Performance Performance: 01 General 01 General

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Performance
01 General
1. Q(1473) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
A. Tailwind.
B. High mass.
C. Headwind.
D. Low mass.
2. Q(2799) The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
A. in unaccelerated level flight.

B. in unaccelerated climb.
C. in descent with constant IAS.
D. in accelerated level flight.
3. Q(1075) An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum
allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
A. 5000 metres.
B. 4500 metres.
C. 4000 metres.
D. 6000 metres.
4. Q(5485) A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
A. an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

B. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
C. an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
D. a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
5. Q(3674) Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5 270 kg -
obstacle limit: 4 630 kg Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:
A. 20°, both limitations are increased

B. 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
C. 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
D. 5°, both limitations are increased
6. Q(1446) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a
lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
A. increases / increases / constant

B. increases / constant / increases
C. decreases / constant / decreases
D. increases / increases / decreases
7. Q(5498) At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1. An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced
in annex. Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway Actual conditions are: pressure altitude: 1 500 ft outside tempereature: +18°C wind
component: 4 knots tailwind For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be:
A. 615 m
B. 395 m
C. 465 m
D. 540 m
8. Q(407) Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:
A. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.

B. a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.
C. a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
D. a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
9. Q(851) At Reference. Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust Required Curve".
Mass m1 is higher than mass m2.
A. d
B. c
C. a
D. b
10. Q(3677) A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions.
The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
A. unchanged
B. reduced
C. substantially decreased
D. increased
11. Q(2853) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
A. does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
B. decreases angle and rate of climb.
C. improves angle and rate of climb.
D. has no effect on rate of climb.
12. Q(2787) On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
A. a higher coefficient of drag is required.

B. requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
C. an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
D. an increase in airspeed and power is required.
13. Q(2788) An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass and configuration. With increasing altitude the drag
A. increases at constant TAS.

B. remains unchanged but the the CAS increases.
C. remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
D. decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.
14. Q(2801) A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
A. less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

B. more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
B. more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
C. more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.
D. a higher coefficient of lift.
15. Q(13762) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the effect of changes of ambient temperature on an aeroplane's performance,
assuming all other performance parameters remain constant?
A. A decrease will cause an increase of the climb gradient.

B. An increase will cause a decrease in the landing distance required.
C. A decrease will cause an increase in the take-off ground run.
D. An increase will cause a decrease in take-off distance required.
16. Q(1953) Regarding unaccelerated horizontal flight, Minimum Drag is:
A. independent of the aircraft mass.

B. proportional to aircraft mass.
C. a function of the pressure altitude.
D. a function of the density altitude.
17. Q(2782) The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
A. maximum endurance.
B. minimum drag.
C. minimum specific range.
D. maximum specific range.
18. Q(1444) Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude from H1 to H2?
A. Figure c
B. Figure d
C. Figure a
D. Figure b
19. Q(2789) On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power
required
A. remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

B. increases but TAS remains constant.
C. decreases slightly because of the lower air density.
D. increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.
20. Q(2665) In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
A. altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.

B. speed, mass and fuel on board.
C. altitude, speed and mass.
D. speed and mass.
21. Q(2846) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
A. the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.

B. the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
C. the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
D. the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
22. Q(2088) The effect that a tailwind has on the value of the maximum endurance speed is:
A. that the IAS must be decreased.

B. that a tailwind only affects the holding speed.
C. none.
D. that the IAS must be increased.
23. Q(3587) At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height. Given : O.A.T : 30°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Tailwind
component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
A. 2000 ft
B. 1600 ft
C. 2375 ft
D. 1900 ft
24. Q(2850) The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
A. the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.

B. rate of climb to true airspeed.
C. the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
C. the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
D. true airspeed to rate of climb.
25. Q(2090) The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
A. 100 ft/min
B. 0 ft/min
C. 500 ft/min
D. 125 ft/min
26. Q(850) How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for maximum range?
A. Increases only if there is no wind.

B. First increases than decreases.
C. Decreases.
D. Does not change.
27. Q(294) For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
A. that which gives the minimum value of induced drag.

B. 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
C. that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.
D. that which gives the maximum value of lift
28. Q(2790) Assuming the gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, moving the Centre of Gravity from the forward safe limit to the aft
safe limit:
A. decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.

B. increases the induced drag.
C. affects neither drag nor power required.
D. increases the power required.
29. Q(14718) Besides lift, the forces that determine the gradient of climb of an aeroplane are:
A. Weight, drag and thrust.

B. Thrust and drag only.
C. Weight and thrust only.
D. Weight and drag only.
30. Q(2085) Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?
A. Low temperature and high relative humidity

B. Low temperature and low relative humidity
C. High temperature and low relative humidity
D. High temperature and high relative humidity
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31. Q(2852) A higher outside air temperature
A. increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

B. reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
C. reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
D. does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
32. Q(3597) At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4. Using the Landing Diagram, for single engine aeroplane, determine the
landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) , in the following conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ft O.A.T.: 5°C Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kt Flaps: down Runway: tarred and dry Landing gear: down
A. 1550 ft
B. 880 ft
C. 1350 ft
D. 1020 ft
33. Q(399) Which of the following statements is correct ?
A. A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
B. If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.
C. A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
D. An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
34. Q(14154) For this question use Reference CAP698 third edition July 2006 SEP 1 Figure 2.3. Using the climb performance chart, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions: Given : O.A.T at
Take-off: ISA, Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft, Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs, Speed:100 KIAS. Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind
A. 18909ft
B. 20109ft
C. 16665ft
D. 18073ft
35. Q(2854) A constant headwind
A. increases the descent distance over ground.

B. increases the rate of descent.
C. increases the angle of the descent flight path.
D. increases the angle of descent.
36. Q(2845) The rate of climb is approximately equal to:
A. the angle of climb multiplied by the TAS.

B. the angle of climb divided by the TAS.
C. the still-air gradient divided by the TAS.
D. the still-air gradient multiplied by the TAS.
37. Q(2863) The absolute ceiling
A. is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%

B. can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed
C. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
D. is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
determine the maximum allowable take off mass . Given : O.A.T : ISA Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred
and Dry Factored runway length: 2000 ft Obstacle height: 50 ft
A. > 3650 lbs

B. 2900 lbs
C. 3000 lbs
D. 3200 lbs
39. Q(844) The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
A. Larger.
B. Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
C. Not change.
D. smaller.
40. Q(1445) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by: (T = Thrust, D = Drag, W =
Weight)
A. T - W sin GAMMA = D
B. T - D = W sin GAMMA
C. T + D = - W sin GAMMA
D. T + W sin GAMMA = D
41. Q(1459) Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at zero wind and zero thrust. Which of the following statements correctly
describes their descent characteristics ?
A. At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
B. There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
C. At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
D. At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
42. Q(2824) On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased
A. by headwind.
B. by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
C. by low outside air temperature.
D. by uphill slope.
43. Q(2841) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
A. The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

B. The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
C. The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
D. The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
44. Q(5486) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
A. a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

B. an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
C. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
D. an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
45. Q(2087) During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
A. decreases the climb time.

B. increases the climb time.
C. decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
D. increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
46. Q(2781) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is greatest at:
A. VS1
B. the lowest achievable speed in a given configuration
C. VA
D. VMO
47. Q(1462) The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
A. The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.

B. The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
C. The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
D. The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
48. Q(2083) Density altitude is the
A. altitude reference to the standard datum plane

B. pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature
C. height above the surface
D. altitude read directly from the altimeter
49. Q(2741) What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
A. The lift/drag ratio decreases.

B. The gliding angle decreases.
C. There is no effect.
D. The speed for best angle of descent increases.
50. Q(2823) Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
A. only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

B. lower.
C. higher.
D. unaffected.
51. Q(2791) Compared to a more forward position, a Centre of Gravity close to, but not beyond, the aft limit:
A. decreases the maximum range.

B. improves the longitudinal stability.
C. increases the stalling speed.
D. improves the maximum range.
52. Q(14724) What happens when flying at the "backside of the power curve"?
A. The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

B. The altitude cannot be maintained.
C. The speed is unstable.
D. The aeroplane will not stall.
53. Q(2780) The induced drag of an aeroplane
A. decreases with increasing airspeed.

B. increases with increasing airspeed.
C. is independent of the airspeed.
D. decreases with increasing gross weight.
54. Q(2812) Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ?
A. No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.

B. Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
C. Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
D. No.
55. Q(5484) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:
A. a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

B. a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
C. an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
D. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
56. Q(1447) An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
A. increases.
B. may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.
C. decreases.
D. remains the same.
57. Q(2843) In unaccelerated climb
A. thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
B. thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
C. lift is greater than the gross weight.
D. lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
58. Q(2035) A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each
engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s²)
A. 1.286%.
B. 7.86%.
C. 27%.
D. 12.86%.
59. Q(2785) On the Power versus TAS graph for level flight, the point at which a tangent from the origin touches the power required curve:
A. is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.

B. is the maximum drag speed.
C. is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
D. is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
60. Q(14293) Ignoring the effect of compressibility, the effect a change of altitude has on the value of the coefficient of lift is that it:
A. decreases with increasing altitude, but only at low speeds.

B. increases with increasing altitude.
C. decreases with increasing altitude.
D. is independent of altitude.
61. Q(14295) The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the maximum certified take-off flap setting is:
A. an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass.
B. a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
C. an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
D. a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass.
62. Q(2786) At a higher gross mass on a piston-engined aeroplane, in order to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude:
A. the airspeed must be decreased and the drag will increase.

B. the airspeed must be increased and the drag will also increase.
C. the airspeed must be increased and the drag will remain unchanged.
D. the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
63. Q(2084) The Density Altitude
A. is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

B. is equal to the pressure altitude.
C. is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
D. is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
64. Q(2157) Take-off run is defined as the
A. Distance from brake release to V2.

B. distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
C. distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
D. horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and
the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
65. Q(2784) The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum
A. is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.
B. is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
C. is the same as the minimum drag speed.
D. is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
66. Q(14026) For this question use reference. Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston
engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
A. maximum thrust.
B. critical angle of attack.
C. maximum specific range.
D. maximum endurance.
67. Q(2864) The aerodynamic ceiling
A. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.

B. is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.
C. depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.
D. is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same.
68. Q(13346) What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)
A. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100

B. Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
C. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
D. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
69. Q(405) Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?
A. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
B. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
C. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
D. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
70. Q(840) Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?
A. Weight, drag and thrust.
B. Weight and thrust only.
C. Weight and drag only.
D. Thrust and drag only.
71. Q(14730) With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb angle is about:
A. 5°
B. 3°
C. 8%
D. 3%
72. Q(2089) During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:
A. Thrust ceiling.
B. Aerodynamic ceiling.
C. Service ceiling.
D. Absolute ceiling.
73. Q(5489) The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb
performance to be:
A. Improved
B. Degraded
C. Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
D. Unchanged
74. Q(2739) Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for "flaps down"
compared to "clean" configuration?
A. a
B. d
C. c
D. b
75. Q(1460) Compared with still-air, the effect a headwind has on the values of the maximum range speed and the maximum gradient climb speed
respectively is that:
A. the maximum range speed increases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected.
B. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed increases.
C. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected.
D. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed decreases.
76. Q(2740) What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
A. The altitude cannot be maintained.

B. The speed is unstable.
C. The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.
D. The aeroplane will not stall.
77. Q(2822) The take-off distance required increases
A. due to slush on the runway.

B. due to lower gross mass at take-off.
C. due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
D. due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
78. Q(14296) Which of the following statements is correct ?
A. If a clearway or a stopway is used in the take-off calculations, the lift-off point may be beyond the end of TORA.
B. A stopway is an area beyond the end of TORA able to support the aeroplane mass during an abandoned take-off.
C. A declared safe area is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an abandoned take-off.
D. A clearway is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an abandoned take-off.
79. Q(1669) When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
A. the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
B. the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
C. the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
D. the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.
80. Q(2816) The take-off distance available is
A. the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.
B. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
C. the runway length minus stopway.
D. the runway length plus half of the clearway.
81. Q(2777) Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
A. the thrust
B. the resultant from lift and drag
C. the lift
D. the drag
82. Q(1946) The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
A. take-off run available.

B. take-off distance available.
C. landing distance available.
D. accelerate-stop distance available.
83. Q(5492) The pilot of of an aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off
mass of 3250 kg. If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
A. less than 4 000 m.

B. only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.
C. unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
D. higher than 4 000 m.
84. Q(2807) Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?
A. SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow

B. SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow
C. SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
D. SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
85. Q(14726) The effect that an increased outside air temperature has on the climb performance of an aeroplane is that it:
A. increases the climb gradient and decreases the rate of climb.

B. reduces the climb gradient and increases the rate of climb.
C. reduces both the climb gradient and the rate of climb.
D. does not affect the climb performance.
86. Q(14155) For this question use Reference CAP698 third edition July 2006 SEP 1 Figure 2.3. Using the climb performance chart, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions: Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISA, Airport pressure
altitude: 3000 ft, Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs, Speed:100 KIAS.
A. 1310ft/min and 11.3%

B. 1170ft/min and 9.9%
C. 1120ft/min and 9.3%
D. 1030ft/min and 8.4%
87. Q(1955) If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
A. the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
B. the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
C. the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
D. the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
88. Q(2779) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
A. the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

B. the true airspeed and the bank angle.
C. the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
D. the bank angle only.
89. Q(2804) When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means

A. the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
B. a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.
C. a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
D. a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
90. Q(293) Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus the true airspeed (TAS), for a piston-engined aeroplane with a given
mass. The tangent from the point of origin to the point of contact on the curve, at
A. maximum thrust.
B. maximum endurance.
C. critical angle of attack.
D. maximum specific range.
91. Q(802) If the aerodrome pressure altitude increases it will:
A. increase the take-off distance.

B. decrease the take-off run.
C. decrease the take-off distance.
D. increase the take-off distance available.
92. Q(2778) In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag?
A. In a descent with constant TAS

B. In a climb with constant IAS
C. In accelerated level flight
D. In level flight with constant IAS
93. Q(2783) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is
A. at stalling speed (VS).

B. on the "back side" of the drag curve.
C. the lowest point of the drag curve.
D. the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
94. Q(2803) The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
A. increasing the angle of attack.

B. decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.
C. increasing the CAS.
D. increasing the TAS.
95. Q(3580) At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4. With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : ISA +15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Headwind component: 10 kt Flaps:
Landing position (down) Runway: short and wet grass- firm soil
A. approximately: 1300 feet

B. approximately: 2000 feet
C. approximately: 1450 feet
D. approximately:1800 feet
96. Q(2800) In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
A. the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

B. the aeroplane can not be controlled manually.
C. a higher speed requires a higher thrust.
D. a lower speed requires a higher thrust.
97. Q(814) The length of a clearway may be included in:
A. the accelerate-stop distance available.

B. the take-off run available.
C. the distance to reach V1.
D. the take-off distance available.
98. Q(13329) For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
A. 1.2 Vs
B. 1.1 Vs
C. the maximum CL/CD ratio
D. the maximum CL/CD² ratio
99. Q(1458) Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
A. Configuration and mass.

B. Altitude and configuration.
C. Mass and altitude.
D. Configuration and angle of attack.
100. Q(2847) Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
A. decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.

B. improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
C. decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
D. improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
101. Q(841) How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston
engine?
A. Both increase.
B. Both decrease.
C. Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
D. Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
102. Q(14455) The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4
decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude Which parameters
will decrease the take off ground run?
A. 2, 3, 6 and 7
B. 1, 3, 5 and 8
C. 1, 4, 6 and 8
D. 2, 4, 5 and 7
103. Q(1449) The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
A. at the practical ceiling.

B. at the lowest possible altitude.
C. at the optimum cruise altitude.
D. at the service ceiling.
104. Q(1472) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide
angle speed?
A. Tailwind.
B. Headwind.
C. Decrease of aircraft mass.
D. Increase of aircraft mass.
105. Q(2820) A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
A. has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

B. increases the climb limited take-off mass.
C. decreases the take-off distance.
D. decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
106. Q(16897) At reference or use Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 Airport characteristics: hard, dry and runway slope zero Actual conditions
are: pressure altitude: 1500 ft outside temperature: 18°C wind component: 4 knots tailwind For a take-off mass of 2800 lbs, the take-off distance will
be:
A. 1350 ft
B. 1500 ft
C. 2000 ft
D. 1750 ft
107. Q(801) What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
A. It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

B. It will increase the take-off distance required.
C. It will increase the take-off ground run.
D. It will decrease the take-off distance required.
108. Q(1954) Which of the following statements is correct?
A. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
B. VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
C. VR should not be higher than V1.
D. VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
02 Class B – Single-Engine Aeroplanes

1. Q(14015) For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4 With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given :O.A.T : ISA,Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft, Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs, Tailwind component: 5
kt, Flaps: Landing position (down),Runway: Tarred and Dry
A. approximately : 920 feet
B. approximately : 1150 feet
C. approximately : 1700 feet
D. approximately : 1500 feet
2. Q(5495) On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the
holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:
A. is between 95 and 125 kt

