Final Exam BCH 3023

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Functional groups are

a. mathematical concepts applied to the topology of molecules
b. laboratory teams in industrial laboratories
c. sets of atoms that act in concert in chemical reactions
d. none of the above
____ 2. Which of the following statements regarding biomolecules is false?
a. They contain predominantly ionic bonds.
b. They contain predominantly nonmetallic elements.
c. Specific stereoisomers are essential in most cases.
d. Carbon is the key element.
____ 3. All of the following bonds are important in biomolecules, except:
a. CCl
b. CH
c. CN
d. OH
e. OP

____ 4. Which statement is not correct about polymers?

a. RNA is composed of ribonucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds.
b. Polypeptides are composed of amino acids linked by amide bonds.
c. Lipids are composed of glycerol and fatty acids linked by ester bonds.
d. Starches and cellulose are composed of sugars linked by glycoside bonds.
e. All of these statements apply to polymers.
____ 5. Rank the following levels of structural organization in terms of size from smallest to biggest:
a. molecules < atoms < organelles < cells < organs
b. atoms < molecules < cells < organelles < organs
c. atoms < molecules < organelles < organs < cells
d. atoms < organelles < molecules < cells < organs
e. atoms < molecules < organelles < cells < organs
____ 6. The genetic coding material is
a. lipid
b. protein
c. DNA
d. polysaccharide
____ 7. The main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is the existence of ____ in eukaryotes.
a. RNA
b. ribosomes
c. cell walls
d. DNA
e. the nucleus
____ 8. The tendency for an atom to attract electrons to itself in a chemical bond is called
a. polarity.
b. hydrophilicity
c. electrophilicity.
d. electronegativity.
____ 9. If atoms with greatly differing electronegativities form a bond, that bond will be
a. amphipathic.
b. acidic.
c. polar.
d. nonpolar.
____ 10. Many of the properties of water can be accounted for by the fact that
a. it is a bent molecule
b. it forms hydrogen bonds
c. it is polar
d. all of the above
____ 11. Ionic compounds are more likely than covalent compounds to dissolve in non-polar solvents.
a. True
b. False
____ 12. Which of the following is a correct listing of electronegativity values, from low to high?
a. H, C, O, N
b. H, C, N, O
c. C, H, O, N
d. N, H, O, C
____ 13. Which of the following classes of compounds is hydrophobic?
a. Table Salt
b. Phosphate esters
c. Cholesterol
d. Cholesterol and phosphate esters.
e. All of these are hydrophobic.
____ 14. A non-polar molecule cannot have any polar bonds.
a. True
b. False
____ 15. How do hydrogen bonds tend to affect the melting and boiling points of substances?
a. They tend to decrease both melting and boiling points.
b. They tend to decrease melting points and increase boiling points.
c. They do not have any affect on either melting or boiling points.
d. They tend to increase melting points and decrease boiling points.
e. They tend to increase both melting and boiling points.
____ 16. Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?
a. The more linear the bond, the stronger the attraction.
b. The acceptor must contain a non-bonded pair of electrons.
c. It is a type of non-covalent bond.
d. The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a less electronegative atom then hydrogen.
____ 17. Is water an acid or a base?
 a. Water is an acid.
b. Water is neither an acid nor a base.
c. Water is both an acid and a base.
d. Water is a base.
____ 18. Which will dissociate most in water, a weak acid or a strong acid?
a. They should dissociate about the same.
b. A strong acid
c. It's impossible to predict.
d. A weak acid.

____ 19. A buffer solution at pH 10 has a ratio of [HA]/[A] of 10. What is the pKa of the acid?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
e. 12
____ 20. The pOH a solution of 0.04 M HCl is:
a. 1.4
b. 10
c. 12.6
d. 13.6
e. The pOH cannot be determined
____ 21. If a solution has a pH = 9.6, the [H+] is
a. 9.6  1010 M
b. 2.5  1010
c. 2.5 M
d. 2.5  1010 M
e. 9.6 M

____ 22. If the pH of 1 liter of a 1.0 M carbonate buffer is 7.0, what is the molar ratio of H2CO3 to HCO3? (pK = 6.37)
a. 0.234
b. 4.27
c. 6.37
d. 7.00
e. 10.20
____ 23. Which of the following acids would serve as a good buffer for a reaction at pH = 8.0?

Ka
I. acetic acid 1.76  105
II. H2PO4 6.31  108
III. bicarbonate 5.6  1011
IV. TRIS 5.01  109

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
____ 24. A buffer solution
a. is used to control the pH of a solution
b. always has a pH of 7
c. contains at least 100 times more of a weak acid than its conjugate base
d. contains at least 100 times less of a weak acid than its conjugate base

Exhibit 2B
Contains information on the pK's of some common buffers.

