Centro Escolar University

College of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION
0208

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

1. If marginal ridge is severely weakened due to excessive extension into it, the preparation
outline should: 
A. include the buccal surface  
B. remain unaltered   D. not include the proximal surface  
C. include the proximal surface   E. include the lingual surface

2. Retention form for composite resin restoration is achieved by: 

A. etchant    
B. adhesion to enamel   D. mechanical undercuts   
C. adhesion to dentin   E. all of these

3. What type of setting reaction is common to all glass ionomer materials?  

A. polymerization    C. acid-base  
B. oxidation-reduction    D. all of those mentioned

4. Secondary dentin may be formed: 

A. after direct pulp capping is done   
B. as a result of trauma during cavity preparation  
C. in response to function   
D. in response to caries

5. This type of caries usually involves even the mandibular incisors: 

A. recurrent caries   C. remaining caries    
B. acute caries     D. none of those mentioned

6. Prophylactic odontotomy is: 

A. preparation and restoration after caries has begun  
B. a routine procedure on all patients   
C. enlargement of small defects which are filled with amalgam as preventive
measure   
D. reshaping of grooves  
E. none of those mentioned.

7. Beveling for inlay preparation serves the following useful purposes: 

A. produces a stronger enamel wall  
B. permits a marginal seal in slightly undersized castings   
C. provides marginal metals more easily burnished and adapted   
D. assists in seating gingival margins of inlay   
E. all of those mentioned.

8. If gold foil has been exposed to too high a temperature or has been heated too long, it is:  
A. workable      C. under annealed   
B. not brittle     D. over annealed    E. none of these

9. The binder used in investment powder for casting metals is: 

A. silicate   C. calcium sulfate dehydrate  
B. calcium sulfate hemihydrate   D. sodium chloride

10. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation will least protect which of the following?  
A. proximal smooth surfaces  
 B. inaccessible areas    D. groove defects  
C. facial smooth surfaces   E. none of those mentioned

11. A bevel is contraindicated on the cavosurface of a class I dental amalgam cavity

preparation. Which of the following explains why?  
A. this type of margin is prone to microleakage  
B. the cavosurface bevel makes burnishing more difficult   
C. a thin flange of amalgam restorative material might fracture  
D. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade

12. The most important consideration for pulp protection in restorative technique is: 
A. an adequate protective base  
B. complete removal of caries  
C. thickness of remaining dentin  
D. proper sealing of the remaining dentin

13. If gold has a fineness of 750, it has how many carats? 

A. 14   B. 16   C. 18  D. 20  E. 24   

14. Which of the following factors is MOST related to the initiation of senile caries? 
A. erosion   B. attrition   C. pulpal fibrosis   D. gingival recession

15. Preparation of class I cavity for the reception of amalgam, direct filling gold and gold inlay
have in common: 
A. divergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlusally  
B. divergence of the mesial and distal walls occlusally  
C. convergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlusally  
D. undercutting the mesial and distal walls.

16. The advantage of methyl methacrylate unfilled restorative is that: 

A. it can be finished smoothly    C. it is non-irritating to the pulp  
B. it has a low degree of flow   D. it has a high degree of wear resistance   

17. The term “autopolymerizing” as applied to acrylic restorations would indicate that they are: 
A. self-curing   
B. heat is required to induce polymerization  
C. they are self-curing without heat formation  
D. polymerization shrinkage occurs toward the cavity wall  
E. polymerization shrinkage is compensated for by the proper technique of application

18. Extension for prevention is directly related to: 

A. removal of unsupported enamel on the proximal surface of a class III cavity prep  
B. depth of the axial wall of a class III cavity   
C. elimination of all carious dentin beyond the average depth of the pulpal wall of a
class I cavity  
D. the outline of the cavity

19.Pin failure may occur in any one of the following five reasons. Which of these failures occur
most frequently with cemented pins?  
A. fracture of the dentin  
B. failure at the cement-dentin interface   
C. fracture of the pin   
D. failure at the pin-restorative material interface   
E. fracture of the restorative material
20. When utilizing self-threading, friction-locked pins for the retention of amalgam, it is generally
agreed that the pin should extend about equally into the dentin and the alloy. The recommended
pin depth is: 
A. 1 mm   B. 2 mm   C. 3 mm   D. 4 mm  E. 4.5 mm            