B. equal to 95 kt
C. equal to 125 kt
D. inferior to 95 kts
3. Q(14018) For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 With regard to the take off performance chart for the single
engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 30°C, Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft,Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs,
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt, Flaps:up, Runway:Tarred and Dry
4. Q(1640) The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is:
A. Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a high ambient temperature.
B. Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.
C. High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.
D. High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : 38°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Dry Grass Correction factor: 1.2
A. approximately: 3680 ft
B. approximately: 5040 ft
C. approximately: 4150 ft
D. approximately: 3860 ft
6. Q(5488) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
A. a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

B. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
C. an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
D. a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
landing distance from 50ft. Given : O.A.T : ISA 15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Tailwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing
position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
8. Q(5490) A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
A. increased
B. decreased
C. very significantly decreased
D. unchanged
9. Q(11513) Using the attached image: or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.23 Given the following data, determine the net level off altitude.
Aircraft mass: 52,000kg Engine: Anti Ice On AC: Off ISA +20°C
A. 17,000'
B. 15,400'
C. 17,400'
D. 14,800'
10. Q(1451) At reference or see Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4. With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum
headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport? Given: Runway length: 1300 ft, Runway elevation: MSL, Weather: assume ISA
conditions, Mass: 3200 lbs, Obstacle height: 50 ft
A. 5 kt.
B. 15 kt.
C. 10 kt.
D. No wind.
11. Q(3675) A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of
climb of approximately:
A. 330 ft/min
B. 33,0 m/s
C. 3 300 ft/min
D. 3,30 m/s
12. Q(5496) If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by:
A. 5%
B. 20 %
C. 15 %
D. 10 %
13. Q(5494) With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about:
A. 5.1%
B. 5.4%
C. 4.5%
D. 3.5%
14. Q(11516) An airport has a 2600 metres long runway, and a 1000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum
allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
A. 3 900 m
B. 3 100 m
C. 3 600 m
D. 4 600 m
15. Q(3586) At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3. With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the climb speed (ft/min). O.A.T : ISA + 15°C, Pressure Altitude: 0 ft,Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs, Flaps: up. Speed:100 KIAS
A. 1290 ft/min
B. 1150 ft/min
C. 1370 ft/min
D. 1210 ft/min
16. Q(6524) Use Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 Given: OAT + 18 C Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 1500ft Aeroplane Mass: 1270 kg Wind
Component: 4kt tailwind Runway Surface: Hard Dry Runway Slope: 0% The approximate take-off distance to 50ft is:
A. 395 m
B. 540 m
C. 465 m
D. 615 m
17. Q(2855) When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
A. increases the best rate of climb.

B. increases the maximum endurance.
C. increases the angle of flight path during climb.
D. decreases the angle of climb.
18. Q(11512) Given: TAS:200 Still Air Gradient: 5% Tailwind: 50kts What is the effective wind gradient?
A. 3.8%
B. 5.4%
C. 5%
D. 4%
19. Q(2862) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
A. VMC.
B. VS.
C. VS1.
D. VSO.
20. Q(5487) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections: ±
20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation, - 5 m / kt headwind,+ 10 m / kt tail wind, ± 15 m / % runway slope,± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature.
The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:
A. 555 m
B. 685 m
C. 715 m
D. 755 m
21. Q(3679) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
A. a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance

B. a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
C. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
D. an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
A. The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component.
B. The climb limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.
C. The performance limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.
D. The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition.
23. Q(14019) For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 With regard to the take off performance chart for the single
engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass. Given :O.A.T : ISA, Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft, Headwind component: 5 kt,Flaps:
up,Runway:Tarred and Dry.Factored runway length: 2000 ft, Obstacle height: 50 ft
A. > 3650 lbs
B. 3200 lbs
C. 2900 lbs
D. 3000 lbs
24. Q(11522) Using the attached image: or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 Given the following, determine the take-off distance: TOM 58,500
kg OAT -7°C Press Alt 1,000 ft Flaps 15° H/W 10 kts Downslope 1° ACS OFF
A. 5,900 ft
B. 6,400 ft
C. 6,900 ft
D. 5,500 ft
25. Q(2817) The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
A. a shorter ground roll.

B. an increased acceleration.
C. a longer take-off run.
D. a higher V1.
26. Q(1464) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects.)
A. The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.

B. The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
C. Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
D. The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.
27. Q(1641) The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is:
A. High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
B. Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
C. Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.
D. High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.
28. Q(13754) If the actual landing mass is higher than planned:
A. the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.

B. the approach path will be steeper.
C. the landing distance will be longer.
D. the landing distance will be unaffected.
29. Q(13360) Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
A. TAS.
B. Groundspeed.
C. ESS.
D. IAS.
30. Q(14728) During a descent a headwind will:
A. increases the descent distance over ground.

B. increases the rate of descent.
C. increases the angle of descent.
D. increases the angle of the descent flight path.
31. Q(3680) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections : "±
20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation " "- 5 m / kt headwind " "+ 10 m / kt tail wind " "± 15 m / % runway slope " "± 5 m / °C deviation from standard
temperature " The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :
A. 890 m
B. 870 m
C. 810 m
D. 970 m
landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : 27 °C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps:
Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
33. Q(2095) What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ?
A. The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass.
B. The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
C. The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
D. The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : ISA+10°C Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry
A. 73 and 84 KIAS
B. 68 and 78 KIAS
C. 65 and 75 KIAS
D. 71 and 82 KIAS
35. Q(11524) Given: TAS:140 Still Air Gradient: 7.5% Wind component 25kt Headwind. What is the effective wind gradient?
A. 5.8%
B. 9.1%
C. 8.5%
D. 6.1%
36. Q(2859) The speed VLO is defined as
A. lift off speed.

B. design low operating speed.
C. landing gear operating speed.
D. long distance operating speed.
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : -7°C Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Headwind component: 5
kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Tarred and Dry
A. approximately: 1260 ft
B. approximately: 1150 ft
C. approximately: 2450 ft
D. approximately: 2050 ft
03 Class B – Multi-Engine Aeroplanes

1. Q(2092) A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on both engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After
stabilising the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be maintainable?
A. Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min

B. Altitude
C. Straight flight and altitude
D. Straight flight
2. Q(11511) When carrying out Short Landing Operations what is the maximum length of the Declared Safe Area?
A. 180m
B. 260m
C. 270m
D. 90m
3. Q(15424) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 26L Wind: 310°/20kts Take off Mass: 4400
lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the
conditions given?
A. 3350 ft
B. 4300 ft
C. 3800 ft
D. 3500 ft
4. Q(2321) At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24. With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does
the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370?
A. Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level.
B. All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.
C. Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved.
D. Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes.
5. Q(2631) You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
A. The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.
B. The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
C. No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)
D. During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
6. Q(13328) For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
A. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS curve.
B. that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS curve.
C. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
D. that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.
7. Q(15264) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given:OAT: - 20°C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Mixture: leaned to 25°F
rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 550 ft/min
B. 870 ft/min
C. 1370 ft/min
D. 1050 ft/min
8. Q(13761) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
A. A tailwind component increases the time in the descent

B. A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
C. A headwind component increases the ground distance.
D. A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
9. Q(2810) To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be
A. lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
B. higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
C. reduced to the gust penetration speed.
D. equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
10. Q(852) Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
A. a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.

