Classroom Contact Programme: Pre-Medical: Nurture Course (Phase: I)

Test Pattern
(1001CMD300120004) )1//1CMD3//12///4)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2020- 2021) 21-06-2020
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE (PHASE : I)
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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

English / 21062020 Page 1/23
ALLEN
Topic : Vector
1. If P 2 i 3 j
⃗
=
^
+
^
− 4k^
and B ⃗ = 3î − 2^j + 5k^ 7. The x and y co-ordinates of a particle at any
then value of P ⃗
. Q is :-
⃗ time t are given by :
x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) –20 (4) 15
where x and y are in m and t in s. The
2. The angle between the vectors A and B is θ. The ⃗ ⃗
acceleration of the particle at 5 s is :-
value of the triple product A ⃗
.( B ⃗ × A)
⃗
is :-
(1) zero (2) 8 m/s2
(1) A2B (2) Zero (3) 20 m/s2 (4) 40 m/s2
(3) A2B sin θ (4) A2B cos θ 8. A truck is travelling due north at 50 km/hr.
3. If vector (^ +a 2 b) is
^
perpendicular to vector turns west and travels at the same speed. What
( 5a^ − 4^b), then find the angle between a^ and ^b. is the change in velocity ?
(1) 75° (2) 60° (3) 30° (4) 90° (1) 50 km/hr north-west
4. A force F 5 i 6 j 4k acting on a body,
⃗
=
^
+
^
−
^
(2) –
50√2 km/hr north-west
produces a displacement S 6 i 5k. Work ⃗
=
^
+
^
(3) 50 km/hr south-west
done by the force is - –
50√2 km/hr south-west
(4)
(1) 11 units (2) 15 units
9. If, 5 i
^
− j
^
a + b) î − (a − b) ^j then
= ( find
(3) 10 units (4) 18 units a × b :-
5. If a vector 2î + 3^j + 8k^) is
( perpendicular to (1) 5 (3) 6
(2) –1 (4) –5
the vector ( 4j ^
− 4i ^
+ αk)
^
, then the value of α 10. The diagonals of a parallelogram are 2î and 2ĵ.
is : What is the area of the parallelogram ?
(1) –1 (2) 1/2 (1) 0.5 units (2) 1 units
(3) –1/2 (4) 1 (3) 2 units (4) 4 units
6. If = × then will be perpendicular to :- 11. A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m
(1) vertically upwards, what is its resultant
(2) + displacement from initial position :-
–
(3) – (1) 10√2m (2) 10m
(4) All three 10
(3) –
(4) 10 × 2m
√ 2
Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

Page 2/23 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English / 21062020
ALLEN
12. A body is moving according to the 16. A particle travels from point A (2, 7, 5) m to
equation x = at + bt2 – ct3 then its point B(8, 7, 7)m then displacement of particle
is:-
instantaneous velocity is given by:-
−−
(1) √ 10 m along x-axis
(1) a + 2b + 2ct
−−
(2) 2√10 m along x-axis
(2) a + 2bt – 3ct2
3
at θ = cos–1
−−
(3) 2b – 6ct 2√10 m , (
−−
) with x-
(3) √ 10
(4) None of these axis
13. A car travelling at 20 m/s takes a U-turn 1
2√10 m , at θ = cos–1 (
−−
)
in 20 second without changing its speed. (4) √
−−
10
What is the average acceleration of the car ? with x-axis
17. A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform
(1) 1 m/s2
velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train
(2) 4 m/s2 to cross a bridge of length 850 m is :-
(3) –1 m/s2 (1) 56 sec (2) 68 sec
(4) –2 m/s2 (3) 80 sec (4) 92 sec
14. A particle moves in the east direction 18. If A ⃗
+ B ⃗ + C ⃗ = 0⃗ and A = B = C then angle
with 15 m/sec for 2 sec then northwards
with 5 m/s for 8 sec. Average speed of between B ⃗
& C ⃗ is :-
the particle is : – (1) 60° (2) 120°

(1) 1 m/s (2) 5 m/s (3) 90° (4) 0°
(3) 7 m/s (4) 10 m/s 19. The relation between time t and distance x is
15. The location of a particle has changed what can t = αx2 + βx where α and β are constant. The
retardation is :-
we say about the displacement & the distance
(1) 2αv3 (2) 2βv3
covered by the particle :-
(3) 2αβv3 (4) 2β2v3
(1) Both cannot be zero
20. A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius
(2) One of the two may be zero
40m completes half a revolution in 40 s. Its
(3) Both must be zero average velocity is :-
(4) If one is positive the other is negative & (1) Zero (2) 4 ms–1
vice versa (3) 2 ms–1 (4) 8 ms–1
English / 21062020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 3/23
ALLEN
th
21. 2 26. If a particle is moving on a circular track of
If a car cover's of the total distance with
5
radius 7m then find the distance travelled when
3 th
v1 speed and distance with v2 the average it completed three-fourth of the circle :-
5
speed is :- (1) 33m (2) 22m
v v
−−
√ 1
−−
2 v1 + v2
(1) (2) (3) 11m (4) 44m
2 2
2v1 v2 5v1 v2 27. If A has magnitude of 6 N and is along north
⃗
(3) (4)
v1 + v2 3v1 + 2v2 direction then 3A is
−
⃗
:-
22. If the velocity of a particle is given by :
(1) along east direction and magnitude 18 N
v = (180 – 16x)1/2 m/s
then its acceleration will be :- (2) along north and magnitude 18 N
(1) Zero (2) 8 m/s2 (3) along south and magnitude 18 N
(3) –8 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2 (4) along south and magnitude 6 N
23. A body goes 10 km north and 20 km east. What 28. A particle moves along the sides AB, BC,
will be the displacement from initial point? CD of a square of side 25 m with a velocity
of 15 ms–1. Its average velocity is :
(1) 22.36 km (2) 2 km
(3) 5 km (4) 20 km
24. If P ⃗ + Q⃗ | = |P ⃗ − Q⃗ | ,
| then angle between
P ⃗ and Q⃗ is :-
(1) 0° (2) 45° (1) 15 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1

