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Air Reg. (400 Questions) PDF 1
Air Reg. (400 Questions) PDF 1
Q.1 The air traffic service which prevents the collision between aircraft is called.
a) Alerting service.
b) Flight information service.
c) Air traffic control service.
Q. 2 Prior to take off the responsibility to check the serviceability of radio equipment lies
with the
a) Commander of aircraft.
b) Radio operator.
c) Co-pilot.
Q.3 The authority to detain an aircraft is given in which document
a) Rule 8 of aircraft rules 1937
b) Section 8 of aircraft act 1934.
c) DGCA circular no. 8
Q. 4 Aerodrome broadcasting service is provided by
a) DGCA
b) Controller of Aerodromes
c) Airport Authority of India.
Q. 5. If an aircraft makes a non precision approach the visibility minima applicable is
a) Given by the operator if filed by the operator with the DGCA
b) DGCA minima if no minimum is filed by the operator with the DGCA
c) Both are correct.
Q. 6. The visibility minima for Take Off if the aerodrome not eQ.ipped with radio aids.
a) 5 km.
b) 2.7 km.
c) 3.7 km.
Q. 7. The runway threshold lights are
a) Green
b) Blue
c) Amber
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d) White
e) Only White
Q. 8. The threshold of runway is
a) The point where the aircraft lines up for take off
b) That points on the beginning of runway used for landing.
c) The beginning of the runway.
Q. 9. A VFR flight can land at a controlled aerodrome if visibility is
a) 1.5 km or more
b) 3.7 km or more
c) 5 km or more
Q. 10. The starboard navigation light is
a) Green 110 deg from ahead to the left.
b) Green 110 deg from ahead to the right
c) Green 110 deg from behind to the right.
Q. 11. The displaced threshold lights are
a) Green
b) Blue
c) Amber
Q. 12. The duty time of the trainee pilot
a) is calculated by the FDTL
b) is not affected by FDTL
c) FDTL is applicable for scheduled flights only.
Q. 13. A fresh flight plan is required if at a controlled aerodrome a scheduled flight is
delayed by
a) 2 hrs.
b) 1 hrs.
c) 30 mts.
Q. 14. Longitudinal separation between aircraft flying at the same level & on the same track
a) 15 mts.
b) 10 mts. If navigational aids permit freQ.ent determination of position & speed
c) Both are correct.
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b) 20 nm.
c) 10 nm.
Q. 22. The control area which is in the vicinity of one or more aerodromes is called a
a) Control area
b) Control Zone
c) Aerodromes control area
Q. 23. Tokyo Convention ACT 1975 is applicable to
a) All aircraft registered in India.
b) All aircraft registered in India & Military aircraft & State aircraft &
c) Aircraft whether registered in India or not except Military aircraft &
State aircraft.
d) All aircraft whether registered in India or not.
Q. 24. Aerodrome operation minima is given by the
a) DGCA.
b) Operator.
c) Operator & is approved by DGCA.
d) India Met Department.
Q.25. For carriage of arms & ammunition on board an aircraft.
a) Permission from
b) Permission from Army HQ. is required.
c) Permission from Central Govt. is required.
d) Permission from operator is required.
Q. 26. For flights of foreign military aircraft aver India clearance is required from a)
Central Govt.
b) DGCA.
c) Air Headquarters.
Q. 27. The Aircraft Act. 1934 is applicable to whole of India and is applied to
a) Citizen of India wherever they may be
b) To and to persons on board a/c required in India, where they may be
Q.28. The aircraft registered in Category A belong to
a) COI
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Q. 29. Aerial work aircraft means an ac used for individual purposes but does not include
public transport.
a)
b)
c)
Q.30. Petroleum in bulk means fuel in receptacle more than 900 ltrs. In capacity.
a)
b)
c)
Q. 31. The minimum age for the issue of CPL is 18 years.
a)
b)
c)
Q. 32. The maximum number of landings by a pilot in one day
a) Is not restricted for training flying
b) But if training is conducted after a scheduled flight the maximu
number of landing is six.
c) For a scheduled flight maximum of six landings.
d) All are correct.