B. a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
C. a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed.
D. an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
11. Q(11519) You are flying at minimum drag speed of 230 kts in a jet, if you fly at maximum range speed what is your speed?
A. 250 kts
B. 230 kts
C. 315 kts
D. 304 kts
12. Q(15274) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: -15°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass:
4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
A. 1500 ft
B. 1270 ft
C. 1830 ft
D. 1600 ft
13. Q(11523) What is maximum range speed for a Turbo Prop aircraft with a VMD of 143kts?
A. 143 kts
B. 118 kts
C. 108 kts
D. 189 kts
14. Q(6526) The engine failure during take-off run results in:
A. An increased acceleration.
B. A longer ground roll.
C. A higher V₁.
D. A shorter take-off run.
15. Q(15254) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: - 20°C Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as
associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 625 ft/min
B. 175 ft/min
C. 1250 ft/min
D. 375 ft/min
16. Q(15280) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: - 20°C Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Mixture: full rich Other
conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 1550 ft/min
B. 1300 ft/min
C. 170 ft/min
D. 970 ft/min
17. Q(3678) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off, in a standard atmosphere and still-air, at 0ft pressure altitude, is 6%. Given: Aerodrome
Pressure Altitude 1000ft OAT +17 C Atmospheric Pressure 1013.25hPa Anti-ice systems Wing and Engine ON Use the following corrections to
determine the climb gradient after take-off at the given aerodrome. Aerodrome elevation +/- 0.2% per 1000ft Deviation from standard temperature +/-
0.1% per C Wing anti-ice ON - 1.0% Engine anti-ice ON - 0.5%
A. 3.9 %
B. 4.7 %
C. 4.9 %
D. 4.3 %
18. Q(809) The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following
parameters: 1 - Undercarriage retracted. 2 - Undercarriage extended. 3 - Flaps up. 4 - Flaps in take-off position. 5 - All engines at the take-of thrust. 6 -
Operative engine(s) at take-off thrust. 7 - Climbing speed of V2 10kts. 8 - Climbing speed of 1.3VS. 9 - Climbing speed of V2. 10 - Commencing height
35ft. The correct statements are:
A. 1, 5, 8, 10
B. 1, 4, 5, 10
C. 1, 4, 6, 9
D. 2, 3, 6, 9
19. Q(15281) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass:
3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
A. 1350 ft
B. 1150 ft
C. 1050 ft
D. 1750 ft
20. Q(1957) For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
A. that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.
B. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS curve.
C. that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required at the Drag versus TAS curve.
D. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
21. Q(14297) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C, Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft, RWY: 24L, Wind: 310°/20kts, Take off Mass:
4400 lbs, Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under
the conditions given?
A. 4300 ft
B. 3350 ft
C. 3750 ft
D. 4000 ft
22. Q(2829) V1 has to be
A. equal to or higher than V2.

B. higher than VR.
C. equal to or higher than VMCG.
D. equal to or higher than VMCA.
23. Q(834) Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
A. Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft pressure altitude.

B. Allowable take-off mass increases.
C. Allowable take-off mass decreases.
D. There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
24. Q(15423) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 20°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft RWY: 07R Wind: 120°/ 15 kts Take off Mass:
4500 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the
conditions given?
A. 3250 ft
B. 3800 ft
C. 3650 ft
D. 3450 ft
25. Q(2851) Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas
A. VX is increased and VY is decreased.

B. VY and VX are decreased.
C. VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
D. VY and VX are increased.
26. Q(15437) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24L Wind: 310°/20kts Take off Mass: 4400
lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the
conditions given?
A. 4300 ft
B. 4000 ft
C. 3750 ft
D. 3350 ft
27. Q(13348) The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
A. all engines operating only.

B. failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance.
C. failure of the critical engine only.
D. one engine inoperative only.
28. Q(1465) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant
mass.)
A. The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.

B. The drag increases considerably.
C. The drag remains almost constant.
D. The drag decreases.
29. Q(6525) Assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting, increasing the aerodrome pressure altitude:
A. Has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass.

B. Will cause the maximum permitted take-off mass to decrease.
C. Has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass up to 5,000 ft pressure altitude above which it increases.
D. Will cause the maximum permitted take-off mass to increase.
4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given?
A. 1830 ft
B. 1220 ft
C. 1550 ft
D. 1270 ft
31. Q(3842) The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
A. weight during landing at the alternate.

B. climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude.
C. obstacle clearance after engine failure.
D. engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs.
32. Q(5491) Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to
the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of:
A. it will not clear the obstacle

B. 90 m
C. 75 m
D. 105 m
33. Q(11520) Using the attached image: or CAP 698 Fig 4.28 Given the following data determine the Field Length Limiting Landing Mass. Runway: Dry
Manual spoilers Anti-skid: Operative Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Headwind: 30 kts Field Length: 2100 metres Flaps: 15°
A. 55 000 kg
B. 53 200 kg
C. 65 000 kg
D. 57 200 kg
34. Q(13758) Considering VR, which statement is correct?
A. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.

B. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
C. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
D. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
35. Q(1638) Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
A. The field length limited take-off mass will increase.

B. V1 remains constant.
C. The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
D. V1 is increased.
36. Q(15357) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind: 060°/4 kts Take off Mass: 3800
lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
A. 2150 ft
B. 1780 ft
C. 1670 ft
D. 2000 ft
37. Q(2320) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of
A. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.

B. 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
C. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
D. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
38. Q(15273) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: 10°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture: full rich Other
conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 1770 ft/min
B. 1970 ft/min
C. 430 ft/min
D. 1570 ft/min
39. Q(800) Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
A. V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

B. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
C. V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
D. sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
40. Q(15278) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind: 060°/4 kts Take off Mass: 3800
lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given?
A. 1670 ft
B. 2000 ft
C. 2150 ft
D. 1550 ft
41. Q(4224) Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ?
(assume zero thrust and wind)
A. Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.
B. Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
C. Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
D. No difference.
42. Q(5497) At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turbo-prop aeroplane is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum
speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
A. 123 kt
B. 115 kt
C. 120 kt
D. 125 kt
43. Q(1471) Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
A. The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.

B. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
C. The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.
D. 1.2Vs.
44. Q(14723) Use Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2 With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, if the brakes are released before take-
off power is achieved, the accelerate/stop distance will be:
A. unaffected because all take-off techniques are accounted.

B. the same as the graphical distance because both techniques are accounted.
C. shorter than the graphical distance.
D. longer than the graphical distance.
45. Q(2097) Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires
A. no change
B. a steeper approach path
C. an increase in VREF
D. an increase in approach speed
46. Q(2849) The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass
A. increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.

B. increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
C. is independent of altitude.
D. decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.
47. Q(833) In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
A. In the take-off run available.

B. In the accelerate stop distance available.
C. In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
D. In the all-engine take-off distance.
48. Q(2319) An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to:
A. 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine
inoperative.
B. 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative.
C. 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative.
D. 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air, at the normal cruising speed.
49. Q(856) With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
A. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag.

B. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.
C. lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
D. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
50. Q(1470) What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
A. IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.

B. The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
C. The lift coefficient increases.
D. The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
51. Q(2091) How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust
A. has no change during take-off and climb.

B. decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
C. varies with mass changes only.
D. increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
conditions given?
A. 4300 ft
B. 4600 ft
C. 3550 ft
D. 3800 ft
53. Q(15458) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: 10°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Other conditions as
associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 500 ft/min
B. 890 ft/min
C. 200 ft/min
D. 430 ft/min
54. Q(3844) Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?
A. Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed

B. Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed
C. Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
D. Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx
55. Q(2837) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
A. The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
B. The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
C. The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
D. The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
56. Q(2860) VX is
A. the speed for best specific range.

B. the speed for best rate of climb.
C. the speed for best angle of flight path.
D. the speed for best angle of climb.
57. Q(3676) Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a
900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
A. 100 m
B. 115 m
C. It will not clear the obstacle
D. 85 m
58. Q(15447) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: -10°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 30L Wind: 180°/10 kts Take off Mass:
conditions given?
A. 3800 ft
B. 4600 ft
C. 4250 ft
D. 3550 ft
59. Q(15275) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass:
3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given?
A. 1600 ft
B. 1420 ft
C. 1950 ft
D. 1700 ft
60. Q(3471) The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
A. manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.

B. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
C. obstacle clearance in the approach area.
D. minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
61. Q(2858) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
A. take-off decision speed.

B. lift off speed.
C. critical engine failure speed.
D. take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
62. Q(5493) The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65
% results in:
A. same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.
B. an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.
C. same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.
D. an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.
63. Q(13759) Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

A. V1 must not exceed VMCG.
B. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
C. When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
D. V1 must not exceed VR.
64. Q(846) Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
A. Both will increase.

B. Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
C. Both will remain the same.
D. Both will decrease.
65. Q(2819) How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?
A. Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
B. Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
C. Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
D. Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
66. Q(13267) What percentages of the head wind and tail wind component are taken into account when calculating the take off field length required?
A. 150% head wind and 50% tail wind.

B. 100% head wind and 100% tail wind.
C. 50% head wind and 100% tail wind.
D. 50% head wind and 150% tail wind.
67. Q(15495) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: 0°C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture: leaned to 25°F
rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 1200 ft/min
B. 870 ft/min
C. 500 ft/min
D. 1050 ft/min
68. Q(14298) At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2) Given: OAT: -10°C, Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft, RWY: 30L, Wind: 180°/10 kts.
Take off Mass: 4600 lbs. Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop
Distance under the conditions given?
A. 4600 ft
B. 3550 ft
C. 4250 ft
D. 3800 ft
69. Q(2848) As long as an aeroplane is in a steady climb:
A. VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude.