(3) 90° (4) 60°
(3) 7.5 ms–1 (4) 5 ms–1
25. 1 rd
A motor car covers part of total 29. Direction cosines of A ⃗
i
^
2^j + k^ are :-
3 = +
1 rd
distance with V 1 = 10 km/hr, second 1 2
3 (1) , ,1
1 rd √
–
6 3
part with V 2 = 20 km/hr and rest part
3 1 2 1
with V 3 = 60 km/hr. What is the average (2) , ,
6 6 6
speed of the car? 1 2 1
(3) –
,
–
,
–
(1) 18 km/hr (2) 45 km/hr √ 6 √ 6 √ 6
(3) 6 km/hr (4) 22.5 km/hr (4) 1, 2, 1

ALLEN
30. The velocity of a moving particle is given by 35. A particle located at x = 0, at time t = 0, starts
3π 3π
v ⃗ = sin( t)î + cos( t)^j . The distance moving along the positive X–direction with a
10 10
travelled by the particle in four seconds is velocity ν that varies as ν = α x . α is a√
−−
3π constant. The displacement of the particle

1
(1) sin −
cos
( ) units
varies with time as:
10
1 3π (1) t3 (2) t2 (3) t (4) t1/2

(2) cos −
( sin ) units
10
36. A body starts from the origin and moves along
(3) 2 units the x-axis such that the velocity at any instant
(4) 4 units is given by (4t3 – 2t), where t is in sec and
31. The position of an object moving along x-axis is velocity in m/s. What is the acceleration of the
given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5 m, b = 2.5 m/s2 particle, when it is 2 m from the origin
and t is measured in seconds. What is average
velocity between t = 2 sec to t = 4 sec ? (1) 28 m/s2 (2) 22 m/s2
(1) 10 m/s (2) 12 m/s (3) 12 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
(3) 15 m/s (4) 18 m/s 37. For a particle moving along a straight line its
32. The displacement x of a particle moving along a position - time relation is given as : x2 = 2 + t.
straight line at time t is given by x=a0 + a1t + a2t2 The acceleration of the particle is :-
the acceleration of the particle is :- − 2 − 1
(1) (2)
(1) a1 (2) a2 (3) 2a2 (4) 3a2 x3 4x 3
− 1 1
33. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a (3) (4)
4x 2 x2
time t (in second) the distance x (in meter) of
the particle from O is given by : 38. A particle is projected with velocity v0
x = 40 + 12t – t3. along x-axis. The deceleration on the particle
distance travelled by the particle before coming is proportional to the square of the distance
to rest :
from the origin i.e., a = –αx2 The distance at
(1) 16 m (2) 24 m (3) 40 m (4) 56 m
which the particle stops is :-
34. a = 4t + 2
−−−− 1
if at t = 0, v = 0 3υ 0 3υ o 3
(1) √ (2) ( )
then v = ? at t = 2 sec 2α 2α
1
(1) 12 m/ (2) 10 m/s −−−−
3υ20 3υ20 3
(3) √ (4) ( )
(3) 14 m/s (4) 8 m/s 2α 2α
ALLEN
39. The position vector of a particle is given by 43. The initial velocity of a particle is u and
r t 2 i 2t j m , find the velocity of the
⃗ = ( ^
+
^
)
acceleration is given as 'ƒ = at'. Then :-
particle at t = 3 seconds :-
(1) v = u + at2
(1) 2î + 2^j m/s 2
(2) v = u + at
(2) 6î + 2^j m/s 2
(3) v = u + at
(3) 4î + 2^j m/s
(4) v = u
(4) 9î + 6^j m/s
44. A particle moves along a straight line such that
40. An object moves such that its position is given
its displacement at any time t is given by :
as
x = 2t2 – 4t (t in sec) s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 metres
Time when its speed will be zero is :- The velocity when the acceleration is zero is :-
(1) 1 sec (1) 3 ms–1
(2) 2 sec (2) –12 ms–1
(3) 3 sec (3) 42 ms–1
(4) 4 sec (4) –9 ms–1
41. The displacement is given by x = 2t2 + t + 5, 45. The position of a particle moving in
the acceleration at t = 5 sec will be the xy-plane at any time t is given by
(1) 8 m/s2 x = (3t 2 – 6t) metres, y = (t 2 – 2t)
(2) 12 m/s2 metres. Select the correct statement
(3) 15 m/s2 about the moving particle from the
(4) 4 m/s2 following
42. The displacement of a body is given to be (1) The acceleration of the particle is zero at
proportional to the cube of time elapsed. The t = 0 second
magnitude of the acceleration of the body is :- (2) The velocity of the particle is zero at
t = 0 second
(1) Increasing with time
(3) The velocity of the particle is zero
(2) Decreasing with time
at t = 1 second
(3) Constant but not zero
(4) The velocity and acceleration of the
(4) Zero particle are never zero
ALLEN
Topic : Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium
46. pOH of 0.002 M HNO3 is :- 52. If degree of ionization is 0.01 of decimolar
(1) 11 + log 2 (2) 11 – log 2 solution of weak acid HA then pKa of acid is :-
(3) – 3 + log 2 (4) None of these (1) 2
47. pH of a strong diprotic acid (H2A) at (2) 3

