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TẬP THỂ THẦY CÔ DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ

(Biên soạn và phát hành)

Ðề thi do đội ngũ thầy cô tâm huyết biên soạn


Bám sát đề tham khảo do Bộ GD-ÐT công bố
Chia sẻ hoàn toàn miễn phí cho học sinh trên
toàn quốc góp phần chung tay chống dịch
Covid-19
DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT – MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Email:
Đôi nét về Dự án: Dự án Đề thi thử Tốt nghiệp THPT – môn Tiếng Anh đi
vào hoạt động từ tháng 3 năm 2020, kết nối nhiều thầy cô giáo hiện là
cán bộ quản lý, TTCM, GV có trình độ chuyên môn tốt, tâm huyết với
nghề đang công tác tại các trường ĐH, CĐ, THPT, THPT chuyên trên
khắp cả nước. Nhiều thầy cô là Tiến sĩ, Thạc sĩ, Giáo viên giỏi, là thành
viên Hội đồng bộ môn, đã từng tham gia giảng dạy trên truyền hình trong
giai đoạn phòng dịch Covid-19 …

Người khởi xướng dự án: Thầy NGUYỄN VIẾT TÝ – Trường THPT Bùi Dục Tài,
Quảng Trị.
Phụ trách các nhóm chuyên môn:
Trưởng nhóm chuyên môn 1: Thầy giáo NGUYỄN VĂN ĐỊNH – Trường
THPT Trần Cao Vân, Khánh Hòa
Trưởng nhóm chuyên môn 2: Cô giáo PHẠM THỊ NGỌC TÚ – Trường THPT
Lê Hữu Trác, Hà Tĩnh
Trưởng nhóm chuyên môn 3: Cô giáo NGUYỄN THỊ KIM KHOA – Trường
THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Thị Minh Khai, Sóc Trăng
Trưởng nhóm chuyên môn 4: Cô giáo TRẦN HƯƠNG GIANG – Trường Đại
học Bách khoa Hà Nội.

Cùng các thầy cô trong Hội đồng chuyên môn:


ĐẶNG TRẦN HÀ - THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Tất Thành - Yên Bái, NGUYỄN THỊ LINH
HƯƠNG - Queensland, Australia, HOÀNG THỊ SÁU - THPT chuyên Hoàng Văn Thụ -
Hoà Bình, ĐẶNG HOÀNG TUẤN - THPT Thới Long - Cần Thơ, PHẠM THỊ MỸ LỆ -
THPT Nguyễn Thái Học - Bình Định, PHẠM THỊ QUYÊN - THPT Tây Hiếu - Nghệ An,
HÀ THỊ HỒNG - THPT chuyên Thái Nguyên - Thái Nguyên, PHẠM THỊ MINH - THPT
chuyên Hoàng Văn Thụ - Hòa Bình, NGUYỄN CHÍ HIỀN
- THPT Thị Xã Quảng Trị - Quảng Trị, PHẠM THỊ HẢI NGỌC - PT Dân tộc nội trú
THPT tỉnh Tuyên Quang - Tuyên Quang, PHAN PHÚ CƯƠNG - THPT Chuyên Nguyễn
Quang Diêu - Đồng Tháp, NGUYỄN HUỲNH NHƯ HIỀN - THPT chuyên Nguyễn
Quang Diêu - Đồng Tháp, NGUYỄN THANH THUỲ - THPT Trần Nguyên Hãn - Hải
Phòng, HOÀNG THỊ HIỀN - THPT Hạ Hòa - Phú Thọ, LÊ THỊ BÍCH
HẰNG - Đại học Điện lực - Hà Nội, ĐÀO THỊ THƯƠNG - THPT Chuyên Tuyên Quang
- Tuyên Quang, NGUYỄN THỊ HƯƠNG QUỲNH - THPT Ban Mai - Hà Nội, HỒ THỊ
MINH NGUYỆT - THPT Phúc Thọ - Hà Nội, ĐÀO TRỌNG ĐẢO - THPT
Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm - Hải Phòng, NGUYỄN THỊ BẢO TRÂN - THPT Cần Giuộc - Long
An, TRẦN MẠNH CƯỜNG - THPT Nguyễn Khuyến - Nam Định, NGUYỄN HẢI
DƯƠNG - Hà Nội, NGUYỄN VĂN NAM - THPT Tân Yên số 2 - BẮC GIANG,

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VŨ THỊ LUYẾN - THPT B Duy Tiên - Hà Nam, PHẠM THỊ HẢI YẾN - THPT Võ Nhai
- Thái Nguyên, NGUYỄN HOÀNG NHẬT MINH - THPT Phạm Văn Đồng - Khánh Hòa,
BÙI THỊ QUỲNH TRANG - Cao đẳng thực hành FPT Polytechnic - Hà Nội, ĐINH THỊ
THÁI HÀ - THPT Lương Sơn - Hoà Bình, HÀ ANH TUẤN - THPT Lê Hữu
Trác - Hà Tĩnh, BÙI THỊ THU NHUNG - THPT Nguyễn Siêu - Hưng Yên, NGUYỄN
THU HUYỀN - THPT Phúc Thọ - Hà Nội, LÊ THỊ KIM CÚC - THPT Gio Linh - Quảng
Trị, BÙI THỊ LIÊN - THPT Ngô Gia Tự - Đăk Lăk, HOÀNG HUỆ - THPT Thạch Kiệt -
Phú Thọ, NGUYỄN THỊ TỨ - THPT Lê Quảng Chí - Hà Tĩnh, PHẠM THANH XUÂN
MỪNG - THPT Trần Hưng Đạo - Nam Định, TẠ NHAN NỮ NGUYỆT ANH - THPT
chuyên Võ Nguyên Giáp - Quảng Bình, PHẠM LAN - THPT Nam Đông Quan
- Thái Bình, TRẦN THỊ DUNG - THPT Nguyễn Viết Xuân - Vĩnh Phúc, NGUYỄN
HẠNH MINH - Học viện Hàng Không Việt Nam - TP. Hồ Chí Minh, NGUYỄN THỊ
HUYỀN TRANG - THPT Phước Bình - Bình Phước, HÀ THỊ NGA - Hà Nội, PHÙNG
THỊ MƠ - THPT Nguyễn Đức Thuận - Nam Định, TRẦN THU HIỀN - THPT
Thường Xuân 3 - Thanh Hóa, MAI HỒNG NGỌC - THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Quang Diêu -
Đồng Tháp, LÊ THỊ NHÃ TÂM - PTDTNT Tây Nguyên - Đăk Lăk, ĐÀO THỊ LAN
HƯƠNG - THPT số 4 TP Lào Cai - Lào Cai, VŨ THỊ HÀ - THPT Võ
Trường Toản - TP. Hồ Chí Minh, NGUYỄN HỮU HOÀNG - THPT Trần Cao Vân -
Khánh Hòa, NGUYỄN THỊ PHƯƠNG MAI - THPT Tứ Kỳ - Hải Dương, ĐINH DIỆP
- PTDTNT THCS&THPT Huyện Si Ma Cai - Lào Cai, NGUYỄN THỊ TUYẾT NHUNG
- THPT Hoàng Hoa Thám - Quảng Bình, BÙI THỊ TÀI - THPT Hoàng Văn Thụ - Nam
Định, VÕ TUYẾT THÀNH - THPT Trần Phú - Đăk Nông, NGUYỄN TRƯƠNG
QUỲNH TRANG - THPT Thị xã Quảng Trị - Quảng Trị, LÊ ANH VÂN - THPT Phan
Chu Trinh - Đăk Lăk, HOÀNG KHÁNH CHI - THPT NCT - Hà Tĩnh, PHẠM THỊ
THUÝ NGA - THPT Thạch Bàn - Hà Nội, PHẠM THỊ KIỀU DIỄM - TPHCM, TRỊNH
THỊ NHÀN - THPT Mai Thanh Thế - Sóc Trăng, NGUYỄN THỊ ZEN - THPT Đường An
- Hải Dương, NGÔ TRÀ MY - THPT Wellspring - Hà Nội, HOÀNG DIỆU VÂN ANH -
THPT Ngô Quyền - Thái Nguyên, LÊ THỊ PHƯƠNG - Nghệ An, NGUYỄN THỊ SINH
- THPT Xuân Trường - Nam Định, PHẠM THỊ THU PHƯƠNG - THPT
Đoaàn Thị Điểm - Hà Nội, NGUYỄN THỊ THÙY LINH - THPT Đỗ Đăng Tuyển - Quảng
Nam, NGUYỄN XUÂN THU - THPT Nguyễn An Ninh - TP. Hồ Chí Minh, NGUYỄN
LÊ DANH - THPT Hàm Thuận Bắc - Bình Thuận, NGUYỄN THỊ THU HIỀN
- THPT Châu Văn Liêm - An giang, ĐOÀN THỊ THANH LOAN - THPT Bình Sơn -
Vĩnh Phúc, NGUYỄN THỊ THANH PHƯƠNG - THPT Bình Sơn - Vĩnh Phúc, PHAN
THỊ DUNG - THPT Nguyễn Văn Trỗi - Hà Tĩnh, PHẠM THỊ HƯỜNG - THPT Đoan
Hùng - Phú Thọ, HOÀNG THỊ DÂN - Hà Tĩnh, ĐINH THỊ THU - THPT Tuệ Tĩnh -
Hải Dương, TRẦN THỊ TOAN - THPT Lương Thế Vinh - Quảng Bình , NGUYỄN
HUỲNH MINH PHƯƠNG - TP. Hồ Chí Minh.
Gửi các em học sinh khối 12, năm học 2020-2021 trên cả nước,

Năm nào cũng vậy, khi phượng nở, tiếng ve kêu nghĩa là một mùa hè sắp bắt đầu, khác với
mọi năm, năm nay kỳ nghỉ hè các em không còn thỏa sức vui chơi nữa, mà phải vùi đầu trong
sách vở để chinh phục kỳ thi sắp đến – Kỳ thi tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2021.

Các em thật thiệt thòi khi 2 năm liên tiếp chịu tác động của đại dịch Covid-19, chắc chắn
điều này ảnh hưởng không nhỏ đến việc học và ôn thi của các em. Thầy cô trong Dự án đề thi
thử tốt nghiệp THPT – môn Tiếng Anh thấu hiểu được điều này, muốn chia sẻ đến các em 10
đề thi thử được biên soạn bám sát đề tham khảo của Bộ GD-ĐT như là một món quà nhỏ và
đồng thời góp phần nhỏ bé của mình cùng với toàn xã hội chung tay chống dịch
Covid-19.

Thầy cô hi vọng rằng trong thời gian tới các em sẽ tiếp tục thực hiện tốt thông điệp 5K và các
biện pháp phòng dịch khác để luôn khỏe, an toàn và chinh phục kỳ thi TN THPT 2021 với kết
quả như ý.

Thầy cô Dự án Đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT – môn Tiếng Anh.

* Hình ảnh bìa: Phỏng theo tác phẩm “Việt Nam quyết thắng đại dịch” của tác giả Huỳnh
Trường Giang tại cuộc thi ảnh “Ấn tượng Việt Nam mùa
Covid-19” do Bộ Y tế tổ chức.
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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 401
Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. worked B. stopped C. forced
Question 2. A. hand B. bad C. hat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each
of the following questions.
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide
Question 4. A. stimulate B. sacrifice C. devastate
determine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The children were very tiresome, ?
A. weren't they B. wasn't they C. didn't they
they
Question 6. The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary
Forum (APPF)
A. was held B. held C. being held
hold
Question 7. Most of Vietnamese people are satisfied their
government’s response to combat Covid-19 pandemic.
A. above B. with C. to
Question 8. The more electricity you use, your bill will be.
A. higher B. the higher C. highest
Question 9. Alan often drives a car.
A. blue small Japanese B. small Japanese blue C. Japanese small blue
D. small blue Japanese
Question 10. When I got home I found that water down the kitchen
walls.
A. ran B. was running C. has run
running
Question 11. Blackpink’s members were very different, they did seem
to get on well when they met.
A. In spite of B. Though C. Because of
Because
Question 12. They will have suffered from coldness and hunger for 6 hours

A. by the time we find B. when we found


C. as soon as we had found D. after we had found
Question 13. under normal clothes, a thermal layer keeps you warm in
minus temperatures.
A. Wearing B. Having been worn C. To wear
Question 14. We haven’t reached the final on the funding for scientific
research yet.
A. decides B. decision C. decisively
Question 15. The child really his father even the smallest actions.
A. takes after B. looks after C. goes off
Question 16. She a really good impression of the president in order to
make everybody laugh.
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A. did

B. made

C. built

D. caused
Question 17. A football
player was suspended for four
matches after arguing with the

A. audience

B. spectator

C. umpire

D. referee
Question 18. Rowena

for joy when she heard that


she’d won the first prize.
A. jumped

B. cried

C. screamed

D. clapped
Question 19. The
improvement has been
across the
either increasing profits
or reducing losses.
A. bulletin

B. board

C. company

D. newspaper
Mark the letter A, B,
C, or D on your
answer sheet to
indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined
word(s) in each of the
following questions.
Question 20. Many
people are failing to
save enough to provide
them with a decent
standard of living in
retirement.
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A. satisfactory B. courteous C. honest D. polite
Question 21. The Ministry of Health has officially announced a message featuring 5K to contain the spread of
COVID-19 infections.
A. include B. cover C. control D. maintain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Most of the students in our country are interested in pursuing higher education to get bachelor's
degrees.
A. following B. giving up C. trying D. interrupting
Question 23. We think they will be at the party in two shakes because they are so excited
A. very soon B. very late C. very boringly D. very happily
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Two friends are talking in the classroom.
- Jack: “How long does it take you to go to school?”
- John: “ . I walk every day.”
A. My father drives me to school B. About 20 kilometres
C. About 5 minutes D. Let me see
Question 25. Two students are talking about their assignment.
- Tim: “We should give more photos to a slideshow in our history presentation next week.”
- Laura: “ . They will make our presentation more interesting”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary. B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now. D. That’s true. I understand how you feel
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Wave power
Engineers are building machinery to harness the power of ocean waves. As an abundant source of clean
energy, wave power can be categorised along with (26) sustainable energy sources, such as wind and
solar power.
Wave power is extracted by wave energy converters, or WECs, which are placed along the ocean (27)
that produce strong waves. The first wave farm, (28) comprises three WECs, was built off the
coast of Portugal in 2008. It was set to produce over two megawatts of energy – enough to power 2,000 homes.
Sadly the project hit a (29) block two months into operation and has remained offline ever since,
demonstrating the high probability of technical difficulties that can still arise.
Engineers are continuing to build wave farms worldwide, (30) it is worth cultivating the extraction
of wave power. The amount of power that could potentially be extracted is three terawatts – enough for
billions of homes and businesses.
(Adapted from “Use of English for advanced” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles)
Question 26. A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 27. A. floods B. streams C. currents D. brooks
Question 28. A. whom B. which C. why D. who
Question 29. A. stumbling B. stepping C. tripping D. rolling
Question 30. A. despite B. so C. as D. but
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Fort Collins certainly does its part to uphold Colorado’s reputation as one of the country’s most physically
active states. Recreational activities in Fort Collins range from biking and hiking to snowboarding and
kayaking. Thanks to its location at the foothills of the Rocky Mountains and the banks of the Poudre River,
and a robust lineup of city-run indoor exercise facilities, Fort Collins residents have plenty of opportunities to
get their hearts pumping. The city’s vibrant craft brewing scene serves as a hard-earned reward for Fort
Collins’ active locals.
Fort Collins has long prioritized the performance of its public school system, with efforts that have paid off
in spades and made the city one of the country's best places to live. Fort Collins' 41,680 students perform 3 to
19 percent higher than the statewide average in all subjects; and on a national scale, Fort Collins pupils
consistently are ahead of the game when it comes to ACT and SAT college entrance exam averages.