Q. 33. A pilot involved in an aircraft accident can start flying again.
a) When ever detailed by the operator
b) When cleared by the DGCA for flying after a corrective flying
training if necessary.
c) When ever he is medically fit.
Q.34. The operational control consists of initation continuation, termination and division
of a flight.
Q.35. A Cessna 152 & Boeing 737 is on a converging course at same altitude. Which
aircraft has the right of way?
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b) DGCA
c) AAI
Q.42 A series of projectiles tired at an interval of 10 sec. means.
a) Distress.
b) Urgency
c) Indication of danger.
Q.43 Series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft means
a) clear to Take Off
b) Clear for landing.
c) Clear to Taxi
Q.44. The wreckage of a crashed aircraft can be tempered with or shifted to
a) Extricate persons or anmals whether alive or dead.
b) Bring it to a place of safety.
c) Prevent inconvenience/obstruction to public
d) All are correct
Q.45. The maximum flying a pilot can do in one year is
a) 1000 hrs.
b) 1500 hrs.
c) 1200 hrs.
Q.46. When an aircraft ……..
a) 15 meters.
b) 30 meters.
c) 43 meters
b) All flying time when the flying is done only with reference to instruments.
c) Only when flying in clouds
Q.49. Area of operation where no ADC is required
a) Local flying area.
b) Within 5 nm of an aerodrome.
c) Control Zone.
d) Control area
Q.50. What information is to be included in the third section of an Air report.
a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence.
Q.51. Navigation charges are based upon
a) Airspeed.
b) Flying time over India
c) Distance flown
d) AUW.
Q.52. Destruction of buildings & trees on approach path is mentioned in
a) Aircraft rules 1937
b) Aircraft rules 1954.
c) Aircraft rules 1976.
d) Aircraft rules 1996.
Q.53. Lateral separation to be maintained when crossing a “holding point”
a) 15 nm from the Nav aid.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 5 nm from the Nav aid.
Q.54. On an international flight the maximum number of hours flown and the number of
landings in a day are
a) 9/3
b) 8/4.
c) 6/3.
Q.55. A unit set up to provide an traffic control for aerodrome traffic is
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Q.61. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in consecutive 30 days
are
a) 100
b) 125
c) 80
d) 120
Q.62. The Maximum number of hours that can be flown by pilot in consecutive 7 days are
a) 30
b) 50
c) 40
d) 25
Q.63. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 6000 feet.
a) Beyond 4 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
b) Beyond 2 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
c) Within 2 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
d) Within 4 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
Q.64. Flying in Danger area is
a) Prohibited.
b) Permitted above a certain flight level.
c) Allowed if permitted by ATC
d) Allowed if permitted by DGCA
Q.65. Flying in an aircraft, below 3000 feet AMSL in a controlled airspace the minimum
horizontal separation from clouds is
a) 300 meters.
b) 500 meters.
c) 1500 meters
d) 1500 feet.
Q.66. An aircraft wants to indicate the difficulties which compel to land without requiring
assistance will do so by
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Q.82 Either hand along with the palm downwards and placed level with the chest and when
moved laterally means:
a) Cut the engines.
b) Slow down.
c) Chocks away.
d) Means nothing.
Q.83 Operational Manual is:
a) Prepared by the manufacture and authorized by operator.
b) Prepared by DGCA and authorized by the operator.
c) Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer.
d) Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA
Q.84 Any prisoner can be carried aboard or onboard any aircraft only if:
a) The prisoner is accompanied by an armed guard.
b) Permitted by the DGCA in writing.
c) Permitted by the District Magistrate.
d) Permitted by the Commissioner of police.
Q.85 Leaflets containing printed matter can only be dropped from any aircraft in motion if :
a) Permitted by the Dist. Magistrate or the Commissioner of Police.
b) Permitted by the DGCA.
c) Permitted by the DDGCA.
d) Permitted by the DR&I
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Q.86 An aircraft is commencing descends from its initial FL 290 over Palma Airport. The
altimeter reads 12000 ft. The commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC
in terms of:
a) 12000 Altitude
b) FL 120.
c) FL 290.
d) 29000 Altitude.
