Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region 02
Schools Division of Isabela
San Mariano I District
STA. FILOMENA INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Mariano

4th Periodical Test in MAPEH-10

S.Y. 2017-2018
Name: _____________________________________________ Date: ____________ Grade: ___

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: DIRECTION: Read carefully every question, then encircle the letter of
the correct answer.

MUSIC
1. It is an art and musical form in which singers and musicians perform a dramatic work
combining text and a musical score, usually in an elaborate theatrical setting.
a. dance b. orchestra c. ensemble d. opera
2. The first Filipino opera is said to have been _________________________ by Pedro Paterno,
a poet, novelist, musician, and government official which was presented at the Zorilla Theater on
August, 2, 1902.
a. Noli Me Tangere b. El Filibusterismo
c. Sandugong Panaginip d. La Boheme
3. It is a three-act Filipino opera. The acts I and II are based on history and act III is based on a
legend attributed to Fr. Jose Burgos, one of the three martyred priest, Gomez, Burgos, and
Zamora.
a. Noli Me Tangere b. El Filibusterismo
c. Sandugong Panaginip d. La Loba Negra
4. This Novel was written to expose the ills of the Spanish Catholic friars and the ruling colonial
government, and was completed in 1886.
a. Noli Me Tangere b. El Filibusterismo
c. Sandugong Panaginip d. La Loba Negra
5. This novel contains struggle of the Filipino people to achieve freedom from Spanish rule; it is
reelected the prevailing state of the Philippine colonial government and society that had become
corrupt and immoral.
a. Noli Me Tangere b. El Filibusterismo
c. Sandugong Panaginip d. La Loba Negra
6. The dance form known as _____ has been used to interpret stories of all kinds. It does so by
allowing the characters to come alive, not in spoken dialogue, but in body movements or
pantomime.s
a. opera b. drama c. puppet d. ballet
7. The musical _________ is a popular and generally lighter from musical drama than the opera.
The themes are usually more contemporary, and the musical melodies are more manageable by
the average singer.
a. drama b. dance c. theater d. play
8. She is best known for her portrayal of Kim in the Musical Miss Saigon, a role for which she
won the prestigious Tony Award in USA and the Laurence Olivier Award in London.
a. Lea Salongab. Sharon Cuneta c. Nora Aunor c. Maricel Soriano
9. The musical play _______________ is a five- act work commissioned by Alfonso Puyat in
1979, depicting the life of revolutionary hero Andres Bonifacio.
a. Ang Dakilang Anak Pawis b. Mamang Gusting
c. El-Filibusterismo d. Noli me Tanger
10. The musical play ______________ is a production for poetry and mixed media for male and
female narrators, female voice, two percussionists, two pianists and two dancers.
a. Ang Dakilang Anak Pawis b. Mamang Gusting
c. El-Filibusterismo d. Daragang Magayon

ARTS
1. A company that does not only staged English Language plays and musicals year-round but
trained actors and actresses as well.
a. Theater association b. Tanghalang Pilipino
c. Cultural center of the Philippines d. Repertory Philippines
2. In a professional stage production, this is the person who takes the play from a mere concept
to an actual finished presentation.
a. Producer b. Director c. Playwright d. Set designer
3. He/she is the over-all artistic coordinator of the entire production. He/she has a vision of the
desired total effect and impact of the performance
a. Producer b. Director c. Playwright d. Set designer
4. He/she is the writer of the script which is based on an existing story or another play.
a. Producer b. Director c. Playwright d. Set designer
5. He/she builds the set that will stimulate the world that the play’s characters are supposed to
live in.
a. Producer b. Director c. Playwright d. Set designer
6. He/she plans the creating mode of each scene in the play, highlighting the dramatic moment,
signaling the entrance of the character, focusing attention on specific spot on stage or even
providing the blanket of darkness.
a. Lighting designer b. Director c. Playwright d. Set designer
7. He/she studies the general setting that the play is meant to take place in, as well as each
character in the script.
a. Lighting designer b. Director c. Costume designer d. Set designer
8. he/she serves as the vital role in creating and enhancing the atmosphere of the performance.
a. Lighting designer b. Sound designer c. Costume designer d. Set designer
9. He/she is tasked with overseeing the crews for the set and props, the sound and music, the
lighting and the costume.
a. Lighting designer b. Director c. Costume designer d. Production Manager
10. The ________________ shadows the plays director throughout the entire production process
a. Technical Director b. Choreographer c. Playwright d. Set designer
P.E.
1. Refers to bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles which requires energy expenditure
and produce progressive health benefits.
a. exercise b. physical activity c. work-out d. sports
2. It is a type of physical activity that requires planned, structured, and repetitive bodily
movement to improve or maintain one or more components of physical fitness.
a. physical activity b. work-out c. sports d. exercise
3. These diseases include hypertension, heart diseases, chronic low back pain, and obesity.
a. cardiovascular diseases b. hypokinetic diseases
c. skin diseases d. communicable diseases
4. These injuries are caused by trauma such as a fall or a blow to the body that knocks a joint out
of position and, in the worst case, raptures the supporting ligaments.
a. strains b. fractures c. dislocations d. sprains
5. When two bones that come together to form a joint become separated, the joint is described as
being __________________.
a. fractured b. injured c. dislocated d. malfunctioned
6. Is the performance of a routine, usually dominated by gymnastic skills such as jumps,
tumbling skills, lifts and tosses combined with shouting of cheers and yells to lead the crowd to
cheer for a certain team during a game or sport.
a. hip hopping b. cheerdancing c. folk dancing d. modern dancing
7. Nutrients include carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water. Which of these
nutrients are found in larger quantities in the body and thus referred to as macronutrients?
a. vitamins, minerals, fat b. water, minerals, fats
c. carbohydrates, proteins, fats d. vitamins, minerals, proteins
8. The third part of carbohydrates- __________ includes part of food that the body cannot break
down and absorb like vegetables, fruits and whole grains.
a. roughage b. fiber c. grass d. cereal
9. Which of the following nutrients are considered micronutrients?
a. protein, fat b. carbohydrate, vitamin c. vitamin, mineral d. mineral, vitamin
10.Which of the following hip hop basics is considered the bounce groove power moves?
a. pump b. tuck c. dig d. lunge
HEALTH

