Developmental Biology Exam #1

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1. Autonomous 1. predominates in most 12. The DNA methylation true

specification invertebrates pattern in the zygote
2. is the process of specification by becomes modified during
differential acquisition of certain the process of
cytoplasmic molecules present in differentiation
the egg
13. Enhancers can 1. signal where and when a
3. produces mosaic development
promoter can be used and
i.e. cells cannot change fate if a
how much product to make
blastomere is lost
2. control efficiency and rate
2. Cadherin can have a catenins of transcription from a specific
cytoplasmic region that promoter
binds directly to: 3. interact with distal
promoters in a highly
3. Cadherins function via 1. Cadherins on adjacent cells
selective manner
direct binding between 2. Catenins which anchor
4. activate genes on the same
cadherin molecules on cadherins
chromosome i.e. cis regulation
one cell and
14. Eukaryotic genes expressed False. Transcription factors
4. Casein mRNA stability will degrade over time but will do
in specific cell types are influence transcription in both
so much faster in the absence of
regulated by enhancer time and space
prolactin
sequences that influence
5. Cells tend to form 1. to reflect their respective gene transcription in both
aggregate positions in the embryo time and space. This
2. to show selective affinity statement is:
6. Chimeric quail-chicken Trace cell fate 15. Futile cycle mutants fail to 1. consistently show only two
animals are generated go through pronuclear labeled nuclei
to fusion
7. Chromatin Immuno- 1. used to identify enhancer 16. Gene activation can result a. Histone modification
Precipitation elements by sequencing DNA from (acetylation)
Sequencing is regions bound by specific
17. Genomic imprinting is the 1. genes from one parent are
transcription factors
phenomenon by which not always equivalent to
8. c-Kit mutations lead to Piebald genes from the other parent
9. Degradation of mRNA a. MicroRNAs can act as e.g. a mutant gene may not be
molecules translational inhibitors, binding to expressed if it is not derived
the 3′ UTR of the RNA. from the right parent
b. The microRNA recruits an RNA- 2. only the sperm-derived or
induced silencing complex that only the egg-derived allele of
either prevents translation or leads the gene is expressed,
to the degradation of the mRNA sometimes due to inactivation
of one allele by DNA
10. Developmental 1. chemicals
methylation during
abnormalities can 2. viruses
spermatogenesis or oogenesis
result from exposure to 3. radiation
exogenous agents 4. hyperthermia 18. Highest transcriptome a. organogenesis (lecture)
including collectively known as tetratogens similarities among
vertebrates occurs during
11. Different combination True
of transcription factors
can induce cells to
acquire different fates
19. Homologous structures 1. are organs whose 28. Mi430 in Zebrafish 1. promotes deadenylation and
underlying similarity clearance of maternal mRNAs
arises from the being 2. plays a major role in clearing
derived from a maternally derived transcripts as
common ancestral zebrafish blastula transitions to
structure zygotic control during gastrulation
2. can differentiate by
29. Micro mRNA inhibit inhibition of translation or
altering development
translation by elongation
and these changes
provide the variation 30. miRNA can 1. probably modulate 50% of the
needed for protein-encoding genes in our
evolutionary change bodies
2. Be in independent transcription
20. How many types of histone four
units or reside in introns of other
proteins are in a condensed
genes
nucleosome?
3. Inhibit expression of specific
21. If the surface tension of (b) is 1. if there is more genes by degrading their mRNA
stronger that (a) cells will likely surface tension in b, (RNA interference)
segregate as in the cells will migrate 4. Small (about 22 nucleotide)
more centrally towards RNAs complementary to a portion
b of a particular mRNA that regulates
translation of a specific message.
