Aiot PDF

® P1B-19
DATE
09-02-2020
MAIN PATTERN ALL INDIA OPEN TEST-1 (AIOT-1)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2021
CODE
1
BATCH : JA,JB,EA,EB
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Question paper has three (03) parts: Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
 Each part has a total twenty five (25) questions divided into two (02) sections (Section-1 and Section-2).
 Total number of questions in Question paper are Seventy Five (75) and Maximum Marks are Three Hundred only (300).
Type of Questions and Marking Schemes
SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks : 80)

 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20)
 This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with two digit integer
and decimal upto two digit.
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal placed.
 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : ………………………………………………… ROLL NO. :………………..………………………..
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number
and shall abide by them of the candidate.
------------------------- -------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Resonance Eduventures Limited

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INSTRUCTIONS FOR OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET (ORS)
 Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

 The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
 Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.
 Write your name, roll number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided for this
purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble under each
digit of your roll number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

 Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.
 Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
 Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.
 The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :
 There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.
 The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkened bubbles
are evaluated.
 Zero marks ‘0’ If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
FOR INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :

 For example, if answer ‘SINGLE DIGIT’ integer type below :
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
 For example, if answer ‘DOUBLEDIGIT’ integer type below :

0 0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
6 6
7 7
8 8
9 9
FOR DECIMAL TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :
COLUMN
1 2 . 3 4
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9
 If answer is 3.7, then fill 3 in either 1st or 2nd column and 7 in 3rd or 4th column.
 If answer is 3.07 then fill 3 in 1st or 2nd column ‘0’ in 3rd column and 7 in 4th column.
 If answer is, 23 then fill 2 & 3 in 1st and 2nd column respectively, while you can either leave column 3 & 4 or fill ‘0’ in either
of them.
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PART – A 3. Two containers filled with a liquid are shown in
the diagram. When the two containers are
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions. connected through a tube, the level on the two
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) container equalize. The rise in level of liquid in
and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is the container of smaller base area will be:
correct
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is
chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is
chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
2
x 7h
1. A particle moves along the curve y = . (1)
2 9
2
t h
Here x-varies with time as x = . where (2)
2 2
x and y are measured in metres and t in
h
second. At t = 2 sec, the speed of the particle (3)
(in m/s) : 6
(1) 2 5 m/s (2) 2 m/s 4h

(4)
(3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s 9
2. From a canon mounted on a wagon at height

H from ground, a shell is fired horizontally with 4. The system is released from rest from the
a velocity v0 with respect to canon. The canon position shown in the diagram. If A and B have
and wagon has combined mass M and can mass m and M respectively and all surfaces
move freely on the horizontal surface. The
horizontal distance between shell and canon are smooth, then the normal reaction between
when the shell touches the ground is A and B is (string and pulley are massless)
v0
2H
(1) v 0
g
2M m
(1)
v0m 2H (M  m )
(2)
M  m g Mmg
(2)
v0 M 2H 2 (M  m )
(3)
M  m g Mmg
(3)
(M  m )
v0m 2H
(4) (4) zero
M g
Space for Rough Work
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5. In the figure shown, pulley and spring are 7. Under the action of a force, a 2kg body moves
ideal. If k is spring constant of spring, the such that its position x as a function of time is
given by x = t3/3, where x is in meters and t is
potential energy stored in it is (m 1 > m2)
in seconds. The work done by the force in the
first two seconds is:
(1) 1600J
(2) 160J
(3) 16J
m1
m2 (4) 1.6J
2 2
(1)
2m1 g 8. A ship of mass 3  107 kg, initially at rest is
k
pulled by a force of 5  104 N through a
2 2
2m 2 g distance of 3 m. Assuming that the resistance
(2)
k due to water is negligible, the speed of the
(m1  m 2 ) g
2 2 ship after travelling 3m is :
(3)
k (1) 1.5 m/s
(2) 60 m/s
1 (m1  m 2 ) g
2 2
(4) (3) 0.1 m/s