concentrations : (3) 5
(i) 10–4 M, (ii) 10–4 N (4) 7
are respectively :-
53. Which statement/relationship is correct?
(1) 3.7 and 4.0 (2) 4 and 3.7
(1) pH of 0.1 M HNO3, 0.1 M HCl, 0.1 M HI
(3) 4 and 4 (4) 3.7 and 3.7 are not equal.
48. What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 1
0.25 M HA solution ? (2) pH = − log
[H
+
]
(Ka = 4 × 10–8)
(3) At 25°C the pH of pure water is 7
(1) 10–4 (2) 10–5
(4) The value of pKw at 25° C is 7
(3) 10–7 (4) 10–10
54. A weak acid HA has a Ka of 1.00 × 10–5.
49. pH of 0.0002 M formic acid [Ka = 2 × 10–4]
If 0.100 moles of this acid is dissolved in one
approximately is
litre of water the percentage of acid dissociated
(1) 1.35 (2) 0.5
at equilibrium is closed to
(3) 3.7 (4) 1.85
(1) 99.0%
50. The pH of an aqueous solution of 10–8 M HCl
will be :- (2) 1.00%
(1) 8 (3) 99.9%
(2) 6 (4) 0.100%
(3) slightly less than 7 55. Which solution has the greatest percent
ionization?
(4) slightly more than 7
(1) 0.10 M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5)
51. In 100 mL of an aqueous HCl of pH 1.0, 900 mL
of distilled water is added, the pH of the resultant (2) 0.25 M HNO2 (Ka = 4.5 × 10–4)
solution becomes : (3) 1.00 M HCOOH (Ka = 1.7 × 10–4)
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.0 (3) 4.0 (4) 7.0 (4) 2.00 M CH3NH2 (Kb = 4.4 × 10–4)

