DPKP
7. Pengangkutan muatan berbahaya
(Carriage of dangerous goods)
1. A Cargo Ship Construction
Certificate has a validity of:
A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
2. IMO recommendations on
allowance for water
absorption in timber deck
cargoes on a General Cargo
Vessel state that:
A. 15% additional weight
should be used in stability
calculation for the arrival
condition.
B. 25% additional weight
should be used in stability
calculation for the arrival
condition.
C. 5% additional weight should
be used in stability
calculation for the arrival
condition.
D. 10% additional weight
should be used in stability
calculation for the arrival
condition.
3. On a General Cargo ship
which of the following
statements is correct?
A. Cold rolled steel coils must
never be loaded in rain
B. Cold rolled steel coils may
be loaded in rain
C. Cold rolled steel coils are
always shipped in stainless
steel envelopes
D. Cold rolled steel coils may
be loaded in rusty condition
4. On General Cargo ships,
cargoes such as logs, fish
meal, scrap metal and bales
of cotton commonly tend to
cause:
A. Oxygen depletion in the
cargo holds.
B. Large instantaneous fires.
C. Heavy amounts of ship's
sweat.
D. Spontaneous combustion.
5. Steel coils when loaded on a
General Cargo ship tend to
be subjected to:
A. Crushing and distortion.
B. Bending.
C. Tearing.
D. Chemical reactions between
the steel banding and outer
envelope.
6. The carriage of bagged
Ammonium Nitrate in cargo
holds of a General Cargo
vessel is associated with:
A. Risk of explosion
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Corrosion of steelwork
D. Build up of carbon dioxide
gas
7. The carriage of logs on
General Cargo vessels tends
to cause:
A. Oxygen depletion in the
cargo holds.
B. Increased levels of oxygen
in the cargo holds.
C. Moisture absorption in the
cargo holds.
D. Spontaneous combustion.
8. When hot rolled steel coils
are loaded on General Cargo
ships, it may be correct to
state that:
A. They must not be exposed to
salt water contamination.
B. They can be loaded in heavy
rain.
C. They must always be
shipped in stainless steel
envelopes.
D. They must always be loaded
wrapped in water-proof
plastic sheet.
9. Which of the following
cargoes can normally be
loaded next to each other in
the same space of a General
Cargo vessel?
A. Drums of cement and steel
pipes
B. Drums of cement and
bagged milk powder
C. Pallets of pesticides and
bagged grain
D. Rolls new carpets and drums
lubricating oils
10. Which of the following
statements is correct with
regard to IMDG Class 4
(flammable solids) cargoes
loaded on a General Cargo
vessel?
A. The goods require protection
against movement and can
only be loaded if a cargo
declaration is supplied by
the shipper
B. The cargo can be stowed
anywhere on the vessel
C. The cargo is not covered by
the requirements of the
IMDG Code
D. The goods can only be
carried in the forward part of
the vessel
11. Which of the following
statements is correct with
respect to IMDG cargo,
loaded on a General cargo
vessel, that is also classed as
a Marine Pollutant
A. Cargo must be loaded in a
protected location and
preferably under deck if
IMDG Code allows
B. Cargo of this type can be
loaded anywhere on board
the vessel
C. This cargo can only be
loaded on deck
D. This cargo can only be
loaded under deck
12. As understood within the
460
 IMDG Code, what is an
"article"?
A. A device that contains a
dangerous substance or
mixture of substances.
B. A form that contains
important information about
a hazardous substance.
C. A device that is responsible
for initiating a dangerous
reaction.
D. Something that is packed
within a freight container.
13. In conjunction with which
two sets of international
regulations should the
IMDG Code be read for
security purposes?
A. Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and
Part A of the ISPS Code.
B. Part B of the ISPS Code and
Chapter II of the Maritime
Transport and Offshore
Facilties Act.
C. Chapter V of SOLAS and
Annex II of MARPOL.
D. IMO NVIC 24 and 46 CFR
2.05
14. In discussing segregation,
the IMDG Code defines
what it means by the term
"separated from". Which of
the following is that
definition?
A. In different compartments or
holds when stowed "under
deck". Provided an
intervening deck is resistent
to fire and liquid, a vertical
separation may be accepted
as equivalent. For "on deck"
stowage, this segregation
means a distance of at least
6 metres.
B. Effectively segregated so
that the incompatible goods
cannot interact dangerously
in the event of an accident,
but may be transported in
the same compartment or
hold or on deck, provided a
horizontal separation,
projected vertically, of 3
metres is obtained. Either in
a vertical or horizontal
separation: if the intervening
decks are not resistant to fire
and liquid, then only in a
longitudinal separation is
acceptable. For "on deck"
stowage, this means a
distance of at least 12
metres. This distance also
applies to one package
stowed "on deck" and
another in an upper
compartment.
C. Either in a vertical or
horizontal separation: if the
intervening decks are not
resistant to fire and liquid,
then only in a longitudinal
separation is acceptable. For
"on deck" stowage, this
means a distance of at least
12 metres. This distance
also applies to one package
stowed "on deck" and
another in an upper
compartment.
D. With an intervening
compartment, being both a
vertical and horizontal
separation. Provided an
intervening deck is resistant
to liquid and fire, a vertical
separation of 6 metres is
acceptable. For "on deck"
stowage, this segregation
means a distance of at least
12 metres irrespective of
compartment divisions.
15. One particular group of
hazardous goods is
highlighted by the IMDG
Code as potentially being
the most dangerous for
carriage. Which of the
following is it?
A. Organic peroxides.
B. Liquefied gases.
C. Infectious substances.
D. Toxic substances.
16. Substances, materials and
articles shall be stowed as
indicated in the Dangerous
Goods List of theDPKP IMDG
Code, in accordance with a
series of stowage categories.
How are those categories
designated?
A. 5 categories, labelled A-E.
B. 10 categories, numbered 1-
10.
C. 10 categories, lattered A-K
(excluding I).
D. Three categories, numbered
I, ii and iii.
17. The Classes drawn up by the
UN Committee of Experts
for the safe handling of
hazardous substances, as
listed in the IMDG Code,
are drawn up on the basis of
which of the following
criteria?
A. The type of hazard they
present.
B. Selective laboratory tests
commissioned by the
Committee.
C. Alphabetical order.
D. Chronological order in
which they have been
assessed.
18. The reporting of incidents
involving harmful
substances and / or marine
pollutants is regulated under
which international
guidelines?
A. Protocol I of MARPOL.
B. Annex II to SOLAS 1974.
C. Appendix B of the
Supplement to the IMDG
Code.
D. The UN Convention on the
Reporting of Accidents and
Incidents which Present a
Hazard to the Marine
Environment 2004.
19. Where should placards be
located on a freight
container?
A. One on each end and one on
each side.
B. One on each end (only).
C. One on each side (only).
461
 D. One of the back end and one
on one of the sides (only).
20. Which of the following is a
definition of the "Proper
Shipping Name", as found in
the IMDG Code?
A. The name to be used in any
documentation relating to
the transportation of the
dangerous substance,
material or article, such as
on forms, labels and
placards.
B. The name assigned by the
manufacturer to a material,
substance or article for the
purposes of shipment.
C. The correct chemical name
of a potentially hazardous
material, as identified from
the Chemical Cargo List.
D. The name under which a
dangerous material,
substance or article is
described for export
purposes in the country of
loading.
21. Which of these definitions is
that of a "Marine Pollutant"
under the IMDG Code? DPKP
A. A substance which is subject
to the provisions of Annex
III of MARPOL.
B. A substance which is subject
to the provisions of Chapter
V of SOLAS 1974, as
amended.
C. Any substance which is
deemed hazardous to the
marine environment
D. A substance which, because
of its tendency to degrade in
seafood, or because of its
hazard potential to the
aquatic environment is
subject to the provisions of
Annex I of MARPOL, as
amended, and carried by sea
accordingly.
22. Which of the following
international regulations is
normally used when
handling dangerous goods?
A. IMDG code
B. SOLAS code
C. HB code
D. KLMNG code
462
8. Pengendalian trim, stabilitas dan tegangan
(Control trim, stability and stress )
23. For a container stowed in a
position equidistant from the
roll and pitch axes of a ship,
what will quarter the
acceleration forces acting on
it?
A. Doubling the roll period
B. Doubling the pitch period
C. Halving the roll period
D. Halving the pitch period
24. How are ship's stability
characteristics affected by
Parametric Rolling?
A. By the constant change of
underwater hull geometry as
waves travel past the ship
B. By the virtual loss of GM
C. By the development of a
negative GM
D. By an increase in the angle
of pitch
25. What does heaving result in?
A. Vertical accelerations acting
along container corner posts
B. Shearing of container
twistlocks
C. Longitudinal accelerations
acting on hatch pontoons
D. Tipping of containers
26. What is the disadvantage of
using High Tensile Steel
(HTS) in ship construction?
A. Enhanced vibration in HTS
areas
B. Failure without warning
C. Low elasticity
D. Diminished cargo carrying
capacity
27. What is the primary cause of
fatigue damage to the hull
girder?
A. The number of repeated
stress cycles
B. Repeated plastic
deformation of the hull
C. Panting stresses
D. Resonant rolling
28. What roll amplitude is
DPKP
generally used by container vessel pitch more
classification societies in than a feeder vessel?
calculating rolling forces? A. Because pitching varies with
A. 24 - 30 degrees ship’s length
B. 37 - 42 degrees B. Because very large container
C. 30 - 36 degrees vessels are more exposed to
D. 18 - 24 degrees open sea conditions
C. Because vessel pitching
29. What would indicate the varies with propeller pitch
onset of Parametric Rolling? D. Because container stacks on
A. When the wave encounter large container vessels are
period approaches the more exposed to wind forces
natural roll period of the 33. A Bulk Vessel is to load a
ship cargo of grain; pre loading
B. When twice the wave calculations show that IMO
encounter period approaches stability criteria cannot be
the natural roll period of the achieved; the vessel should
ship do which of the following?
C. When wave heights A. The grain surfaces in some
experienced from either or all of the cargo spaces
quarter exceed 6 meters must be secured
D. When wave heights B. The cargo can still be loaded
experienced from the bows C. An exemption certificate
exceed 6 meters must be applied for
D. An exemption certificate
30. When do vertical must be applied for
accelerations acting on
containers reach their 34. A loaded bulk carrier
maximum values? experiences heavy ice
A. When a ship changes accretion on deck forward,
direction at its extreme angle what are the major concerns
of pitch of the changes in stability?
B. When a ship is at its extreme A. Reduction of metacentric
angle of pitch and roll height (GM) and loss of
simultaneously freeboard forward
C. When a ship surges B. Excessive trim by the stern
D. During resonant rolling C. Increase in metacentric
height (GM)
31. When does wind force cause D. Reduction of speed and
heeling moments on a additional fuel consumption
container ship?
A. When the on-deck 35. After discharging a high
containers present a certain density cargo a serious crack
profile to the wind direction is found in an upper ballast
B. Whenever wind speeds tank amidships of a Bulk
exceed 60 knots Carrier; what must the
C. Whenever wind speeds Master do?
exceed 70 knots A. Inform Designated Person
D. When on-deck containers Ashore (DPA) and call in
are block-stowed Classification Society
B. Note the dimensions of the
32. Why would a very large crack and measure regularly
469
 C. Proceed on ballast voyage
without ballast in this tank
D. Repair with cement box or
temporary welded patch
until next drydock
36. In a single side skin bulk
carrier of 155m in length
constructed in 2000 and
carrying cargo of density
1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo
hold should be able to
withstand flooding?
A. Any cargo hold
B. The foremost cargo hold
C. The aftermost cargo hold
D. The midships cargo hold
37. In a single side skin bulk
carrier of 180m in length
constructed in 2001 and
carrying cargo of density
1,780 kg/m3, or above,
which cargo hold is
strengthened to withstand
flooding?
A. The foremost cargo hold
B. The aftermost cargo hold
C. The midships cargo hold
D. The ballast hold
38. Large bulk carriers are more
likely to suffer from cracks
in structure in which of the
following parts of the
vessel?
A. Around hatch corners and
upper ballast tanks
amidships
B. In number 1 and number 2
holds
C. In after peak area
D. On bottom plating in the
after part of the vessel
39. On a hold inspection of a
Bulk Carrier it is noted that
a number of transverse
frame beam knees are
slightly distorted; what is the
significance of this?
A. This indicates the vessel is
suffering racking stress and
is potentially serious
B. There are no concerns with
this observation
C. This is an indication of
excessive bending moment
stress
D. The distorted areas should
be painted
40. The vessel is instructed to
load alternate holds when
chartered to carry a high
density cargo. What reasons
could be given by the master
to refuse to do this?
A. IMO do not recommend
alternate loading of cargo
holds with high density
cargoes.
B. The trim of the vessel will
not be satisfactory.
C. Cargo space cleaning after
discharge will be excessive.
D. The summer deadweight
will not be achieve
41. What are the effects of a
bulk vessel loading a high
density cargo resulting in a
large metacentric height
(GM)?
A. Have a fast roll period and
possibly suffer racking
stresses
B. Have a slow roll and large
righting levers
C. Have a slow roll and very
small righting levers
D. Suffer torsional stresses and
have small righting levers
42. What differences in design
are there between a standard
cargo hold and a cargo hold
which can also be used for
ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
A. The ballast hold hatch cover
must be fitted with
additional securing devices
B. There is no differences in
design
C. This hold does not have
ventilators
D. The coamings are much
lower on the ballast hold
43. What must by carefully
DPKP a
checked when loading
bulk carrier to maximum
draft
A. The minimum bow height
must be maintained
B. The vessel is trimmed by the
stern on completion,
C. The vessel is trimmed by the
head on completion
D. The vessel should have a
stern trim of 2.0 metres by
stern.
44. What would a cracked cross-
deck plating found during a
loaded passage on a bulk
carrier indicate?
A. That shear forces have been
exceeded
B. That the vessel is due for
survey
C. That failure of the shell
plating is imminent
D. That bulkhead failure is
imminent
45. Which of the below
structures of bulk carriers
are considered critical?
A. Upper and lower connection
of main side frames
B. Longitudinal deck plating
outside hatches
C. The girders
D. Forecastle deck
46. Which plan shows the
position of the vertical and
longitudinal centres of
gravity for each cargo
compartment of a Bulk
Carrier?
A. Vessel stability book
B. Line drawing
C. Capacity Plan
D. Shell expansion
47. Which plan shows the
position of the vertical and
longitudinal centres of
gravity for each cargo
compartment of a Bulk
Carrier?
A. Vessel stability book
B. Line drawing
469
 C. Capacity Plan
D. Shell expansion
48. A chemical tanker intended
to transport products with
appreciably severe
environmental and safety
hazards which require
significant preventative
measures to preclude escape
of such cargo, usually of
double-hull construction,
with a variety of tank sizes /
capacities is rated as:
A. A type II chemical tanker, as
per the IBC Code.
B. A type I chemical tanker as
per the IBC Code.
C. A parcel chemical tanker as
per the IACS Construction
Regulations.
D. A chemical tanker for the
purposes of the 1996 IMO
directive MEPC/2.12 cir On
Mandatory Reporting
Requirements for Ships
Carrying Dangerous or
Polluting Goods.
49. A cofferdam, a pumproom
or an empty tank, located
between cargo tanks
containing cargoes or cargo
residues which might react
with each other in a
hazardous manner, are all
acceptable methods of
segregation in chemical
tanker stowage according to
the IBC Code. For this
purpose, it may also be
acceptable to have:
A. An intervening cargo tank
containing a mutually
compatible cargo or cargo
residues.
B. A common bulkhead,
provided it is at least 10 mm
thick.
C. A common bulkhead,
provided it overlaps for less
than 15% of the length of
the bulkhead on the larger
tank.
D. A cruciform joint, separating
two tanks diagonally.
50. As per IBC Code, the
information contained in the
loading and stability
information booklet, which
must be supplied to the
master of a chemical tanker,
shall include:
A. Details of typical service
and ballast conditions,
provisions for evaluating
other conditions of loading
and a summary of the ship's
survival capabilities,
together with sufficient
information to enable the
master to load and operate
the ship in a safe and
seaworthy manner.
B. Summary details of light
ship and fully loaded
conditions and of a
representative part-loaded
condition, with examples of
calculations of typical pre-
departure stability
conditions and an example
of a damage stability
calculation to enable the
master to determine survival
capability in the event of an
emergency involving a metres shall apply.
breach of the hull.
C. Certificates confirming the
testing and calibration of
tank gauging equipment, the
ship's stability computer
program and the accuracy of
draft and loadline marks.
D. Details of service and ballast
conditions for loading based
on the range of products
which a vessel is certified to
carry, incorporating the
maximum permissible
DWT, the maximum
permissible SG of any
product, the maximum
permissible trim and any
structural constraints that
will impact a loading
condition.
51. As per the IBC Code, an
independent tank DPKP on a
chemical tanker is defined
as:
A. One which is not contiguous
with, or part of the hull
structure.
B. One which forms part of the
ship's hull and structure and
which is normally essential
to the structural
completeness of the ship's
hull.
C. One which is not subject to
the requirements of the IBC
Code in respect of the
loading and carriage of
hazardous liquid cargoes.
D. One which can be loaded
with hazardous liquid
chemicals that can not be
carried in integral cargo
tanks.
52. Not counting actual capacity
or structural and cargo
specific limitations, the IBC
Code states that for a single
tank on a type 3 chemical
tanker:
A. There is no applicable filling
restriction.
B. A restriction of 1250 cubic
C. A restriction of 3000 cubic
metres shall apply.
D. A restriction of 1750 cubic
metres shall apply.
53. Since 1st January 2007, as
per changes introduced by
amendment to MARPOL
and IBC Code, it has
become mandatory for
vegetable oils to be carried
in:
A. Double hull tankers.
B. Integral cargo tanks only.
C. Tanks fitted with heating
coils or in-line heat
exchangers only.
D. IMO type II chemical
tankers only.
54. The design pressure for a
cargo compartment on a
470
 chemical tanker to meet the
definition and requirements
of a “pressure tank” must be:
A. Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
B. Less than 0.7 bar gauge.
C. At least 1.0 bar gauge.
D. At least 2.1 bar gauge.
55. The maximum quantity of
cargo permitted to be carried
in a single tank on a type 1
chemical tanker as per the
IBC Code is:
A. 1250 cubic metres.
B. 3000 cubic metres.
C. 750 cubic metres.
D. 2400 cubic metres.
56. The maximum quantity of
cargo permitted to be carried
in a single tank on a type 2
chemical tanker as per the
IBC Code is:
The maximum quantity of
cargo permitted to be carried
in a single tank on a type 2
chemical tanker as per the
IBC Code is:
A. 3000 cubic metres
B. 2400 cubic metres
C. 3400 cubic metres
D. 2750 cubic metres
57. The minimum permissible
distance measured
horizontally between the
ship's shell plating and the
outer side bulkhead of the
first cargo compartment on a
type II chemical tanker is:
A. Not less than 760 mm.
B. Not less than moulded
breadth / 15.
C. Not less than moulded
breadth / 5.
D. Not less than 1250 mm.
58. A General Cargo vessel
develops an angle of loll
while loading a heavy item
of deck cargo alongside the
jetty. You should
immediately:
A. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in
tanks, lower weights within
vessel and fill small ballast
tank on low side of vessel.
B. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in
tanks, lower weights within
vessel and fill small ballast
tank on high side of vessel.
C. Stop cargo, increase FSE in
tanks, lower weights within
vessel and fill small ballast
tank on high side of vessel.
D. Stop cargo, increase FSE in
tanks, lower weights within
vessel and empty small
ballast tank on low side of
vessel.
59. A General Cargo vessel is
deemed to be cargo worthy
when:
A. The hatch covers and/or
hatch pontoons are weather
tight.
B. All her certificates are in
order.
C. The vessel's Safety
Construction Certificate is
vali
D. The hatch covers and/or
hatch pontoons are
watertight.
60. A general cargo vessel is
loading to its Summer
Marks. Upon completion of
loading, the final level of the
water would be at:
A. The top of the summer load
line mark.
B. The bottom of the summer
load line mark.
C. The top of the winter mark.
D. The mid point between the
summer and the tropical
mark.
61. A general cargo with a large
metacentric height (GM)
would be expected to have:
A. A fast roll period and large
righting levers (GZ Levers).
B. A fast roll period and small
righting levers (GZ Levers).
C. A long roll period and large
righting levers.
D. A long roll period and small
righting levers (GZ DPKP
Levers).
62. Prior to loading heavy lift
cargoes on a General Cargo
Vessel, it must be ensured
that:
A. There are minimum free
surface moments in tanks.
B. All double-bottom tanks are
empty.
C. The vessel has a small
metacentric height( GM).
D. The vessel is listed to the
side to which the load is to
be lifte
63. The IMO Convention that is
not applicable to a general
cargo vessel when it is
carrying timber deck cargoes
is:
A. The International Tonnage
Convention.
B. SOLAS 74/78.
C. The International
Convention on Load lines.
D. MARPOL 73/78.
64. The value of GZ is no longer
able to be calculated using
GM Sine Angle of Heel
formula at?
A. Larger angles of heel.
B. 5 degrees angle of Heel.
C. Small angles of heel.
D. Ess than 5 degrees angle of
heel to the side of the heavy
loa
65. The value of the GZ lever at
small angles of heel on a
General Cargo Vessel can be
denoted by the formula:
A. KM - KG x Sin angle of
heel.
B. KN - Corrected KG x Sin
angle of heel.
C. KN - KG x Sin angle of list.
D. KM - Corrected KG x Sin
angle of list.
66. When loading heavy lift
cargoes on a general cargo
vessel, positive stability can
be maintained by:
471
 A. Completely filling the ship's
double bottom tanks and
continuously monitoring the
loading operation.
B. Completely filling those
double bottom tanks below
the cargo hold where heavy
cargo is being loade
C. Monitoring the vessel's
stability during the loading
operation and not allowing
the vessel to list on the side
of the loa
D. Listing the vessel to the
opposite side to which the
load is being lifte
67. Which type of material is
normally used in the
construction of a cargo tank
designed for transporting
LPG at atmospheric
pressure?
A. Carbon-Manganese steel.
B. 9% Nickel steel.
C. Stainless steel.
D. Aluminium.
68. An Oil tanker experiences
large bending moments and
therefore the deck scantlings
must be maintained within
"x" length amidships, where
"x" is:
A. 0.4 Length
B. Half Length
C. 0.6 of the Length
D. Quarter of the Length
69. As per MARPOL, the
formula for calculating the
minimum draft amidships
for crude tankers in ballast
condition is:
A. 2.0 + 0.02L
B. 2.0 + 0.002L
C. 2.0 + 0.15.l
D. 2.0 + 0.0015L
70. Every oil tanker of 5,000
tonnes deadweight and
above delivered on or after 1
February 2002 shall comply
with intact stability whereby
it must have a minimum GM
(metacentric height) in port
of:
A. Not less than 0.15 m
B. Not less than 0.015 m
C. Not less than 0.25 m
D. Not less than 0.10 m
71. The disadvantages of large
double bottom tanks on a
double hull oil tanker are:
A. Increased free surface effect
and reduced transverse
metacentric height.
B. Increased longitudinal
bending moments and
transverse metacentric
height.
C. Increased likelihood of the
vessel suddenly developing
severe trim and list.
D. Potential hazards relating to
damage to internal structure
and pipelines.
72. The scantling draft of an oil
tanker fitted with segregated
ballast tanks is:
A. The draught for which the
structural strength of the
ship has been designed
B. The maximum draught
determined by the Loadline
Rules
C. The minimum draught
amidships when in ballast
condition
D. The draught on which the
fundamental design
parameters are based
73. What is the purpose of
girders in the tank?
A. They support the stiffeners
and also take up some of the
sea forces
B. They transfer all the sea
forces acting on the plating
C. They transfer all the cargo
forces acting on the plating
D. They support the stiffeners
74. What are the main elements
in a damage control plan?
A. Boundaries of the watertight
compartments for decks and
holds. Position of DPKPcontrols
for opening and closing of
watertight compartments.
Arrangement for correction
of list due to flooding.
B. Arrangements for correction
of list due to flooding within
15 minutes
C. Instructions and procedures
for reporting damage to the
Company
D. A damage control plan is the
same as an emergency plan
75. What arrangement may be
installed in passenger ships
to reduce unsymmetrical
flooding in damaged
condition?
A. Cross flooding arrangement
B. Ballast trimming system
C. Separate trim tanks
D. Self acting ballast trimming
arrangement
76. What is the full name of the
International Convention
dealing with stability of
passenger ships?
A. The International
Convention for the Safety of
Life at Sea
B. SOLAS
C. International Safety
Management code
D. ISPS
77. What is the result of a large
metacentric height?
A. The ship will roll violently.
B. The ship will have a long
roll perio
C. Bending moment will
increase.
D. The center of gravity will
move upwards.
78. What measures regarding
ship stability should be
taken in order to make
passenger ships able to
withstand critical damage?
A. Maintain sufficient intact
stability
B. Damaged stability to be
472
 increased by use of water
ballast
C. Avoid overloading the ship
D. Damaged stability to be
increased by weight
redistribution.
79. When cross-flooding
arrangements to correct
unsymmetrical flooding and
excessive heel angels in
damaged condition are
installed in passenger ships,
what is the maximum angle
of heel after flooding but
before equalization?
A. 15 degrees
B. 10 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 30 degrees
80. Who is responsible for
maintaining the vessel's
structural strenght?
A. The Master
B. The Shipping Company and
the Classification Society
C. The Flag State
Administration
D. The Shipyard
81. Achieving a good air flow
through the various cargo
compartment of a reefer
vessel is a principal design
aim of a Naval Architect.
Which of the options given
represents the optimum
cargo space shape?
A. A square space as would be
found in a midships lower
deck.
B. A narrow tapered space as
would be found in a forward
lower deck.
C. A flared space that would be
found in a forward upper
deck.
82. A long oblong space as
would be found in an after
upper deck. Conventional
reefer vessels are usually
designed with fine lines and
large flared bows.
Consequently, in adverse
weather conditions,
especially from forward of
the beam, the navigating
officers need to be mainly
aware of which of the given
options?
A. This type of vessel is prone
to large hull deflections
which may result in
structural damage.
B. That the main engine
governor may not be
effective when the vessel
pitches heavily.
C. That the bow is ideal for
keeping the forward decks
dry and clear of water.
D. That the vessel design
means that high speeds can
be maintained and the
perishable cargo can be
delivered in good condition.
83. Earlier cellular reefer vessels
were constructed with a
'porthole system' for
supplying refrigerated air via
ducting to containers.
Modern vessels are designed
to supply only electrical
power to integral containers.
Select the main reason for
this change in design to the
vessels and containers from
the options given.
A. The 'porthole' system design
was extremely complex and
construction costs were
high.
B. Ducted containers had to be
transhipped to their final
destination after discharge
and still required
refrigeration for that part of
the supply chain
C. A large amount of
refrigerant gas was required
to operate the 'porthole'
system.
D. The introduction of more
powerful diesel engines onto
these vessels meant they had
sufficient electrical capacity
to supply the integral type
containers. DPKP
84. Earlier reefer vessels
designed and built for liner
trade usually had two or
three tween decks
approximately 2 to 2.5
metres in height and deep
lower holds approximately 4
to 5 metres deep. Modern
designs usually incorporate
more decks each
approximately 2.3 metres in
height. What is the main
reason for this fundamental
design change?
A. There is an almost universal
use of standard height
pallets.
B. The increased proportion of
chilled as opposed to frozen
cargoes that are carrie
C. The increased number of
container vessels has
reduced the tendency to
carry general cargo
outbound from Europe or
North America to Australia
and New Zealand on reefer
vessels.
D. It is easier to construct
vessels with shallow decks.
85. How is the size of a reefer
vessel normally referenced?
A. By the cubic foot capacity.
B. By the pallet capacity.
C. By the grain capacity.
D. By the Suez Canal tonnage.
86. In some reefer trades
cargoes of chilled horse
meat carcasses are stowed
hanging from deckhead rails
in refrigerated locker spaces.
What position should the
centre of gravity be assumed
to be at when carrying out
the stability calculations for
a vessel with such a stow?
A. At the deckhead of the
lockers.
B. At the mid-height of the
hanging carcasses.
C. At the point indicated for the
473
 lockers in the approved
stability handbook.
D. At the point indicated for the
lockers in the approved
stability handbook with an
arbitrary adjustment to take
account of the centre of
mass of the hanging
carcasses.
87. Select from the options
given the one which best
completes the following
statement. "Reefer vessels,
loaded with a homogenous
cargo, usually operate with a
small GM due to the fact
that…
A. …they are designed with
fine lines and the biggest
cargo spaces are at the top of
the holds."
B. …they are designed with
small fuel tanks."
C. …they are designed that
way to produce a gentle
rolling motion."
D. …they usually have large
deck cranes."
88. Two conventional reefer
vessels are being considered
for a charter that involves
the transhipment at sea, or at
anchor, of a cargo of frozen
squid, as weather permits.
Both vessels have 4 holds,
vessel A has high speed, 10
tonne deck cranes and vessel
B has 5 tonne, union
purchase derricks. Which of
the vessels, if any, would be
best suited to this type of
operation?
A. Vessel B would be more
suitable as the derricks will
give more control of the
operation at sea or at anchor.
B. Vessel A would be more
suitable as the high speed
cranes would allow the
operation to be completed
more quickly.
C. Neither vessel would be
suitable as none of the cargo
handling equipment fitted
could be used at sea or at
anchor.
D. Vessel A would be more
suitable as the greater lift
capacity of the cranes would
allow bigger pallets to be
transhippe
89. If properly secured what
benefits do high sided car
carriers have over other ship
types regarding
seaworthiness?
A. They can roll to very large
angles without taking in
water
B. They are not easily damaged
in heavy weather
C. Their large reserve
buoyancy prevents capsizing
D. They can pitch to very large
angles without taking in
water viathe ramp doors
90. On a roro vessel, in addition
to longitudinal, transverse
and vertical accelerations
what else must be taken into
account when calculating the
external forces acting on a
cargo unit?
A. Longitudinal and transverse
forces by wind pressure
B. Longitudinal and vertical
forces by wind pressure
C. Vertical and transverse
forces by wind pressure
D. Longitudinal forces by sea
sloshing
91. What special design feature
is attributed to roro vessels
which are only car carriers?
A. A very large windage area
B. A stern ramp
C. Solid ballast
D. A small GM when fully
loaded
92. When will a ro-ro vessel
pitch heavily?
A. When wave lengths are
equal to the ship's length
B. When wave lengths are
DPKP
equal to twice the ship's
length
C. When wave lengths are
equal to half the ship's
length
D. In confused seas
93. Why are pure roro car
carriers considered as being
high risk design vessels
where their stability is
concerne
A. Because they can easily
capsize if there is ingress of
water or ballast operations
are not handled correctly
B. Because they have few
internal bulkheads
C. Because they have few
internal bulkheads
D. Because of the relatively
small clearance between
waterline and stern ramp sill
when fully loaded
94. Why is it important in a roro
vessel to ensure that cargo is
loaded in a uniform way
A. To prevent high sheer forces
and bending moments on the
vessel during the loading /
discharge operations
B. Because it looks better and
image is important
C. Because it looks better and
image is important
D. Because it makes it harder to
lash the cargo correctly if
you don't
95. What is the result of a "high
metacentric height"?
A. The vessel will roll
violently?
B. The vessel will have a great
bending moment?
C. The vessel will roll slowly
or be unstable?
D. The vessel's tweendeck
heights is too high?
96. What is usually the effect on
G when the ship is
damaged?
A. It is unchanged
474
 B. It first rises then lowers calculated with accuracy DPKPto be
level detectors required
C. It lowers better than 5 percent. fitted on bulk carriers?
D. It rises D. In waters with the danger of A. At the after end of each
icing, loading of deck cargo cargo hold
97. What type of dynamic forces must be approved by B. At the forward end of each
may cause indent in plating competent authority. cargo hold
on forecastle deck and main C. In cargo hold bilges
deck in way of pillars inside 100. Who is responsible for D. At the port and starboard
forecastle? maintaining the vessel's midship sections of each
A. Pressure forces caused by structural strength? cargo hold
green water on deck A. The master.
B. Slamming in way of flat B. The management company. 104. Which of the following
bottom forward of light C. The classification society. describes the term couple?
draught D. The flag state A. Two equal forces acting on a
C. Impact pressure forces in administration. body in opposite directions
way of abrupt or flared bow along the centerline of the
D. Forces created by waves on 101. A bulk vessel loads a full Vessel
the forecastle cargo to summer marks of a B. A point through which all of
high density bulk cargo such the upward forces affecting
98. Which of the following as iron ore concentrate; what a vessel are considered to
requirements regarding on would be the possible act.
board stability data stability conditions C. Two equal forces acting on a
corresponds to present produced? body in opposite directions
regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1) A. The vessel will normally and along parallel lines.
A. A calculation example have a large intact D. None of the above.
showing the use of "KG" metacentric height (GM) and
limitation curves. have a fast roll period 105. The side to side, bodily
B. Drawings and caculations B. The vessel will normally motion of a vessel is known
documenting the stability of have a small intact as .
the ship, both in intact and metacentric height (GM) and A. Yawing
all possible damage have a slow roll period B. Pitching
condition. C. The vessel will be tender C. Heaving
C. A calculation example and have a poor curve of D. Swaying
showing use of "GM" righting levers.
limitation curves. D. The vessel may have a list 106. Which motion of the vessel
D. Stability data produced by does a ship’s officer most
stability calculation 102. What specific data must be easily control through
instruments. displayed on the loading transverse stability stowage?
instruments carried on bulk A. Swaying
99. Which of the following carriers of 150m or more in B. Rolling
requirements to ships length? C. Yawing
stability for normal A. The shear forces exerted on D. Pitching
operation corresponds to the hull structure associated
present regulations? (NSCL with the entered loaded 107. In the diagram on the right,
4/12.2) weight distribution which of the following
A. The ship is loaded in such a B. The segregation represents the righting arm?
manner that adequate requirements of the cargoes A. GM
stability is achieved in all carrie B. GZ
loading condition. C. The ultimate strength of C. BM
B. Unless otherwise stated in main deck plating D. ZM
the approved stability D. The permeability of the
calculation, the total weight cargo carried in the cargo 108. In the diagram onthe right,
of the deck cargo shall not holds the distance between the
exceed 50 metric tons. points B and M is known as:
C. Centre of gravity shall be 103. Where are cargo hold water A. Metacentric Height