22. In Situ hybridisation and immune 1. it enables
MicroRNAs usually bind to the 3′
labelling using antibodies are visualization of spatial
UTR of mRNAs and inhibit their
techniques respectively used to and temporal patterns
translation.
label m-RNA and proteins. Which of specific gene
of the following statements is expression 31. A mouse cloned from have a defective immune system
true? 2. cells in a tissue nuclei derived from a
squash are B or T lymphocyte will
immobilized under a
32. Mutations affecting a Developmental phenotypes
thin layer of agar
splicing site can lead
23. Maternal mRNA in the developing the transition to to:
Zebrafish is cleared as the result zygotic control during
33. Mutations affecting termination codons which lead to
of gastrulation
myostatin genes lead truncated proteins (non-functional
24. The mediator complex regulates RNA to proteins) and leads to over
elongation production of muscles i.e.
hyperplasia and hypertrophy
25. Methylated DNA 1. Repress gene
expression 34. Non uniform mRNA a. maternal effect genes and how
2. Blocks binding of distribution within a impact polarity of cell (mRNAs
transcription factors to cell can result from translated)
enhancers (cannot bind
35. The outcome of mixing epidermal cells covering the neural
if methylated)
neural plate cells and cells
26. Methylation of histone H3 can 1. highly repressed epidermal cells results
result in chromatin in a sphere of cells
2. activation with the
27. Methylation of histones occurs on 1. lysine 36. The outer layer of the Ectoderm
the amino acid 2. true embryo is produced
by which primary germ
layer?
37. Pioneer 1. are able to bind to heterochromatin 47. Which nucleobase is cytosine
transcription (condensed chromatin) and open them commonly found in
factors up transcriptionally repressed
2. recruit other transcription factors and genes?
histone modifying enzymes and allow
48. Which of the following 1. differentiation
access to promoters
cellular events is crucial for 2. commitment (specification
38. The posterior Caudal gene which codes for a bat wing formation? & determination)
region of the homeodomain transcription factor
49. Which of the following 1. fertilization is external
drosophila
characteristics makes the 2. gametogenesis and
oocyte contains
frog a good animal model for fertilisation are seasonal
relatively high
the study of development? events
levels of which
3. volume of frog egg
active protein?
remains the same throughout
39. Quail cells differ a. Species specific proteins form immune cleavage
from chick cells system 4. display some of the most
for: b. Heterochromatin dramatic of vertebrate life
i. quail: single large nuclei cycles
ii. chick: diffused nuclei
50. Which of the following a. Genomic equivalence: the
40. Reprogramming reprogrammed into induced pluripotent concepts is true (somatic theory that every cell of an
of somatic cells stem cells state by forced expression of cells and genome...) organism has the same
can be Oct3/4, Sox2, Klf4, c-Myc genome as every other cell.
b. somatic nuclei contain all
41. RNA transcripts splicing
information needed to
are translated
generate complete animal
into an active
protein after 51. Which of the following a. Canonical WNT pathway
processes is utilised for (beta-catenin dependent)
42. Splice variants of a. self-avoidance in dendrites (lecture)
modulation of gene b. Transcription factors
the Drosophila b. non-variant creates 38,016 proteins
expression? c. Histone/DNA methylation
DsCam
d. Acetylation (activating)
43. A syndrome is a condition in which two or more e. enhancers/silencers
malformations are expressed together
52. Which of the following selective activation of mRNA
44. Tissue specific 1. by elements that can be identified by sentences better defines translation
expression of fusing reporter genes to suspected what ribosomal selectivity is?
genes can be enhancer regions of the genes expressed
53. Which one of the listed histone methyltransferase
controlled in particular cell types
proteins has a role in
2. by enhancer modularity wherein genes
keeping chromatin
having multiple, separate enhancers
condensed?
allow a protein to be expressed in
several different tissues 54. Which process is utilised cell-to-cell adhesion i.e.
during tissue juxtacrine interactions
45. To de- cell programming
morphogenesis? paracrine interactions
differentiate
mechanical interactions
somatic cells into
endocrine interactions
a pluripotent
stem cell
46. Transcription Bind DNA and regulate gene
factors can transcription (RNA synthesis) via
activation or suppression. Some
transcription factors stabilize RNA
polymerase II binding to the DNA, and
some disrupt nucleosomes, increasing
the efficiency of transcription.
55. Whittaker experiment on tunicates 1. there is autonomous specification in the early tunicate embryo
proved that 2. there is cytoplasmic segregation of tissue determinants in early tunicate embryos
3. cell fate is determined by a set of critical determination factors within the egg cytoplasm
i.e. each cell knows its fate