ALLEN
56. 0.01 M HA (aq.) is 2% ionized ; [OH–] of 62. Given that Kw for water is 10–13 M2 at 62°C,
solution is :- compute the sum of pOH and pH for a neutral
(1) 2 × 10–4 (2) 10–8 aqueous solution at 62°C ?
(3) 5 × 10–11 (4) 5 × 10–12 (1) 7.0 (2) 13.30
57. The concentration of H+ ion and OH– ion (3) 14.0 (4) 13.0
in 0.1M aq. solution of 2% ionised weak acid 63. The value of the ionic product constant for
is :- water, (K w ) at 60°C is 9.6 × 10 – 14 M 2 .
(1) 0.02 × 10–3 M and 5 × 10–11 M What is the [H 3 O + ] of a neutral aqueous
solution at 60°C and an aqueous solution
(2) 1 × 10–3 M and 3 × 10–11 M with a pH = 7.0 at 60ºC are respectively ?
(3) 2 × 10–3 M and 5 × 10–12 M (1) 3.1 × 10–8 , acidic (2) 3.1 × 10–7 , neutral
(4) 3 × 10–2 M and 4 × 10–13 M (3) 3.1 × 10–8 , basic (4) 3.1 × 10–7 , basic
58. How many H+ ions are present in 1 ml of a 64. At 25°C the pH of an aqueous solution is 6 then
solution whose pH is 13 ? pKW at the same temperature will be :-
(1) 10–16 (2) 6.022 × 1013 (1) 12 (2) 10–12
(3) 6.022 × 107 (4) 6.022 × 1023 (3) 10–14 (4) 14
59. 0.005 M acid solution has 5 pH. The 65. pH of water is 7.0 at 25°C. If water is heated to
percentage ionisation of acid is : 70°C, the :-
(1) 0.8% (2) 0.6% (1) pH will decrease and solution becomes
(3) 0.4% (4) 0.2% acidic
60. What is the ionization constant of a monobasic (2) pH will increase
acid if the hydronium ion concentration of a (3) pH will remain constant as 7
0.40 M solution is 1.40 × 10–4 M?
(4) pH will decrease but solution will be
(1) 1.96 × 10–8 (2) 1.22 × 10–9 neutral
(3) 4.90 × 10–8 (4) 1.40 × 10–6 66. Which is the strongest acid (pKa value is
61. A beer has a pH of 4.30. What is the [H3 O+] ? given)?
(1) 3.0 × 10–4 (1) HCOOH [3.77]
(2) 2.0 × 10–4 (2) C6H5COOH [4.22]
(3) 2.0 × 10–5 (3) CH3COOH [4.7]
(4) 5.0 × 10–5 (4) CH3CH2COOH [4.88]
ALLEN
67. For pure water : 73. The pH of a 10–10 HCl solution is
(1) pH increases while pOH decreases with approximately:
rise in temperature (1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 1 (4) 14
(2) pH decreases while pOH increases with 74. Ionisation constant of CH3COOH is 1.7 × 10–3 and
rise in temperature concentration of H+ ions is 3.4 × 10–3 M. Then
(3) both pH and pOH decreases with rise in initial concentration of CH3COOH molecules is:
temperature
(1) 3.4 × 10–4 M (2) 3.4 × 10–3 M
(4) both pH and pOH increases with rise in
temperature (3) 6.8 × 10–3 M (4) 1.7 × 10–3 M
68. Number of equivalents of HCl present in 75. The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of weak acid
100 mL of its solution whose pH is 4 :- (HA) is 3, what is the degree of dissociation:-
(1) 10–4 (2) 10–3 (3) 10–2 (4) 10–5 (1) 1 % (2) 10 %
69. A weak base MOH of 0.1 N concentration (3) 50 % (4) 25 %
shows a pH value of 9. What is the percentage 76. What is the hydronium ion concentration of
degree of ionization of the acid ? a 0.25 M HA solution? (Ka = 4 × 10–8)
(1) 0.01 % (2) 0.001 % (1) 10–4 M (2) 10–5 M
(3) 0.1 % (4) 0.02 % (3) 10–7 M (4) 10–10 M
70. What will be the pH of a solution 77. pH of 0.001M acetic acid would be :-
having 10–8 M H2SO4 :-
(1) 2 (2) > 3 (3) 7 (4) 14
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6.92 (4) 7.7 78. Find number of equivalents of HBr present
71. Which is correct for monobasic acid in 100 ml of its solution whose pH is 4 :
CH3COOH solution ?
(1) 10–3 (2) 10–2
H +
(3) 10–4 (4) 10–5

[ ]
(1) Ka = Cα2 (2) α=
C
H
[
+ 2
]
79. If pH value of solution A, B and C are 4.2,
(3) Ka = (4) all of the above 13.8, 6.9 respectively then most acidic is :-
C
72. A 0.1 M solution of HF is 1% ionized. What is (1) A
the Ka :- (2) B
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–4 (3) C
(3) 3 × 10–5 (4) 3 × 10–4 (4) A and C are of equal strength
ALLEN
80. At infinite dilution a weak electrolyte contains: 86. Which one is correct relationship :-
(1) Unionised molecules (1) Kw = [H+] + [OH–]
(2) Only ions 1
(2) pH = –log
[H
+
]
(3) Ions and unionised molecules
(3) pH = 14 + log[OH–]
(4) Not definite
(4) None of these
81. The pKa of HNO2 is 4. The pH of HNO2 in its
0.01 mol L–1 aqueous solution will be 87. A Solution has [OH–] > 10–7 M at temperature
(1) 4 (2) 3 90°C. Then possible nature of solution is :-
(3) 1.7 (4) 0.7 (1) Only Basic
82. If the pH of solution is increased by 2 to 4 then (2) Only neutral
concentration of H+ ion would :-
(3) Basic and netural both
(1) Increased 2 times
(4) Acidic, Basic or neutral
(2) Decreased 2 times
88. If Kw = 10–13.75 at a given temperature, then
(3) Increased 100 times
the solution which has [OH–] = 10–6.5 is in
(4) Decreased 100 times
nature :
83. HCOOH and CH3COOH solutions have equal
pH. If K1/K2 = 4, the ratio of their (1) Acidic (2) Basic
concentrations will be :-
(3) Neutral (4) Fairly acidic
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 (3) 2 (4) 4
89. Calculate the pOH of 10 L CH3COOH solution
84. Approximate relationship between dissociation
at 90°C, if 118 mg of CH3COO– ions are
constant of water (K) and ionic product of
water (Kw) is :- present in the solution ?
(1) Kw = K (2) Kw = 55.6 × K (1) 3.7 (2) 10.3
(3) Kw = 18 × K (4) Kw = 14 × K (3) 8.3 (4) None of these
85. Given the two concentration of HCN (Ka = 10–9) 90. If the degree of dissociation of water at 25°C
are 0.1 M and 0.001 M respectively. What will is 1.9 × 10–7% and the density of water is
be the ratio of degree of dissociation? 1.0g/cm3. The ionisation constant of water :-
(1) 1 (2) 0.1 (1) 3.42×10–6 (2) 3.42×10–8
(3) 0.003 (4) 0.01 (3) 1.00×10–14 (4) 2.00×10–16
ALLEN
Topic : Plant Diversity
91. Which of the following is a non-mycelial 95. Which of the followings is not associated with
unicellular fungus ? nutrition in fungi:-
(1) Yeast (2) Puccinia (1) Absorption
(3) Ustilago (4) Alternaria (2) Heterotrophic
92. Monokaryotic mycelium changes in to (3) Ingestion
dikaryotic mycelium due to formation of clamp (4) Parasitic
connection. It's a general character of ? 96. Which one is saprophytic in nutrition :-
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Phycomycetes (1) Cyanobacteria
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes (2) Viruses
93. Which step is not involved in fungal sexual (3) Plants
reproduction ? (4) Fungi
(1) Plasmogamy 97. Match the column–I with column–II and
(2) Karyogamy choose correct option?