21. In the principle of tooth preparation, parallelism of the walls in the preparation is in
consideration of: 
A. outline form   C. retention form  
B. resistance form   D. removal of caries   E. debridement

22. We can make 2 separate cavities in the occlusal surface of 16 because: 

A. of the oblique ridge    C. of the marginal ridge  
B. of the transverse ridge     D. all of the above

23. Aside from initial penetration into the cavity, the round bur is:  
A. used for extension   C. used for creation of undercuts   
B. used for excavation    D. a&b    E. b&c

24. The components of resin based composites principally responsible for its improved physical
properties is: 
A. the resin matrix     C. the coupling agent   
B. the filler particles     D. the modifiers   E. all of those mentioned

25. The mercury-alloy ratio in amalgam after condensation should be approximately:  a. 3 to 2   
b. 5 to 3   c. 8 to 5   d. 1 to 1  

26. This refers to deformation of amalgam under load over time: 

A. corrosion   B. fatigue   C. creep   D. contraction    E. expansion

27. The recommended condensation pressure of amalgam for proper adaptation into the tooth
preparation Is ____ per increment of amalgam
A. 2-4 lbs     B. 3-5 lbs   C. 4-6 lbs    D. 5-7 lbs   E. 6-8 lbs

28. The ideal tooth reduction for indirect inlay/ onlay  per cusp is:  
A. 1-1.5 mm      B. 1.5 - 2 mm    C. 2-2.5 mm  D. 2.5-3 mm  E. any of the above

29. The advantage of friction-locked  and self-threading pins are:  1. they require no luting
agent    2. they are more retentive than luting pins    3. they require less depth of pin channels
than luting pins   4. they are readily bent after insertion   
A. 1,2&3   B. 1,2&4     C. 2,3&4   D. 1,3&4    E. all of those mentioned

30. The best surface finish in a composite restoration is created by: 

A. the mylar matrix with no additional finish  
B. the 12-fluted finishing bur   D. the lubricated cuttle disks     
C. the silica grit disks   E. finishing strips

31. Acid etching procedures with a resin system help in:  1. retaining the resin   2. improving the
color matching   3. preventing thermal exchange    4. preventing microleakage   5. providing a
clean enamel surface     
A. 1.2.3   B.1.3.5   C. 1,4,5  D. 2,4,5   E. all of those mentioned

32. The following are causes of diastemas between teeth, except:  

A. heredity   C. prominent labial frenum 
B. periodontal disease    D. tongue thrusting   E. none of those mentioned
33.  The golden proportion or Euclid's element states that a smile, when viewed from the front is
considered to be esthetically pleasing if each tooth in that smile (starting from the midline) is
approximately___ of the size of the tooth immediately mesial to it.
A. 30 %   B. 40%   C. 50%   D. 60%   E. 70% 

34. To create the illusion of narrowness, the mesiofacial and distofacial line angles and
developmental depressions on labial surfaces of maxillary anteriors are placed: 
A. farther apart    C. at the midline  
B. closer together    D. all of these    E. none of the choices

35. The most commonly used type of grasp in holding hand instruments is:  
A. pen grasp    C. modified pen grasp  
B. palm and thumb grasp     D. modified palm and thumb grasp

36. It provides a means of artistic expression that feeds on creativity and imagination which
improve self-image and enhance self-esteem of patients.  
A. esthetics    B. tooth preparation   C. restoration    D. none of those mentioned

37. Non-carious tooth damages include the following, except: 

A. caries   B. attrition   C. abrasion   D. abfraction   E. fractures

38. This damage to the tooth results from trauma: 

A. caries    B. attrition   C. abrasion   D. fractures    E. abfraction

39. Indicated preparation design for root surface caries (non-enamel areas) and moderated to
large classes I and II restoration: 
A. bevelled conventional   C. conventional design  
B. modified preparation   D. box only     E. slot preparation

40. The radiographic appearance of a proximal carious  lesion is: 

A. larger than the actual lesion    
B. smaller than  the actual lesion  
C. an accurate  reproduction of the size of the lesion  
D. variable depending upon the exposure time and development process.