2 k
(4) 5 m/s
6. A monoatomic ideal gas follows the process: 9. A car is travelling at 57.6 km/hr on an
TV3/2 = constant unbanked (horizontal) circular road of radius
The molar specific heat for this process is: 160

m. If the coefficient of friction between
3
(R = gas constant).
the road and the car is 0.8, then the maximum
5R
(1) tangential deceleration that driver of car can
2
achieve by applying the brakes at this instant
5R is: (g = 10 m/s2)
(2)
6
(1) 8 m/s2
3R (2) 4.8 m/s2
(3)
2
(3) 6.4 m/s2
(4) R (4) 16 m/s2
®
10. A thin horizontal movable plate is separated 11. A uniform rod of mass M and length L falls
from two fixed horizontal plates P1 and P2 by when it is made to stand on a smooth
horizontal floor. The trajectories of the points

two highly viscous liquids of coefficient of
P, Q and R as shown in the figure given below
viscosity 1 and 2 as shown, where 2 = 41.
is best represented by :
Area of contact of movable plate with each
fluid is same. If the distance between two fixed
plates is h, then the distance h1 of movable
plate from upper fixed plate such that the
movable plate can be moved with a constant
velocity by applying a minimum constant
horizontal force F on movable plate is (assume

(1)
velocity gradient to be uniform in each liquid).
(2)
h
(1)
4
(3)
h
(2)
2
2h
(3)
3
(4)
h
(4)
3
®
12. A particle of mass m = 1kg moves in a circle of 15. A disc of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ is attached to
radius R = 2m with uniform speed v = 3m/s. a spring of stiffness ‘k’. During its motion, the
The magnitude of impulse given by centripetal
disc rolls on the ground. When released from
force to the particle in one second is
some stretched position, the centre of the disc
(1) 2  Ns
will execute simple harmonic motion with a
(2) 3  Ns
time period of
(3) 2 3  Ns
m
(4) 3 2  Ns
k
r
13. A uniform rod of mass 6M and length 6l is bent
to make an regular hexagon. Its moment of
m
inertia about an axis passing through centre of (1) 2
2k
mass and perpendicular to the plane of
hexagon is : m
(2) 2
k
(1) 5ml2
(2) 6ml2 3 m
(3) 2
(3) 4ml 2
2 k
(4) ml /12
2
2m
(4) 2
k
14. A thin rod of length ' ' and mass m is
suspended from one of its ends. It is set into
oscillations about a horizontal axis passing 16. The minimum time in which the potential
through one of its end. Its angular speed is  energy of a particle executing SHM changes
while passing through its mean position. How from maximum to minimum is 5 s. Then the
high will its centre of mass rise relative to its
time eriod of SHM is :
lowest position?
(1) 5 s
(1) 2 2/3g
(2) 10 s
(2) 2 2/6g
(3) 2 2/g (3) 15 s
(4) 2 2/2g (4) 20 s
®
17. Sinusoidal waves 5.00 cm in amplitude are to 19. Two moles of hydrogen are mixed with n
moles of helium. The root mean square speed

be transmitted along a string having a linear
of gas molecules in the mixture is 2 times
mass density 4.00 × 10–2 kg/m. If the source
the speed of sound in the mixture. Then n is.
can deliver an average power of 90 W and the (1) 3
(2) 2
string is under a tension of 100 N, then the
(3) 1.5
frequency at which the source can operate is
(4) 2.5
(take 2 = 10) :
20. Figure below shows two paths that may be
(1) 45.3 Hz
taken by a gas to go from a state A to a
(2) 50 Hz state C.
(3) 30 Hz
(4) 62.3 Hz
18. An observer moves towards a stationary
source of sound with speed one - fifth of speed In process AB, 400J of heat is added to the
system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is

of sound, then
added to the system.The heat absorbed by the
(1) apparant wavelength increases system in the process AC will be:
(2) apparant wavelength decreases (1) 500 J
(2) 460 J
(3) apparant frequency increases by 20%
(3) 300 J
(4) apparant frequency decreases by 25% (4) 380 J
®
SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20) 23. A vertical capillary tube with inner radius
0.5 mm, is submerged into water so that the

 This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The
length of its part above the water surface is
answer to each question is NUMERICAL
h = 25 mm. Find the radius of curvature
VALUE with two digit integer and decimal upto
two digit. (in mm) of meniscus formed. (surface tension
 If the numerical value has more than two of water = 0.075 N/m. Density of
decimal places truncate/round-off the value water = 103 kg/m3, angle of contact = 0º)
to TWO decimal placed.
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is 24. A rubber cord has a cross-section area 1 cm 2
chosen. 1
and natural length of m. It is stretched by
6
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
1
21. A uniform sphere of mass 20 kg and radius cm to fire a small object of mass 10 gm. If
6
10 cm is placed on a rough horizontal surface.

the Young's modulus (Y) is 6 × 108 N/m2. If
The coefficient of friction between the sphere
40 x
speed acquired by the object is ,
and the surface is 0.5. A horizontal force of 49
magnitude 14 N is applied on the sphere as find x (in m/s). Assume Hook's law is valid and
shown. If the friction force (in N) acting on the
neglect gravity.
sphere is F the value of F is (g = 10 ms–2)
14 N 25. The particle displacement (in cm) in a
stationary wave is given by y(x, t) = 2 sin
 8 
 x cos (100 t). Find the distance (in cm)
 3 
22. A heavy body of mass 25 kg is to be dragged

between a node and the next antinode.
along a horizontal plane ( = 1/ 3 ). Find the
least force required in kgf.
®
PART – B 27. Borax on heating strongly above its melting
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, point melts to a liquid, which then solidifies to
N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, a transparent mass commonly known as
Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr borax-bead. The transparent glassy mass
= 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, consists of :
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, (1) sodium pyroborate
Hg = 200, Pb = 207] (2) boric anhydride
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 80) (3) sodium meta-borate
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions. (4) boric anhydride and sodium metaborate
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and

(4) ONLY ONE of these four option is correct 28. In a 1 L container following equilibrium is
 Marking scheme : establlished with equal moles of NO2(g) &
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option N2O4(g).
is chosen. N2O4(g) 2NO2(g), at equilibrium Mavg.
184
= , then ratio of KC & total initial moles is.
chosen (i.e. the question is 3
unanswered). (1) 3
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 3
(2)
2
26. 0.1 M of KMnO4 (in acidic medium) can not 27

(3)
4
oxidise completely
(4) 6
(Assume the volume of reactant is same as of
29. The lithium ion (Li+) and hydride ion (H–) are
the KMnO4 solution)
isoelectronic ions. Which statement about this
(1) 0.25 M H2C2O4
systems is true ?
(2) 0.5 M FeSO4 (1) Chemical properties of these ions are
M identical since they are isoelectronic.
(3) FeC2O4
6 (2) Li+ is a stronger reducing agent than H–.
(4) 0.6M K2Cr2O7 (3) More energy is needed to ionize H– than

Li+
(4) Radius of H– is larger than that of Li+
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30. The sequence of molecular orbitals for the 33. The incorrect statement among the following
is:
carbide ion (C22–) is -
(1) beryllium oxide is amphoteric in nature
(1) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p4
(2) solubility of sulphates of second group
(2) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p4 2p2 elements decreases down the group
(3) reducing power of hydride of alkali metal
(3) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 2p2 2p4 *2s2
decreases down the group
(4) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p2 2p4 (4) Berylium has diagonal relationship with
alumunium
31. The enthalipies of decomposition of methane

