TEST 1 (Rheology + Micrimertics + GIT + Alkaloids intro and Tropane Alkaloids)

Q.1 A type of flow in which viscosity increases when the substance is agitated is
a) Plastic
b) Pseudo plastic
c) Dilatant
d) Thixotropic

Q 2. Which of the following fluid can be considered as an ideal fluid?

a. Viscous fluid
b. Non-viscous fluid
c. Compressible fluid
d. All of above

Q3. Materials whose consistency depends on the duration of shear, as well as on the rate of
shear, exhibit
a. Rheopexy
b. Thixotropy
c. Viscoelasticity
d. Plasticity

4. Suspensions of starch in water exhibit

a. Plastic flow
b. Pseudoplastic flow
c. Dilatant flow
d. None of these

5. What is the viscosity of resulting liquid after mixing 300mL of liquid A (η=1.0 cP) with the
200mL of liquid B (η=3.4 cP)?
a. 2.2 cP
b. 1.4 cP
c. 1.6 cP
d. 1.8 cP

6. Hoeppler viscometer is a type of

(a) Capillary viscometer
(b) Falling sphere viscometer
(c) Cup and Bob viscometer
(d) Cone and plate viscometer

7. The preferred rheological behavior of Pharmaceutical suspensions is that of

(a) Pseudoplasticity and thixotrophy
(b) Pseudoplasticity
(c) Dilatancy and thixotrophy
(d) Pseudoplasticity and rheopexy

8. Which of the following is cgs unit of Kinematic viscosity?

a. centistokes
b. poise
c. m/s
d. cm2/sec

9. Relative viscosity of 2% Acacia dispersion is 5. Find specific viscosity

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 2.5

10. Which of the following is used to determine Viscoelasticity?

a. Creep Viscometer
b. Rheogoniometer
c. Dynamic Viscometer
d. All of above

11. What is the correct order of Viscosity of following at 20 degree Celsius?

a. Castor Oil>Olive oil>Glycerine>Water>Ethanol
b. Castor Oil>Glycerine>Olive Oil>Ethanol>Water
c. Glycerine>Castor Oil>Olive Oil>Water>Ethanol
d. Glycerine>Castor Oil>Olive oil>Ethanol>Water

12. Which of the following are Newtonian fluids?

a. Paraffin
b. Glycerine
c. Both
d. None

13. Slope of Shear Stress (y axis) vs Strain Graph (axis) for Newtonian bodies gives
a. Viscosity
b. Mobility
c. Fluidity
d. Viscoelasticity

14. Reduced Viscosity at zero concentration is known as:

a. Inherent Viscosity
b. Intrinsic Viscoaity
c. Viscosity Number
d. All of above

15. Choose the incorrect statement

a. Non-electrolytes increase the Viscosity of a solution
b. Strong electrolytes decrease the Viscosity of solutions
c. Increase in Pressure leads to decrease in Viscosity
d. Viscosity of gases increases with rise in temperature

16. Choose the correct statement regarding Bingham bodies

a. These are called Shear-thinning bodies
b. Slope of G vs F graph for plastic body gives Fluidity
c. All flocculated suspensions show plastic behaviour
d. Plastic bodies can be represented with a single value of Viscosity

17. What are units of Yield value?

a. Pa.s
b. Kg/m/sec
c. s-1
d. N/m2

18. Select the Correct option

a. Pseudoplastic bodies cant be represented by a single value of viscosity
b. Viscosity of pseudoplastic systems keep on increasing when stress is applied
c. Polymeric dispersions show dilatancy
d. Casson plot and Fitch plot are used to identify whether a body is dilatant or pseudoplastic

19. Select the incorrect statement for Dilatant bodies

a. Fluidity increases when stress is applied
b. Concentrated deflocculated suspensions are dilatant
c. Starch in water is an example of dilatant body
d. they cannot be represented by a single value of Viscosity

20. Caking in deflocculated suspensions is example of:

a. plasticity
b. pseudoplasticity
c. Dilatancy
d. Thixotropy

21. Bulge and Spur are shown by______ and ______ respectively
a. Procaine Penicillin G , Bentonite Magma
b. Procaine Pencillin G , Magnesia Magma
c. Bentonite Magma, Procaine Penicillin G
d. Magnesia Magma, Procaine Penicillin G

22. Which of the following will show Thixotropy?

a. Glycerine
b. Concentrated flocculated suspensions
c. Concentrated deflocculated suspensions
d. All of above