1.Refers to an individual’s plan to make a career choice, growing in the chosen career or making
a career shift.
a. vacation planning b. career planning c. decision making d. goal planning
2. This component of health career plan involves discovering one’s personal strengths and
weaknesses, vales, interest, personality, testing and skills.
a. career exploration b. decision making, plan of action d. self-assessment
3. Before Mario decides on taking a career that works for him, he evaluates and narrows down
his options by listing the pros and cons and he compares his personal strengths and interest and
decides which career fits him. What component of health career plan is described above?
a. self-assessment b. career exploration c. decision making d. plan of action
4. Stephanie plans achievable goals and develops strategies to reach her goals. She organizes her
goals into smaller steps, identifies actions for each step, utilizes helpful people and resources,
reviews and plans regularly. What component of health career plan is described in the above
situation?
a. plan of action b. decision making c. career exploration d. self-assessment
5. These are clustered occupations that are grouped because of shared skills which include
variety of works that require different levels of educations, skills, and training.
a. career occupations b. career pathways
c. career of professionals c. medical careers
6. Mental health career specializes in dealing with interpersonal and intrapersonal relationships
and life skills which includes cognitive and psychosocial development, promotion of healthy
self-esteem through feelings and anger management. Which of the following careers is related to
Mental Health Career?
a. community health worker b. social science analysis
c. guidance counseling d. midwifery
7. Community health care specialist focuses in the maintenance, protection, and improvement of
the health of all community members. Which of the following sample careers is connected to
COMMUNITY HEALTH CARE?
a. psychiatry b. community health educator
c. drug enforcement d. rural sanitary inspection
8. These are healthcare practitioners with formal education and clinical training credentials
through certification, registration, and or licensure.
a. health care providers b. healthcare practitioners
c. allied health professionals d. health specialists
9. A person who helps identify, prevent, or treat an illness or disability is called ___________.
a. health care providers b. healthcare practitioners
c. allied health professionals d. health specialists
10. A trained professional that provides care for people who are sick or injured; monitors
patients’ health and records symptoms, assists physicians during examinations, and treatment
and administers medications.
a. midwife b. audiologist c. dentist d. nurse

Prepared by:

BYRON C. DIZON
Adviser

Checked by:

SUSAN VICTORIA A. ORIENTE

Head Teacher-3
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region 02
Schools Division of Isabela
San Mariano I District
STA. FILOMENA INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Mariano

4th Periodical Test in TLE-9

S.Y. 2017-2018
Name: _____________________________________________ Date: ____________ Grade: ___

PART-1- HORTICULTURE

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read carefully each question, then encircle the letter of the correct
answer.
1. One of the most important aspects of maintenance is ___________, which prevents damage by
ensuring nothing gets stock in the machinery.
a. Inspection b. Cleaning c. Monitoring d. Evaluating
2.This involves inspecting and replacing those parts as they wear-out and making sure all things
are topped up.
a. Proper cleaning b. Proper inspection c. Proper maintenance d. Proper inspection
3. Building, yards, internal structures and fittings must be structurally sound and appropriate for
activities. Which of the following is an example of internal structures?
a. Building b. Land c. Equipment d. Wall
 4. These are any physical construction to reduce or avoid possible impacts of hazards, or the
application of engineering techniques or technology to achieve hazard resistance and resilience
in structure or system.
a. Maintenance Program b. Structural Techniques
c. Structural Materials d. Structural Measures
5. Which of the following is an example of non-structural measure?
a. Dam b. Education c. Flood levies d. Ocean waves barrier
6. Tools and equipment used in post-harvest operations must be clean to assure safety. Which
one is an example of physical hazard?
a. Microbiological contamination b. Insect infestation
c. blade d. disease
7. 5’s is a simple tool for organizing your workplace in a clean, efficient, and safe manner to
enhance your productivity. Which one has the principle of “Clean and Inspect, Inspect Through
Cleaning”?
a. Sort b. Shine c. Standardizing d. Sustain
8. Building _________ is the totality of all actions that keep a building functioning effectively.
a. Maintenance b. Inspection c. Repair d. Monitoring
9. The purpose of improvement is to ________ or extend the building in ways which respond to
changing used requirements and this may increase value.
a. Repair b. Fix c. Alter d. Remove
10. A type of maintenance that ensures that building elements are well maintained and that they
do indeed achieve their designated service life.
a. Routine scheduled maintenance b. Preventive maintenance
c.Repair maintenance d. Predictive maintenance

II. ENUMERATION: Write what is asked below

11-15- Examples of Farm Facility

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

PART 2- BOOKKEEPING

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read carefully each question, then encircle the letter of the correct

16. A business received P 6,000 cash from charge customers to apply on account. The effect of the
transaction is
a. an increase in an asset and an increase in revenue b. an increase in asset and a decrease in
capital
c. an increase in asset and a decrease in liability d. an increase in asset and an increase in
capital
17. The owner of a business invested P 50,000 in the business. What are the effects on the fundamental
accounting equation?
a. assets increase P 50, 000; liabilities, no effect; owner’s equity increases P 50,000
b. assets increase P 50, 000; liabilities decrease P 50, 000; owner’s equity increases p 50,000
c. assets increase P 50, 000; liabilities, no effect, owner’s equity decreases P 50, 000
d. assets decrease P 50, 000; liabilities, no effect; owner’s equity increases P 50, 000
18. Which of the following transactions does not include an increase to expenses?
a. received and paid the phone bill b. bought office supplies on account
b. received cash for service performed d. paid the week’s salaries
19. When the rent for business is paid with a check,
a. cash is decreased and rent expense is decreased
b. cash is decreased and rent expense is increased
c. cash is decreased and rent income is increased
d. cash is decreased and account payable is decreased
20. Over a period of time, if total assets increase by P 270,000 and total liability increase by P 70, 000, then
the owner’s equity will be increased by
a. P 70, 000 b. P 340, 000 c. 270, 000 d. 200, 000
21. When an owner deposits cash in an account in the name of a business, it is an increase to
a. cash and capital b. cash and account payable c. cash and note payable d. cash and rent
expense
22. Amounts owed by the business are referred to as
a. assets b. liabilities c. equities d. capital
23. If an owner invests her laptop computer and printer in the business, there is an increase to
a. cash and capital b. computer equipment and withdrawals
c. cash and withdrawal d. computer equipment and capital
24. The purchase of assets on account will
a. increase total assets and increase total liabilities
b. increase total liabilities and decrease total assets
c. increase total assets and increase owner’s equity
d. increase total assets and decrease owner’s equity
25. Which of the following is a form of revenue?
a. a check paying mortgage b. credit sales to charge customers
c. a cash purchase invoice d. a check paying utilities
26. The purchase of supplies to cash will
a. increase supplies expense and increase account payable
b. increase supplies expense and decrease cash
c. decrease cash and increase capital
d. increase cash and increase capital
27. Which of the following equation is the fundamental accounting equation?
a. Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity b. Assets – Liabilities = Owner’s Equity
c. Assets + Liabilities = Owner’s Equity d. Assets + Owner’s Equity = Liabilities
28. The purchase of an asset for cash will
a. increase total assets and decrease total liabilities b. increase total assets and increase total
owner’s equity
 c. increase total assets and increase total liabilities d. have no effect on total assets or total
liabilities
29. When an entity receives cash for services performed
a. an asset is decreased b. the owner’s equity is increased
c. the total owner’s equity is decreased d. total assets remain unchanged
30. When an entity pays employees for their services, the effect is an increase in
a. assets b. expenses c. income d. liabilities