34. Which is the correct order of 2nd I.E.
(CH4) (g) and ethane (C2H6)(g) are 400 and
(1) Si S <P < Cl
670 kJ. mol–1, respectively . The HC–C in (2) Si < P < S < Cl
kJmol–1 is (3) P < Si < Cl < S
(1) 270 (4) Si < P < Cl < S
(2) 70
35. What is the molar solubility of Mn(OH)2 in a
(3) 200
buffer solution containing equal amount of
(4) 240 ml NH4

and NH3(aq).
14
Given that –  K S P  M n O H  4 .5  1 0
 
32. A beaker is heated from 27°C to 127°C, the 2
5
percentage of air originally present in beaker  K b N H  1 .8  1 0
3
that is expelled is : (1) 1.38 × 10–3
(2) 1.38 × 10–4

(1) 50%
(3) 2.38 × 10–4
(2) 25%
(4) 3.2 × 10–4
(3) 33%
(4) 40%
36. Which of the following compound has aromatic 40. Arrange the following in order of their pKb
character ? value
O N
O (A) (B) CH3–NH–CH3
(1) (2) N NH
O 
N NH2
(3) (4) N
(C) (D)
(1) C > D > A > B

37. Out of the followings in which reaction(s) polar
(2) A > B > D > C
product is obtained ? (3) C > D > B >A
(1) CH3–CC–CH3 H
 2   
3
/ pd / CaCO
 (4) D > C > B > A
Q u in o lin e
(2) C2H5–CC–C2H5 

3 Na / NH

() 41. Acidic strength order of the following
compounds is ?
Zn  Hg
(3) CH3–CH=O 
 OH CH2OH
HCl
(A) (B)
NaOH
(4) Ph–COOH   
 NO2 NO2
CaO , 
CH2COOH CH2OH
(C) (D)
38. Which of the following relation is correct with SO3H
respect to first (I) and second (II) ionization (1) D > C > A > B (2) D > A > B > C
potentials of sodium and magnesium (3) C > D > A > B (4) C > A > B > D
(1) IMg = IINa
42. Which is correct order for heat of
(2) INa > IMg
hydrogenation of the following molecules?
(3) IIMg > IINa
(A)
(4) IINa > IIMg
(B)
39. Among the following pairs, identify the pair in
which both are diamagnetic and bond order is (C)
more than one?
(D)
(1) N2 , O2
(2) B2 , O
2 (1) D > C > B > A
2
(2) A > B > C > D
(3) C2 , O 22  (3) D > B > A > C
(4) F2, O2 (4) C > D > B > A
43. In which pair hybridisation of central atom or d- 46. The modulus of entropy change when 10
orbitals used in hybridisation or both is/are
moles of an deal gas expand from a volume V
wrong ?
to a volume 10V reversibly and
(1) BrF5 sp3d2 d 2
z ,
d
x
2
y
2
isothermally is .......... R
(2) SF6 sp3d2 d 2
z ,
d
x
2
y
2
(3) XeO2F2 sp3d2 d 2

z ,
d
x
2
y
2
(4) O
5 sp3d2 d 2
z ,
d
x
2
y
2 47. For how many species the Ostwald dilution
6
law is not applicable.

44. In which compound C–Cl bond length is
(i) H2SO4 (ii) KOH
shortest?
(1) Cl–CH=CH2 (iii) CH3COOH (iv) HClO4
(2) Cl–CH=CH–CH3
(v) NaOH (vi) HI
(3) Cl–CH=CH–OCH3
(4) Cl–CH=CH–NO2
48. Sum of number of S–O bonds in S2O82– and
45. Which of the following names is wrong number of S–S bonds in rhombic sulphur is?
according to IUPAC rules?
(1) 4-Chloropentan-2-ol
49. How many structure isomers of carbonyl
(2) 1-Bromohex-4-yne
(3) 3-Hydroxybenzene-1-carbonitrile compounds (Aldehydes & ketones only) are
(4) 3-Bromo-1,1-dimethyl cyclopentane possible for molecular formula C5H10O ?
 This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The 50. Negative charge of the given anion is
answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE delocalized at how many carbon atoms?
with two digit integer and decimal upto two digit.
O
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places truncate/round-off the value to TWO CH=O
decimal placed.
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option
is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
53. If  and  are the roots of the equation
PART – C
x2 – p (x + 1) – q = 0, then the value of
2 2
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions.   2  1   2  1
2
 2
is
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and   2  q   2  q
(4) ONLY ONE of these four option is correct (1) 2