23. Equilibrium state in Thixotropy is

a. Gel and High viscosity
b. Gel and Low Viscosity
c. Sol and High Viscosity
d. Sol and low Viscosity

24. Select the true statement with respect to thixotropy?

a. Both Newtonian and non newtonian bodies can show thixotropy
b. Viscosity on down curve is less than Viscosity on upcurve
c. In F vs G rheogram downcurve displaces towards the left of upcurve
d. All are true

25. Which of the following viscometer is Single point Viscometer

a. Redwood Viscometer
b. Falling Sphere Viscometer
c. Suspended level viscometer
d. All

26. Select the correct statement regarding Negative Thixotropy

a. It is shown by dilatant bodies
b. Equilibrium state is low Viscosity
c. It is exhibited by dilute flocculated suspensions
d. In G vs F graph down curve is displaced towards left of upcurve

27. Which of the following can show rheopexy?

a. Concentrated flocculated suspension
b. Concentrated deflocculated suspension
c. Dilute flocculated suspension
d. None of these

28. Which of the following is Couette type Viscometer?

a. Stormer Viscometer
b. Ferranti shirley viscometer
c. Brookfield Viscometer
d. Macmichael Viscometer

29. Plug flow wont be observed in which of the following Viscometer?

a. Stormer Viscometer
b. Ferranti shirley viscometer
c. Brookfield Viscometer
d. Macmichael Viscometer

30. Which of the following viscometer is based upon Stokes Law?

a. Ostwald Viscometer
b. Falling Sphere Viscometer
c. Suspended level Viscometer
d. Cup and bob viscometer

31. IP Method B for Viscosity measurement makes use of?

a. Ostwald Viscometer
b. Falling Sphere Visconeter
c. Suspended level Viscometer
d. Cup and bob viscometer

32. Penetrometer is used to determine:

a. viscosity of Newtonian fluids
b. Viscosity of non-newtonian fluids
c. Consistency of semisolids
d. Spreading index

33. Which of the following term is used to definw touch, colour, feel, spreadability and other
sensory properties of fluids?
a. Cosmetorheology
b. Biorheology
c. Psychorheology
d. surface rheology

34. A plastic material was found to have a yield value of 5000 dynes/cm 2. At shearing stress
above the yield value, F was found to increase linearly G. If rate of shear was 150s -1 & F was
8000dynes/cm2. Calculate Mobility

a. 20 poise

b. 5 poise

c. 0.05 poise

d. 2 poise

35. Consider the viscosity measurement of Acetone. Assume that time required for acetone to
flow b/w two marks on capillary viscometer was 50 sec & for water it was 100 seconds at 250C.
Density of acetone= 0.75 g/cm3 & that of water is 1 g/cm3 at 250C, the viscosity of water is 0.9
cp at 250C. What will be viscosity of acetone at 250C.

a. 0. 3375 poise

b. 0.3375 centipoise

c. 2.645 poise

d. 2.645 centipoise
36. When size parameter in Edmundson equation is negative, the mean of particle size
distribution is
a. Arithmetic
b. Geometric
c. Harmonic
d. None
37. Which of the following diameter is most significant pharmaceutically
a. Volume length dia
b. Volume surface dia
c. weight mean dia
d. surface length dia

38. According to Edmundson equation in dsn the value of p will be

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

39. Hatch choate equation is used to

a. convert number distribution into weight distribution
b. convert weight distribution into number distribution
c. Both
d. None

40. When cumulative frequency is plotted against log particle size on probability scale the
geometric mean diameter is obtained from
a. Slope
b. 50% size
c. 68% size
d. 95.5 % size

41. Which diameter is obtained from Optical Microscopy

a. Projected dia
b. Ferret diameter
c. Martin diameter
d. All

42. Distance between two tangents on opposite sides parallel to each other will give
a. Projected dia
b. Ferret diameter
c. Martin diameter
d. All

43. What kind of distribution is obtained from Sieving method

a. Number distribution
b. Weight distribution
c. Both
d. None
44. Which instrument of size analysis is based on sedimentation method
a. Andreasen pippette
b. Coulter counter
c. Dynamic light scattering decay
d. Cascade impactor

45. Which of the following is true regarding Coulter counter method

a. It gives particle volume
b. It measures change in electrical resistance as particles passes through orifice
c. Medium in which particles are suspended has to be conducting
d. all