Prepared by: BYRON C. DIZON Checked by: VICTORIA SUSAN A. ORIENTE

Subject-Teacher Head Teacher-3

Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region 02
Schools Division of Isabela
San Mariano I District
STA. FILOMENA INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Mariano

4th Periodical Test in MAPEH-7

S.Y. 2017-2018
Name: ______________________________________Date: ____________ Grade: ______

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read carefully each question, then encircle the letter of the correct
answer.
MUSIC
1. Ati-Atihan is a festival celebrated _____________.
a. Aklan b. Batangas c. Cebu City d. Davao
2. Sinulog is a festival celebrated in _____________.
a. Aklan b. Batangas c. Cebu City d. Davao
3. This festival aims to express friendliness, enthusiasm and good will to all people. It celebrates
epic stories of the three heroes namely Baltog, Handyong, Bantong and other ancient Heroes.
a. Ibalong b. Kidayawan c. Moriones d. Panagbenga
4. This festival was named after the natives of Aklan which is held annually on the third week of
January for a week consisting of a tribal dance parade along the streets with music and costumes
complete with indigenous accessories in Honor of the Santo Nino or the Holy Child Jesus.
a. Ati-atihan b. Kadayawan c. Sinulog d. Sublian
5. It is a festival held every third of July that shows the strong religious ritual of Batanguenos to
the town’s patron Holy Cross in Bauan and Agoncillo, and the Santo Nino in Batangas City.
a. Ati-atihan b. Kadayawan c. Sinulog d. Sublian
6. This festival is held on the third Sunday of January in Cebu that commemorates the rejection
by the Filipinos of their former animist belief and the acceptance of Christinanity.
a. Ati-atihan b. Kadayawan c. Sinulog d. Sublian
7. Davao holds this festival to celebrate good harvest with street dancing in colorful tribal
costumes and jewelries together with floats of fresh fruits and flowers.
a. Ibalong b. Kadayawan c. Moriones d. Panagbenga
8. A colorful folk religious festival during holy week with Roman costumes and painted masks
replicating the clothes of biblical Roman soldiers is ____________.
a. Ibalong b. Kadayawan c. Moriones d. Panagbenga
9. The term ati-Atihan means ________________.
a. Make believe atis b. Make believe everyone c. make believe friend d. Make believe man
10. This festival features street dancing, harana, indigenous Filipino games, lupakan, singing,
dancing in the province of Batangas.
a. Panagbenga b. Kadayawan c. Sinulog d. Sublian

ARTS

1. It is a community event celebrating unique aspects of that community and its traditions, often
serving to meet specific religious purposes.
a. Dance Drama b. Spectacle c. Theater d. Festival
2. This is a collaborative form of fine art that uses live performers to present the experience of a
real or imagined event before a live audience in specific place.
a. Dance Drama b. Spectacle c. Theater d. Festival
th
3.The _______________ festival is celebrated every 15 of the hot summer month of May to
honor San Isidro Labrador.
a. Obando Fertility Rite b. Pahiyas c. Ati-Atihan d. Moriones
4. The root word Dagyang means ____________ that’s why colorful costumes and headdresses
are made to represent this celebration full of Joy and wonder and to create happy memories for
all who are participating and watching.
a. to make sad b. to make laugh c. to make happy d. to cheer

5.One of the most popular and biggest celebrations during May is what we call the Flores de
Mayo whose last day of celebration is called _______________ to honor Elena of
Constantinople.
a. Santacruzan b. Salubong c. Dalit d. Tibag
6. One of many famous festivals celebrated in the Philippines is the __________ held in Baguio,
the summer capital of the Philippines.
a. Masskara b. Panagbenga c. Sinulog d. Kaamulan
7. The _________ festival showcases the unique indigenous culture through integrating different
activities of several sectors and fusing them into one, creating a unique and wonderful
celebration in ethnic fusion.
a. Masskara b. Panagbenga c. Sinulog d. Kaamulan
8. Since the time of Dr. Jose Rizal, national hero, in the year 1898, Shadow Puppetry had already
been formed in the Philippines, when he staged the play entitled _________.
a. Carillo b. Cerillo c. Corillo d. Curillo
9. The earliest known form of organized theater is the Comedia or __________ created by
Spanish priest which is unique to the Philippines because there are no other countries that
thought of or created this drama.
a. Salubong c. Dalit d. Tibag d. Moro-Moro
10. During the season of Lent, one of the most famous events that is shown is the theater play of
___________, usually depicting stories and events from the Old and New Testaments related to
the life, sufferings and death of Jesus Christ.
a. Salubong c. Dalit d. Tibag d. Senakulo