B. VX is always greater than VY.
C. VY is always greater than VMO.
D. VX is always less than VY.
70. Q(13752) According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than
A. 1.2 VMCA
B. 1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes
C. 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height
D. VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height
71. Q(799) At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged,
its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:
A. 5%
B. 7.5%
C. 2.5%
D. 10%
72. Q(8007) If you experience an engine failure before speed (1)... the pilot must, with a reaction time of (2) .... be able to stop the plane within (3)....
A. (1) V1 (2) 2 secs (3) ASDA.

B. (1) V1 (2) 2 secs (3) TORA.
C. (1) V1 (2) 1 sec (3) ASDA.
D. (1) VR (2) 5 secs (3) ASDA.
73. Q(837) The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:
A. 2 engine aeroplane.
B. the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
C. the failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.
D. the failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.
74. Q(2792) The critical engine inoperative
A. does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
B. increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
C. increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.
D. decreases the power required and increases the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the
yaw moment.
75. Q(15446) Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 20°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft RWY: 24L Wind: 120°/ 8 kts Take off Mass: 4500
lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the
conditions given?
A. 3400 ft
B. 3600 ft
C. 4500 ft
D. 4200 ft
76. Q(825) In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
A. reduce the engine thrust.

B. apply wheel brakes.
C. deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
D. reverse engine thrust.
77. Q(2738) At reference or see Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2. With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and
stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
A. Performance will be better than in the chart.
B. It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.
C. Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.
D. No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.
78. Q(2861) The speed for best rate of climb is called
A. VX.
B. VY.
C. VO.
D. V2.
79. Q(845) Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
A. lower than that for clean configuration.

B. changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
C. higher than that for clean configuration.
D. same as that for clean configuration.
80. Q(1477) If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct?
A. V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG.

B. The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
C. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
D. The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
04 Class A – Aeroplanes Certificated

1. Q(2811) The engine failure take-off run is:
A. the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
B. the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached
and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
C. 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
D. 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
2. Q(14292) Select from the following list of conditions those that must prevail in the second segment of the take-off net flight path for a Class A
aeroplane are: 1. Undercarriage retracted. 2. Undercarriage extended. 3. Flaps up. 4. Flaps in take-off position. 5. All engines at take-off thrust. 6.
Operative engine(s) at take-off thrust. 7. Climbing speed of V2 + 10kts. 8. Climbing speed of 1.3VS. 9. Climbing speed of V2. 10. Commencing height
35ft.
A. 1, 4, 5, 10
B. 1, 5, 8, 10
C. 1, 4, 6, 9
D. 2, 3, 6, 9
3. Q(1633) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
A. the runway is dry.

B. it is dark.
C. the runway is wet.
D. windshear is reported on the take-off path.
4. Q(14720) For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS and a constant mass the drag will:
A. increase considerably.
B. increase initially and then decrease.
C. decrease.
D. remain almost constant.
5. Q(291) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. IAS decreases and TAS decreases.

B. IAS increases and TAS decreases.
C. IAS decreases and TAS increases.
D. IAS increases and TAS increases.
6. Q(2624) The speed VR
A. must be equal to or lower than V1.

B. must be higher than V2.
C. is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
D. must be higher than VLOF.
7. Q(3472) Which statement relating to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
A. In the case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
B. A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
C. Screen height reduction cannot be applied because of the consequent reduction in obstacle clearance.
D. The use of a reduced VR is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway
A. VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.

B. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
C. VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
D. VR should not be higher than V1.
9. Q(795) Use the attached graphic. What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a
mass of 75 000 kg? Using the following: g = 10 m/s², 1 kt = 100 ft/min, SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight
A. 1267 ft / min.
B. 3293 ft / min.
C. 0 ft / min.
D. -1267 ft / min.
10. Q(2668) Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?
A. The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating.
B. There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height.
C. The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
D. The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.
11. Q(1468) For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ?
A. Minimum fuel flow.

B. Minimum drag.
C. Minimum specific fuel consumption.
D. Longest flight duration.
12. Q(1453) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?
A. Increase / increase.
B. Increase / decrease.
C. Decrease / decrease.
D. Decrease / increase.
13. Q(11517) Using the attached image: or CAP 698 Fig 4.5 Given: CLTOM: 48020 kgs Flaps: 15° Airport pressure altitude: 6000 ft PACKS OFF PMC ON
ANTI ICE OFF Find the maximum airport OAT with these conditions.
A. 44°C
B. 30°C
C. 39°C
D. 34°C
14. Q(2833) If, after experiencing an engine failure when cruising above the one-engine-inoperative ceiling, an aeroplane is unable to maintain its
cruising altitude, the procedure that should be adopted is:
A. Long Range Cruise Descent.

B. ETOPS.
C. Drift Down Procedure.
D. Emergency Descent Procedure.
15. Q(1667) Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.

B. The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.
C. The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.
D. A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.
16. Q(2830) The optimum cruise altitude increases
A. if the temperature (OAT) is increased.

B. if the tailwind component is decreased.
C. if the aeroplane mass is increased.
D. if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
17. Q(2154) Field length is balanced when
A. one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
B. take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available.
C. all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
D. calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.
18. Q(1443) The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the:
A. IAS increases.
B. aircraft mass decreases.
C. glide angle increases.
D. TAS decreases.
19. Q(2856) The speed V1 is defined as
A. take-off decision speed.

B. engine failure speed.
C. take-off climb speed.
D. speed for best angle of climb.
20. Q(2808) The long-range cruise speed is selected because:
A. it achieves the specific range with a headwind

B. it is the cruise-climb speed for one or two engines inoperative.
C. the higher speed achieves 99% of the maximum still-air range.
D. it is the best speed for economy.
21. Q(2034) A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest
clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
A. giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.

B. for long-range cruise.
C. of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
D. giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
22. Q(1072) Given: VS= Stalling speed, VMCA= Air minimum control speed, VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure), V1= take-off
decision speed, VR= Rotation speed, V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed, VLOF: Lift-off speed . The correct formula is:
A. V2min< VMCA> VMU

B. VMU<= VMCA< V1
C. VS< VMCA< V2 min
D. VR< VMCA< VLOF
23. Q(2673) Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
A. A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
B. The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
C. There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path.
D. The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
24. Q(820) Considering VR, which statement is correct?
A. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.

B. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
C. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
D. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
25. Q(2630) In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed
A. 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

B. 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
C. 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.
D. 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
26. Q(857) Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.
The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly
fuel consumption is:
A. 3578 kg/h.
B. 3804 kg/h.
C. 4044 kg/h.
D. 3365 kg/h.
27. Q(2625) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would
A. decrease the required take-off distance.

B. decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
C. increase the maximum mass for take-off.
D. have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
28. Q(1949) The effects of an increased ambient air temperature beyond the flat rating cut-off temperature of the engines on (i) the field-length-limited
take-off mass and (ii) the climb-limited take-off mass are:
A. (i) Increase (ii) Decrease.

B. (i) Decrease (ii) Increase.
C. (i) Increase (ii) Increase.
D. (i) Decrease (ii) Decrease.
29. Q(2633) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be
A. lower.
B. only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
C. higher.
D. unchanged.
30. Q(836) Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
A. High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.

B. Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
C. Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
D. Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
31. Q(1651) The drift down requirements are based on:
A. the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
B. the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
C. the landing mass limit at the alternate.
D. the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
32. Q(2086) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
A. has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

B. increases the IAS for take-off.
C. decreases the take-off speed V1.
D. decreases the TAS for take-off.
33. Q(13766) With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
A. the maximum lift.

B. the minimum angle of descent.
C. the minimum power required.
D. the critical Mach number.
34. Q(1469) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
A. The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.

B. The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.
C. The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
D. The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
35. Q(2794) The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
A. limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes.

B. can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
C. has to be considered at take-off and landing.
D. exists only above MMO.
36. Q(847) How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions) ?
A. TAS increases.
B. TAS decreases.
C. TAS is not related to Mach Number.
D. TAS is constant.
37. Q(812) Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?
A. Accelerate Stop Distance

B. Take-off distance
C. Take-off run
D. All Engine Take-off distance
38. Q(2818) Reduced take-off thrust
A. can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.

B. is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
C. can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
D. has the benefit of improving engine life.
39. Q(1474) Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
A. In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

B. In order to achieve speed stability.
C. It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
D. The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
40. Q(1078) The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
A. depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively.

B. larger.
C. smaller.
D. equal.
41. Q(2627) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
A. at 35 ft above the runway.

B. at reaching V2.
C. at completion of gear retraction.
D. at completion of flap retraction.
42. Q(1648) Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
A. A low runway elevation and a head wind.