46. Which of the following methods give Stokes diameter

a. Optical microscopy
b. Sieve method
c. Andersean pippete
d. Coulter Counter

47. True density of a powder is measured by using _____

a. Helium
b. Mercury
c. Both
d. Alcohol

48. Light powders have

a. Low bulk volume
b. High bulk volume
c. Low true volume
d. High true volume

49. Loosest powder packing is _______ which has 48 % porosity

a. Rhomohederal
b. Trigonal
c. Cubic
d. hexagonal

50. Hausner Ratio is

a. Poured density/tapped density
b. Tapped density/poured density
c. True density/Bulk density
d. (Tapped density-Poured density)/Tapped density

51. Carr's compressibility index is ,35, flow will be

a. Good
b. Passable
c. Poor
d. Very poor
52. Find specific surface are per unit weight for spherical particles in which particle size is
2.57 micrometer and density is 3 g/cm3
a. 2.33 *10^4 /cm
b. 7.78*10^3 cm2/g
c. 2.33 *10^4 cm2/g
d. 7.78*10^3 /cm

53. If Granule density is 1.45 and True density is 2.033, find intraparticle porosity
a. 29%
b. 39%
c. 49%
d. 19 %

54. Formula of interparticle porosity

a. (Bulk vol.-True Vol.)/Bulk vol.
b. (Granule vol - true vol.)/Granule vol.
c. (Bulk Vol. - Granule Vol)/Bulk Vol
d. (Bulk Vol -Granule Vol)/ Granule vol

55. Bulkiness is
a. Reciprocal of Bulk density
b. Specific bulk volume
c. Both
d. Reciprocal of True density

56. H2 is involved in gastric acid and pepsin secretion. All of the following are examples of H2
inhibitors, EXCEPT:

(a) Ranitidine (b) Nizatidine

(c) Cimetidine (d) Omeprazole

57 Sulcrafate is used in gastrointestinal complications and may act as:

(a) Antacid

(b) H2 inibitor

(c) Mucosal protectant

(d) Antisecretory prostaglandin analog

58. Which of the following agents is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer

a) PGE1 analogue b) PGE2 agonist

c) PGD2 agonist d) PGF2 agonist

59. Carbenoxolone sodium

a) Promotes ulcer healing b) Slows down prostaglandin degradation

c) Is derived from glycyrrhetinic acid d) All of the above

60. Which of the following is true about H2 blockers

a. Only Cimetdine has antiandrogenic effect which causes Gynaecomastica

b. Cimetidine is CYP P450 enzyme inhibitor
c. They are highly selective H2 blockers and have no effect on H1 receptors
d. All are true

61. Proton Pump is

a. H+K+ ATPase
b. Na+K+ ATPase
c. H+Na+ ATPase
d. Na+CL- ATPase

62. Which of the following is not a defensive factor in stomach acid secretion?
a. Mucus
b. Bile
c. Prostaglandins
d. Bicarbonate

63. Which Anticholinergic can be used in Peptic ulcer treatment?

a. Phystostigmine
b. Donepzil
c. Pirenzapine
d. Paralidoxime

64. Which of the following are true regarding Omeprazole

a. It is inactive at neutral pH
b. It shows irreversible proton pump inhibition
c. It is given in the form of enteric coated tablets/capsules
d. All

65. Which of the following drugs is not used in treatment of H. pylori infection

a) Metronidazole b) Omeprazole

c) Mosapride d) Amoxicilline

66. Which of the following is a 5-HT3 antagonist

a. Meclizine
b. Metoclopramide
c. Haloperidol
d. Granisetron
67. Dicyclomine is:
a. Anticholinergic
b. 5-HT3 antagonist
c. D2 blocker
d. Prokinetic

68. Antiemetic drugs which are also called “Gastric Hurrying Agents” are:
a. Neuroleptics
b. Anticholinergics
c. Prokinetic agents
d. 5-HT3 antagonists

69. Which of the following is associated with Torsades de pointes

a. Cisapride
b. Meclizine
c. Haloperidol
d. Aprepitant

70. Drug of choice in Chemotherapy/radiation induced emesis

a. Anticholinergics
b. Neuroleptics
c. 5-HT3 antagonists
d. Prokinetic agents

71. Which cannabinoid is used as antiemetic in chemotherapy induced vomiting when other
drugs
a. Aprepitant
b. Mosapride
c. Dronabinol
d. Metaclopramide

72. Which of the following is not a stimulant purgative?

a. Lactlulose
b. Phenolphathlein
c. Bisacodyl
d. Senna

73. Which of the following statements are incorrect about DOSS

a. It is stool softener
b. It is cationic surfactant
c. It can cause abdominal cramps
d. All are incorrect
74. Prucalopride is newly introduced rug for prolonged constipation in women. It is
a. 5-HT3 antagonist
b. 5-HT3 agonist
c. 5-HT4 antagonist
d. 5-HT4 agonist