P.E.
1.Which among these is Cardiovascular Fitness Activity?
a. Jogging in place (20 sec.) b. Knee hug and calf-raise ( 1 min)
c. Crab-walk (5 min.) d. push-ups (5 times)
2. It is the ability of the body to change position rapidly and accurately while moving in space.
a. Agility b. Flexibility c. Balance d. Speed
3. Which of these Folkdances originated in Leyte?
a. Subli b. Bakya Dance c. Tinikling d. Binasuan
4. Which of these is festival dance?
a. Dinagyang b. Kakawati c. Alcamfor d. Jotabal
5. Ati-atihan: Kalibo Akan: Dinagyang: _____________.
a. Bacolod b. Iloilo c. Davao d. Sinulog
6. As part of the performance, the Sinulog dancers were taught to spring from one foot and land
on the other foot in any direction with ease and confidence by their trainer. What locomotor
movement was taught?
a. jumping b. Leaping c. Running d. Galloping
7. R.I.C.E. should be given to anyone who gets a bruise, strain or sprain while engaging in a
physical activity. What does RICE stand for?
a. Relax, Inhale, Calm, Exhale b. Rest, Ice, Compress, Elevate
c. Reduce, Infuse, Carry, Excuse d. Run, Inquire, Cure, Engage
8. Engaging in regular fitness activity enables a person to be physically fit. Which among these
illness is reduced and can be prevented?
a. Heart disease b. Colon and Breast Cancer c. Hypertension d. All of these
9. Your group won in a Festival Dance Competition. What would be the most acceptable attitude
that should be demonstrated by your group?
a. Graciously acknowledge the award by being polite and humble.
b. Approach all the competitors you defeated requesting them to sign in your autograph book.
c. Cheerfully celebrate victory by arrogantly popping champagne bottles and chanting out loud yells.
D. Require the board of judges and organizers for a photo opportunity to emphasize victory.
10. Which of the following should be done in order to perform actively in a festival dance?
a. Eat well balance diet b. Observe your personal fitness FITT plan
c. Maintain a healthy life style d. All of the above

HEALTH
1. Which is a Non-Communicable Disease?
a. Cancer b. Influenza c. Dengue Fever d. Tuberculosis

2. Which of the following statements does NOT describe Non-Communicable Diseases?

a. Caused by pathogen
b. Consequence of unhealthy lifestyle
c. Cannot be transmitted from one person to another
d. Consequence of behavioral and hereditary factors
3. What is the most common cancer in women?
a. Lung cancer b. Breast Cancer c. Colon Cancer d. Bone marrow
4. Laura woke-up with rashes and itchy swellings of her face. She remembered that she attended
a birthday party of her friend and ate foods causing allergic reaction. What do you think she is
experiencing?
a. Hives b. Asthma c. Hay fever d. Allergic eczema
5. Your friend is asthmatic; what do you think she/he should do to prevent an attack?
a. Exercise b. Manage stress c. Eat a balanced diet d. All of the above

Write 5 examples of Communicable Diseases

6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Prepared by: Checked by:

BYRON C. DIZON VICTORIA SUSAN A. ORIENTE

Subject-Teacher Head Teacher-3
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region 02
Schools Division of Isabela
San Mariano I District
STA. FILOMENA INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Mariano

4th Periodical Test in TLE-10

S.Y. 2017-2018

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Direction: Read each question, then encircle the letter of the correct
answer.

1. The method to determine optimal harvest date using values assigned to

physiological and morphological indicators is called:
a) machine harvest b) hundred-weight c) harvest index d) harvest accountability.

2. One of the main advantages of organic vegetable production is:

a) certification requirements b) more nutritious produce
c) high cost of production d) safer conditions for workers.

3. One good measure of a country’s food producing capability is

a) the number of crop species produced b) the amount of arable land per capita
c) the population d) the percentage of population involved in
agriculture.

4. Water loss in post-harvest vegetable crops causes economic loss due to

a) increases in respiration b) elevation of produce temperatures
c) increased handling damage d) loss of salable weight.
5. In eastern US vegetable growing areas, the soils often require liming because they are
naturally
a) acidic b) high in potassium c) prone to leaching d) high in clay content.

6. Vegetable crops are often classified in a number of ways, including:

a) height of plant growth b) method of culture c) country of production d) nutritional
value.

7. For purposes of scheduling irrigation, the critical allowable depletion of available soil water
for most vegetable crops is between
a) 10 and 20%, b) 30 and 40% c) 50 and 65% d) 85 and
100%.

8. Caution must be used in transporting fruits and vegetables in mixed loads due to:
a) tendency of some vegetables to emit ethylene b) the weight of stacked cartons
b) inability to identify contents d) the chance for cross-species
conflicts.

9. The geographical area where a crop species was brought into cultivation is called:
a) the center of origin b) first home c) center of domestication d) center of
diversity.

10. A common non-chemical method for weed control in vegetable crops is

a) surface compaction b) granular application c) side dressing d)
mulching
11. Which of the following is a poor cultural practice for pest control in vegetable crops?
a. Crop rotation  b.Tillage
c. Allowing crop refuse to persist after harvest d. Monitoring for diseases and insects

12.Killing all insects (including beneficial insects) is an effective strategy for controlling aphids.
a. True b. False
13. Question
Given: Miles per hour (mph) = (Distance in feet X 60) / (Time in Seconds x 88)
It takes an individual 22 seconds to travel 200 feet. What is the individual's speed in mph?
a. 3.24 mph b. 6.19 mph c. 9.09 mph d. 13.33 mph
14. A spray technician needs to calibrate prior to a chemical application.
What is the proper procedure?
a. Set spray pressure, measure results, set timer, catch spray
b. Set timer, catch spray, set spray pressure, measure results
c. Set spray pressure, set timer, catch spray, measure results
d. Set timer, catch spray, measure results, set spray pressure
15. The operator fills a tank with clean water to check the system before spraying. The operator
complains that the pressure will increase using the pressure switch but will not decrease. The
voltage from the switch was checked with a multimeter and eliminated as a cause.
What should the technician do next to troubleshoot the problem?
a. Disassemble the regulator valve and inspect it for damage
b. Disassemble the boom bypass valves and inspect it for damage
c. Inspect the agitation nozzles in the tank to determine if there is a clog
d. Disassemble the pump valve section and inspect it for debris or a clog
16. Carriage of water through pipelines and tube wells to farms is known as
a. Fertilization b. Hydration c. Irrigation d.Pollination
17. What IPM stands for?
a. Integral Pesticide Management b. Integrated Pest Management
c. Integrated Pesticide Management d. Internal Pest Management
18.Cultural controls of insects include which of the following 
a. Crop rotation  c. Physical method c. Chemical method d. Mechanical Method
19.  Which choice would be an example of a biological method of pest 
control? 
a.  Applying a pre emergence herbicide  b.  Cultivating between rows 
c.  Crop rotation  d.  Increasing the population of the pests’ natural enemy
20.  A herbicide is used to kill what type of pest? 
a.  Plants  b.  Insects  c.  Diseases  d.  Bacteria
21.   Which of the following is a guideline for transporting pesticides? 
a.  Throw them in the back of the truck  b.  Put them in with the groceries 
c.  Put correct warning signs on vehicle  d.  Throw dirt on top of any spills to hide them
22. . What does the term herbicide represent? 
a. Rodents  b. Insects  c. Weeds  d. Birds
23. Which of the following is NOT a method of insect control discussed in the 
text?
a. Mechanical  b. Supplemental  c. Biological  d. Cultural
24. The days of maturity is ____________.
a. the number of days before the vegetable produces viable seed
b. the number of days needed for the slowest maturing cultivar of that vegetable to mature
c. the number of days from planting to harvest
d. the number of days needed for a seed of a vegetable to germinate
25. Post-harvest handling of commercial vegetables can include all of the following except
a. Washing b. Cooling c. sorting d. Spraying with rot-preventing chemicals
26. ________ irrigation saves water and fertilizer by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots
of many different plants, either onto the soil surface or directly onto the root zone, through a
network of valves, pipes, tubing and emitters.
a. Surface b. Sprinkler c. Drip d. Subsurface
27. It is a method of applying irrigation water which is similar to natural rainfall where water is
distributed through a system of pipes usually by pumping.
as Surface b. Sprinkler c. Drip d. Subsurface