B. A high runway elevation and tail wind.
C. A high runway elevation and a head wind.
D. A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
43. Q(797) During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distances measured from brake release to the 35 feet point are equal to: -
1547 m with all engines running - 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged. The take-off distance
adopted for the certification file is:
A. 1978 m.
B. 1720 m.
C. 1779 m.
D. 1547 m.
44. Q(2626) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
A. increase the required take-off distance.

B. decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
C. increase the maximum mass for take-off.
D. have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
45. Q(849) Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant,
A. both will decrease with increasing altitude.

B. TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
C. both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
D. both will increase with increasing altitude.
46. Q(1450) During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
A. increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.

B. increase, because the lift coefficient increases.
C. decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.
D. remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.
47. Q(13336) In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
A. VSR, VMC
B. VLOF, VMCA.
C. V1, VR.
D. VMCG, V2
48. Q(815) How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting?
A. A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

B. An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.
C. A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
D. Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
49. Q(1649) If on a particular flight the value of V1 used on take-off exceeds the correct value of V1, if an engine fails at a speed immediately above
the correct value of V1 then:
A. V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.

B. the one-engine-inoperative take-off distance may exceed the take-off distance available.
C. It may lead to over-rotation.
D. the accelerate/stop distance will exceed the accelerate/stop distance available.
50. Q(1643) The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
A. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
B. obstacle clearance in the approach area.
C. manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
D. minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
51. Q(2796) At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine
A. decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.

B. increases with decreasing OAT.
C. is independent of the airspeed.
D. increases slightly with increasing airspeed.
52. Q(2827) A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
A. The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
B. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
C. The clearway does not equal the stopway.
D. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
53. Q(2838) The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
A. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.
B. the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
C. the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
D. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
54. Q(835) If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
A. not be affected.
B. increase.
C. increase in the flaps extended case.
D. decrease.
55. Q(1654) The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
A. VLOF in terms of ground speed.

B. V1 in kt ground speed.
C. V1 in kt TAS.
D. VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
56. Q(5252) Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?
A. VR may not be lower than V1

B. V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
C. The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative
D. When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines
57. Q(1664) A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be exceeded?
A. Maximum operating speed

B. Never exceed speed
C. Maximum operating Mach number
D. High speed buffet limit
58. Q(2832) Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
A. If at the lower altitude there is a greater headwind.

B. If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
C. If at the lower altitude there is less tailwind.
D. If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
59. Q(2094) Which of the following speeds may vary if a stopway or clearway is available?
A. V2
B. VMCA
C. VMCG
D. V1
60. Q(2634) The optimum cruise altitude is
A. the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
B. the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.
C. the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
D. the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
61. Q(404) Which of the following will decrease V1?
A. Inoperative anti-skid.
B. Increased take-off mass.
C. Increased outside air temperature.
D. Inoperative flight management system.
62. Q(2814) In case of an engine failure recognised below V1
A. the take-off must be rejected.

B. the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.
C. the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
D. the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
63. Q(1454) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
A. decrease.
B. increase at first and decrease later on.
C. remain constant.
D. increase.
64. Q(818) How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
A. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude

B. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
C. VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
D. VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
65. Q(2793) The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
A. increases with increasing mass.

B. decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
C. is only limiting at low altitudes.
D. decreases with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
66. Q(2669) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope...
A. reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).

B. increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
C. increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
D. reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
67. Q(4532) On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin
of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies
inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
A. 121310 kg
B. 106425 kg
C. 102150 kg
D. 118455kg
68. Q(1663) A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
A. The Maximum operating Mach number.

B. The Stalling speed.
C. The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
D. The Minimum control speed air.
69. Q(1452) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
A. Remain constant / decrease.

B. Reduce / decrease.
C. Remain constant / become larger.
D. Reduce / remain constant.
70. Q(2806) The speed for maximum endurance:
A. is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

B. is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
C. is the speed at which the aeroplane achieves 99% of maximum specific range.
D. can be either higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
71. Q(1658) Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?
A. Economy.
B. Service ceiling.
C. Aerodynamics.
D. Theoretical ceiling.
72. Q(810) Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:
A. primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.

B. primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel steering.
C. nose wheel steering only.
D. primary aerodynamic control only.
73. Q(11521) Using the attached image: or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24 Given the following data, determine the driftdown time, fuel burn
and distance flown to clear the obstacle by the statutory minimum. FL 370 Mass 44,000 kg Engine Anti-Ice ON Wing Anti-Ice OFF Temp ISA -10°C
Obstacle 23,000’ amsl H/W 30 kts
A. 20 minutes, 1000 kgs, 125 NM
B. 35 minutes 1350 kgs, 170 NM
C. 32 minutes, 1100 kgs, 153 NM
D. 24 minutes, 600 kgs, 122 NM
74. Q(13334) If all other parameters remain constant, what is the influence of mass on the maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed?
A. The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.

B. The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass.
C. The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
D. The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
75. Q(2666) Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
A. V2.
B. V2 10 kt.
C. The speed at which the excess of thrust available over thrust required is greatest.
D. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
76. Q(2826) V1 for a balanced-field is calculated when:
A. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the stopway to produce the maximum take-off mass.
B. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the clearway to produce the maximum take-off mass.
C. the speed is equal to V2.
D. the acceleration/stop distance available is equal to the take-off distance available.
77. Q(13757) Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
A. A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude.
B. A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.
C. A step climb is executed in principle when, just after levelling off, the 1.3g altitude is reached.
D. Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads greater than 1.
78. Q(11514) (Refer to CAP698 Section 4 Pages 17–19) Given the following data calculate Vmcg and V1: 3000 ft PA OAT +30º C RLTOM 60,000 kg RW
2% Upslope Flaps 5º 5kt TW PMC ON AC Packs Off
A. Vmcg 109 kts V1 148 kts

B. Vmcg 111 kts V1 148 kts
C. Vmcg 109 kts V1 147 kts
D. Vmcg 111kts V1 147 kts
79. Q(848) The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
A. is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.

B. is only dependent on the outside air temperature.
C. is independent of the aeroplane mass.
D. increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
80. Q(2809) The optimum altitude
A. is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

B. is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
C. increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.
D. decreases as mass decreases.
81. Q(2802) A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires
A. a lower coefficient of drag.

B. a lower coefficient of lift.
C. a lower angle of attack.
D. a higher angle of attack.
82. Q(1952) The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
A. at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.

B. at which the take-off must be rejected.
C. below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off should be continued.
D. below which the take-off must be continued.
83. Q(855) At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the
estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be
landed within:
A. 1565 m.
B. 2 070 m.
C. 2609 m.
D. 1800 m.
84. Q(1632) The speed used to determine the "maximum tyre-speed limit" is the:
A. EAS.
B. TAS.
C. IAS.
D. groundspeed.
85. Q(2840) The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
A. 92%
B. 43%
C. 67%
D. 70%
86. Q(1074) During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant
between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines
operating - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to
determine the take-off run (TOR). The certificated value of the Take-off Run is:
A. 2009 m.
B. 1950 m.
C. 2243 m.
D. 2096 m.
87. Q(1467) If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following will occur?
A. An increased maximum range.

B. A lower cruise Mach number.
C. An increased long range performance.
D. A higher cruise mach number.
A. anti skid is not usable.

B. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
C. it is dark.
D. the runway is wet.
89. Q(2857) The speed VSR is defined as
A. speed for best specific range.

B. as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed.
C. safe rotation speed for take-off .
D. design stress speed.
90. Q(13751) According to EU-OPS 1, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
A. less then that required at an alternate airport.

B. 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport
C. more than that required at an alternate airport.
D. the same as that required at an alternate airport.
91. Q(13354) Which combination of answers of the following parameters give an increase or decrease of the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take
off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4 decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure
altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude
A. 2, 3, 6 and 7
B. 1, 3, 5 and 8
C. 2, 4, 5 and 7
D. 1, 4, 6 and 8
92. Q(2667) Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct?
A. An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy point of view.
B. An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range.
C. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.
D. An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum
cruise altitude.
93. Q(808) Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine, g = 10 m/s², Drag =
72 569 N, Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd
segment conditions is:
A. 74 064 kg
B. 209 064 kg
C. 101 596 kg
D. 286 781 kg
94. Q(2805) "Maximum endurance"
A. is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.

B. can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.
C. can be flown in a steady climb only.
D. is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.
95. Q(1077) The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
A. 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.

