Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. ICAO publishes:
a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception
b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world
c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only
d) International law
a) 9
b) 14
c) 6
d) 11
a) 14
b) 11
c) 6
d) 18
a) Annex 11
b) Annex 10
c) Annex 14
d) Annex 15
6. What is cabotage?
a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.
b) Binding for all member states.
c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.
8. Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and
luggage?
a) Annex 2
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 18
11. Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international
crew licences?
a) Annex 9 - Facilitation
b) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
c) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
d) Annex - 17 Security
a) Annex 9 – Facilitation
b) Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods
c) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection
d) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
a) Annex 15
b) Annex 16
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 18
15. Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?
a) Annex 6
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 7
17. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the
Council?
a) The Assembly
b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
c) The Council itself
d) The Air Navigation Commission
18. The Annex of the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Practices
(SARPS) for personnel licensing is:
a) Annex 2
b) Annex 12
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 1
21. A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be about to
commit an offence, to:
a) Disable him
b) Require passengers to assist in restraining
c) Request cabin crew to assist
d) Deliver the person to the appropriate authority
26. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:
29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?
a) First freedom
b) Fourth freedom
c) Third freedom
d) Second freedom
a) Over-flight only
b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators
c) Landing for technical reasons
d) Carriage of mail and cargo
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
1 C 21 D
2 C 22 B
3 A 23 D
4 A 24 A
5 B 25 D
6 A 26 D
7 C 27 C
8 B 28 A
9 C 29 D
10 C 30 A
11 B 31 D
12 A 32 D
13 A 33 B
14 D 34 B
15 D 35 A
16 D 36 C
17 D 37 C
18 D 38 B
19 B 39 B
20 D
Chapter – 05
a) 18
b) 21
c) 16
d) 23
2. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL, how often are you required to have a medical
examination?
3. You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours
limited?
a) 75 hours PIC
b) 100 hours PIC or co-pilot
c) 100 hours PIC
d) 75 hours PIC or co-pilot
8. To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a) 15 hrs
b) 20 hrs
c) 25 hrs
d) 35 hrs
9. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?
a) Class 2
b) As required by ICAO.
c) Class 1
d) None of the above.
10. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a) with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b) in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
c) the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d) the flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority
a) 30
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150
a) 200
b) 100
c) 150
d) 250
14. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?
a) 21 -60
b) 21 -59
c) 8-59
d) 8-60
17. Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hours requirement for a CPL(A)?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 21
22. Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than
....... hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.
a) 100 15
b) 100 20
c) 100 25
d) 75 25
a) Class 1 only
b) Classes 1, 2 and 3
c) Classes 1 and 2
d) Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:
a) date of issue
b) date of application received by the authority
c) date of skill test
d) date of medical examination
a) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
b) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
c) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
d) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
31. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?
a) 17 years
b) 18 years
c) 16 years
d) 21 years
34. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a
crew member's licence to be recognised by Contracting States?
a) Annex 2
b) Annex 3
c) Annex 1
d) Annex 4
36. The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:
37. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:
1 A 20 B
2 A 21 C
3 C 22 C
4 B 23 D
5 D 24 C
6 B 25 B
7 A 26 A
8 B 27 A
9 C 28 B
10 C 29 A
I1 C 30 C
12 A 31 A
13 C 32 B
14 B 33 B
15 B 34 C
16 C 35 A
17 B 36 C
18 B 37 B
19 C 38 D
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 6
4. Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first?
a) Steady red
b) Steady green
c) Flashing green
d) White
5. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V
8. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?
a) cleared to land
b) return for landing and await clearance to land
c) give way to other landing aircraft
d) land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron
10. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What does
it mean?
11. You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?
a) Rocking wings
b) Flashing lights
c) Cut across track
d) Breaking turn up and left
a) A hospital flight
b) An emergency
c) A military flight
d) A VIP flight
14. Which of these is not a distress frequency?
1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 KHz
3. 243.0 KHz
4. 2430 KHz
a) 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4
15. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C
16. You are taxying an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the tower. What does it
mean?
a) Stop
b) Taxi clear of the landing area
c) Give way to approaching aircraft
d) You are not clear to take off
17. Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the CTR
without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?
19. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and
include the phrase:
21. ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:
a) A 7600 Mode C
b) A 0020 Mode C
c) A 5300 Mode C
d) A 7620 Mode C
22. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
23. Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognised as an aircraft in distress?
a) Code 7500
b) Code 7700
c) Code 7000
d) Code 7600
24. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:
25. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not comply with
ATC instructions. You should:
26. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?
1C 2D 3C 4B 5B
6D 7B 8B 9A 10B
11D 12B 13A 14D 15D
16B 17D 18B 19C 20C
21A 22B 23B 24A 25C
26C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 7 S ect io n 1
1. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?
a. World War I
b. The Korean War
c. World War II
d. The American War of Independence
a. International law
b. The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area
c. The ICAO law
d. The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area
4. If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to
obey the law of France ?
6. Do any rules of the air exists over international waters (high seas areas)?
8. With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to:
a. Interpol
b. The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator
d. ICAO through the International Court at The Hague
a. 2000
b. 7777
c. 7600
d. 7500
20. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as commander?
a. The passengers
b. The Operator
c. The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
d. The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane
a. No
b. Yes, but only for single engine operation
c. Yes, but not in commercial aviation
d. Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over
27. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the licence.
What else must you carry?
32. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell.
Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?
33. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical concerns.
One such situation is:
39. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge)
lights.You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect
that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?
a. No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
b. Yes but only because it is daylight
c. No because you are flying IFR
d. Yes
40. If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the
other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?
41. `If you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed
traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?