28. The stage of development in which a plant or plant part possesses the prerequisites for use
by consumers for a particular purpose.
a. Post production b. Horticultural Maturity c. Maturity Index d. Senescence Period
29. The emphasis if IPM is ____________ not eradication which holds the wiping out of an
entire pest population is often impossible and the attempt can be expensive and unsafe.
a. Prevention b. Isolation d. Eradication d. Control
30. It is the science and practice of managing plant diseases, weeds and other pest that damage
agricultural crops and forestry.
a. Crop rotation b. Monoculture c. Crop protection d. IPM
31. Which of the following methods of controlling pests does not belong to the group?
a. Cover crops b. Trap crops c. Beetle banks d. Herbicides
32. Which of the following strategic thrusts of Fertilizer and Pesticide Authority is considered
the systematic approach that relates plat nutrition needs actual soil fertility condition
a. Integrated Plant Nutrition System b. Integrated Crop Protection System
c. Empowerment of Farmers d. Close Networking with Stakeholders
33. Cultivation is the process of loosening the soil. Which one is the benefits of this cultural
practice?
a. Control the growth of weeds c. Reduce soil erosion
c. Eradicate beneficial insects d. control soil acidity
34. Do not cultivate when the soil is _______ because doing this you will risk further
compaction.
a. Dry b. Wet c. loosened d. Arid
35. It is an agricultural system in which plots of land are cultivated temporarily, then
abandoned and allowed to revert to their natural vegetation while the cultivator moves on to
another plot.
a. Intensive farming b. Extensive farming
c. Monoculture d. Shifting Cultivation
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region 02
Schools Division of Isabela
San Mariano I District
STA. FILOMENA INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Mariano

First Periodical Test in MAPEH-10

S.Y. 2018-2019
Name: __________________________________ Date: ____________ Grade: ___