(3) Meiosis
Column–I Column–II
(4) Embryo formation
Claviceps White rust on
94. Identify the given diagram and its class :- (A) (i)
purpurea Mustard leaf
Red rot of
(B) Albugo candida (ii)
sugarcane
Colletotrichum Black rust of
(C) (iii)
falcatum wheat
Puccinia Ergot disease of
(D) (iv)
graminis Secale cereale
(1) Penicillium – Ascomycetes (1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(2) Agaricus – Basidiomycetes (2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) Agaricus – Ascomycetes (3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) Penicillium –Basidiomycetes (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

ALLEN
98. Fungi resemble monerans on the basis of :- 103. Read the following point :-
(1) Structure of fruiting body (A) Body septate and branched
(B) Decomposers of litter
(2) Mycelium (C) Help in mineral cycling
(3) Absorptive heterotrophy (D) Only the asexual and vegetative phases are
(4) Cellular structure known
Above points are related with which group of
99. Phycocyanin and phycoerythrin are commonly organism
present in :-
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Euglenoids
(1) Red algae
(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
(2) Brown algae
104. Mixotrophic nutrition is present in :-
(3) Cyanobacteria
(1) slime moulds (2) Euglenoids
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) diatoms (4) dinoflagellates
100. In ascomycetes the ascospores occur in sac like
105. Algal fungi or lower fungi are the names of :-
structure known as
(1) Ascus (1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
(2) Ascocarp (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes

106. ϕ × 174 bacteriophage contains :-
(3) Basidium
(1) ss DNA (2) ds DNA
(4) Basidiocarp
101. Phycomycetes produce :- (3) ds RNA (4) ss RNA
(1) Aplanospores, Zoospores, Zygospores 107. Which lichen is used for making litmus paper.
(1) Roccella (2) Parmellia
(2) Oospores, Zygospores, Ascospores
(3) Cladonia (4) Usnea
(3) Ascospores, Basidiospores, Oospores
108. Who demonstrated that the extract of the
(4) Aplanospores, Zoospores, Basidiospores
infected plants of tobacco could cause infection
102. In which of following plasmogamy is
in healthy plants ?
immediately followed by karyogamy ?
(1) Rhizopus (1) Ivanowsky
(2) Aspergillus (2) Beijerneck
(3) Ustilago (3) Stanley
(4) Puccinia (4) Pasteur

ALLEN
109. Infectious and free RNA particle having low 114. The algal and fungal component of a lichen are
molecular weight were discovered by :- respectively, called :-
(1) Diener (1) Phycobiont, mycobiont
(2) Beijerinek (2) Mycobiont, phycobiont
(3) Stanley (3) Mycobiont, mycobiont
(4) Pasture (4) Phycobiont, phycobiont
110. Fungi which are common to make mycorrhiza 115. Read the following statements and choose the
is/are ? wrong one :-
(1) Amanita (1) In general virus that infect plants have
(2) Puccinia single stranded RNA.
(3) Glomus (2) Proteinaceous capsid protects nucleic acid.
(4) Both 1 and 3 (3) Viruses are truly living.
111. Which are noncellular organisms ? (4) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
(1) Viruses 116. Which of the following is not a fruiting body in
fungi ?
(2) Viroids
(1) Sporangium (2) Ascocarp
(3) Lichens
(3) Basidiocarp (4) Zoospores
(4) Both (1) and (2)
117. Given below is the diagram of a virus. In which
112. Mycorrhiza is association of –
one of the options A, B and C are correct ?
(1) Algae and Fungi
(2) Fungi and Root
(3) Monera and Root
(4) Fungi and Monera
113. In lichen, phycobiont mainly belongs to :-
A B C
(1) Blue green algae (1) RNA Capsid Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(2) Red algae (2) DNA Capsid Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(3) Brown algae (3) RNA Lipid Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(4) Green algae (4) RNA Protein HIV