Q.87. An aircraft is following 020 Tr (M). The choice of FL available to the pilot are :
a) 50, 70, 90, 150, 170, 190, 210, 230, 250, 270, 290, 370, 410, 450.
b) 55, 75, 95, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275, 295.
c) 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 160, 180, 200, 220, 240, 260, 280.
Q.88 An aircraft is following 220 Tr (M) as per the quadrental rule, the pilot must choose
FL between:
a) 179 – 269
b) 269 -359
c) 180 – 269
d) 090 - 180
Q.89 An aircraft is flying 5000 AMSL outside control airspace. The commander must fly at
all times under.
a) Aerodrome control.
b) FL 50.
c) 5000 as Altitude.
d) 5000 as Height.
Q.90. For the FACILITIES the pilot should refer to:
a) AIC
b) NOTAM
c) AIP
d) NOTAM CODES
Q. A fresh flight plan is required when
a) a flight is delayed for take off.
b) Controlled flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes.
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Q.94 White refueling an aircraft no naked flame is allowed within a distance of ……. 30
Q.95 The largest polygon forming a danger zone around a refueling aircraft is …..
obtained by joining points 3 mtrs away from the wing and the fueling vehicle.
Q.97 If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for …… 06
months.
Q.100.The minimum height to be flown in hilly areas in IFR flight is ……. 2000 above the
highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm from the position of ac …..
Q.101 An aircraft flies away from base. The daily inspection is valid for …… a period of 4
days or 12 hours of flying whichever is earlier ………
d) 1000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 NM from the aircraft.
Q.121. While refueling, any unauthorized person should not be near the re-fueling site
within:
a) 30 meters.
b) 15 feet.
c) 30 feet.
d) 15 metters.
Q.122. Anticollision lights must be installed if the AUW of ac is
a) Less than 5700 Kg.
b) More than 5700 Kg.
c) More than 21000 Kg.
Q.123. An aircraft can cross an ATS route with precautions such as
a) Cross the ATS route at 90 degrees & as in ‘b’ below.
b) Obtain permission minimum 10 minutes before crossing.
c) Look out visually for any other traffic.
d) All are correct.
Q.124. In a CTA the VFR ceiling is
a) 2500 feet.
b) 1500 feet.
c) 3000 feet.
d) 1000 feet.
Q.125. When in an emergency:
a) Squawk code 7600 on mode A.
b) Squawk code 7600 on mode B.
c) Squawk code 7600 on mode C.
d) None (or 7700)
Q.126. Special VFR flight cannot be allowed if visibility is less than
a) 5 Km.
b) 5 Nm.
c) 1.5 Km.
d) 2 Km.
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Q.133. The visibility minima of those Airlines who have not filed their own Minimum with
the DGCA for an airport of Non Precession approach is:
a) 1500.
b) 1500 meters.
c) 5 Nm.
d) 3.7 Km.
Q.134. VFR flights outside a controlled airspace at height above 5000 should not be carried
out it the visibility falls below
a) 8 Km.
b) 8 Nm.
c) 5 Km.
d) 3 Km.
Q.135. The lateral separation using DR Navigation.
a) 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less.
b) 45 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more.
c) 30 deg between aircraft of 15 nm or more.
d) 30 deg between aircraft of 15 nm or less.
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic
Control.
b) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in
respect of VFR flights.
c) VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights.
d) All are correct.
Q.139. In class E airspace.
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted.
b) All flights receive traffic information.
c) IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control & are separated from other IFR
flights.
d) All are correct.
Q.140. In class F airspace
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted.
b) IFR flights receive air traffic advisory services.
c) All flights receive flight information service on request.
d) All are correct.
Q.141. The minimum number of Stewards/air hostesses to be carried you board if the
passenger carrying capacity is ….