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Fort Collins has invested extensively in its local library system, cultural offerings, and public learning
opportunities. The city’s Fort Collins Museum of Discovery is a gorgeous hands-on learning space featuring
an array of traditional and pop-science exhibits that fascinate the young and old. The museum’s marquee
attraction, the OtterBox Digital Dome Theatre, screens a variety of nationally and internationally release
science and nature films on a 35-foot dome screen.
Rounding out the city’s cultural, academic, and natural attractions is Fort Collins’ notable slate of industry
because it’s regarded as an engine of economic growth and stability for northern Colorado. Fort Collins
enjoys the presence and job provision of Fortune 500 luminaries. Businesses in Fort Collins find strong
support from local residents and city leaders.
(Adapted from https://livability.com)
Question 31. Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Fort Collins: Home Base for Outdoor Enthusiasts
B. Fort Collins: The Worth-living City
C. Proud of Education in Fort Collins
D. Fort Collins and Its Economic Policies
Question 32. The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. foothills’ B. banks’ C. facilities’ D. residents’
Question 33. The word " release " in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. broadcast B. absorb C. give freedom D. transmit
Question 34. According to the passage, why is Fort Collins a significant industry?
A. Residents and city officials are supportive of businesses
B. It’s famous for its agriculture.
C. It’s known as the driver of economic development in northern Colorado.
D. It lacks companies that provide employment.
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Fort Collins’ education as stated in the passage?
A. It has placed a premium on its state school system for a long time.
B. In all subjects, students surpass the state record average by 3 to 19 %
C. Students always outperform at entrance exam averages.
D. Students don’t have any place to study outside the school.

Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42
Photographic evidence suggests that liquid water once existed in great quantity on the surface of Mars.
Two types of flow features are seen: runoff channels and outflow channels. Runoff channels are found in the
southern highlands. These flow features are extensive systems of interconnecting, twisting channels that
seem to merge into larger, wider channels. They bear a strong resemblance to river systems on Earth, and
geologists think that they are dried-up beds of long-gone rivers that once carried rainfall on Mars from the
mountains down into the valleys. Runoff channels on Mars speak of a time 4 billion years ago, when the
atmosphere was thicker, the surface warmer, and liquid water widespread.
Outflow channels are probably relics of catastrophic flooding on Mars long ago. They appear only in
equatorial regions and generally do not form extensive interconnected networks. Instead, they are probably
the paths taken by huge volumes of water draining from the southern highlands into the northern plains. The
onrushing water arising from these flash floods likely also formed the odd teardrop-shaped "islands" that have
been found on the plains close to the ends of the outflow channels. Judging from the width and depth of the
channels, the flow rates must have been truly enormous – perhaps as much as a hundred times greater than the
105 tons per second carried by the great Amazon River. Flooding shaped the outflow channels approximately
3 billion years ago, about the same time as the northern volcanic plains formed.
Some scientists speculate that Mars may have enjoyed an extended early period during which rivers, lakes,
and perhaps even oceans adorned its surface. A 2003 Mars Global Surveyor image shows what mission
specialists think may be a delta – a fan-shaped network of channels and sediments where a river once flowed
into a larger body of water, in this case a lake filling a crater in the southern highlands. Other researchers go
even further, suggesting that the data provide evidence for large open expanses of water on the early Martian
surface. A computer-generated view of the Martian north polar region shows the extent of what may have
been an ancient ocean covering much of the northern lowlands. The Hellas Basin, which measures some
3,000 kilometers across and has a floor that lies nearly 9 kilometers below the basin's rim, is another
candidate for an ancient Martian sea.
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(Source: https://www.ets.org/toefl/rpdt/prepare/reading)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. Running Water on Mars? B. Photographic Evidence of a Martian sea
C. Saving Martian Surface Water D. A Mars Global Surveyor
Question 37. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. channels B. geologists C. systems D. Mars
Question 38. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that 105 tons of water flow through
the Amazon River per second?
A. To emphasize the great size of the volume of water that seems to have flowed through Mars’ outflow
channels
B. To indicate data used by scientists to estimate how long ago Mars’ outflow channels were formed
C. To argue that flash floods on Mars may have been powerful enough to cause tear-shaped "islands" to form
D. To argue that the force of flood waters on Mars was powerful enough to shape the northern volcanic plains
Question 39. The word "relics" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. remains B. sites C. requirements D. sources
Question 40. The word "adorned" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. attached B. ornament C. embellished D. bedecked
Question 41. Which of the following questions about geological features on Mars is NOT answered in
paragraph 3?
A. What are some regions of Mars that may have once been covered with an ocean?
B. Where do mission scientists believe that the river forming the delta emptied?
C. Approximately how many craters on Mars do mission scientists believe may once have been lakes filled
with water?
D. During what period of Mars' history do some scientists think it may have had large bodies of water?
Question 42. What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about liquid water on Mars?
A. If ancient oceans ever existed on Mars' surface, it is likely that the water in them has evaporated by now.
B. If there is any liquid water at all on Mars' surface today, its quantity is much smaller than the amount that
likely existed there in the past.
C. Small-scale gullies on Mars provide convincing evidence that liquid water existed on Mars in the recent past.
D. The small amount of water vapor in the Martian atmosphere suggests that there has never been liquid water
on Mars.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. Last month, my mother makes more than 20 dresses and sold all of them.
A B C D
Question 44. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its needs.
A B C D
Question 45. Government should see WHO’s Disease Outbreak News to get up-to-date information on
A B
the impact of COVID-19 virus variety on the effectiveness of the different vaccines.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year. B. A year ago, I often went to the museum.
C. My going to the museum lasted a year. D. At last I went to the museum after a year.
Question 47. "Don’t forget to submit your project next Saturday, Jane" Mr. John said.
A. Mr. John denied submitting Jane’s project the following Saturday.
B. Mr. John reminded Jane to submit her project the following Saturday.
C. Mr. John blamed Jane for not submitting her project the following Saturday.
D. Mr. John encouraged Jane to submit her project on time.
Question 48. It isn’t necessary for you to finish the project today.
A. You needn’t finish the project today. B. You may not finish the project today.
C. You had better not finish the project today. D. You can’t finish the project today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
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Question 49. The examiner doesn’t accept my answer. My handwriting is not legible.
A. If only the examiner will accept my answer and can read my handwriting.
B. The examiner wouldn’t accept my answer if my handwriting were legible.
C. I wish my handwriting were legible enough for the examiner to accept my answer.
D. Providing my handwriting is legible, the examiner will accept my answer.
Question 50. The COVID-19 has resulted in schools shut all across the world. People are more concerned about
online learning platforms only then.
A. Not until people are more concerned about online learning platforms has the COVID-19 resulted in schools
shut all across the world.
B. Hardly had the Covid-19 result in schools shut all across the world when people are more concerned about
online learning platforms.
C. Only after the COVID-19 has resulted in schools shut all across the world are people more concerned
about online learning platforms.
D. Without people’s concern about online learning platforms, schools all across the world wouldn’t have been
shut down.
------------- THE END -------------

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Page 10 of
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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 402
Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. kissed B. helped C. washed
Question 2. A. can B. hate C. ate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each
of the following questions.
Question 3. A. confide B. divide C. answer
Question 4. A. develop B. reunite C. understand
recommend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The journey soon became tedious, ?
A. doesn't it B. wasn't it C. didn't it
Question 6. From August 21 to 25, over 2,198 foreigners in Son Tra district
Covid-19.
A. tested B. were tested C. were testing
Question 7. Affected by the Western cultures, Vietnamese people’s
attitude
A. for B. with C. through
Question 8. The more tired you are, it is to concentrate.
A. the harder B. harder C. hardest
Question 9. We rent a(n) house in Hoi An Ancient Town.
A. old large furnished B. furnished old large C. large old furnished
old furnished large
Question 10. Sam to change a light bulb when he slipped and fell.
A. was trying B. tried C. had been trying
has tried
Question 11. I show the greatest respect for his brilliant ideas I don't
agree with them.
A. in spite of B. despite C. because of
though
Question 12. , he will have worked there for 10 years.
A. While his contract with the company is expiring
B. By the time his contract with the company expires
C. As soon as his contract with the company had expired
D. Before his contract with the company will expire
Question 13. by the boys' behaviour, she complained to the head
teacher.
A. She annoyed B. Annoyed C. She was annoyed
Annoying
Question 14. I think mobile phones are for people of all ages.
A. usage B. usefully C. useful
Question 15. Our teacher told us that if we don't the environment,
our grandchildren may not even be able to carry on living.
A. take after B. hold on C. look after
Question 16. The group’s legal advisers said they were the initiative to
tackle online privacy issues.
A. doing B. taking C. making
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Page 11 of
50
Question 17. All the dancers
come on stage during the
grand
A. final

B. finale

C. end

D. ending
Question 18. Little
Johnnie’s parents were
worried that he was very
big, but the doctor told
them not to worry as it
was only fat.
A. kitten

B. puppy

C. piglet

D. duckling
Question 19. Vietnam
makes many key
containment decisions in
a
weeks for governments
in other countries to
make.
A. matter

B. trouble

C. situation

D. amount
Mark the letter A, B,
C, or D on your
answer sheet to
indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined
word(s) in each of the
following questions.

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Page 11 of
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Question 20. In spite of the medical advances of recent years, AIDS is basically as fatal as ever before.
A. curable B. painful C. deadly D. disabling
Question 21. Many scientists believe that the functions of self-driving cars will change the nature of traffic.
A. services B. influences C. roles D. popularity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. In some countries, guests tend to feel they are not highly regarded if the invitation to a dinner
party is extended only three or four days before the party date.
A. admired B. disrespected C. worshipped D. expected
Question 23. We racked our brains but we couldn’t come up with a solution.
A. thought quickly B. considered carefully C. thought very hard D. positively changed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. A father and a son are talking on the phone.
- The son: “Dad, I’ve won a scholarship to study in the USA.”
- The father: “ .”
A. Congratulations! I’m proud of you B. Good luck
C. Come on. You can do it D. Let it be
Question 25. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
- Mary: “ . It has many beautiful scenes and two main actors are really involved in their roles.
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I don’t like your saying
C. I didn’t say anything D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Teen spending
A large-scale study has been done by advertisers on the spending habits of today’s teenagers. It has come
up with some fascinating results. Girls across Europe ranging in age from 15 to 18 were interviewed. The
researchers discovered that these girls want to be successful and sophisticated and are willing to spend to (26)
the look they want — when they have the money, that is!
Feeling confident is the most important factor when it comes to buying clothes. (27) interesting piece
of information coming out of the study is that German teenagers go for clothes that are practical and
comfortable, while British and French teenagers are more concerned about appearance, (28) they all
agreed that the clothes should fit them properly. All the girls (29) were interviewed shop for clothes
regularly, half of them buying something from a department store or a large clothes shop at least once a
month. They also see it as a social (30) and going round the shops with their friends is the main way they
learn what the latest trends are.
(Adapted from “Laser B2” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles)
Question 26. A. reach B. manage C. succeed D. achieve
Question 27. A. Many B. Another C. Few D. Other
Question 28. A. although B. so C. but D. for
Question 29. A. who B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 30. A. circumstance B. aspiration C. activity D. commitment
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
When we accept the evidence of our unaided eyes and describe the Sun as a yellow star, we have summed
up the most important single fact about it-at this moment in time.
It appears probably, however, that sunlight will be the color we know for only a negligibly small part of
the Sun's history. Stars, like individuals, age and change. As we look out into space, we see around us stars at
all stages of evolution. There are faint blood-red dwarfs so cool that their surface temperature is a mere 4,000
degrees Fahrenheit, there are searing ghosts blazing at 100,000 degrees Fahrenheit and almost too hot to be
seen, for the great part of their radiation is in the invisible ultraviolet range. Obviously, the "daylight"
produced by any star depends on its temperature; today(and for ages to come) our Sun is at about 10,000
degrees Fahrenheit, and this means that most of the Sun's light is concentrated in the yellow band of the
spectrum, falling slowly in intensity toward both the longer and shorter light waves.