ALLEN
118. Which one of the following statement is 121. Membrane bound organelles are absent in :-
incorrect about tobacco mosaic virus seen here ? (1) Rhizopus
(1) It is rod shaped (2) Euglena
(2) It was discovered by Ivanowsky (3) Physarum
(3) It was first crystallized by Stanley (4) Nostoc
(4) Its symmetry is icosahedral
122. Match the column I with column II :-
119. Read the following statements. Find out with
one is correct :- Particles/Micro
Diseases
(1) Lichens are very good pollution indicators, organisms
they grow in polluted areas
(2) Virus contain both RNA and DNA (i) Viroid (a) CJD
(3) Most fungi are autotrophic and absorb (ii) Virus (b) Citrus canker
insoluble organic matter from dead substrates.
(4) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission Potato spindle tuber
(iii) Bacteria (c)
120. Match the column-I (name of viruses) with disease
column-II (type of genetic material) and choose
correct option? (iv) Prion (d) Mumps
Column-I Column-II (1) i - a, ii - b, iii - d, iv - c
Cauliflower Single (2) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
A i
mosaic virus stranded DNA
(3) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
QB Single stranded
B ii (4) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
Bacteriophase RNA
Double stranded 123. Which one of the following pair is incorrectly
C Mycophages iii
DNA
matched ?
Double stranded
D Gemini virus iv
RNA (1) Saccharomyces - Nonmycelial fungus
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (2) Penicillium - produce antibiotic
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (3) Phytophthora - cellulosic cell wall
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) Frankia - show association with legume
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
ALLEN
124. Biological name of makoi is :- 127. Choose the incorrect statement from
(1) Solanum tuberosum following:-
(2) Solanum malengena (1) Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.
(3) Solanum nigrum (2) In slime mould, spores are disperesed by
air current.
(4) Solanum lycopersicum
(3) Stored food of diatoms is similar to higher
125. Which one of the following options gives the plants.
correct categorisation of A, B and C ?
(4) Pellicle is responsible for flexible body in
A B C
Englenoids.
Monera Protista Plantae
128. Consider the following four statement (a - d)
Blue and select the option which includes all the
Protozoans Solanum correct ones only:
(1) green algae, Slime moulds Mangifera
Mycoplasma (a) Slime moulds are also called naked fungi
(b) Bacteriophage are generally contain double
Red algae, Dinoflagellaes, Mucor, standard DNA
(2) Archebacteria Diatoms Yeast (c) Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by
prions
Slime (d) True mosses are red algae
Archebacteria, Euglenoids
(3) Eubacteria moulds,
Green algae (1) Statement (a) (b) and (d) correct
Puccinia
(2) Statements (a) and (b) correct
Eubacteria, Gonyaulax Neurospora, (3) Statements (a) (b) (c) correct
(4) Slime moulds Diatoms Aspergillus
(4) Statements (a) (b) (c) (d) correct
126. What is common among Porphyra, Agaricus, 129. Read the following statements.
Chlorella and Spirulina ? (A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(B) Prions are made of proteins only
(1) They all are placed under same kingdom (C) Viruses are inert outside their specific host cell.
according to five kingdom classification. (D) Mumps, small pox and influenza disease are
(2) They all have nuclear membrane caused by bacteria.
(3) They all may be used as food or food Which statements are correct.
supplement. (1) A and B (2) A and C
(4) They all are autotrophic (3) A, B and C (4) A, B and D
ALLEN
130. Which of the following is not a viral disease of plant ? 134. How many of the following features are related
(1) Tabacco mosaic disease to basidiomycetes ?
1. Clamp connection.
(2) Red rot of sugarcane 2. Dikaryotisation
(3) Leaf curl of tomato 3. Ascus
(4) Bunchy top of banana 4. Basidium
5. Fruiting body
131. Which is a common character present in both 6. Exogenous sexual spores
algae and mosses ? 7. Ascocarp
(1) Presence of cell wall (1) Two (2) Three
(2) Presence of chloroplast (3) Four (4) Five
(3) Presence of starch 135. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(4) All of the above carefully:
(A) In five kingdom classification, bryophyta
132. Match the following :
are included in kingdom protista
Column I Column II (B) Algae are both autotrophic and
p Halophiles i Protein particle heterotrophic in their mode of nutrition
q Cyanobacteria ii Prokaryotes (C) Members of kingdom fungi show a great
diversity in morphology and habitat.
r Mycoplasma iii Habitat in saline area (D) The kingdom plantae includes multicellular
Photosynthetic eukaryotic chlorophyll containing organisms.
s Prion iv
bacteria How many of the above statement are not
correct?
(1) p–i, q–ii, r–iii, s–iv
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
(2) p–iv, q–iii, r–ii, s–i
136. Cillia and flagella are absent in life cycle of :-
(3) p–iii, q–iv, r–ii, s–i
(1) Red algae
(4) p–ii, q–i, r–iii, s–iv
(2) Brown algae
133. Find the character which is common in most of
the fungi :- (3) Green algae
(1) Formation of fruiting bodies (4) Red algae and B.G.A.
(2) Presence of chitinous cell wall 137. Two unequal lateral flagella occurs in :-
