Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
National Capital Region
Schools Division Office of Taguig City and Pateros
TAGUIG NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

PHYSICAL SCIENCE
REVIEW FOR DAGDAG GILAS
Grade 12 Academic & TechVoc

Name: ______________________________ Score: ________________

Track/Strand: ________________________ Date: _________________

Multiple Choice.
Directions. Read the following statement carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer before the number.

1. Which of the following substances is expected to have the highest boiling point?
A. HBr C. HF
B. HCl D. HI
2. A polar covalent bond would form in which of the following pairs of atoms?
A. Ca – Cl C. Cr - Br
B. Cl – Cl D. C - H
3. If a molecule of H2S has a bent geometry, which of the following is correct?
A. It is a polar molecule C. It has zero net dipole moment.
B. It has one ionic bond. D. It has both polar and nonpolar covalent bonds.
4. Which of the following substances would exhibit hydrogen bonding in the liquid state?
A. CH4 C. NH3
B. H2S D. PH3
5. Helium atoms do not combine to form He2 molecules. But He atoms weakly attract one another through _______.
A. dipole-dipole forces C. hydrogen bonding
B. dipole-induced dipole forces D. London dispersion forces
6. Which of the following reactions will delay the decay of a fruit?
A. cutting it into small pieces C. storing it in a warm container
B. placing it in the refrigerator D. not washing it with water before storage
7. What is the molar mass of C3H8? (atomic weights: C = 12.01g, H = 1.008g)
A. 13.018 g/mol C. 99.10 g/mol
B. 44.09 g/mol D. 132.28 g/mol
8-9. Potassium chlorate decomposes upon slight heating in the presence of a catalyst according to the reaction below:
2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2
Use the following molar mass: 39.10 g/mol of K, 35.5 g/mol of Cl, and 16 g/mol of O
8. In a certain experiment, 40.0 g KClO3 is heated until it completely decomposes. What is the theoretical yield of
oxygen gas?
A. 15.06 g of oxygen gas C. 16.46 g of oxygen gas
B. 15.66 g of oxygen gas D. 16.86 g of oxygen gas
9. The experiment is performed and the oxygen gas is collected and its mass is found to be 14.9g. What is the percent
yield for the reaction?
A. 93.48% C. 95.15%
B. 94.55% D. 96.05%
10. Grinding a seltzer tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to increased
A. concentration C. particle size
B. temperature D. reactants
11. Which of the following statements about catalysts is false?
A. They speed up reactions
B. They provide an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
C. They become chemically changed at the end of the reaction
D. None of the above
12. How does adding a catalyst affect a reaction?
A. It increases the kinetic energy of the reactants, resulting in more collisions
B. It lowers the internal energy of the products, resulting in more stable bonds
C. It increases the amount of product created in a reaction
D. It lowers the energy required to have reactants react with one another
13. Which of the following is always true about active ingredients?
A. They are the cause of health risks of products
B. They constitute the large percentage of a product
C. They are more hazardous than inactive ingredients
D. They dictate the efficacy of the product for its intended purpose.
14. The best product to use to remove solid deposits on surfaces is ___________.
A. General purpose cleaner C. scouring cleaner
B. Glass cleaner D. stain remover
15. Which of the following is an active ingredient of general-purpose cleaners?
A. Dye C. Preservative
B. Fragrance D. Surfactant
16. Which product is used to reduce microbial count on a surface but not necessarily to clean the surface?
A. Abrasive C. Sanitizer
B. Aerosol D. Surfactant
17. What is the active ingredient of moisturizers?
A. Bleaching agent C. Fragrant oil
B. Emollient D. Surfactant
18. Which of the following statements reveals the Alpha-scattering experiment?
A. The atom is made up of very small, massive, and positively charged nucleus
B. The nucleus contains positively charged particles
C. The atom consists of negative charges embedded in a sphere of positive charges
D. Both A and B
19. Who proposed the probability that electron will be found in certain locations around the nucleus of an atom?
A. Ernest Rutherford C. Wilhelm Roentgen
B. Niels Bohr D. John Dalton
20. Which of the following Greek philosophers who taught that matter is made up of “uncuttable” particles called atomos?
A. Aristotle and Archimedes C. Democritus and Leucippus
B. Empedocles and Archimedes D. Leucippus and John Dalton