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
Q.142. Pilots log book is to be preserved for
a) 5 years from the date of starting the log book.
b) 5 years from the date of last entry.
c) Till the pilots return.
Q.143. Two white crosses on a signal square indicate:
a) Area not fit for the use of aircraft.
b) Gliding in progress.
c) Take permission before landing.
Q.144. Information has been received that an aircraft is about make a forced landing. It is
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a) Alert phase.
b) Uncertainty phase.
c) Distress phase.
Q.145. Talking about the ATS routes in India W means.
a) Domestic routes.
b) International routes.
c) Any of the above.
Q.146. Position report is required to be given when
a) Crossing an FIR
b) Over a compulsory reporting point.
c) If so required by ATC
d) All are correct.
Q.147. Check rides are not counted when:
a) Aircraft is phased out of service
b) When on a test flight.
c) For flying club training aircraft.
d) All are counted.
Q.148. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in
a) Aeradio
b) AIP
c) Notams
Q.149. As regards. Air services transit agreement India is a signatory:
a) True
b) False.
Q.150. In the above question the privileges are
a) Permission to fly across its territory without landing.
b) Permission to land for non traffic purpose.
Q.151. The aircraft registration and marking procedures are given in ICAO Annexure:
a) 7
b) 1
c) 11
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d) 18.
Q.152. The navigation lights on an aircraft are
a) Right green 110 deg, left red 110 deg.
b) Right green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 70 deg.
c) Right green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 140 deg.
Q.153 NOTAM class 1 in series ‘A’ are issued when
a) Information is of permanent nature.
b) Information is valid for more than 2 hours.
c) Information is valid for less than 2 hours.
Q.154. An aircraft accident is to be reported:
a) Immediately.
b) Within 24 hours.
c) Within 48 hours.
d) As early as possible.
Q.155. Wake turbine separation minima for landing. If an aircraft is to land behind a heavy
aircraft.
a) 2 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
Q.156. The revised ETA is to be passed to the ATC if the actual TAS differs from the
planned TAS by
a) 5% or 10 Knots.
b) 10%
c) 20%
Q.157. Prisoners can be carried on board aircraft with written permission of
a) DGCA.
b) Commissioner of Prisons.
c) Controller of police
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c) Class C airspace.
Q.179. At an aerodrome tower
a) Red & green beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome.
b) Red & white beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome.
c) White & green beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome.
Q.180. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is
a) 460.
b) 450.
c) 400.
Q.181. VFR flights at an aerodrome are not permitted if visibility is below
a) 5 km.
b) 8 km.
c) 3 km.
Q.182 A series of green & red pyrotechnics fired at short intervals towards an aircraft
indicated that:
a) The aircraft is entering a prohibited area.
b) The aircraft is entering a danger area.
c) The aircraft is entering a restricted area.
d) All are correct.
Q.183 The certificate of airworthiness is suspended it
a) Low flying is done.
b) Un authorized modifications are done
c) Un authorized flying is done.
b) 1954.
c) 1934.
d) 1947.
Q.186. If an aircraft comes from a place which is a yellow fever area & was disinfected it is
to be quarantined:
a) If it stopped at a place where there was yellow fever
b) If there is a patient suffering from yellow fever on board.
c) Not to be quarantined.
Q.187. The incubation period for yellow fever is
a) 8 days.
b) 6 days.
c) 4 days.
Q.188. Emergency check lists are prepared by the
a) Manufacturer & authorized by operator.
b) Operator & authorized by DGCA.
c) DGCA & authorized by manufacturer.
Q.189. Wake turbulence separation minima for landing if a light or a medium aircraft is to
land behind a heavy aircraft is
a) 2 mts.
b) 3 mts.
c) 5 mts.
Q.190. The highest point on the ground in an airfield is:
a) ARP.
b) Airfield elevation.
c) Aerodrome height.
d) Obstruction height.
Q.191. Over Malabar hills in Mumbai aircraft can not fly within
a) 2 nm from the Lower of silence.
b) 1 nm from the Lower of silence.
c) 5 nm from the Lower of silence.
