SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.

“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”

San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY PRACTICES (OHS)

Final Examination

“Education is not the learning of facts, but the training of the mind to think.”
- Albert Einstein

Name:__________________________ Section:___________ Date:______ Score:_______

General Directions: Read the direction carefully before answering the question and choose the best answer.
Erasure will consider as wrong. Good Luck!

I. Multiple Choice
1. When the ancient Sumerian law outlined compensation for injury to a workers specific body parts?
a. 2020 B.C c. 2030 B.C
b. 2050 B.C d. 2060 B.C
2. The legal framework for compensating injuries was exceptionally restrictive and the principles became
known as the __________?
a. Unholy Trinity of Defenses c. Trinity of Defense
b. Holy Trinity of Defenses d. Holy Trinity
3. Is a state-mandated insurance program that provides compensation in the form of wage replacement
and medical benefits to employees who suffer job-related injuries?
a. Workers Compensation c. both a and b
b. Workmen Compensation d. None of the above
4. Which of the following is considered as workers compensation benefits?
a. Medical treatment c. Death Benefits
b. Wage replacement d. All of the above
5. This kind of disability benefits happens when an injury prevents an employee from working at all, but
not only for a certain amount of time.
a. Temporary partial disability c. Permanent total disability
b. Temporary total disability d. Permanent partial disability
6. The employee must not be able to work at their current job or similar jobs anymore?
a. Temporary partial disability c. Permanent total disability
b. Temporary total disability d. Permanent partial disability
7. This benefits pay for their aphetic care so your employees can make a full recovery from their
occupational injuries or illnesses?
a. Medical treatment c. Death Benefits
b. Vocational Rehabilitation Benefits d. Wage replacement
8. The following are the death benefits, except?
a. Funeral and burial expenses c. Medical treatment
b. Financial support d. both c and d
9. Any situation in which the life or well-being of refugees will be threatened unless immediate and
appropriate action is taken and which extraordinary?
a. Risks c. Accident
b. Emergency d. Hazard
10. A forward planning process in a state of uncertainty in which scenarios and objectives are agreed?
a. Planning process c. Contingency Planning
b. Contingency Measures d. Both b and c
11. Which of the following is the process of contingency planning?
a. Analyze risks and identify scenarios
b. Define policy and objectives

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor
 SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.
“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”
San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

c. Prepare the plan

d. All of the above

12. Which of the following are the important components of a contingency planning?
a. Training c. Alternate Facilities
b. Testing d. All of the above

13. It is the chance or probability of that causing harm or damage to people, property or the environment.
a. Risks c. accident
b. Hazard d. trials
14. What does PPE stands for?
a. Protective Preventive Equipment c. People’s Preventive Equipment
b. Personal Protective Equipment d. Personal Preventive Equipment
15. Why is it important to wear PPE?
a. Because it looks right c. Because it protects you.
b. Because it protects the tools d. Because it is what an employer tells you.
16. Which of the following describes a workplace health and safety hazard?
a. Putting the wet floor sign after mopping the floor
b. An unanswered health and safety question
c. An activity which cannot be insured
d. Something that might cause harm.
17. Under the OHS Act, employers are responsible for providing a ______.
a. Safe workplace c. Insurance
b. Land d. Estimation
18. Which act provides the legislative framework to secure the safety, health and welfare among human
workforces and to protect others against risks?
a. SARA c. CERCLA
b. RCRA d. OSHA
19. OSHA was created to_____________.
a. Data Analysis c. Ecological development
b. To reduce hazards d. EIA Analysis
20. It introduces the potential for an unsafe condition, possibly leading to an accident.
a. Risk c. safe
b. Accident d. hazard
21. The legal responsibilities of employers with regards to safety and health include what?
a. Charging employees for replacing damaged or loss of PPE.
b. Provide a workplace free from recognized hazards and comply with OSHA standards.
c. Taking out additional insurances for dangerous work.
d. Ensuring that only one member of staff works on a dangerous job.
22. The following are the employee’s responsibility. EXCEPT
a. Right to hazard exposure and medical records
b. Right to be free from retaliation for exercising safety and health rights.
c. Right to complaint with OSHA
d. Right to pay for PPE
23. First aid is given to a victim in an emergency for the following purposes, EXCEPT.
a. To protect the conscious victim
b. To prevent the condition from worsening and to relieve pain
c. To promote recovery
d. To prolong life
24. Under these regulations, employers are required to report a wide range of work related incidents,
injuries and diseases to Health and Safety Executive.
a. The Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
b. The Health and Safety Regulations 1992
c. The Workplace Regulations 1992