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That yellow "hump" will shift as the Sun evolves, and the light of day will change accordingly. It is natural
to assume that as the Sun grows older, and uses up its hydrogen fuel-which it is now doing at the spanking
rate of half a billion tons a second- it will become steadily colder and redder.
(Adapted from A collection of TOEFL Reading comprehension 4)
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Faint dwarf stars B. The evolutionary cycle of the Sun
C. The Sun's fuel problem D. The dangers of invisible radiation
Question 32. The word “searing” in the 2nd paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. so strong B. far C. negligible D. unaided
Question 33. What does the word "it" in the last paragraph refer to ?
A. yellow "hump" B. day C. Sun D. hydrogen fuel
Question 34. Why are very hot stars referred to as "ghosts"?
A. They are short- lived. B. They are mysterious.
C. They are frightening. D. They are nearly invisible
Question 35. Which of the following sentences is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The Sun’s history is still mysterious.
B. All the stars depend on the Sun for light.
C. The Sun is too hot to be seen by naked eyes.
D. The sun never uses up its hydrogen fuel.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42
Modern civilization is heavily dependent on energy. Without reliable power sources, we couldn’t operate
machines, use transportation, communicate via the Internet, or do many other things. Although everyone
recognizes the importance of energy, deciding what kind of energy the world should use in the future is not a
simple task. The two leading candidates for this role are green energy and nuclear energy.
Currently, most of the energy we use is derived from fossil fuels. Although this energy source has got us
this far, there are several problems with it. For starters, it is a finite resource which is quickly running out.
Some analysts have even estimated that the Earth could run out of coal and oil within the next 50 years.
Burning fossil fuels also creates large amount of pollution, which is harmful to the environment. Although
fossil fuels still provide the majority of our power, governments are seeking better energy sources to use
going forward.
Green energy is one option that is becoming increasingly attractive. It includes technologies such as solar,
wind, and hydro power. These are seen as clean sources of energy because they cause very little pollution. In
addition, they are completely renewable, so there is no danger that it will run out. The major disadvantage
with green energy sources is that they are not cheap.
The other alternative is nuclear power. Like green energy, it is also a renewable source of power that will
not run out, and it also doesn’t produce air pollution. In addition, nuclear power is more reliable than green
energy, as it doesn’t depend on sunshine, rain, or wind to operate. The major issues with nuclear power are
safety concerns and nuclear waste. Nuclear power plants create a considerable amount of nuclear waste which
is extremely hazardous to people’s health. If they happen to have a meltdown, this could destroy the
surrounding area for years to come.
The recent nuclear disaster in Fukushima, Japan brought this reality into the spotlight once again. In
response, Germany announced it would close down eight of its nuclear plants immediately, and close the rest
by 2022. Meanwhile, other nations refuse to give up on nuclear power, stating that these disasters are rare.
The debate of whether to use green or nuclear power will likely continue for some time. In the end, it is quite
possible that both energy sources will be used to fuel our planet.
(Adapted from Intensive Reading Comprehension Skills)
Question 36. What is the main focus of the passage?
A. Why energy is important
B. The energy sources used in the past
C. Comparing future energy solutions
D. Discussing how disasters affect power sources
Question 37. The word “finite” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. abundant B. limited C. insufficient D. replaceable
Question 38. According to the passage, what is the main problem with green energy?
A. It creates lots of pollution. B. It costs more money than other solutions.
C. No one is interested in using it. D. It won’t work at all in many nations.
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Question 39. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. source of power B. alternative power
C. green energy D. nuclear power
Question 40. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Fossil fuels will continue to be the best choice for the future.
B. Nuclear energy will outweigh green energy in the near future.
C. It is easy to decide on the energy solution for the future.
D. A mix of different energy sources will be used in the future.
Question 41. The word “spotlight” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to .
A. concern B. attention C. danger D. area of light
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. nuclear power is more expensive than other sources
B. nuclear energy is renewable because it can be replenished
C. nations have different viewpoints about the utility of nuclear power
D. the nuclear disaster in Fukushima made other countries give up on nuclear power
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. Did you invited them to your wedding party last week?
A B C D
Question 44. All the teachers paid the student compliments on their performance in the English-speaking
contest. A B C D
Question 45. Nutritious disorders can affect any system in the body and the senses of sight, taste, and smell.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time Susan met me was 2 weeks ago.
A. Susan met me for 2 weeks. B. Susan has met me for 2 weeks.
C. Susan hasn’t met me for 2 weeks. D. Susan didn’t meet me 2 weeks ago.
Question 47. "You mustn't go out with bad friends," he said to his son.
A. He accused his son of going out with bad friends.
B. He warned his son about going out with bad friends.
C. He stopped his son from going out with bad friends.
D. He apologized to his son for going out with bad friends.
Question 48. You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I don’t have enough money. I want to buy that house.
A. If only I had enough money and could buy that house.
B. I wish I have enough money to buy that house.
C. Unless I had enough money, I would buy that house.
D. As long as I have enough money, I won’t buy that house.
Question 50. I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes. Shortly after that, I heard the sound of the alarm.
A. Scarcely had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes, I heard the sound of the alarm.
B. Not until I hardly heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and close my eyes.
C. Hardly had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes when I heard the sound of the alarm.
D. Only when I heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and closed my eyes.

------------- THE END -------------

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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 403

Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. repaired B. faced C. cried D. defined
Question 2. A. map B. face C. table D. cake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. parent B. police C. women D. dinner
Question 4. A. contrary B. graduate C. document D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Your younger brother is determined to succeed, ?
A. doesn't he B. wasn't he C. didn't he D. isn't he
Question 6. More than ten missing people yet.
A. haven’t been found B. found C. isn’t found D. had found
Question 7. The basic design of the car is very similar that of earlier models.
A. in B. with C. to D. of
Question 8. The older the man gets, he becomes.
A. the weakest B. weakest C. the weaker D. weaker
Question 9. Have you seen that invention?
A. fantastic new Italian B. new fantastic Italian
C. new Italian fantastic D. Italian new fantastic
Question 10. He fell down when he towards the church.
A. ran B. runs C. was running D. is running
Question 11. she was no more than twenty-two, she was already a highly successful businesswoman.
A. Because B. Despite C. Because of D. Though
Question 12. All the preparations for the party will have been made .
A. before the guests will come B. as soon as the guests had come
C. once the guests came D. by the time the guests come
Question 13. in hospital for several weeks, she was delighted to be home.
A. Being B. Been C. To be D. Having been
Question 14. I think that we should do something immediately to change the situation we are in.
A. person B. personal C. personally D. personality
Question 15. He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he will it.
A. turn off B. get over C. fill in D. take after
Question 16. He was forced to his pride and asked if he could have his old job back.
A. vomit B. digest C. swallow D. chew
Question 17. The photographer took a picture of the deer the moment it came into .
A. place B. sight C. light D. scene
Question 18. My neighbors’ loud music every night is driving me up the .
A. ground B. wall C. stair D. roof
Question 19. The growth in employment and wages gives consumers some spending to absorb the
higher cost of energy.
A. energy B. force C. ability D. power
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office of chief inspector.
A. secret B. intricate C. important D. alarming
Question 21. It is believed that they have kept the traditional family values for years.
A. favorite B. national C. conventional D. important
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I think it's impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate students’
progress.
A. stop B. extinguish C. continue D. organize
Question 23. William, the last of the Herondale children, had finally gone around the bend and burned the
house down
A. insane B. mad C. calm D. lunatic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. John is talking to Peter about the household chores in his family.
- John: “How often does your father do the washing up?”
- Peter: “ .”
A. Not too expensive B. Not so often C. By hand D. About 4 kilometers
Question 25. Jennifer and Katherine are talking about markets.
- Jennifer: “I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets.”
- Katherine: “ . Each has its own features.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more. B. That’s completely true.
C. I disagree with you. D. I can’t help thinking the same.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
National parks
You realise how truly incredible the natural environment is when you take a trip to one of the world’s
national parks. To be eligible for national park (26) , a place must possess a unique natural, cultural or
recreational resource and be considered in need of protection. Fortunately, a considerable number of natural
gems have been designated (27) national parks and some are also World Heritage sites.
From hot springs to snowy peaks, these postcard-worthy destinations could definitely be
on your list of places to visit. Many are also home to (28) pretty amazing flora and fauna. The parks
are extremely popular with outdoor enthusiasts, who can indulge in their favourite activities like hiking or
rafting, surrounded by nature. The largest national park in the world isn’t easily (29) , being in a
remote area of Greenland and boasting a permanent population of zero. It’s also not used to receiving visitors
(around 500 a year). This is a long way from the estimated 11 million tourists (30) flock to the Great
Smoky Mountains of North Carolina and Tennessee in the United States
(Adapted from “Cambridge English Exam Booster for Advanced” by Carole Allsop, Mark Little and Anne Robinson)
Question 26. A. status B. position C. station D. state
Question 27. A. although B. but C. as D. despite
Question 28. A. one B. some C. another D. much
Question 29. A. accessible B. obtainable C. available D. attainable
Question 30. A. whose B. which C. who D. whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The modern age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio, televisions, and
telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them. When there is a power failure,
people grope about in flickering candlelight. Cars hesitate in the streets because there are no traffic lights to
guide them, and food spoils in silent refrigerators.
Yet, people began to understand how electricity works only a little more than two centuries ago. Nature
has apparently been experimenting in this field for millions of years. Scientists are discovering more and more
that the living world may hold many interesting secrets of electricity that could benefit humanity.
All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats, it sends out pulses of recorded
electricity; they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to determine how well the heart is
working. The brain, too, sends out brain waves of electricity, which can be recorded in an
electroencephalogram. The electric currents generated by most living cells are extremely small-of-ten so small
that sensitive instruments are needed to record them. But in some animals, certain muscle cells have become
so specialized as electrical generators that they do not work as muscle cells at all. When large numbers of
these cells are linked together, the effects can be astonishing.

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The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight hundred volts of
electricity through the water in which it lives. An electric house current is only one hundred twenty volts.) As
many as four fifths of all the cells in the electric eel’s body are specialized for generating electricity, and the
strength of the shock it can deliver corresponds roughly to the length of its body.
(Adapted from A collection of TOEFL Reading comprehension 4)
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Electric eels are potentially dangerous
B. Biology and electricity appear to be closely related
C. People would be at a loss without electricity
D. Scientists still have much to discover about electricity
Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the .
A. more beneficial it will be to science B. more powerful will be its electrical charge
C. easier it will be to find D. tougher it will be to eat
rd
Question 33. The word “tiny” in the 3 paragraph is Closest in meaning to
A. big B. close C. small D. amazing
Question 34. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. muscle cells B. animals C. generators D. numbers
Question 35. The author mentions all of the following as results of a blackout EXCEPT
A. refrigerated food items may go bad B. traffic lights do not work
C. people must rely on candlelight D. elevators and escalators do not function
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42
Throughout history, various people have demonstrated a high degree of confidence in the ability of certain
animals to predict the weather. It may seem surprising today in view of the complex equipment now involved
in weather forecasting to understand that in certain cases, the behavior of animals does indeed provide an
indication of inclement weather. Sensitivity of certain animals to falling air pressure or to low-frequency
sound waves that humans cannot hear, which are indicators of approaching storms, causes behaviors in
animals that certain societies have come to recognize as predictors of storms.
A number of animals are remarkably sensitive to variations in air pressure, and some of these animals
show consistent, noticeable, and predictable behaviors as air pressure drops before a storm hits. When the air
pressure drops before a storm, some animals move closer to the ground to equalize the pressure in their ears:
some birds such as swallows tend to stay on the ground or roost in trees instead of soaring in the skies when a
storm is imminent because of the decreasing air pressure. Other animals make more noise than usual as air
pressure drops: an unusual amount of quacking by ducks and a high volume of croaking by frogs are both
indicators that are believed to occur because of the high degree of sensitivity of ducks and frogs to the change
in pressure. Finally, still other animals become more active before storms as a reaction to the falling air
pressure: dolphins and porpoises seem to be taking part in a frenzied sort of play, and bees and ants become
more active prior to storms, most likely because of their sensitivity to lower pressure.
There is good reason to believe that the fact that these animal behaviors seem to occur regularly prior to
storms may have a scientific basis and that the animals demonstrating these behaviors may actually be good
short-range weather forecasters. However, their ability to predict long-range weather patterns is rather
suspect. Certain proverbs, for example, are based on what is most likely the idea that squirrels are good
indicators of long-range weather patterns. One proverb indicates that, if a squirrel seems busier than usual in
gathering nuts, then a long and cold winter is on its way; however, this behavior in squirrels is more likely
due to a large supply of nuts available for gathering, which occurs because of earlier good weather, and is not
an indicator of cold weather to come. Another proverb about squirrels indicates that if a squirrel grows a long
and bushy tail in the fall, then a particularly harsh winter is on its way; in this case too, the squirrel develops a
long and bushy tail because of earlier good weather and not as a warning of bad weather to come.
(Adapted from TOEFL Reading Practice by Deborah Philips)
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Animals as weather forecasters. B. Signs of a weather condition.
C. Proverbs of weather. D. Study of animal behaviors.
Question 37. The word “inclement” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. local B. stormy C. favored D. stable
Question 38. Which of the following happens when air pressure drops before a storm?
A. Swallows soar in the sky.
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B. Ducks suddenly fall silent.
C. Frogs gather together in large groups.
D. Ants move around more frantically than usual.
Question 39. The word “roost” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. feed B. communicate C. grow D. settle
Question 40. The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. a high volume B. croaking frogs C. indicators D. other animals
Question 41. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Some animals can predict weather for a season.
B. Proverbs relating to squirrels are not good weather predictors.
C. Many animals change their behaviors shortly before a storm.
D. Low-frequency sounds are inaudible to the human ear.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. There is a scientific basis for the belief that certain behaviors in animals influence the paths taken by
thunderstorms.
B. Short-range weather forecasts have become increasingly more successful in predicting thunderstorms.
C. Scientists are studying the possibility that certain animal behaviors may occur during storms.
D. Quite possibly there are scientific reasons why animals act in certain ways before storms.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. Voters nationwide go to the polls on May 23, 2021 to elect deputies to the new National
A B C
Assembly and People's Council members of all levels.
D
Question 44. Gamification has been shown to be tremendously effective, both in educational settings,
A B
e-learning settings and even for corporate companies using them to train employees.
C D

Question 45. A new educational programme has been established for economically disadvantageous
A B D
children in remote areas.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time Susan went to school by bike was one year ago.
A. Susan went to school by bike for one year.
B. Susan didn’t go to school by bike one year ago.
C. Susan hasn’t gone to school by bike for one year.
D. Susan has gone to school by bike for one year.
Question 47. "It's me. I broke your vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted breaking Ann’s vase.
Question 48. It’s possible for us to borrow books from the school library.
A. We must borrow books from the school library.
B. We can borrow books in the school library.
C. We have to borrow books from the school library.
D. We should borrow books from the school library.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He isn’t qualified. He is not given important tasks.
A. He wished he hadn’t been qualified and wouldn’t have been given important tasks.
B. If he were qualified, he would never be given important tasks.
C. If only he were qualified and wouldn’t be given important tasks.
D. He wishes he were qualified and would be given important tasks.
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Question 50. The first-time voters casted a ballot for their preferred candidates. They were aware of the citizen
rights and responsibilities then.
A. Without an election to vote for their preferred candidates, the first-time voters couldn't be aware of the
citizen rights and responsibilities.
B. Until they were aware of the citizen rights and responsibilities did the first-time voters cast a ballot for their
preferred candidate.
C. Only when the first-time voters casted a ballot for their preferred candidate were they aware of the citizen
rights and responsibilities.
D. No sooner had they been aware of the citizen rights and responsibilities than the first-time voters cast a
ballot for their preferred candidate.
------------- THE END -------------