475
 B. Metacentric Radius
C. Height of the Metacenter
D. Buoyancentric Metadistance
109. Which of the following is
true of a vessel in a neutral
stability condition?
A. G is below M
B. G is abovem
C. G is at the same height as B
D. G is at the same height as M
110. An inclination of a vessel
due to negative stability is
known as . transverse centerline.
A. Angle of Heal
B. Angle of Loll
C. Angle of List
D. Angle of Doom
111. The geometric center of the
underwater volume of a
floating vessel is the center
of
A. Hydrodynamics
B. Flotation
C. Gravity
D. Buoyancy
112. The ratio of the volume of
displacement to a block
having length, breadth and
draft of the vessel Is known
as the vessel’s . A. It occurs when the natural
A. Area of the water plane
B. Block coefficient
C. Water plane coefficient
D. Volume ratio
113. Morrish’s Formula is used to
determine . perio
A. Metacentric Height
B. Height of the Center of
Buoyancy
C. Height of the Center of
Gravity
D. Metacentric Radius
114. Which of the following best
describes the moment of
inertia about the longitudinal
axis?
A. The measure of a ship’s
resistance to heaving.
B. The measure of a ship’s
resistance to rolling.
C. The value of the metacentric
radius divided by the
displacement.
D. The ratio of the area of the
water plane to the product of
the length and breadth of the
Vessel.
115. At large angles of
inclination, the transverse
metacenter will . .
A. Remain fixed on the
B. Move below the center of
buoyancy.
C. Move off of the transverse
centerline.
D. Move down while staying
on the transverse centerline.
116. On the attached hydrostatic
curves, what is the value of
KM when the draft is 18
feet?
A. 9.5 feet
B. 19.5 feet
C. 31.2 feet
D. 26.1 feet
117. Which of the following is
true of synchronous rolling?
rolling of the vessel is the
same as the ocean wave
perio
B. It occurs when the natural
rolling period of the vessel
differs from the ocean wave
C. It occurs when the vessel is
rolling in calm waters.
D. It occurs when two vessels
have the same natural rolling
perio
118. The point at which all
vertically downward forces
of weight are considered to
be concentrated is the .
A. Metacenter
B. Center of gravity
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Righting arm
DPKP
119. When a cargo with a KG
above the KG of the vessel
is discharged, the vessel’s
center of gravity will .
A. Move downward
B. Move upward
C. Remain in its original
location
D. Move toward the center of
gravity of the cargo.
120. One long ton is equivalent to
A. 2000 pounds
B. 1000 kilograms
C. 2 short tons
D. 2240 pounds
121. A vessel with a GM of 4 feet
is inclined to 10 degrees.
What is the value of the
righting arm?
A. 2.3 feet
B. 0.7 feet
C. 1.4 feet
D. 10.6 feet
122. If a vessel is inclined due to
an external force, assuming
that weight on the vessel
remain fixed, you would
expect .
A. G and B to both move
B. G to move and B to remain
fixe
C. G and B to remain fixe
D. G to remain fixed and B to
move.
123. Which of the following
would represent the height
of the center of gravity on a
vssel?
A. KM + GM
B. KB + BM –KG
C. KM –GM
D. KB + GM
124. The metacentric height of a
vessel is the distance from:
A. The keel to the metacenter
B. The enter of buoyancy to the
metacenter
C. The center of gravity to the
metacenter
476
 D. The center of gravity to the DPKP
center of buoyancy

125. What measures the stability

of a vessel at all angles of
inclination?
A. KG
B. The righting moment
C. GM
D. BM

126. The number of long tons

necessary to change the
mean draft of a vessel 1 inch
is known as the
A. Moment to trim 1 inch
B. Tons per inch immersion
C. Area of the water plane
D. Block coefficient

127. If a load is suspended from

the hook of a crane. What
effect does that have on a
vessel’s stability?
A. The weight acts upon the
vessel at it’s actual height
above the keel.
B. The weight acts upon the
vessel from the position of
the base of the crane on the
vessel’s Deck.
C. The weight acts upon the
vessel from the head of the
crane
D. The weight acts upon the
vessel from the spot on the
deck directly below the
suspended Weight

128. Which of the following is a

characteristic of a “stiff
ship?”
A. A small GM
B. A long rolling period
C. Neutral stability
D. A large GM

477
 9. Memantau dan mengawasi pelaksanaan persyaratan ketentuan yang berlaku, dan langkah-langkah DPKP
yang diambil untuk menjamin keselamatan jiwa di laut, keamanan dan perlindungan lingkungan laut.
(Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at
sea, security and the protection of the marine environment)

129. Cargo Ship Equipment convention applicable? MARPOL and annex 1

Certificate will be issued A. For all listed vessels. regulations for the
for: B. For tankers and other vessels prevention of pollution by
A. 5 years with control every carrying persistent oil as chemicals.
12 months cargo.
B. 2 years with control every 6 C. For all vessels except 138. If pollution takes place, what
months passenger vessels. would you do immediately?
C. 3 years D. For all vessels except those A. Report to relevant
D. 4 years engaged in coastal trade. authorities.
B. Inform the manager.
130. Are there any exceptions 135. For which ships is the C. Start clean-up operations.
from OPA-90 SOLAS convention D. Inform the vessel's agent.
A. Yes, transit passage through applicable?
US waters to a non US port A. For all vessels.
B. Yes, if the vessel calls a US B. For all vessels except 139. In case of pollution in US
port for only a short stop passenger vessels. waters, do you always have
C. No exceptions C. For passenger vessels only. to notify the National
D. Yes, close to any US naval D. For tankers and other vessels Response Center (OPA-90)
base carrying persistent oil as A. Yes, within thirty (30)
cargo. minutes
131. For a ship operating or B. Yes, within three (3) days
calling in US waters, COTP 136. How frequent should reports C. No, not if the local US State
can request (OPA-90) from protection and Authority is correctly
A. Unannounced drills at any environmental work be send notified
time to shore based management? D. No, only the shipowner can
B. Participation in all A. Annually. notify NRC
announced drills B. Biannually.
C. Maximum one drill a year C. Every three years. 140. In relation ot OPA 90,
D. Maximum two drills a year D. Not mandatory to send Which of the following
reports. statement is correct?
132. For how long is the health A. COTP-zones may have
certificate valid for a 137. How many annexes do we additional rules and
seafarer above the age of find in MARPOL and what regulations
18? is the content of annex 1? B. OPA-90 specify rules and
A. One year. A. We find 6 annexes in regulations for all COTP-
B. Two years. MARPOL and annex 1 is the zones
C. No time limit. regulations for the C. After implementation of
D. Three months. prevention of pollution by OPA-90 there are no area
oil specific rules and
133. For what period of time is B. We find 5 annexes in Regulations
the protection and MARPOL and annex 1 is the D. OPA-90 specify all oil cargo
environment committee regulations for the related rules and regulations
elected? prevention of pollution by
A. 1 - 2 years. sewage 141. In US waters "Oil Pollution
B. 3 - 4 years. C. We find 4 annexes in Act of 1990" was activated
C. 5 - 6 years. MARPOL and annex 1 in August 1993. What is the
D. 8 years. regulations for the main issue for the
prevention of pollution by introduction of the act?
134. For which of the following garbage A. To prevent oil spills in US
ships, is the MARPOL D. We find 1 annexes in waters?

