Professional Documents
Culture Documents
for
MBBS/BDS/BSc Nursing/BASLP
2078
Online
(Set-XXVII)
* Required
1. Email *
3. 1. For the detection of cancers of internal organs, which of the technique is 1 point
not useful? *
a) Radiography
b) CT
c) MRI
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) TB
b) AIDS
c) Malaria
d) Kala-azar
a) LSD
b) Heroin
c) Cocaine
d) Amphetamine
a) Appendix
b) Payer’s patch
c) Tonsil
d) Spleen
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Stratified-epithelium
b) Striated-muscle
c) Myelinated-nerve-fibres
d) Areolar tissue
a) Redbone marrow
b) Sarcoplasm
d) Blood
a) Axon
b) Cell-body
c) Neuralgia
d) Dendrites
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Co-¬transport mechanism
b) Simple diffusion
c) Facilitated transport
d) Active transport
a) Anabolic
b) Catabolic
c) Creatinine phosphate
d) Amphibolic
12. 10. This happens if the proximal convoluted tubule is removed from nephron: 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
13. 11. In the body, both the blood sodium and potassium levels are regulated by 1 point
_______:
a) Pheromones
b) Aldosterone
c) Cortisol
d) Androgen
14. 12. Which of the following components is a part of the pectoral girdle? 1 point
a) Sternum
b) Acetabulum
c) Glenoid cavity
d) Ilium
15. 13. The fovea is the mammalian eye is the centre of the visual field wherein: 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
16. 14. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the 1 point
a) Urethra
b) Ureter
c) Vas deferens
d) Vasa efferentia
17. 15. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid? 1 point
b) Spermatid
c) Spermatogonia
18. 16. A nerve impulse jumps from one __________ to another during saltatory 1 point
conduction
a) Synapse
b) Axon
c) Node of Ranvier
d) Myelin sheath
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
19. 17. The first branch of the human aorta is: 1 point
a) Brachiocephalic artery
b) Coronary artery
20. 18. Which gland has an opening into hair follicles? 1 point
a) Sweat gland
b) Sebaceous gland
c) Perineal gland
d) Zeis gland
21. 19. If a particular animal has shelled eggs, hair and teats on the body and has 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
22. 20. Who demonstrated that life originated from pre-existing cells? 1 point
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Hugo de Vries
c) Charles Darwin
d) Stanley Miller
23. 21. Which fossil man had cranial capacity almost equal to modern man? 1 point
a) Australopithecus
c) Neanderthal man
d) Peking man
a) Jurassic
b) Ordovician
c) Triassic
d) Cretaceous
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
25. 23. Microvilli of intestinal epithelium are similar in function with: 1 point
d) Typhlosole in earthworm
a) 11/12
b) 12/13
c) 13/14
d) 14/15
27. 25. Of the cells present in the coelomic fluid of earthworm, the most 1 point
numerous and largest are:
a) Phagocytes
b) Mucocytes
c) Chloragogen cells
d) RBCs
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
c) Hyoid
d) Pterygoid
d) All
30. 28. Of the following amphibians, which keep its tail its whole life? 1 point
a) Green frogs
b) Toads
c) Salamanders
d) Bull frogs
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
31. 29. In life cycle of malarial parasite, sporozoites are formed in: 1 point
a) Sporoblasts
b) Oocyst
d) Human RBCs
32. 30. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to malarial parasite? 1 point
b) RBCs rupture and release of haemotoxin which causes chills and fever
a) Decapoda
b) Gastropoda
c) Scaphopoda
d) Cephalopoda
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
34. 32. Crocodile and Penguins are similar to Whale and Dog fish in which one of 1 point
35. 33. Select the taxon mentioned that represents marine and fresh water 1 point
species:
a) Cephalochordata
b) Cnidaria
c) Echinodermata
d) Ctenophora
36. 34. Which one of the following statement about all the four Spongilla, Leech, 1 point
Dolphin and Penguin is correct?