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: DIRECTION: Read carefully every question, then encircle the letter of
the correct answer.
MUSIC
1. The practice of writing music for an orchestra.
a. Orchestration b. Choreography c. symphony d. Concerto
2. Expressionism is a philosophy of art which affected the music of the 20th century. Which of
the following is true to this style of music art?
a. Episodic b. Clashing dissonance c. Tonality d. All of the above
3. A cross between speaking and singing in which the tone quality os speech is heightened and
lowered in pitch along melodic contour.
a. Consonance b. Retrograde c. Dissonance d. Sprechstimme
4. He is the creator of the 12-tone system where all the keys of piano were a radical departure
from tonality.
a. Arnold Schoenberg b. Claude Debussy
c. Maurice Rovel d. George Seurat
5. It is a style used in expressionism that used pitches and rhythms in reverse.
a. Inversion b. Tone row c. Sprechstimme d. Retrograde
6. The avant-grade movement dealt with the parameters or dimensions of sound in space. It is a
style exhibited a new attitude toward musical mobility, whereby the order of the note groups
could be varied so that musical continuity could be altered. Who among these composers of
Avant-Garde Music is considered the” Father of American Jazz.”?
a. Leonard Bernstein b. George Gershwin
c. Philip Glass d. John Cage
7. In Eastern Europe, prominent figures of this style included the Hungarian Bela Bartok and the
Russian Sergei Prokofieff, who were neo-classicists to a certain extent made extensive use of
_________ , a kind of atonality that uses two or more tonal centers simultaneously.
a. Polytonality b. Dissonance c. Polyrhythm d. Multimeter
8. Which is not true to the music of Claude Debussy in the three nocturnes and nuages?
a. Melodies tend to be vague b. harmony is unexpected
c. Tone color is misty d. The tone color is clear
9. In _______________, the composer is able to experiment with different sounds that cannot be
produced by regular musical instruments such as piano or the violin.
a. Chance Music b. Musique concrete c. Avant-Garde d. Neo-classism
10.From France, _______________ used new instruments and electronic resources led to his
being known as the “Father of Electronic Music” and a description of him as “ The Stratospheric
Colossus of Sound.”
a. John Cage b. Karlheinz Stockhausen
c. Philip Glass d. Edgar Varese
ARTS
1. It is a piece that appeals to people’s emotion and senses.
a. Art b. Craft c. Master Piece d. statue
2. Which is true to personal function of arts?
a. Transmits culture and shows a way of life b. Performs service
c. Communicates beliefs and ideas d. for self-expression
3. The elements of music that uses area in two-dimensional space that can be defined by edges is
called _________.
a. Form b. Shape c. Value d. Line
4. The style of art that uses unblended slash of pure color place together to create a mode of
scene.
a. Expressionism b. Cubism c. Impressionism d. Abstract
5. The most important focal point of impressionistic painting is ____________.
a. Lighting b. Line c. Color d. Shape
6. He was one of the founders of the impressionist movement. He was the most prominent of the
group and is considered the most influential figure in the .
a. Auguste Renoir b. Edouard Manet c. Paul Cezanne d. Claude Monet
7. In the early 1900s, a movement arose in the Western art world that came to be known as
________ , a manner of painting and sculpturing in which natural forms and colors are distorted
and exaggerated.
a. Impressionism b. Expressionism c. Cubism d. surrealism
7. It is a style of art characterize by dream fantasies, memory images, and visual tricks and
surprises-as in the paintings of Giorgio de Chirico.
a. Neoprimitivism b. Fauvism c. surrealism d. Dadaism
8. In this movement, the artists used their works to protest against the injustices, inequalities,
immorality, and ugliness of human condition.
a. Dadaism b. Social realism c. Fauvism d. Surrealism
9. The movement known as _________ began in Italy in the early 1900s where the artists created
art for a fast-paced, machine -propelled age.
a. Cubism b. Futurism c. Mechanical style d. Non-objectivism
10. This style of abstractionism does not make use of figures or even representation of figures.
a. Cubism b. Futurism c. Mechanical style d. Non-objectivism
P.E.
1. Which of the following can lead to obesity?
a. Sedentary lifestyle b. Healthy Lifestyle
c. Physical test d. Physical Fitness test
2. Recreational activities are highly recommended for health promotion. Which of the following
activities requires small movements?
a. Running b. Throwing c. Jumping d. Playing board game
3. Which of the following is an example of individual sports?
a. Badminton b. Volleyball c. Basketball d. Softball
4. Which one is an instance of team sports?
a. Chess b. Badminton c. Tennis d. Basketball
5. What is the BMI of a person with these data: Weigh t=59 Kg, Height= 1.6 m?
a. 19.23 b. 20.04 c. 51.27 d. 23.04
6. The amount of energy you spend through physical activity is called ______________.
a. Energy expenditure b. Energy consumption c. Weight gain d. weight loss
7. Below are physical activities, which one develops flexibility?
a. Walking b. Sit and reach c. Running d. Push-up
8. Which among the health benefits of sports is associated with social development?
a. Builds relationship with friends b. Improves mood
c. Boosts self-confidence d. Reduces stress and tension
9. Which of the following is a mental benefit derived from sports?
a. Boosts friendship b. Builds relationship with peer
c. Helps you stay fit d. Improves concentration
10. Which of the following benefits of exercise is associated with physical development?
a. Stress reduction b. Feeling of well-being
c. Improvement of cognitive aspect d. Improvement of blood circulation
HEALTH
1.A medical condition in which excess body fat has accumulated to the extend that it may have
negative effect on health.
a. Overweight b. Obesity c. Normal d. Below-normal
2. This basic right of consumer guarantees survival, adequate food, clothing, shelter, healthcare,
education and sanitation.
a. Right to choose b. Right to redress c. Right to information d. Right to basic needs
3. A form of health fraud, any advertisement, promotion, or sale of products and services that
have not been scientifically proven safe and effective.
a. Deviance b. Quackery c. Quack d. Medicine
4. Using health information technology may be used for __________________.
a. Reduce paper work b. Reduce medical error
c. Reduce health care d. All of the above
5. Which is a good source of health information?
a. Information based from ignorance b. Accurate and up to date record
c. Information devised by quacks d. Commercialized health information
6. These are people who use health information, products and services.
a. Consumer health b. Health consumer
c. Health provider d. Quack
7. This pertains to wise selection of health products, agencies, concerned with the control of
these products and services, evaluation of quackery and health misconception.
a. Health consumer b. Consumer Health
c. Health Provider d. Medical practitioner
8. Many citizens are receiving inadequate or no proper medical health care at all is due to __.
______a. High cost of health care b. Lack of facilities
c. Inadequate equipment d. All of the above
9. A form of quackery which includes cures, treatment, and remedies of various health
condition that is drugless or bloodless in nature.
a. Medical quackery b. Nutrition quackery
 c. Device quackery d. Health insurance
10. Which of the following medical specialists diagnoses and treats body reactions resulting
from unusual sensitivity to food, medicine, dust and other.
a. Internist b. Obstetrician c. Allergist d. Gynecologist

Prepared by: Checked by:

BYRON C. DIZON VICTORIA SUSAN A. ORIENTE

Subject-Teacher Head Teacher-3
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region 02
Schools Division of Isabela
San Mariano I District
STA. FILOMENA INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Mariano

First Periodical Test in TLE-10

S.Y. 2018-2019
Name: _____________________________________________ Date: ____________ Grade: ___