496
 B. To enforce owners to use
equipment of higher
standards that those of
today?
C. To encourage owners to
build double hull vessels for
trading US waters?
D. To improve safety measures
onboard?
142. MARPOL - Annex IV.
Prevention of Pollution by
Sewage from ships. What do
you understand by the word
"Sewage"?
A. Drainage/waste from
toilets/urinals.
B. Mixture of sea water/oil.
C. Waste from galley.
D. Waste from synthetic
materials.
143. New MARPOL regulations
came into effect from July
93 stating that the oily water
separator which was
previously certified for 100
ppm be changed to:
A. 15 ppm
B. 50 ppm
C. 25 ppm
D. 10 ppm
144. OPA-90 is referring to a
Qualified Individual (QI)
A. QI is an authorised
individual, situated in the
US, and contracted by the
owner or operator of the
vessel
B. QI is the owner’s
contingency leader
C. QI is representing the USCG
D. An individual certified by
USCG to handle oil spills
145. What are the functions of a
flag state administration?
A. They have responsibility for
setting, monitoring and
enforcing standards of safety
and pollution prevention on
vessels flying the countries
flag
B. They have responsibility for
ensuring that ships are STCW stand for? DPKP
properly registered A. The International
C. The have responsibility for Convention on Standards of
ensuring that ships are Training, Certification and
correctly manned and that Watchkeeping of Seafarers
crews' terms and conditions B. Seafarer's Training and
of employment are met Competence of
satisfactorily Watchkeepers
D. The maintain a record of all C. The International
ship and their crews, and Convention of Ship's
produce statistics involving Trading, Chartering and
ships from their country. Waybills
D. The International
146. What can lead to "Unlimited Shipowners, Transport and
responsibility" (OPA-90) Cargo Work Convention
A. Wilful misconduct, gross
negligence and violation of 150. What does the term OIL
Federal Safety mean, as used in the Oil
B. Only gross negligence Pollution Regulations?
C. Only wilful misconduct A. All of the mentioned
D. Wilful misconduct and gross B. Fuel oil
negligence C. Sludge
D. Oil refuse
147. What does STCW deal
with? 151. What IMO conventions take
A. STCW deals with minimum care of the human safety at
recommendation of sea?
education for seafarers and A. It is the SOLAS conventions
minimum standards for that take care of the human
training centre and schools safety at sea
B. STCW deals with minimum B. It is the MARPOL
recommendation for training conventions that take care of
centre and schools the human safety at sea
C. STCW deals with C. It is the STCW 78/95 that
recommendation for training take care of the human
centre and schools and type safety at sea
of education for seafarers D. There isn’t any conventions
D. STCW deals with training that take care of the human
centre and schools and safety at sea
standards for watch keepers
152. What is a "passenger"
148. What does the abbreviation according to SOLAS
SOLAS mean? regulations?
A. International Convention for A. Every person other than the
the Safety of Lives at Sea Captain and the members of
B. International Agreement for the crew or other persons
Security of Load and Ships employed or engaged
C. International Conference for onboard the ship in the
Security of Loads aboard business of that ship.
Ships B. Everyone who travels with a
D. International Rules for Safe passenger ship
Ocean Lines and C. Any person holding a ticket
Sailingroutes and travelling with a
passenger ship
149. What does the abbreviation D. Any person paying their
496
 voyage regardless of ship
type
153. What is full form of VRP
(OPA-90)
A. Vessel Response Plan
B. Vessel Report Plan
C. Vessel Response
Procurement
D. Vessel Reporting Procedures
154. What is SOPEP?
A. A Shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan
B. A Ship-Owners Permitted
Entry Plan
C. A Shipboard Oil Pollution
Exemption Procedure
D. A Seafarer's Offical Pension
and Employment Payment
scheme
155. What is the alcohol content
in the blood permissible
under US legislation before
it is defined as intoxication?
A. 0,04 %
B. 0,07 %
C. 0,01 %
D. 0,1 %
156. What is the maximum oil
content in the sludge/ bilge
water allowed to be pumped
over board during a voyage?
A. 30 litres per nautical mile
B. 20 litres per nautical mile.
C. 40 litres per nautical mile.
D. 60 litres per nautical mile.
157. What is the status of the
rules of the SOLAS
convention?
A. Mandatory.
B. Supplementary to
classification rules.
C. Should be consulted when
the vessel is in distress.
D. Must be regarded as
guidelines.
158. What is the top priority if an
incident occurs in US waters
(OPA-90)
A. Safety of ship and crew
B. Protection of the
environment
C. Prevention of oil pollution
D. Any immediate action to
prevent loss of time
159. What must be done if the Oil
Discharge Monitoring
Equipment (ODME) should
fail during a ballast voyage?
A. All of the mentioned must
be performed
B. The failure must be noted in
the Oil Record Book
C. The failure must be repaired
D. If the failure cannot be
repaired onboard, the
ODME must be repaired
before the ship commences
its next voyage
160. What rules and regulations
are regulating the watch
keeping routines in the
engine room?
A. Both STCW and Class rules
B. International Standard for
Training and Watch keeping
(STCW)
C. Class Rules
D. SOLAS
161. What would happen if, when
a ship is under-going a Port
State Inspection, certificates
were invalid or missing
A. Rectification would be
required before sailing
B. The ship would be allowed
to sail to the next port and
rectification would take
place then
C. The ship would be detained
indefinitely
D. The deficiencies would be
recorded in the ship's
register and the ship allowed
to sail
162. When a vessel violates the
oil pollution laws, who may
be held responsible?
A. Any one involved in the
operation
B. Captain only
C. Shipowners only DPKP
D. Officers only
163. Where is OPA-90
applicable?
A. Within 200 nm of US
waters including Guam,
Hawaii, Alaska and San
Juan
B. Within US waters
C. 200 nm off US coast
D. 200 nm off coast of
California
164. Where is the Safety
Certificates for ships to be
kept?
A. In the Captain's office
B. In the Owner's office
C. In the Captain's safe
D. Posted up in a prominent
place onboard the ship
165. Where should the placard
you are shown be located,
according to U.S. Coast
Guard regulations ? (Title
33-Navigation and
Navigable waters, § 155.440
)
A. Both in a conspicuous place
in each machinery space and
in a conspicuous place at the
bilge and ballast pump
control station
B. In the wheelhouse
C. In a conspicuous place in
each machinery space
D. In a conspicuous place at the
bilge and ballast pump
control station
166. Which IMO convention
takes care of the human
safety at sea ?
A. The SOLAS convention
B. The MARPOL convention
C. The STCW 78/95
D. There isn't any conventions
that take care of the human
safety at sea
167. Which international
convention deals with fire-
fighting equipment etc.
497
 A. SOLAS publications onboard? on a Bulk Carrier,DPKP
what is
B. MARPOL A. The master. the most careful
C. Load Line convention B. The radio officer. consideration?
D. CRISTAL C. The owner. A. Consult MARPOL
D. The authorities. handbook and the vessels
168. Which international Safety Management System
convention deals with 173. Who is responsible for the (SMS) for guidance
pollution prevention? vessel's radio station and B. There are no restrictions on
A. MARPOL. mandatory radio routines? discharge of cargo residues
B. SOLAS. A. The master. to sea
C. STCW. B. The owners. C. Follow actions of previous
D. ISGOTT. C. The radio officer. crews
D. Statutory authorities. D. Check procedures and
169. Which international Arrangements manual
organization is preparing 174. Who is responsible that
conventions and rules for regulatory working hours are 178. "Noxious Liquid Substances
seafaring nations? not exceeded? which, if discharged into the
A. International Maritime A. The master and department sea from tank cleaning or
Organization (IMO) heads. deballasting operations , are
B. International Labor B. The individual person. deemed to present a hazard
Organization (ILO) C. The bosun and the second to either marine resources or
C. International Marine engineer. human health or cause harm
Association (IMA) D. The safety officer. to amenities or other
D. International Ocean Safety legitimate uses of the sea
Organization (IOSO) 175. Your vessel has been and therefore justify a
involved in a collision, limitation on the quality and
170. Which organization or which has resulted in a quantity of the discharge
administration is responsible heavy oil leakage. Who into the marine
for surveys and inspections should be called to handle environment". Such
of ships, and the issue of pollution claims and substances are:
Safety Certificates? damages? A. A category "Y" substance as
A. Government Authorities of A. The P & I Club's nearest identified in MARPOL
the Flag State representative. Annex II.
B. International Maritime B. The Leading Hull B. A category "X" substance as
Organization (IMO) Underwriter's nearest identified in MARPOL
C. International Labor Average Agent. Annex II.
Organization (ILO) C. The Classification Society's C. An NLS as defined in
D. Ships Classification representative. ISGOTT, revision V.
Associations (Lloyd's, D. Flag state representative. D. A liquid cargo that is
American Bureau of prohibited for carriage in
Shipping, The Norwegian 176. What governs the disposal vessels other than type 1
Veritas, Germanische of dry bulk cargo residues at chemical tanker, as defined
Lloyd's, etc.) sea? in the IBC Code.
A. MARPOL regulations
171. Who are responsible for safe B. SOLAS 74/88 regulations 179. A tank which contained a
working conditions C. Convention on the category "X" product must
onboard? Prevention of Marine undergo a prewash before
A. Master, Chief Engineer & Pollution by Dumping of leaving port in compliance
Chief Officer. Wastes and Other Matter with MARPOL. The
B. The individual person. D. The Code of Safe Practice resulting residues shall be
C. The safety officer. for Solid Bulk Cargoes discharged to a reception
D. The officer of the watch. facility until the
177. When considering how to concentration of the
172. Who is responsible for deal with cargo residues substance in the effluent, as
keeping the required official during hatch cleaning at sea indicated by analysis of