(2) 1
is chosen. (3) 0
1
chosen (i.e. the question is (4)
2
unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
54. The most general values of x for which
51. Choose the correct graph of 2 2
3 sin x  cos x  min { 2 , e ,  ,   4   7 } are
f(x) = [  nx ]  [   nx ] ; 1  x  8, (where [.] R
denotes greatest integer function):

given by:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(1) (1) 2n, n  I
2
(2) 2n   ,nI
3
(2)
 
(3) n   (  1)
n
 ,nI
4 6
(3)  
(4) n   (  1)
n 1
 ,nI
4 6
(4)  1 
55. If sin x + cos x = y 


 , x  [0, ], then
 y 
| x  2 | x 1 
52.  1, Number of negative integers (1) x  ,y=1
x 1 4
satisfying above relation:

(2) y = 0
(1) 1
(3) y = 2
(2) 2
(3) 3 3
(4) x 
4
(4) 4
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56. a3 cos (B – C) + b3 cos (C – A) + c3 cos (A – B) 59. Number of four digit numbers of the form
N = abcd which satisfy following three

is equal to
conditions
(1) 3 abc
i) 2000 < N < 4000
(2) 3(a + b + c)
ii) N is multiple of 3
(3) abc(a + b + c) iii) 2  b < c 4 is equal to
(4) 0 (1) 20
(2) 23
(3) 24
57. If ab2c3, a2b3c4, a3b4c5 (a, b, c > 0) are in A.P.,
(4) 25
then the minimum value of a + b + c is
(1) 1 60. The number of divisors of 22 . 33 . 53 . 75 of the
(2) 3 form 4n + 1, n  N is
(1) 46
(3) 5
(2) 47
(4) 9
(3) 96
(4) 48
n 8
r  2  n 2 1
58. If    Cr  , then n can be equal
r0  r  1  6
61. If A(1, ), B(0, 0) and C(2, 0) be three points
to and I, H be the incentre and orthocentre
(1) 6 respectively, then the ratio (area of AIB +
area of AHB) : area of CIA is

(2) 3
(1) 2 : 1
(3) 8
(2) 1 : 1
(4) 5
(3) 4 : 3
(4) none of these
62. If the lines x + ay + a = 0, bx + y + b = 0 and 66. If the normal to the parabola y2 = 4ax at the
cx + cy + 1 = 0 (a, b, c being distinct  1) are point (at2, 2at) cuts the parabola again at
concurrent, then the value of
(aT2, 2aT), then range of T is
a b c
  is
a 1 b 1 c 1 (1) –2  T  2
(1) – 1 (2) T  (–, – 8)  (8, )
(2) 0
(3) 1 (3) T  (–2 2 ,2 2 )
(4) 2 (4) T  (–, –2 2 )  (2 2 , )
63. If a circle having centre at (, ) and radius r

completely lies with in two lines x + y = 2 and 67. If the distance between 2 parallel tangents to
x + y = – 2, then min (| +  + 2|, | +  – 2|) is
the ellipse 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 is 2 5 then their
(1) greater than 2r
slopes may be equal to
(2) less than 2r
(1) ±2
(3) greater than 2r
(4) less than 2r 1
(2) ±
2
64. The equation ( x  1)  ( x  1)  ( 4 x  1)
1
has: (3) ±
4
(1) no solution
1
(2) one solution (4) ±
3
(3) two solution
2 2
(4) more than two solutions x y a
68. Two conics 2
 2
1 and x2 = – y
a b b
n
 1
65. If the 4th term in the expansion of  px   , intersect, if:
 x 
1
5 (1) 0  b 
n  N is and three distinct normal to the 2
2
parabola y2 = x are drawn through a point 1