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read carefully every question, then encircle the letter of the correct
answer.
1. This tool is used to collect small amount diameter of soil at the ground surface.
a. Soil probe b. Testing kit c. Spade d. Rubber bucket
2. Approximately _______ cups of soil is placed in a soil sample which is often lined with
plastic.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5.
3. The implement that is used in opening and loosening of soil is known as _________.
a. Harrow b. Flail mower c. Rotavator d. Plough
4. Primary and secondary nutrients are the two types of Elements. Which of the following
nutrients does not belong to the group?
a. Zinc b. Nitrogen c. Phosphorus d. Potassium
5. It improves information on soil’s available nutrient-supplying capacity; it helps select the
correct amount of fertilizer and liming materials which helps increase crop production.
a. Soil survey b. Soil sampling c. Soil analysis d. Soil pH
6. Which of the following plant nutrients promotes formation of chlorophyll, acts as oxygen
carrier and plays a vital role in cell division and growth.
a. Sulphur b. Iron c. Manganese d. Zinc
7. Most garden plants favor soil with a pH between _____ because this is the level where
nutrients and minerals naturally thrive. ___________________________________
a.6.5 and 7 b. 4 and 8.5 c. 7.5 and 8 d. 4.5 and 5
8. Laboratory test often checks for plant nutrients in 3 categories. Which of the following
fertilizers belongs to the Major Nutrients?
a. Calcium b. Boron c. Iron d. Nitrogen
9. Soil pH measures the acidity and alkalinity of the soil. What scale in the soil pH is considered
neutral?
a. 5 d. 7 c. 14 d. 11
10. What best lifestyle of entrepreneur describes the quote “It is better to be great at one thing
than okay at everything.”
a. Value is the key to success b. The power of focus
c. Failure is an ally d. Competition is healthy
11. This covers a wide range of practices from zero tillage soil disturbance through to a totally
puddled soil which actually destroys soil structure.
a. Land preparation b. Soil cultivation c. Land operation d. Land degradation
12. The total assemblage of tools and techniques used to develop and maintain soil fertility and
crop production in garden and farm systems.
a. Tillage b. Plowing c. Cultivation d. Harrowing
13. The mechanical manipulation of the soil to prepare seedbeds.
a. Cultivation b. Tillage c. Land shaping d. Harrowing
14. Coarse and deep tillage that cuts, fracture’s and mixes the soil. It creates a soil condition
from which a seedbed can be prepared.
a. Secondary tillage b. Primary tillage c. Cultivation d. Land shaping
15. Tilling which reduces the surface soil particle size, helpful for seedbed preparation.
a. Secondary tillage b. Primary tillage c. Land shaping d. Cultivation
16. Forming vegetable beds concerns land height of 6-8 inches and may apply plasticuture.
a. Secondary tillage b. Primary tillage c. Land shaping d. Cultivation
17. This allows soil particle to stick together so the wind will not blow soil away.
a. Humus b. Loam c. Clay d. Sand
18. Which of the following equipment is used in primary tillage.
a. Flail mower b. Moldboard plow c. Chisel plow d. All of the above
19. This equipment inverts soil in a plow layer breaks up turf and incorporates cover crops.
a. Subsoiler b. Flail mower c. Moldboard plow d. Disc plow
20. Which of the following is an example of mechanized work?
a. Plowing with moldboard b. Shoveling
c. mattock work d. Disc plow
21. Tillage operation done in the field after sowing or planting and prior to the harvesting of crop
plants known _____.
a. Seedbed preparation b. Inter-cultivation
c. Primary tillage d. Secondary tillage
22. Tillage is normally classified as primary tillage and secondary tillage. Which of the following
in the objective of secondary tillage?
a. Incorporate crop residues b. Kill weeds
c. Provides aeration to the soil d. reduce clod size
23. The working of soil in a totally flooded state to realign soil particles in a manner that will
reduce water penetrate for crop establishment .
a. Harrowing b. Puddling c. Aeration d. Seepage
24. This type of soil can become as hard as stone when it dries out.
a. Cay b. Sand c. Loam d. Alluvium
25.This soil ingredient is made up of decayed plants and animals.
a. Silt b. Humus c. Mineral d. Rock
26. When using agricultural contractors, what safety aspects of the operation are you as a farmer
responsible for?
a. The overall safety of the risk b. Agreeing the overall plan of the work
c. Warning the contractors of any risk d. All of the above
27. A tractor driver hauling maize back to the farmyard and as he leaves mud on the road. The
mud is not cleared and a motor cyclist hits a clump and crashes. Who was responsible for
clearing the mud?
a. Tractor driver he left the mud
b. Farmer-he is responsible for the operation as a whole
c. Council- it is their responsibility to keep public highway clear and safe
d. The police-to stop anyone else being injured after the incident
28. The most common mechanical injuries are to the:
a. Body and arms b. Hands and fingers c. Legs and feet d. Ears and eyes
29. The risk manual task injuries is caused by ________.

c. Twisting sideways, bending and stretching d. Using trolleys and hoist

30. When mechanical equipment hazards cannot be limited, you should _______.
a. Wear personal protective equipment b. Not use equipment
c. Work close to the worker in case there is emergency d. stop working
31. Using chemical substance incorrectly can result in _______.
a. Eye injuries and contact dermatitis b. Chemical burns
c. Poisoning of particular organs d. All of the above.
32. Which of the following pH levels indicates an alkaline soil?
a. 5.5 b. 6.5 c. 7.5 d. 4.5
33. First step in process of growing rice is ____
a. Preparing the main field b. Plowing the field
c. Sowing d. Transplanting
34. Raising soil pH from 5.0 to 6.5 using limestone would produce the greatest increase in cation
exchange capacity if the soil colloids were mainly___________
a. Humus b. Gypsum c. Vermiculture d. Top soil
35. What is the Cation Exchange Capacity of a soil containing the following amounts of various
exchangeable ions (units are cmol/kg): 2 of H+, 3 of Al3+, 5 of K+, 3 of Na+, 1 of SO4-2, and
NO3 -. ?
a. 19.5 b. 11.5 c. 10.5 d. 19

Prepared by: Checked by:

BYRON C. DIZON VICTORIA SUSAN A. ORIENTE

Subject Teacher Head Teacher-3
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region 02
Schools Division of Isabela
San Mariano I District
STA. FILOMENA INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Mariano

First Periodical Test in MAPEH-8

S.Y. 2017-2018
Name: _____________________________________________ Date: ____________ Grade: ___

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: DIRECTION: Read carefully every question, then encircle the letter of
the correct answer.