498
 samples of the effluent taken
by the authorized surveyor
has reached a level of:
A. 0.1% by weight.
B. 0.1% by volume.
C. 0.2% by weight.
D. 0.3% by volume.
180. As per MARPOL 73/78,
coal slurry, clay slurry,
dextrose solution and
molasses are classified as:
A. "OS" (Other substances)"
B. Category Y
C. Category Z
D. Category X
181. MARPOL 73/78 defines
‘solidifying substances’ as:
A. A noxious liquid substance
which, in the case of a
substance with a melting
point of less than 15°C
which is at a temperature of
less than 5°C above its
melting point at the time of
unloading, or in the case of a
substance with a melting
point equal to or greater than
15°C which is at a
temperature of less than
10°C above its melting point
at the time of unloading.
B. A noxious liquid substance
which, in the case of a
substance with a melting
point of less than 20°C
which is at a temperature of
less than 10°C above its
melting point at the time of
unloading, or in the case of a
substance with a melting
point equal to or greater than
20°C, is at a temperature of
less than 15°C above its
melting point at the time of
unloading.
C. A noxious liquid which will
crystallise and eventually
bond into solid form at
ambient, or less than
ambient temperatures unless
an external heat source is
applied.
D. A noxious liquid substance
which will crystallise and
eventually bond into solid
form if exposed to an
external heat source.
182. MARPOL 73/78 defines a
‘high viscosity substance’
as:
A. A noxious liquid substance
in category "X" or "Y" with
a viscosity equal to or
greater than 50 mpa.s at the
unloading temperature.
B. A noxious liquid substance
in category "Y" with a
viscosity equal to or greater
than 100 mpa.s at 37.8
degrees Celsius.
C. A noxious liquid substance
of any category with a pour
point of greater than 37.8
degrees Celsius.
D. Any noxious liquid
substance, the residues of
which cannot be stripped
from a cargo compartment
and its associated piping and
pumping system to equal to
or less than 75 litres.
183. As per MARPOL, for
control of discharge of
Noxious Liquid Substances,
the area(s) designated as
“Special Areas” are:
A. The Antarctic.
B. The Mediterranean Sea,
Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red
Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf of
Aden, Oman Area of the
Arabian Sea, Southern South
African Waters, Antarctic
and North-West European
Waters.
C. The Baltic Sea, the Black
Sea and Antarctic.
D. The Wider Caribbean
Region including the Gulf of
Mexico and the Caribbean
Sea, Southern South African
Waters and North-West
European Waters.
184. Ballast introduced into a
cargo tank on a chemical
tanker which has DPKPbeen
washed to such an extent
that the ballast contains less
than 1 ppm of the substance
previously carried may be
discharged into the sea
without regard to the
discharge rate, ship's speed
and discharge outlet
location, but under certain
conditions, which require:
A. That the vessel is not less
than 12 miles from the
nearest land and is in water
that is not less than 25
metres deep.
B. That the vessel is not less
than 50 miles from the
nearest land and is
proceeding on route.
C. That the discharge is passed
through the Oil Discharge
Monitoring Equipment and a
visual watch is maintained
on the vessel's wake.
D. Provided the ship is
underway and a sample of
the ballast water has been
drawn from the tank and is
stored on board, there are no
additional conditions to be
imposed on such a
discharge.
185. In respect of a chemical
tanker, carrying category
“X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious
Liquid Substances, the term
“Clean Ballast” as defined in
the IBC Code means:
A. Ballast water carried in a
tank which, since it was last
used to carry a cargo
containing a substance in
category "X","Y" or "Z", has
been thoroughly cleaned and
the residues resulting there
from have been discharged
and the tank emptied in
accordance with the
appropriate requirements of
Annex II.
B. Ballast water introduced into
a tank permanently allocated
to the carriage of ballast or
499
 cargoes other than oil or
Noxious Liquid Substances
as variously defined in the
Annexes of the MARPOL
Convention and which is
completely separate from the
cargo and oil fuel systems.
C. Ballast water carried in a
tank which has been
previously washed in
accordance with the
requirements of the
Procedures and
Arrangements Manual.
D. Ballast water that is free of
all cargo residues and slops.
186. In the event of an accidental
or other exceptional
discharge into the sea of a
Noxious Liquid Substance
or mixture containing such a
substance, an entry shall be
made in the Cargo record
Book, which shall include:
A. Time of occurrence
Approximate quantity,
substance(s) and
Category(ies) Circumstances
of discharge or escape and
general remarks.
B. Date of occurrence Position
(latitude and longitude)
Estimated quantity and
category(ies) Extract from
Master's Log Book detailing
the incident.
C. Position at start and stop of
accidental discharge Time at
start and stop of accidental
discharge Reason for
accidental discharge
D. Name of Person in Charge
of operation at time of
accidental discharge. Date
and Time of occurrence
Name of Responsible
Person, and Master of the
vessel Statement of
Responsible Person, and
Master of the vessel
Approximate quantity and
category of product
discharged Identity of
nearest sovereign State and
Authority of that State
contacted with applicable
report reference.
187. Vegetable Oils as per
MARPOL are classified
under:
A. Category "Y".
B. Category "Z".
C. Category "OS" - other
substances.
D. Category "A".
188. The reporting of incidents
involving harmful
substances and / or marine
pollutants is regulated under
which international
guidelines?
E. Protocol I of MARPOL.
F. Annex II to SOLAS 1974.
G. Appendix B of the
Supplement to the IMDG
Code.
H. The UN Convention on the
Reporting of Accidents and
Incidents which Present a
Hazard to the Marine
Environment 2004.
189. When small amounts of
cleaning additives (detergent
products) are added to water
in order to facilitate the
washing of tanks which
previously contained liquid
chemicals, must be ensured
that:
A. No additives containing
Pollution Category "X"
components shall be used,
except those components
that are readily
biodegradable and present in
a total concentration of less
than 10% of the cleaning
additive. No restrictions
additional to those
applicable to the tank due to
the previous cargo shall
apply.
B. The discharge shall be
governed by the provisions
of Annex I or II, which
would apply to the additive
had it been carried DPKP
as cargo.
Tank washing procedures
involving the use of such
additives shall be set out in
the Procedures and
Arrangements Manual and
approved by the vessel's
Flag State Administration.
C. No conditions apply
provided not more than 200
litres per 1000 cubic metres
of tank volume is used in
any one washing operation.
D. If the additive contains
Pollution category "X"
products and more than 200
litres is used in the washing
operation for a single cargo
tank, then a prewash to
shore must be carried out.
190. Since 1st January 2007, as
per changes introduced by
amendment to MARPOL
and IBC Code, it has
become mandatory for
vegetable oils to be carried
in:
E. Double hull tankers.
F. Integral cargo tanks only.
G. Tanks fitted with heating
coils or in-line heat
exchangers only.
H. IMO type II chemical
tankers only.
191. Which of these definitions is
that of a "Marine Pollutant"
under the IMDG Code?
E. A substance which is subject
to the provisions of Annex
III of MARPOL.
F. A substance which is subject
to the provisions of Chapter
V of SOLAS 1974, as
amended.
G. Any substance which is
deemed hazardous to the
marine environment.
H. A substance which, because
of its tendency to degrade in
seafood, or because of its
hazard potential to the
aquatic environment is
subject to the provisions of
500
 Annex I of MARPOL, as
amended, and carried by sea
accordingly.
192. Does MARPOL apply to
LNG carriers?
A. Yes, MARPOL applies to all
ship types..
B. No, MARPOL only applies
to oil tankers.
C. Yes, but only annex IV.
D. Yes, but only annex V.
193. Does the Oil Pollution Act,
1990 (OPA90) apply to
vessels engaged in carrying
liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
A. Yes, OPA90 applies to all
ships.
B. No, OPA90 applies only to
oil tankers.
C. Only if the vessel is carrying
HC-products.
D. OPA90 only applies to non-
American flag vessels
194. An oil tanker with a
defective Oil Discharge
Monitoring Equipment may
be allowed by a Port State
Authority to trade for:
A. One ballast voyage before
proceeding to a repair port.
B. One ballast and one loaded
voyage, provided no
cleaning operations are
carried out.
C. An indefinite period as long
as the owners can
demonstrate they have
ordered the spare parts for
repairs.
D. One year, provided that the
vessel is scheduled for a dry-
dock during the next 12
months.
195. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning
machine with a rotational
speed of 1 rpm and a
selected pitch angle of 1.5
degrees is used to perform a
bottom wash with a vertical
angle from 40 degrees to 0
degrees for 1.5 cycles (3
passes). If the throughput of
the machine at design
pressure is 90 m3/hr, what
will be the washing time and
quantity of crude oil
required?
A. 40 minutes and 60 cubic
metres of oil.
B. 30 minutes and 45 cubic
metres of oil.
C. 48 minutes and 70 cubic
metres of oil.
D. 36 minutes and 48 cubic
metres of oil.
196. As per OPA 90
requirements, a vessel over
400 feet (121.9 metres) in
length must carry oil spill
clean-up gear to be able to
handle oil spillages of:
A. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic
metres).
B. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic
metres).
C. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
D. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
197. The calibration of the
ODME is carried with the
use of:
A. Fresh water.
B. The product being carried on
that voyage.
C. Approved bio-degradable
light oil
D. Sea water
198. After the last entry being
made, the retention period of
an oil record book on board
must be:
A. Not less than 3 years after
the date of the last entry.
B. Not less than 5 years after
the date of the last entry.
C. Exactly 3 years from the
date of the first entry.
D. Until the next port where it
may be handed over to the
Port State Authority.
199. As per MARPOL, Oil
Record Book Part II,
Cargo/Ballast DPKP
Operations,
must be carried and
completed on oil tankers of:
A. 150 gross tonnes and above.
B. 400 gross tonnes and above.
C. Any size, as long as they are
classified as tankers.
D. 50 gross tonnes and above.
200. As per MARPOL, the
contents of lines and pumps
on an oil tanker at
completion of discharge
must be:
A. Drained and then pumped
either ashore, or to a cargo
tank or slop tank on board.
B. Cleared to shore by the use
of compressed air.
C. Drained directly (and only)
to shore.
D. Discharged ashore or
retained on board as per the
pre-discharge agreement
made between the ship and
shore.
201. As per requirements of the
International Convention for
the Control and
Management of Ship's
Ballast Water and
Sediments, oil tankers must
have a plan on board to
achieve:
A. 95% volumetric exchange of
the ballast taken on-board at
the previous port.
B. 100% volumetric exchange
of the ballast taken on-board
at the previous port.
C. 25% volumetric exchange of
the ballast taken on-board at
the previous port.
D. 80% volumetric exchange of
the ballast taken on-board at
the previous port.
202. One purpose of the US Oil
Pollution Act of 1990 is to
………….
A. To restrict the trade of
foreign nations.
B. Limit the access of tankers
to US waters
501
 C. Create an international
pollution regime.
D. Enhance the preparedness of
shipboard and shore based
personnel in the event of a
pollution incident.
203. All tank vessels under OPA
90 are required to carry on
board spill recovery
equipment of sufficient
capacity to ……………
A. Accommodate oil spilt on
deck.
B. Combat a worst case spill.
C. Accommodate oil spilt in the
Engine Room.
D. Clean up an accidental spill
up to 500 barrels.
204. Tools for mitigation include
the ships fire hoses. Fire
hoses may be used to …
A. Prevent floating oil from
escaping downstream.
B. Disperse floating oil.
C. Wash oil off the cargo deck.
D. Wash oil from the dock.
205. During oil spill clean up,
booming strategies are most
effective to contain spills in
………
A. Rough weather conditions in
open sea.
B. Areas close to response
centers.
C. Areas with waves with
medium swells and
significant height.
D. Calm weather conditions in
coastal waters.
206. The costs of cleaning up a
major oil spill can …………
A. Greatly exceed the cost of
the oil it self.
B. All of these.
C. Cost ship owners and
operators their assets.
D. Lead to prosecution of those
involved.
207. The intentional discharge of
10,000 gallons of oil into the
sea is best described as
A. An operational spill.
B. A casualty spill.
C. Willful misconduct.
D. A worst case scenario.
208. OPA 90 response times for
salvage and lightering
contractors are calculated
from the time of ………….
A. The go ahead signal from
the Coast Guard
B. Reaching the pollution scene
C. The call out
D. The occurrence of the oil
spill
209. Under OPA 90 regulations,
each part of the cargo oil or
bunkering system not used
during fuel transfer or cargo
oil transfer must be secured
…………..
A. With a blank flange.
B. By securing the manual
values tight and padlocking
the value wheels.
C. With a cement box.
D. By locking the hydraulic
actuators to the respective
line values.
210. Under OPA 90, all verbal
reports regarding an oil spill
should be followed ……
A. By obtaining feedback about
the action taken and by
repeated verbal reports are
to be made if new
information is available.
B. Up in writing to facilitate
clear communications
C. By the course of action and
repeated verbal reports are
to be made if new
information is available.
D. By obtaining feedback about
the action taken.
211. Most landfills in the United
States will not accept
………..
A. Residue from smelting
plants.
B. Rock debris. DPKP
C. Ashes.
D. Oil soaked materials.
212. Under OPA 90, concerning
the activation of the OSRO
or Oil Spill Response
Organisation, which of the
statements below is true ?
A. The ships staff alone is to
activate the OSRO directly
within 30 minutes after the
spill after which the USCG
is informed
B. The Harbour Master's office
is to activate the OSRO
immediately
C. The P & I club is to activate
the OSRO within 24 to 48
hours
D. The shore management is
able to activate the OSRO
213. In event of an oil spill,
mooring lines can be used as
an interim containment
barrier ………….
A. Around cargo oil and
bunkering manifolds.
B. To avoid oil spilled on the
deck from escaping
overboard via the fish plate
openings.
C. To keep an oil slick from
escaping downstream.
D. To contain small oil spills on
the open deck.
214. Most important in
monitoring the loading or
bunkering rate is …………..
A. To keep a close eye on the
manifold pressure.
B. To keep close radio contact
with the jettybarge.
C. The remote control gauging
system is to be observed.
D. That tanks should be
sounded very regularly.
215. A tank vessel owner or
operator can ensure he has
met the planning criteria of
the OPA 90
502
 A. Employing an OSRO. …………. D. Diesel and keroseneDPKP
fuels.
B. Contracting sufficient A. The tendency of the vessel
resources to meet the tiered to report a lesser amount of 225. The most important
planning guidelines for each bunkers than actually guideline for dealing with
area in which the ship is remains on board. the news media is
trading. B. Miscalculations …………….
C. Trading only in high volume C. The tendency of the vessel A. Not speculating about the
ports. to report a lesser amount of issues.
D. Having response equipment bunkers than actually B. Adherence to the Freedom
on board. remains on board and sole of Information Act.
dependency on remote C. Refusing to comment.
216. Which major port is not a gauging systems. D. All of these.
high volume port ? D. Sole dependency on remote
A. Port Angeles gauging systems 226. Three functions of the
B. St. Croix Incident Command staff
C. Mobile 221. Basic spill prevention are……………
D. New York. measurements include A. Information, safety and
………. liaison.
217. When reporting an oil spill A. At least one person on board B. Command, control and
to the National Response who can speak the language evacuation.
Center and a recorded of both persons in charge on C. Incineration, recycling and
message is heard and you the terminal. disposal.
are placed on hold, your B. Attention to moorings. D. Fire fighting, lightering and
alternate contact should be C. Insertion of at least one bolt salvage.
… in every other hole of
A. The nearest U.S. Coast flanges.
Guard Captain of the Port. D. A signed exchange between 227. Who is responsible for the
B. The local directory operator. ship and terminal. supervision of cleanup until
C. The National Transportation the Oualified Individual
Safety Board. 222. The first phase of arrives on the scene. ?
D. Your head office emergency response is A. The Environment Protection
………… Agency.
218. The penalty for failure to A. Breefing the incident B. The ship's staff.
immediately notify the commend system. C. The person in charge of oil
appropriate U.S. B. Containment and recovery. transfer.
Government agency of an C. Effective reaction to the D. The local agent.
oil spill is……… situation on board.
A. Partial liability. D. Disposal of oily rags. 228. Under OPA 90 , Group 1
B. Unlimited liability. oils are …………….
C. A fine of not more than U.S 223. A key element of the A. Persistent oils.
$ 10,000 and/or one year in Incident Command System B. Non persistent oils.
prison. is …………… C. Vegetable oils.
D. Ten years in prison. A. Liaison with government D. Animal oils.
agencies.
219. To ensure clear B. Reporting. 229. The three types of boom are
communications under OPA C. Containment. ……………
90, all verbal reports should D. Recovery. A. Light, medium and low.
be followed by B. Fire fighting, lightering and
A. A telex, fax or cable. 224. The US Oil Pollution Act of salvage.
B. More telephone calls. 1990 applies to…………… C. Light, heavy and double
C. The nautical translation. extra strength.
D. A message in a bottle. A. Petroleum oils. D. Heavy duty offshore, river &
B. Black oil. harbour, sorbent.
220. A routine cause of C. Petroleum, animal and
operational oil spills is vegetable oils. 230. The primary forces that will