41. The second number in a three-number instrument formula is: 

A. the blade width   C. the blade angle   
B. the blade length    D. cutting edge angle    E. none of those mentioned

42. Finishing of enamel margins at the gingival cavosurface on a cavity prepared for   amalgam
is: 
A. accomplished by removing all unsupported enamel rods or prism   
B. not indicated because of poor tensile strength of amalgam   
C. accomplished by creating a steep bevel   
D. not required in the gingival area.

43. How many point angles are there in a class II mesiocclusal cavity preparation?   

A.  6     B. 8     C. 9     D.  10     E. 11

44. Retention form for composite restoration is achieved by: 

A. a chemical bond  with the tooth   C. mechanical undercuts   
B. adhesion to enamel and dentin    D.   a & b    E. b & c

45. Activators of direct filled resins are:  1. tertiary amines   2. bezoin methyl ether    3. benzoyl
peroxide    4. hydroquinone    5. camphorquinone 
A. 1 & 2     B. 1, 2, &3   C. 2 & 3    D. 3, 4 &5   E. 4 & 5   
46. Condensation time for amalgam should be finished within 4 minutes after trituration
because: 
A. the final sett takes place within 5 minutes   
B. beyond this time, the residual mercury retention is markedly increased  
C. the excess will be more easily removed   
D. studies indicate that this is the most efficient working time 
E. all of these  

47. Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have: 

A. less solubility  
B. greater color stability   D. greater working time  
C. greater compresive strength    E. smoother surface finish       
 
48. One of the principal advantages of cast gold restoration is its: 
A. aesthetic qualities  
B. pulp protection because of thermal insulating qualities of the cementing medium   
C. ability to inhibit recurrent caries   
D. ability to restore anatomic form  
E. all of these    
  
49. Extending the cavity margin should:
A. depend on the dentist’s desire  
B. continue until all supported enamel has been reduced  
C. Meet any lateral spread of caries   
D. continue until all carious lesions are removed   
E. all of these

50. The interim restoration of choice for placement between completion of the cavity prep and
the seating of an indirect composite inlay restoration is: 
A. zinc-oxide eugenol  
B. zinc phosphate   
C. .polycarboxylate cement  
D. an acrylic inlay cemented with non-eugenol cement. 

51. A combination of educational, organizational, economic and environmental

supports for behavior conducive to health.
A. health education C. dental health
B. community dentistry D. health promotion E. dental health education

52. The most current approach that emphasize the role of public involvement in identifying
individual and community health problems.
A. behavior learning model
B. self-care motivational model
C. contemporary community health model
D. cognitive model
E. none of the above.

53. A timed series activities requiring physical, human and financial resourced to achieve a
health policy objectives:
A. civic action C. outreach program
B. dental mission D. health program E. public program

54. State of normality and functional efficiency of the oral cavity in relation to mastication and
maxillofacial complexities.
A. Health C. desirable dental health
 B. oral health D. dental health E. good oral health

55. Refers to measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present.

A. tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention D. all of the choices

56. The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:

A. RA 4419 B. RA 7305 C. RA 7530 D. RA 572

57. Principles of administration:

I. centralized authority II. Approach III. Esprit de corps
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III E. III only

58. Percentage of the population that should retain all the teeth at the age 18 (FDI Global
Goals):
A. 25% B. 65% C. 85% D. 50% E. 30%

59. The operator’s distance from the mouth of the patient is:
A. 3-6 inches C. 10-14 inches
B. 6-10 inches D. 16-20 inches E. any of these.

60. Responsible for the hardening of the glass ionomer cement:

II. tartaric acid III. Polymaleic acid
III. polyacrylic acid IV. Itaconic acid
A. I & II B. II & III C. III & IV D. I & III E. II & IV

61. The art and science of preventing disease through organized community efforts:
A. community health C. public health activity
B. community oral health program D,. all of the above

62. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing
are the factors under:
A. health-related socio-economic C. population analysis
B. health status D. health resource analsis

63 It refers to the structure of an agency and the way people are arranged into working groups.
A. Management C. organization
B. Administration D. authority E. autonomy

64. Performing observation, interview and surveying:

A. Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B. Community study D. Integration E. C & D

65. An actual participation with the community’s work and social activities:
A. Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B. Community study D. Integration E. C & D

66. The optimal concentration of fluoride for community water depends upon the:
A. proportion of residents who are children
B. temperature of the air D. Both A & B
C. caries rate of the total population E. Both B & C

67. The effectivity date of the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:
A. April 26, 1992 C. April 17, 1992
B. March 26, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992
68. The children in an elementary school exhibit a high interproximal caries rates. For these
children, which of the following school-based programs will be the most effective?
A. Sealant B. Fluoride mouthrinse C. Brushing and flossing

69. The most accessible restorative care for all population groups:
A. Composite resin Restoration C. ART
B. Dental Amalgam restoration D. both A & B E. both B & C.