Q.192. Supersonic aircraft can fly over Indian territory:
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Q.198. On an IFR flight plan in VMC you have an R/T failure. The action is
a) Continue strictly as per the flight plan.
b) Continue to destination in VMC.
c) Proceed to alternate in VMC.
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Q.204. An aircraft has forced landed at an aerodrome, it can take off again:
a) If the pilot is satisfied after an inspection that the aircraft is airworthy.
b) With the permission of DGCA.
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b) Not separated.
c) not separated but information is given to other aircraft.
Q.212. A new flight plan is required to be filed at an
a) Uncontrolled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes.
b) Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes.
c) Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by less than 30 minutes.
Q.213. Displaced threshold is indicated by
a) White lights in a row
b) Red lights in a row.
c) Green lights in a row.
Q.214. Distress signal is
a) Dropping of red parachute flares.
b) Firing of white pyrotechnical lights in
c) Firing of green pyrotechnical lights in succession.
Q.215. Series of projectiles fired at an interval of 10 second, on bursting showing red 7 green
stars or lights indicate
a) Aircraft is in distress but no immediate assistance in required.
b) Aircraft is in distress and immediate assistance is required.
c) Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of a prohibited area.
d) Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of a prohibited area, restricted
area or danger area.
Q.216. Weather minima VMC below 3000 feet in a controlled …….. is
a) Visibility 8 Km
b) Visibility 5 Km
c) Visibility 1.5 Km
d) Visibility 300 meters.
Q.217. While taking off from the same R/W or parallel R/W at less than 760 meters apart, a
light or a medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft the separation minima is
a) 2 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
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b) Class D& F
c) Class D, E, F, & G
d) Class B, C, D, & F
Q.256. You will report an air miss when:
a) You see an aircraft at same flight level.
b) You see an aircraft at close proximity with no risk of collision.
c) You see an aircraft at close proximity and you think there was
risk of collision.
Q.257.All records associated with defects & their rectification are required to be preserved
for a period of
a) One year.
b) Two years.
c) Till the aircraft is phased out of service.
Q.258. C of A will cease to be valid if
a) Aircraft is engaged in unauthorized operations.
b) Aircraft suffers from a major damage or defect.
c) There is a change of ownership.
d) All are correct.
Q.259. All defects observed during flight are to be reported.
a) Soon after the flight.
b) After the last flight of the day in case or training aircraft making a series of
flight in a single day. Unless a serious defect occurs.
c) Both are correct.
Q.260. Fire extinguishers are carried in an aircraft cabin.
a) To extinguish cabin fire.
b) To extinguish electrical fire.
c) Because it is required under the regulations.
Q.261. FDR has a record of operation of proceeding.
a) 25 hours. b) 5 hours.
c) 30 mts. d) Flight.
Q.262. FDR is mandatory for
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a) All aircraft.
b) Aircraft with AUW exceeding 21000 Kg.
c) Aircraft with AUW exceeding 5700 Kg.
Q.278. Dead body or remains of a person who has died of yellow fever can be brought to
India with the permission of
a) Health officer. b) Indian Embassy aboard.
c) Central Govt. d) Can not be brought.
Q.279. The rules for Public health were published fin
a) 1954. b) 1934.
c) 1939. d) 1947.
Q.280. The displaced threshold is indicated by
a) White lights. b) Green lights.
c) Red lights. d) Yellow lights.
Q.281. The displaced threshold is indicated by:
a) White lights. b) Green lights.
c) Red lights. d) Yellow lights.
Q.282. The end of the R/W is indicated by
a) White lights b) Green lights.
c) Red lights. d) Yellow lights.
Q.283 For the purpose of renewal of CPL:
a) 50% of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC.
b) 50% of instrument flying is counted as PIC.
c) 80% of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC.
Q.284. An aircraft can fly within 5 nm of an airfield this area is called.
a) Restricted area. b) Danger area.
c) Prohibited area. d) Airfield area.