503
 affect the movement of oil
on the water are……………
A. Sun light.
B. Vacuum trucks.
C. Currents, tides and winds.
D. Gravitational pull.
231. According to OPA 90
Pollution Response, clean-
up of which oil group may
involve underwater recovery
? Designated Zone
A. Group III
B. Group IV
C. Group I
D. Group V
232. OPA 90 regulations are
effective up to
………..miles offshore.
A. 50
B. 10
C. 200
D. 150
233. Under OPA 90 regulations
actuation of Tier I response
resources must be
made………after discovery
oil discharge.
A. Within one hour
B. Immediately, in any case not
later than 30 minutes
C. Within two hours
D. Within 45 minutes
234. Under normal conditions a
spill of Group V oil will
……………
A. Burn.
B. Sink.
C. Float.
D. Disperse with wind and
current.
235. The Oil Pollution Act of
1990 is ………….
A. United States legislation
B. Only enforceable in the
Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf
C. An equivalent standard of
Marpol 73/78
D. An international pollution
law
236. Any discharge of oil into the
sea is prohibited except
when some conditions are
satisfied. One of these
conditions for a tanker is
that……….
A. The tanker is within a
Special Area.
B. The tanker is not within a
Special Area
C. The tanker is within a
D. The tanker is not within a
Designated Zone
237. Any discharge of oil into the
sea is prohibited except
when some conditions are
satisfied. One of these
conditions for an oil tanker
is that…………
A. The tanker is more than 50
nautical mites from the
nearest land.
B. The tanker is more than 25
nautical miles from the
nearest land.
C. The tanker is more than 10
nautical miles from the
nearest land.
D. The tanker is more than 100
nautical miles from the
nearest land.
238. Any discharge of oil into the
sea is prohibited except
when some conditions are
satisfied. One of these
conditions for a tanker is
that ……….
A. The tanker is en route.
B. The tanker is in ballast
condition.
C. The tanker is tank cleaning.
D. The tanker is loaded.
239. For existing tankers the total
quantity of oil discharged
into the sea should be no
more than ……..of the total
quantity of the particular
cargo of which the residue
formed part.
A. 1/25000
B. 1/100000
C. 1/15000 DPKP
D. 1/50000
240. The instantaneous rate of
discharge of oil content of a
tanker shall not exceed ?
A. 120 litres per nautical mile
B. 100 litres per nautical mile
C. 75 litres per nautical mile
D. 30 litres per nautical mile
241. Tank overflows while
loading oil cargo or
bunkering are one of the
most common cases of oil
pollution. Which flue of
these items are the main
preventive measures against
tank overflow ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII
B. I, Ill, IV, V, VI
C. I, II, III, VI, VII
D. I, III, V, VI, VII
242. According to Marpol, what
does the term "oil "mean ?
A. Petroleum in any form
including crude oil, fuel oil,
sludge oil, oil refuse and
refined products
B. Any grade of crude oil or
fuel oil
C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel
oil or refined products
D. Any grade of crude oil
243. According to Marpol, what
is the meaning of the term
"oily mixture " ?
A. A mixture with oil content
above 100 ppm
B. A mixture with oil content
above 50 ppm
C. A mixture with any oil
content
D. A mixture with oil content
above 15 ppm
244. Under Marpol, can a
chemical tanker be
considered an oil tanker ?
A. Yes, when it is carrying a
cargo or part cargo of oil in
bulk
B. Yes, when it is carrying
504
 petrochemicals
C. Yes
D. No
245. According to Marpol, what
is the meaning of the term
"oil fuel" ?
A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil ,
Intermediate Fuel or Diesel
Oil
B. A cargo of refined oil with
flashpoint above 60 degree
C of a "special area" as defined
C. Any oil used on board in
connection with the
propulsion and auxiliary
machinery
D. A cargo of refined oil for
combustible purpose in
thermal machinery or boilers
246. Does the definition of an "oil
tanker "applies to a gas
carrier ?
A. Yes, when carrying
chemicals or petrochemicals
B. No, it is not
C. Yes, it is
D. Yes, when carrying a cargo
or part cargo of oil in bulk
247. According to Marpol, what
does the term "new ship"
mean ?
A. A ship for which the keel
was laid or was in any
similar stage of construction
after 30 June 1976
B. A ship for which the
building contract was placed
after 31 December 1995
C. A ship which was delivered
after 31 December 1979
D. All of these.
248. What does the 'instantaneous
rate of discharge of oil
content "mean according to
Marpol ?
A. The total quantity of oil
discharged at any moment
B. The rate of oil discharge in
litres per hour at any instant
divided by the speed of the
ship in knots at the same
instant
C. The total quantity of oil
discharged divided by the
mileage covered during the
time of discharge by the ship
D. The total rate of oil
discharged per hour divided
by 3600
249. What is the best description
by Marpol ?
A. An area with a particular
traffic characteristics where
extra precautions are
required
B. A sea area where for
recognised oceanographical
and ecological conditions
and in view of traffic special
prevention is required
C. An ecological endangered
area where no oil mixture is
to be discharged at anytime
D. A sea area where in view of
its particular no
overboarddischarged of any
oily mixtures
250. What is the meaning of "slop
tank" as defined by Marpol ?
A. A tank used for tank
cleaning provided with
heating coils
B. The two most aftward fitted
wing tanks or the most
aftward fated centre tank
C. Any tank where slops or
sludges are collected
D. A tank specifically designed
for the collection of tank D
drainings, washings or other
oily mixtures
251. Which description given
below is nearest to the
description of clean ballast
as defined by Marpol ?
A. Its oil content is no more
than 100 ppm and it will not
produce visible traces on the
shore lines.
B. Its oil content is NIL and
consequently would DPKP not
leave any traces upon the
surface of the water or
emulsion beneath the water
surface.
C. Its oil content is no more
than 50 ppm and will not
produce visible traces on
adjoining shorelines, nor
emulsion in the sea.
D. If discharged from a ship
stationary in clean calm
water on a clear day will not
produce visible traces of oil
on the water surface nor
emulsion below
252. Which answer is nearest to
the Marpol description of
segregated ballast ?
A. The clean ballast water
which can only be pumped
via segregated lines by the
clean ballast pump
B. Ballast water that cannot be
pumped through cargo oil
piping and for which cargo
pumps cannot be used
C. The ballast carried in the
clean ballast tank via the
segregated ballast pump
D. The ballast water introduced
in a tank which is
completely separated from
cargo or fuel oil system and
permanently allocated to
ballast
253. In order for a tanker to be
called a "new oil tanker
"according to Marpol, the
date on its building contract
would read……………
A. After 1st January 1981.
B. After 31st of December
1980.
C. After 1st June 1982.
D. After 1st June 1979.
254. Every oil tanker of …..
Tons gross tonnage and
above and every other ship
of tons gross tonnage and
above shall be subject to
Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
505
 A. 500,1000
B. 400, 700
C. 150, 400
D. 250, 500
255. The initial Marpol (10PP)
survey carried out before a
ship enters service in order
to ensure compliance with
the applicable regulations
shall include……
A. A complete survey of all
wing tanks, centre tanks,
stop tanks.
B. A complete survey of the
associate pumping and
piping systems, including
oil-discharging monitoring
system, oil tittering and
separating systems.
C. A complete survey of all
piping.
D. A complete survey of its
structure, equipment,
fittings, systems
arrangements and materials
in so far as the ship is
covered by this Annex.
256. Periodical Marpol surveys
are to be carried out at
intervals as specified by the
administration. These
intervals are not to
exceed…………..
A. Two and a half years.
B. Three years.
C. Two years.
D. Five years.
257. At least one survey must to
be carried out during the
validity of the IOPP
certificate. This shall ensure
that the equipment, pumps
and piping systems
including ODME are in
order. What is this survey
called ?
A. The Annual survey
B. The Special survey
C. The Intermediate survey
D. The Midterm survey
258. Marpol permits additional
inspections in order to
ensure that the ship and its
equipment remain in all
respects satisfactory for
service. What are these
inspections called ?
A. Annual Inspections
B. Unscheduled inspections
C. Obligatory inspections
D. Special surveys
259. Here are FIVE items
concerning topping off
procedures during oil cargo
loading and bunkering.
Which one of these is not
true ?
A. III - is not true
B. II - is not true
C. V - is not true
D. I- is not true
260. If Mandatory annual surveys
are established by the
Administration, how will it
effect unscheduled
Inspections carried out
according to Marpol ?
A. The unscheduled inspections
shall no longer be obligatory
B. Only one unscheduled
inspection per year is
required
C. Unscheduled inspections are
required once every two
years
D. Two unscheduled
inspections are required
during a 5-year periode
261. Who may carry out
MARPOL surveys ?
A. Approved ship's officers
B. Port-State Control
Inspectors
C. Coast Guard Inspectors
D. Surveyors nominated by
Administrations or
organisationsrecognised by
Administrations
262. Who may carry out
marpolinspections ?
A. Officers authorised by the
Government having
DPKP
jurisdiction over the port in
which the ship is located,
generally referred to as Port
State Inspectors.
B. All of these.
C. Surveyors nominated by
recognisedorganisations.
D. Coast Guard officers.
263. What is the meaning of a
“harmful substance" under
Marpol ?
A. Petroleum products and
petrochemicals
B. Hydrocarbons in any form
C. Any substance creating harm
to health and life or able to
damage amenities.
D. Oils and fuels
264. These items are standard
inspection items for Marpol
as given in guidelines to
inspectors and surveyors.
Which item does not belong
?
A. Item VII - does not belong
B. Item VI - does not belong
C. Item II - does not belong
D. Item V - does not belong
265. What does "discharge"
means in relation to harmful
substances as defined by
Marpol ?
A. Dumping or disposal from
the ship
B. Spilling, leaking or escape
from the ship
C. Pumping, emptying or
emitting from a ship
D. Any release how ever
caused
266. What is the meaning of an
incident" according to
Marpol ?
A. The actual discharge into the
sea of a harmful substance
or effluents containing such
substances
B. B The probable discharge
into the sea of oil or of an
506
 oily mixture
C. The actual or probable
discharge into the sea of a
harmful substance or
effluents containing such
substances
D. The actual or probable
discharge into the sea of oil
or of an oily mixture
267. Penalties under the Law for
violation of Marpol
requirements shall be…..
A. Adequate in severity to
discourage violations and
shall be equally severe
irrespective of where the
violation occurs.
B. Imposed by all countries, the
severity depends on where
the violation occurs.
C. Imposed to warn against the
global problem of pollution.
D. In all cases most severe.
268. To what administrative
matter must you comply
with if an incident under
Marpol occurs ?
A. A report shall be made
without delay to the fullest
extent in accordance with
Marpol Protocol 1.
B. A report of the incident is to
be made to the vessel's
Administration.
C. You are to write a full report
of the incident to the vessels
owners or managers.
D. You are to note this incident
in the Log Book.
269. A new oil tanker of less than
20,000 tons deadweight may
be designated as…
A. A product / chemical carrier
B. A crude oil I product carrier
C. A product carrier
D. A crude oil tanker
270. A new oil tankers of 20,000
tons deadweight and above
which satisfy the
requirements for Segregated
Ballast Tanks with
Protective location as well
as COW may be designated
as
A. Product carrier
B. Crude oil / product carrier
C. Crude oil tanker
D. Petrochemical / product
carrier
271. A new oil tanker of 20,000
tons or above satisfying the
requirements SBT and PL,
but not fitted with COW
should be designated as a
…..….on the IOPP
certificate.
A. Crude oil 1 product carrier
B. Crude oil tanker
C. Product carrier
D. Petrochemical tanker
272. New oil tankers of 20,000
tons dwt and above but less
than 30,000 tons dwt NOT
fitted with SBT and PL
should be designated as a
…….on the IOPP certificate.
A. Crude oil tanker
B. Crude oil / product carrier
C. Petrochemical tanker
D. Product carrier
273. Stew oil tankers of 70,000
dwt and above satisfying the
requirements of SBT may be
designed as a B. Interface oily water detector
…………….on the IOPP
certificate.
A. Crude oil /product carrier
B. Product oil carrier
C. Crude oil / petrochemical
tanker
D. Crude oil tanker
274. How would existing oil
tankers of less than 40,000
tons dwt be designated on
the IOPP certificate ?
A. As a product carrier
B. As a crude oil tanker
C. As a crude oil / product
carrier
D. As a crude DPKPoil /
petrochemical tanker
275. For existing tankers of
40,000 tons dwt and above
satisfying the requirements
of SBT, what should their
designation be on the IOPP
certificate ?
A. Product carrier
B. Crude oil tanker
C. Crude oil / petrochemical
tanker
D. Crude oil / product carrier
276. For existing tankers of
40,000 tons dwt and above
fitted only with a COW
system, what should their
designation be on the IOPP
certificate ?
A. Product carrier
B. Crude Oil / product carrier
C. Crude oil tanker
D. Crude oil / petrochemical
tanker
277. Discharge of oily mixtures
from machinery space bilges
of tankers are prohibited
except when, amongst other
requirements, which of the
following equipment is fitted
?
A. An Oil Discharge
Monitoring Equipment
C. A 50 ppm Bilge Water
Separator with alarm system
D. A 15 ppm oily bilge water
separator with alarm system
278. When shall the IOPP
Certificate cease to be valid
?
A. Any one of these
B. If significant alterations
have taken place to materials
without sanction
C. If significant alterations
have taken place for fittings,
507
 equipment or arrangements
without sanction
D. If significant alterations
have taken place in the ships
construction without
sanction
279. When alterations to ships
construction, equipment,
materials , fittings or
arrangements are carried out
without sanction the IOPP
certificate ceases to be valid.
What is the exception
A. Improvement in ships
construction
B. The direct replacement of
equipment and fittings
C. Modification of
arrangements as long as
purpose and ay-out does not
deviate from Marpol
requirements
D. Replacement of monitoring
equipment as long as it is
approved by the
Administration
280. What are the consequences
if an IOPP intermediate
survey is not carried out as
specified ?
A. The IOPP certificate remains
valid, but when the overdue
survey is carried out, the
stringency will depend on
the duration of the elapsed
time
B. The IOPP certificate shall
cease to be valid and a
survey corresponding to the
requisite survey is to be
carried out .
C. The IOPP certificate shall
cease to be valid when the C
survey is 3 months overdue
D. The IOPP certificate remains
valid, however an
unscheduled inspection is to
be carried out by the Port
State inspection of the
country of call
281. Amongst other
requirements, what kind of
arrangement is required for a
tanker in order to be allowed
to discharge oily mixtures
into the sea ?
A. Segregated ballast tanks
B. 15 ppm oil filtering
equipment
C. Double hulls
D. A slop tank arrangement
282. A ship other than tanker of
3000grt and above, but less
than 10,0000, cannot
discharge oily mixtures from
machinery spaces, unless
certain conditions are
satisfied. Which of these
conditions must be satisfied
? items in this list ?
A. II, IV, VIII
B. II, V, VII
C. II, III, VI
D. I, IV, VI
283. What is the oil content of a
mixture which may be
discharged into the sea when
the ship is not in a special
area ?
A. 100 ppm
B. 50 ppm
C. Less than 15 ppm
D. 15 ppm
284. Is it permitted to introduce
dillutants or to apply other
chemical treatment to oily
mixtures prior to discharge
these into the sea ?
A. Concentration of chemicals
only 100 ppm
B. Not allowed at all
C. Oil dispersants are allowed
D. Dillutants are allowed
285. Are the Marpol regulations
governing discharge of oily
mixtures applicable to issues
of safety at sea ?
A. They remain in force, only
Government Organisations
can decide to lift same in
case of emergencies.
B. They are not applicable
when oil is released DPKP
for the
purpose of securing the
safety of a ship or saving life
at sea.
C. They do not apply when life
can be saved at sea at the
cost of releasing oil in the
water
D. They remain in force at all
times, they help promote
safety as well.
286. The Marpol regulations
prohibit discharges oil
mixtures at sea. The
regulations will not apply if
the discharge is the result of
damage arising from which
A. I, IV
B. IV, V
C. II, V
D. III, VI
287. Marpol regulations prohibit
oily mixture discharges at
sea. The regulations do not
apply if the discharge is the
result of damage to the ship
or its equipment. What is the
exception ?
A. Damage to ship and
equipment due operational
error
B. Crew negligence
C. Intent to cause damage, or
recklessly and with
knowledge that damage
could probably result
D. Collision or groundings
288. It is possible to discharge
substances containing oil,
approved by the
Administration, (eg. Oil
dispersants) for the purpose
of combating specific
pollution incidents, into the
sea. Under which of these
conditions ?
A. II, IV, V
B. I, II, V
C. I, III
D. III, IV
508
289. For new tankers of 20,000
tons dwt and above, the
capacity of the segregated
ballast tanks shall be such
hat, at any part of the
voyage, the ships draught
and trim meet which of these
requirements ?
A. I, III, IV, VI
B. I, II, IV, V
C. I, II, IV, VII
D. I, IV, V, VII
290. New tankers of 20,000 dwt
and above shall in no case
carry ballast water in cargo
tanks, except when which of
these circumstances arise ?
A. IV,V
B. II, V
C. III,V
D. II, V
291. For the purpose of
determining the capacity of
the clean ballast tanks in
tankers, which tanks may be
included ?
A. Cofferdams as well as
segregated ballast tanks
B. Segregated ballast tanks,
fore and after peak tanks as
well as cofferdams.
C. Segregated ballast tanks
only
D. Fore and after peak tanks as
well as segregated ballast
tanks
292. Under which conditions are
Fore Peak tanks, After Peak
tanks and cofferdams
allowed to be included in the
total capacity determination
of Cars for tankers ?
A. Provided the protective
location of the tanks is
ensured
B. Provided they are to be
connected with permanent
piping to the ballast water
system
C. Provided an oily separating
system of 15 ppm is to be
fitted on board
D. Provided oil discharge
monitoring equipment with
automatic stop when 15 ppm
level is exceeded is to be
fitted
293. If a tanker with separate
independent piping and
pumps for CBT and
operating with COW is to
change its designation to
product carrier and vice
versa, which provisions will
apply ?
A. Two IOPP certificates are
issued, only one valid at the
time. No survey is required
prior switching trades.
Manual for both procedures
required.
B. The tanker needs to be
surveyed each time its
switches trade
C. Crude oil is not allowed to
be carried in tanks
designated CBT in the crude
oil trd.
D. The COW system needs to
be blanked
294. If an oil tanker is used for
the storage of oil and its
machinery modified to
immobilise the ship, what
are the requirements for
SOT, COT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirements for SBT,
PL and CBT do not apply
B. The requirements for SBT
do not apply
C. The requirements for SBT
and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT,
PL, CBT and COW do not
apply
295. Hi an oil tanker is used to
receive dirty ballast from oil
tankers, what are the
requirements for SBT, CBT,
PL and COW ?
A. The requirement DPKP
for SET
does not apply
B. The requirements for SBT,
PI and CET do not apply
C. The requirement for SBT
and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT,
PL, CBT and COW do not
apply
296. One of the requirements for
an oil tanker operating with
Dedicated Clean Ballast
shall be that it is e
quipped with…….
A. A crude oil washing system.
B. Two separate slop tanks.
C. Segregated ballast tanks and
PL.
D. An oil content meter.
297. The regulations for existing
tankers for SBT, CBT and
COW shall not apply if the
tanker is engaged in specific
trades provided reception
facilities are existing in
ports. What document is to
be endorsed ?
A. The oil record book
B. The bill of lading
C. The charter party
D. The ship's IOPP certificate
298. Which of the following is
NOT classed as pollution
prevention equipment ?
A. Scupper covers.
B. Sawdust/rubber buckets and
shovels.
C. Empty drums and absorbent
pads.
D. Air or electric portable
pumps.
299. Existing oil tankers which
complies at all times with
SBT draught and trim
requirements without the use
of ballast water, may be
considered to comply with
SBT requirements in full
provided which of these
509
 items apply ?
A. II, IV, V
B. I, II, VI
C. II, V, VI
D. III, IV, VI
300. What is the purpose of
Regulation 13 E - Rules for
Protective Location of
Segregated Ballast Tanks on
Oil Tankers ?
A. To provide a measure of
protection against oil
outflow in event of
grounding or collision
B. To facilitate trim and
draught corrective
operations on tankers
C. To reduce the bending
moments on tankers
D. To reduce the shear forces
on tankers
301. Where is disposal of wooden
dunnage allowed ?
A. Outside 25 miles offshore.
B. Only outside special areas.
C. It is never allowed.
D. Outside 12 miles offshore.
302. Regulation 14 of Marpol
states that no ballast water
shall be carried in any fuel
oil tank. What is the
exception ?
A. Ships with special nature of
trade which stay for long
time at sea, for example:
tugs, fishing boats
B. For exceptional long
voyages, when the ships
bunkers are depleted and
weather conditions are
deteriorating
C. If the double bottom fuel
tank is ruptures, the fuel
tank may be filled with
ballast if stability requires
this
D. In case of voyage repairs
being carried out on board
ships
303. Under Marpol, slop tanks
shall have the capacity to
retain the slop generated by
tank washings, oil and dirty
ballast residues. Their total
capacity shall not be less
than ….. % of the tank
capacity.
A. 2.5
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
304. In an existing tanker, which
tanks can be designated as
slop tanks ?
A. Any tank provided with
adequate means for
collecting dirty ballast
residue and tank washings
from the cargo tanks.
B. Any tank separated form the
ships' side by a distance of at
least 3 metres.
C. Any tank fitted with
overboard discharge
facilities.
D. Any tank closed to the
atmosphere and fitted with
an oily water separation
filter.
305. At least two slop tanks are
required for……..
A. New oil tankers of 20,000
tons dwt and above.
B. New oil tankers of 70,000
tons dwt and above.
C. New and existing oil tankers
above 150,000 tons dwt.
D. New oil tankers of 4.0,000
tons dwt and above.
306. To prevent pollution you
should look at how the
operations that may lead to
pollution are conducted on
board of your ship and ask
yourself 3 questions. What
are these questions ?
I, III, V
A. I, II, III
B. II, IV, VI
C. I, II, V
307. How can a ship dispose of
plastic at sea ?
A. Anywhere outside DPKP 3 mite
limit.
B. Outside special areas.
C. 1isposal of plastic is not
allowed anywhere at sea.
D. Outside 25 miles offshore.
308. An Instruction Manual for
Oil Retention and Oil
Discharge Monitoring is
required on board. This
manual must mention all
operations and ……..
A. Instructions to ensure that at
no time oil shall be
discharged.
B. Shall be approved by the
Administration.
C. All automatic operations.
The manual shall be
approved by the
Administration.
D. Shall be approved by the
Administration. It must
contain instructions to
ensure that no oil can be
discharged except in
compliance with regulations.
309. Any ship of 400 tons gross
and above but less than
10000 tons, which does not
carry ballast water in fuel oil
tanks shall be fitted with a
…….oil filtering equipment
for engine bilge discharge.
A. 100 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 150 ppm
310. Must the ship's Oil Record
Book (part I or part II) be of
Standard Format and/or may
it be part of the ship's
official Log Book ?
A. It may be part of the ships
official Log, its format is not
standard but must contain
the required information.
B. It is no part of the ship's
Log, its format is Standard
as specified.
C. It is not part of the ship's
official Log, its format is not
510
 standard but must contain all
required information.
D. It may be part of the ship's
Log, its format is Standard
as specified.
311. In the event of accidental or
exceptional discharges (for
example allowed discharge
in order to save life), a
statement shall be made in
the oil record book
explaining what ?
A. The amount and the
specifications of the oil
discharged
B. The circumstances of and
the reasons for the discharge
C. The report of the accident
indicating precautions
D. The amount discharged and
the reasons for it
312. Each operation as specified
by regulations must be noted
in the oil record book
without delay and…..…..
A. The Chief Officer is to sign
when the operations are
completed and be
countersigned by the Master.
B. The entries match operations
completed after which it is
signed by the Master.
C. When the operations are
completed will be signed by
the Officer or in charge
during the time of the
operation.
D. Will be signed by the
Officer or Officers in charge
of the operation and each
completed page will be
signed by the Master.
313. Who can certified true
copies of Oil Record Books
? D. Alkylates fuel
A. A Notary Public
B. The Master
C. The Officers of the Flag
State
D. Port Authorities
314. Of the four categories of
discharges associated with
the operation of offshore
platforms for which type or
types is Marpol 73.(03
applicable ?
A. Type, I, III and IV
B. Type I only
C. Type IV only
D. Type I and Type IV
315. What can be a major cause
of pollution from a dry cargo
ship without the vigilance of
the entire crew ?
A. Improper discharge from
bilges and engine room.
B. Improper disposal of
garbage.
C. Leaking hydraulic oil on
deck.
D. Careless bunkering.
316. Which of the following oils
is not an asphalt solution ?
A. Roofers Flux
B. Blending Stocks
C. Straight run residue
D. Solvent
317. Which of the following
products is not listed under
"oils" in Appendix I of
Marpol Annex I ?
A. Clarified
B. Road Oil
C. Automotive
D. Spindle oil
318. The following products is
not listed as "gasoline
blending stock" in Appendix
I of Marpol Annex I?
A. Reformates
B. Polymer fuel
C. Flashed feed stock
319. Which of the following
products is not listed under
"gasolines" in Appendix I of
marpolannexi?
A. Fuel oil No 1 D
B. Fuel oil No 1 DPKP
C. Fuel oil No 4
D. Fuel oil No 2
320. The Record of Construction
and Equipment, has a
chapter about Tanks for Oil
Residues (Sludges). What
information is recorded in
this chapter ?
A. The location and capacity of
the sludge tanks
B. The total tank capacity in
m3 and the means for
disposal of oil residue in
addition to the provision of
sludge tanks
C. The number and capacity of
sludge tanks and means of
connection to open deck
sludge connection
D. The capacity of the sludge
tanks and the pumping
arrangements
321. If ships other than tankers
have spaces constructed and
utilised to carry oil in bulk
of a capacity of …….or
more, the regulations of
Annex I for oil tankers
applies.
A. 100 T
B. 400 T
C. 500 cubic metres
D. 200 cubic metres
322. There are 6 annexes to
MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito
VI). They dealing with
pollution caused by
……..
A. I = Oil, II = Noxious
liquid in bulk, III =
Harmful packaged
substances, IV = Sewage, V
= Garbage, VI = Air
pollution.
B. I = Garbage, II = Air
pollution, Ill = Sewage, IV =
Harmful packaged
substances, V = Noxious
liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
C. I = Sewage, II =
Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill =
511
 Oil, IV = Harmful packaged
substances, V = Air
pollution, VI = Garbage.
D. I= Oil, II = Sewage, Ill
= Garbage, IV = Harmful
packaged substances, V =
Noxious liquids in bulk, VI
= Air pollution.
323. Annex II of Marpol 73/78
deals mainly with ……
A. The construction, ballast
procedures, category of
ballast and the operational
procedures of petroleum
tankers
B. The pollution hazards from
chemical tankers and their
arrangementsfor discharge
of cargo residues
C. The labeling and packaging
of harmful substances
carried as packages
D. The handling and discharge
of garbage
324. Annex IV of Marpol, deals
with Sewage. How does it
affect shipboard operations
concerning processing and
treatment of sewage ?
A. Only a collecting tank is
required for all countries for
the time being
B. It is required by the United
States only and an approved
sewage plant must be
installed on board
C. Discharge is for the time
being allowed anywhere as
long a sewage plant is on
board
D. The regulations are not yet
universally in force, but a
number of countries have
adapted them and have
stingent regulations
325. How do the requirements of
Marpol stand in relation to
national or port regulations ?
A. Only Japan and the United
States have additional
regulations to be complied
with
B. Only Australia has
additional regulations to be
complied with
C. They are the same for any
country which has ratified
the Marpol convention
D. National regulations in the
ports visited may be more
tingent and must be
complied with
326. According to Annex V of
Marpol , no garbage can be
thrown overboard inside the
Special Areas. Which is the
exception ?
A. Paper, metal and glass
ground up to less than 25
mm beyond 25 miles
offshore
B. Glass ground up to less than
25 mm beyond 25 miles
offshore
C. Comminuted (ground up)
food waste may be thrown
overboard beyond 12 miles
offshore
D. Paper ground up to less than
25 mm beyond 12 miles
offshore
327. Marpol garbage disposal
regulations outside Special
Areas specify that within 3
miles from the nearest land
and in all inland
waters……….
A. You cannot throw plastics
overboard.
B. You cannot throw anything
overboard.
C. You cannot throw plastics,
dunnage, lining and packing
materials that float
overboard.
D. You cannot throw paper,
crockery, rags, glass metal
or food overboard unless
ground to less than 25 mm.
328. Garbage disposal regulations
outside special areas specify
that dunnage, lining and
packing materials that float
…….
DPKP
A. Maybe thrown overboard
outside 3 miles offshore.
B. May not be thrown
overboard at anytime.
C. May be thrown overboard
outside 12 miles offshore.
D. May be thrown overboard
outside 25 miles offshore.
329. Before starting bunkering
operations, which one of the
following precautions would
you say is most important?
A. Plug scuppers.
B. Exhibit International Code B
flag and red light.
C. Check over-side for
pollution.
D. Smoking and naked light
restrictions and notices
330. Garbage disposal regulations
outside special areas specify
that paper, crockery, rags,
metal , glass and food may
be thrown overboard within
3 to 12 miles offshore,
provided it is ground to less
than ………in size.
A. 5mm
B. 10mm
C. 30 mm
D. 25 mm
331. Marpol Annex V garbage
disposal regulations outside
special Areas specify the
type of garbage which can
be thrown overboard at a
given distance offshore. Is
this universally accepted ?
A. Yes, except food, some
countries have restrictions
B. Yes, accepted by all states
and regions
C. Regional or state variations
can further restrict the
disposal of garbage
D. Yes, except dunnage
332. Why is on board training
important in relation to
pollution prevention ?
A. Because pollution related
512
 incidents are on the increase
and all efforts are needed to
reduce them
B. Because many schools and
training facilities are
considered sub-standard
C. Because MARPOL is not
compulsory taught in
nautical schools
D. Because each ship has her
own characteristics and
equipment with which the
new crew member must
become familiar
333. How can an on board
pollution prevention training
program help the new crew
member know clearly what
is expected of him ?
A. By teaching and pointing out
to the new crew members
which are the weak spots
which may cause pollution
B. By composing a realistic
training program with
special emphasis on the
personal responsibilities and
duties of the trainee
C. By teaching the new crew
member the requirements of
Marpol concerning pollution
of the seas
D. By teaching him the risks of
oil transferring operations
(bunkers as well as cargo)
334. For on board pollution
prevention training to work,
it is important that
…..
A. A quite considerate amount
of time is spent with the
incoming new crew member
for the first week on board
B. The Master puts up a rigid
discipline.
C. The trainees have an
adequate background in
pollution control
D. It is continuous and stresses
safe, pollution free
operations
335. To prevent pollution you
should look at how the A. FLUSH DPKP
PIPING
operations that may lead to THROUGH PRIOR TO
pollution are conducted on TAKING BALLAST
board of your ship and ask B. START PUMP BEFORE
yourself 3 questions. What OPENING SEA SUCTION
are these questions ?
A. I, III, V C. ENSURE PIPING IS
B. I, II, III CLEANED PRIOR
C. II, IV, VI STARTING PUMP
D. I, II, V D. START PUMP WITH
DISCHARGE VALVES
336. Pick the flue operations, CLOSED
from this list, which when
conducted on cargo ships 339. Containment is critical when
may lead to a pollution oil has spilled on deck.
incident ? Pollution can be avoided if
A. II, IV , V, VI, VII prompt action and careful
B. I, II, III, IV, VI preparation for containment
C. I, III, V, VII, VIII is carried out. Which three
D. II, IV, V, VII, VIII of these items are vital ?
A. I, II, IV
337. Permanently posted B. I, III, IV
information and procedures C. I, III, V
concerning bunkering and D. II, IV, V
transfer procedures should
be available on board in a 340. In order to contain oil spills
place where they can be Gutter Bars (Fish Plates)
easily seen and used. Where should be regularly
on board? inspected to make sure
A. Either on the bunker that……..
manifold values OR in the A. The fastenings are not worn.
engine control room OR
near the fuel oil transfer B. The coating is intact.
pumps C. They have not developed
B. Either on the bridge OR on cracks or holes.
deck, OR by the manifolds D. They are correctly fitting.
C. Either in the alleyways near
the main entrance OR near 341. Tank overflows while
the bunkers emergency shut loading oil cargo or
off valves OR in the cargo bunkering are one of the
— control room most common cases of oil
D. Either in the engine control pollution. Which flue of
room OR near the fuel these items are the main
transfer pumps OR in the preventive measures against
emergency headquarters tank overflow ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII
338. There is potential for B. I. Ill, IV, V, VI
pollution when starting C. I, II, Ill, VI, VII
taking ballast on non-SBT D. I, III, V, VI, VII
tankers because oil may
backflow into the sea via the 342. During Marpol inspections
sea chests. In order to by port state control
prevent this a notice should inspectors ships have been
be placed on the ballast detained because ……..
pump. Which one ? A. No electrical drawing of the
513
 oily bilge separator alarm
was posted.
B. No instructions to operate
the oily bilge water
separator were posted.
C. No pollution placards were
posted.
D. No up to date deck port log
was kept.
215. A master or any other person
in authority on board
treating a person in an
improper manner or fails to
prevent his being so treated
by other persons onboard
shall be liable to:
A. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 6
months.
B. Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 9 months.
C. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 12
months.
D. Fines.
216. A subordinate who
unlawfully brings
intoxicating beverages on
board shall be liable to:
A. Fines or in especially
aggravating circumstances
to imprisonment for a term
not exceeding three months.
B. Fines.
C. Fines or in especially
aggravating circumstances
to imprisonment for a term
not exceeding 6 months.
D. Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding three months.
217. Any master who makes or
permits a false entry to be
made in the log book, shall
be liable to fines or
imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 1 year according
to:
a. The Ship Safety and
Security Act, Section 65..
b. The Maritime Act
c. The Public Administration
Act
d. The International Maritime
Organization's Act of
Maritime Activities
218. Any person serving on board
who without the permission
of the shipmaster leaves the
ship in distress or other
danger while the master still
on board shall be liable to
a. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 6
months.
b. Fines.
c. Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 12 months.
d. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 12
months.
219. Any shipmaster who in
distress or other danger
abandons the ship without
this being necessary shall be
liable to:
a. Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one year.
b. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding six
months.
c. Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding two years.
d. Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding three years.
220. Any shipmaster who refuses
to provide any person
carried on the ship with
anything which he is entitled
to receive in such capacity,
or who permits such refusal,
shall be liable to:
a. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 6
months, but not exceeding 1
year if there are especially
aggravating circumstances.
b. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 6
months, but not exceeding 9
months if there are
especially aggravating
circumstances.
c. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 12
months.
DPKPfor a
d. Fines or imprisonment
term not exceeding 6
months, but not exceeding 2
years if there are especially
aggravating circumstances.
221. Anyone who without valid
reason places, removes,
changes or conceals
nationality marks or
registration marks of a
registered ship shall be
liable to:
a. Fines.
b. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 6
months.
c. Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 6 months.
d. Fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 12
months.
222. For how long shall a ship's
log-book be kept on board?
a. For at least two years
b. As long as the master or
owner finds it necessary
c. It shall be delivered to a
Norwegian Consulate at first
practicable occasion
d. For at least five years
223. How can the master ensure
obedience?
a. He shall ensure obedience
by the use of force if he
finds it necessary, but not
use harsher means than the
circumstances make
necessary.
b. He has the power of denying
the seafarer their democratic
right if they refuse to obey
orders given.
c. By giving clear orders and
referring to the necessity of
having the work carried out
as ordered.
d. Only by giving clear orders
in an understandable
language. It is not allowed to
use any means which may
result in personal injuries.
514
224. If the master goes ashore, he
is obliged to inform:
a. The deck officer of the
highest rank present
b. Ship's agent
c. Chief Engineer Officer
d. The port authority
225. What are the master's duties
if punishable acts are
committed on board?
a. If at sea, the master shall
immediately undertake an
investigation, secure
evidence and take
statements, inform
Norwegian
Consulate/Maritime
Directorate
b. The company shall be
informed and shall take over
the case.
c. Alleged suspects should be
sent home at the first
opportunity.
d. The least possible fuss
should be made to ease over
the situation.
226. Who is responsible for
ensuring that ratings forming
part of a watch and
personnel assisting or
performing cargo operations
on tankers are properly
qualified?
a. It is incumbent on the
shipowners and the master
to ensure that the
requirements are complied
with and documented.
b. The manning agent is
responsible for proper
documentation, but the
master must confirm in
writing that the seafarer is
able to carry out his duties.
c. The national authorities of
seafarers are responsible for
issuing proper
documentation after having
controlled that the personnel
is adequately qualified.
d. The Administration of the
flag state is responsible for
controlling and documenting
the qualifications of all
seafarers employed on
board.
227. Who is responsible for the
ship being safely manned?
a. The master and the
shipowner are responsible
for the adequate manning of
the ship.
b. NMD is responsible for the
ship being at all times
adequately manned in
accordance with Norwegian
acts and regulations.
c. The shipping company shall
ensure that information on
the number and composition
of the crew is posted in the
ship and has the sole
responsibility for the ship
being adequately manned.
d. The manning agent is
responsible for supplying the
ship with adequately
qualified seafarers.
228. Are the seafarers entitled to
free boat service to exercise
their right to go ashore?
a. Where possible the master
shall provide such service.
Cost and other
circumstances may be taken
into consideration. Yes, but
only if it is combined with
the agent's use of the same
boat.
b. Yes, but only if it is
combined with the agent's
use of the same boat.
c. No, but he should assist the
seafarers in calling a boat.
d. No, boatservice to shore is
up to the seafarers to
acquire.
229. Can any ground be given for
dismissing a seafarer?
a. No, only those listed in the
Seamen's Act as dereliction
of duty.
b. Yes, if the master considers
the reason to be proper
c. Yes, if the seafarer DPKP is
unagreeable to the master
d. Yes, if the master is asked to
do so by members of the
crew
230. Do regulations on the scope
of the Seamen's Act apply:
a. To both passengers and
cargo ships? Yes.
b. To ships and mobile oil
drilling offfshore units?
Yes.
c. To cargo ships only? Yes.
d. To Norwegian and foreign
ships operating solely in
Norwegian waters? Yes.
231. Does the employer have to
give a reason for a notice of
termination?
a. Yes, if the seafrers demands
it
b. Yes, if grounded on factors
relating to the seafarer and
the seafarer demands it
c. Yes, if the notice of
termination is grounded on
factors relating to the
owners
d. The circumstances shall only
be disclosed to the manning
agent
232. Does the seafarer have a
right to leave service on
board for special reasons?
a. Yes, if the ship, for example,
is not in a seaworthy
condition for the voyage and
the master fails to take steps
to remedy the defects
b. Yes, provided the authorities
of the port do not deny him
entry into the country
c. Yes, if the ship has been
transferred to another
Norwegian owner
d. No, unless he is taken
seriously ill
233. For how long shall time
sheets concerning working
hours on board ships be kept
after their completion?
515
 a. For minimum 3 years
b. For as long as the seafarer is
in service
c. For at least 5 years
d. Until the settlement of
wages has been made
234. How shall accidents and
health hazards be prevented?
a. By all the other mentioned
alternatives.
b. By ensuring that the work is
properly organised and
executed and that
appropriate accidental
prevention equipment is
available and used.
c. By ensuring that the seafarer
is properly qualified and
informed of the hazards
inherent to the work.
d. By having elected or
appointed protection
supervisors and establishing
a Working Environment
Committee as prescribed.
235. Is it the duty of the Master to
see to it that legislation and
CWA/CBA are available to
seafarers on board?
a. The seafarers shall have
available for their use the
Seamen's and NIS-acts with
regulations, together with all
relevant CWA's/CBA's.
b. It is sufficient that the
master has the necessary
legislation on board for his
use. He can if necessary
explain this to the seafarers.
c. The seafarers have their
contracts and that is
sufficient.
d. If the seafarer have use for
this, they may write to the
manning agent for
information.
236. Is the crew entitled to
compensation if the master
has to reduce the diet during
a voyage?
a. Yes
b. Yes, but only if the voyage
has been longer then
calculated
c. Not if the crew has eaten
more than could be expected
d. No, the saving should be
used to buy new supplies
237. Is there any particular
procedure to be followed
when dismissing a seafarer?
a. A hearing shall be held
before a committee on
board.
b. His wages shall be settled
and he shall sign the
settlement.
c. The agent and shipping
company should be
informed.
d. The manning agent ordered
to send a new man onboard.
238. On what kind of document
shall working hours on
board ships be kept?
a. On a time sheet arranged by
the Norwegian Maritime
Directorate
b. On a settlement wages form
c. In an approved logbook
d. There is no obligation to
keep a journal
239. Shall the seafarer receive a
statement showing the
calculation of his wages?
a. Yes, showing how it has
been calculated and with
possible deductions.
b. Yes, but only at the request
of the seafarer.
c. Only for payments for
overtime.
d. He shall be told and make a
note himself.
240. The restriction of overtime
work is that the person shall
not be required, under
normal circumstances, to
work more than:
a. 14 hours per day
b. 12 hours per day
c. 16 hours per day
d. 10 hours per day
DPKPtotal
241. What are the average
working hours per week that
must be exceeded over a
period of at most one year
on board NIS ships?
a. 56 hors
b. 63 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 40 hours
242. What are the duties of a
master if a seafarer gets ill at
sea?
a. All the other mentioned
alternatives according to the
situation
b. Put him to bed and await the
situation
c. After observation and
checking the medical books,
check the medicine chest to
find suitable medication
d. Seek medical advice over
radio (Radio Medico/Radio
Medical).
243. What are the duties of a
master if he has to leave a
sick or injured seafarer
behind in a foreign port?
a. Notify nearest Norwegian
Consulate
b. Inform the manning agent
c. Settle the bills. Say goodbye
and send the seafarer
flowers or a get-well card
d. Inform the seafarer next to
him of his present address
244. What are the duties of the
master if a seafarer dies in
service on board?
a. The master shall notify next
of kin/ Norwegian
Consulate - arrange for
burial/ repatriation of
coffin/ashes - and maritime
inquiry
b. The master shall notify next
of kin, have them make
necessary arrangements
c. The master shall notify the
consul of the seafarer's home
country
d. The master may leave the
516
 case to an undertaker Medical Guide for ships") regular intervals, DPKP
that the
245. What are the duties of the and three pamphlets medical supplies are
master regarding a sick or regarding first aid. sufficient taking due respect
injured seafarer? b. None. There are no to the areas in which the
a. He shall arrange for proper mandatory requirements. ship is operating.
care, including medical care c. The first aid guide: c. The master, or an officer
b. He shall notify the seafarer's Resuscitation on board. authorised by him, shall
next of kin and await further d. An approved medical book check all medical equipment
orders at least twice a year and
c. He shall immediately notify 249. Which of the below word(s) order supplements to the
the manning agent and is defined as follows: stock from an approved
request guarantee for "Service on board a ship pharmacy.
payment in case of which gives the knowledge, d. The inspection shall be
hospitalization insight and skills required undertaken by a Norwegian
d. He shall arrange for proper for the issue of a certificate pharmacy or by a person
care within what he may or other document referred holding a degree in
find to be reasonable to in these regulations" pharmacy and approved by
expenses a. Seagoing service the Norwegian Maritime
b. On-board training Directorate.
246. What is the difference c. Serving
between the Safety d. Length of service 253. A rating has approved
Representative and the emergency preparedness
Working Environment 250. Which rights does a seafarer training, a certificate for
Committee's area of who is unfit for work watchkeeping in the deck
activity? normally have? department and 3 years of
a. The Safety Representative's a. Care, wages, free passage service time on deck and
field is the work situation, home necessary knowledge of
the committee’s the total b. Care English. What post is a
environment, also spare time c. A compensation equal to seafarer, with these required
b. The Safety Representative's wages for six months qualifications, qualified for
duties relate to the ratings, d. Free passage home on a Norwegian cargo
the committee’s to all vessel?
seafarers 251. Who is responsible for the a. As an able seaman
c. The committee is supervised storage and use of b. As an ordinary seaman
by the protection supervisor substances injurious to c. As a greaser
d. No difference health on board? d. As a motorman
a. The shipping company and
247. What is the main rules as to the master 254. A seaman's right to go
period of notice of b. The protection supervisor ashore on a day when shops
termination as per the c. The seafarer and offices are open is:
Seamen's Act? d. The shipping company's a. At least once a month if
a. One month inspector circumstances permit it
b. Three months for any b. Whenever he feels like it
employee 252. Who shall check the ship's c. To the masters discretion
c. 14 days medical supplies? d. The first call after a
d. 7 days a. A pharmacy authorised or seavoyage of 7 days or more
accepted by the Norwegian
248. Which mandatory Board of Health or, if no 255. An invalidated vessel's
handbooks for medical such pharnacy is available, certificate shall be:
treatment shall be carried on the master and a doctor A. Returned to the Ship Control
board? approved by a Norwegian via a Norwegian Consulate
a. One control book for special Consulate shall perform B. Kept on board for at least
medicines, one approved by inspection once every 12 three years
Norwegian authorities months. C. Destructed by the master
medical book ("International b. The master shall ensure, at D. Forwarded to NIS head

517
 office in Bergen, Norway
256. For how long shall a ship's
log-book be kept on board?
A. For at least three years
B. As long as the master or
owner finds it necessary
C. It shall be delivered to a
Norwegian Consulate at first
practicable occasion
D. For at least five years
257. How often shall a survey for
renewal of cargo ship safety
construction certificate be
carried out?
A. Every fifth year with a
periodical survey every 12.
Month.
B. Every year
C. Every fourth year provided
the lifesaving appliances are
inspected annually.
D. Every second year
258. If extensive repair to the
superstructure has been
carried out, it will affect the:
A. Load line certificate
B. Ship's safety certificate
C. Safety construction
certificate
D. Ship's trading certificate
259. The restriction of overtime
work is that no person shall
be required, under normal
circumstances, to work
more than:
a. 14 hours a day
b. 12 hours a day
c. 16 hours a day
d. 10 hours a day
260. To whom does the
requirement as to knowledge
of English apply?
a. Seafarers employed or
engaged on board ship on
the business of that ship as
part of the ship's
complement with designated
safety or pollution duties
b. Persons for whom a
certificate of competency is
not required, only for personnel DPKPassigned
c. Persons taking part in a specific dutys and
navigational watch responsibilities related to
d. The deck officers cargo or cargo equipment on
, for example, a liquefied
261. What are the contents of the tanker?
book "Excerpts from the A. A tankerman certificate
Norwegian Ship Control B. A tankerman certificate or
Legislation" ? sea service for at least 6
a. A compilation of Norwegian months
laws and regulations C. Documentation of the
concerning the safety of prescribed courses
ships and crew. D. Documentation of sea
b. Internationally adopted service on tankers for at
conventions for safety at sea least 6 months
and adequate manning of
ships. 265. Where do you find
c. The International regulations concerning
Classification societies washing of crockery and
instructions cutlery?
d. The SOLAS convention a. The regulations are a part of
the Norwegian Ship Control
262. What is the ISM Code? Legislation regulations,
a. The ISM Code is an concerning production and
international standard for the serving of foodstuffs.
safe management and b. There are no official
operation of ships and for regulations, but it is
pollution prevention. incumbent on the shipping
b. The ISM Code is an company to establish
International standard for the appropriate guidelines.
maintenance of ships and c. The regulations are
marine equipment. obligatory to land based
c. The ISM Code is a standard public places of refreshment
that is to ensure that rules only, but it is strongly
and regulations of the flag recommended that these
state are complied with in its regulations should be
territorial waters. adhered to on ships.
d. The ISM Code is an d. There are no such
International maritime regulations for Norwegian
dangerous goods code. ships.
263. What is the purpose of the 266. Who has the overall
unscheduled inspections on responsibility for the general
board ships? supervision of ships and for
a. To determine wether the matters governing the
ship is seaworthy seaworthiness of ships?
b. To issue a certificate of a. The Norwegian Maritime
seaworthiness Directorate
c. To issue a trading permit b. The maritime investigators
d. Mainly to determine whether c. The recognized
the manning regulations classification societies
have been adhered to d. The shipowners
267. Who is responsible for
264. What kind of permanent keeping documentation of
documentation is required the qualifications required
518
 for personnel on board?
a. The ship's master
b. The Norwegian Maritime
Directorate.
c. The ship's manning agent.
d. The ship owner.
268. Who shall check the ship's
medical supplies if the ship
is in a foreign port, for
example outside Europe?
a. A pharmacy authorised to do
so or if no such pharmacy is
available, the master and an
approved seamen's doctor
b. Any doctor
c. The protection supervisor
d. A nurse from an approved
seamen's hospital
269. As per the legislation in
question, a copy of the
provisions, as you know,
shall generally speaking be
accessible to the crew. Does
this apply as well as to a
collective wage agreement?
a. Yes, if an employment
agreement refers to the
collective wage agreement
b. Yes, provided ther collective
wage agreement applies to a
category of persons
c. No
d. The NIS Act does not
regulate this
270. At what number of crew
members is it mandatory to
have an Working
Environment Committee on
board?
a. Minimum eight crew
members.
b. Minimum twelve crew
members.
c. Minimum four crew
members.
d. Not mandatory.
271. How many Working
Environmental committee
members should be elected
on a ship with a crew of 13
members?
A. 1 member
B. 2 members.
C. 5 members.
D. 0 members
272. To which Act(s) do(es) the
special provisions relating to
the seafarers in the Act
chiefly relate?
A. The Act relating to hours of
work and the Seamen's Act
B. The Seamen's Act and the
Seaworthiness Act
C. The Seaworthiness Act
D. The Certification Act
273. Which provisions
concerning holidays must
the master ensure that is
carried onboard?
A. The Act relating to holydays
and Regulations relating to
holydays for employees on
ships.
B. The Act relating to holydays
and the NIS Act.
C. The Act relating to holydays
and the Seamen's Act.
D. The Regulations relating to
holydays for employees on
ships and the relevant wages
agreement only.
274. Who is responsible for
implementation of working
environment work on board?
A. Both master and shipping
company.
B. Shipping company.
C. Master.
D. Government.
275. All requirements of the ISM
code are to ensure that safe
practices are taken into
account in ship operation
through written procedures.
These requirements include
the following information:
…………….
A. All of these.
B. The provisions to prepare
for and respond to
emergency situations and
procedures for internal
DPKP
audits and management
review.
C. The defined levels of
authority and lines of
communication between and
amongst shore and
shipboard personnel.
D. The procedures for reporting
accidents and non-
conformities with the
provisions of the Code.
276. The functional requirements
for a Safety Management
System is to develop,
implement and maintain a
system which includes the
following :……………..
A. 1) maintain a
correspondence system
ship/shore
2) issue the required Letters
of Instruction (Fleet Letters)
to the ship.
B. 1) contact addresses and
telephone numbers of Port-
State Control of countries
visited
2) contact addresses of Flag
State authorities.
C. 1) a safety and
environmental protection
policy
2) instructions and
procedures to ensure safe
operations and protection of
the environment.
D. 1) safe navigation and Rules
of the Road
2) instructions to masters
and chief engineers
3) office staff Home
telephone numbers.
277. Under ISM, the Company
should establish
………….to describe how
the objectives of the ISM
code willbe achieved.
A. Circulation of informative
guidelines
B. Company regulations
C. A safety and environmental
policy
D. Company newsletters
519