44. A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is
submitted.(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is
required regarding the type of aeroplane?
a. Wake turbulence category
b. Optimum cruising mach number
c. Maximum un-pressurised cabin altitude
d. Minimum equipment list
45. When is a flight plan `closed'?
50. If you suffer a comms failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an Estimated
Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do you do?
51. If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the
left, and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean?
a. Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!)
b. You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow
c. You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger
d. The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be
reported by AIRPROX procedures
52. When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a. If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less
b. If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km
c. If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km
d. If the cloud ceiling is more than 1500ft, with ground visibility 5km or less
53. Unless authorised, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?
a. FL150(Correct)
b. FL245
c. FL200
d. FL 180
54. When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m
radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water?
57. You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is
traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking
avoiding action. What should you do?
a. Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded
report your flight conditions as VMC
b. Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC
c. Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace
d. Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has
disappeared
58. You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before
making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?
a. What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace
b. How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC
c. How much day light is left
d. Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the
destination
59. When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A
airspace?
a. In good VMC
b. Above 24 500 ft
c. Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force
d. When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique
60. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a
listening watch with an ATS unit?
a. No
b. Yes, always
c. Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
d. Yes if you are flying in IMC
61. If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you
prefix the message with?
a. Help
b. Mayday
c. Pan Pan
d. Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)
62. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to
communicate with the military pilot?
64. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower,
what does it mean?
65. You are short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare fired
from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean?
66. You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC
watch. You see this yellow marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do?
a. It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it.
b. It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are
clear to continue taxiing
c. It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it.
d. It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.
67. A green flag is flying from the signals mast at an aerodrome. What does it mean?
68. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a
man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this
mean?
69. You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate tot
he marshaller that you intend to start no. 2 engine first?
a. Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing
to no 2 engine
b. Raise a hand with two fingers extended
c. Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched
fist
d. Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting
73. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?
74. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach procedure?
77. During the latter stages of an instrument approach, track accuracy is of paramount importance as it is the
major factor in defining the limits of the obstacle clearance zone which leads to calculation of DH. Which of the
following facilities is the most accurate for providing track guidance?
a. VOR
b. ILS localiser
c. ILS glide path
d. NDB
79. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)?
81. In a missed approach procedure, turns are not specified until the climb is established. Why is this?
a. The aeroplane is too close to the ground and obstacle clearance my not be achieved
b. The final approach track is along the extended centre line of the runway and deviation from this
track may result in a collision with other approaching aircraft
c. The safest direction to go is in the direction of the runway and the climb-out lane
d. The initialisation of the climb (attitude change, drag reduction, application of power) requires
the attention of the pilot, therefore turns are not specified.
82. Where does the missed approach procedure start?
85. In still air, holding on a facility at 5000 ft, what is the length of the outbound leg?
86. The minimum permissible holding level for a holding pattern is based on the obstacle clearance height of
obstacles within the buffer area. The buffer area extends:
a. All the way around the holding area and encompasses the entry area
b. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area
c. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area but not including the entry area
d. 2nm to the non holding side of the boundary of the holding area and 5 nm from the boundary of
the holding area on the holding side of the pattern
89. When flying through the transition layer, how is vertical position is reported?
a. As a flight level
b. It depends upon what you have set on the altimeter
c. As an altitude when ascending and as a flight level when descending
d. It doesn't matter because the layer is not very deep
96. If your transponder fails before departure, can you continue if the flight is a controlled flight?
a. No, you must get if fixed even if the flight does not enter controlled airspace
b. Yes, but only if the flight does not enter class A, B or C controlled airspace
c. Yes if you have entered `X' in field 10 (SSR capability) of the flight plan form
d. Yes after seeking exemption from the requirements to carry SSR equipment on controlled
flights
2. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made:
a) To the left
b) To the left then right
c) To the right
d) Procedure turn right then left
a) 25nm
b) 10nm
c) 15nm
d) 15km
6. What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30° leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a
holding pattern?
a) 1 1/2 mins
b) 2 1/2 mins
c) 3 mins
d) 30 secs -
8. What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft.
without special ATC clearance?
a) 230 kts
b) 285 kts
c) 250 kts
d) 240 kts
9. What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a) 5.5%
b) 2.5%
c) 0.8%
d) 3.3%
a) OCH/A
b) 200ft
c) 350ft
d) 400ft
19. When carrying out a 45/180° procedure turn in Class C, D or E aircraft, how long should the 45° leg be ?
a) 1 minute
b) 1 minute 15 seconds
c) 1 minute 30 seconds
d) 2 minutes
20. What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?
a) 0.83 Mach
b) 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c) 315 km/hr (170 kts)
d) 520 km/hr (280 kts)
21. What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from
the initial approach segment for a non-precision approach ?
a) 30 °
b) 45°
c) 120°
d) 15°
23. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6
24. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
a) DH
b) FAF
c) FAP
d) MAPT
25. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound with
track reversal. This is called:
a) Base Turn
b) Procedure Turn
c) Reverse Procedure
d) Racetrack
28. What are the obstacle clearance limits for visual manoeuvring (circling)?
a) only determined for Cats A & B
b) only determined for Cats C, D & E
c) different for all Cats
d) the same for all Cats
30. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate?
a) 2nm
b) 1 nm
c) 3nm
d) 1/2 nm
a) left
b) right
c) depends on w/v
d) depends on entry made
33. When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome
setting, unless otherwise authorised by ATC?
a) Transition altitude
b) Transition level
c) 300011 above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher
d) within the transition layer
a) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and full scale localiser deflection
b) not more than 1/2 scale localiser deflection
c) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and 35 ° localiser deflection
d) not more than full scale glide path and 1/2 scale localiser deflection
36. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance?
a) +/- 5°
b) +/- 10 °
c) +/- 15 °
d) +/- 20°
37. How wide is the buffer area associated with a holding pattern?
a) 3 kms
b) 3 runs
c) 5 kms
d) 5 nms
38. What is the width of the zone of flexibility regarding which procedure to execute when joining a holding
pattern?
a) +/-5 °
b) +/-10°
c) +/-15°
d) +/-20°
39. What range would the radar service be normally terminated for an SRA?
a) 1 nm
b) 1.5 nm
c) 2 nm
d) 4 nm
41. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the runway?
a) Initial segment
b) Final segment
c) Arrival segment
d) Intermediate segment
42. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contact with the threshold of
the landing runway. What do you do?
46. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned with the runway and
descent commenced?
a) Final
b) Initial
c) Intermediate
d) Arrival
48. Are the minimum obstacle clearance heights for circling approach to land:
a) the same for Cat A and B aircraft
b) Different for each category
c) The same for Cats A, B and D
d) The same for Cat A and B, and the same for Cat C and D
50. Is it legal to pass over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA?
a) Yes
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) It depends on the flight conditions
51. For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is:
a) 3%
b) 3.3%
c) 5%
d) 2.5%
54. What is the turn from outbound to inbound called with track reversal?
a) Base turn
b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal procedure
d) Racetrack procedure
58. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a) The operator
b) The flight operations department
c) The authority of the State
d) The Commander
63. OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within:
1
a) /4 scale deflection
b) 1'/2 scale deflection
c) 1 scale deflection
d) 1/2 scale deflection
65. When calculating the type of entry to a holding pattern, which of the following is applicable?
a) Aircraft magnetic heading
b) Aircraft true track
c) Aircraft track over the ground
d) Aircraft compass heading
66. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052 ° magnetic. You are flying inbound to hold on a heading of
232° magnetic. What type of join should you make?
a) Direct
b) Parallel
c) Offset or Parallel
d) Reciprocal
67. What is the zone of flexibility either side of sector boundaries when joining a hold?
a) 5°
b) 2.5
c) 10°
d) 2°
68. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?
70. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assume a pilot localizer accuracy of.
a) 1/4 scale
b) 1/2 scale
c) 1 scale
d) 1 1/2 scale
71. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft at FL 1 10, the max IAS is:
a) 170 kt
b) 240 kt
c) 230 kt
d) 280 kt
a) Obstacle in surface
b) Obstruction in surface
c) Obstruction identification surface
d) Obstacle identification surface
78. In a category A aeroplane, which reversing turn takes approximately 2 minutes in still air?
a) 45/180° procedure turn
b) 80/260° procedure turn
c) Base turn
d) Racetrack
79. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the
minimum obstacle clearance provided?
a) 300m
b) At least 300m
c) 150m
d) At least 150m
80. When conducting a procedure turn (45°/180°), for how long should the 45° leg be flown for a Cat A or Cat B
aircraft ?
a) 1 minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 1 minute 15 seconds
d) 2 minutes
83. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the position
for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as:
a) Visual Approach
b) Aerodrome traffic pattern
c) Visual Manoeuvring (circling)
d) Contact Approach
85. When on the final approach track a step-down fix is made, the decent has to be conducted such that:
89. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:
a) 800m
b) 550m
c) 50m
d) 550ft
a) I minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes 30 seconds
d) 2 minutes
92. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
a) At the IF
b) At the IAF
c) At the FAF
d) At the final en-route fix
93. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:
94. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
99. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of inbound
aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to
a) Permit you to proceed, as directly as possible, to the nearest suitable aerodrome where a repair
can be made
b) Permit you to proceed as normal
c) Forbid you from taking off
d) Permit you to take off as long as you have indicated the failure in the Flight Plan
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1A 27 A 53 A 79 B
2C 28 C 54 B 80 B
3C 29 B 55 D 81 B
4A 30 A 56 D 82 A
5A 31 D 57 B 83 C
6A 32 B 58 C 84 A
7C 33 B 59 C 85 B
8A 34 A 60 A 86 A
9B 35 B 61 D 87 D
10 A 36 A 62 D 88 C
11 D 37 D 63 D 89 C
12 C 38 A 64 B 90 A
13 B 39 C 65 A 91 A
14 B 40 A 66 C 92 B
15 B 41 B 67 A 93 A
16 A 42 A 68 B 94 C
17 C 43 A 69 A 95 D
18 C 44 A 70 B 96 A
19 B 45 C 71 C 97 C
20 C 46 A 72 D 98 D
21 C 47 B 73 B 99 B
22 A 48 B 74 A 100 D
23 B 49 B 75 D 101 A
24 C 50 A 76 B 102 B
25 B 51 D 77 C 103 D
26 C 52 A 78 B 104 A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 8
5. In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted?
a) D
b) E
c) A
d) B
7. A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of
approaching aircraft for at least
a) 7nms
b) 5 rims
c) 15 rims
d) 20 rims
10. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?
Note : Although this is within the scope of Chapter 8, the reference is under Definitions contained in Chapter 18
of the Air Law Notes.
12. FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace:
a) C,D,E,F,G
b) F and G only
c) F
d) A,B,C,D,E,F,G
13. What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service:
a) the State
b) the State + ICAO
c) ICAO
d) RAN
18. In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR traffic about other
VFR traffic?
a) B
b) BODE
c) BC
d) BCD
19. What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA ?
21. What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit?
a) control area
b) Air Traffic Zone
c) control zone
d) TMA
22. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic?
a) C
b) D
c) C
d) F
a) 300m
b) 150m
c) 200m
d) 500m
25. RNP3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route
would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?
a) 98%
b) 93%
c) 95%
d) 90%
26. In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C; D and E
a) FIS only
b) FIS, advisory ATC, ATC
c) FIS, aerodrome control
d) FIS, alerting service
a) 2,000 ft
b) 3,000 ft
c) 5,000 ft
d) A VFR Flight Level
33. In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service
for separation?
a) F
b) E
c) G
d) D
35. You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:
a) E&G
b) D
c) E, D
d) C, D, E
37. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR
separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
a) DETRESFA
b) INCERFA
c) ALERFA
d) EMERGFA
a) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
b) 20 rims from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
c) 15 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
d) 10 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
42. When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
44. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define : "information concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of low-
level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the FIR
concerned or sub-area thereof."
a) NOTAM
b) SIGMET Information
c) AIRMET Information
d) En-route Weather Report
1A 2C 3D 4D 5D 6D 7B 8B 9B 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 A 18 A 19 D 20 C
21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 D 29 B 30 A
31 D 32 A 33 A 34 B 35 A 36 A 37 C 38 D 39 B 40 C
41 A 42 B 43 C 44 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 9
1. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with VFR until destination:
1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR
flight"
2) He/she must request and obtain clearance
3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled
4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is
correct?
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4
3. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V
4. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?
a) 30 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 60 minutes
a) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point
b) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time
c) Aircraft callsign, position, level, next position and time
d) Aircraft callsign, position, level, TAS, time
7. After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight?
a) 15 mins
b) 30 mins
c) 45 mins
d) 60 mins
10. You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do
you do?
a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact
b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation
c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation
d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours
11. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?
12. In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new
flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:
1C 2B 3B 4A 5C 6A 7D 8B 9B 10C
11C 12A 13D 14 A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 0
4. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation
is:
a) 20 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 15 minutes
a) 80 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 50 nm
d) 20 nm
6. When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in
VMC maintaining own separation?
a) 80 nm
b) 50 nm
c) 80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type
d) 20 nm
8. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent?
a) 5 nm
b) 10 nm
c) 15 nm
d) 20 nm
9. Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of
another aircraft. What is required?
a) During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval
b) You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night
c) You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre
d) In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal
11. An ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920" What does this mean?
12. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
13. Two aircraft are using the Mach Number technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster than
second) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu
of time?
a) 80 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 50 nm
d) 25 nm
15. Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach Number technique is applied. What is the
minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes longitudinal
separation?
a) 150nm
b) 50nm
c) 80nm
d) 120nm
18. A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed,
assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum is:
a) 60 nms
b) 80 nms
C) 50 rims
d) 20 nms
1C 2C 3A 4C 5A 6B 7C 8C 9A 10A
11D 12B 13A 14B 15C 16B 17D 18B 19D
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 1
1. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what
change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a) 10 kts
b) 8 kts
c) 3 kts
d) 5 kts
2. Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 2 minutes
5. A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously
transmitted by:
a) 5 minutes or more
b) 10 minutes or more
c) 1 minute or more
d) 15 minutes or more
6. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when can
the first aircraft start descending to that level?
8. A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach?
.
a) when the controller will provide separation from other traffic
b) the aircraft has passed the FAF
c) with a met visibility at least 8kms
d) the remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.
9. Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What
separation should be provided?
a) 2 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 7 mins
10. On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:
a) 45°
b) 15°
c) 30°
d) 20°
15. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
16. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to:
17. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
18. What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second on departure?
a) 2 mins
b) 5 mins
c) 10 mins
d) 4 mins
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 1 Ap p r o ac h C o nt r o l Ser v ice
1D
2B
3A
4D
5A
6A
7B
8A
9A
10A
11B
12D
13B
14B
15C
16B
17A
18A
19A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 2
1. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to
an aircraft on final approach?
a) 5nm
b) 3nm
c) 2nm
d) 4nm
3. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a) 5 min
b) 3 min
c) 1 min
d) 2 min
a) Separation
b) Helping when aircraft communications have failed
c) To assist pilots with technical problems
d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost
a) Always
b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC
c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions
d) Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion
9. Between two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence?
a) 4 nms
b) 2.5 nms
c) 2 nms
d) 3 nms
10. The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:
a) ± 40 kts
b) ± 5 kts
c) ± 10 kts
d) ± 20 kts
11. To whom is the alerting service provided?
14. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means:
a) 5nm
b) 3nm
c) 10nm
d) 15nm
17. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?
a) 45°
b) 15°
c) 30° or more
d) a minimum of 25 °
20. When may the pilot operate the `ident' switch on the transponder?
a) in controlled airspace
b) when requested by ATC
c) in uncontrolled airspace
d) when under radar control
21. If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:
24. What separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy?
a) 2 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 4 mins
d) 5 mins
25. What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?
a) 5 nm
b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 10 nm
d) 20 nm
26. The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence separation
applied as required is:
a) 6 nms
b) 2.5 runs
c) 4 nms
d) 2 nms
28. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C
a) At pilots discretion
b) Dependant on weather conditions
c) At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC
d) Not less than 30°
32. On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence
separation?
a) 5 nm
b) 2.5 nm
c) 2 run
d) 1 nm
33. What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category
aircraft on final approach?
a) 2.5 run
b) 3 nm
c) 5 nm
d) 6 nm
37. The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is assumed to be in
distress are:
38. A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway.
What wake turbulence separation will be applied?
a) 3 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 1 minute
41. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a
heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?
a) 2 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 3 minutes
d) 4 minutes
a) the aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are
communicating with this radar facility
b) ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning
traffic until you are notified that contact is lost
c) your aircraft is identified on the radar screen
d) you receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or
radar service is terminated
43. The letter " L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified
take-off mass of an aircraft is less or equal to:
44. If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localiser during parallel runway operations, the final vector must
be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localiser course with an angle not greater than:
a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 15°
d) 25°
.
45. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a) light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 2
Aer o d r o me Co ntr o l, R AD AR Ser v ice s, Ad vi so r y Ser v ice a nd Aler ti n g S e r v ice
1D 25 A
2B 26 A
3D 27 C
4A 28 D
5B 29 D
6B 30 C
7C 31 B
8B 32 A
9A 33 D
10 D 34 A
11 D 35 D
12 B 36 B
13 D 37 C
14 B 38 A
15 A 39 A
16 A 40 D
17 C 41 A
18 C 42 C
19 D 43 D
20 B 44 B
21 D 45 D
22 B 46 A
23 B 47 A
24 A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 3
2. In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures?
a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) None
a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b) AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) COMMS
a) GEN
b) COMMS
c) AD
d) AGA
a) every 5 days
b) every 28 days
c) every 18 days
d) at intervals of not more than one month.
7. AIP approach charts do not give information for Instrument Approach Procedures for:
a) OCA/H
b) Visibility minima
c) Obstacles protruding above the obstacle free zone
d) DME frequencies
8. AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this
respect?
a) 1 yr
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
9. AIRAC is:
a) A breakdown service
b) Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP
c) A medical evacuation flight
d) An Army Air Corps publication
a) DME frequency
b) OCA
c) Dominant obstacles
d) Operating minima if the aerodrome is being used as an alternative
11. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found?
a) ENR
b) SUPP
c) AD
d) GEN
12. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?
a) ENR
b) SUPP
c) AD
d) GEN
14. What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?
1A 2B 3A 4A 5A 6D 7B 8C 9B 10 D
11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 4
5. A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a
distance of at least:
a) 100 metres
b) 200 metres
c) 300 metres
d) 500 metres
7. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways?
a) 02.03.04
b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10°
c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's
d) `L' `C' `R'
14. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is
prepared as a suitable area:
a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off
b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency
c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft
d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway
1B 2D 3A 4D 5C 6D 7D 8D 9C 10 A
11C 12B 13C 14 A 15B 16B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 5
1. How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
a) Unidirectional red
b) Unidirectional white
c) Omni directional red
d) Omni directional white
6. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and treble lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?
a) 150 metres
b) 200 metres
c) 250 metres
d) 300 metres
7. What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`?
a) Red or yellow
b) White
c) Yellow
d) Blue
a) blue
b) white
c) green
d) red
9. What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light?
a) Flashing Green
b) Flashing Green and White
c) Steady Green
d) Flashing White
a) Steady white
b) Flashing white
c) Steady green
d) Flashing green
11. What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?
a) 300 m
b) 600 m
c) 900 m
d) 1200 m
19. On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the runway
and two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft?
1A
2B
3A
4A
5B
6D
7B
8C
9A
10C
11C
12A
13A
14C
15A
16B
17B
18D
19D
20C
21A
22B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 6
a) Blue
b) Steady red
c) Yellow
d) Flashing red
a) Flashing green
b) Flashing yellow
c) Steady red
d) Steady blue
5. What colour lights are vehicles moving on the aerodrome required to show?
a) Flashing yellow
b) Flashing red
c) Flashing blue
d) Steady red
6. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?
a) Green
b) Dayglo orange
c) A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green
d) White and red chequered
8. An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by:
10. The level of rescue and fire fighting facilities is dependent upon the category of the aerodrome. What
factors determine this category?
a) Aeroplane reference field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span of the largest
aircraft using that aerodrome
b) The length of the longest runway and the area to be covered
c) The overall length and the fuselage width of the longest aircraft using that aerodrome
d) The length of the longest runway and total area of hardstandings (including access roads)
1B 2A 3B 4C 5B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 8
a) We need help
b) We are OK
c) We need medical supplies
d) We have gone away
5. Three aircraft are at the scene of an accident. Aircraft 1 arrives first but cannot contact ATC. Aircraft 2
arrives second and has good communications with ATC. Aircraft 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraft.
Who assumes responsibility ?
a) Y
b) X
c) LL
d) V
a) Circle once
b) Flash landing lights or navigation lights
c) Rock wings
d) Send the letter R in Morse by lights to the downed aircraft
9. Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service?
12. Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is:
a) ++
b) LLL
c) LL
d) Y
1A
2C
3C
4B
5D
6D
7B
8D
9B
10 B
I1 C
12 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 9
3. ICAO Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security at:
a) all aerial locations within the FIR
b) at each aerodrome serving international civil aviation
c) all international airports
d) all international and commercial airports
4. Contracting States must design a security programme, with regard to Unlawful Interference, to safeguard:
a) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights
b) Passengers, crews, ground personnel and the general public
c) Crews only for international flights
d) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights and, at their discretion, all of these for
domestic flights
6. According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended
to safeguard:
a) civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
b) international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
c) international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
d) aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
7. Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed for the carriage of:
8. Airlines are to have procedures in place when carrying potentially disruptive passengers confined to:
a) Inadmissibles, deportees, persons in custody
b) Persons in custody
c) Inadmissibles, deportees
d) Deportees, persons in custody
11. For the transport of persons who are at risk for security and/or health, certain precautions should be
taken among which is to:
a) Embark after all other passengers
b) Embark before all other passengers
c) Embarking at the captain's discretion
d) Embarking at the State's discretion
12. An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference which is
never less than ............ metres from other parking positions:
a) 1,000
b) 2,500
c) 3,000
d) 100
14. Member States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in the air transport of
undesirable passengers. These are seen as:
a) None of the answers are correct
b) Deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody
c) Deportees and inadmissible passengers only
d) Deportees and persons in custody
15. The State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft subjected to
an act of unlawful interference until:
a) the end of the subsequent investigation
b) as such time as requested by the passengers and crew
c) their journey can be continued
d) they are returned to their country of origin
16. A person found to be inadmissible shall be given to the custody of the operator who shall be responsible
for:
a) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator without redress.
b) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator. However nothing precludes the operator from
recovering from such a person any transportation costs arising from his/her inadmissibility.
c) returning such a person to their country of origin
d) returning such a person to their normal residence
1B 2A 3B 4B 5D 6B 7B 8A 9B 10 D
11B 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 0
2. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains damage. Is
this:
a) an incident
b) an accident
c) a serious incident
d) covered by normal operating procedures
a) State of Occurrence
b) State or Registry
c) ICAO
d) Combination of A and B
5. The sole purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and:
a) Apportion blame
b) Nothing else
c) To improve manufacturing design
d) To help judicial investigations
6. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that:
a) the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
b) the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such a
nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c) the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where the aircraft is registered which says
that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
7. Just before arrival at the apron, the aircraft unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing the wheel to ride
into a pothole. The aircraft has sustained serious damage and consequently the crew is forced to delay
the departure:
a) considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended, the action that has to be
taken is merely constricted to notification of the insurance company, the mechanic, the operator
and persons who are in charge of runways and taxiways
b) This is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriate procedures
c) This is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome authority within 48 hours
d) This is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inform the operator about the delay
caused by necessary repairs
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 2 0 Air cr a f t Ac cid e n t a nd I n cid e nt I n v e st i ga tio n
1C
2B
3A
4A
5B
6B
7B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 1
1. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC
describe the state of the runway in this situation?
a. Wet
b. Damp
c. Not dry
d. Braking action poor
4. Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to
unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays?
a. 50m
b. 100 m
c. 150 m
d. 200 m
a. White
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Green/yellow
a. The threshold
b. A temporary displaced threshold
c. A displace threshold
d. 1000 ft from the end zone
a. White
b. Red
c. Green
d. A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings
10. Do all runways require centreline markings?
13. A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance
provided they would not have ..... days prior notification. What number of days correctly fills the space?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
16. On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
18. Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway?
a. A stopbar
b. A pattern A runway holding position
c. Cat 1 holding point
d. A taxiway/runway intersection sign
19. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway vacated' sign
positioned?
a. 30 m
b. at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
c. 60 m
d. A distance equal to twice the width of the runway
20. Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the
type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the categories based?
a. IBSI
b. IBIS
c. IRIS
d. BSIS
22. An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night operations are
carried out, is 180 m high. How is it to be lit?
23. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
26. When are Search and Rescue facilities are to be provided in the airspace of a state?
a. From 2 hours before until 2 hours after any flight enters/leaves the airspace
b. On a 24 hour basis
c. When a state of emergency has been declared
d. When the authority of the state deems necessary
29. What is the meaning of this SAR ‘N’visual signal when used by survivors on the ground?
a. Require assistance
b. Negative
c. Affirmative
d. Require medical assistance
31. 25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the state of the
runway?
a. Water patches
b. Flooded
c. Damp
d. Wet
33. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track
separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's
level?
35. What track divergence angle is required immediately after take off to allow a departure interval of one
minute between successive departures from the same runway to be achieved?
a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 45°
37. For a separation of 2 minutes to be applied between successive departures on the same track, what is
the required speed difference?
a. The preceding aircraft must be 20kts faster than the following aircraft
b. The preceding aircraft must be 40kts faster than the following aircraft
c. The preceding aircraft must be 50kts faster than the following aircraft
d. The preceding aircraft must be 60kts faster than the following aircraft
a. Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR
b. Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others
c. Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is
available
d. Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATC to all other
41. What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service?
42. An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service w ishes to cross an advisory route. What
procedure shall be used to cross the route'?
a. The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head
b. Observation of a SSR squawk
c. Observation on radar of a turn made by the aircraft
d. Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident
47. A MEDIUM wake turbulence category aircraft is following a HFAVY category aircraft on a
radar vectored approach to land. What is the minimum radar separation to be applied'?
a. 5 nm
b. 4 nm providing 1000 ft vertical separation also maintained
c. 6 nm until the speed of the heavy is reduced below wake turbulence threshold
d. There is no specified minimum for this case
50. You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What must
you do?
51. If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (non-precision), what information must the radar
controller pass to you?
a. Your distance from touchdown and observed deviation from the glide path
b. Distance from touchdown and advisory height information
c. Range and bearing from touchdown and when you are at MDH
d. Distance to run to your MDH and deviation from the extended centre line
a. When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently
maintained
b. An approach made under VFR using instrument height and track guidance
c. Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC
d. The circling portion of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the
landing is to be made
54. What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system within 60
m of the centre line?
a. Blue
b. White
c. Red
d. Green
57. Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?
a. They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground visibility
b. They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions
c. They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
d. At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than 550m
65. What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?
a. Apron
b. Ramp
c. Stands
d. Parking Bays
66. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the purpose of
public transport of passengers or cargo?
a. Glide path
b. Final approach
c. Approach to landing
d. Go around/Missed approach
71. What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the intermediate
approach track for a precision instrument approach?
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
a. At DH/MDH
b. At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost
c. At the missed approach point
d. Over the threshold of the instrument runway
73. If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument procedure can the approach be continued?
74. Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
75. A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what
circumstances is this is permitted?
77. A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180° mag. You are
approaching the fix from the southwest. What type of joining procedure is required?
a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°
79. It is normal for holding procedures at 14 000 ft and below to include an outbound leg of 1 minute
duration. How long is the outbound leg above 14 000 ft?
a. 1'/2 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 21/2 minutes
d. not specified
80. How much obstacle clearance is guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding area)
of a holding pattern?
81. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
a. Yes
b. No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
c. Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
d. No, where G/S is less than 65kts, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long
83. The QNH is 1040 Mb and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft. What (assuming the T/Alt is MSL) would
your flight level be?
a. FL 10
b. FL 0
c. FL -10
d. You have no intention of flying over the Dead Sea, therefore the question is totally academic!