Q.285. Penalty for carrying explosives or arms & giving wrong statements:
a) 2 years of imprisonment & time.
b) 2 years of imprisonment & time. ………
c) One year ……..
Q.286. The certified of air worthiness……. suspended
a) After an accident
b) After unauthorized ……….
c) Aircraft suffers in major detect.
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d) All correct.
Q.287.
a)
b)
c)
Q.288. An aircraft coming from Bombay to Delhi lands at Jaipur due to weather. It can T/O
again without permission of the DGCA.
TRUE/ FALSE
Q.289. Aircraft flying on the same track & level the longitude separation is
a) 30 mts.
b) 15 mts.
c) 05 mts.
Q.290. Aircraft flying on the same Track & level when frequent position fixing is possible
the longitudinal separation is
a) 30 mts. b) 15 mts.
c) 05 mts. d) 10 mts.
Q.291. At an aerodrome a red square with two yellow diagonals indicates …… landing
prohibited and prohibition is likely to last for long……
Q.292. A series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft on the ground indicates ……
Clear to TAXI .
Q.293. Officers belonging to Army/Navy/Air Force
a) Can carry arms on board a civil aircraft.
b) Can not carry arms on board a civil aircraft.
Q.294. An extremely sick person
a) Can not be carried on board an aircraft.
b) Can be carried on board an aircraft.
c) Can be carried on board an aircraft, if accompanied by an attendant &
certified by a registered medical practitioner.
Q.295. The reciprocal tracks on a semicircular system below F/L 290 have vertical clearance
of
a) 500 feet.
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b) 1000 feet.
c) 2000 feet.
Q.296. In India the semicircular system starts from F/L
a) 150. b) 170.
c) 290. d) 160.
Q.297. The Runway direction is measured with respect to :
a) True North. b) Magnetic North.
c) Compass North. d) Grid North.
c) 8 to 24 hrs. d) 12 to 24 hrs.
Q.304. The Tokyo convention Act 1975 applies fto
a) All aircraft. b) The whole of India.
c) Any where in the world.
Q.305. The aircraft rules 1937 apply to:
a) The whole of India.
b) All aircraft registered in India, where ever these are flying & all persons on
board these aircraft.
c) All aircraft when flying over India & all persons on board.
d) All are correct.
Q.306. The act rules dealing with public health is
a) Public health rules 1954.
b) Aircraft (Public Health) Rules
Q.307. ATC provides which of the following
a) Advisory service b) Control of air traffic.
c) Search & rescue. d) All are correct.
Q.308. Minimum visibility aerodrome equipped with radio aids.
a) 2.7 km. b) 3.7 km.
c) 5 km. d) 1.5 km.
Q.309. Minimum visibility aerodrome not equipped with radio aids:
a) 2.7 km. b) 3.7 km.
c) 5 km. d) 1.5 km.
Q.310. For the purpose of having additional aircraft in the aircraft rating of the license. The
training flying should be carried.
a) With in 5 nm of the aerodrome.
b) Within the local flying area of the aerodrome.
c) Any where in India.
d) All are correct.
Q.311. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly in 30 days is
a) 125 hrs as PIC.
b) 125 hrs PIC or Co-pilot.
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a) 5 minutes. b) 10 minutes.
c) 15 minutes. d) 20 minutes.
Q.342. The FDR should be capable of recording the conversation for at least preceding
a) 25 Hrs. b) 5 Hrs.
c) 25 Minutes. d) 30 minutes.
Q.343. The FDTL for international flights in terms of flying hours & number of landings is
a) 9/3 b) 8/4
c) 6/3 d) 9/4
Q.344. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions
a) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
b) Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream.
c) Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
Q.352. What is the most effective way to use eyes during night flying?
a) Look only at far away dim lights.
b) Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
c) Concentrate directly on each object for few seconds.
Q.353. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision
avoidance.
a) One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed.
b) One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed.
c) One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement &
is increasing in size.
Q.354.When making a ….. over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow
pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be:
a) High
b) Low.
c) Shallow
Q.355. Haze can give illusion that the aircraft is
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c) Green. d) Yellow.