a) Spongilla has special collared cells called chaonocytes not found in the remaining
three
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Parasitic nematodes
c) Parasitic trematodes
a) Chewing
b) Locomotion
c) Excretion
d) Chemo-receptors
39. 37. Third stage larva of Wuchereria bancrofti carried by Culex mosquito is 1 point
called:
a) Filariform
b) Rhabditiform
c) Microfilaria
d) Cysticercous
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
40. 38. Which one of the following mammals is NOT an odd-toed ungulate? 1 point
a) Zebra
b) Horse
c) Camel
d) Rhinoceros
41. 39. The organization of group of animals in such a way that some members 1 point
of the group have greater access to resources like food or mates than
others, is called:
a) Agnostic
b) Territory
c) Altruism
d) Hierarchy
42. 40. Limbs modified into flippers are found in: 1 point
a) Sea horse
b) Whale
c) Sea otter
d) Hippopotamus
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Agronomy
b) Agrostology
c) Pomology
d) Ethnology
a) Linnaeus
b) Ehrenberg
c) Leeuwenhoek
d) Robert Koch
a) absorption
b) lysis
c) eclipse stage
d) maturation stage
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Binary fission
b) Conjugation
c) Oidia
d) Budding
47. 45. Eating some seaweed is good for avoiding and treating goitre because 1 point
they are rich in
a) Iodine
b) Sulphur
c) Phosphorus
d) Calcium
48. 46. Which of the following shows heterotrophic mode nutrition? 1 point
a) Algae
b) Fungi
c) Bryophyta
d) Hydrilla
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) multiciliate
b) biflagellate
c) non-flagellate
d) uniflagellate
a) Selaginella
b) Funaria
c) Dryopteris
d) Marchantia
51. 49. The most successful land plants before angiosperms are 1 point
a) bryophytes
b) angiosperms
c) gymnosperms
d) pteridophytes
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
52. 50. Thick and woody twiners or climber are called 1 point
a) climbers
b) creepers
c) suckers
d) lianas
a) caryopsis
b) cypsela
c) carcerulus
d) regma
54. 52. Shallow lakes with sufficient organic matter are 1 point
a) oligotrophic
b) eutrophic
c) saprotrophic
d) nutritive
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) a semi-parasite
b) a total parasite
c) an epiphyte
d) a saprophyte
56. 54. Which of the following is a world natural heritage site? 1 point
d) All
a) Coal
b) Kerosene
c) Petroleum
d) Biomass
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Lead
b) Cyanide
c) Mercury
d) Methyl isocyanide
a) plasma lemma
b) middle lamella
c) primary wall
d) secondary wall
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) monosaccharide form
b) disaccharide form
c) oligosaccharide form
d) polysaccharide form
a) Karyokinesis
b) Cytokinesis
c) Anaphase
d) Karyophase
a) 3:1
b) 1:2:1
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 2:1
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
64. 62. DNA generally acts as a template for the synthesis of 1 point
a) only DNA
b) only RNA
d) only protein
65. 63. A haploid set of all the genes present in a gamete is called: 1 point
a) Genotype
b) Phenotype
c) Genome
d) Linkage grasp
example of:
a) complementary genes
b) supplementary genes
c) polygenic inheritance
d) Pleiotropic genes
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
67. 65. Mendel's principle of segregation is based on separation of alleles during 1 point
a) Gamete formation
b) Seed formation
c) Pollination
d) Embryonic development
a) soybean
b) Sesbania
c) lentil
d) clover
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
70. 68. Hybrids are usually more vigorous than the parents due to 1 point
a) hybridization
b) heterosis
c) selection
d) clonal selection
a) Collenchyma
b) Epidermis
c) Sclerenchyma
d) Parenchyma
72. 70. Which of the following does not cause stomatal opening? 1 point
a) Higher O2 concentration
b) Light
d) Influx of K+ ions
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
73. 71. Hydrilla is used for demonstrating photosynthesis because it shows: 1 point
a) little respiration
b) little transpiration
c) rapid photosynthesis
a) grana of chloroplast
b) stroma of chloroplast
c) matrix of mitochondrion
d) cytoplasm
75. 73. The common immediate source of ener¬gy, in cellular activity is 1 point
a) ATP
b) NAD
c) DNA
d) RNA
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
76. 74. How many ATP molecules are produced from single molecule of Pyruvic 1 point
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 0
a) ethylene
b) auxin
c) gibberellin
d) cytokinin
78. 76. Milk like preparation can be made from the seeds of 1 point
a) soybean
b) grapes
c) gram
d) barley
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Yucca
b) Ophrys
c) Magnolia
d) Ficus
80. 78. The technique of tissue culture was first performed successfully by 1 point
a) White
b) Haberlandt
c) Gabtheret
d) Steward et al.