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor
 SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.
“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”
San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

d. The Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995

25. Employers have a contractual obligation not to require a worker to work more than an average of ____
a week, unless the worker has opted out this voluntarily and in writing.
a. 45 c. 47
b. 46 d. 48
26. Which of the following regulations that also known as “Display Screen Equipment Regulations”?
a. The Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
b. The Health and Safety Regulations 1992
c. The Workplace Regulations 1992
a. The Management of Health and Safety Regulations 1999
27. The main provision of these regulations is to require employers to operate a written health and policy.
a. The Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
b. The Health and Safety Regulations 1992
c. The Workplace Regulations 1992
d. The Management of Health and Safety Regulations 1999
28. What regulations those require employers to provide workers with information on the weight of each
load?
a. The Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
b. The Health and Safety Regulations 1992
c. The Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992
a. The Working Time Regulations 1998
29. Safety regulations not only offer workers a safer working environment, it also saves small
business_______ and_______.
a. Time and Money c. safety and knowledge
b. Time and Effort d. Money and Effort
30. The following are the benefits of establishing a safety system in the workplace, EXCEPT.
a. To comfort of all the employees in the company
b. To feel more secure in the workplace
c. To feel that safety measures and regulations haven’t established and reinforced to protect them
d. To feel workers a safer working environment

31. An unforeseen situation that threatens the employees, customers, or the public; disrupts or shuts down
your operations and causes physical or environmental damage?
a. Disaster c. Risk
b. Critical d. Hazards
32. They offered disaster preparedness and mitigation services integrate capability-building activities that
range from disaster management trainings, workshops and planning sessions.
a. Citizen’s Disaster Response c. Citizen’s Disaster Response Center’s
b. Disaster’s Citizens Response Center’s d. Disaster’s Response Center’s
33. Employers should conduct _________ and ________ to evaluate the effectiveness of the preparedness
program, and make sure employees know what to do and find any missing parts.
a. Testing and exercises c. Writing Plans and Assessing Resources
b. Testing and implementation d. Execute Plans and Trainings
34. Which educational services that used for victims of life-threatening illnesses or injuries until they can be
given full medical care at a hospital.
a. First Aid c. Spillage Control
b. Basic Life Support d. Disaster Preparedness
35. Is a method of practicing how a building would be evacuated in the event of a fire or other
emergencies?
a. Fire Drill c. Spillage Control
b. Earthquake Drill d. Decontamination of Chemical and Toxic

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor
 SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.
“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”
San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

36. Is the reduction or removal of chemical agents and may be accomplished by removal of these agents
by physical means or by chemical neutralization or detoxification.
a. Spillage Control c. Disaster Preparedness/Management
b. Decontamination of Chemical and Toxic d. First Aid
37. The assistance given to any person suffering a serious illness or injury, with care provided to preserve
life, prevent the condition from worsening or to promote recovery?
a. First Aid c. First Aider
b. Basic Life Support d. Disaster/ Preparedness Management
38. A measure taken to prepare for and reduce the effects of disasters.
a. Disaster Preparedness/ Management c. Spillage Control
b. Management Disaster/Preparedness d. Contingency Measures
39. Is one that cannot be contained safely with the materials on the site and threatens safety to life?
a. Fire Drill c. Spillage Control
b. Earthquake Drill d. Decontamination of Chemical and Toxic
40. The following are the essential elements of emergency preparedness planning, except.
a. Identify hazards and risks
b. Assess capabilities and resources
c. Develop an emergency plan and procedures
d. Program Management
41. It includes identifying and assessing resources, writing plans, developing a system to manage incidents
and training employees so they can execute plans.
a. Planning c. Implementation
b. Program Improvement d. Testing and Exercises
42. One of the typical goals of this step in developing a preparedness program is to maintain customer
service by minimizing interruptions or disruptions of business operations.
a. Program Improvement c. Planning
b. Program Management d. Testing and Exercises
43. The planning process should take a _________ approach.
a. All Risks c. All Emergency
b. All Hazards d. All Danger
44. The following are some of the ways in handling medical emergencies, except.
a. Preventing Shock c. Immobilizing head and back injuries
b. Treating burns properly d. All of the above
45. Which of the following is the planning process that should take an all hazards approach?
a. Blackouts c. Nuclear Power plants
b. Hazardous materials incidents d. All of the above
46. The following are the steps in developing a preparedness program, except.
a. Planning c. Preparedness Planning
b. Testing and exercises d. Program Improvement
47. Why it is important to invest time in a preparedness program?
a. Because customers expect delivery of products or services on time.
b. Because larger businesses are asking their suppliers about preparedness.
c. Because insurance is only a partial solution.
d. All of the above
48. Which of the following are the workplace hygiene procedures relating to food hygiene?
a. Follow hygiene procedures and identify hygiene hazards
b. Report any personal health issues
c. Prevent food and other item contamination
d. All of the above
49. Which of the following emergencies are classified as man-made emergency?
a. Earthquake c. Terrorism
b. Hurricanes d. Flood
50. Which of the following emergencies are classified as natural emergency?
a. Winter Storm c. Flood
b. Tornado d. All of the above
51. The following are the 5 Keys to Removing the Risk from workforce management, except.

