener regulator has an input voltage from 16 to 20 V and a load current from 25 to 100 mA. Breakdown
voltage V = 12 V. For holding load voltage constant under all conditions, the value of series limiting resistor should be
A. 1600 ohms
B. 40 ohms
C. 160 ohms
D. 200 ohms
38. The filter required to obtain SSB from DSB signal is
A. low pass filter
B. high - pass filter
C. band - pass filter
D. band - stop filter
39. When a CPU is interrupted, it
A. stops execution of instructions
B. acknowledges interrupt and branches to a subroutine
C. acknowledges interrupt and continues
D. acknowledges interrupt and waits for the nest instruction from the interrupting device.
40. Which of the following statements concerning the pH meter is / are correct ?
I. The pH meter may be used to measure the acidity (for alkalinity) of a solution.
II. The pH meter must consist of atleast a reference electrode, an indicating electrode and a potential measuring
meter
III. The potential of a reference electrode of a pH meter depends largely upon the hydrogen on concentration of the
measured solution.
o I only
o I and II
o III only
o I and III only
\ W1 + W2 = 50
17.(C). Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when SWR becomes 1 : 1.
18.(D). Resonant pulse inverters are used when the variation of the dc output voltage is not wide. The inverter
frequency is very high and the output voltage is almost sinusoidal. Due to resonant oscillation, the transformer core is
always reset and there is no dc saturation problem.
19.(B).
Since aluminium has 6% greater atomic packing factor, then it has a lesser inverse ratio of volume of unit cell to
volume of atoms per unit cell.
27.(A). Property of matched junctions.
28.(D). Radar becons are used for target identification, navigation and causing for significant extensions of the
maximum range.
29.(D). None of the statements is correct because a microwave cavity does not resonated at a number of frequencies.
30.(B). Satellite repeater serves to repeat the satellite signals received.
31.(A). As explained in Q. 20, C-R circuit acts as a differentiator under appropriate conditions. We can associate output
waveforms with the input waveform by checking whether as particular output waveform with the input waveform by
checking whether as particular output waveform is obtained by taking the derivative of input waveform being
considered. Wherever there is a jump discontinuity in the function, the derivative function at that has impulse function,
we arrive at answer (a).
32.(C). The relationship between SWR and Kr of a transmission line is
SWR =
33.(D). To meet the torque speed duty cycle of a drive, the voltage, current and frequency control are normally used.
34.(B). If it is a symmetrical square wave of value 1V, or any other symmetrical wave having mean value of 1V, then the
rectifier type instrument will read 1.11V as it is calibrated to read 1.1 times the mean value. Probable answer is (b).
35.(D). The step response is -0.5 (1 + e-2t) u(t). The impulse response is the derivative of above expression,
h(t) rd(t) = 0.5 d(t) + e-2t u(t)
\the system function for 1st control system is
H1 (s) = -0.5 +
H2(s) = a e-t =
\ H(s) = H1 (s) H2(s)
= [-0.5 + 1/ (s + 2)] 1 / (s + 1)
=
36.(C). Y = (G + F + H)