81. 79. The innermost layer of anther sac called tapetum serves function of 1 point
a) dehiscence
b) protection
c) nutrition
d) a and b above
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
82. 80. Presence of slight differences in identi¬cal twins supports the hypothesis 1 point
that
83. 81. A metallic oxide contains 60% of the metal. The equivalent weight of 1 point
metal is
a) 12
b) 24
c) 40
d) 48
84. 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
85. 1 point
86. 84. Who modified Bohr’s theory by introducing elliptical orbits for electron 1 point
path?
a) Hund
b) Thomson
c) Rutherford
d) Sommerfeld
87. 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
88. 86. The most favourable conditions for the manufacture of ammonia is 1 point
89. 87. Graphite conducts electricity due to the presence of: 1 point
a) Free electrons
b) Free ions
c) Free molecules
90. 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
91. 89. Heat exchanged in a chemical reaction at constant temperature and 1 point
constant pressure is called:
a) internal energy
b) enthalpy
c) entropy
d) free energy
92. 90. The time taken for 90% of a first order reaction to complete is 1 point
approximately:
a) Fluorescence
b) Phosphorescence
c) Chemiluminescence
d) Thermoluminescence
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
94. 1 point
95. 1 point
96. 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
97. 1 point
98. 1 point
99. 97. 0.45g of acid of molecular weight 90 was neutralized by 20mL of 0.5N 1 point
caustic potash. The basicity of the acid is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
c) both a and b
a) Calcium bicarbonate
b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Potash alum
d) Calcium hydroxide
102. 100. The alkali metal that reacts with Nitrogen to form nitride is: 1 point
a) Li
b) Na
c) K
d) Rb
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
103. 1 point
104. 1 point
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) hydrolysis
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
106. 1 point
a) CO
b) PAN
c) HNO3
d) Aldehyde
a) Nitrate fertilizers
b) Mixed fertilizers
c) Phosphate fertilizers
d) All of these
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
109. 1 point
a) Diamagnetic
b) Strongly paramagnetic
c) Weakly paramagnetic
d) Ferromagnetic
a) Fe
b) Zn
c) Co
d) None
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) Helium
b) Neon
c) Argon
d) Xenon
113. 1 point
b) High m. pt.
d) High b. pt.
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
115. 1 point
a) primary
b) methyl
c) secondary
d) Tertiary
117. 115. The addition of HCN to a carbonyl compound is an example of: 1 point
a) nucleophilic substitution
b) electrophilic addition
c) nucleophilic addition
d) electrophilic substitution
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
118. 1 point
a) 8
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
119. 1 point
a) 2-ethylbutanol-1
b) pentanol
c) 2-methyl-4-butanol
d) 3-ethylbutanol-1
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
120. 1 point
a) Ester hydrolysis
b) Transesterification
c) Ester acidolysis
d) Neutralisation
122. 120. Presence of peptide bond is the characteristics feature of: 1 point
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Nucleic acid
d) Proteins
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) fire extinguisher
b) pain killer
c) fuel additive
d) antiseptic
124. 122. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2 1 point
mechanism because of
a) steric hindrance
b) inductive effect
c) instability
d) insolubility
125. 123. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give 1 point
a) alkenyl halides
b) alkanes
d) alkenes
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
126. 1 point
a) Ethylene
b) Acetylene
c) Diethyl ether
d) Ethyl-hydrogen sulphate
127. 125. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between 1 point
a) Aqueous NaOH
b) Tollen’s reagent
c) Molisch reagent
d) Neutral FeCl3
128. 126. In aldehydes and ketones, carbon of the carbonyl group is 1 point
a) sp3-hybridized
b) sp2-hybridized
c) sp-hybridized
d) unhybridized
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
129. 127. Which of the following types of isomerism is exhibited by pentanone? 1 point
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional isomerism
d) All of these
130. 128. Amides may be converted into amines by a reaction named 1 point
a) Perkin
b) Claisen
c) Hofmann
d) Kekule
131. 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
132. 1 point
133. 131. Out of the following pair, which one does not have identical 1 point
dimensions?
134. 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
135. 133. A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the road in 1 point
taking a turn
136. 134. The range of a projectile for a given initial velocity is maximum when 1 point
the angle of projection is 45º. The range will be minimum, if the angle of
projection is
a) 90º
b) 180º
c) 60º
d) 75º
137. 135. A person sitting in an open car moving at constant velocity throws a 1 point
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
138. 136. When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores 100 J of energy. If it is 1 point
stretched further by 2 cm, the stored energy will be increased by
a) 100 J
b) 200 J
c) 300 J
d) 400 J
139. 137. When a body is taken from the equator to the poles, its weight 1 point
a) Remains constant
b) Increases
c) Decreases
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
141. 1 point
142. 140. If liquid level falls in a capillary then radius of capillary will 1 point
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Unchanged
d) None of these
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
144. 142. Latent heat of ice is 80 cal/gm. A man melts 60 g of ice by chewing in 1 1 point
minute. His power is
a) 4800 W
b) 336 W
c) 1.33 W
d) 0.75W
145. 143. 1gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1gm of water at 100°C the resulting 1 point
temperature will be
a) 5°C
b) 0°C
c) 10°C
d) 60C
146. 144. The work done in which of the following processes is zero 1 point
a) Isothermal process
b) Adiabatic process
c) Isochoric process
d) None of these
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
a) In the whole cycle of the system, the loss of any type of heat energy should be
zero
c) That the process should be slow so that the working substance should remain in
thermal and mechanical equilibrium with the surroundings
148. 1 point
149. 147. Two plane mirrors are at 45º to each other. If an object is placed 1 point
a) 5
b) 9
c) 7
d) 8
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
150. 1 point
151. 149. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by 1 point
a convex lens is
a) 1.5f
b) 2 f
c) 2.5f
d) 4f
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6/12/2021 CEE MODEL EXAMINATION
153. 151. In Young's double slit experiment, 62 fringes are seen in visible region 1 point
a) 54
b) 64
c) 74
d) 84
154. 152. The bending of beam of light around corners of obstacles is called 1 point
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Refraction
d) Interference
155. 153. The amplitude of two waves are in ratio 5 : 2. If all other conditions for 1 point
the two waves are same, then what is the ratio of their energy densities?
a) 5 : 2
b) 10: 4
c) 2.5 : 1
d) 25 : 4
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156. 154. A source emits a sound of frequency of 400 Hz, but the listener hears 1 point
157. 155. In open organ pipe, if fundamental frequency is n then the other 1 point
frequencies are
a) n, 2n, 3n, 4n
b) n, 3n, 5n
c) n, 2n, 4n, 8n
d) None of these
158. 156. A charge is kept in an isotropic and homogeneous medium. The 1 point
equipotential surface is
a) cylindrical
b) spherical
c) elliptical
d) parabolic
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c) it exists physically
160. 1 point
a) 1800 J
b) 1800 erg
c) 8000 erg
d) 16000 erg
161. 159. Electromotive force is the force, which is able to maintain a constant 1 point
a) Current
b) Resistance
c) Power
d) Potential difference
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162. 160. A cell of emf 6 V and resistance 0.5 ohm is short circuited. The current 1 point
in the cell is
a) 3 amp
b) 12 amp
c) 24 amp
d) 6 amp
163. 161. An ammeter gives full scale deflection when current of 1.0 A is passed 1 point
in it. To convert it into 10 A range ammeter, the ratio of its resistance and
the shunt resistance will be
a) 1 : 9
b) 1 : 10
c) 1 : 11
d) 9 : 1
164. 162. Two electric lamps of 40 watt each are connected in parallel. The 1 point
a) 20 watt
b) 60 watt
c) 80 watt
d) 100 watt
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165. 1 point
166. 164. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are produced, 1 point
167. 165. The average e.m.f. induced in a coil in which a current changes from 0 1 point
a) 0.1 H
b) 0.2 H
c) 0.4 H
d) 0.8 H
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168. 166. An ideal transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 250 turns in the 1 point
a) 50 V
b) 70 V
c) 100 V
d) 40 V
169. 1 point
a) Electrons
b) Neutrons
c) Positive ions
d) Electromagnetic waves
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171. 1 point
172. 170. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for a metal surface is 6600 Å. 1 point
a) 1.87 V
b) 1.87 eV
c) 18.7 eV
d) 0.18 eV
a) Cosmic rays
b) X-rays
c) Infrared radiations
d) γ-rays
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174. 1 point
a) a proton
b) an electron
c) a neutron
d) neutrino
a) An excess electron
b) A missing electron
c) A missing atom
d) A donor level
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177. 175. The forbidden gap in the energy bands of germanium at room 1 point
temperature is about
a) 1.1eV
b) 0.1eV
c) 0.67eV
d) 6.7eV
178. 176. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse-biased PN junction, the 1 point
a) Potential is zero
c) Potential is maximum
179. 177. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend on 1 point
a) Temperature
b) Forward bias
c) Doping density
d) Diode design
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a) Directly
b) Inversely
c) Exponentially
d) None of these
a) Star
b) Galaxy
c) Constellation
d) Planet
a) Gravitational force
b) Electromagnetic force
c) Weak force
d) Strong force
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183. 181. Shankar is taller than Hari but shorter than Anil, Krishna is shorter than 1 point
Shankar but taller than Hari, Ayush is shorter than Anil, Who is the shortest
among them?
a) Hari
b) Ayush
c) Anil
d) Cannot say.
184. 182. In a certain code language system GAIDAKOT is coded as: 1 point
a) 23453829
b) 12345678
c) 24574856
d) 71361295
a) 34:48
b) 32:24
c) 62:58
d) 54:80
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186. 184. Complete the given series..1A, 4B, 16D, 64H, ? 1 point
a) 324M
b) 256L
c) 81P
d) 256P
187. 1 point
a) 27
b) 44
c) 67
d) 1
188. 186. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 1 point
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16
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189. 1 point
190. 188. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 point
a) 20 litres
b) 30 litres
c) 40 litres
d) 60 litres
191. 189. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What 1 point
should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282
runs?
a) 6.25
b) 6.5
c) 6.75
d) 7
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192. 190. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 1 point
a) 50
b) 56
c) 70
d) 80
193. * 1 point
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
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194. 1 point
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
195. 1 point
a) 20
b) 18
c) 16
d) 12
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196. 1 point
a) fig. 1
b) fig. 2
c) fig. 3
d) fig. 4
197. 1 point
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
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198. 1 point
a) 11
b) 14
c) 10
d) 12
199. 197. The 30 members of a club decided to play a badminton singles 1 point
a) 15
b) 29
c) 61
d) None of these
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200. 198. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. 1 point
First car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then
turns left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction back
to reach the main road. In the mean time, due to minor break down the
other car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the
distance between two cars at this point?
a) 65
b) 75
c) 80
d) 85
a) Difficulty
b) Unrest
c) Non-Cooperation
d) Poignancy
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202. 1 point
a) F3M5K
b) F5M3K
c) F9M4N3K
d) F3M5N3K
Forms
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