MUSIC
1.The ________ is a Cambodian musical ensemble or an orchestra that usually accompanies
ceremonial music of the royal courts and temples.
a. Javanese gamelan b. Pinpeat c. Balinese gamelan d. Piphat
2. The ________ ensemble of Thailand and usually consists of nine or ten instruments.
a. Javanese gamelan b. Pinpeat c. Balinese gamelan d. Piphat
3. Membranophone is a classification of instrument which produces sound primarily by way of
vibrating stretched membrane. Which one belongs to this classification of instrument?
a. Chhing b. Oneat c. Samphor d. Kongvong
4. The word “Gamelan’ is a Javanese word meaning “orchestra”, referring to the instruments that
make up the ensemble. Which is not true to Javanese gamelan?
a. Used for court music b. Used for sacred music
c. Percussion dominated d. Style of playing gives solemn character
5. The __________ is Myanmar’s traditional folk music ensemble. It is made up mainly of
different gongs and drums as well as other instruments depending on the nature of the
performance.
a. Mahagita b. Agung c. Hsaing waing d. Piphat
6. Loi Loi Krathong is an example of folk song from Thailand. How this song is sung in terms of
Time signature?
a.3/4 b. 4/4 c. 2/2 d 2/8
7. The effect of the different components of a piece of music such as melody, harmony, rhythm,
or the use of different instruments.
a. Timbre b. Tempo c. Form d. Texture
8. Vietnamese music ______________ refers to the ethnic music that originated from the “Kinh”
people of Vietnam. This term is also used to address the music of any of the numerous ethnic
minorities including the Montagnard, Degar, Tay, Cham and other.
a. Thien mu b. Nhac Viet Nam c. Sep Nyai d. Sep noi
9. This is a gong based musical ensemble commonly used in funerals and weddings in East
Malaysia. This type of ensemble is similar to the kulintang of the Philippines, Brunei and
Indonesia.
a. Kertok b. Dikir Barat c. Agung and Kulintang d. Silat Melayu
10. A song that literally means “loving feeling”. This Malay folk song is popular in Indonesia,
Malaysia and Singapore.
a. Rasa Sayang b. Chan Malichan c. Loi Loi Krathing d. Ru Con
ARTS
1.The _______ or peci or kopiah is a cap widely worn in Indonesia, Brunei, Malaysia, Singapore,
the Southern Thailand, mostly among Muslim males.
a. Songkok b. Alto c. Wau d. Sihn
2. A from of relief sculpture almost completely
Carved from its surface. It is highly shaped, with very little of the structure touching the base or
plane.
a. Artisan b. Alto c. Hol d. Ikat
3. An art medium and methodology for creating design, usually on cloth, by applying wax to
removing the wax.
a. Dye b. Bima c. Wau d. Bima
4. Art originating among the common people of a nation or region and usually reflecting their
traditional culture and history.
a. Dalang b. Folk art c. Pinpeat d. Menkuang
5. A method of printing woven fabric by tie-dyeing the warp yarns, the weft yarns or both before
weaving.
a. Hol b. Sihn c. Ikat d. Silapin
6. A material made from paper pulp or shreds of paper mixed with glue or paste that can be
molded into various shapes when wet and becomes hard and suitable for painting and varnishing
when dry.
a. Wayang kulit b. Wayang golek c. Ramayana d. Papier mache
7. A small hot-air balloon made of paper with an opening at the bottom where a small candle or
fire is placed. It is used for some Southeast Asian events.
a. Papier mache b. Merlion c. Songkok d. Sky lantern
8. A type of puppet show play performed around the Indo-malayan archiepelago, tracing its
origin to India. It is derived from a Javanese Hindu- buddhist tradition, where hand crafted
leather puppets depict epic stories of the gods in shadow play.
a. Wayang golek b. Wayang kulit c. Dalang d. King pandu
9. A traditional kite that is especially popular in the state of Kelantan, on the east Coast of
Malaysia.
a. Sihn b. Wau c. silapin d. Bima
10. A wooden doll puppets that are operated from below by rods connected to the hands.
a. Wayang golek b. Wayang kulit c. Dalang d. King pandu
P.E.
1. It is a condition in which an individual has enough energy to avoid fatigue and enjoy life.
a. Health b. Fitness c. sports d. Exercise
2. Health related fitness is the ability to become and stay physically healthy. Which one refers
to the ability of the heart and circulatory system to supply oxygen to muscles for an extended
period of time?
 a. Muscular strength b. Flexibilty c. Body composition d. Cardiovascular fitness
3. Jomar loves physical exercises. Every weekend, he undergoes running, swimming and cycling.
What health related component is trying to develop by Jomar?
a. Muscular strength b. Flexibilty c. Body composition d. Cardiovascular fitness
4. Which of the following physical fitness tests develops speed?
a. 40 meter sprint b. stick-drop test c. push-up d. Juggling
5. Skill related fitness enhances one’s performance in athletic or sports events. Which one
refers to the ability of the body to change direction or position with lightness and quickness?
a. Speed b. Coordination c. Reaction time d. Power
6. It is the ratio of the body fat to lean body mass including water, bones, muscles and
connective tissues.
a. Body Mass Index b. Flexibility c. Body composition d. Power
7. Which Heath- Related Components of physical fitness improves posture and decreases risk of
injury?
a. Body composition b. Flexibility c. Strength d. Endurance
8. The quality or state of being healthy in body and mind especially as the result of deliberate
effort.
a. Development b. Growth c. Fitness d. Wellness
9. Muscular strength refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle can exert against an
opposing force. Which fitness testing can improve muscular strength?
a. Leg press b. Running c. push-up d. Jogging
10. Muscular endurance refers to the ability of the muscle to work over an extended period of
time without fatigue. Which fitness testing is used for muscular endurance development?
a. Push-up b. Leg press c. Jogging d. Running
HEALTH
1. What term defines a man or a woman based on biological characteristic?
a. Sex b. Gender c. Sexuality d. Androgyny
2. Gender is a social concept on how men and women should think, feel, and act. Which of the
following illustrates this concept?
a. Miguel loves to cook b. Marco does not cry in public
c. Hazel has a positive body image d. Ahmed is attracted to felicity
3. What do you call the sets of activities that society considers as appropriate form men and
women?
a. Gender role b. Gender identity c. Gender equality d. Gender sensitivity
4. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
a. We will all be mature adults
b. We have similar sexuality issues
c. There is a specific age for developing one’s sexuality
d. It will help us build a better relationship with ourselves and others
5. A decision is a choice you make or act upon. Which characterizes a good decision?
a. Make your friends happy b. One that your teacher told you make
c. Easy to make d. Made after a thoughtful consideration of
consequence
6. Sexuality refers to your total self. Which dimension entails the way you interact with others?
 a. Physical self b. Emotional self c. Mental self d. Social self
7. Using life skills is so important for sexual health improvement. Which one helps you avoid
misunderstanding by expressing your feelings in a healthy way?
a. Communicating effectively b. Practicing wellness
c. Making good decision d. Refusal skill
8. Sexually transmitted infection is a communicable disease that is spread from person to
person through sexual intercourse. Which way of preventing STI does not belong to the group?
a. Remain sexually abstinent until marriage b. Obtain accurate information
b. Enhance life skills d. Ignore accurate information
9. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a fatal communicable disease with no
effective treatment or known cure. It is the final stage of infection caused by _________.
a. Human Immune Virus b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
c. Human Immunodeficiency Viral d. Human Immune System
10. True or False: A person can acquire AIDS from using intravenous syringe used by an infected
person.
a. True b. False

Prepared by: Checked by:

BYRON C. DIZON VICTORIA SUSAN A. ORIENTE

Subject Teacher Head Teacher-3