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor
 SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.
“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”
San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

a. Evaluate the risks c. Know and understand the laws

b. Document Everything d. Engage an expert
52. What keys of removing the risks that is involved in handling employees that should be documenting
the processes and procedures that you are putting forth to minimize risks.
a. Know and understand the laws c. Know everything
b. Use technology d. Document Everything
53. To stay compliant, you need to know and understand all of the laws that pertain to your workforce.
a. Engage Expert c. Use technology
b. Know everything d. Know and understand the laws
54. This type of software program can reduce the risks of administrative and paperwork errors significantly
and also allow for greater visibility into business metrics to help you identify and reduce risks.
a. Know everything c. Know and understand the laws
b. Use technology d. Engage Expert
55. Is the process of doing everything possible to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk towards
zero?
a. Removing risks c. Use Technology
b. Minimizing risks d. Know everything
56. The safety health organization that formulates and review legislation, policies, guidelines and codes of
practice pertaining to occupational safety health and welfare.
a. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
b. Department of Safety and Health (DOSH)
c. Social Security Organization (SOCSO)
d. Social Association of Health and Safety (SAHA)
57. The safety health organization of OSHA who carried out various training activities such as courses,
workshops and seminar in order to fulfill the industries workforce needs and wants.
a. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
b. Department of Safety and Health (DOSH)
c. Social Security Organization (SOCSO)
d. Social Association of Health and Safety (SAHA)
58. Which safety health organization of OSHA who provides vocational and physical rehabilitation benefits
and enhance occupational safety and health awareness of workers.
a. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
b. Department of Safety and Health (DOSH)
c. Social Security Organization (SOCSO)
d. Social Association of Health and Safety (SAHA)
59. The following situation are considered as a hazard, EXCEPT.
a. Bleeding c. Stairs
b. Rain d. Knife
60. What is the first action to take when approaching the scene of an accident?
a. Check for signs of life
b. Wait for the emergency services
c. Attend to the most serious injury
d. Make sure the area is safe to enter

__ GOD BLESS_

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor
 SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.
“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”
San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

BREAD AND PASTRY PRODUCTION NC II

Final Examination

”Education is not preparation for life; Education is life itself.”

- John Dewey

Name:_______________________ Section:_________ Date:__________ Score:_______

General Directions: Read the direction carefully before answering the question. Erasure will consider as
wrong. Good Luck!

I. Multiple Choice.
1. The application of dry heat on cakes, bread and pastries is called_________.
a. Baking c. Barbecuing
b. Basting d. Blending
2. A person who prepares baked goods as profession is called a______.
a. Cook c. plumber
b. Baker d. Mason
3. Pastry chef and bakers must possess the following EXCEPT:
a. knowledge c. pride
b. skill d. hostility
4. What kind of traditional oven was used during ancient times?
a. Deck oven c. Electric oven
b. Mansonry oven d. Rack oven
5. What will you do in measuring cup that full of flour to avoid excess measurement?
a. Tap or shake c. overflow
b. Sift the flour d. level by the spatula or edge of the knife
6. Which technique is best used when measuring shortening?
a. Scoop measuring cup in shortening, then level with spatula
b. Fill up loosely with shortening, then level with spatula
c. Tap measuring cup with spoon while filling then level with spatula
d. Press shortening in measuring cup, then level with spatula
7. What is the step by step procedure when measuring dry ingredients?
I. Scoop to fill the measuring cup to overflow. Do not shake.
II. Sift the flour using sifter
III. Level off with spatula
a. II, I, III c. I,II,III
b. III,I,II d. II, III, I
8. PPE is very much important to avoid food contamination. What does PPE stands for?
a. Protective Preventive Equipment c. Personal Preventive Equipment
b. Personal Protective Equipment d. People’s Preventive Equipment
9. Batter mixture should be folded over the meringue. What mixing technique should be applied?
a. Creaming c. Cut and Fold
b. Cut in d. Stirring
10. How do you know that you had creamed the butter well enough? EXCEPT.
a. Incompletely dissolve sugar c. if it is well blended
b. If the batter is fluffy d. Butter is very light in color
11. Your cake is failed when it is: EXCEPT.
a. Soggy layer, moist or stick crust
b. Coarse texture, heavy compact texture
c. Tender and moist but not gummy
d. Humping or cracking on top, cake falling
12. Have the pans prepared before mixing the batter mixture to:
a. To finish the work as soon as possible