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Page 19 of
50
DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mãdanh:………
Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo đề thi 404
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. devoted B. suggested C. providedD.
wished
Question 2. A. match B. can C. have
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each
of the following questions.
Question 3. A. struggle B. common C. action
Question 4. A. important B. impatient C. uncertain
arrogant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. She dedicates herself to her work, ?
A. doesn't she B. won't she C. didn't she
Question 6. Food to the market by trucks at this time yesterday.
A. was delivered B. deliver C. was being delivered
D. delivered
Question 7. They closed the road an attempt to reduce traffic in the city.
A. in B. with C. of
Question 8. The more he earns, he is.
A. the happier B. the more happier C. the most happiest
the happiest
Question 9. Our robot works quite well, which makes his wife satisfied.
A. modern mopping expensive B. expensive modern
mopping
C. mopping expensive modern D. modern expensive
mopping
Question 10. While I TV last night, a mouse ran across the floor.
A. was watching B. watched C. watch
watching
Question 11. Son Tung MTP’s music videos attract millions of views their
high-quality visuals, artistry and diverse range of concepts.
A. because B. despite C. because of D.
though
Question 12. from his university, he will have stayed in
Ho Chi Minh city for 4 years.
A. After he graduated B. Before he graduates
C. As soon as he graduated D. When he has
graduated
Question 13. for the final interview, the candidates were asked to
prepare a short presentation.
A. Having been selected B. Selecting
C. To be selected D. Being selected
Question 14. The interviews with parents showed that the vast
majority were
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D.
supportively
Question 15. He tried to join the army but he was

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Page 20 of
50
word(s) in each of the following questions.
health. Question 20. In spite of being economical in most things, he spends a lot of
A. tried out B. put out money on ties.
C. turned off A. profitable B. awkward C. thrifty
D. turned Question 21. Young couple got divorced after they realized that they were not
Question 16. I almost compatible.
stood up and sang, but I
decided I didn’t want to

A. take B.
make C.
have D. give
Questio
n 17.
She is
very
tough
and
determin
ed. She
should
go all
the
A.
street B.
route C.
lane D. way
Question 18. Joe always says
what she thinks without
worrying that she might ruffle
someone’s
A. brain

B. skin

C. feathers

D. hair
Question 19. It was
obviously, however, a
measure to be used only
in the last
reluctance.
A. attempt

B. act

C. resort

D. measure
Mark the letter A, B,
C, or D on your
answer sheet to
indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined

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Page 20 of
50
A. able to share an apartment or house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of living harmoniously D. capable of having children
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Different from English taught to all Vietnamese students, Chinese and Russian have been made
optional languages taught at secondary schools in Viet Nam.
A. compulsory B. important C. comfortable D. necessary
Question 23. The assembly line is clearly out of whack, we have to report to the manager.
A. damaged B. impaired C. defective D. working
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Tom and Tony, two school boys, are talking in the classroom.
- Tom: “Can I borrow your pen, Tony?”
- Tony: “ .”
A. Not at all B. You’re welcome C. Sure. Here you are D. Yes, I’d love to
Question 25. Two students are talking about their favorite subject.
- Alice: “Zoology is one of the most boring subjects.”
- Mary: “ . Studying animals we develop a better understanding of how we, ourselves, function and
interact with the world around us”
A. I think you’re right. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. Yes. It’s very exciting. D. I’m afraid I’m not with you.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The mobile phone
People have been dreaming of having a personal means of communication for a long time. In the late
1960s, the idea seemed so far in the future that it was included in the science fiction series, Star Trek. Since
the 1980s, however, mobile have become a part of everyday life. (26) they were initially seen as a status
symbol for successful business people, mobile use has spread to include practically everyone in the developed
world, old and young alike. The (27) on social life has been enormous. We have got used to the idea of
having constantly changing social plans, (28) a quick phone call is all takes to rearrange things. Before this
was possible, there were (29) occasions when friends who had arranged to meet completely
missed each other because of a slight misunderstanding. People would often have to (30) very careful
arrangements to be sure of meeting up. As mobiles have become more popular, so they have become more
powerful. The large, unreliable mobile phone of the 1980s has evolved into the small stylish phone of today.
(Adapted from “Destination C1&C2” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles)
Question 26. A. Although B. But C. So D. And
Question 27. A. result B. impact C. outcome D. consequence
Question 28. A. whom B. where C. why D. who
Question 29. A. many B. much C. every D. another
Question 30. A. induce B. render C. make D. reach
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The term “virus” is derived from the Latin word for poison. or slime. It was originally applied to the
noxious stench emanating from swamps that was thought to cause a variety of diseases in the centuries before
microbes were discovered and specifically linked to illness. But it was not until almost the end of the
nineteenth century that a true virus was proven to be the cause of a disease.
The nature of viruses made them impossible to detect for many years even after bacteria had been
discovered and studied. Not only are viruses too small to be seen with a light microscope, they also cannot be
detected through their biological activity, except as it occurs in conjunction with other organisms. In fact,
viruses show no traces of biological activity by themselves. Unlike bacteria, they are not living agents in the
strictest sense Viruses are very simple pieces of organic material composed only of nucleic acid, either DNA
or RNA, enclosed in a coat of protein made up of simple structural units.(Some viruses also contain
carbohydrates and lipids.)
They are parasites, requiring human, animal, or plant cells to live. The virus replicates by attaching to a
cell and injecting its nucleic acid.' Once inside the cell, the DNA or RNA that contains the virus' genetic
information takes over the cell's biological machinery, and the cell begins to manufacture viral proteins rather
than its own.
Page 21 of
50
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Page 22 of
50
(Adapted from A collection of TOEFL Reading comprehension 4)
Question 31. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. New Developments in Viral Research B. Exploring the Causes of Disease
C. DNA: Nature’s Building Block D. Understanding Viruses
Question 32. The author implies that bacteria were investigated earlier than viruses because
A. bacteria are easier to detect B. bacteria are harder to eradicate
C. viruses are extremely poisonous D. viruses are found only in hot climates
Question 33. The word “nature" in paragraph 2 is Closest in meaning to .
A. Self-sufficiency B. Shapes C. Characteristics D. Speed
Question 34. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. bacteria B. shapes C. traces D. viruses
Question 35. All of the following may be components of a virus EXCEPT
A. RNA B. plant cells C. carbohydrates D. a coat of protein
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Three scales of temperature, each of which permits a precise measurement, are in current use: the
Fahrenheit, Celsius, and Kelvin scales. These three different temperature scales were each developed by
different people and have come to be used in different situations.
The scale that is most widely used by the general public in the United States is the Fahrenheit scale. In
1714, Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit, a German physicist who was living in Holland and operating an instrument
business, developed a thermometer and the temperature scale that still carries his name. His original scale had
two fixed points: 0º was the lowest temperature and 96º was what he believed was the normal temperature of
the human body. Based on this scale, he calculated that the freezing point of water was 32º; in later studies, it
was determined that the boiling point of water was 212º. The Fahrenheit scale came to be accepted as the
standard measure of temperature in a number of countries. Today, however, the United States is the only
major country in the world that still uses the Fahrenheit scale.
The scale that is in use in many other countries is the Celsius scale. Anders Celsius, a Swedish astronomer,
developed a thermometer in 1741 that based temperatures on the freezing and boiling temperatures of water.
On the thermometer that Celsius developed, however, 0º was used to indicate the boiling temperature of
water, and 100º was used to indicate the freezing temperature of water. After his death, the scale was reversed
by a friend, the biologist Carl von Linne. On the new scale after the reversal by von Linne, 0º indicated the
freezing temperature of water, and 100º indicated the boiling temperature of water. At around the same time, a
similar thermometer was being developed in France. After the French Revolution, the scale developed in
France was adopted as part of the metric system in that country under the name centigrade, which means "a
hundred units," and from there it spread worldwide. In 1948, an international agreement was made to rename
the centigrade scale the Celsius scale in honor of the scientist who was first known to use a 100-degree scale,
though it should be remembered that the scale that Celsius actually used himself was the reverse of today's
scale.
A third scale, the Kelvin scale, is generally used today for scientific purposes. This scale was first
suggested in 1854 by two English physicists: William Thomson, Lord Kelvin and James Prescott Joule. The
Kelvin scale defines 0º as absolute zero, the temperature at which all atomic and molecular motion
theoretically stops, and 100º separates the freezing point and boiling point of water, just as it does on the
Celsius scale. On the Kelvin scale, with 0º equal to absolute zero, water freezes at 273º, and water boils at a
temperature 100º higher. The Kelvin scale is well suited to some areas of scientific study because it does not
have any negative values, yet it still maintains the 100º difference between the freezing point and boiling
point of water that the Celsius scale has and can thus easily be converted to the Celsius scale by merely
subtracting 273º from the temperature on the Kelvin scale.

Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage? (Adapted from TOEFL Reading Practice by Deborah Philips)
A. Temperature scales in use today. B. Comparison of temperature scales.
C. The origin of thermometers. D. The most common temperature scale.
Question 37. The word fixed in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by .
A. ordered B. repaired C. established D. attached
Question 38. According to the passage, a temperature of 50º centigrade would be equal to .
A. 223º on the Kelvin scale B. 273º on the Kelvin scale
C. 323º on the Kelvin scale D. 373º on the Kelvin scale
Question 39. The word adopted in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by .
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A. taken on B. brought up C. looked upon D. turned down
Question 40. The word it in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. the Kevin scale B. a negative value C. a scientific research D. a difference
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true about the first Celsius scale, according to the passage?
A. It was developed by an astronomer from Sweden.
B. It came into use in the eighteenth century.
C. One hundred degrees separated the freezing and boiling temperatures of water on it.
D. On it, 0º indicated the temperature at which water freezes.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The Kelvin scale enjoys the largest popularity in the world today.
B. The Celsius scale in use was actually the original version.
C. In 1948, nations agreed to name the centigrade scale after the man who developed an earlier version of
the scale.
D. Kevin, Fahrenheit and Celsius were working in cooperation to develop their own thermometers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. In the past, people don’t tend to pay much attention to leisure time activities, which
A B C
is very different from now.
D
Question 44. All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regardless of her age, sex, or
A B C D
nationality.
Question 45. Much more satisfied as evidence are some 5th century torsos of Athena found at Athens.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He has been in London for three years. B. He hasn't visited London for three years.
C. He didn't visit London three years ago. D. He was in London for three years.
Question 47. "Don't talk to strangers," my mother said to us.
A. My mother advised us to talk to strangers.
B. My mother insisted on talking to strangers.
C. My mother warned us against talking to strangers.
D. My mother asked us to talk to strangers.
Question 48. My grandfather was able to work on the field all day without eating.
A. My grandfather can work on the field all day without eating.
B. My grandfather may work on the field all day without eating.
C. My grandfather could work on the field all day without eating.
D. My grandfather would work on the field all day without eating.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Peter doesn’t study hard and often gets bad marks. His mother hates that.
A. Peter wishes he would study hard and get good marks.
B. Peter’s mother wishes he had studied hard and got good marks.
C. Peter’s mother wishes he studied hard and got good marks.
D. In case Peter’s mother wishes he studied hard, he will get good marks.
Question 50. Dave became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Dave to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
B. Only after Dave had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
C. Had Dave become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Dave become a father himself.

------------- THE END -------------

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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 405

Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. matched B. crashed C. occupied D. coughed
Question 2. A. able B. pay C. may D. rack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. adapt B. broaden C. award D. prepare
Question 4. A. occasion B. cinema C. emphasis D. calendar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. She's a biologist, ?
A. doesn't she B. hasn't she C. didn't she D. isn't she
Question 6. The house before the storm came.
A. rebuilt B. had rebuilt C. had been rebuilt D. rebuilt
Question 7. Doctors advise people who are deficient Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. in B. of C. from D. for
Question 8. The warmer the weather gets, the polar ice caps will melt.
A. fastest B. the fastest C. faster D. the faster
Question 9. My father has just bought a table.
A. beautiful coffee wooden B. beautiful wooden coffee
C. wooden beautiful coffee D. coffee wooden beautiful
Question 10. When I came into the office, my boss for me.
A. was waiting B. waited C. waits D. is waiting
Question 11. Lac Troi had no catchy chorus or attractive melody, it was well received by both fans
and critics.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because of D. Because
Question 12. The director will have checked members’ attendance .
A. when the meeting has started B. before the meeting starts
C. after the meeting had started D. while the meeting is starting
Question 13. a lot of lessons, I needed to study hard to keep up with the rest of the class.
A. Missing B. As I miss C. Missed D. Having missed
Question 14. These women were viewed with and they had to work twice as hard to be accepted by
their male colleagues.
A. suspicious B. suspicion C. suspect D. suspiciously
Question 15. When they for the beach the sun was shining, but by the time they arrived it had clouded
over.
A. came up B. went off C. set off D. left out
Question 16. Lucia has a new world record, with 5 consecutive Olympic gold medals in judo.
A. made B. put C. took D. set
Question 17. The industry will continue to move in the of more automation.
A. change B. direction C. solution D. orientation
Question 18. Janny was left to carry the when the project ended in failure although she didn’t have to
take any responsibility for this project.
A. bucket B. bag C. tray D. can
Question 19. Anyone who swims in this part of the river does it at their own .
A. chance B. risk C. danger D. trouble
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The actor raised his voice in order to be audible on the stage.
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A. musical B. dramatic C. appreciated D. heard
Question 21. The article gives us a real insight into the causes of the present economic crisis.
A. deep understanding B. far-sighted view
C. spectacular sighting D. in-depth study
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.
A. physical B. severe C. beneficial D. damaging
Question 23. I found the character he played in the film to be on the same wavelength based on my own
experiences.
A. understandable B. obvious C. familiar D. incomprehensible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Peter and David are on the way home after school.
- Peter: “Would you like to come to my house for dinner?”
- David: “ , but I’m busy tonight.”
A. Not at all B. You’re welcome C. I’d like to D. Really?
Question 25. Linda and Janet are talking about family types.
- Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help one
another.”
- Janet: “ . Many old-aged parents like to lead an independent life in a nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely D. That’s not true
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 26 to 30.
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural
environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest known
subsistence strategy and has been practiced for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way
to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about
10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with the agricultural cousins, their numbers
have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic
wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life. Such
conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The
abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater
opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet
and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the
observation of modem hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and
gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party
harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp, when the food in the area has become
exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns
evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of
behavior may be similar to those practiced by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
(Adapted from “https://www.academia.edu”)
Question 26. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?
A. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods B. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies
C. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming D. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move
Question 27. According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share .
A. only the way of duty division B. some methods of production
C. some patterns of behavior D. some restricted daily rules
Question 28. The word "domestication" in the first paragraph closest in meaning to
A. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
B. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
C. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
D. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
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Question 29. The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to .
A. agricultural cousins B. hunter-gatherers C. numbers D. animals
Question 30. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a way to find food among
prehistoric people?
A. hunting B. farming C. fishing D. gathering
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 31 to 35.
OLYMPIC TORCH RELAY STARTS IN JAPAN
The torch relay for the Tokyo Olympics is finally underway. The 2020 Summer Games were postponed due
to the coronavirus pandemic but organizers have been determined to (31) they go ahead in July. It
began in Fukushima Prefecture, (32) was devastated by the triple disasters of the 2011 earthquake,
tsunami and nuclear meltdown. Fukushima was chosen as the start of the relay to show the area has recovered,
although (33) people say claims of recovery are a little premature.
The head of Japan's Olympic organizing committee, Seiko Hashimoto, said in her opening address: “The
flame will embark on a 121-day journey and will carry the hopes of the Japanese people and wishes for
peace.” Japanese people are being encouraged to look at live broadcasts of the relay and refrain from
travelling to watch it amid fears of a spike in COVID 19 cases. (34) must wear face masks, and are being
urged to clap rather than cheer. Japan's Prime Minister Yoshihide Suga reiterated his commitment to stage a
“safe and secure” Olympics (35) the pandemic. He said: “We will do our utmost on
coronavirus measures”.
(Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/2103/210327-olympic-torch-relay.html)
Question 31. A. acclaim B. ensure C. remain D. assure
Question 32. A. who B. where C. which D. whom
Question 33. A. much B. every C. a lot D. many
Question 34. A. Audiences B. Viewers C. Spectators D. Watchers
Question 35. A. in spite of B. because of C. due to D. with a view to
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Members of the royal family have led an outpouring of tributes from around the world at the death of
Prince Philip, the husband of Queen Elizabeth. Buckingham Palace has spoken of the Queen’s “deep sorrow”
after her husband of 73 years, who had been by her side throughout her reign, died peacefully at Windsor
Castle aged 99 on Friday night (Australian time).
Flags at Buckingham Palace and government buildings across the United Kingdom were lowered to half-
mast, and within an hour of the announcement the public began to lay flowers outside Windsor Castle and
Buckingham Palace. However, mourners have been urged not to gather and leave tributes at royal residences,
and the public has been asked to stay away from funeral events because of the coronavirus pandemic. An
online book of condolence has been launched on the Royal Family’s official website for people to leave
messages of sympathy.
The prince died two months short of his 100th birthday. He had recently spent four weeks in hospital with
an infection where he was treated for a heart condition before being discharged and returned to Windsor
early in March. The Duke of Edinburgh had been by his wife’s side throughout her 69-year reign, the longest
in British history, and during that time earned a reputation for a tough, no-nonsense attitude, and a propensity
for occasional gaffes. A Greek prince, Philip married Elizabeth in 1947, and together they had four children,
eight grandchildren, and nine great grandchildren. He played a key role helping the monarchy adapt to a
changing world in the post-World War II period, and behind the walls of Buckingham Palace was the one key
figure the Queen could trust and turn to, knowing he could tell her exactly what he thought.
The death of the Duke comes in the midst of the worst public health crisis for generations as Britain and
countries around the globe reel from the devastating impact of the coronavirus pandemic. Philip will not have
a state funeral nor lie in state for the public to pay their respects ahead of the funeral, the College of Arms
said, with arrangements revised to meet coronavirus restrictions.
(Adapted from https://thenewdaily.com.au/entertainment/celebrity/royal/2021/04/10/prince-philip-dead/, retrieved 10 April, 2021)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Prince Philip’s death B. The public’s tribute to Prince Philip
C. A bibliography of Prince Philip D. Life and contributions of Prince Philip
Question 37. The word “mourners” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to .
A. bearers B. visitors C. participants D. grievers
Question 38. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
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A. Prince Philip was 25 years old when he got married to Queen Elizabeth.
B. Flowers were laid outside some royal residences after the death announcement.
C. Prince Philip was admitted to hospital for 28 days.
D. Prince Philip was born into a Greek royal family.
Question 39. How should the public express their condolence?
A. They can gather at royal residences.
B. They can attend funeral events.
C. They can leave messages of sympathy in an online book.
D. They can leave tributes at Windsor Castle.
Question 40. The word “discharged” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. admitted to hospital B. allowed to leave hospital
C. given priority to meet doctors D. asked to stay
Question 41. The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. countries B. the public C. generations D. arrangements
Question 42. Which statement can be inferred from the passage?
A. Prince Philip will not have a state funeral as he comes from Greece.
B. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted online to avoid coronavirus spread.
C. Prince Philip will be buried behind the walls of Buckingham Palace.
D. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted differently from other royal funerals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. She turned on her computer, reads the message on Facebook and answered it.
A B C D
Question 44. A beaver uses the strong front teeth to cut down trees and peel off its bark.
A B C D
Question 45. Everyone was respectable towards him, listening carefully to his long explanations.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time she saw the boy was last weekend.
A. She hasn’t seen the boy since last weekend. B. The boy hasn’t seen her since last weekend.
C. She last saw the boy two week ago. D. She didn’t see the boy last weekend.
Question 47. Mary reminded me to buy her some fruit.
A. "Don't forget to buy me some fruit," Mary said.
B. "Remember buying me some fruit," said Mary.
C. "Remind to buy me some fruit," said Mary.
D. "Don't deny buying me some fruit," Mary said.
Question 48. Her husband isn’t able to speak any words in English.
A. Her husband mustn’t speak any words in English.
B. Her husband can’t speak any words in English.
C. Her husband shouldn’t speak any words in English.
D. Her husband may not speak any words in English.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I have to work on weekends. I can't go on a picnic with them.
A. Unless I work on weekends, I can’t go on a picnic with them.
B. But for my work on weekends, I couldn't go on a picnic with them.
C. Provided I work on weekends, I can go on a picnic with them.
D. If only I didn't have to work on weekends, I could go on a picnic with them.
Question 50. We visited the town where the hurricane hit. We had never seen destruction so massive.
A. Never had we seen destruction so massive until we visited the town where the hurricane hit.
B. Not until the massive hurricane hit the town did we visit and see it.
C. So massive was the hurricane that we had never seen in the town.
D. Hardly had we seen destruction so massive when we visited the town where the hurricane hit.
------------- THE END -------------

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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 406
Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. agreed B. missed C. liked D. watched
Question 2. A. table B. dad C. tale D. lake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. lemon B. physics C. bamboo D. decade
Question 4. A. quality B. solution C. compliment D. energy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. You can find lots of interesting facts there, ?
A. can't you B. haven't you C. didn't you D. aren't you
Question 6. The National Curriculum by the government and must be followed in all state schools.
A. is set B. set C. is setting D. will set
Question 7. Why are you always so jealous other people?
A. in B. of C. below D. on
Question 8. The more you practise speaking in your class, you are at public speaking.
A. the best B. the better C. best D. better
Question 9. There is a rug on the floor.
A. soft woolen wonderful B. wonderful soft woolen
C. woolen soft wonderful D. soft wonderful woolen
Question 10. When I saw Brian yesterday, he a taxi.
A. drives B. was driving C. is driving D. drove
Question 11. she hadn’t met him for a long time, she still recognized him when he stepped off the
plane.
A. Even though B. Despite C. Because of D. Because
Question 12. to an end, the students will have finished several assignments and tests.
A. After the school year had come B. Before the school year will come
C. Once the school year came D. When the school year comes
Question 13. trees around the house on the south and west sides, they can save up to about $300 a year.
A. To plant B. Having planted C. They have planted D. Being planted
Question 14. One of the popular used in smartphones at present is voice recognition.
A. applicably B. applicable C. applications D. apply
Question 15. They decided to their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with
Question 16. Most of the employees in the company couldn’t the point of joining further training
courses in August.
A. see B. take C. mind D. have
Question 17. Much of our knowledge about prehistoric animals comes from the study of .
A. artefacts B. ruins C. relics D. fossils
Question 18. Can I have a glass of water? I have got a in my throat.
A. duck B. frog C. chick D. goat
Question 19. The dolphins drive a of fish towards the shore where humans await with their nets
A. class B. show C. school D. academy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The young man earned the reputation of a brilliant lawyer during two fabulous law cases.
A. studious B. remarkable C. rational D. promising
Question 21. Global companies often have representatives operating in almost every country.
A. delegates B. presenters C. providers D. nominees

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. My family is the base from which we can go into the world with confidence.
A. excitement B. amazement C. embarrassment D. anxiety
Question 23. Unemployed youngsters still come to London in their hundreds thinking that the streets are
paved with gold.
A. it is easy to get rich in the place B. it is a boring place
C. it is a exciting place D. it is the place that makes you poor.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Peter and David are on the way home after school.
- David: " How long do you plan on staying with your uncle?
- Kathy: “ .”
A. About 200 km B. Quite enjoyable C. For 1 year D. Quite flexible.
Question 25. Two students are talking about taking part in extracurricular activities at school.
- Ted: "Extracurricular activities are a waste of time."
- Kate: " . They improve students' essential life skills."
A. You can make it B. I can't agree with you more.
C. Not at all D. I disagree with you.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 26 to 30.
ELECTRIC-CAR BATTERY CHARGES IN FIVE MINUTES
Car makers are spending a lot of money on electric cars. In the future, electric cars will replace petrol cars.
Environmentalists believe this will reduce the amount of CO2 (26) into the atmosphere. A big problem
for electric cars is charging the battery. Some batteries in today's electric cars can take up to 12 hours to
charge fully. (27) , a company in Israel says it has created a lithium-ion battery that people can charge in just
five minutes. This is the same amount of time it takes to fill a tank of gas with petrol. The new lithium-ion
batteries (28) were developed by the Israeli company StoreDot are being manufactured by a Chinese
company called Eve Energy.
The new batteries could totally transform driving. They would mean electric cars would be able to travel as
far as petrol cars. (29) people with electric cars today suffer from "range anxiety". This is stress caused
by worrying about the battery running out of electricity. The new batteries would end this anxiety. A StoreDot
spokesperson said: "We're at the point of (30) a revolution in the electric vehicle charging experience".
(Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/2101/210124-car-battery.html)
Question 26. A. come B. go C. release D. put
Question 27. A. Thus B. However C. Therefore D. Although
Question 28. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose
Question 29. A. Few B. Every C. Many D. No
Question 30. A. achieving B. gaining C. having D. taking
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps
in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has
shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is
related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to
contract certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates
and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet,
these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which
ingredients on the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and
because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.
Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons.
The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although
the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices
continue.
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A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest.
Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food
without our knowledge.
(Adapted from: “https://moon.vn/english”)
Question 31. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Harmful and Harmless Substances in Food. B. Improving Health through a Natural Diet.
C. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health. D. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food.
Question 32. According to the passage, how has science done a disservice to people?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
B. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food.
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
Question 33. The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to .
A. trouble-making B. color-retaining C. money-making D. cancer-causing
Question 34. The word “these” refers to .
A. meats B. colors
C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites
Question 35. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as food additives?
A. nitrates B. nitrites C. trans fat D. penicillin
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Marine experts estimate about 40,000 humpback whales are now migrating through Australian waters
annually, up from about 1,500 half a century ago. The humpbacks’ annual journey from Antarctica to
subtropical waters along Australia’s east and west coasts is one of nature’s great migrations. It is a journey of
up to 10,000 kilometers and is undertaken between April and November. Scientists have estimated 40,000
humpback whales have been in Australian waters to mate and breed. It is a remarkable recovery from the
height of commercial whaling in the early 1960s when it was estimated there were fewer than 1,500
humpbacks. They were slaughtered mainly for their oil and baleen, or “whalebone.”
Australia’s environment department says no other whale species has recovered as strongly as the
humpback since the end of commercial hunting, which ceased in Australia in 1978. Australia is now
considering removing humpback whales from the endangered species list because of their growing numbers.
The acrobatic humpbacks that can grow to 16 meters would still be protected in Australia. Conservationists,
though, argue that they need more, not fewer, environmental safeguards to monitor the impact of climate
change on krill – their main source of food. Krill are affected by the absorption of more carbon dioxide into
the ocean.
Olaf Meynecke, a research fellow in Marine Science at Queensland’s Griffith University, says vigilance is
needed to ensure the whales continue to thrive. “Generally speaking, yes, it is a great success story that
humpback whales have come back. But obviously we also need to ask questions as to how will this continue
in the future, how are present threats already impacting the population, and how we are going to detect
changes in the future,” Meynecke said. Scientists say humpbacks face a combination of other threats
including the overharvesting of krill, pollution, habitat degradation, and entanglement in fishing nets. Calves
also face attack by killer whales or sharks.
The recovery of the humpback has helped the rapid growth of Australia’s whale-watching industry. As
their numbers have grown, much about the humpback, a species famous for its song, remains a mystery.
Scientists do not know exactly, for example, where on Australia’s Great Barrier Reef they mate and calve.
Humpback whales live in all the world’s oceans. They take their common name from a distinctive hump on
the whale’s back.
(Adapted from https://www.voanews.com/east-asia-pacific/australian-humpback-whale-numbers-surge-scientists-warn-climate-
change-threat, retrieved 11 April, 2021)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The migration of humpback whales
B. The role of humpback whales in Australia’s economy
C. Threats to humpback whales
D. The recovery of humpback whales
Question 37. The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to .
A. stopped B. postponed C. prohibited D. persisted
Question 38. The word “vigilance” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to
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A. preparation B. misuse C. watchfulness D. observation
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT considered a threat to humpback whales?
A. entanglement in fishing nets B. high abundance of krill
C. damage to their living environment D. commercial hunting
Question 40. What can be inferred from Olaf Meynecke’s opinion in paragraph 3?
A. The population of humpback whales may be affected unless necessary actions are taken.
B. Humpback whales will definitely grow in numbers in the future.
C. There will be a decrease in the number of humpback whales due to changes in the future.
D. The number of humpback whales will remain unchanged despite threats.
Question 41. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Humpback whales were famous for the distinctive hump on their back.
B. Humpback whales mate and calve only on Australia’s Great Barrier Reef.
C. Humpback whales are no longer considered an endangered species in Australia.
D. There has been an increase of about 38,500 humpback whales in Australia after 5 decades.
Question 42. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. scientists B. humpback whales C. numbers D. oceans
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. People use to lead a hard life in the past; however, recently, life in many rural areas
A B C
has been improved a lot.
D
Question 44. Research has proved that a baby can distinguish their mother's voice from
A B C D
the womb.
Question 45. He claimed that he could provide numerate other examples of her incompetence.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago. B. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
C. I last visited my hometown a few years ago. D. I was in my hometown for a few years.
Question 47. Tom told his girlfriend, "Let me tell your parents about your health if you can't."
A. Tom advised his girlfriend to tell her parents about her health if you couldn't.
B. Tom suggested that I should tell her parents about her health if his girlfriend couldn't.
C. Tom volunteered to tell his girlfriend’s parents about her health if she couldn't.
D. Tom asked his girlfriend to tell her parents about her health if you couldn't.
Question 48. It is important to be hard working in any circumstances.
A. You should work hard in any circumstances.
B. You may work hard in any circumstances.
C. You must not work hard in any circumstances.
D. You can’t work hard in any circumstances.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Laura 's health isn't good. She can't take part in the singing contest.
A. If Laura 's health is very good, she will be able to take part in the singing contest.
B. If only Laura's health had been good and could have taken part in the singing contest.
C. Laura wishes her health were good and could take part in the singing contest.
D. As long as Laura 's health is very good, she will be able to take part in the singing contest.
Question 50. They didn’t stop arguing about the exercise. Then, the teacher explained it.
A. Not until did the teacher explain the exercise they stopped arguing about it.
B. Only after the teacher explained the exercise, they stopped arguing about it.
C. Only until the teacher explained the exercise, they stopped arguing about it.
D. Not until the teacher explained the exercise did they stop arguing about it.