(3) Saprotrophic mode of nutrition (1) Blue green algae (2) Red algae
(4) Autotrophic nature (3) Brown algae (4) Green algae
ALLEN
138. Algae have cell wall made up of : 142. Mannitol is the stored food present in :-
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins (1) Gracilaria
(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans (2) Chara
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins (3) Porphyra
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins (4) Fucus
139. What is the ploidy of the plant in given diagram ? 143. In which of the following sexual reproduction
is of oogamous type and accompained by
complex post fertilization development :-
(1) Ulothrix
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Polysiphonia
(1) 2n (2) n (3) 3n (4) 4n
(4) Ectocarpus
140. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses
and pteridophytes are grouped under the 144. Which of the following organism do not
general term :- develop embryo in their life cycle ?
(1) Cryptogames (2) Bryophyta (1) Bryophyta
(3) Pteridophyta (4) Thallophyta (2) Pteridophyta
141. (3) Gymnosperm
(4) Algae
145. Read the following statements (i-iii) and answer the
question given below -
(i) Vegetative reproduction usually takes place by
fragmentation of filaments.
(ii) Asexual reproduction is by flagellated zoospores.
(iii) Pyrenoids contain protein besides starch.
Which one option is most suitable for all three given
Identify the diagram and a, b and c :- statements (i-iii)?
(1) Chara; a - Branches, b - Stipe, c - Fronds (1) Diatom
(2) Dictyota; a - Frond, b - Midrib, c - Stipe (2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Laminaria; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c- Holdfast (3) Phaeophyceae
(4) Fucus; a- Air bladder, b - Midrib, c- stipe (4) Rhodophyceae
ALLEN
146. Match the two Columns I & II :- 149. In sporophyte after meiosis __(A)__ are
produced within __(B)__. A & B will be for
Column-I Column-II nonvascular cryptogams :-
Member Class group A B
i Ulothrix a Cyanobacteria (1) Gametes Seta
(2) Gametes Capsule
ii Ectocarpus b Phaeophyceae
(3) Spores Capsule
iii Porphyra c Rhodophyceae
(4) Spores Seta
iv Anabaena d Chlorophyceae 150. In mosses, reduction division takes place in :-
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (1) Antheridium
(2) i-d, ii-c, iii-c, iv-a (2) Capsule
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (3) Archegonium
(4) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a (4) during gamete formation
147. Antheridiophore is present in : 151. Gemmae are
(1) Marchantia (1) Green
(2) Chara (2) Unicellular
(3) Adiantum (3) Sexual bud
(4) Eucalyptus (4) Diploid
148. Which of the following statement is correct ? 152. In Funaria the haploid structure is :-
(1) In mosses asexual reproduction takes place (1) Protonema
by green, unicellular buds called gammae (2) Capsule
(2) The sporophyte of moss is differentiated in (3) Foot
foot, seta and capsule (4) Seta
(3) Protonema is a green, creeping, branched 153. Which bryophytes show indirect germination of
and filamentous stage in mosses, which spores in their life cycle ?
develops directly from gametes. (1) Liverworts (2) Mosses
(4) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of (3) Hornwort (4) Both (1) & (3)
seed dispersal.
ALLEN
154. Which of the following is not formed in 157. Dorsiventral and photosynthetic thallus,
bryophytes ? gemmae formation, unicellular and unbranched
(1) Spore mother cells (2) Capsule rhizoids etc are characters present in :-
(3) Mycelium (4) Rhizoids (1) Liverworts
155. (2) Moss plants
(3) Algae
(4) Fungi
158. The edible part of Morchella is :-
(1) Ascocarp
(2) Basidiocarp
Identify the above figures correctly and select
the correct option. (3) Conidia
(1) (a)-Marchantia, (b) Sphagnum (4) Basidiospore
(2) (a) Funaria, (b) Marchantia 159. Find the incorrect statement about
fungi :-
(3) (a) Funaria, (b) Sphagnum
(1) They show a great diversity in morphology
(4) (a) Marchantia, (b) Funaria
and habitats
156. Read the following statements regarding bryophytes
and do as ask next to them (2) Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air,
(A) All cells of sporophyte undergo reduction water, soil and as parasites also
division to produce haploid spores. (3) They prefer to grow in cold and dry places
(B) They play an important role in plant succession
on barren rocks. (4) With the exception of yeasts, fungi are
(C) Plant body is thallus like and prostate or erect and filamentous
attached to the substratum by unicellular or
multicellular rhizoids. 160. Whittaker did not mention the following in
(D) They prevent soil erosion. his classification :-
(E) Sex organs are multicellular. Male and female sex (1) Virus
organs are called archegonium and antheridium
respectively. (2) Viroids
How many of the above statements is/are not correct? (3) Lichens
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 (4) All of above
ALLEN
161. Budding is commonly present in :- 164. Identify given figures and choose the correct
(1) Algae option :-
(2) Fungi
(3) Bryophytes (A)
(4) Yeasts
162. Match column-I with column-II and select the
correct option from the codes given below :- (B)
Column-I Column-II
(A) Plant virus (i) Kuru disease A B
Potato spindle (1) Euglena Nostoc