(2) 0  a 
2
(q, 0), then
(1) q = p (3) a2 < b2
(2) q > p (4) a2 > b2
(3) q < p
(4) pq = 1
69. The normal to the rectangular hyperbola SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20)
 This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The
xy = c2 at the point ‘t1’ meets the curve again
answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE
with two digit integer and decimal upto two digit.
at the point ‘t2’. Then the value of 3
t1 t 2 is:
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places truncate/round-off the value to TWO
(1) 1
decimal placed.
(2) – 1
is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
(3) c
(4) – c 71. If x,y are integral solutions of 2x2 + 3xy – 2y2 = 7

7
then value of |xy| is equal to
2
1
70. Coefficient of in the expansion of
x 72. In a triangle ABC, 2a
2
 4b
2
 c
2
 4 ab  2 ac ,
then the numerical value of 2cos B is equal to
n
 1 
(1 + x)n 1   is
 x 
73. The shortest distance from the point (2, –7) to

n! the circle x2 + y2 – 14x – 10y – 151 = 0 is
(1)
( n  1) ! ( n  1)!
2n !
74. Let the number of rational and irrational terms
(2) in the expansion of (x + y + z)6 are  and
( n  1) ! ( n  1)!
respectively (where x = 1, y = 2 ,z= 3

3 ),
n!  µ 
(3) then value of   is equal to
( 2 n  1) ! ( 2 n  1)!   
(4) None of these

75. Let maximum number of different permutations
of 4 letters of the word EARTHQUAKE is a four
digit number abcd (where a, b, c, d are digits).
a  c
Then value of is
b  d

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® P1B-19

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Type of Questions and Marking Schemes

SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks : 80)

 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened

 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20)

and decimal upto two digit.

 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened

 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : ………………………………………………… ROLL NO. :………………..………………………..

Resonance Eduventures Limited

 Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

FOR INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :

 For example, if answer ‘DOUBLEDIGIT’ integer type below :

Resonance Eduventures Limited

(1) 2 5 m/s (2) 2 m/s 4h

2. From a canon mounted on a wagon at height

Space for Rough Work

(4) (3) 0.1 m/s

The molar specific heat for this process is: 160

Space for Rough Work

horizontal floor. The trajectories of the points

fluid is same. If the distance between two fixed

plates is h, then the distance h1 of movable

plate from upper fixed plate such that the

movable plate can be moved with a constant

velocity by applying a minimum constant

horizontal force F on movable plate is (assume

Space for Rough Work

(3) 2 2/g (3) 15 s

(4) 2 2/2g (4) 20 s

Space for Rough Work

moles of helium. The root mean square speed

can deliver an average power of 90 W and the (1) 3

18. An observer moves towards a stationary

system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is

(2) apparant wavelength decreases (1) 500 J

(4) apparant frequency decreases by 25% (4) 380 J

Space for Rough Work

0.5 mm, is submerged into water so that the

two digit. (in mm) of meniscus formed. (surface tension

to TWO decimal placed.

10 cm is placed on a rough horizontal surface.

14 N 25. The particle displacement (in cm) in a

stationary wave is given by y(x, t) = 2 sin

22. A heavy body of mass 25 kg is to be dragged

least force required in kgf.

Space for Rough Work

 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and

26. 0.1 M of KMnO4 (in acidic medium) can not 27

(4) 0.6M K2Cr2O7 (3) More energy is needed to ionize H– than

Space for Rough Work

31. The enthalipies of decomposition of methane

kJmol–1 is (3) P < Si < Cl < S

(1) 270 (4) Si < P < Cl < S

that is expelled is : (1) 1.38 × 10–3

(2) 1.38 × 10–4

Space for Rough Work

(1) C > D > A > B

(2) C2H5–CC–C2H5 

Space for Rough Work