75. __________ was a purgative which was subsequently withdrawn from market as it was
associated with stroke and heart attack.
a. Cisaride
b. Tegaserod
c. Lubiprostone
d. Lactulose

76. Active metabolite of Sulfasalazine which is responsible for anti-inflammatory effect in

Crohn’s disease is
a. Sulfapyridine
b. 5-Aminosalicylic acid
c. Both
d. Sulfamethoxazole

77. Balsalazide is
a. Colon releasing 5-ASA
b. Colon releasing Sulfapyridine
c. 5-ASA linked with 4-aminobenzoyl ß alanine
d. two molecules of 5-ASA linked with azo bond

78. Mesalazine is
a. Colon releasing 5-ASA
b. Colon releasing Sulfapyridine
c. 5-ASA linked with 4-aminobenzoyl ß alanine
d. two molecules of 5-ASA linked with azo bond

79. TNF α inhibitors indicated in Ulcerative colitis:

a. Infliximab and alefacept
b. Adalimumab and abciximab
c. Infliximab and Adalimumab
d. Abciximab and topotecan

80. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in children with age less than 4 years
a. Octreotide
b. Racecadotril
c. Olsalazine
d. Loperamide

81. Metoclopramide
a) Inhibits cholinergic smooth muscle stimulation in the gastrointestinal tract
b) Decreases lower esophageal sphincter pressure
c) Stimulates D2 receptor
d) Enhance colonic motility

82. Antiemetic action is produced through

a) Decreased CTZ stimulation b) H1 agonistic action
c) D1 antagonistic action d) Olfactory apparatus stimulation

83. The drug of choice for the treatment of ulcers in patients with renal failure is
a) Aluminium hydroxide b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Sucralfate d) None of these

84. Which of the following drugs is not used for motion sickness
a) Metoclopramide b) Cyclizine
c) Cinnarizine d) Scopolamine

85. Which of the following is Antisecretory antidiarrhoeal drug

a. Diphenoxylate
b. Loperamide
c. Racecadotril
d. Mesalazine

86. Octreotide is
a. Somatostatin analogue
b. Antidiarrhoeal used in AIDS
c. antisecretory
d. All

87. Which of the following alkaloid is water soluble?

a. Caffeine
b. Tubocurarine
c. Colchicine
d. All

88. Alkaloids which are derived from amino acids and nitrogen is not present in main ring are
called
a. True Alkaloids
b. Protoalkaloids
c. Pseudoalkaloids
d. all
89. Which of the following is a pseudoalkaloid?
a. Aconitine
b. Theophylline
c. Protoveratrine
d. All

90. Select the false statement

a. Sanguinarine is blood coloured alkaloid
b. Connine was the first alkaloid to be synthesized artificially
c. Alkaloids are generally volatile however nicotine and coniine are exceptions
d. Alkaloidal salts are generally water soluble

91. Tropane alkaloids are derived from

a. Ornithine
b. Phenylalanine
c. Both
d. Histidine

92. What is composition of Wagner Reagent?

a. Potassium Bismuth iodide
b. Potassium mercuric iodide
c. Picric acid
d. Iodine in potassium iodide

93. Tropane ring is fusion of

a. pyrrole and pyrdine
b. Pyrrole and piperidine
c. pyrolidine and pyridine
d. pyrolidine and piperidine

94. Angel's trumphet is synonym of?

a. Belladona
b. Datura
c. Stramonium
d. Hyoscyamus

95. Microsphenoidal crystals is a characteristic microscopic feature of?

a. Belladona
b. Datura
c. Henbane
d. all

96. Which of the following does not give positive Dragendroff test
a. aconitine
b. Holarhenidine
c. Veraterine
d. All of above

97. The characteristic test of Tropane alkaloids is?

a. Vitali Morin Test
b. Murexide Test
c. Van Urk’s Test
d. Frohde’s Test

98. Condition of Gastric hypersecretion due to tumour-secreting gastrin is called?

a. Stress Ulcers
b. ZE Syndrome
c. GERD
d. Aspiration Pneumonia

99. Magaldrate is
a. Hydroxy aluminium silicate
b. Hydroxy magnesium silicate
c. Hydroxy Magnesium Aluminate
d. Magnesium sulphate

100. Which of the following is emetic?

a. Haloperidol
b. Apomorphine
c. Nabilone
d. Loperamide