(B) Animal virus (ii)
tuber disease (2) Paramoecium Nostoc
(C) Viroids (iii) Polio (3) Euglena Anabaena
Tobacco mosaic (4) Euglena Bacteriophage
(D) Prions (iv)
virus 165. Which of the following statement is incorrect:-
(1) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) Spores are naked in slime mould
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) All protozoans are heterotrophic
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) The pigments of euglenoids are identical
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) to those present in higher plants.
163. Which character is common in between 166. Select the incorrect match pair in respect of
bacteria and fungi ? stored food of algae ?
(1) Nature of cell wall (1) Red algae - Floridean starch
(2) Production of antibiotics (2) Brown algae - Mannitol
(3) Production of carbohydrate (3) Green algae - Laminarin
(4) Type of cellular organization (4) Blue green algae - Cyanophycean starch

ALLEN
167. Identify the given figures of algae and select 170. Gelatinous coating of cell wall in
the correct option. phaeophycean algae is made up of :-
(1) Algin
(2) Agar
(A) (B)
(3) Carrageen
(4) Cellulose
171. Bryophytes include :
(1) Mosses only
(C) (2) Club mosses

(3) Horse tail
(4) Liverworts and mosses
172. Select the odd one with respect to class
(1) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Chara, C–Volvox bryopsida:-
(2) A–Volvox, B–Chlamydomonas, C–Chara (1) Funaria and Polytrichum
(3) A–Chara, B–Laminaria, C–Volvox (2) Funaria and Sphagnum
(4) A–Porphyra, B–Polysiphonia, C–Fucus (3) Sphagum and Polytrichum
168. Red rust of tea is caused by :- (4) Riccia and Marchantia

(1) Harveyella (2) Cephaleuros 173. Gemmae are -
(3) Macrocystis (4) Laminaria (1) Asexual reproductive unicellular structure

of moss
169. Choose the incorrect statement regarding red
algae:- (2) Sexual reproductive structure of liverwort
(1) They have always predominance of the r- (3) Sexual reproductive structure of moss
phyocyanin in their body (4) Asexual reproductive structure of
(2) Most of red algae are found in the warmer liverwort
areas of ocean 174. All bryophytes are :-
(3) They usually reproduce by fragementation (1) Homosporous (2) Heterosporous
(4) Common members are Polysiphonia and (3) Monoecious (4) Dioecious
Porphyra

ALLEN
175. Choose the correct statement :- 178. Gametophytes are always :-
(1) Sporophytic generation in (1) Vascular structures
byrophytes has independent free-living (2) Made of 2n cells
existence
(3) Nonvascular structures
(2) Gametophyte of moss is the most advanced
gametophyte among the plant kingdom (4) Independent structures
(3) Sporophyte is always differentiated into 179. The protonema represents :-
roots, stem and leaves (1) Gametophyte of mosses
(4) Most of pteridophytes produce two kinds (2) Sporophyte of angiosperm
of spores i.e microspores and megaspores (3) Sporophyte of bryophytes
176. The aquatic fern which is used as a biofertiliser
(4) Sporophyte of green algae
is :-
180. Which of the following is true for alternation of
(1) Adiantum
generation?
(2) Salvinia
(3) Azolla (1) The sporophyte undergoes syngamy to
produce spores
(4) Dryopteris
177. Vascular cryptogames are :- (2) The gametophyte undergoes syngamy to
produce spores
(1) Pteridophyte
(2) Moss (3) The sporophyte undergoes meiosis to
produce spores
(3) Thallophyte
(4) The gametophyte undergoes meiosis to
(4) All of these
produce gametes

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

English / 21062020 Page 23/23
QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST
FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2019 - 2020)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE : NURTURE-I

MINOR CURRENT PREVIOUS SYLLABUS
TEST NO. UNIT PREVIOUS UNIT FROM TOPIC
P BASIC MATHS
SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
05
22-06-2020 TOPICS C MOLE CONCEPT
12-07-2020
TO
11-07-2020
PLANT DIVERSITY
B
(COVERED TILL 31.05.2020)

Classroom Contact Programme: Pre-Medical: Nurture Course (Phase: I)

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Test Pattern

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

the particle is : – (1) 60° (2) 120°

(1) 0° (2) 45° (1) 15 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1

(3) 6 km/hr (4) 22.5 km/hr (4) 1, 2, 1

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

3π constant. The displacement of the particle

1 3π (1) t3 (2) t2 (3) t (4) t1/2

(1) 10 m/s (2) 12 m/s (3) 12 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2

(3) – 3 + log 2 (4) None of these (1) 2

47. pH of a strong diprotic acid (H2A) at (2) 3

(2) 6 (4) 0.100%

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

(3) 10–4 (4) 10–5

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

(2) Ascocarp (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes

(2) Aspergillus (2) Beijerneck

(3) Ustilago (3) Stanley

(4) Puccinia (4) Pasteur

Potato spindle (1) Euglena Nostoc

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

(C) (2) Club mosses

(3) A–Chara, B–Laminaria, C–Volvox (2) Funaria and Sphagnum

(4) A–Porphyra, B–Polysiphonia, C–Fucus (3) Sphagum and Polytrichum

168. Red rust of tea is caused by :- (4) Riccia and Marchantia

(3) Macrocystis (4) Laminaria (1) Asexual reproductive unicellular structure

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

Nurture Course - I 1001CMD300120004

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE : NURTURE-I

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