278. Under the ISM code the
Company must ensure that
the Safety and
Environmental Policy is
…………….
A. Known and implemented by
all masters and chief
engineers.
B. Known and implemented by
all Officers and members of
the ships crew.
C. Known and maintained at all
levels of the organisation
both ship based as well as
shore based.
D. Known by all ships officers.
279. The safety objectives and
requirements of a Company
may be …………..standards
required by the ismcode ?
A. Set above
B. Asubstrtute for
C. Set below
D. Deviating from
280. A Company's safety
management objectives and
requirements, which are set
above the standards of the
ISM code, should be
…………..
A. Totally disregarded since not
enforceable.
B. Erased as far as excessive
standards are concerned.
C. Encouraged and supported.
D. Discouraged.
281. It is the responsibility of the
Company to define and
document the company's
………… which forms an
integral part of the Safety
Management System ?
A. Legal policy objectives
B. Ethics and environment
objectives
C. Safety management
objectives
D. Trading policy objectives
282. Under ISM, the holder of the
DOC or Document of
Compliance is the company DPKP
C. Becomes the responsibility
who ………..the ship. of that subcontractor
A. Has chartered D. Is to be defined contractual
B. Owns as to who has the
C. Has mortgaged responsibility beforehand
D. Has assumed responsibility
for the operation of 286. Under ISM, during
assessment for issue and
283. Under ISM, can a company compliance with a DOC the
contract with third parties to auditor must be satisfied that
manage specific ship related the company is in control of
activities such as manning, ……………
technical support or A. The subcontractors'
maintenance ? personnel and resources.
A. Yes, it is allowed B. All activities concerning the
B. No, it is not longer allowed Safety Management System
C. Yes, only for manning which have been
D. Yes, only for technical subcontracted.
support and manning, not for C. The subcontractors'
maintenance insurance system.
D. The financial portfolio of the
284. Under ISM, if the Company subcontractors.
has subcontracting
arrangements for manning, 287. Under ISM, the company
technical support or should define and document
maintenance, how many the responsibility, authority
Documents of Compliance and interrelation of all
are to be issued ? personnel who manage,
A. Only one DOC can be issued perform and verify work
to the Company relating to and affecting
B. One DOC is issued to the safety and pollution
company and one DOC is prevention. How ?
issued to the the manning A. By notice sheets to be posted
company only on the notice boards in the
C. One DOC is issued to the Crews and Officers Mess
Company and one for each room.
subcontractor B. By wall posters in the
D. One DOC is issued to the accommodation of the
Company and one DOC is affected ships
required for the maintenance C. By charts and/or job
as well as for the technical descriptions to identify
support company, not for positions related to safety
manning. and pollution prevention
activities for each functional
285. Linder ISM, any area
responsibility imposed on D. By legal notices in the
the Company by the ISM media, defining the
Code which is Company Board
subcontracted…….. responsibility and command
A. Remains the responsibility flow chart
of the Company
B. Becomes the joint 288. Under ISM, what kind of
responsibility of the support is to be provided to
Company and the the Designated Person in
subcontractor order to carry out his
520
 functions ?
A. All of these.
B. Freedom to travel worldwide
at will
C. An executive salary and a
company car
D. Adequate resources and
shore based support
289. Under ISM, the
responsibility and authority
of the Designated Person
should include………….
A. Monitoring the safety and
pollution prevention aspects
of the operation of each ship
B. Having overall control over
all company departmental
heads
C. Being a member of the
Board of the Company
D. Final control over all
shipboard operations and
maintenance activities
290. Under ISM, what
qualifications are required
by the Designated Person ?
A. A master certificate
B. Appropriate knowledge and
experience associated with
verification and control of
safety and pollution
prevention requirements of
the ISM code
C. Twenty years seagoing
experience
D. A university degree
291. Under ISM, is shipboard
presence required by the
Designated Person ?
A. Every 2 to 3 months
B. May be necessary
C. Is not required at all
D. Frequent lengthy stays on
board are required
292. Under ISM, who is
responsibility to implement
the Company's Safety and
Environmental Policy on
board ?
A. The senior Officer's
B. The Designated Person's
C. The Master's
D. The entire crew's
293. Under ISM, how could it be
assessed whether or not the
Master has effectively
implemented the Safety and
Environmental Protection
policy as defined by the
Company ?
A. By the state of cleanliness
on board
B. By judging the moral of the
officers and crew on board
C. Through interviewing
officers and crew
D. By looking at the lifeboats,
fire fighting equipment and
at the oily water separator
294. Under ISM, who should
motivate the crew to observe
the Safety and
Environmental policy on
board ?
A. The Master
B. The Company's shore based
and shipboard management
C. All ships officers
D. The senior officers
295. Under ISM, what methods
should be used to motivate
the crew to observe the
Safety and Environmental
protection policy ?
A. Ensure that the crew
understands that they will be
dismissed and will have to
pay their own air fare if they
do not observe the policy
B. Ensure that the crew
understand how they will
personally benefit from the
implementation as well as
encouraging reception of
ownership
C. Ensure that copies of the
Company's policy are given
to all shipboard personnel
D. Ensure that the crew
understands the dangers
present on board and the
heavy fines to be paid for
Pollution
DPKP
296. How can the crew be helped
to understand how they
personally benefit from the
SEP policy and how could
their perception of
ownership be encouraged ?
A. Through regular meetings at
which the crew members are
encouraged to participate in
the continuous development
of the objectives of the SEP
B. By distribution of Nature,
Health &Wealth or the like
magazines and by asking
them to open a savings
account
C. By encouraging then to join
Green Peace or any other
environmental group
D. By the Company's monthly
newsletter
297. Under ISM, the master must
implement the Company's
Safety and Environmental
policy and should issue
appropriate orders and
instructions in a clear and
simple manner. How is this
to be done ?
A. By Standing Orders, Bridge
night order book, as
examples
B. Tell what is expected in a
casual and amicable way
during social gatherings to
officers and crew
C. By telling each and every
crew member what to do
exactly in a clear voice
D. By calling the ship's
compliment together and
give short orders in clear
English
298. It is the Master's
responsibility to verify that
the specific requirements
(procedures and
instructions) regarding the
Safety Management System
are observed. Who will
actually verify this on board
?
521
 A. The Designated Person
B. The Master
C. The Master and Officers
D. The Chief Engineer
299. What are the best means of
verifying that specked
requirements (procedures
and instructions) regarding
the Safety Management
System are observed ?
A. By computerizing all
specified requirements and
have an officer assigned as
input controller
B. By dividing the
responsibility amongst
officers who have to keep
their own Safety Work Book
C. By use of a check list for
verification of
actions/activities cof crew
members
D. By inspecting the Deck and
Engine work book daily by
the Master
300. It is the Master's
responsibility of reviewing
the Safety Management
System and reporting its
deficiencies to ………..
A. The shore based
management
B. The classification society
C. The Flag state authorities
D. The Port state control of the
next port of call
301. The Master's review
reporting on the Safety
Management system should
include any deficiencies and
may include
…………..
A. A list of unsatisfactory crew
members who are not to be
rehired by the Company.
B. A list of keen and safety and
environmental aware crew
members who are to be
promoted
C. Proposals for corrective
action and recommendations
for improving the SMS.
D. The officer's and crew's
appraisal reports
302. Whenever the Master, in his
role as the responsible
person for on-board safety,
finds a deficiency in the
Safety Management system
relevant to the ships
operation he should
…………
A. Inform the P & I club.
B. Make note in the log book of
this deficiency.
C. Correct the deficiency and
make note of the correction
applied in the official log
book.
D. Inform the Company.
303. When is the Master to
review the Safety
Management System and to
report to the Company ?
A. Prior to change of command
B. The Company should set a
standard interval for such
reviews
C. Whenever there is a
deficiency noted on board
D. Prior to the arrival of the
external auditor every year
304. Should the Master's
authority be emphasized in
the Safety Management
system ?
A. The Master is to be
mentioned as the
Responsible Person in
charge of implementing the
SMS
B. The overriding
responsibility of the Master
is self evident and need not
to be repeated in the SMS
C. The Master is to be
mentioned as the juridical
person in command of the
vessel
D. The Company should ensure
that the SMS operating on
board the ship contains a
clear statement emphasizing
the Master's authority
DPKP
305. Under ISM, the overriding
authority of the Master
applies …………….
A. In case of oil spill clean-ups
B. In normal circumstances
C. In both normal and extreme
circumstances
D. In emergency and extreme
circumstances
306. It should be checked that the
Company has documented
that the Master has
overriding responsibility and
authority as required
…………..
A. By the Company's Main
Policy Objective
B. By the SOLAS Convention
C. By the International
Association of Classification
Societies
D. By the Shipowners Trust
Fund
307. The Company must be sure
that the Master is
…………….
A. A safety and environmental
protection licensed person.
B. A person in good standing
with the P & I club
association.
C. Properly qualified for
command.
D. Not blacklisted by the U.S.
Coast Guard or any other
Port state control.
308. Verification of the master's
qualifications should be
done firstly by …………..
A. Interview of the candidate
with emphasis on safety and
environmental awareness.
B. Drug and alcohol test.
C. Confirmation of the validity
of his certificates in
compliance with the STCW
convention.
D. Medical examination.
309. The Company should ensure
that the Master is informed
522
 of all requirements relating
to safety and environmental
protection by ……………..
A. Having the Superintendents
prepare monthly information
sheets
B. Including such requirements
in operating instructions.
C. Reminding him time to time.
D. Having the Designated
Person sent on board at
specified intervals.
310. To make sure that the
Master and the crew
understand the tasks
required of them by the
Safety Management System
………..should be
described.
A. The vessel's safety
equipment
B. Safety and environmental
protection hazards
C. Job responsibilities
D. The ship's voyage and cargo
details
311. Masters are to be given the
necessary support so that
they can perform their duties
safely. Support from the
Company includes
……………
A. Having port watchmen
assigned on the ship in every
port.
B. Having diver inspections
carried out at least every 6
months.
C. Mantaining the required DPKP
compliment and onboard
expertise
D. Having the ship drydocked
every 30 months.
312. Manning requirements and
qualifications are part of
……….with which the
Company should be
familiar.
A. The shipping business
B. National and International
requirements
C. The manpower industry
D. Crew management
responsibilities
313. The Company should have a
system in place for firstly
………….personnel,
especially if obtained
through a manning agent.
A. Briefing
B. Joining and offsigning
C. Dismissing
D. Selecting
314. To confirm seafarers as
medically first is generally
difficult …………
A. Since there is usually
insufficient time for a
thorough medical check up.
B. Since seaman have the
tendency to hide illness.
C. Since there are no
International or National
standards.
D. Since medical certificates
cannot be verified
523

10. Menerapkan kepemimpinan dan manajerial
(Use of leadership and managerial )
1. It is the Master's
responsibility to ensure that:
A. Concerned personnel carry
out the on-board traing
progamme effectively
B. All information reagrding
the onboard training is given
to the ship manager
C. All personnel participate in
the training at the same time
D. Safety equipment is not used
during the training
2. Master of every ship must
provide:
A. A link between the
shipboard training officer
and the company training
officer ashore
B. Facilities to conduct training
whenever required by the
training officer
C. Proper rest to the crew after
each training programme
D. The training during crews
working hours only
3. Onboard training should be
organised in such a way that:
A. It is an integral part of the
overall training plan
B. It does not contravene with
the rest hours of the crew
C. Each crew member is
trained individually
D. None of the above
4. The majority of convensions
adopted under the auspices
of IMO fall into which of
the three main categories:
A. Maritime Safety, Prevention
of Marine pollution,
Liability and compensation
B. Maritime Safety, STCW,
Maritime Security
C. Safety, Terrorism, ILO
D. There are no conentions that
fall under IMO
5. To maintain good
relationship among the crew
on board a vessel, one must
be:
A. Understanding, Co-
operative, and have respect
from both sides
B. Strict and authoritative while
giving orders
C. Polite and diplomatic while
talking to crew members
D. Give authority to others
6. Why is it important to have
good relationship on-board a
vessel?
A. It leads to better work
performance and positive
atmosphere among the crew
B. It will prevent accidents
from happening
C. It encourages crew to extend
their contract
D. Crew comes to know each
others problems
7. Why is it important to make
weekly/routine rounds in the
accomodation areas?
A. To ensure that cabins and
common spaces are
maintained in a clean, safe
and hygienic condition
B. To search for any
contraband goods hidden on
board
C. It is a requirement as per
flag state
D. To check for alcohol in
cabins
8. All necessary information
for the next port of call
should be:
A. Procured before departure
from a port
B. Procured during the voyage
prior arrival at the next port
C. Procured on arrival at the
next port
D. Requested on email
DPKP
9. An emergency situation on
board must be reported to
the company by:
A. The fastest means available
B. The Telex to have a record
C. The email to save cost
D. The Sat-C
10. If Master finds reason to
doubt whether the agent is
giving the vessel's interest
full and proper attention he
should:
A. Investigate the matter
carefully and report the
findings to the company
a. Report the matter to the
harbour Master
b. Report to the vessel P & I
club
c. Change the agent
11. Prior to arrival at a US port
from a foreign port, as per
present regulation, the
USCG requires:
A. 96 hours notice of arrival
B. 72 hours notice of arrival
C. 48 hours notice of arrival
D. 24 hour notice of arrival
12. Prior to ordering stores for
any department;
A. The store inventory should
be checked so that you order
only the items required
B. Consult the ISSA catalogue
to ascertain what stores are
available for ordering
C. Consult the ISSA catalogue
and order whatever is
available but not on board
D. Ask the departmental head
for a list of store to be
ordered
13. Proper and accurate
inventory of stores should be
maintained inorder to:
A. Control the ship's budget
B. Order the required stores
168
C. Report to the office
D. Show to the port authorities
14. Representative of the port
authorities should always
receive the best possible
treatment:
A. For ship's clearance to take
place quickly and without
complications
B. Because you always have
some faults in
arrival/departure documents
C. Because the ship's trading
certificate are not normally
in order
D. Because you have
undeclared dutiable items in
excess of permitted on board
15. The office phone, fax, telex
and after office hours
telephone numbers can be
found in:
A. The Ship's emergency
contingency manual
B. Vessel health, safety and
environment manual
C. Vessel operation manual
D. Radio log book
16. The responsible person for
maintaining budget on board
normally is:
A. Master
B. Chief Engineer
C. Chief Officer
D. Chief Stewar
17. Where will you normally
find the ship's documents
including Crew Passports
and CDC on board a vessel?
A. Ship's Office
B. Master's cabin
C. On the bridge
D. Telly clerk room
18. Which of the following will
be reported to a company on
the emergency phone?
A. All accidents where crew are
injured or killed
B. All arrival and departure
time from port
C. All cases concerning cargo
shortages
D. All near misses
19. Which of these is not a
principle of great man
theory?
A. Leaders are born not made.
B. Great men rise up in times
of crisis.
C. We can learn from the
biographies of great leaders.
D. A great leader is only great
in certain situations.
20. In leadership trait theory
what is a trait?
A. A list of the things that make
leaders different to everyone
else.
B. A list of the key things that a
leader should do to be great.
C. The list of key behaviours a
leader exhibits.
D. A list of key characteristics
that makes a leader great.
21. What is Skinner's A-B-C of
behaviourism?
A. Antecedents-behaviour-
consequences
B. Attitude-behaviour-
conclusions
C. Aptitude-behaviour-
consequences
D. Antecents-behaviour-
conditioning
22. Contingency theory is based
on the assumption that the
ideal leader:
A. Shapes their leadership style
depending on the situation.
B. Provides clear instructions to
the followers so that they
know what they are doing.
C. Knows what their strengths
are and makes the most out
of them.
D. Spends time with their
followers and therefore
listens and responds to their
needs.
23. A transactional leader is one
who: DPKP
A. Inspires people and has
strong interactions with
them
B. Does deals with people in
order to get them to do
things the leader wants
C. Is the ideal form of
leadership
D. Works for long-term goals
of the organization
24. What is a transformational
leader?
A. Someone who is involved in
organizational change.
B. A leader, like Taylor, who
provided new ways of
carrying out management.
C. A leader who inspires the
workers to new levels by
offering them a vision of a
better future.
D. A leader who tries to
transform their staff by
giving them rewards for
what they do.
25. What is post-heroic
leadership theory?
A. A theory which states that
there is too much emphasis
on leaders and more
attention should be placed
on followers.
B. A theory looking beyond
current leadership styles to
new, more creative ways of
leading.
C. A theory which tries to
create new organizations
which do not need leaders.
D. A theory which tries to find
the ideal form of leadership.
26. What is the social
construction of leadership?
A. The view that all leadership
is social and what matters is
how leaders interact with
others.
B. Leadership is a made up idea
that therefore we should pay
more attention to more
significant aspects of the
168
 organization.
C. What counts as good
leadership is a construction
of the perceptions of the
followers.
D. Leadership is something that
the leader constructs as they
meet with others.
27. Which of the following
statements concerning the
rational and emotional
aspects of leadership is
false?
A. Leaders can use rational
techniques and/or emotional
appeals in order to influence
followers
B. Leadership includes actions
and influences based only on
reason and logic
C. Aroused feelings can be
used either positively or
negatively
D. Good leadership involves
touching others’ feelings
28. To many, the word
management suggests
A. Dynamism
B. Risk-taking
C. Efficiency
D. Creativity
29. According to the text,
leadership is often more
associated with
A. Consistency
B. Planning
C. Paperwork
D. Change
30. This is a conventional
distinction made between
managers and leaders.
A. Managers maintain while
leaders develop
B. Managers innovate while
leaders administer
C. Managers inspire while
leaders control
D. Managers originate while
leaders imitate
31. Which of the following
statements about leaders
versus managers is false?
A. Leadership is a value-laden,
activity, management is not
B. Leaders focus on risk taking;
managers perform functions
such as planning and
controlling
C. Leaders are thought to do
things right, managers do the
right things
D. Leaders develop, managers
maintainunit 1 Examination
29 Leadership
32. According to the text, which
of the following statements
is true?
A. Leadership and management
have some unique functions
with an area of overlap
B. A good leader can be a good
manager, but the reverse is
never true
C. Leadership and management
are not related
D. Leadership and management
are effectively the same for
all practical purposes
33. What best describes the
leader-follower relationship?
A. The relationship is a one-
way street
B. Leadership and followership
are the same thing
C. Leadership and followership
merge and are linked
concepts
D. It is based on the idea of
‘one-man leadership’
34. Ideal leaders according to a
survey were commonly
characterized as all of the
following except
A. Honest
B. Competent
C. Forward-looking
D. Cooperative
35. According to a survey
research by Judith Rosener,
in terms of their
leadership experiences,
DPKP
A. Women tended to describe
themselves in transactional
terms
B. Men tended to describe
themselves in somewhat
transformational terms
C. Men influenced others
primarily in terms of
personal characteristics
D. Women helped subordinates
develop commitment for
broader goals than their own
self-interest
36. What term did Rosener coin
to describe how some
women leaders encouraged
participation and shared
power and information, but
went far beyond what is
commonly thought of as
participative management?
A. Autocratic leadership
B. Laissez faire leadership
C. Interactive leadership
D. Transactional leadershipunit
1 Examination
30 Leadership
37. Women leaders’ interactive
leadership style developed
A. Due to their socialization
experiences and career paths
B. Because of exchanges with
subordinates for services
rendered
C. By influencing others
primarily through their
organizational position and
authority
D. Because of their
organizational position
38. According to female
executives, what is the major
factor that prevents
senior female executives
from advancing to corporate
leadership?
A. Lack of significant general
management
B. Male stereotyping and
preconceptions
C. Inhospitable corporate
culture
169
D. Exclusion from informal
networks
39. According to female
executives. Which of the
following factors least
prevents women from
advancing to corporate
leadership?
A. Women not being in the
pipeline long enough
B. Exclusion from informal
networks
C. Inhospitable corporate
culture
D. Lack of significant line
experience
40. Most male ceos attribute the
paucity of women in
corporate leadership roles to
which of the following?
A. Exclusion from informal
networks
B. Women not in pipeline long
enough .
C. Male stereotyping and
preconceptions
D. Inadequacies in the quality
of experience for the top
spots
41. According to a recent study,
one of the general factors
that explains the shift toward
more women leaders is that
women themselves have
change
It is evident in all except:
A. A trend toward less
stereotypically masculine
characterizations of
leadership
B. Women’s aspirations and
attitudes have become less
similar to those of men over
time
C. A legislation prohibiting
gender-based discrimination
at work
D. Changes in organizational
norms that put a higher
priority on results than an
“old boy” network
42. The symbolic message often
intended by appointment of
women to
important leadership
positions is evidence of the
fact that
A. Culture has changed
B. Women themselves have
changed
C. Leadership roles have
changed
D. Organizational practices
have changed
43. Which of the following
statements concerning the
reflection component of the
AOR model is false?
A. Leaders are always aware of
the value of reflection in
leadership development
B. It is the most neglected
component of the AOR
model
C. It can provide leaders with a
variety of insights into how
to frame problems
differently
D. A reason for the reflection
component to be neglected
often may be due to time
pressure at work
44. What describes a kind of
learning between the
individual and
the environment in which
learners seek relatively little
feedback that
may significantly confront
their fundamental ideas or
actions?
A. Deutero-learning
B. Double loop learning
C. Triple-loop learning
D. Single-loop learning
45. Confronting one’s beliefs,
inviting others to challenge
you and working on
personal blind spots are
aspects of the process of
A. Attribution
B. Double-loop learning
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Single-loop learningDPKP
46. Mastering _____ can be
thought of as learning how
to learn.
A. Double-loop learning
B. Single-loop learning
C. Deutero-learning
D. Triple-loop learningunit 1
Examination 32
47. People who become leaders
in any field tend to first
stand out by virtue of their
A. Interpersonal skills
B. Technical proficiency
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Intercultural competence
48. In an organization, one can
gain valuable perspectives
and insights through close
association with an
experienced person willing
to take one under his/her
wing. Such an individual is
often called a
A. Supervisor
B. Facilitator
C. Role model
D. Mentor
49. The process by which an
older and more experienced
person helps to socialize and
encourage younger
organizational colleagues is
called
A. Evaluating
B. Consulting
C. Mentoring
D. Networking
50. How are mentorees
benefited in a mentoring
relationship?
A. By gaining an influential
ally and by learning about
the subtler aspects of
organizational ethics
B. By the greater influence they
accrue by having former
mentorees in various
positions across the
organization
170
C. By having a younger
replacement ready to fill
their position if they are
promoted
D. By encouraging younger
colleagues in the
organization
51. What is seen as an
investment that can help
change counterproductive
behavior, often
interpersonal, that threatens
to derail an otherwise valued
manager?
A. Mentoring
B. Executive coaching
C. Team building
D. Change management
52. The proper way to correct a
mistake in the logbook is to
__________.
A. Erase the entry and rewrite
B. Draw several lines through
the entry, rewrite, and initial
the correction
C. Completely black out the
entry, rewrite, and initial the
correction
D. Draw one line through the
entry, rewrite, and initial the
correction
53. Your vessel is in a foreign
port and you find that one of
the crew members has been
incarcerated for
drunkenness. The Official
Logbook shows that the
seaman doesn't have funds
to cover the costs of the fine.
Which action should the
Master take?
A. Inventory his gear and send
it and a pay voucher ashore
with the agent.
B. Leave the seaman in jail and
log him as a fail to join after
the vessel sails.
C. Leave the seaman in jail and
log him as a deserter after
the vessel sails.
D. Pay the seaman's fine.
54. An alien crewmember with a
D-1 permit leaves the vessel
in a foreign port and fails to
return. The first report you
make should be to the
__________.
A. Customs Service
B. Immigration Service
C. Local police
D. OCMI
55. Your vessel is on an
extended foreign voyage.
Several vacancies have
occurred in your unlicensed
crew through sickness and
repatriation. Which
statement is correct?
A. Aliens may be employed
except that all U.S. flag
vessels must maintain no
less than 90% U.S. citizens
in the crew.
B. Qualified aliens may be
employed to fill the
vacancies.
C. Seamen to fill vacancies
must be flown from U.S. to
join the vessel in the foreign
port.
D. Vacancies can only be filled
by U.S. citizens with valid
Merchant Mariner's
Documents.
56. While a vessel is in a foreign
port where there is no
American Consul, a seaman
becomes violent prior to
sailing. The Master should
__________.
A. Call local police, put the
seaman in prison ashore, and
sail the vessel
B. Pay off the seaman and
make arrangements with the
agent to return him to the
original port of signing on in
the U.S.
C. Put the seaman in irons and
sail to the next port where
there is an American Consul
D. Send the seaman ashore and
arrange with the agent to
repatriate him by armed
guard DPKP
57. A seaman is entitled by law
to a release from Foreign
Articles when __________.
A. Intoxicated
B. The vessel is overloaded
C. There is a change of home
port
D. There is a change of Master
58. A vessel arrives in a foreign
port and the Master is
informed that the vessel is
being sold to foreign
interests. The new owners
request that the crew remain
on board to complete the
voyage. Under these
circumstances, the crew
__________.
A. Has the right to an
immediate discharge and
transportation to original
port of engagement
B. Must remain on board
C. Must comply with the
decision made by the Master
D. Must remain aboard until the
vessel is delivered to the
new owners at a mutually
agreed upon port
59. Who is responsible for
providing urine specimen
collection kits to be used
following a serious marine
incident?
A. Qualified medical personnel
B. The marine employer
C. The U.S. Coast Guard
D. The local police department
60. If there are any changes in
the crew in a foreign port,
the changes will be made by
__________.
A. The Master on the Certified
Crew List
B. The Master on the Shipping
Articles
C. Consul on the Certified
Crew List
D. Consul on the Shipping
Articles
171