84. After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition level (FL 40 )
which is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to report you vertical position.
How would you do this?
a. The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and lit objects
by night
b. Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
c. The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the airwith reference to atmospheric
conditions
d. The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane
95. In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rating on the
type of aeroplane you are required to fly. What must you pass to achieve the type rating?
a. Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b. A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
c. A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the
requirements of IFR
d. A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without
compliance with IFR
97. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes
to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on to a normal taxiway?
100. What is defined as: `A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with
radio navigation aids'?
1 A 26 B 51 B 76 B
2 C 27 A 52 B 77 D
3 B 28 A 53 A 78 B
4 B 29 B 54 A 79 A
5 C 30 B 55 D 80 D
6 C 31 A 56 C 81 C
7 A 32 A 57 B 82 C
8 C 33 C 58 A 83 B
9 D 34 D 59 A 84 C
10 A 35 D 60 A 85 A
11 B 36 A 61 C 86 A
12 C 37 B 62 D 87 A
13 C 38 C 63 D 88 B
14 B 39 B 64 D 89 C
15 D 40 B 65 A 90 C
16 A 41 C 66 C 91 B
17 D 42 B 67 C 92 D
18 B 43 D 68 A 93 D
19 B 44 B 69 B 94 D
20 C 45 D 70 C 95 D
21 B 46 A 71 D 96 B
22 A 47 A 72 C 97 C
23 D 48 C 73 B 98 C
24 C 49 D 74 A 99 B
25 D 50 A 75 B 100 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -1
1. ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard to:
a. Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
b. Cabin baggage and checked baggage
c. Passenger baggage
d. Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control
3. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud
base is lower than
4. When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal
a. Arms repeatedly crossed over the head
b. Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body.Then clench fist.
d. Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.
5. When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken from the
beginning of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is
a. 1 minute 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 1 minute 15 seconds
d. 2 minutes
6. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on
a. Heading
b. Track
c. Course
d. Bearing
7. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall
8. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment, where the aircraft is lined up with the runway centre line
and when the decent is commenced is called
10. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure ?
13. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?
a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The owner
14. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?
16. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least
17. An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
18. Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to
give the time within plus or minus
a 15 seconds of UTC
b 10 seconds of UTC
c 30 seconds of UTC
d 1 minute of UTC
22. How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, who's aircraft on final approach follows a normal
PAPI defined glide-path ?
a 2
b none
c 3
d 1
25. When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator for
transportation away from the territory of the state
a the operator won't take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her
inadmissibility
b the operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is
refused
c the operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person
d the operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which arises
out of his/her inadmissibility
28. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus
a. 10%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 2%
29. Concerning aircraft registration markings , no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken for
30. What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed `?
a. pilot in command
b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. owner of the aircraft
34. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
36. It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual maneuvering area
outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the
published procedure shall be
38. Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed as
39. A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called
a. Base turn
b. Reverse track
c. Race track
d. Procedure turn
40. The transition of altitude to flight level and visa versa is made
a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c. At the transition level only
d. At the transition altitude only
41. Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit
a. the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
b. he/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance.
c. he/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance
d. he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC
46. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction
a. 3 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes
49. What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway ?
a. 900m
b. 600m
c. 300m
d. 150m
a. Steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway
b. Steady white lights with controllable intensity
c. Steady omnidirectional red lights with controllable intensity
d. Steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway
55. The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the end of
each runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is
58. A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms
outwards. What does this signal indicate ?
62. If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept a ILS localiser, what is that maximum intercept angle ?
a. 45°
b. 30°
c. 15°
d. 20°
69. ATIS will only broadcast cloud base information when the cloud base is
a. 3 000 ft
b. 5 000 ft
c. When Cb's are present
d. When the cloud base is below MSA
a. 1 only is correct
b. 2 only is correct
c. 4 only is correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
76. What is the meaning of the symbol LLL search parties ?
85. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to
a Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
b. Cargo
c. Dangerous Goods
d. Mail
86. An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily
intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined
as a
a. Clearway
b. Runway Strip Extension
c. Runway end safety area
d. Altimeter Operating Area Extension
87. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign
positioned ?
88. What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be used with RVR of
less than 550m
91. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach
a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach
b. Land on the instrument runway
c. Initiate a missed approach
d. Return to the FAF
93. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to
a. each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO.
b. ICAO only
c. each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
95. When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of
its own license, the validity shall
96. Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures ?
a. GEN
b. ENR
c. AD
d. AGA
a. Let down
b. Descend
c. Descend for landing
d. You land
103. An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower.
This signifies that the aircraft must:
104. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
106. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a. The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b. The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
c. The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d. The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
107. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any
particular holding pattern, he should:
a. shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
b. shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
c. is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR
d. is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.
109. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
112. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a. Achieving separation between IFR flights
b. Achieving separation between controlled flights
c. Providing advisory service
d. Providing flight Information Service
114. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace
below FL 290 is:
116. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
reduced:
a. 3 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 1 minute
d. 4 minutes
119. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then:
a. you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for
continuation of the flight;
b. departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
c. you are not allowed to commence the flight
d. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
123. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre
line have a length of:
a. 250 m.
b. 200 m.
c. 150 m.
d. 300 m.
124. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory
of the state, the operator:
a. shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his
(her) inadmissibility.
b. shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
c. is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
d. the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
126. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the
127. An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies
a. 1 00nms or more
b. 75nms or more
c. 60nms or more
d. 50nms or more
130 The body, which governs licensing of pilot licenses or the equivalent documents, must decide if the
experience of the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part of the total flying time of
1500 hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to a maximum of
a. 100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
b. 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
c. 100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer
d. 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic
instrument flight trainer
132. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?
a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The owner
133. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?
