Prenatal Development, Birth, and The Newborn Baby: Multiple Choice

CHAPTER 3
PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT, BIRTH, AND THE NEWBORN BABY
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1) An ovum bursts from one of a woman’s two __________ and is drawn into one of two __________.
A) ovaries; testes
B) fallopian tubes; ovaries
C) corpus luteum; fallopian tubes
D) ovaries; fallopian tubes
Answer: D
Page Ref: 80
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
2) The __________ secretes hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum.
A) corpus luteum
B) fallopian tubes
C) cervix
D) embryo
Answer: A
Page Ref: 80
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
3) The male produces an average of __________ sperm a day, yet only __________ reach the ovum.
A) 300 to 500; 1 to 10
B) 1 million; 10 to 50
C) 1 million; 300 to 500
D) 300 million; 300 to 500
Answer: D
Page Ref: 80
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
4) The male produces sperm in the __________, two glands located in the __________.
A) penis; scrotum
B) scrotum; penis
C) testes; penis
D) testes; scrotum
Answer: D
Page Ref: 80
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
Copyright © 2014, 2010, 2007 by Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved. 57
Test Bank for Berk / Development Through the Lifespan, 6e
5) The outer ring of cells on a blastocyst, termed the trophoblast, will become the
A) new organism.
B) structures that provide protective covering and nourishment.
C) embryonic disk.
D) embryo.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 81
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
6) The embryonic disc
A) becomes the new organism.
B) is the outer ring of cells on a blastocyst.
C) has a good chance of survival outside the womb.
D) is a protective membrane that surrounds the amnion.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 81
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
7) Following fertilization, a one-celled __________ multiplies and forms a __________.
A) embryo; fetus
B) blastocyst; embryo
C) zygote; blastocyst
D) blastocyst; zygote
Answer: C
Page Ref: 81
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
8) Which of the following statements about a blastocyst is true?
A) It consists of a single cell.
B) It is a structure that feeds the developing organism.
C) Between the seventh and ninth day, it burrows deep into the uterine lining.
D) It is a membrane that helps to keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 81
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
9) The amnion
A) develops into the nervous system and the skin.
B) surrounds the chorion.
C) contains one large vein that delivers blood to the developing organism.
D) encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 81
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
58 Copyright © 2014, 2010, 2007 by Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
Chapter 3 Prenatal Development, Birth, and the Newborn Baby
10) The amniotic fluid

A) delivers food and oxygen to the developing organism.
B) helps keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant.
C) delivers nutrients and removes waste products.
D) produces blood cells until the organs are mature enough to take over this function.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 81
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
11) As many as _____ percent of zygotes do not survive the first two weeks.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer: B
Page Ref: 81
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
12) The placenta
A) forms in the second trimester of pregnancy.
B) encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid.
C) contains one large vein that delivers nutrients to the embryo.
D) delivers food and oxygen to the developing organism.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
13) The umbilical cord
A) appears as a tiny stalk and eventually grows to a length of 6 to 12 inches.
B) contains one large artery that delivers nutrients to the embryo.
C) connects the placenta to the developing organism.
D) permits the blood of the mother and the embryo to mix directly.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
14) The most rapid prenatal changes take place in the period of the
A) zygote.
B) blastocyst.
C) embryo.
D) fetus.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
15) The __________ eventually becomes the muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, and other internal organs.
A) mesoderm
B) chorion
C) endoderm
D) ectoderm
Answer: A
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
16) During the period of the embryo, the __________ becomes the __________.
A) mesoderm; nervous system, lungs, internal organs, and skin
B) chorion; endocrine system, muscles, placenta, and skeleton
C) ectoderm; circulatory system, skin, skeleton, and internal organs
D) endoderm; digestive system, lungs, urinary tract, and glands
Answer: D
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
17) At the beginning of the embryonic period, the __________ system develops fastest.
A) circulatory
B) endocrine
C) digestive
D) nervous
Answer: D
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
18) The __________ folds over to form the __________, which will become the spinal cord and brain.
A) mesoderm; neuron tract
B) ectoderm; neural tube
C) endoderm; neural tube
D) ectoderm; neuron tract
Answer: B
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
19) By the end of Greta’s first month of pregnancy, her embryo
A) can sense its world.
B) is about ¼ inch long.
C) can suck its thumb.
D) can curl its toes.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 82
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.1
20) During the __________ month of pregnancy, the embryo responds to touch.
A) second
B) third
C) fifth
D) seventh
Answer: A
Page Ref: 83
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
21) By the __________ week of pregnancy, Monica will be able to learn the sex of her fetus.
A) second
B) fourth
C) eighth
D) twelfth
Answer: D
Page Ref: 83
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.1
22) Katie wonders when she will first be able to hear her fetus’s heartbeat through a stethoscope. You tell her that this should
happen by the
A) fourth week of pregnancy.
B) third month.
C) end of the second trimester.
D) beginning of the third trimester.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 83
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.1
23) By the middle of the second trimester, the
A) new being has grown large enough that the mother can feel its movements.
B) development of the cerebral cortex is nearly complete.
C) fetus reaches the age of viability.
D) production of glial cells is nearly complete.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 83
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
24) Lanugo
A) permits food and oxygen to reach the organism.
B) provides the fetus a cushion against jolts caused by the mother’s movements.
C) helps regulate the fetus’s body temperature.
D) is a white, downy hair that covers the fetus’s entire body.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 83
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
25) While the senses of __________ have begun to emerge by 20 weeks, a fetus born at this time cannot survive because
__________.
A) sight and sound; its brain cannot yet control breathing and body temperature
B) touch and sight; the billions of neurons of its brain are not yet produced
C) smell and sound; the cerebral cortex, the seat of human intelligence, is too large
D) sight and sound; the neurons of its brain have not begun forming synapses
Answer: A
Page Ref: 84
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
26) Viability occurs between __________ weeks.
A) 18 and 21
B) 22 and 26
C) 27 and 30
D) 31 and 36
Answer: B
Page Ref: 84
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.1
27) A baby born between the seventh and eighth months of pregnancy
A) is just as healthy as a full-term baby.
B) usually needs oxygen assistance to breathe.
C) only has about a 10 percent survival rate.
D) is considered small-for-date.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 84
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
28) In one study, more active fetuses during the third trimester became 2-year-olds who
A) were easily overwhelmed by sensory stimulation.
B) had trouble establishing a regular sleep–wake pattern.
C) had irregular eating schedules.
D) were less fearful.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 84
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
29) In the final month of pregnancy,
A) fetal growth doubles.
B) a layer of fat is added to assist with temperature regulation.
C) most fetuses assume an upright position.
D) neurons are produced at a rapid rate.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 85
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
30) In the last weeks of pregnancy,

A) the fetus usually loses a pound or two.
B) most fetuses assume an upside-down position.
C) fetal growth increases dramatically.
D) the fetus begins relying on its own well-developed immune system.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 85
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.1
31) The term teratogen refers to
A) any environmental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period.
B) a limited time span during which a part of the body is biologically prepared to develop rapidly.
C) a rapid period of prenatal neurological development.
D) a synthetic hormone used to prevent miscarriage.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 85
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.2
32) The effects of teratogens
A) are predictable and straightforward.
B) are usually the most serious during the fetal period.
C) vary with the age of the organism at the time of exposure.
D) are always detectible at birth.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 85
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
33) Which of the following statements about the harm done by teratogens is true?
A) Passive smoking is rarely harmful to the developing fetus.
B) The genetic makeup of the mother and the developing organism plays an important role.
C) The negative impact of teratogens is usually reversible.
D) The most serious defects occur in the period of the zygote.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 85
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
34) Which of the following statements about prenatal sensitive periods with respect to teratogens is true?
A) The fetal period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur.
B) During the embryonic period, teratogens usually affect the growth of sensory organs, such as the eyes and ears.
C) In the period of the zygote, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact.
D) During the fetal period, teratogens have no impact on the developing organism.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 85
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
35) Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is

A) aspirin.
B) diethylstilbestrol (DES).
C) thalidomide.
D) Accutane.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 87
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.2
36) Willa gets regular headaches. While pregnant, Willa begins using aspirin to ease the pain because she is convinced that
aspirin is harmless. Which of the following effects can Willa’s regular aspirin use have on the developing organism?
A) None. Aspirin use is completely safe during pregnancy.
B) Aspirin can cause gross deformities of the arms and legs during the embryonic period.
C) Regular aspirin use is linked to low birth weight and poorer motor development.
D) Even moderate aspirin use is linked to elevated incidence of birth complications, including respiratory distress.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 87
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.2
37) Mateo was born prematurely to Yvonne, a cocaine addict. Mateo’s caregivers can expect that
A) he will have characteristics of Down syndrome.
B) his cries might be abnormally shrill and piercing.
C) he will overcome the harmful effects of drug exposure by age 3.
D) his motor development will be especially rapid during the first year.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 87
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.2
38) It is difficult to isolate the precise damage caused by illegal drugs during pregnancy because
A) most drug-using mothers refuse to participate in teratology research.
B) the majority of babies born to drug-using mothers do not survive for more than a few days.
C) most drug-using mothers quit during the first trimester of pregnancy.
D) drug-using mothers often take several drugs, display other high-risk behaviors, and suffer from poverty and other
stresses.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 87
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
39) Victoria is a pregnant smoker. Victoria is among the estimated _____ percent of American women who smoke during
their pregnancies.
A) 8
B) 14
C) 20
D) 26
Answer: B
Page Ref: 88
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.2
40) The best-known effect of smoking during the prenatal period is

A) colic.
B) high birth weight.
C) low birth weight.
D) delayed language development.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 88
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.2
41) Adolescents prenatally exposed to smoking tend to have __________ than those born to mothers who did not smoke.
A) higher levels of disruptive, aggressive behavior
B) higher mental test scores
C) longer attention spans
D) earlier onset of puberty
Answer: A
Page Ref: 88
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
42) Maryann is pregnant and works in a smoke-filled environment. What can you tell her about passive smoking?
A) The negative effects of smoking are only evident in children born to heavy smokers.
B) Passive smoking is related to low birth weight, infant death, and childhood respiratory illnesses.
C) Smoke-filled environments are harmful to expectant mothers, but not to their unborn children.
D) The effects of passive smoking are not yet known.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 88
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.2
43) Which of the following statements about fetal alcohol syndrome is true?
A) It is distinguished by rapid physical growth and facial abnormalities, but not cognitive impairment.
B) It is distinguished by slow physical growth, a pattern of three facial abnormalities, and brain injury.
C) It is extremely rare in the United States.
D) The mental impairment associated with it is temporary.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 88
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
44) Recent evidence suggests that paternal alcohol use around the time of conception
A) can cause fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) has no negative effect on the developing organism.
C) can cause alcohol-related neurodevelopment disorder.
D) can alter gene expression.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 89
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
45) The more alcohol a woman consumes during pregnancy, the

A) poorer the child’s intelligence and achievement test scores during the school years.
B) greater the likelihood of ARND instead of FAS or p-FAS.
C) higher the birth weight of the child.
D) greater the child’s speed of information processing.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 89
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
46) About _____ percent of U.S. mothers report drinking at some time during their pregnancies.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Answer: D
Page Ref: 89
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.2
47) Low-level radiation, resulting from industrial leakage or medical X-rays,
A) is only harmful when combined with other teratogens.
B) can increase the risk of childhood cancer.
C) rarely causes lasting damage.
D) is safe during the last trimester.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 90
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
48) Regina eats a mostly vegetarian diet, but she eats a lot of fish. When she becomes pregnant, what should Regina know
about environmental pollution in fish?
A) Long-lived predatory fish, such as swordfish, albacore tuna, and shark, can be heavily contaminated with mercury.
B) Fresh water fish, such as perch and trout, carry a startling array of industrial contaminants—287 in all.
C) While some fish are contaminated with polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), steady, low-level PCB exposure is not
harmful.
D) Fish can be heavily contaminated with lead, exposure to which is related to prematurity and brain damage.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 90
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.2
49) High levels of prenatal lead exposure are related to
A) deformities of the gums and nails.
B) difficulty in chewing and swallowing.
C) breast and uterine cancers in women.
D) prematurity, low birth weight, and brain damage.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 90
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
50) Men affected by even tiny amounts of dioxin in their bloodstream father
A) nearly twice as many girls as boys.
B) more boys than girls.
C) more twins and triplets than unaffected men.
D) fewer children than unaffected men.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 90
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
51) Which of the following statements about prenatal rubella is true?
A) The greatest damage occurs when rubella strikes during the fetal period.
B) The organ damage inflicted by prenatal rubella can lead to lifelong health problems in adulthood.
C) Routine vaccination has made new rubella outbreaks extremely rare worldwide.
D) Infection during the embryonic period is less harmful than during other prenatal periods.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 90
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.2
52) Untreated HIV-infected expectant mothers pass the deadly virus to the developing organism __________ percent of the
time.
A) 10 to 20
B) 20 to 30
C) 40 to 50
D) 80 to 90
Answer: B
Page Ref: 90
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.2
53) To avoid exposure to toxoplasmosis, Kaye should ask other family members to
A) stop smoking.
B) pick up after the dogs.
C) change the litter box.
D) feed the fish.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 92
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.2
54) Frequent, vigorous exercise, especially late in pregnancy, results in
A) increased birth weight.
B) lower birth weight than in healthy, nonexercising controls.
C) serious damage to the central nervous system.
D) suppressed development of the immune system.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 92
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.3
55) Dana is pregnant with her first child and wonders how much weight she should gain during the pregnancy. You should
recommend a healthy diet that results in a weight gain of __________ pounds.
A) 10 to 15
B) 15 to 25
C) 25 to 30
D) 45 to 50
Answer: C
Page Ref: 92
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.3
56) The poorer the mother’s diet, the __________, especially if malnutrition occurs during the last trimester.
A) greater the birth weight
B) greater the loss in brain weight
C) greater the brain weight
D) smaller the heart
Answer: B
Page Ref: 92
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.3
57) Prenatally malnourished babies frequently
A) reject breast milk.
B) have enlarged hearts.
C) have a higher-than-average birth weight.
D) catch respiratory illnesses.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 92
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.3
58) Taking a __________ supplement around the time of conception greatly reduces by more than 70 percent abnormalities
of the neural tube.
A) folic acid
B) weight-loss
C) steroid
D) Vitamin C
Answer: A
Page Ref: 92
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.3
59) The effects of stress on the developing organism can be greatly reduced if the mother
A) has access to social support during stressful periods.
B) takes a low dose of antianxiety medication during pregnancy.
C) takes a folic acid supplement.
D) is placed on bed rest during the last trimester.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 93
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.3
60) One of the goals of the Nurse–Family Partnership, currently implemented in hundreds of counties across 42 U.S. states, is
to
A) eradicate prenatal drug use.
B) lessen the effects of teratogens on developing organisms.
C) improve family conditions, thereby protecting children from lasting difficulties.
D) provide family planning and genetic counseling.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 94 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Nurse–Family Partnership: Reducing Maternal Stress and
Enhancing Child Development Through Social Support
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.3
61) Twelve-year-old children of mothers who were home visited as part of the Nurse–Family Partnership __________ than
comparison-group agemates.
A) scored lower in impulsivity and overactivity
B) had lower academic achievement scores
C) showed more aggressive behavior
D) reported less alcohol and drug use
Answer: D
Page Ref: 94 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Nurse–Family Partnership: Reducing Maternal Stress and
Enhancing Child Development Through Social Support
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.3
62) When the inherited blood types of mother and fetus differ, the most common cause of difficulties is
A) maternal age.
B) Rh factor incompatibility.
C) emotional stress.
D) prenatal malnutrition.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 93
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.3
63) Samantha is a first-time expectant mother at age 35. You can tell her that healthy women in their thirties have
__________ as those in their twenties.
A) higher rates of pregnancy complications
B) lower rates of miscarriage
C) lower rates of pregnancy complications
D) about the same rates of pregnancy complications
Answer: D
Page Ref: 93
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.3
64) If untreated, toxemia can cause
A) convulsions in the mother and fetal death.
B) extra sugar in the mother’s bloodstream.
C) swelling of the fetus’s face, hands, and feet.
D) behavioral problems in adolescence.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 95
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.4
65) Which of the following mothers is most likely to have had inadequate prenatal care?
A) Harriet, who is single and 25
B) Marissa, who is married and 32
C) Rachel, who is single and 16
D) Janette, who is married and 40
Answer: C
Page Ref: 95
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.4
66) The longest stage of labor is the
A) second, delivery of the baby.
B) first, delivery of the placenta.
C) third, delivery of the placenta.
D) first, dilation and effacement of the cervix.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 96
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.5
67) The second stage of labor lasts
A) an average of 12 to 14 hours with the first birth and 4 to 6 hours with later births.
B) an average of 4 to 6 hours with the first birth and 20 to 50 minutes with later births.
C) about 50 minutes for a first birth and 20 minutes with later births.
D) about 5 to 10 minutes for a first birth and 90 minutes for later births.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 96
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.5
68) Ursula is in the second stage of labor. She can expect __________ during this stage.
A) contractions of the uterus to begin gradually and become more frequent and powerful
B) the placenta to separate from the uterine wall and be delivered
C) the cervix to widen and thin to nothing
D) her baby to be born
Answer: D
Page Ref: 96
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.5
69) During the third stage of labor,
A) the cervix thins to nothing.
B) uterine contractions begin.
C) the placenta is delivered.
D) the baby is born.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 96
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.5
70) The force of contractions during childbirth causes the infant to produce high levels of stress hormones that
A) can lead to anoxia, or inadequate oxygen supply, during delivery.
B) lead to irritability and digestive disturbances in newborns.
C) cause infants’ heart rate and activity level to become dangerously high during childbirth.
D) help infants withstand oxygen deprivation during contractions by sending a rich supply of blood to the brain and
heart.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 97
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.5
71) Which of the following statements about the infant’s production of stress hormones during childbirth is true?
A) Stress hormones cause the mother to breathe deeply, increasing the oxygen supply to the baby.
B) Stress hormones activate certain neural pathways in the brain, causing the baby to be alert and actively work its way
down the birth canal.
C) Stress hormones cause the cervix to thin and the uterine wall to contract, forming a clear channel from the uterus
into the birth canal.
D) Stress hormones prepare the baby to breathe effectively by causing the lungs to absorb any remaining fluid and by
expanding the bronchial tubes.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 97
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.5
72) Lily weighed 8 pounds and was 21 inches long at birth. Which of the following statements about her size is true?
A) She was heavier but shorter than the average baby.
B) She was heavier and longer than the average baby.
C) She was lighter but longer than the average baby.
D) She was lighter and shorter than the average baby.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 97
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.5
73) Which of the following statements about the newborn baby’s appearance is true?
A) Girls tend to be slightly longer and heavier than boys.
B) Their round faces, chubby cheeks, and big eyes make adults feel like picking them up.
C) The trunk is large in comparison to the head, and the legs are long and straight.
D) On average, they are 18 inches long and 5½ pounds in weight.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 98
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.5
74) The Apgar Scale rates
A) appearance, personality, grimace, activity, and reflexes.
B) aptitude, pulse, grimace, appearance, and renal function.
C) appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration.
D) airway, personality, general temperament, appearance, and reaction time.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 98
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.5
75) Andrew received a combined Apgar score of 5. This means that Andrew
A) is in good physical condition.
B) needs assistance in establishing breathing and other vital signs.
C) is in serious danger and should receive emergency medical attention.
D) was in danger at birth, but quickly recovered and is now in good physical condition.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 98
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.5
76) Two Apgar ratings are given in the minutes following birth
A) to help ensure high inter-rater reliability.
B) because some babies have trouble adjusting immediately but do quite well after a few minutes.
C) because the two scores are averaged to arrive at a more reliable assessment.
D) because many babies who test well immediately rapidly decline in physical condition.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 98
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.5
77) Before the late 1800s, childbirth usually took place
A) at home and was a family-centered event.
B) at home, but away from other family members.
C) in a hospital with trained midwives.
D) in the home of a medical professional or in a hospital.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 98
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.6
78) Most freestanding birth centers
A) encourage family participation, but do not allow maternal control over labor and delivery.
B) do not allow family members and friends to participate in the birth.
C) permit a choice of delivery positions.
D) encourage childbirth medication and delivery instruments.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 99
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.6
79) Natural childbirth experts Grantly Dick-Read and Fernand Lamaze recognized that cultural attitudes about childbirth had
A) taught women to fear the birth experience.
B) helped women develop breathing techniques to lessen the pain of labor.
C) taught women that medical intervention was unnecessary in childbirth.
D) helped women focus on childrearing rather than childbirth.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 99
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.6
80) Mothers who __________ have fewer birth complications and shorter labors.
A) are administered epidural analgesia during childbirth
B) give birth at home
C) are supported by a trained companion during childbirth
D) choose cesarean delivery
Answer: C
Page Ref: 99
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.6
81) A certified nurse–midwife
A) cannot legally deliver a baby at home in most states.
B) has a degree in nursing and additional training in childbirth management.
C) can perform a cesarean delivery and can administer medication to control pain.
D) is not a medical professional, but is trained in labor and delivery support.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.6
82) About 10 percent of cases of cerebral palsy are the result of __________ during labor and delivery.
A) an inadequate oxygen supply
B) anesthetics
C) epidural analgesia
D) medical interventions
Answer: A
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.7
83) Fetal monitors
A) measure the baby’s blood oxygen levels during labor.
B) track the baby’s heart rate during labor.
C) are linked to a decreased rate of cesarean deliveries.
D) reduce the rate of infant brain damage and death in healthy pregnancies.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.7
84) Critics worry that fetal monitoring
A) should not be used because it is a risky procedure.
B) is not helpful in detecting hidden problems with the baby.
C) identifies babies as in danger who, in fact, are not.
D) increases the likelihood of infant brain damage.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.7
85) Some form of medication is used in __________ percent of U.S. births.

A) about 35
B) almost 50
C) about 70
D) more than 80
Answer: D
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.7
86) During her labor, Renae asks for a mild dose of painkillers to help her relax. Renae will probably be given a(n)
A) anesthetic.
B) analgesic.
C) folic acid.
D) anti-inflammatory.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.7
87) __________, the stronger type of painkiller used in labor and delivery, block sensation.
A) Anesthetics
B) Analgesics
C) Anti-inflammatories
D) Folic acids
Answer: A
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.7
88) Epidural analgesia
A) numbs the entire lower half of the body.
B) prevents the mother from feeling the pressure of labor contractions.
C) is the most common approach to controlling pain during labor.
D) strengthens uterine contractions.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 100
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.7
89) Vaginal birth after a previous cesarean delivery is
A) a good choice because repeated cesareans are associated with an increased risk of uterine rupture.
B) associated with slightly increased rates of rupture of the uterus and infant death.
C) only recommended in high-risk pregnancies.
D) less common with the invention of fetal monitoring.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 101
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.7
90) __________ is the best available predictor of infant survival and healthy development.
A) Birth length
B) A combined Apgar score
C) The delivery date
D) Birth weight
Answer: D
Page Ref: 101
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.8
91) Preterm infants
A) are those born several weeks or more before their due date.
B) include those born two weeks or more after their due date.
C) usually have more serious problems than small-for-date infants.
D) probably experienced inadequate nutrition before birth.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 102
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.8
92) Tiffany is a small-for-date baby. This means she
A) was born several weeks or more before her due date.
B) was born below her expected weight considering length of the pregnancy.
C) will probably have much less serious problems than a preterm infant.
D) may have difficulties in infancy but will outgrow them by the preschool years.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 102
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.8
93) Small-for-date infants __________ than preterm infants.
A) have chubbier cheeks and larger eyes
B) are less likely to die
C) more often show evidence of brain damage
D) more often are held close, touched, and talked to gently
Answer: C
Page Ref: 102
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.8
94) Kangaroo care
A) involves placing a preterm infant in an enclosed isolette, which is similar to a kangaroo’s pouch.
B) is used only in developing countries where hospitalization is not always possible.
C) involves placing the infant in a vertical position on the parent’s chest, under the clothing, so the parent’s body
operates as a human incubator.
D) prevents fathers from participating in caring for a preterm newborn.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 103
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.8
95) Interventions that support parents of preterm infants

A) generally teach them about the infant’s characteristics and promote caregiving skills.
B) are costly and ineffective.
C) are rare in the United States.
D) are primarily offered to low-SES parents.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 103
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.8
96) The United States has the most up-to-date health care technology in the world and is currently ranked __________ in
international infant mortality.
A) first
B) eighth
C) eighteenth
D) twenty-eighth
Answer: D
Page Ref: 104 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: A Cross-National Perspective on Health Care and Other Policies for
Parents and Newborn Babies
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.8
97) In the United States, the second leading cause of neonatal mortality is __________, which is largely preventable.
A) low birth weight
B) physical abnormality
C) sudden infant death syndrome
D) malnutrition
Answer: A
Page Ref: 104 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: A Cross-National Perspective on Health Care and Other Policies for
Parents and Newborn Babies
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.8
98) Which of the following statements about the results of the Kauai study is true?
A) Children born with serious birth complications will not grow into competent, well-adjusted adults unless they have
supportive home environments.
B) Even when the overall balance of life events tips toward the favorable side, children with serious birth problems
rarely develop successfully.
C) The impact of early biological risks often wanes as children’s personal characteristics and social experiences
contribute increasingly to their functioning.
D) Children born with birth complications often develop severe behavioral problems regardless of their home
environment.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 106
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.9
99) A __________ is an inborn, automatic response to a particular form of stimulation.

A) reflex
B) state of arousal
C) shrill cry
D) movement pattern
Answer: A
Page Ref: 106
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.10
100) The __________ reflex protects an infant from strong stimulation.
A) moro
B) eye blink
C) sucking
D) palmar grasp
Answer: B
Page Ref: 107
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.10
101) In response to a stroke on her cheek near the corner of her mouth, newborn Azalea should
A) quickly close her eyelids.
B) suck rhythmically.
C) turn her head toward the source of stimulation.
D) fan her toes out and curl them as her foot twists in.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 107
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.10
102) When Baby Ian is held horizontally on his back, he sometimes makes an “embracing” motion by arching his back,
extending his legs, throwing his arms outward, and then bringing his arms in toward his body. Ian is demonstrating the
A) palmar grasp.
B) moro reflex.
C) tonic neck reflex.
D) Babinski reflex.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 107
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.10
103) Reflexes can help caregivers comfort a baby because they
A) are permanent, natural responses to stimulation.
B) remind the infant of its life in the womb.
C) reduce crying and promote sleep.
D) permit infants to control distress and amount of stimulation.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 107
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.10
104) Although newborns sleep more at night than during the day, their sleep–wake cycles are affected more by __________
than by __________.
A) fullness–hunger; darkness–light
B) darkness–light; wetness–dryness
C) wetness–dryness; fullness–hunger
D) wetness–dryness; darkness–light
Answer: A
Page Ref: 108
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.10
105) Baby Tyler’s limb movements are gentle. He stirs occasionally and facial grimacing occurs. Although his eyelids are
closed, occasional rapid eye movements can be seen beneath them. Tyler is most likely in which of the following states?
A) regular sleep
B) drowsiness
C) irregular sleep
D) quiet alertness
Answer: C
Page Ref: 108
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.10
106) Which of the following statements about REM sleep is true?
A) REM sleep is vital for growth of the central nervous system.
B) During REM sleep, the body is almost motionless.
C) REM sleep accounts for 20 percent of a newborn baby’s sleep time.
D) During REM sleep, the heart rate, breathing, and brain-wave activity are slow and even.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 108
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.10
107) Which of the following individuals is the most likely to experience the greatest percentage of REM sleep?
A) Sammy, a preschool child
B) Jake, a full-term newborn
C) Sarah, a teenager
D) Cheryl, a preterm newborn
Answer: D
Page Ref: 109
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.10
108) Newborn infants who are brain damaged or who have experienced birth trauma often
A) display disturbed REM–NREM sleep cycles.
B) cry less than those with no brain-functioning problems.
C) spend about 20 percent of their total sleep time in REM sleep.
D) have very low or inaudible cries.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 109
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.10
109) Early medical records of SIDS babies reveal

A) a family history of chromosomal abnormalities.
B) higher rates of prematurity and low birth weight, poor Apgar scores, and limp muscle tone.
C) they were born after their due date and had higher-than-average birth weights.
D) they often cried or whimpered in their sleep.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 110 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.10
110) __________ doubles the risk of SIDS.
A) Failing to tightly swaddle an infant during sleep
B) Using a pacifier
C) Placing an infant to sleep on his back
D) Maternal cigarette smoking
Answer: D
Page Ref: 110 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.10
111) Healthy babies often cry
A) at the sound of another crying baby.
B) in shrill, piercing tones.
C) because they are bored.
D) all night long.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 109
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.10
112) The strategy most Western parents first try to soothe a crying baby is
A) massaging the baby’s body.
B) offering a pacifier.
C) playing recorded womb sounds.
D) lifting the baby to the shoulder and rocking or walking.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 109
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.10
113) Swaddling newborns
A) increases crying.
B) hinders early motor development.
C) promotes an insecure attachment relationship.
D) reduces crying.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 109
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.10
114) Which of the following statements is supported by research on colic?

A) Colic is usually a sign of central nervous system damage.
B) Infants with colic tend to have persistent low-pitched cries.
C) Colic usually subsides between 3 and 6 weeks.
D) Newborns who react especially strongly to unpleasant stimuli are at risk for colic.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 111
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.10
115) __________ helps stimulate early physical growth and is vital for emotional development as well.
A) Sound
B) Pain
C) Touch
D) Taste
Answer: C
Page Ref: 112
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.11
116) What advice can you offer parents who want to reduce their newborn son’s discomfort during circumcision?
A) Offer a sugar solution while gently holding the baby.
B) Stimulate the Babinski reflex.
C) Newborns have a low sensitivity to pain, so interventions are unnecessary.
D) Play loud music to distract the baby.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 112
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.11
117) Which of the following statements is supported by research on newborn taste preferences?
A) Newborns cannot distinguish basic tastes.
B) Not until 4 months do babies prefer a salty taste to plain water.
C) Newborns prefer the taste of formula to breast milk.
D) Unlike adults, babies relax their facial muscles in response to sour tastes.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 112
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.11
118) The smell of __________ causes a relaxed, pleasant facial expression in newborns.
A) formula
B) coffee
C) chocolate
D) anise
Answer: C
Page Ref: 112
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.11
119) At birth, newborns prefer __________ to __________.

A) pure tones; noise
B) pure tones; complex sounds
C) pure tones; voices
D) complex sounds; pure tones
Answer: D
Page Ref: 113
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.11
120) Three month old Jefferson will probably listen longer to __________ than to __________.
A) pure tones; voices
B) pure tones; noises
C) human speech; nonspeech sounds
D) a foreign language; his native language
Answer: C
Page Ref: 113
Skill: Apply
Objective: 3.11
121) __________ is the least developed of a newborn baby’s senses.
A) Taste
B) Sound
C) Vision
D) Touch
Answer: C
Page Ref: 113
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.11
122) It takes about __________ months for color vision to become adultlike.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
Answer: B
Page Ref: 113
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.11
123) T. Berry Brazelton’s Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale evaluates
A) a newborn’s risk for developmental problems.
B) the baby’s ability to comply with parental commands.
C) the newborn’s reflexes, muscle tone, state changes, and responsiveness to stimulation.
D) the baby’s activity, alertness, and grimace.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 114
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.12
124) __________ provide the best estimate of a baby’s ability to recover from the stress of birth.
A) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale scores
B) Changes in neonatal assessment scores over the first week or two of life
C) Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale scores
D) Weight loss and weight gain
Answer: B
Page Ref: 114
Skill: Understand
Objective: 3.12
125) Around the time of birth, fathers who are in contact with the mother and baby often show
A) slight increases in estrogens.
B) slight decreases in prolactin.
C) moderate increases in androgens.
D) slight increases in androgens.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 115
Skill: Remember
Objective: 3.13
ESSAY
126) Describe major prenatal milestones during the second trimester of pregnancy.
Answer: Prenatal development is sometimes divided into trimesters, or three equal time periods. The second trimester
starts at the beginning of the fourth month. At the beginning of the second trimester, the external genitals are
well-formed, and the sex of the fetus can be detected with ultrasound. Other finishing touches appear, such as
fingernails, toenails, tooth buds, and eyelids. The heartbeat can be heard through a stethoscope.
By the middle of the second trimester, between 17 and 20 weeks, the new organism has grown large
enough that the mother can feel its movements. A white, cheeselike substance called vernix protects its skin
from chapping during the long months spent bathing in the amniotic fluid. White, downy hair called lanugo also
appears over the entire body, helping the vernix stick to the skin.
At the end of the second trimester, many organs are well-developed. Most of the brain’s billions of neurons
are in place; few will be produced after this time. However, glial cells, which support and feed the neurons,
continue to increase rapidly throughout the remaining months of pregnancy, as well as after birth. At the same
time, neurons begin forming synapses, or connections, at a rapid pace. Brain growth means new behavioral
capacities. The 20-week-old fetus can be stimulated as well as irritated by sounds. And if a doctor looks inside
the uterus using fetoscopy, fetuses try to shield their eyes from the light with their hands, indicating that sight
has begun to emerge. Still, a fetus born at this time cannot survive. Its lungs are immature, and the brain cannot
yet control breathing and body temperature.
Page Ref: 83–84
127) What is the most widely used potent teratogen? How does it affect prenatal development?
Answer: Teratogens are environmental agents that cause damage during the prenatal period. Currently, the most widely
used potent teratogen is a vitamin A derivative called Accutane (known by the generic name isotretinoin),
prescribed to treat severe acne and taken by hundreds of thousands of women of childbearing age in
industrialized nations. Exposure during the first trimester results in eye, ear, skull, brain, heart, and immune
system abnormalities. Accutane’s packaging warns users to avoid pregnancy by using two methods of birth
control, but many women do not heed this advice.
Page Ref: 87
128) Terra is Rh-negative and her husband, Marcus, is Rh-positive. Advise Terra about the consequences of this blood type
incompatibility.
Answer: Terra should know that when inherited blood types of mother and fetus differ, serious problems sometimes
result. The most common cause of these difficulties is Rh factor incompatibility, which occurs in situations like
Terra’s, when the mother is Rh-negative (lacks the Rh blood protein) and the father is Rh-positive (has the
protein). Because the father has the protein, the baby may inherit the father’s Rh-positive blood type. If even a
little of a fetus’s Rh-positive blood crosses the placenta into the Rh-negative mother’s bloodstream, she begins
to form antibodies to the foreign Rh protein. If these enter the fetus’s system, they destroy red blood cells,
reducing the oxygen supply to organs and tissues. Mental retardation, miscarriage, heart damage, and infant
death can occur. It takes time for the mother to produce Rh antibodies, so firstborn children are rarely affected.
The danger increases with each additional pregnancy. Fortunately, Rh incompatibility can be prevented in most
cases. After the birth of each Rh-positive baby, Rh-negative mothers are routinely given a vaccine to prevent
the buildup of antibodies.
Page Ref: 93
129) Describe the Apgar Scale, and explain how it is used.
Answer: The Apgar Scale rates an infant’s Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. Doctors and nurses
use the instrument to assess a newborn’s physical condition quickly. A rating of 0, 1, or 2 on each of the five
characteristics is made at 1 minute and again at 5 minutes after birth. A combined Apgar score of 7 or better
indicates that the infant is in good physical condition. If the score is between 4 and 6, the baby needs assistance
in establishing breathing and other vital signs. If the score is 3 or below, the infant is in serious danger and
requires emergency medical attention. Two Apgar ratings are given because some babies have trouble adjusting
at first, but do quite well after a few minutes. Apgar ratings are given as follows:
 Appearance (color) – 0 for blue body, arms and legs; 1 for pink body with blue arms and legs; 2 for
completely pink body. The skin tone of nonwhite babies makes it difficult to apply the “pink” color
criterion. But, newborns of all races are rated for pinkish glow resulting from the flow of oxygen through
body tissues.
 Pulse (heart rate) – 0 for no heartbeat; 1 for under 100 beats per minute; 2 for 100 to 140 beats per minute
 Grimace (reflex irritability—sneezing, coughing, and grimacing) – 0 for no response; 1 for weak reflexive
response; 2 for strong reflexive response
 Activity (muscle tone) – 0 for completely limp; 1 for weak movements of arms and legs; 2 for strong
movement of arms and legs
 Respiration (respiratory effort) – 0 for no breathing for 60 seconds; 1 for irregular, shallow breathing; 2 for
strong breathing and crying.
Page Ref: 98
130) What is kangaroo care? How is it used to foster development in preterm newborns?
Answer: Kangaroo care involves placing the infant in a vertical position between the mother’s breasts or next to the
father’s chest (under the parent’s clothing), so the parent’s body functions as a human incubator. In developing
countries where hospitalization is not always possible, skin-to-skin contact is the most readily available
intervention for promoting the survival and recovery of preterm babies. Because of its many physical and
psychological benefits, the technique is often used in Western nations as a supplement to hospital intensive
care. Kangaroo skin-to-skin contact fosters improved oxygenation of the baby’s body, temperature regulation,
sleep, breastfeeding, alertness, and infant survival. In addition, the kangaroo position provides the baby with
gentle stimulation of all sensory modalities: hearing (through the parent’s voice), smell (through proximity to
the parent’s body), touch (through skin-to-skin contact), and visual (through the upright position). Mothers and
fathers practicing kangaroo care feel more confident about caring for their fragile babies and interact more
sensitively and affectionately with them. It offers fathers a unique opportunity to increase their involvement in
caring for the preterm newborn. Because of its diverse benefits, more than 80 percent of U.S. hospitals now
offer kangaroo care to preterm newborns.
Page Ref: 103
131) Describe a newborn’s visual sensory capacity. How does a typical newborn respond to visual stimulation?
Answer: Vision is the least-developed of the newborn baby’s senses. At birth, visual structures in both the eye and the
brain are not yet fully formed. For example, cells in the retina, the membrane lining the inside of the eye that
captures light and transforms it into messages that are sent to the brain, are not as mature or densely packed as
they will be in several months. The optic nerve that relays these messages, and the visual centers in the brain
that receive them, will not be adultlike for several years. And the muscles of the lens, which permit us to adjust
our visual focus to varying distances, are weak.
As a result, newborns cannot focus their eyes well, and visual acuity, or fineness of discrimination, is
limited. At birth, infants perceive objects at a distance of 20 feet about as clearly as adults do at 600 feet. In
addition, unlike adults (who see nearby objects most clearly), newborn babies see unclearly across a wide range
of distances. As a result, images such as the parent’s face, even from close up, look quite blurred.
Although they cannot yet see well, newborns actively explore their environment by scanning it for
interesting sights and tracking moving objects. However, their eye movements are slow and inaccurate.
Although newborns prefer to look at colored rather than gray stimuli, they are not yet good at discriminating
colors. It will take about four months for color vision to become adultlike.
Page Ref: 113

Prenatal Development, Birth, and The Newborn Baby: Multiple Choice

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Prenatal Development, Birth, and The Newborn Baby: Multiple Choice

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CHAPTER 3

PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT, BIRTH, AND THE NEWBORN BABY

10) The amniotic fluid

30) In the last weeks of pregnancy,

35) Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is

40) The best-known effect of smoking during the prenatal period is

45) The more alcohol a woman consumes during pregnancy, the

85) Some form of medication is used in __________ percent of U.S. births.

95) Interventions that support parents of preterm infants

99) A __________ is an inborn, automatic response to a particular form of stimulation.

109) Early medical records of SIDS babies reveal

114) Which of the following statements is supported by research on colic?

119) At birth, newborns prefer to .

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