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor
 SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.
“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”
San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

b. After mixing, the batter will immediately fill into the pan then bake, so that air cells in the
batter mixture will not collapse.
c. To combine the batter evenly
d. None of these
13. What is the worst enemy of meringue mixture?
a. Sugar c. Butter
b. Cream of tartar d. Water
14. What baking tools that is used to level off the excess amount of flour into the measuring cup?
a. Spatula c. Rubber scraper
b. Edge of the Knife d. Both a and b
15. The texture of a baked product is coarse and chewy if it is used instead of milk.
a. Oil c. Juice
b. Water d. Vanilla
16. There are three methods in making soft roll bread: EXCEPT,
a. Spongy Dough Method c. Straight Dough Method
b. No Time Dough Method d. Sponge Dough Method
17. What do you think the reason why pre-heating the oven is necessary before putting your dough into
oven?
a. To make the product rise easily
b. To have a uniformly color of the product
c. To kill the bacteria inside the oven
d. To have the right amount of heat measurement for the product
18. The types of flour that has the highest protein content for yeast baking?
a. All Purpose Flour c. Cake Flour
b. Bread Flour d. None of the above
19. Which of the following kind of fat those come from vegetable oil?
a. Margarine
b. Butter
c. Lard
d. None of the above
20. Kind of fats that produces from animal fats?
a. Margarine
b. Butter
c. Lard
d. None of the above
21. Which of the following statement is/are true?
i. Milk used in baked products to improve texture and mouth feel. It also adds the
nutritional value of the product.
ii. Chocolate tastes very bitter and gives a deep flavor to baked goods.
a. Both a and b
b. i only
c. ii only
d. None of the above
22. Mixture that gives a rich color or gloss to the crust of a baked goods when it is brushed on the
unbaked surface of the product. It is the combination of egg and milk?
a. Egg Brush c. Dash
b. Egg Wash d. Caramelize
23. To rub fat on the surface of a pan or dish to prevent Bakery product to sticking in the pan?
a. Brush c. Egg Wash

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor
 SPJ International Technology Institute, Inc.
“Skill Provider & Job Placement Technology Institute, Inc.”
San Isidro Poblacion, Tinambac, Camarines Sur

b. Grease d. Whip
24. To fold, push and turn dough or other mixture to produce a smooth, elastic texture?
a. Dough c. Kneed
b. Knead d. Grate
25. To make a single small hole or several small holes to check if the product is well baked?
a. Prick c. Slice
b. Dig d. Slit
26. Which of the following is/are False?
i. Fats and oils they tenderize the bread, add flavor and richness and do not contribute to
the storage life of bread by retaining moisture.
ii. Different types of oil are vegetable oil, canola oil, minola oil, coconut oil, baby oil and
cooking oil.
a. Both a and b c. ii only
b. I only D. None of the above
27. This kind of measuring tools is made of glass or plastic and is used for measuring liquids.
a. Graduated measuring glass c. Measuring spoon
b. Individual measuring cups d. Weighing scale
28. It is used to shorten the preparation time for baking products especially icings.
a. Wire whisk c. Wooden Spoon
b. Electric mixer d. Rubber spatula
29. A desk used for decorating cakes and can be turned around while the cake is being decorated.
a. Lazy Susan c. Tire Table
b. Flat Sheet d. kneading table

30. It is used to remove sticky ingredients from cup and sides of bowls, and push batter into baking pans.
a. Wooden spoon c. Spatula
b. Rubber scraper d. Wire whip
31. Measuring tools used to measure the small amounts of wet and dry ingredients.
a. Measuring spoon c. measuring cup
b. Measuring glass d. weighing scale
32. It holds together other ingredients during mixing and baking.
a. Egg c. water
b. Oil d. butter
33. It is a good source of shortening and melting quality so this is good for pastries and Cakes.
a. Margarine c. lard
b. Butter d. cooking oil
34. The abbreviation for kitchen terms Table spoon.
a. Tbsp. or T c. tbsp. or t
b. Tbsp. or t d. Tsp. or T
35. This flour has a velvety and smooth texture is whiter than the two types of flour and tends to hold
shape when lumped together.
a. All-purpose flour c. Bread flour
b. Cake flour d. Self-rising flour

36-70: (35 points) base on the result of your National Assessment for Bread and Pastry Production
NC II Qualification.

_GOD BLESS_

Prepared by:
Besenio, Judith C.
Instructor