134 An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a. pilot in command
b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. owner of the aircraft
137. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
138. Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit
140. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction
a. A row of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
b. Two rows of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other
c. A row of 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
d. Two rows of 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other
146. Contracting States shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as proscribed by
a Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
b. Cargo
c. Dangerous Goods
d. Mail
150. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to
a. each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
b. ICAO only
c. each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sp ec i me n Q ue s tio n s
Sec tio n -1
1A 41 D 81 B 121 B
2C 42 C 82 C 122 B
3C 43 A 83 D 123 D
4C 44 B 84 A 124 A
5B 45 A 85 A 125 A
6A 46 A 86 C 126 A
7D 47 C 87 B 127 A
8D 48 D 88 C 128 D
9B 49 A 89 D 129 C
10 B 50 A 90 B 130 D
11 D 51 D 91 C 131 D
12 A 52 D 92 B 132 C
13 C 53 C 93 A 133 B
14 B 54 C 94 D 134 A
15 A 55 B 95 B 135 A
16 B 56 A 96 B 136 A
17 A 57 A 97 B 137 B
18 C 58 C 98 A 138 D
19 B 59 B 99 A 139 C
20 D 60 A 100 B 140 A
21 A 61 C 101 A 141 A
22 A 62 A 102 B 142 C
23 C 63 A 103 A 143 C
24 B 64 C 104 B 144 A
25 D 65 B 105 A 145 B
26 A 66 D 106 B 146 A
27 C 67 B 107 A 147 A
28 D 68 A 108 A 148 B
29 D 69 B 109 B 149 B
30 B 70 A 110 C 150 A
31 D 71 A 111 D 151 D
32 D 72 C 112 B
33 A 73 A 113 B
34 B 74 D 114 C
35 D 75 C 115 B
36 D 76 C 116 C
37 A 77 B 117 B
38 D 78 C 118 A
39 D 79 119 B
40 B 80 A 120 B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -2
1 The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered
a. Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
b. Binding for all member states
c. Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
d. Binding for all airline companies with international traffic
5 It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may
a. request the crew to detain the passenger
b. ask the passenger to disembark
c. order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d. hand him her over to the authorities
10 The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a. with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b. in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time require for a higher grade of licence.
c. the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d. the flight in full toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority.
12 When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?
a. 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
b. 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
c. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
d. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
16 A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall be completed
21 What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a
CTR?
a. 1000m
b. 1500m
c. 2000m
d. 3000m
25 What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a. 5.5%
b. 2.5%
c. 0.8%
d. 3.3%
27 In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than
a. OCH/A
b. 200ft
c. 350ft
d. 400ft
28 What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?
a. 0.83 Mach
b 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c 315 km/hr (170 kts)
d 520 km/hr (280 kts)
29 For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance:
a. 30m
b. 100m
c. 50m
d. 120m
30 At what distance does an SRA normally terminate:
a. 2nm
b. 1 nm
c. 3nm
d. ½ nm
33 Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be
straight in?
a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 40°
34 The 45° leg of a 45/270° procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft is:
a. 1 min
b. 1 min 15 seconds
c. 1 min 30 seconds
d. Continued until interception of the glide slope
a. Up to 91 kts
b. 90 to 121 kts inclusive
c. 141 to 165 kts inclusive
d. 91 to 120 kts inclusive
38 When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length of the
track that may be used to intercept the localiser ?
a. 10 nms
b. 5 nms
c. 10 minutes
d. 5 minutes
40 The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance if 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is
53 If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is
a. 20 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 15 minute
54 If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent'?
a. 5 nm
b. 10 nm
c. 15 nm
d. 20 nm
55 What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a. 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b. 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c. 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d. 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
56 The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altitude, for which
navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft
has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is
a. 5 minutes
b. 6 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 3 minutes
58 Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a. 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 minutes
59 On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least
a. 45°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 20°
61 What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a. 5 min
b. 3 min
c. 1 min
d. 2 min
62 Between two aircraft on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence is
a. 4 nms
b. 2.5 nms
C. 2 nms
d. 3 nms
63 A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off.
What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off ?
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 1 minute
c. 5 minutes
64 Radar separation may be applied before an aircraft taking off and a preceding departing aircraft
providing the departing aircraft can be identified from the end of the runway within
a. 5nm
b. 3nm
c. 2nm
d. 1 nm
65 What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?
a. 5 nm
b. 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kits faster than the second
c. 10 nm
d. 20 nm
68 A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final
approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change
must not be more than
a. ± 15 kts
b. ± 8 kts
c. ± 10 kts
d. ± 20 kts
69 The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is
83 Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is
a. ++
b. LLL
c. LL
d. Y
84 According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources
intended to safeguard
85 When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that
a. the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
b. the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such
a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c. the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft is registered which
says that the aircraft is still airworthy
d. the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 2 2 Sp eci me n Q ue s tio n s
Sec tio n -2
1C 44. A
2A 45. A
3D 46. A
4D 47. C
5D 48. B
6B 49. A
7B 50. C
8C 51. A
9C 52. D
10 C 53 B
11 C 54. C
12 B 55. B
13 C 56. D
14 C 57. D
15 D 58. B
16 B 59. A
17 C 60. A
18 C 61. D
19 B 62. A
20 D 63. A
21 B 64. D
22 C 65. A
23 A 66. D
24 C 67. D
25 B 68. D
26 B 69. D
27 A 70. A
28 C 71. C
29 A 72. D
30 A 73. A
31 A 74. B
32 A 75. C
33 C 76. A
34 B 77. B
35 A 78. A
36 D 79. A
37 D 80. C
38 A 81. A
39 D 82. B
40 C 83. C
41 D 84. B
42 B 85. B
43 D