70. One of the elements of primary health care.

A. sanitation and safe water supply D. safety and protection
B. security system E. none of the choices
C. strengthening intersectoral collaboration

71.The following are the conceptual framework of primary health care, except:
A. combination of socio-economic and biological factors
B. training and health manpower development
C. control and prevention of health problems
D. needs for intersectoral linkages
E. none of the above.

72. In this type of community, the natural resources are under developed:
A. mature community C. disorganized community
B. Immature community D. both B & C

73. In determining the caries rate for older adults, an epidemiologist usually uses the DMFT
index, because it can be difficult to ascertain why teeth are missing.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is accurate
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

74. A timed series of service activities requiring physical, human and financial resources to
achieve health policy objectives;
A. Civic action C. outreach program
B. Dental mission D. health program E. public program

75. It is today’s design for tomorrow’s action;

A. Planning B. coordination C. objective D. strategy E. action

76. The following are purposes of fluoride varnish, except;

A. promote mineralization of the tooth C. retard cavity formation
B. reserve the process of cavity formation D. decrease pH level
E. none of the above

77. Measures taken before the disease occurs to reduce susceptibility;

A. tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention D. any of the three.

78. They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is involved;
A. para-dental professional C. dental hygienists
B. dental assistant D. dental auxiliaries E. all of these.

79. In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with
certain group of students on a subject matter.
A. Developmental method C. discussion method
B. Team teaching method D. lecture method E. both A & C
79. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing
are the factors under;
A. health related socio-economic factors C. population analysis
B. health status D. health resource analysis

80. It is concerned in making estimates, predictions, generalizations, conclusions about a

population based on information from a sample.
A. descriptive statistics C. inferential statistics
B. inscriptive statistics D. differential statistics E. none of these.

81. It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of a disease:

A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology
E. none of these

82. It measures the acid forming ability of microorganisms present in saliva or oral tissue:
A. dental caries activity C. pH test
B. susceptibility test D. both A & B only E. A & C only

83. Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water:

A. 7-12ppm B. 0.7-1.2ppm C. 0.07-0.12ppm D. 0.7-12ppm

84. The following are the physical characteristics of a community, except:

A. size B. location C. gender D. occupational groupings

85. An index which use a dichotomous scoring system:

A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. none of these.

86. Fluorosis index was formulated by:

A. Greene and Vermillion C. Gayford
B. Dean D. Hussy E. none of them.

87. ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in:

A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

88. An index that is designed to be repeated following patient oral hygiene education:
A. OHI-S B. PHP-M C. PI D. GI E. none of these.

89. It is a continuing effort to imbibe community life by removing legal and social barriers that
impose segregation to a group of people.
A. Entry into Community C. Community Study
B. Area Selection D. Integration E. both C & D.

90. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.

A. dental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. experimental epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these.

91. Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___community:

A. mature B. immature C. progressive D. organize E. none of these

92. All are under analytical epidemiology, except:

A. cohort study
B. establishes a relationship between a factor and a disease
C. prevalence
D. all of the choices
F. none of these.
93. The following are the values to be adopted by a public health workers:
A. just C. service to mankind
B. humane D. both A & B E. all of the above.

94. Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present:
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention

95. Detained analysis of the working of the organization:

A. standing order C. organizational chart
B. records D. budgeting E. procedure manual.

For numbers 96-100, use the codes for examination and recording of CPI as your choices..
A. 4 B. 0 C. 2 D. 1 E. 3

96. All black band on the probe visible ( C )

97. Black band on the probe not visible ( A )

98. Healthy ( B )

99. Bleeding ( D )

100. Pocket depth of 4mm ( E )

/dent
11-25-2008