Buffer pK1 pK2 pK3

Acetate 4.75
Ammonia 9.25
Carbonic acid 6.37 10.20
Citric acid 3.09 4.75 5.41
Formic Acid 3.75
Phosphoric acid 2.14 7.20 12.4
Pyruvic acid 2.50
Tris 8.3

____ 25. Refer to Exhibit 2B. An ammonium buffer would work well at this pH:
a. 5.6
b. 7.0
c. 9.0
d. 11.0
e. None of these
____ 26. A buffer is a solution which maintains a solution at a neutral pH
a. True
b. False
____ 27. The amino and carboxyl groups of amino acids are bonded to which carbon?
a. The amino is bonded to the -carbon, and the carboxyl is bonded to the -carbon.
b. Both are bonded to the -carbon.
c. Both are bonded to the -carbon.
d. The amino is bonded to the -carbon, and the carboxyl is bonded to the -carbon.

____ 28. Chiral objects

a. are not superimposable on their mirror images.
b. do not form crystals.
c. never occur in nature.
d. are cyclic compounds in the chair form.
____ 29. The amino acids which occur in proteins
a. are all of the D- form.
b. can be either the L- or D- form.
c. are all of the L- form.
d. do not have L- and D- forms.
____ 30. Which amino acid has the three-letter symbol asn?
a. alanine
b. asparagine
c. arginine
 d. aspartic acid
____ 31. Which amino acid has a benzene-like ring?
a. Histidine
b. Glutamic Acid
c. Serine
d. Tyrosine
e. Isoleucine
____ 32. Asp and Glu both have amides as side chains.
a. True
b. False
____ 33. Thr and Ser both have hydroxyls as side chains.
a. True
b. False
____ 34. Which amino acids contain sulfur?
a. cysteine and methionine
b. cysteine and lysine
c. arginine and methionine
d. cysteine and isoleucine

Exhibit 3B
A titration curve.

____ 35. Refer to Exhibit 3B. Which point most likely represents the pK for the carboxyl group?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
____ 36. Refer to Exhibit 3B. At which point would the amino acid have its maximum negative charge?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. 7
____ 37. The sequence of monomers in any polymer is this type of structure:
a. tertiary structure
b. quaternary structure
c. secondary structure
d. primary structure
e. All of these
____ 38. The overall folding of a single protein subunit is called:
a. primary structure
b. quaternary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. secondary structure
e. All of these
____ 39. Which of the following forces are involved in maintaining the primary structure of a protein?
a. hydrophobic interactions
b. ionic interactions
c. covalent bonds
d. hydrogen bonds
____ 40. What happens when a protein is denatured?
a. It becomes all -helix.
b. Its secondary structure is disrupted but its primary structure remains intact.
c. Its primary structure is disrupted but its secondary structure remains intact.
d. It is broken apart into its constituent amino acids.

Exhibit 4B
____ 41. Refer to Exhibit 4B. The type of bonding labeled "L" in these figure is:
a. Hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone
b. Hydrogen bonding involving the R-groups
c. Electrostatic attraction
d. Metal ion coordination
e. Hydrophobic interactions
____ 42. Refer to Exhibit 4B. The type of bonding labeled "O" in these figure is:
a. Hydrophobic interactions
b. Covalent bonding involving the R-groups
c. Electrostatic attraction
d. Metal ion coordination
e. Hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone
____ 43. Refer to Exhibit 4B. The type of bonding labeled "N" in these figure is:
a. Electrostatic attraction
b. Metal ion coordination
c. Hydrophobic interactions
d. Covalent bonding involving the R-groups
e. Hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone
____ 44. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows hydrogen bonding of R-groups?
a. M
b. N
c. P
d. M and N
e. All of these
____ 45. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone?
a. M
b. N
c. P
d. M and N
 e. All of these
____ 46. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows covalent bonding of R-groups?
a. K
b. L
c. O
d. K and L
e. All of these
____ 47. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows electrostatic attraction of R-groups?
a. K
b. L
c. O
d. K and L
e. All of these
____ 48. Which would be best to separate a protein that binds strongly to its substrate?
a. Gel filtration
b. Cation or anion exchange
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
e. Affinity chromatography
____ 49. In any form of chromatography, how will a compound which interacts more strongly with the stationary
phase elute compared to one that interacts less strongly?
a. A compound interacting more strongly will elute later than one with weaker interactions.
b. A compound interacting more strongly will elute earlier than one with weaker interactions.
c. The order of elution has nothing to do with interactions with the stationary phase, but with
interactions with the mobile phase.
____ 50. In a sample consisting of lysine, leucine, and glutamic acid, which will be eluted last from an anion exchange
resin at pH 7?
a. leucine
b. glutamic acid
c. all three will be eluted at the same time
d. lysine
____ 51. The isoelectric point is
a. the pH at which a substance has a net positive charge
b. the pH at which a substance has no net charge
c. the pH at which a substance has no charge groups of any kind
d. the pH at which a substance has a net negative charge
____ 52. All catalysts work by lowering the activation energy for a reaction.
a. True
b. False
____ 53. The kinetic order of a reaction
a. always depends on the concentration of enzyme
b. can be determined by inspection from the coefficients of the balanced equation
c. never depends on concentrations of reactants
d. must be determined experimentally
____ 54. Given the rate law, rate = k[A][B], the overall reaction order is
a. zero
b. one
c. two
d. cannot be determined
____ 55. First order kinetics means:
a. The rate of the reaction varies with the square of the amount of the reactant measured.
b. More information is needed to answer this question.
c. The rate of a reaction is independent of the amount of reactant measured.
d. The rate of the reaction varies directly with the amount of reactant measured.
e. None of these is correct.
____ 56. In the induced-fit model of substrate binding to enzymes
a. the active site changes its conformation to fit the substrate
b. there is aggregation of several enzyme molecules when the substrate binds
c. the substrate changes its conformation to fit the active site
d. there is a conformational change in the enzyme when the substrate binds
____ 57. Which of the following statements is true?
a. All triacylglycerols and all phosphoacylglycerols have the same fatty acids in them.
b. The fatty acids in triacylglycerols vary, but all phosphoacylglycerols have the same fatty
acids in them.
c. The fatty acids in both triacylglycerols and in phosphoacylglycerols vary.
d. All triacylglycerols have the same fatty acids, but the fatty acids in phosphoacylglycerols
vary.
____ 58. How many hydroxyl groups does a molecule of glycerol have?
a. none
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
____ 59. Saponification is the hydrolysis of a(n)
a. anhydride bond
b. glycosidic bond
c. ester bond
d. peptide bond
____ 60. Glycolipids are characterized by containing the following non-lipid component:
a. Phosphate
b. Sugars
c. Sphingosine
d. Glycerol
e. More than one of these characterize glycolipids.
____ 61. Which of the following four fatty acids has the highest melting point?

1. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
2. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH 2CH2COOH
3. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
4. CH3CH=CHCH2CH2COOH
 a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
____ 62. Which of the following four fatty acids has the lowest melting point?

1. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
2. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH 2CH2COOH
3. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
4. CH3CH=CHCH2CH2COOH

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
____ 63. Cholesterol is particularly important as a component of animal membranes.
a. True
b. False
____ 64. Membrane lipids in a lipid bilayer are held together by
a. covalent bonds
b. hydrophobic interactions
c. hydrogen bonds
d. electrostatic forces
____ 65. How does cholesterol affect membrane fluidity?
a. It tends to decrease the fluidity.
b. It tends to increase the fluidity.
c. It doesn't have any specific effect on fluidity.
____ 66. The double helix of DNA is which level of structure?
a. quaternary
b. secondary
c. primary
d. tertiary
____ 67. Which is the dominant form of DNA found in the cell?
a. H
b. B
c. Z
d. A
____ 68. Topoisomerases are associated with
a. production of RNA from DNA.
b. joining of nucleotide monomers to make polynucleotides.
c. ribosomes.
d. supercoiling of DNA.
____ 69. The production of RNA on a DNA template is called
a. transcription.
 b. translation.
c. replication.
d. nucleation.
____ 70. The process by which an mRNA base sequence directs the amino acid sequence of a protein is called
a. nucleation.
b. replication.
c. transcription.
d. translation.
____ 71. The direction of synthesis of DNA is
a. from the 5' end to the 3' end on one strand and from the 3' end to the 5' end on the other
strand.
b. from the 5' end to the 3' end on both strands.
c. from the 3' end to the 5' end on both strands.
d. none of the above.

Exhibit 10A
Consider the following diagrams showing a replication fork moving from left to right. The thick lines
represent the template/parental strands. The 5' and 3' represent the ends of those template/parental strands.

____ 72. Refer to Exhibit 10A. Which diagram correctly depicts the orientation of the lagging and leading strands on
the parentals?
a. The top
b. The bottom
c. Neither is fully accurate.
d. Either would be accurate dependent on the organism being studied.
____ 73. Refer to Exhibit 10A. Which Okazaki fragment was synthesized earliest?
a. A
 b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 74. Okazaki fragments are
a. the remnants of the original strands that are dispersed in the new double stranded DNA
molecules
b. RNA primers used for DNA replication.
c. short DNA pieces that explain how DNA is synthesized on the lagging strand.
d. short DNA pieces that explain how DNA is synthesized on the leading strand.
____ 75. A monosaccharide is
a. a compound with one hydroxyl group and two or more carbonyl groups.
b. an aromatic ketone.
c. a compound with one carbonyl group and two or more hydroxyl groups.
d. an aromatic aldehyde.

Exhibit 16A

____ 76. Refer to Exhibit 16A. The enantiomer of D-glucose is:

a. L-Idose
b. D-Fructose
c. L-Glucose
d. D-Galactose
e. D-Glucose
____ 77. Which carbon of the open-chain form of a sugar becomes the anomeric carbon in the cyclic form?
a. the carbonyl carbon
b. the highest numbered chiral center
c. It depends on the individual sugar.
d. the highest numbered carbon
____ 78. Which of the following best describes the glycosidic bond in the disaccharide shown?
 a. (14)
b. (24)
c. (14)
d. (24)
e. None of the above.
____ 79. Common table sugar is
a. glucose
b. maltose
c. lactose
d. sucrose
e. fructose
____ 80. Enolase catalyzes
a. the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate.
b. the dehydration of 2-phosphoglycerate.
c. the cleavage of fructose bisphosphate into two 3-carbon units.
d. the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate.