14/08/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 26 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A boy is standing in a lift moving upwards with 3. In the arrangement shown, the coefficient of
constant acceleration. The boy throws a ball friction between the block B(mass = 10 kg) and the
vertically up with initial velocity u with respect to horizontal floor is  = 0.4. If the mass of the
the lift and it reaches his hand just after time t. The hanging block A is 10 kg then the acceleration of
upward acceleration of the lift is the blocks is (pulley and string are ideal and
2u u g = 10 m/s2)
(1) g (2) g
t t
2u u
(3) g (4) g
t t
2. A block of mass m = 5 kg is kept on rough
horizontal disc at a distance 2 m from the centre (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
as shown. The coefficient of friction between the (3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
block and the disc is  = 0.8. If the disc is under 4. Two cylindrical rods each of length L are joined in
uniform circular motion then its angular speed  parallel. Their thermal conductivity are k1 and k2.
just above which the block will start sliding is
Their circular area of cross-section are A and 2A
respectively. The equivalent coefficient of thermal
conductivity is
k1  k2
(1) (2) k1  2k 2
2
(1) 0.25 rad/s (2) 0.5 rad/s
k1  2k2
(3) 1 rad/s (4) 2 rad/s (3) k1  k2 (4)
3

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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

5. For a simple harmonic oscillator of mass m = 10
kg and amplitude A = 2 m the variation of potential
energy U as a function of displacement x from
mean position is as shown. The time period of
oscillation in second, is
10. In the network shown, the resistance between two
adjacent junctions is R. Equivalent resistance
between point a and b is

(1)  (2) 2 7R 5R
(1) (2)
6 6

(3) (4) 4 7R 5R
2 (3) (4)
3 3
6. Two conducting spheres have radii R1 = 0.5 m and
11. If the atmospheric pressure is P and adiabatic
R2 = 1 m. Each of them has 300 C charge on its
exponent is  then isochoric bulk modulus of
surface. If the spheres are joined by a conducting
elasticity of an ideal gas is
wire then the amount of charge transferred from
one body to the other is (1) P (2) P

(1) 100 C (2) 50 C (3) Zero (4) Infinity

(3) 150 C (4) 200 C 12. In the figure shown, the block of mass 10 kg is kept
on rough horizontal floor. Coefficient of friction
7. A force moves a block of mass 4 kg on horizontal  = 0.4 and acceleration due to gravity
smooth surface such that the position x of the g = 10 m/s2. A horizontal force of 70 N is applied
block as a function of time t is given as x = t3. Here at one end of the block. Which of the following
x is in metre and t is in second. Work done by the values of force F on the other end will make the
force in first three second is block move?
(1) 729 J (2) 162 J
(3) 486 J (4) 1458 J
8. Potential energy U of a body as a function of (1) 20 N (2) 40 N
position x is given as U = x  27x  6 . Here U is
3
(3) 60 N (4) 100 N
in joule and x is in meter.
13. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle
The value of position x where the system is in moving in a straight line is as shown. Particle
equilibrium is starts from rest. Time ‘t’ when the velocity again
(1) 3 m becomes zero, is
(2) –3 m
(3) 27 m
(4) Both (1) & (2)
9. We prefer to make standard resistance of
(1) Tungsten
(2) Nichrome (1) 3s (2) 2  3  s
(3) Aluminium alloy
(4) Manganin (3) 2  2  s (4) 2  6  s
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-26 (Code-A)
14. The physical quantity “Absorbed dose index” has 21. The truth table given below for (where A and B are
the SI unit of input and Y is output)
(1) Becquerel (2) Henry A B Y
(3) Siemens (4) Gray
0 0 1
15. Choose the correct statement.
0 1 1
(1) Two positively charged bodies always repel
each other 1 0 1
(2) Attraction between two bodies means they are
1 1 0
oppositely charged
(3) Point charged do not experience electrostatic (1) NOR (2) NAND
induction (3) XOR (4) AND
(4) All of these 22. Two organ pipes A (closed) and B (open) of same
16. A block of mass 1 kg is moving along a line cross-section but different lengths are connected
so as to make a longer pipe. If their respective
x + y = 5 at a speed 2 2 m/s. If x and y are in
fundamental frequencies are 5 Hz and 10 Hz then
meter then the angular momentum (in kg-m2/s) of
the fundamental frequency after joining them will
the mass about origin is
be
(1) 5 (2) 5 2 (1) 7 Hz (2) 5 Hz
(3) 10 (4) 10 2 (3) 2.5 Hz (4) 2 Hz
17. A hollow sphere of mass m and radius R is kept 23. One mole of He gas undergoes a cyclic process
on a rough horizontal surface. It is hit hard so that as shown in the graph. The part of the graph which
it starts sliding with initial speed v. Its velocity of shows absorption of heat from the surrounding is
centre of mass when it starts pure rolling is
2v 3v
(1) (2)
5 5

5 3
(3) v (4) v
7 5
18. If k is Planck’s constant and I is moment of inertia,
k2
then has dimension of
I (1) AB (2) BC
(1) Time (2) Force (3) BC and AB (4) AB, BC & DA
(3) Work (4) Momentum 24. Star A emits maximum radiation of frequency x
  and star B emits radiation of frequency y. If the
19. A particle is moving on a circular path. If v and a
ratio of their emissive power is 1 : 16, then the ratio
are its respective velocity and acceleration, then
x : y is
which of the following is correct?
    (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(1) v . a  0 (2) v . a  0
  (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
(3) a .v  0 (4) All of these
25. A p-n junction diode contains a depletion layer
20. The equation of a wave is given by y = (0.002) m (1) Only if it is unbiased
sin10 (t – 0.001x) where x is in metre and t is in
(2) Only if it is forward biases
second. If the phase difference between two
 (3) Only if it is reverse biases
points is , then the separation between them will
2 (4) Irrespective of whether it is biased or unbiased
be 26. Plane mirror produces lateral magnification of
(1) 0.20 m (2) 0.30 m (1) +1 (2) –1
(3) 0.40 cm (4) 0.50 cm (3) +2 (4) –2
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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

27. In the adjoining figure, the object ‘O’ is viewed 32. The percentage of initial sample of a radioactive
from the top of the hemisphere. If the observed substance that decays in time t is 19%. The
10 percentage of the sample which is left undecayed
vertical shift is , then the refractive index of the
3 t
in time
glass is 2
(1) 10% (2) 50%
(3) 70% (4) 90%
33. The K wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic
number Z = 61 is . The atomic number for an
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.3 
atom that emits K radiation for wavelength is
(3) 1.5 (4) 2.0 4
28. If the angle of deviation by a plane mirror is 120º (1) 120 (2) 122
for a ray incident on it, then the angle made by the
(3) 121 (4) 124
incident ray with the mirror is
34. When a radiation of 6.2 eV falls on a metal
(1) 60º (2) 45º
surface. The kinetic energy of fastest electron is
(3) 75º (4) 90º 3.2 × 10–19 J. The work function of metal is
29. A uniformly charged non conducting sphere has a (1) 2.4 eV (2) 3.4 eV
cavity as shown in the figure then intensity of (3) 4.2 eV (4) 5.6 eV
electric field inside the cavity is
35. A particle is executing S.H.M. If acceleration and
velocity are a and v respectively, then graph
between them is best represented by

(1) (2)
(1) Uniform
(2) Non uniform
(3) Have equal magnitude, but direction is
different at every point
(4) Have different magnitude at every point, but (3) (4)
same direction
30. A bar magnet has magnetic moment M. If a hole
36. An alternating voltage is represented as
is drilled normally through the centre of length of
E = 20sin300t. The average value of voltage over
magnet, then the new magnetic moment of the
one cycle will be
magnet is
(1) Less than M (2) More than M (1) 10 volt (2) 10 2 volt

(3) Equal to M (4) Cannot be predicted (3) 20 volt (4) Zero

31. A small bar magnet is dropped into a vertical 37. Which of the following is incorrect, when hydrogen
copper tube of infinite length, then the bar magnet atom is excited from ground state to first excited
moves inside the tube with (g = acceleration due state?
to gravity) (1) Its potential energy increases by 20.4 eV
(1) An acceleration equal to g (2) Its kinetic energy decreases by 10.2 eV
(2) An acceleration less than g (3) Its angular momentum increases by
(3) An acceleration greater than g 1.05 × 10–35 Js
(4) Initially acceleration less than g and finally no (4) Its angular momentum decreases by
acceleration 1.05 × 10–35 Js

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-26 (Code-A)
38. Charge on capacitors connected in series to a 42. A body is taken slowly up the rough hill by a force
source of e.m.f is F, which is always directed along tangent to the
path at each point. Mark the correct alternative
(1) Always same
(2) Always different
(3) May be different
(4) Cannot be predicted
39. The equivalent resistance between A & B in the
circuit shown in the figure is

(1) Work done by friction depends on the shape

of the surface
(2) Work done by friction does not depend on the
shape of the surface

(3) Net work done by the force (F) is mg x 2  y 2

(4) Net work done by the force is mgy

43. The continuity equation is the result of application
of which of the following law?
(1) 8 
(1) First law of thermodynamics
(2) 5 
(2) Conservation of energy
(3) 3 
(3) Newton’s second law of motion
(4) 2 
(4) Conservation of mass
40. An electron enters in a viscous medium having
uniform perpendicular magnetic field due to which 44. The increase in the potential energy of the body
it moves in spiral path of decreasing radii. Its with mass m if the body is taken at the height h
angular momentum which is equal to radius of the earth

(1) Increases (1) mgR (2) 2mgR

(2) Decreases mgR mgR

(3) (4)
2 4
(3) Remains constant
45. Moment of inertia of the sector of mass m and
(4) May increase or decrease
radius R about axis through centre of curvature
41. The magnitude of i in ampere as shown in the and normal to plane is
circuit will be

(1) 0.1 3MR 2 2MR 2

(1) (2)
(2) 0.3 4 5
(3) 0.6
MR 2
(3) (4) MR 2
(4) 0.4 2

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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is correct for following 52. Maximum magnitude of work done is obtained
compounds? during the hydrolysis of 1 mol of
(1) Al4C3 (2) CaC2
(3) Be2C (4) Mg2C3
53. In the decomposition of phosgene gas


 CO(g) + Cl2 (g) ; I2O5 is added at
COCl2 (g) 
constant volume, then
(1) Structure I and II are diastereomers
(1) Equilibrium will shift to the forward side
(2) Structure II and III are enantiomers
(2) Equilibrium will shift to the backward side
(3) Structure I and III are identical
(3) Value of equilibrium constant will change
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Cannot effect the equilibrium
47. Total number of enantiomeric pairs in the following
compound will be 54. The temperature at which ferromagnetic
substances converts to paramagnetic known as
(1) Curie temperature
(2) Critical temperature
(3) Boyle’s temperature
(4) Kraft temperature
(1) Two (2) Three
55. Which type of crystals contain only one Bravais
(3) Four (4) Zero lattice?
48. Total number of positional isomers for C5H12 is (1) Hexagonal (2) Triclinic
(1) Zero (2) Two (3) Rhombohedral (4) All of these
(3) Four (4) Six 56. Ratio of Boyle temperature and critical
49. Which of the following explain adsorption temperature for a gas is
phenomenon? 8 27
(1) (2)
(1) Millikan oil drop experiment 27 8

(2) Froth-flotation process 1 2

(3) (4)
(3) Heterogeneous catalysis 2 1
57. Pressure cooker reduces cooking time because
(4) All of these
(1) Equal heat distribution
50. Which of the following will have largest atomic
size? (2) More heat required
(1) Na (2) K (3) Boiling point of water is elevated
(3) Ca (4) Ba (4) Water converted into steam
51. Boiling point of aqueous ideal solution 240°F 58. Correct order of basic strength for the following
shows that compound in aqueous medium will be

(1) Vapour pressure of solution is less than pure

H2O

(2) It contains volatile solute

(3) It contains non-volatile solute (1) c > d > b > a (2) d > c > a > b
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) c > d > a > b (4) a > b > d > c

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-26 (Code-A)

59. Which of the following is correct for ethylene 67. If the volume occupied by 10 g of a gas at STP is
glycol? 2240 ml then the vapour density of gas will be
(1) Skew form is more stable than anti- (1) 100 (2) 25
conformation (3) 50 (4) 200
(2) van’t Hoff factor i = 1 68. Which of the following is not correct for a solution
(3) Decreases the vapour pressure of water showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
(4) All are correct (1) (S)mixing < 0 (2) (V)mixing < 0
60. Select the correct option(s) for the product formed (3) (H)mixing < 0 (4) Pobs < Pideal
when CuSO4 solution is treated with excess of 69. Which of the following can be easily oxidised by
NH3. F2?
(1) Paramagnetic in nature
(1) Mg2+ (aq) (2) Li (aq)
(2) Square planar in shape
(3) H2O (4) All of these
(3) Hybridization is dsp2
70. Which of the following is correct statement for first
(4) All of these
order reaction?
61. Among the following most easily dehydration in
(1) Reaction gets slower as it approaches to
acidic medium takes place in
complete
(2) Rate of reaction is independent of
(1) (2) concentration of reactant
(3) Half life of reaction depends upon
concentration of reactant
(3) (4) (4) All are correct
71. For CO molecule, correct statement is
(1) Sigma bond is weaker than pi-bond
62. Which is the weakest base?
(2) Causes minimum splitting of d-orbitals
(1) KOH (2) NaOH
(3) Antibonding 2s orbital will donate electron for
(3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Zn(OH)2 the formation of CO
63. Nitrogendioxide can be obtained by heating (4) All are correct
(1) Pb(NO3)2 72. Most reactive chloride towards SN1 reaction
(2) NaNO3 among the following is
(3) AgNO3 (1) (2)
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) (4) CH2= CH–CH2–Cl
64.  Hf is zero for
(1) Br2 (g) (2) CO (g) 73. Bredig’s arc method can be used to prepare
(3) O3 (g) (4) Cl2 (g) colloidal solution of
65. On monochlorination of isobutane, the number of (1) Mg (2) Pt
enantiomeric pairs formed is (3) Fe (4) K
(1) Two (2) Zero 74. The oxidation number of iron in Fe(CO)5 is
(3) Six (4) Eight (1) Zero (2) +2
66. Halogen which is oxidised by HNO3 in aqueous (3) +1 (4) –1
medium is
75. Among the following minimum boiling point is of
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(1) HF (2) HI
(3) I2 (4) All of these (3) HBr (4) HCl

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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

76. Phosphoric acid may have n-factor 84. Cv for monatomic gas is
(1) 1 (2) 2 7
(1) R
(3) 3 (4) All of these 2
77. Which among the following not gives iodoform 3
(2) R
test? 2
(1) Benzophenone (2) Acetophenone 1
(3) R
(3) Acetone (4) Isopropanol 2
78. Monomer of Teflon is 5
(4) R
(1) CF2 = CF2 (2) 2
85. Which of the following compound is least reactive
towards hydrolysis?
(3) CH2 = CH – CN (4) CH2 = CH – Cl
(1) Acetamide
79. For the following conversion
(2) Acetic anhydride
(3) Acetyl chloride
(4) Methyl acetate
Most suitable reagent A will be
86. -particles can be detected by using
(1) H2/Pd/BaSO4
(1) Thin aluminium sheet
(2) H2/Pt/O2
(2) Barium sulphate
(3) NaBH4 (3) Zinc sulphide screen
(4) Na in liq. NH3 (4) Gold foil

80. The correct statement for N3 is 87. Which of the following is anhydride of nitric acid?
(1) N2O3 (2) N2O5
(1) It has non-linear structure
(3) NO (4) NO2
(2) It is called pseudohalide ion
(3) Oxidation state of nitrogen is –1 88. IUPAC name of the given compound is

(4) It is isoelectronic with NO2

81. Glycerol on treatment with KHSO4 gives
(1) Methyl-3-methylpent-3-enoate
(1) Allyl Alcohol (2) Acrolein
(2) Methyl-2-methylpent-3-enoate
(3) Propene (4) Glyceric acid
(3) Ethyl-3-methylbut-2-enoate
82. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3MgI
followed by treatment with saturated solution of (4) Methyl-3-methylbut-2-enoate
NH4Cl gives 89. Which of the following can give Beilstein test?
(1) Acetone (1) Urea
(2) Acetyl iodide (2) Thiourea

(3) 2-Methyl-2-propanol (3) Halogen

(4) Acetamide (4) All of these

83. Omeprazole is used as 90. Which of the following is intensive property?

(1) Antibiotic (1) Ecell

(2) Tranquilizer (2) E°cell

(3) Antiseptic (3) Normality

(4) Antacid (4) All of these

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-26 (Code-A)

BOTANY
91. Which of the following is correct for Mango? 98. Consider the following diagram w.r.t. concerned
(1) Genus-Triticum, Class-Dicots characteristics and select correct one.
(2) Species name- Triticum, Class-Dicots
(3) Family- Poaceae, Class-Monocots
(4) Genus-Mangifera, Class- Dicots
92. Select the incorrect w.r.t diatoms.
(1) Cell membrane is impregnated with silica
(2) They form diatomaceous earth
(1) A - Dicotyledon, Diplontic life cycle
(3) They are known as chief producers of oceans
(4) They are included in Chrysophytes (2) B - Ginkgo, Living fossil
93. Mycoplasma (3) C - Monocot, Haplontic life cycle
(1) Is an archaebacterium (4) A - A type of alga, Funaria
(2) Has the cell wall composed of chitin 99. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
(3) Is a bacterium without cell wall node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
(4) Is an aerobic bacterium is modified sub-aerial stem for

94. Ascospores are produced by (1) Vegetative propagation in terrestrial plant

(1) Ustilago (2) Puccinia (2) Perennation in aquatic plant
(3) Penicillium (4) Mucor (3) Vegetative propagation in aquatic plants
95. Which of the following statements is correct for (4) Assimilatory function in Asparagus
viruses?
100. Select correct match w.r.t. placentation.
(1) They form plasmodium stage after
aggregation in favourable condition
a. Placenta forms a ridge (i) Parietal
(2) Cell wall is composed of cellulose on ventral suture
(3) All viruses have RNA as a genetic material
b. Common type of (ii) Basal
(4) Only one type of nucleic acid is found
placentation
96. Criteria like DNA base sequencing for classifying
various organisms is considered in c. Most advanced type (iii) Axile
(1) Karyotaxonomy placentation
(2) Cytotaxonomy
d. Ovules on peripheral (iv) Marginal
(3) Chemotaxonomy part of the ovary
(4) Both (1) and (2)
97. Consider the following features: (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(a) Chlorophyll b and chlorophyll c (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(b) Stored food as Floridean starch 101. Select the odd one w.r.t gymnosperms.
(c) Cell wall is composed of cellulose (1) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and
Which of these are seen in red algae? remain exposed
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) The roots are generally tap roots
(2) Only (b) and (c) (3) Embryo sac has 3 celled egg apparatus
(3) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) Roots in some genera have fungal association
(4) Only (a) and (c) in the form of mycorrhiza

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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

102. The meristems that occur in mature regions of 109. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in
roots and shoots of many plants are (1) Requirement of special membrane protein
(1) Primary meristems in origin
(2) Direction of transport
(2) Ground meristems
(3) Highly selective nature
(3) Dedifferentiated tissues
(4) Showing transport saturates
(4) Redifferentiated tissues
110. The reductive step of nitrogen cycle is carried out
103. Select incorrectly matched pair.
by how many micro-organisms mentioned below
(1) Collenchymatous Dicot root in the box?
hypodermis
Frankia, Nitrobacter, Azospirillum,
(2) Conspicuous Monocot Nitrosomonas, Rhizobium, Bacillus vulgaris,
parenchymatous ground root Nitrococcus
tissue
(1) Six (2) Two
(3) Large and well developed Dicot stem
(3) Three (4) Five
pith
111. In photosynthetic pathway of sorghum plant
(4) Abundant starch grains in Dicot stem C4-acids are decarboxylated in ________ to start
innermost layer of cortex
________ enzyme activity.
104. Which of the following tissues has highly (1) Mesophyll; PEPcase
thickened walls and obliterated central lumens?
(2) Bundle sheath cell; RuBisCO
(1) Xylem parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(3) Mesophyll; RuBisCO
(3) Xylem fibers (4) Primary meristem
(4) Bundle sheath cell, PEPcase
105. Select correct match.
112. The number of GTPs produced by 2 acetyl CoA
(1) Steroidal hormones (i) SER molecules during aerobic respiration is
(2) Hydrolases (ii) RER (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) Oxidative (iii) Chloroplast (3) 38 (4) 4
phosphorylation 113. Find correct match w.r.t. PGRs.
(4) Storage of proteins (iv) Elaioplast
a. Promotes the (i) ABA
106. Which of the following group is the part of abscission of older,
endomembrane system of eukaryotic cells? mature leaves and
(1) Lysosomes, mitochondria and chloroplast fruits
(2) SER, RER and chloroplast b. Increases the length (ii) Cytokinin
(3) Golgi complex, ER and lysosomes of grape stalk
(4) Mitochondria, ER and nucleus
c. Adventitious shoot (iii) Gibberellin
107. Duplication of semi-autonomous organelles occur formation
in
(1) G1 and G2 phase (2) G2 and M-phase d. Increases the (iv) Auxins
tolerance of plants to
(3) G1 phase (4) G2 phase various kinds of
108. What would be the number of chromosomes (A) in stresses
S phase and DNA amount in meiotic I products (B)
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
in a dividing cell if meiocyte has 30 chromosomes
with 20 picogram DNA? (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) A = 15, B = 40 pg (2) A = 60, B = 40 pg (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) A = 30, B = 60 pg (4) A = 30, B = 20 pg (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-26 (Code-A)
114. A - Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction in 121. A heterozygous pea plant with round shaped,
protists and monerans. yellow colored seeds (RrYy) is self crossed. What
B - Neelakurinji is annual with distinct vegetative, will be the probability to get the genotype rryy?
reproductive and senescent phase. (1) 1/8 (2) 1/16
C - In majority of organisms, male gamete is (3) 9/16 (4) 3/16
motile and the female gamete is stationary. 122. Select correct match.
(1) All A, B and C are correct
a. Broad palm with (i) Sickle cell anemia
(2) Only A and B are correct
characteristic
(3) Only B is incorrect palm crease
(4) Only A is incorrect
b. Gynaecomastia (ii) Turner’s
115. Which of the following type of life cycle is syndrome
associated with the organisms where zygote
develops a thick wall that is resistant to c. Rudimentary (iii) Klinefelter’s
desiccation and damage? ovaries syndrome
(1) Diplontic (2) Haplontic d. Abnormal (iv) Down’s syndrome
(3) Haplo-diplontic (4) In both (1) and (3) RBC shape
116. A typical angiosperm anther is
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Monothecous and tetrasporangiate
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Bilobed and bisporangiate
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Dithecous and trilobed
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Bilobed and tetrasporangiate
123. Chromosome component of a person affected
117. Select correct statement w.r.t. female
from Turner’s syndrome will be
gametophyte in flowering plants.
(1) 44+XXY (2) 44+XY
(1) Micropylar megaspore undergoes three free
nuclear mitosis (3) 44+XO (4) 44+XX
(2) Embryo sac has two synergids 124. Consider the given figure and select correct option
(3) The large central cell has three nuclei situated for label marked by A, B, C & D.
above egg apparatus
(4) Total 8 cells and 7 nuclei are formed
118. Which outbreeding device prevents both
autogamy and geitonogamy in papaya?
(1) A - DNA dependent DNA polymerase,
(1) Self-incompatibility (2) Dichogamy B - Replication
(3) Heterostyly (4) Dioecism (2) C - DNA dependent RNA polymerase,
119. Select the incorrect match. A - RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) Apospory - Diploid egg (3) C - RNA dependent RNA polymerase,
(2) Apomictic embryo - Nucellar embryo D - DNA dependent Ribozyme
(3) False fruits - Unfertilized ovary (4) B - RNA dependent DNA polymerase,
D - RNA dependent peptidyl transferase
(4) Perispermic seed - Blackpepper
125. Select correct statement.
120. In Snapdragon, pure line tall plant with red flower
was crossed with dwarf and white flowered plant; (1) RNA is more labile due to methyluracil
F1 was test crossed to obtain F2. What is the (2) DNA is preferred for the transmission of
probability of getting progeny with dominant genetic information
parental traits? (3) RNA acts as adapter and catalyst
(1) 62% (2) 50%
(4) Presence of thymine confers stability to the
(3) 25% (4) 0% helical structure of DNA
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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

126. In eukaryotes, a gene is literally not defined as (3) Fungi and BGA
(1) Cistron (4) Bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi
(2) Functional unit of inheritance 132. Consider the following statement w.r.t xerarch
(3) A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide succession and select the correct option
(4) DNA sequence which has continuous (A) It takes place in wetter areas
information for a polypeptide
(B) Successional series progress from xeric to the
127. The adapter molecules for tryptophan and first mesic conditions
amino acid during polypeptide synthesis has anti-
(1) Both A and B statements are correct
codon sequence respectively
(1) CCA, UCA (2) ACC, UAC (2) Only A is correct

(3) AGC, UGA (4) AUG, UAA (3) Only B is correct

128. Classical plant breeding involves (4) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Improved management practices 133. The ecological pyramid of number for predator
(2) Domestication food chain on a tree is
(3) Hybridisation and selection (1) Straight (2) Inverted
(4) Selection only (3) Spindle-shaped (4) Bell-shaped
129. Organism responsible for ethanol production in 134. Amongst vertebrates the diversity of amphibians
breweries is (A), fishes (B), birds (C), reptiles (D), mammals (E)
(1) Penicillium (2) Streptococcus is correctly represented by
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Bacillus (1) B > C > A > D > E (2) B > C > D > A > E
130. Blood-cholesterol lowering agents statins are (3) B > D > C > A > E (4) C > E > B > A > D
produced by 135. Which of the following is incorrect about
(1) Streptococcus eutrophication ?
(2) Streptobacillus (1) It is aging of a lake by biological enrichment of
(3) Trichoderma polysporum its water
(4) Monascus purpureus (2) Over the time silt and organic debris pile up in
131. The main source of biofertilizers in terrestrial lake
environments are (3) BOD value for polluted lake is very low
(1) Bacteria only
(4) Nitrates and phosphates are prime
(2) Bacteria and fungi contaminants for this phenomenon

ZOOLOGY
136. X and Y are hormones. X stimulates the secretion
of Y, which exerts negative feedback on the cells
that secretes X. What happens when the blood
level of Y decreases?
(1) Less X is secreted (2) More X is secreted
(3) Secretion of X stops (4) No effect on X
137. Which of the following is true about progesterone?
(1) Bind to cell membrane receptors
(2) Bind to mRNA
(3) Eventually forms hormone-receptor complexes
that bind to DNA
(4) Never enters the cells
138. If the sodium-potassium pump of a neuron failed,
what effect would this likely have on the neurons
functions?
(1) The concentration of positive and negative
ions would be such that the inner side
becomes negatively charged
(2) Voltage gated potassium channels and
voltage gated sodium channels would no
longer function
(3) The neuron could not conduct another action
potential until the resting potential was fully
stabilised
(4) The concentration of sodium ions would be
higher outside the cell and potassium ions
would be higher inside

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-26 (Code-A)
139. Which of the following is a non-specific defense 144. Which of the following statements is not true?
mechanism? (1) ADH makes the collecting duct more
(1) Antibody response permeable to water

(2) The T-cell response (2) Kidneys do not play a significant role in the
removal of ammonia
(3) The inflammatory response (3) Aldosterone is produced by the anterior lobe
(4) The B-cell response of pituitary in response to high levels of
sodium ions in blood plasma
140. If a person is infected with some deadly microbes
to which quick immune response is required as in (4) Uric acid is least soluble and least toxic of the
tetanus, what should be done? nitrogenous products
(1) Immediately tetanus toxoid vaccine should be 145. Which is not involved in the knee jerk reflex?
given (1) Stretching of the muscle
(2) We need to directly inject antitoxin, as ATS (2) Motor neuron
injection (3) Muscle spindle
(3) Antibiotic injection should be given to destroy (4) An interneuron
tetanus toxin
146. Which of the following is least likely to be used as
(4) Steroids would immediately reduce the a cloning vector?
symptoms
(1) Phage (2) Plasmid
141. In the given diagram, the antigen binding site is
(3) Bacterium (4) Retrovirus
made up of
147. A DNA library is
(1) A collection of all genes sequenced so far
(2) A collection of DNA fragments that make up
the entire genome of a particular organism
(3) A DNA fragment inserted into the vector
(4) All DNA fragments identified with a probe
148. Each of the following statements concerning
malaria is correct, except
(1) The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector

(1) Variable region of light chains only (2) Early in infection, sporozoites reach the liver
through blood
(2) Variable region of heavy chains only
(3) Parasites reproduce asexually in the red blood
(3) Variable regions of both light and heavy
cells, bursting the RBCs and causing cycles of
chains, present at N-terminal end
fever and chills
(4) Constant regions of light and heavy chains
present at C-terminal end (4) Sexual stages gametocytes develop in the
human gastrointestinal tract
142. What type of blood contains anti B antibodies (but
not A antibody), in the plasma and lacks Rh 149. The finch species of the Galapagos Islands are
antigens? grouped according to their food sources. Which of
the following is not a finch food source?
(1) AB negative (2) A negative
(3) B negative (4) O positive (1) Seeds (2) Decaying flesh
143. HIV is particularly dangerous because it attacks (3) Insects (4) Tree buds
A. Cells with CD4 receptor 150. When natural selection leads to stabilization of a
certain phenotype in a species, then the peak
B. And depletes helper T-cells
(1) Shifts in one direction
C. And depletes macrophages, called HIV
factory (2) Gets higher and narrower
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) Disappears and a new peak is formed
(3) A, B and C (4) A and C (4) Splits and two new peaks are formed

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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

151. False statement w.r.t. hCG is 155. Which of the following is not a correct difference
(1) High levels of circulating hCG, stimulate between rods and cones?
estrogen and progesterone synthesis Function Rods Cones
(2) It appears in urine of pregnant women and can (1) Sensitivity Twilight, Daylight,
be used for detection of pregnancy to light scotopic photopic
(3) Action of hCG is similar to LH vision vision

(4) High levels of hCG in uterus stimulates (2) Photo Rhodopsin Iodopsin or
endometrial thickening by acting on smooth pigments or visual visual violet
muscles purple

152. Which of the following is not an event of muscle (3) Acuity Lower Greatest
contraction? visual visual
acuity. Not acuity
(1) Shortening of I-band present in present in
(2) Formation of cross bridges fovea fovea

(3) Hydrolysis of ATP (4) Dark Rods adapt Cones

adaptation fast and adapt
(4) Removal of troponin to expose actin binding
work at slowly and
site on myosin high work at low
153. Which of the following is incorrect match of joints, illumination illumination
their description and one example?
156. Which of the following epithelial tissue is not
Joint Description Example correctly matched w.r.t. location and function?

(1) Cartilaginous Permits limited Joint EPITHELIUM LOCATION FUNCTION

movements. between (1) Squamous Walls of Diffusion
Bones joined adjacent
blood and filtration
together by vertebrae
vessels
cartilage of
vertebral (2) Cuboidal Ducts of the Secretion
column glands and and
tubular absorption
(2) Fibrous joint Bones are Shown
fused end to by flat parts of
end by white bones of nephrons
fibres skull (3) Ciliated Bronchioles To move
(3) Synovial Presence of Knee columnar and the particles
fluid in synovial joint fallopian and mucus
cavity. Allows tubes in a specific
considerable direction
movement
(4) Ciliated DCT Absorption
(4) Pivot Allows limited Between cuboidal
movement. atlas and
Absence of axis 157. Read the following statements w.r.t. probe
synovial cavity A. It is ssDNA or ssRNA
154. Which of the following is autoimmune disorder B. Used to detect ‘gene of interest’
affecting neuromuscular junction leading to C. Used to detect mutations in genes in
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal suspected cancer patients
muscles? D. Used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS
(1) Muscular dystrophy patients
(2) Osteoporosis Choose the option that states only true statements.
(3) Tetany (1) A only (2) A and B only
(4) Myasthenia gravis (3) A, B and C only (4) A, B, C and D