------------- THE END -------------


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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 407

Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. measured B. maintained C. distinguished D. managed
Question 2. A. take B. make C. bake D. arrive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. answer B. complain C. listen D. travel
Question 4. A. example B. happiness C. advantage D. disaster
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Let's visit the wildlife park next Sunday, ?
A. can't we B. shall we C. will you D. are we
Question 6. Many U.S automobiles in Detroit, Michigan.
A. manufacture B. have manufactured
C. are manufactured D. are manufacturing
Question 7. His ideas about marriage are quite different mine.
A. with B. from C. for D. on
Question 8. you take your medicine, the better you will feel.
A. The sooner B. Sooner C. Soonest D. The soonest
Question 9. My mother gave me a box.
A. small jewelry rectangular B. rectangular small jewelry
C. small rectangular jewelry D. jewelry small rectangular
Question 10. When my dad met my mum, he as a bus driver.
A. worked B. was working C. works D. is working
Question 11. she joined the company only a year ago, she's already been promoted twice.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because of D. Since
Question 12. I will have tidied up the bedroom home tomorrow.
A. as soon as my parents arrived B. before my parents will arrive
C. when my parents arrive D. after my parents had arrived
Question 13. by the changing information, they thought the plane was cancelled.
A. Confused B. Having confused C. Confusing D. To confuse
Question 14. IPhone 12 is the latest in the field of smartphone design of Apple.
A. creatively B. create C. creative D. creation
Question 15. You will be brought before the disciplinary panel to your behavior.
A. take up B. put down C. speed up D. turn down
Question 16. Peter tried to find out how to a good presentation to the board, but sadly he was rejected.
A. do B. make C. form D. create
Question 17. There was a sudden of anger in the General’s eyes as he listened to the soldier’s report.
A. fire B. flash C. flame D. shade
Question 18. He was never seen again. He just seemed to disappear into air.
A. thin B. light C. thick D. warm
Question 19. He gave me his that the job would be finished on time.
A. thought B. speech C. talk D. word
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. I was told that the instructions were easy, but I found them extremely complicated.
A. distinct B. extraordinary C. intricate D. irrelevant
Question 21. When the man retired, the woman was nominated to run the research unit.
A. refused B. kept C. changed D. named
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Birth control methods have freed women from the endless cycle of childbearing and rearing.
A. imprisoned B. slaved C. released D. chased
Question 23. She took a deep breath to steady her nerves and pushed open the door to the study, already
knowing who was inside.
A. arrange her words B. lose her temper
C. calm down D. adjust her mood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Jane is talking to Alice at a party.
- Jane: You look really beautiful in this dress, Alice.”
- Alice: “ . I’m glad you like it.”
A. Thanks anyway B. Thank you
C. Can you say it again? D. I hope so
Question 25. Katie is talking to James about studying art.
- Katie: “Do you think that studying art at school is a waste of time and we should focus on scientific
subjects instead?”
- James: “ . Art develops children’s creativity.”
A. Exactly B. I love art too
C. I disagree with you D. That’s so true
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 26 to 30.
Many people drink diet sodas as part of their diet. They believe these drinks are healthier than fizzy drinks.
(26) , according to a new study, "diet" versions of sugary drinks can be as bad for our heart as fizzy
drinks that are loaded with sugar. The researchers (27) conducted the study said people should avoid
diet sodas and other artificially sweetened beverages if they want to look after their health. Dr Guy Mintz, a
heart specialist, said: "The belief that artificial sweeteners are a safe substitute for sugar is fake news.
Artificial sweeteners have also been associated with weight gain, insulin (28) , and diabetes."
Researchers looked at health data from over 100,000 people in France. Participants in the study recorded
their diet, activity level, and health status every six months. The researchers said: "Higher intakes
of...artificially sweetened beverages were associated with a higher risk of cardiovascular disease, suggesting
that artificially
sweetened beverages might not be a healthy (29) for sugary drinks. Also, water, water, and more water
should be the beverage of choice. Given childhood obesity, (30) sweetened or artificially sweetened
beverage should be a staple in children's diets."
(Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/2011/201101-diet-soda.html)
Question 26. A. Nevertheless B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Consequently
Question 27. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose
Question 28. A. gain B. loss C. resistance D. increase
Question 29. A. option B. substitute C. answer D. change
Question 30. A. no B. much C. less D. more
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Martin Luther King, Jr., is well known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches,
among them is his moving “I Have A Dream'' speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhood.
M.L., as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s
grandfather, the Reverend
A.D. Williams, purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L. was born. The
Reverend Williams, an eloquent speaker, played an important role in the community since so many people’s
lives centered round the church. He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a
number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in this
atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.
M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He
was the second of three children, and he attended all- black schools in a black neighborhood. The
neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was the main artery through a prosperous
neighborhood that had come to symbolize achievement for Atlanta’s black people. It was an area of banks,
insurance companies, builders,
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jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other black-owner black-operated businesses and services. Even in the
face of Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as
a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a seemingly insurmountable barrier that kept black
Atlantans from mingling with whites.
Adapted from “https://www.britannica.com/biography/Martin-Luther-King-Jr”)
Question 31. What is this passage MAINLY about?
A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta B. Martin Luther King’s childhood
C. M.L.’s grandfather D. the neighborhood King grew up in
Question 32. According to the author, King was influenced by .
A. community spirit B. black lawyers C. his mother D. his speeches
Question 33. The word “gathering” in line 12 could best be replaced by .
A. picking B. learning C. exciting D. meeting
Question 34. The word “it” refers to ?
A. achievement B. neighborhood C. segregation D. services
Question 35. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. dentistry B. medicine C. law D. banking
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For hundreds of years, giving flowers has been a social means of communication. In the United States,
flowers are often given during rites of passage, for commemorating special occasions or as a heartfelt gift
between loved ones and friends. Flower gifting also occurs in most countries around the world. However, the
meanings and traditions often vary.
While students traditionally gave their favorite teacher an apple in past years, in China, teachers are given
flowers. Peonies are by far the flower most often given in China. They are also quite popularly used for
weddings. Strangely, potted plants are not considered a pleasant gift among Asian cultures. The people
believe that like a plant confined by a pot, the gift symbolizes a binding or restriction.
In Russia, in lieu of giving birthday presents, the guest of honor receives a single flower or an unwrapped
bouquet. Floral arrangements or baskets are not given. Russians celebrate a holiday known as Woman’s Day.
Traditional gifts include red roses, hyacinths or tulips. When there is a funeral or other occasion where
someone wishes to express sympathy, carnations, lilies or roses are given in circular configurations, which
signify the transition of birth, life and death to rebirth. In this instance, the color of choice is commonly
yellow. For joyous occasions, arrangements and bouquets generally contain an odd number of flowers.
In the times of ancient Rome, brides carried flowers to scare away evil spirits and encourage fertility. The
Dutch believed that flowers were food for the soul. When invited to someone’s home in Great Britain, it is
tradition to bring a gift of flowers. All types are acceptable except white lilies, which are usually seen at
funerals. Not unlike the United States, red roses are a symbol of love. Flowers are generally gifted in odd
numbered increments regardless of the occasion. However, the Brits also have superstitions regarding the
number 13, so the number is avoided.
In the southern region of the continent, flowers are traditionally given during Christmas. Egyptians are
much more conservative and restrict flower gifting to funerals and weddings. While certain flowers may have
significant meanings for some, flowers in Las Vegas and across the United States are an accepted gift for any
reason desired.
(Source: http://www.flowersofthefieldlv.com/ )
Question 36. What does the topic mainly discuss?
A. The fascinating tradition of giving flowers.
B. The different meanings of flowers in different cultures.
C. The comparison of giving flowers between Asian and European cultures.
D. The kinds of flowers people often give others in different cultures.
Question 37. What does the word “They” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Students B. Teachers C. Flowers D. Peonies
Question 38. Why should you not give a potted plant to an Asian?
A. Because the Asian prefer to be given flowers.
B. As this gift is often given at weddings in Asia.
C. Since this gift is believed to symbolize a binding and limitation in Asia.
D. Because the Asian students like to give an apple or flowers to others.

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Question 39. According to the passage, the following flowers are given at Woman’s Day in Russia, EXCEPT
.
A. red roses B. hyacinths C. tulips D. yellow roses
Question 40. What could the word “fertility” in paragraph 4 be best replaced by?
A. fecundity B. good spirit C. happiness D. loyalty
Question 41. The word “superstitions” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. deep-seated belief B. unfounded belief
C. religious belief D. traditional belief
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. People can give flowers to the American on any occasion.
B. Egyptians are rather comfortable when receiving flowers at funerals and weddings.
C. Flowers given in Britain are in even numbers in any case.
D. At the funerals in any culture, flowers are given in circular configurations.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. The deadly Covid-19 pandemic has a severe impact on Rolls-Royce’s 2020 performance and
A B C
its near-term outlook.
D
Question 44. The Joshua tree is marked by their sword shaped leaves and greenish white flowers.
A B C D
Question 45. It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. Mary started to chat with her friends five minutes ago.
A. It is five minutes ago since Mary started to chat with her friends.
B. Mary has been chatted with her friends for five minutes.
C. Mary has been chatting with her friends for five minutes.
D. Mary has chatted with her friends five minutes ago.
Question 47. "If I were you, I'd attend this conference," she said to me.
A. She said to me that if I were you, I'd attend that conference.
B. She will attend that conference if she is me.
C. She suggested attending that conference if she were me.
D. She advised me to attend that conference.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 48. It’s possible that we won’t go camping this weekend.
A. We will probably go camping this weekend. B. We might not go camping this weekend.
C. We should not go camping this weekend. D. We must not go camping this weekend.
Question 49. Without transportation, our modern society would not exist.
A. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist.
B. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not either.
C. Our modern society will not exist without having traffic.
D. Our modern society does not exist if there is no transportation.
Question 50. The firefighters had just left the building. There was a loud explosion.
A. No sooner had the firefighters left the building than there was a loud explosion.
B. Only after there had been a loud explosion did the firefighters leave the building.
C. Not until there had been a loud explosion did the firefighters leave the building.
D. Had it not been for a loud explosion, the firefighters would not have left the building.
------------- THE END -------------

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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 408

Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wounded B. routed C. wasted D. preserved
Question 2. A. park B. tank C. ant D. abandon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. hotel B. spirit C. banquet D. culture
Question 4. A. commercial B. disaster C. animal D. extinction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. We'll drive through the park, ?
A. won't we B. shouldn't we C. don't we D. aren't we
Question 6. My wedding ring of yellow and white gold.
A. is made B. is making C. made D. makes
Question 7. The public are concerned the increasing crime rates in the city.
A. with B. at C. about D. for
Question 8. objects are, the faster they fall.
A. The biggest B. Biggest C. Bigger D. The bigger
Question 9. Her idol is a singer.
A. famous Mexican young B. Mexican famous young
C. young famous Mexican D. famous young Mexican
Question 10. My cousin and I on the computer when there was a power cut.
A. had played B. played C. were playing D. am playing
Question 11. Robert was afraid of the terrorism in Indonesia, he chose not to go there.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because of D. Because
Question 12. to the nearest city, we will have driven for 5 days.
A. As soon as we got B. When we will get
C. By the time we get D. While we are getting
Question 13. through difficult times together, they were very close friends.
A. After lived B. To live C. They lived D. Having lived
Question 14. It can be seen that Urbanization has resulted in problems besides the benefits.
A. vary B. various C. variety D. variously
Question 15. The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have by 2050.
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out
Question 16. Whenever you’re planning to a new product, it’s essential to provide excellent customer
service.
A. initiate B. start C. declare D. launch
Question 17. Animals should be helped to survive in the wild, rather than kept in .
A. prison B. captivity C. seizure D. arrest
Question 18. They are going to go round in as they have made no progress in coming up with new
ideas for their marketing plan.
A. boundaries B. circles C. margins D. borders
Question 19. Those who was born in the purple are destined to live in the public .
A. eye B. light C. service D. interest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Martin is no good at sports; is too clumsy; it is no wonder he does not participate in any sports
activities.
A. awkward B. timid C. weak D. unhealthy
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Question 21. People usually scare other people by telling ghost stories.
A. attract B. frighten C. affect D. excite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Numerous studies and statistics show that even though the social status of women has improved
during the last century, gender discrimination is still widespread.
A. common B. popular C. limited D. numerous
Question 23. Don’t take it as read that you’ll be promoted in your job, other colleagues stand a good chance
too.
A. feel sure B. make sure C. feel good D. feel uncertain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Tom and Tony, two primary students, are playing near the river.
- Tom: “Let’s swim across the river.”
- Tony: “ . It’s dangerous.”
A. No, let’s not. B. Can you swim? C. No problem. D. Great idea.
Question 25. Kathy and Maria are talking about teaching job.
- Kathy: “Almost every job offers the chance to grow and improve over time, but teaching is one of the
few professions with opportunities to learn each and every day.”
- Maria: “ . Teachers impact their students’ lives every day, just by being present and listening to
them.”
A. I couldn’t agree less B. You are absolutely right
C. Don’t say anything about it D. I like your idea
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 26. Hand sanitiser category surges 16 times in 2020 compared to 2019 while the hand
A B C D
wash category grew 1.5 times.
Question 27. An octopus has three hearts to pump blood throughout their body.
A B C D
Question 28. Today's students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative-looking these days.
A B C D
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 29 to 33.
Pop music from South Korea (K-pop) has become very popular around the world. In 2012, the South
Korean artist Psy received the most views ever on YouTube with his song Gangnam Style. In the past few
years, the Korean boy band BTS has had considerable success in America and Europe. They became the first
K-pop band
(29) had a number one on the US music charts. The (30) of K-pop has caused major record
labels to put more money into Korean acts. The world's biggest music label, Universal Music Group, has said
it will join a live-streaming platform set up by Korea's major record labels.
(31) Korean pop group, the girl band BLACKPINK, is also set to become popular worldwide.
Universal has teamed up with their label, YG Entertainment. The chairman of YG said: "We will work (32)
with the biggest music company, Universal Music Group, globally for the successful global debut and
promotion of BLACKPINK. (33) , we will do our best to help other YG artists to break through into
the North American and European markets."
(Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/2103/210313-k-pop.html)
Question 29. A. that B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 30. A. fame B. popularity C. population D. preference
Question 31. A. Another B. Other C. The other D. Others
Question 32. A. considerably B. neatly C. strongly D. closely
Question 33. A. In addition B. Although C. Nevertheless D. Therefore
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Living things like plants, animals, and people need energy to survive and grow. People eat food for energy,
but most plants use energy that they get from sunlight. When you look at plants such as a tree, flower, or grass,
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what do you see? You might notice their stems, trunks, branches, leaves, roots, or flowers, but how do they
grow? What are they made from? How did the plant make those parts?
Different environments could be oceans, forests, deserts, or cities. Each environment also has its own
climate, which is partially based on how much sun and rain an area receives every year.
Since only certain plants grow in hot, cool, wet, or dry climates, each environment is made up of different
types of plant life. A desert may grow palm trees and cacti, while a forest may grow tall pines or oak trees. In
order for a plant to grow, it needs three very important puzzle pieces: water, carbon dioxide, and light. Plants
use their roots to take in water from the ground. They use their leaves to take in sunlight and carbon dioxide
from the air.
Plants use these three puzzle pieces to make their own food in a process called photosynthesis. Using the
energy from the sun, plants convert water and carbon dioxide into sugar. This sugar feeds the plant’s growth
from a seedling into an adult. In the process, the plant releases oxygen into the air. Another important piece to
the growth of many plants is soil. Using their roots, plants take in nutrients from the soil that helps them grow.
Giving a plant a spot in clean soil is important to make sure it doesn’t absorb anything harmful from the dirt.
Plants make their food from carbon dioxide, water and light. They use this food to grow stems, trunks,
roots, branches, leaves, and flowers. Now when you look at a tree, flower, or even a blade of grass, you can
see all the pieces of the plant and how the entire puzzle fits together.
(Adapted from: “http://portersciencerosepark.weebly.com”)
Question 34. What is the best title of the passage?
A. how plants grow B. sunlight and water
C. energy sources D. nutrients in soil
Question 35. According to the passage, where can we find cacti?
A. in the deserts B. in the forests
C. in the oceans D. in the cities
Question 36. The word “absorb” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. use something B. take something in
C. go under something D. put something out
Question 37. The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. Puzzle pieces B. Plants C. Roots D. Oak trees
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a necessary element for plants to grow?
A. carbon dioxide B. water C. light D. roots
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 39 to 45.
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history,
enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to the
most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to
the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of
water include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes,
spiders and various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land, none
of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and
reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned
their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back.
They show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and
dugongs. Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the
manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their remote
ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never developed
anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the sea a very long
time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less
fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before most
of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis
dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles and tortoises.
You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if only
fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs,
with fins and
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streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles
it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
Question 39. Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The evidence of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 40. According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects .
A. were the ones living on the marine organisms
B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds
C. left the water at the same time as scorpions, snails and crustaceans.
D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land.
Question 41. The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means .
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 42. The word “incarnation” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by .
A. ancestor B. embodiment
C. evolution D. natural selection
Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on land.
D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
Question 44. What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Question 45. It can be inferred from the last passage that .
A. the body features of the fossil animals help scientists to distinguish the terrestrial and marine species.
B. turtles’ ancestors and dinosaurs became extinct contemporarily.
C. it’s clear to determine the living places of all species through the fragments found.
D. the fossils of turtles and tortoises might have similar appearances to dolphins.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time I talked to Rose was three years ago.
A. I didn’t talk to Rose three years ago. B. I have talked to Rose for three years.
C. I hadn’t talked to Rose for three years. D. I haven’t talked to Rose for three years.
Question 47. “You copied your friend’s paper in the exam.” The teacher said to Nam.
A. The teacher insisted Nam on copying his friend’s paper in the exam.
B. The teacher prevented Nam from copying his friend’s paper in the exam.
C. The teacher advised Nam to copy his friend’s paper in the exam.
D. The teacher accused Nam of copying his friend’s paper in the exam.
Question 48. She is not allowed to meet her children until the operation has finished.
A. She may not meet her children until the operation has finished.
B. She shouldn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
C. She needn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
D. She mustn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He wants to play games. He has to do his homework.
A. He wishes he didn’t have to do his homework and could play games.
B. He wishes he hadn’t had to do his homework and could play games.
C. Unless he had to do his homework, he couldn’t play games.
D. Provided he had done his homework, he can’t play games.
Question 50. Barry and Sonia made up their mind to move to a bigger house. It was after the birth of their
second child a few months ago.
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A. As soon as Barry and Sonia decided to move to a bigger house, they had the second child a few months
ago.
B. Only after the birth of the second child a few months ago did Barry and Sonia decide to move to a
bigger house.
C. It was until Barry and Sonia moved to a bigger house a few months ago that they decided to have a
second child.
D. No sooner had Barry and Sonia decided to move to a bigger house a few months ago than they had the
second child.
------------- THE END -------------

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Page 40 of
50
DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIÊP THPT Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
2021 THỨC
ĐỀ CHÍNH Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Mã đề thi 409
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. imprisoned B. pointed C. shouted D
surrounded
Question 2. A. farm B. favor C. harm D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each
of the following questions.
Question 3. A. answer B. survive C. travel D
Question 4. A. national B. beautiful C. specific D
humorous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Tourists shouldn't leave litter on the beach, ?
A. can they B. have they C. did they D
they
Question 6. The room at the moment.
A. was cleaned B. is being cleaned C.
cleaning D. cleaned
Question 7. My mother gradually gets familiar the
pace of life in Western countries.
A. on B. with C. of D
Question 8. The more you study, you will become.
A. the smartest B. the smarter C. smarter D
Question 9. The sword was made of a material.
A. purple strange metallic B. strange purple
metallic
C. metallic strange purple D. purple metallic
strange
Question 10. We the roof for Mrs. Smith, an elderly childless woman,
when it poured with rain.
A. were mending B. is watching C. mended D
Question 11. the weatherman’s forecast of rain for
tomorrow, they will go camping.
A. Although B. Despite C.
Because of D. Because
Question 12. Susan will have practised a lot herself in the music contest.
A. until she enrolled B. after she had enrolled
C. before she enrolls D. as soon as she will
enroll
Question 13. , the room needed some bright lights.
A. Painted in dark colors B. To be painted in dark
colors
C. They painted in dark colors D. Having painted in
dark colors
Question 14. The map of the top ten most densely countries in the
world includes Monaco, Singapore, Bahrain, Malta, and Bangladesh.
A. populated B. populate C. population D
popularly
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Page 41 of
50
Question 15. She knew she Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
was in trouble, so she word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
about going to the movies following questions.
with her friends. Question 20. So engrossed in his writing was the young writer that he barely
A. made up noticed the passing of time.
A. delighted B. frustrated C. involved D
B. found out

C. thought of

D. took up
Question 16. She inherited a
fortune from her beloved
grandmother and suddenly
fortune.
A. made

B. did

C. turned

D. became
Question 17. In
college, he continued
to excel, earning praise
in the classroom almost
as often as on the
basketball .
A. course

B. pitch

C. court

D. track
Question 18. I am not sure
that David is telling the truth,
but I am giving him the
doubt.
A. drawback

B. advantage

C. disadvantage

D. benefit
Question 19. The pandemic
circulated three times in 18
months in the
air travel.
A. absence

B. name

C. abundance

D. eyes
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Page 41 of
50
Question 21. It is compulsory for all motorcyclists to wear helmets when they travel on the roads.
A. perfunctory B. desirable C. rational D. mandatory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. There have been significant changes in women's lives since the women's liberation movement.
A. controlled B. sudden C. unimportant D. natural
Question 23. We have to come clean about what we did before Joe gets punished for our crime.
A. conceal B. admit C. reveal D. explain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Tom and Tony are talking on the way home after school.
- Tom: “Why don’t we go swimming?”
- Tony: “ . It’s too hot here.”
A. Sorry. I’ve got to go. B. How lovely it is! C. Don’t do that. D. That sounds great.
Question 25. Nam and Mai are talking about gender equality in employment.
- Mai: “Do you think married women should pursue a career?”
- Nam: “ . Doing housework only is tiring and boring.”
A. I don’t think so B. That’s for sure
C. Keep up the good work! D. It’s not a walk in the park
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Although many students are sick and tired of putting on their school uniform day after day, a uniform does
have its advantages. For a start, students have no need to worry about what to put on when they get up in the
morning. Students know that in uniform they look more or less the same as their classmates. As a result, their
parents don't feel under pressure to provide a huge wardrobe of clothes for them to wear. (26) , it seems
that children wearing the same colours and styles of clothing gain a sense of belonging, something (27)
improves morale at school and reduces levels of violence.
This theory has been supported by a study at a school in Long Beach, California. Staff members there have
noticed that since school uniform became compulsory, the number of arguments amongst pupils has dropped
by as much as 91%. This suggests that students who are all dressed in the same simple school shirts and
trousers are less likely to disagree with one (28) . On the other hand, Cozette Buckley, an Education Officer
from Chicago, holds a rather different view, based on experience in her schools. In her opinion, school
uniforms are not a permanent solution but only a (29) aid to playground problems
because they do not address the real source of conflict between children. It seems, therefore, (30) by these
conflicting findings, that the school uniform debate isn't closed yet!
(Adapted from “Mastering the FCE examination” by Adrian Simmons)
Question 26. A. Consequently B. Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Question 27. A. which B. who C. whom D. where
Question 28. A. other B. another C. every D. each
Question 29. A. current B. present C. contemporary D. temporary
Question 30. A. judging B. measuring C. deciding D. working
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Currently, the biggest threat to Australia sea lion colonies are gillnets, which are invisible, thin mesh nets
suspended in the water. Gillnets are used by commercial fisheries to capture sharks. However, Australian sea
lions also get snagged in the mesh of gillnets and drown. The only solution to accidental gillnet deaths and
other fishery-related deaths of sea lions is to close the areas where sea lions forage for food out at sea and
prevent fishing with gillnets in those areas.
Australian Marine Conservation Society (AMCS) worked with the government, scientists and the fishing
industry to come up with a solution to ensure sea lion colonies were protected, only brought about by the
support of the Australian public.
The distribution of Australia sea lion colonies in South Australia overlaps with a fishery managed by the
Federal Government agency, the Australian Fisheries Management Authority (AFMA). Due to the proximity
between the fishery and sea lion colonies, fishing was killing a high number of sea lions.
The areas of sea directly around sea lion breeding colonies are closed to gillnet fishing, and now, every
fishing boat that fishes anywhere near sea lion colonies has to have cameras on board to monitor what is
being
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caught. This means that if a sea lion gets killed, it now gets reported to AFMA. And when a sea lion does get
killed, further areas are closed to all gillnet fishing to ensure sea lion colonies do not decline even further.
This means that through the activity of AMCS, our wonderful supporters and other environmental
organisations, potentially hundreds of vulnerable Australian sea lions have been protected from drowning in
this fishery.