B. 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
C. 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes.
D. 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.
96. Q(2842) With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is (assume altitude remains constant)
A. not affected.
B. reduced.
C. first improved and later reduced.
D. improved.
97. Q(838) At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
A. 1500 ft above field elevation.

B. 400 ft above field elevation.
C. 35 ft above ground.
D. When gear retraction is completed.
98. Q(854) A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. The aeroplane mass
must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within:
A. 1 440 m.
B. 1 250 m.
C. 1 655 m.
D. 1 090 m.
99. Q(2628) You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
A. The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.
B. No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)
C. During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
D. The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
100. Q(1076) At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4. For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°)
are certified. Given: Field length avalaible= 2400 m, Outside air temperature= -10°C, Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft. The maximum allowed take-off
mass is:
A. 56 000 kg
B. 70 000 kg
C. 55 000 kg
D. 52 000 kg
101. Q(2865) The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
A. is dependent on the OAT.

B. is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
C. is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
D. is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
102. Q(2828) V2 has to be equal to or higher than
A. 1.15 VR.
B. 1.1 VSO.
C. 1.15 VMCG.
D. 1.1 VMCA.
103. Q(1672) Which of the following statements is true regarding a balanced field-length?
A. A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths.
B. For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length.
C. A balanced field length provides the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.
D. A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
104. Q(2675) Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?
A. An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine
inoperative as with all engines operating.
B. The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
C. The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
D. When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.
105. Q(1466) Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)
A. Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.

B. Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
B. Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
C. Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.
D. Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
106. Q(2798) The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
A. is inversely proportional to the airspeed.

B. is independent of the airspeed.
C. increases in proportion to the airspeed.
D. does not change with changing altitude.
107. Q(14300) V1 for a balanced-field is calculated when:
A. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the stopway to produce the maximum take-off mass.
B. the speed is equal to V2.
C. the acceleration/stop distance available is equal to the take-off distance available.
D. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the clearway to produce the maximum take-off mass.
108. Q(408) In accordance with CS-25, the reference landing speed (VREF) has the following minimum margin above the reference stalling speed in
the landing configuration (VSR0):
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 23%
109. Q(1947) VR cannot be lower than:
A. V1 and 105% of VMCA.

B. 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
C. 105% of V1 and VMCA.
D. 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
110. Q(839) A head wind will:
A. increase the rate of climb.

B. shorten the time of climb.
C. increase the climb flight path angle.
D. increase the angle of climb.
111. Q(2155) The second segment begins
A. when flaps are selected up.

B. when landing gear is fully retracted.
C. when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.
D. when flap retraction begins.
A. it is dark.
B. the runway is contaminated.
C. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
D. the runway is wet.
113. Q(2677) The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
A. 1.15 Vs1
B. 1.3 VS
C. 1.13VSR
D. 1.15 Vs
114. Q(2629) The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by

A. a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
B. selecting a lower V2.
C. selecting a lower VR.
D. selecting a lower V1.
115. Q(14719) The angle of attack required to attain the maximum still-air range for a turbo-jet aeroplane is:
A. less than that for the maximum lift to drag ratio.

B. the same as that giving zero induced drag.
C. greater than that for the maximum lift to drag ratio.
D. the same as that for the maximum endurance.
116. Q(4226) When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used
on the landing distance available (dry runway)
A. 0.60
B. 60/115
C. 1.67
D. 115/100
117. Q(1063) The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-
off, leads to the following values, with wind: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25° FLLTOM (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500 CLTOM: 72 200 69 000 61 800 Wind
correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt, Tail wind: -360kg / kt. Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release
and corresponding flap angle will be:
A. 69 000 kg / 15 °
B. 67 700 kg / 15 °
C. 69 700 kg / 25 °
D. 72 200 kg / 5 °
118. Q(11515) Using the attached image: or CAP 698 Fig 3.10 Given the following data, what is the FLLLM? Aerodrome pressure altitude 80ft Ambient
Temperature: 10 °C Landing distance available : 3080 ft Wind: 12 kt Head Runway slope: 1.5% down Runway surface: Grass Condition: Wet Short
field
A. 3 750 lbs
B. 4 513 lbs
C. 3 150 lbs
D. 3 450 lbs
119. Q(14717) The requirements of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane assume:
A. the failure of the critical engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VEF.

B. the failure of any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VR.
C. the failure of two engines of a three-engined or four-engined aeroplane at VEF.
D. the failure of any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VEF.
120. Q(14721) Compared with balanced-field calculations for an aerodrome with no stopway or clearway, the use of a clearway in the take-off
calculations will:
A. Not affect the value of the field-length-limited take-off mass.

B. Not affect the value of V1.
C. Increase the field-length-limited take-off mass.
D. Increase the value of V1.
121. Q(843) What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
A. The time to climb does not change.

B. The time to climb decreases.
C. The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
D. The time to climb increases
122. Q(1785) At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24. With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is
meant by "equivalent gross mass at engine failure" ?
A. The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.

B. The equivalent gross mass at engine failure is the actual gross mass corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C.
C. The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.
D. This gross mass accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.
123. Q(2159) Which of the following is true according to EASA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
A. Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.

B. Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
C. Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
D. Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
124. Q(1442) Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
A. maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.

B. holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
C. maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.
D. maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
125. Q(2821) A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
A. increases the field length limited take-off mass.

B. decreases the take-off distance.
C. increases the climb limited take-off mass.
D. decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
126. Q(403) Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
A. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
B. The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
C. VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
D. The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
127. Q(1951) The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
A. the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.

B. the point half way between V1 and V2.
C. the lift-off point.
D. the point where V2 is reached.
128. Q(1670) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
A. A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.
B. The take-off performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
C. Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
D. The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
129. Q(1644) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
A. V2 has the same value in both cases.

B. V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.
C. V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
D. V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
130. Q(826) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
A. The accelerate stop distance decreases.

B. Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is never permitted.
C. The accelerate stop distance increases.
D. It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
131. Q(1660) Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
A. The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses and altitudes.
B. The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
C. The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings.
D. The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.
132. Q(813) Which of the following answers is true?
A. V1 is lower or equal to VR
B. V1 is higher VLOF
C. V1 is lower VMCG
D. V1 is higher VR
133. Q(2834) 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
A. to conduct a visual approach with one engine out.

B. after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.
C. after cabin depressurization.
D. to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
134. Q(1656) For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
A. An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
B. The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.
C. When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is
expected to be dry.
D. In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.
135. Q(2674) According to EU-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
A. The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop.
B. When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into
account.
C. Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.
D. Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required.
136. Q(2825) Uphill slope
A. increases the allowed take-off mass.

B. increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
C. decreases the take-off distance only.
D. decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
137. Q(1073) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
A. is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
B. is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
C. is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
D. is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue
the take-off .
138. Q(2096) The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
A. Depending on density altitude and mass.

B. Depending on the OAT and net mass.
C. Lower
D. Higher
139. Q(2676) In accordance with CS 25 the take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may
not be less than:
A. 1.08 VSR
B. 1.2 VSR
C. VSR
D. 1.13 VSR
140. Q(1665) Which of the following statements regarding the reduced thrust take-off technique is correct?
A. The maximum reduction of thrust permitted for the MRJT using a reduced thrust take-off is 20%.
B. The reduced thrust take-off technique does not preserve engine life.
C. Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the performance limited take-off mass.
D. Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
141. Q(1668) Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
A. V1 must not exceed VMCG.

B. When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
C. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
D. V1 must not exceed VR.
142. Q(2815) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
A. the take-off must be continued.

B. a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
C. the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
D. the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
143. Q(2795) Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
A. Maximum Cruise Thrust

B. Maximum Take-off Thrust
C. Maximum Continuous Thrust
D. Go-Around Thrust
144. Q(821) Which statement is correct?
A. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
B. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
C. VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
D. VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
145. Q(823) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
A. VR
B. V2
C. VREF
D. VMCA
146. Q(13357) The correct formula is: (Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower")
A. V2min<= VEF<= VMU

B. 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
C. 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
D. VMCG<=VEF < V1
147. Q(14725) The value of V1 has to be equal to or higher than:
A. VMC.
B. VMCG.
C. V2.
D. VR.
148. Q(819) Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
A. the obstacle limited take-off mass.

B. the take-off run.
C. the field limited take-off mass.
D. the climb limited take-off mass.
149. Q(1662) Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
A. V1, VMCG, VR, V2.