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-26 (Code-A)
158. Which hormones are secreted when a person is 164. Choose the incorrect match with respect to drug,
extremely frightened, he experiences increased its source and action.
rate of heart beat, respiration and cardiac output?
Drug Source Action
(1) Aldosterone and cortisol
(1) Cocaine Erythroxylum Interferes with
(2) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
coca the transport
(3) Thyroxine and thymosin of dopamine
(4) Insulin and glucagon (2) Morphine Latex of Sedative and
159. Otolith organ consists of Papaver painkiller
somniferum
(1) Semicircular canals and cristae
(2) Utricle and saccule (3) LSD Fruiting Hallucinogenic
bodies of substance
(3) Crista ampullaris and macula Claviceps
(4) Organ of Corti purpurea

160. Select the incorrect match (4) Charas Cannabis Tranquiliser

sativa and
(1) PCT 70 to 80 percent of electrolytes depressant
and water are reabsorbed by
this segment 165. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Living state is a non-equilibrium steady state
(2) Henle’s Reabsorption in this segment is
Loop minimum (2) Bond energy in ATP is the main energy
currency in living systems
(3) DCT Conditional reabsorption of Na+ (3) Metabolic reactions result in transformation of
and water takes place in this biomolecules
segment
(4) Only some reactions in the living system are
catalysed
(4) ADH It decreases blood pressure,
decreases glomerular blood 166. Lemur and spotted cuscus exhibit
flow and thereby the GFR (1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Divergent evolution
161. Tunica media of pulmonary artery
(3) Convergent evolution
(1) Is thick but lacks smooth muscle fibres
(4) Parallel evolution
(2) Contains mainly collagen fibres
167. Branching descent was a key evolutionary
(3) Is composed of squamous epithelium concept given by
(4) Is made up of smooth muscle and elastic (1) Charles Darwin (2) Hugo de Vries
fibres
(3) Alfred Wallace (4) Thomas Malthus
162. Which set of cells exhibit phagocytic property?
168. The highest failure rate in birth control is
(1) Neutrophils and eosinophils associated with
(2) Basophils and lymphocytes A. Condoms
(3) Neutrophils and monocytes B. Periodic abstinence
(4) Monocytes and basophils C. Foam
163. Choose the incorrect match. D. The rhythm method
(1) IC = TV + IRV E. IUDs
(2) VC = ERV + RV + TV F. Injectable contraceptives
(3) FRC = ERV + RV (1) A and B (2) B and D
(4) TLC = RV + ERV + TV + IRV (3) F and B (4) A, B and D

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Test-26 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

169. A specialized embryo forming procedure in which 176. Which of the following is incorrect matching set
sperm is directly injected into the ovum is about the group and its example?
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT Group Example Characteristics
(3) IUI (4) ICSI
(1) Aves Corvus Pneumatic bones,
170. What is the term used for inserting a healthy copy bony endoskeleton
of a gene into a person who has a defective gene?
(2) Reptilia Crocodiles Poikilotherm, four
(1) Cloning vector chambered heart
(2) Gene therapy (3) Amphibia Bufo External
(3) Recombinant DNA fertilization, Moist
skin
(4) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(4) Mammalia Neophron Homeotherm,
171. Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes exhibit
viviparous
(1) External fertilization
177. An increase in homozygosity can be observed
(2) Viviparity upon continuous
(3) Poikilothermy (1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing
(4) Hermaphroditism (3) Cross-breeding (4) MOET
172. A hormone that peaks twice during the menstrual 178. Which of the following is not correctly matched
cycle of a healthy female is with one characteristic and the taxon?
(1) Progesterone (2) LH Animal Characteristic Taxon
(3) FSH (4) Estrogen
(1) Scorpion (i) Four pairs of Arachnida
173. Telomerase activity is high in walking legs

A. Differentiated cell (ii) Book lungs

B. Actively dividing mitotic cell (2) Silverfish (i) Ventral nerve Insecta

C. Cancerous cells cord

(ii) Jointed
D. Cells showing senescence appendages
(1) A and D
(3) Octopus (i) Skull is absent Echinodermata
(2) B and C (ii) Radula present
(3) D only (4) Prawn (i) Gills present Crustacea
(ii) Excretion
(4) A, B, C and D
through green
174. Glucose is not an end product of digestion by glands
(1) Sucrase (2) Amylase 179. Which of the following does not occur in diarrhoea?
(3) Maltase (4) Lactase (1) Abnormal frequency of bowel movement
175. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. cockroach. (2) Increased absorption of food

(1) Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles (3) Increased liquidity of faecal discharge
(4) Electrolyte imbalance in the body
(2) Forewings called tegmina are transparent and
membranous 180. Number of polypeptide chains present in
haemoglobin is
(3) Visceral organs are bathed in haemolymph
(1) Four (2) Three
(4) Malpighian tubules are present at the junction
of midgut and hindgut (3) One (4) Two

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