61. The damage to a vessel is
over $25,000. Who must
notify the nearest Coast
Guard Marine Safety or
Marine Inspection Office as
soon as possible?
A. The crew members
B. The Master of the vessel
C. The port authorities
D. All of the above
62. A seaman lost his
continuous discharge book
during the voyage. Upon
discharge from Articles, he
should be issued a
__________.
A. Letter of service on
company letterhead signed
and sealed by the master
B. Record of Entry in a
Continuous Discharge Book
for use in applying for a
duplicate book
C. Certificate of Discharge with
the white copy forwarded to
the Commandant
D. Mutual Release (CG-2119),
and the articles should be
annotated as to the loss
63. A seaman about to be
discharged has a Continuous
Discharge Book. Which
statement is TRUE?
A. A Certificate of Discharge
Form should be attached to
the book.
B. An entry should be made in
the book and a Certificate of
Discharge Form issued to
the seaman.
C. If a vessel was on coastwise
articles, the record of
discharge will be made in
the Official Logbook.
D. The record of entry in the
book must be submitted to
the Coast Guar
64. Total responsibility for
shipping and discharging the
seamen is that of the
__________.
A. Master of the vessel
B. Steamship company
C. Custom Service
D. Coast Guard
65. Which action will take place
if a crew member is replaced
in a U.S. port after foreign
articles have been signed,
and the ship proceeds
foreign?
A. The Master will remove the
replaced man's name from
the Certified Crew List but
not from the articles.
B. The name of the new man is
added to the articles but not
to the Certified Crew List.
C. The U.S. Consul will
remove the replaced man's
name from the Certified
Crew List.
D. The U.S. Consul will add the
new man's name to the
Certified Crew List.
66. The owner, agent, Master or
person-in-charge of a "T-
Boat" involved in a marine
casualty causing injury that
requires professional
medical treatment must
__________.
A. Immediately notify the
nearest USCG MSO, MIO,
or Group Office
B. Keep all voyage records and
make them available to
Coast Guard investigators
C. File a written report
(CG2692) of the casualty
within five days
D. All of the above
67. What requires a Report of
Marine Accident, Injury or
Death?
A. Collision with a bridge
B. Injury beyond first aid
C. Loss of life
D. All of the above
68. Operators of Uninspected
Passenger Vessels are
required to keep their Coast
Guard License aboardDPKP
__________.
A. Only when operating more
than one mile from shore
B. Only when operating at
night
C. Only when carrying
passengers for hire
D. At all times
69. You have completed a
Dangerous Cargo Manifest
for dangerous cargoes
loaded on boar It should be
kept in a conspicuous
location __________.
A. In the radio room
B. In the ship's office
C. On or near the bridge
D. Outside the Captain's
stateroom
70. You are steaming in a heavy
gale and find it necessary to
heave to. Under most
circumstances, this is best
done by __________.
A. Stopping the engines and
drifting beam to the seas
B. Going slow astern and
taking the seas on the
quarter
C. Taking the sea fine on the
bow and reducing the speed
to the minimum to hold that
position
D. Maintaining speed and
taking the sea broad on the
bow
71. The document which shows
a vessel's nationality,
ownership, and tonnage is
the __________.
A. Manifest Certificate
B. Bill of Lading Certificate
C. Certificate of
Documentation
D. Official Logbook
72. The official identification of
a vessel is found in the
__________.
A. Certificate of Inspection
B. Classification Certificate
172
C. Load Line Certificate
D. Certificate of
Documentation
73. The term bullwhip effect is
most closely related to:
A. Assertive customers
B. Demand variations
C. Inventory turnover
D. Return of inventory
E. Inventory security
74. Cross docking results in cost
savings associated with
A. Dock space
B. Ordering goods
C. Cargo ships
D. Storage space
E. Down time
75. Which one is not a
requirement of effective
supply chain management?
A. Low cost
B. Trust
C. Event management
D. Visibility
76. The term "3PL" is most
closely associated with
A. Outsourcing
B. E-commerce
C. Learning curves
D. Mass customization
E. Cross docking
77. The letters RFID are most
closely associated with
A. Outsourcing
B. Tracking items
C. Cross docking
D. Event management
E. None of these.
78. Which one of these would
have a negative impact on
inventory costs?
A. Disintermediation
B. Delayed differentiation
C. Cross docking
D. Bullwhip effect
79. Which one is not a reason
for increased emphasis on
supply chain management?
A. Increased levels of
outsourcing
B. Increased transportation
costs
C. Trends towards
globalization
D. The need to improve internal
operations
80. Which of the following
statements concerning
manufacturing and service
organizations is generally
true?
A. A service facility is more
likely to serve national or
even international markets
B. Manufacturing organizations
generally find it more
difficult to match capacity
with demand
C. In many service
organizations customers
themselves are inputs to the
transformation processes.
D. Most service organizations
can buffer themselves
against uncertain demand by
creating inventories and
smoothing output levels.
81. Operations typically differ in
terms of volume of output,
variety of output, variation
in demand or the degree of
‘visibility’ (ie, customer
contact) that they give to
customers of the delivery
process. Please match the
following element with the
most appropriate of the
above dimensions. Low unit
costs are most closely
matched to:-
A. Variety
B. Variation
C. Volume
D. Visibility
82. Which of the following is an
implication of low variety?
A. Low unit cost
B. Flexibility needed
C. High complexity
D. Matching customers specific
needs DPKP
83. In a service organisation
faced with variable demand
the Operations Manager can
help smooth demand by:
A. Using part-time help during
peak hours
B. Scheduling work shifts to
vary workforce needs
according to demand
C. Increase the customer self-
service content of the
service
D. Using reservations and
appointments
84. When developing the
operations strategy one of
the most important
considerations is that it:
A. Requires minimal capital
investment
B. Utilises as much automation
as possible
C. Utilises an equal balance of
labour and automation
D. Supports the overall
competitive strategy of the
company
85. A order qualifying
characteristic could be
described as :
A. A factor which significantly
contributes to winning
business
B. A factor which may be of
significance in other parts of
the organisation
C. A factor which is at a higher
level than the standard for
the industry
D. A factor which has to
achieve a particular level to
be considered by the
customer
86. Expansion by acquisition of
suppliers and customers,
illustrates which of the
following strategies
A. Vertical integration strategy
B. Facilities strategy
C. Planning and control
173
 systems strategy
D. Supplier development
strategy
87. Process design or redesign is
most important when
A. Current performance is
adequate
B. You have a significant
competitive advantage
C. Competitive priorities have
changed
D. The cost of inputs remain
stable
88. Service shops are
characterised as which of the
following?
A. Some customer contact, a
degree of customisation and
some staff discretion
B. Project orientated with little
customisation
C. Many customer transactions,
involving limited contact
time
D. High-contact organisations
where customers spend a
considerable time in the
service process
89. A big advantage of a process
layout is
A. Its flexibility
B. Its low cost
C. The ability to employ low-
skilled labour
D. Its high equipment
utilization
90. As production systems move
from projects to batch
production to mass
production to continuous
production
A. Processes become more
flexible
B. Customer involvement with
the process increases
C. Products become more
standardised
D. Demand volumes decrease
91. Which one of the following
reactive alternatives would
typically be best to
implement a chase strategy
for a manufacturing firm?
A. Use creative pricing to
modify demand
B. Build anticipation inventory
to absorb the variability in
demand
C. Increase overtime to satisfy
peaks in demand
D. Use promotional campaigns
to boost demand
92. Buffer inventory is required
as :
A. One or more stages in the
operation cannot supply all
the items it produces
simultaneously
B. Material cannot be
transported instantaneously
between the point of supply
and the point of demand
C. Compensation for the
uncertainties inherent in
supply and demand
D. Compensation for
differences in the timing of
supply and demand
93. At a strategic level, the
essential role of inventory is
to support :
A. Quality, dependability,
flexibility, cost and speed
B. Flexibility, dependability
and quality
C. Cost and speed
D. Range, speed, flexibility and
dependability
94. Where demand is uncertain,
a key purchasing objective
will be :
A. Fast delivery
B. High quality
C. Low price
D. Dependable delivery
95. In lean systems, if a
defective product if found,
which of the following is
generally NOT done?
A. The production line is
stopped
B. The defective unit isDPKP
passed
on to the next workstation
C. The defective unit is
returned to the worker
responsible for creating the
defect
D. The production line is made
aware of the problem
without stopping the line
96. Which of the following
illustrates an activity that
does not add value?
A. Training employees
B. Ordering parts from a
supplier
C. Accumulating parts in front
of the next work centre
D. Delivering the product to the
customer
97. Job design does not involve
which one of the following
considerations :
A. How much autonomy should
be given to individual
employees?
B. What tasks should be
allocated?
C. Who should be involved /
consulted?
D. Ignoring where the job is
located
98. Within a typical behavioural
model of job design, which
of the following would be
considered as representing
core job characteristics?
A. Task combination / task
identity / autonomy
B. Vertical loading / skill
variety / output
C. Task identity / task
significance / autonomy
D. Cultural advancement /
absenteeism / nationality
99. When a worker has a say in
the work methods that
he/she wishes to utilise in
his/her job is characterised
by :
A. Skill variety
B. Job identity
174
C. Job significance
D. Autonomy
100. Which of the following
is NOT considered effective
in achieving and maintaining
service quality?
A. Encouraging service
providers to be highly
visible in dealing with
customers
B. Establishing peer groups
among service providers to
foster teamwork and a sense
of pride
C. Installing system of
incentives that emphasises
quality
D. Increasing supervision of
service providers
101. A quality variable
A. Takes discrete values
B. May be measured on a
continuous scale
C. Is continually changing
D. Is highly undesirable
102. Which of the following
is an indirect benefit of
improved quality?
A. Improved image
B. Reduced cost of inspection
C. Reduced scrap
D. Reduced inventory
103. A ‘moment of truth’ is
NOT
A. An opportunity to influence
a customer’s perception of
the service quality
B. Critical in achieving a
reputation for superior
quality
C. When the customer is
forming an opinion about
the efficiency of the service
D. An interaction between the
customer and a service
provider
104. Proactive quality
management includes the
concept of
A. Quality improvement costs
more
B. Needing to find out who is
responsible for the quality
problem
C. Getting the service to the
customer as soon as possible
D. Highlighting problems to
help solve them
105. Zero defects in
manufacturing
A. Is an unobtainable and
misleading ideal
B. Is the goal of TQM
C. Is readily achievable in all
areas
D. Is a relevant goal only in
electronic assembly
106. Which of the following
represent reasons for
globalising operations?
A. To gain improvements in the
supply chain
B. To improve operations
C. To expand a product’s life
cycle
D. All of the above
107. Which of the following
is not a key activity of an
operations manager?
A. Understanding the needs of
customer
B. Continually learning
C. Managing cash flows
D. Exploiting technology to
produce goods and services
108. Which of the following
is not true regarding the
differences between goods
and services?
A. Demand for services is
easier to forecast
B. Customers participate in
many services
C. Services cannot be stored as
physical inventory
D. Patents do not protect
services
109. Service organizations
generally
A. Locate in close proximity to
the customer DPKP
B. Rely on physical inventory
C. Take advantage of patents
D. Can delegate human
behaviour and marketing
skills
110. The following terms -
interchangeability of parts,
division of labour, highly
repetitive tasks - best focus
on ____.
A. Quality
B. Cost and efficiency
C. Quality
D. Time
111. Which of the following
is generally related to
service operations?
A. Tangible product
B. Need for flexible capacity
C. Separation of production
from consumption
D. Large amount of inventory
112. Which function
typically employs more
people than any other
functional area?
A. Information Systems
B. Operations
C. Marketing
D. Finance
113. The ____ of a firm
defines its reason for
existence.
A. Strategy development
B. Strategic mission
C. Vision statement
D. Value and code of ethics
114. The ____ describes
where the organization is
headed and what it intends
to be.
A. Strategy development
B. Strategic mission
C. Vision statement
D. Value and code of ethics
115. A company’s mission
175
 statement DPKP
A. Is changed quite frequently
B. Helps identify its target
customers and competitors
C. Describes in specific terms
what the company expects to
accomplish
D. Occurs after strategy
development

116. Which of the following

statements is false?
A. There are two possible
operations objectives (cost
and speed).
B. Strategy is concerned with
the actions an organization
takes in order to survive and
prosper in its environment
over the long term.
C. Strategy can exist at three
levels in an organization:
corporate, business and
functional.
D. An organization’s operations
can be a source of
competitive advantage

117. Who is responsible for

the safe keeping of the ship's
documents?
a. Master
b. 3rd Officer
c. Chief Engineer
d. Chief Officer

176