21. Which of the following are the parts of an atom?
A. Nucleus, element, carbon, space C. Proton, neutron, nucleus, mass
B. Ion, electron, neutron D. Proton, electron, neutron, nucleus
22. Which of the following is true about Big Bang Theory?
I. It was first proposed by Georges Lemaitre
II. Universe began in a small, hot, dense state, rapid expansion
III. The universe was filled with photons having a high temperature and density, some of the photons formed
protons, neutrons and electrons
IV. The universe continued to expand and cool, some of the protons had formed deuterium and helium nuclei
A. I and II C. I, II, and III
B. I and IV D. I, II, III, and IV
23. Which of the following key observation led Hubble to conclude that the universe is expanding?
A. The distribution of the galaxies in the universe C. The redshift of light from distant galaxies
B. The ratio of hydrogen to helium in a galaxy D. The classification of different types of galaxies
24. It prompts millions of flora to spring from the ground, bloom, bear fruit, and decay; and different animal species to
hibernate, spawn, and migrate en masse.
A. Daily motion C. Precession of equinox
B. Annual motion D. none of the above
25. The following are Galileo’s astronomical observations, which supported the Copernican theory except _______.
A. Jupiter’s moon C. Phases of Venus
B. Lunar craters D. Stellar parallax
26. It causes humans to change from waking state to sleeping state and back again every 24 hours.
A. Daily motion C. Precession of equinox
B. Annual motion D. none of the above
27. How many spheres were used by Eudoxus to model the universe?
A. 25 C. 27
B. 26 D. 28
28. According to Aristotle, the celestial realm consisted of ________________.
A. Air C. Fire
B. Ether D. Water
29. Which of the following is an example of astronomical phenomena known to astronomers before the advent of
telescopes?
A. Rising and setting of the sun in the east and the west
B. Phases of the moon
C. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn are easily seen in the sky without the aid of telescopes.
D. All of the above
30. Which of the following is a reason why Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet?
A. It orbits around the sun
B. It has a sufficient mass to attain a nearly spherical shape
C. It has not cleared the neighborhood around its orbit
D. All of the above
31. It determines the presence of an exoplanet by observing periodic decreases in the brightness of a star caused by a
planet passing in front of it.
A. Doppler shifts C. Redshift
B. Transit method D. Blueshit
32. A horizontal line in a velocity-time graph represents ____________.
A. No motion at all C. Uniformly accelerated motion
B. Uniform motion D. Uniformly decelerated motion
33. A horizontal line in a displacement-time graph represents _________.
A. No motion at all C. Uniformly accelerated motion
B. Uniform motion D. Uniformly decelerated motion
34. The slope of the line tangent to a point on a displacement-time graph for a uniformly accelerated motion gives
_______.
A. Acceleration C. Initial velocity
B. Average velocity D. Instantaneous velocity
35. Which of the following shows that the object is not accelerating?
A. The object traveling in a straight line at a constant speed
B. The object traveling at a constant speed but in different direction
C. The object traveling in a straight line with varying speed
D. The object traveling at different speed and direction
36. Which of Newton’s laws best explains why motorists should buckle up?
A. Law of inertia C. Law of acceleration
B. Law of interaction D. Law of universal gravitation
37. Which of the following is correct about Newton’s law of motion?
A. The bigger the mass, the greater the inertia of the body, and the greater the force required to change the body’s
state of motion.
B. The acceleration is directly proportional to the unbalanced force and inversely proportional to the mass of the
body.
C. The action and reaction forces act on two different objects and will not cancel out.
D. All of the above
38. The greater the mass of an object, ______________.
A. The more balanced it is C. The more space it takes up
B. The greater is its inertia D. The easier it is to be moved
39. If the net force acting on a stationary object is zero, then the object will ______________
A. Remain at rest C. Decelerate at a steady rate of speed
B. Begin moving backward D. Accelerate in the direction of the strongest force.
40. It is directly proportional to the masses of two given objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
between them.
A. Inertia C. law of acceleration
B. Gravitational force D. none of these