B. V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
C. VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
D. V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
150. Q(2835) If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure
A. fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
B. the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
C. the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt.
D. fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
151. Q(2831) Below the optimum cruise altitude
A. the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
B. the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
C. the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
D. the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.
152. Q(15228) The correct formula is: (Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower")
A. VMCG<=VEF < V1
B. 1.05 VMC<= VEF<= V1
C. V2min<= VEF<= VMU
D. 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
153. Q(1959) Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent? (still air, no turbulence)?
A. Maximum range.
B. Holding.
C. Long range.
D. Maximum endurance.
154. Q(2813) May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
A. No.
B. Only for landing.
C. Only for take-off.
D. Yes.
155. Q(1671) To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
A. postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

B. use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
C. make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
D. use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
156. Q(13362) In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA
A. Low take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.

B. High take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.
C. High take-off mass, small flap extension, high field elevation.
D. Low take-off mass, small flap extension, low field elevation.
157. Q(1456) An aeroplane descends from FL 410 to FL 270 at its cruise Mach number and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS achieved at FL 270.
Assuming idle thrust, a clean configuration and ignoring compressibility effects, how does the angle of descent change (i) in the first and (ii) in the
second part of the descent?
A. (i) Increases (ii) Decreases

B. (i) Decreases (ii) Increases
C. (i) Increases (ii) Remains constant
D. (i) Remains constant (ii) Decreases
158. Q(2867) "Stepped climbs" are used on long-distance flights:

A. to fly as close to the tropopause as possible.
B. to fly a profile as close as possible to the optimum altitude as the aeroplane mass reduces.
C. for piston-engined aeroplanes only not for jet aeroplanes.
D. only if the headwind is less or the tailwind is greater than forecast at high altitude.
159. Q(824) During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: - 3050 m with failure of
the critical engine recognised at V1 - 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the
certification file is:
A. 2555 m
B. 2938 m
C. 3050 m
D. 3513 m
160. Q(1652) Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
A. It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path".
B. It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.
C. It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path.
D. It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net take off flight path".
161. Q(1636) The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
A. the actual take-off mass is greater than the climb limited take-off mass.
B. the actual take-off mass including a margin is greater than the performance limited take-off mass.
C. the actual take-off mass is lower than the performance limited take-off mass.
D. the take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required.
162. Q(798) For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A) on a commercial flight, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is
expected to be wet. It must be ensured that the landing mass of the aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry runway within a landing distance of:
A. 1339 m.
B. 1540 m.
C. 1147 m.
D. 1771 m.
163. Q(1666) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
A. The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
B. On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.
C. 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.
D. The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
164. Q(13765) Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
A. V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG

B. VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR
C. VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR
D. VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2
165. Q(11518) Using the attached image or CAP 698 Fig 4.30: Given: Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft Temperature: 30°F Downslope 1.5%
Headwind: 10kt Flaps: 40° Find the Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass.
A. 57 000 kg
B. 55 850 kg
C. 58 100 kg
D. 56 375 kg
166. Q(2672) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. The effect a headwind has on the value of this limit is:
A. None.
B. that the climb-limited take-off mass will decrease.
C. that the climb-limited take-off mass will increase.
D. variable dependant on the height of any obstacle within the obstacle accountability area.
167. Q(842) An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D
from the end of the TODA is at least:
A. 0.125D
B. 90m + 0.125D
C. 90m + D/0.125
D. 90m + 1.125D
168. Q(2839) The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
A. 43%
B. 67%
C. 92%
D. 70%
169. Q(402) During take-off the third segment begins:
A. when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

B. when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
C. when flap retraction is completed.
D. when landing gear is fully retracted.
170. Q(13777) Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
A. V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
B. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
C. V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
D. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
171. Q(2844) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?
A. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100

B. Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
C. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
D. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
172. Q(1661) Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?"
A. To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.

B. Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
C. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
D. To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
173. Q(817) The effect of increasing the flap setting, from zero to the recommended take-off setting, on the length of the Take-off Distance Required
(TODR) and the Field-Length-Limited Take-off mass (TOM) is:
A. Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

B. Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
C. Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
D. Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
174. Q(2729) At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation,
landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft, QNH: 1013 hPa, Landing mass: 50 000 kg. Flaps: as required for
minimum landing distance. Runway condition: dry. Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt, Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
A. 2900 m.
B. 3100 m.
C. 2700 m.
D. 2600 m.
175. Q(1637) When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:
A. decreases / remains constant.

B. decreases / decreases.
C. remains constant / remains constant.
D. increases / increases.
176. Q(822) Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
A. VR
B. VMCG
C. VLOF
D. VMU
177. Q(1455) During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
A. decrease / increase.
B. increase / increase.
C. increase / decrease.
D. decrease / decrease.
178. Q(858) A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given
flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a
specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
A. 14 kg/NM.
B. 11.7 kg/NM.
C. 8.17 kg/NM.
D. 10.7 kg/NM.
179. Q(2323) At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5. Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit
chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?
A. There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.
B. There is a built-in safety measure.
C. The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.
D. The limitation presented in this chart is taken relative to air.
180. Q(14729) The vertical interval by which a Class A aeroplane must avoid all obstacles in the drift-down path, during the drift-down following an
engine failure is:
A. 2000ft
B. 1000ft
C. 35ft
D. 1500ft.
181. Q(2671) If the field-length-limited take-off mass and V1 were calculated using balanced field-lengths, the use of any additional clearway in the
calculation would cause:
A. an increased obstale-limited take-off mass and an increased V1.

B. an increased obstacle-limited take-off mass with the same V1.
C. an increased field-length-limited take-off mass and an increased V1.
D. an increased field-length-limited take-off mass and a reduced V1.
182. Q(796) In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
A. the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

B. the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle domain.
C. the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
D. based on pressure altitudes.
183. Q(14722) The relationship of the reference landing speed (VREF) to the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSRO) is that VREF
may not be below:
A. VSRO.
B. 1.1 VSRO
C. 1.32 VSRO
D. 1.23VSRO
184. Q(14460) With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart
for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
A. Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved.
B. All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.
C. Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes
D. Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level.
185. Q(2322) At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5. With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does
the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0 ft?
A. The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited.
B. At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.
C. At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
D. At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.
186. Q(13760) Which statement is correct?
A. The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
B. The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.
C. The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off
mass.
D. The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
187. Q(1956) The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
A. maximum endurance.
B. critical angle of attack.
C. maximum specific range.
D. minimum power.
188. Q(1463) With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ?
A. An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude.
B. An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight.
C. An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result.
D. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
189. Q(2158) The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by:
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 30%
D. 10%
190. Q(1647) During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5°
flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
A. By selecting a lower flap setting.

B. By selecting a higher flap setting.
C. By selecting a lower V2.
D. By selecting a higher V2.
191. Q(2160) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided
A. by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
B. only by using standard turns.
C. by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
D. by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
192. Q(2093) The speed V2 is
A. that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
B. the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
C. the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
D. the take-off safety speed.
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take it easy champ

A. in unaccelerated level flight.

A. an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

A. 20°, both limitations are increased

A. increases / increases / constant

A. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.

A. a higher coefficient of drag is required.

A. increases at constant TAS.

14. Q(2801) A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires

A. less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

A. A decrease will cause an increase of the climb gradient.

16. Q(1953) Regarding unaccelerated horizontal flight, Minimum Drag is:

A. independent of the aircraft mass.

A. remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

A. altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.

A. the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.

A. that the IAS must be decreased.

24. Q(2850) The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of

A. the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.

A. Increases only if there is no wind.

A. that which gives the minimum value of induced drag.

A. decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.

A. Weight, drag and thrust.

A. Low temperature and high relative humidity

31. Q(2852) A higher outside air temperature

A. increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

33. Q(399) Which of the following statements is correct ?

35. Q(2854) A constant headwind

A. increases the descent distance over ground.

36. Q(2845) The rate of climb is approximately equal to:

A. the angle of climb multiplied by the TAS.

37. Q(2863) The absolute ceiling

A. is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%

A. > 3650 lbs

42. Q(2824) On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased

A. The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

A. a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

45. Q(2087) During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component

A. decreases the climb time.

47. Q(1462) The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:

A. The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.

A. altitude reference to the standard datum plane

A. The lift/drag ratio decreases.

A. only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

A. decreases the maximum range.

A. The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

53. Q(2780) The induced drag of an aeroplane

A. decreases with increasing airspeed.

A. No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.

A. a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

A. is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.

A. decreases with increasing altitude, but only at low speeds.

A. the airspeed must be decreased and the drag will increase.

63. Q(2084) The Density Altitude

A. is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

64. Q(2157) Take-off run is defined as the

A. Distance from brake release to V2.

67. Q(2864) The aerodynamic ceiling

A. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.

A. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100

A. The altitude cannot be maintained.

77. Q(2822) The take-off distance required increases