Q.363. During flight a red light seen on a Relative bearing of 270 means
a) A risk of collision with another aircraft.
b) No risk of collision with another aircraft.
c) An aerodrome beacon indicating unsafe conditions.
Q.364. A Control Zone is
a) An airspace with in which an traffic is controlled
b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the
earth to a specific upper limit.
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified upper limit above
the earth.
Q.365. When using earth’s horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other
aircraft most concern would be for aircraft:
a) Above the horizon & increasing in size.
b) On the horizon with …. Relative movement.
c) On the horizon & increasing in size.
Q.366. When making an approach on ……… than usual runway without VASI assistance,
the pilot should be aware that the approach:
a) Altitude may be higher than it appears.
b) Approach attitude may be lower than it appears.
c) May result in leveling off too high & landing hard.
Q.367. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly as PIC in one tear:
a) 1000
b) 1500
c) 125.
Q.368. Instrument flying time means:
a) Flying time during night.
b) The time during which the pilot is flying solely with reference
instruments without any external visual reference.
c) The time during which the pilot is flying with reference to instruments with
external visual reference.
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Q.373. The sign from a crash site indicating that ‘assistance required’ is
a) X b) S
c) V d) C
Q.374. Aerodrome control service is provided in
a) Circuit b) Control zone.
c) Control area. d) All the above.
Q.375. Met minima for VFR flights above 3000 feet AMSL is
a) Visibility 8 Km, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M
Vertically.
b) Visibility 8 nm, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M
Vertically.
c) Visibility 5 Km, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M
Vertically.
Q.376. For civil aerodromes the colour of the rotating beacon is
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a) White
b) White & Green
c) White & Blue.
Q.377. To cross an ATS route Permission is to be obtained minimum
a) 10 minutes before crossing.
b) 15 minutes before crossing.
c) 30 minutes before crossing.
Q.378. For domestic flights minimum distance from the international border is
a) 5 nm.
b) 10 nm.
c) 15 nm.
Q.379. The refueling operation should be stopped if a jet aircraft starts to run up its engines
within a distance of
a) 43 meters
b) 141 meters.
c) 15 meters.
Q.380. The light aircraft departing behind a medium aircraft the minimum time difference is
a) 2 mts.
b) 3 mts.
c) 5 mts.
Q.381. An aircraft can be detained under.
a) Aircraft act 1934.
b) Aircraft act rules 1937.
c) Aircraft act rules 1934.
Q.382. The facilities provided by ATC in aerodrome control are
a) Control b) Traffic.
c) Search & rescue. d) All the above are correct.
Q.383. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in IMC. It should fly according to
a) Semicircular system.
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b) Quadrental system.
c) Return back to base.
Q.384. Rules regarding demolition of obstruction caused by tall buildings trees etc are laid
down in:
a) Aircraft rules 1937. b) Aircraft rules 1934.
c) Aircraft act. 1934. d) Aircraft public health rules 1954.
Q.385. Night flying corresponds to flying between:
a) Half hr. before sunset to half hr. after sunrise.
b) Half hr. after sunset to half hr. after sunrise.
c) Half hr. after sunset to half hr. before sunrise.
d) Half hr. before sunset to half hr. after sunrise.
Q.387. If a passenger on board the aircraft is suffering from an illness. PIC is to inform
health officer ……… hours before landing.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4.
Q.388. The punishment for carriage of unauthorized arms & ammunition in the aircraft is
A) Maximum 3 months imprisonment or fine of Rs. 1000/- or both.
b) Maximum 6 months imprisonment or fine of Rs. 1000/- or both.
c) Maximum 2 months imprisonment or fine of Rs. 500/- or both.
d) Maximum 2 years punishment and fine.
Q.389. For aircraft flying over India enroute navigation charges are based on
a) The duration & length of flight.
b) The Duration of stay
c) Maximum AUW of the aircraft.
Q.390. A Pilot involved in an accident can fly again.
a) After a medical examination.
b) When asked by the operation to fly.
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