Question 31. Which of the following best serves as the title for the article? (Adapted from https://amcs.org.au/)
A. Australia Sea Lion Colonies and Gillnets B. How to Use Gillnets to Catch Sea Lions
C. Threats to Australian Sea Lions D. Australian Fishing Industry
Question 32. How to solve the problem of accidental gillnet deaths of sea lions, according to the passage?
A. Allow commercial fisheries to capture sharks only
B. Use gillnets to take care of sea lions when they are weak
C. Close the areas where sea lions forage for food and stop using gillnets
D. Increase the distance between the fishery and sea lion colonies
Question 33. The word “breeding” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. offspring B. fishing C. fishery D. sea
Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as someone who protects
Australian sea lions?
A. AMCS B. fishers
C. supporters D. environmental organisations
Question 35. The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to .
A. gillnet fishing B. fishing boat C. sea lion colonies D. cameras
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The recession has brought about an abrupt change of mood on university campuses up and down the
country. A five-year boom in the graduate job market has been stopped in its tracks and salary expectations.
No wonder only one in five of 16,000 final year students questioned for a survey by High Flyers Research
said that they expected to get a job for which they are qualified by the time they graduate.
Despite the gloom, the financial case for going to university remains compelling. International surveys
continue to show the salary premium enjoyed by UK graduates over those who choose not to go to university
as among the highest in the world. In the post-recession world, a university degree is likely to be even more of
an advantage to job-seekers than before.
But choosing the right degree course and the right university will also be more important than ever. This
does not necessarily mean that students should go only for job-related degrees, but it will put a premium on
marketable skills. And it may mean that more universities can be expected to follow the lead of Liverpool
John Moores University, which puts all of its undergraduates through a World of Work (WoW) course
designed to give them the problem-solving and communication skills they’ll need at work.
The Times Good University Guide 2010, published by HarperCollins, offers a wealth of essential
information to help candidates to navigate the maze of university choice, as well as advice on students’ life. It
is the most authoritative guide to universities in the UK and is an essential and comprehensive tool for
students and parents.
The online version of the Guide allows students and parents to create their own individual university
rankings and to compare the strengths and weaknesses of different institutions by sorting universities
according to one of the eight criteria - from student satisfaction to research quality and degree results. The
table sees Oxford maintain its leadership, despite coming below Cambridge in most of the subject tables.
Cambridge has the better record on student satisfaction, research, entry standards, completion and graduate
destinations, but Oxford’s lead in staffing levels, degree classifications and particularly in spending on
libraries and other student facilities makes the difference.
(Adapted from “Reading for IELTS” by Els Van Geyte)
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The guidelines for students and parents to choose the right university
B. High possibilities for UK undergraduates to get a job for which they are qualified
C. The relationship between the current economic situation and university campuses
D. The comparison of UK graduates’ salaries with those of people without qualifications
Question 37. The word “boom” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. a sudden decrease B. a gradual growth C. a growing imbalance D. a period of success
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Question 38. More universities can be expected .
A. to attract more students B. to reduce the number of job-related degrees
C. to increase their marketable skills D. to teach some skills necessary at the workplace
Question 39. The word “compelling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. inevitable B. fascinating C. impossible D. pessimistic
Question 40. The word “It” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. the maze of university choice B. essential information
C. HarperCollins D. the Times Good University Guide 2010
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. One in five students in a survey hoped to work in a field which they are qualified for.
B. Oxford stands behind Cambridge in all of the criteria.
C. Choosing the right university will be more important than ever.
D. The students surveyed by High Flyers Research were all final year students.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. There is a gap in earning between UK graduates and the people without degrees.
B. Having a university degree is no longer as important to job seekers as in the past.
C. The number of UK people without university degrees is among the highest in the world.
D. UK graduates feel more satisfied with their salary than the people with no degrees.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. The White House says the program could create tens of thousands of new jobs
A B
while moving the country toward clean energy.
C D
Question 44. Kiwi birds mainly eat insects, worms, and snails and search for food by probing the ground
A B C
with its long bills.
D
Question 45. I’m becoming increasingly forgettable. Last week, I locked myself out of the house twice.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. We haven’t been to the concert for two years.
A. We never used to go to the concert. B. We last went to the concert two years ago.
C. We didn’t go to the concert two years ago. D. We are used to going to the concert.
Question 47. Mr. Brown said, "Could you please look after my suitcase for about half an hour?"
A. Mr. Brown asked me if I was pleased to look after my suitcase for about half an hour.
B. Mr. Brown asked me if I had been able to look after my suitcase for about half an hour.
C. Mr. Brown asked me if I could look after his suitcase for about half an hour.
D. Mr. Brown politely asked me to look after his suitcase for about half an hour.
Question 48. You are not allowed to take photos in the museum.
A. You may take photos in the museum. B. You should take photos in the museum.
C. You mustn’t take photos in the museum. D. You needn’t take photos in the museum.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He works on the night shift. He can’t go to my party.
A. As long as he hadn’t worked on the night shift, he could go to my party.
B. If only he worked on the night shift, he could go to my party.
C. I wish he didn’t work on the night shift and could go to my party.
D. If he works on the night shift, he can go to my party.
Question 50. He started working in the World Bank. That was right after he had graduated from university.
A. No sooner had he started working in the World Bank than he graduated from university.
B. Hardly had he started working in the World Bank when he graduated from university.
C. No sooner had he graduated from university than he started working in the World Bank.
D. Before he graduated from university, he had started working in the World Bank.
------------- THE END -------------
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DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
TỐT NGHIÊP THPT Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
2021 THỨC
ĐỀ CHÍNH Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Mã đề thi 410
Họ và tên:………………………………….Số báo danh:………
(Đề gồm có 04 trang) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. failed B. reached C. absorbed D
Question 2. A. flat B. lane C. pain D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each
of the following questions.
Question 3. A. study B. achieve C. employ D
Question 4. A. musician B. sympathy C. quality D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. They hardly see each other, ?
A. do they B. don't they C. did they D
Question 6. English all over the world.
A. is spoken B. speak C. is speaking D.
spoke
Question 7. In England, schooling is compulsory all
children from the age of 5 to 16.
A. with B. for C. to D. over
Question 8. it is, the worse I
feel.
A. The hottest B. Hottest C. The hotter D. Hotter
Question 9. It’s the first time she has
enjoyed such a cake.
A. tasty chocolate Christmas B. chocolate Christmas
tasty
C. Christmas tasty chocolate D. tasty Christmas
chocolate
Question 10. She hurt herself while she hide-and-seek with her friends.
A. is playing B. had played C. played D
Question 11. He said that not winning the competition it was still a good
experience.
A. although B. despite C. because of D
Question 12. We will have paid off our non-performing loan for another
one from the bank.
A. once we had applied B. as soon as we will
apply
C. by the time we applied D. before we apply
Question 13. from above, the Ha Long cliffs do resemble a dragon’s
crest.
A. Seen B. We see them C. On seeing D
Question 14. Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn't
have enough
A. confide B. confident C. confidently D
confidence
Question 15. Garvin is a new computer application to see whether it
works.
A. looking after B. putting on C. trying out D
up
Question 16. It is argued that governments’ role is crucial in reducing the
environmental damage, while others
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50
an emphasis on
individuals’ attempt.
A. take B.
C.
D.
Question 17. We are going
to build a fence around the
field with a(n)
sheep and cattle.
A. goal B.
C.
D.
Question 18. We were
surprised at a coincidence as
we bumped into our old
teacher in Japan. It was a
small
.
A. world B.
C.
D.
Question 19. Inspector
Moro was determined to get
to the
A. ground B.
C.
D.
Mark the letter A, B,
C, or D on your
answer sheet to
indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in
meaning to the
underlined word(s)
in each of the
following questions.
Question 20. The old
man was too feeble to
sit down at his table and
write his letter, so his
nephew wrote down
what he wanted to say.
A. tired B.
C.
D.
Question 21. Everyone is
aware of preserving the
environment because it is
seriously polluted.
A. displaying B.
C.
D.

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50
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Poverty in many African countries increases the likelihood that people poach animals to earn
their living.
A. chance B. prospect C. possibility D. improbability
Question 23. He was known for talking his way out of speeding tickets.
A. being good at speaking B. being interested in speaking
C. being excellent at speaking D. being bad at speaking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24. Jack and David are talking at the school canteen.
- Jack: “Can I get you a soda?”
- David: “ .”
A. That would be nice B. I hope so C. I’m sorry, I can’t D. I’m glad you like it
Question 25. Tracy and Roger have just finished their dinner in a local restaurant.
- Tracy: “This restaurant is awful!”
- Roger: “ . The food is stale and the waiters are impolite.”
A. What a surprise B. That would be fun C. I agree with you entirely D. Yes, I don’t think so
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Healthy mind, healthy body
“A healthy mind lives in a healthy body” is a saying (26) is believed to have often been used by the
ancient Greeks. Thousands of years later, the same idea still applies. According to health experts, it’s
advisable to drink eight to ten glasses of water every day. (27) , water itself is not enough; a balanced
diet is essential, too.
A healthy body naturally is the result of doing exercise. Many people, however, do not like gyms and
object to going there for different reasons. Some, for instance, say that aerobic sessions are too difficult to
follow while (28) claim that gyms are just too expensive. Many people also claim that
they have difficulty in finding time to exercise due to their (29) lifestyle, but the truth is that everyone
can make a little time every now and then. Regardless of the way people choose to exercise, it is important to
remember that there’s no point in doing it only for a short period of time.
Last but not least, having a positive attitude and doing away with negative (30) contributes to one’s
well-being. In short, following this simple advice surely helps in having a healthy mind and body.
(Adapted from “Use of English B2 for All Exams” by E. Moutsou)
Question 26. A. where B. when C. who D. that
Question 27. A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. Despite
Question 28. A. others B. another C. much D. every
Question 29. A. hectic B. comfortable C. tedious D. restless
Question 30. A. opinions B. beliefs C. notions D. thoughts
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 31 to 35.
While experts can estimate what the economic fallout from a pandemic such as the coronavirus will be, the
precise impact will vary based on how many people are affected, how severely it hits, and which societal
interventions are necessary to contain its spread.
Financial projections for COVID-19 run the gamut. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and
Development, an entity with 36 member countries, estimated earlier this month that a long-lasting and severe
coronavirus pandemic that spreads throughout Asia, Europe and North America could cut the global growth
rate to 1.5% in 2020. That is roughly half the growth the world economy would otherwise achieve.
A separate analysis by the consulting firm McKinsey & Company offers a similar outlook. Its research
suggests that a more severe COVID-19 pandemic, in which city and suburban residents would have to
significantly change their work habits and otherwise distance themselves socially for six to eight weeks,
could cut global GDP in half, to between 1% and 1.5%.
Increasingly, those projections look too rosy for the situation that is now unfolding. Already, roughly 1 in
3 Americans are being ordered to stay indoors, creating a huge drag on consumer demand and worker
productivity. Goldman Sachs estimates that as many as 2.25 million Americans will make their initial filing
for unemployment benefits this week, a roughly eight-fold increase from last week.

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The chief U.S. economist for Oxford Economics, Greg Daco, told the New York Times last week that a
recession is all but inevitable. He estimates that GDP will sink 0.4% in the first quarter before plunging 12%
in the second quarter. Goldman Sachs offered an even more dire estimate, suggesting a second-quarter decline
of 24%.
(Adapted from https://www.investopedia.com/)
Question 31. Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Experts’ estimation of COVID-19 B. Global GDP cut due to COVID-19
C. COVID-19 in comparison with Spanish Flu D. The assessment of Coronavirus’ impact
Question 32. The word “outlook” in paragraph 3 most probably means .
A. payment B. prospect C. context D. collection
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as the continent affected by
a long-lasting and severe coronavirus pandemic?
A. South America B. Asia C. Europe D. North America
Question 34. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. analyses B. cities C. residents D. weeks
Question 35. According to the passage, what has created a huge drag on consumer demand and worker
productivity?
A. The projections look too rosy for the situation.
B. Roughly 1 in 3 Americans are being ordered to stay indoors.
C. Too many people ask for unemployment benefits.
D. The recession is all but inevitable.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42.
We all know about the pleasure and fun that you can get from playing video games. There’s the
satisfaction of finally reaching the last level of a game after months of trying, or the thrill of beating your best
friend in a game for the first time. But some experts now say that as well as offering fantastic entertainment,
video games might also be good for you.
It seems that when you play video games, you might be acquiring some very important skills. For a start,
games are great for your concentration. Being able to focus on a task for an extended period of time is
definitely a skill you can use at school or later, in a job. Because you have to think incredibly quickly, video
games can also stimulate your brain and improve the speed at which you react. Fitness games, which are very
popular, allow you to practise sports techniques like balancing or hitting balls from the comfort of your living
room. A lot of games also teach decision-making skills. For example, when you have to choose the best way
to escape from a burning building in a game, you’re learning how to solve problems and use your judgment
quickly, and under pressure - skills that will be very useful later in life. Gaming teaches you about success and
failure too. The fact that a lot of games are difficult, and you have to work hard to reach that top level, teaches
you that in life you can succeed if you keep on trying. On the other hand, games teach you that if you fail, you
don’t give up – you have a break, and then try again!
Some psychologists believe that role-playing games are particularly valuable. In the virtual environment,
young people can take on roles that are often not available to them in real life. You can become a leader, and
have to deal with people who lie to you, hide things from you or want to destroy you. By dealing with these
situations, you can develop social skills that might help you in the real world when you’re older.
Gaming does have its downsides, of course. Playing for a while is great, but people who play for hours on
end can have problems. Physically, it can stop you from getting enough exercise, which is unhealthy.
Psychologically, there is evidence that some players can become addicted to their games and begin to prefer
their ‘virtual’ lives, where they are always in control. It is sometimes claimed that very violent games can
have a negative effect on players and lead to violence in real life. Although there isn’t much evidence to
support this, it is an argument that will go on and on.
But overall, the message is that playing video games is not harmful, unless you spend too much time on
them. And while you’re building your city, looking after your farm, defeating your enemies or making your
fortune in a game, you’re also developing skills that will stay with you for the rest of your life.
(Adapted from “Prepare 6” by James Styring and Nicholas Tims)
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Types and uses of video games
B. Problems of video games and solutions
C. Video games as a source of entertainment and education
D. Benefits and drawbacks of video games
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Question 37. The word “extended” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. long B. brief C. fixed D. constant
Question 38. According to some psychologists, role-playing games can .
A. allow you to destroy things B. help you improve your social skills
C. show you how to tell lies D. teach your how to be a good leader
Question 39. The word “defeating” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to .
A. struggling B. beating C. negotiating D. striking
Question 40. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. gamers B. games C. ‘virtual’ lives D. problems
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Playing games for a long time can be dangerous.
B. Players can feel excited when they win against their friends.
C. It is proved clearly that violent games cause bad effects on players.
D. Video games can make you more unfit.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. Fitness games can help you learn how to make decisions.
B. Playing games can help your brain to work faster.
C. Games can teach you that sometimes things are too difficult to achieve.
D. Playing games can help you escape from your pressure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. Officials made a similar case on Monday, saying offshore wind deployment will create 44,000
A B C
new jobs directly in the offshore wind sector.
D
Question 44. The library at the university is new and has taken her name from the wife of the first
A B C D
president of the university.
Question 45. Favourite market conditions helped him to make a big profit.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. It started to rain at 2 o’clock and it is still raining.
A. It has been raining at 2 o’clock. B. It has been raining since 2 o’clock
C. It has been raining for 2 o’clock. D. It has been raining in 2 o’clock.
Question 47. "If you use my cellphone again, I'll tell our mother," said my elder brother.
A. My elder brother advised me to tell our mother if I used my cellphone again.
B. My elder brother asked me to tell our mother if I used his cellphone again.
C. My elder brother tried to convince me that using his cellphone again is unallowed.
D. My elder brother threatened to tell our mother if I used his cellphone again.
Question 48. There is no need for you to redecorate your room.
A. You needn’t redecorate your room. B. You didn’t have to redecorate your room.
C. You didn’t need to redecorate your room. D. You mustn’t redecorate your room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn’t win the race.
A. If she didn’t fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race.
B. She didn’t win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes.
C. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes.
D. She wishes she had not fallen over in the last minutes and could have won the race.
Question 50. The supervisor had got his appointment to the post. He fell ill.
A. The supervisor had been ill before he was appointed to the post.
B. No sooner had the supervisor appointed to the post than he fell ill.
C. But for his appointment to the post, the supervisor wouldn’t have been ill.
D. Hardly had the supervisor been appointed to the post when he fell ill.
------------- THE END -------------

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