Avionics Training

For Systems, Installation and

Troubleshooting – First Edition

Answers to Review Questions

Chapter 1 The Meaning of Avionics

1.1 In the first solo across the Atlantic in 1927, how did Charles Lindbergh
keep control of the airplane while flying in clouds and darkness?
Answer Gyro-stabilized turn needle.

1.2 Name three instruments used by the Wright Brothers in their first flight that marked
the beginning of what would become “avionics”.
Answer: Wind speed, stopwatch, prop Counter

1.3 What generated power for Lindbergh’s earth-inductor compass?

Answer: Wind-driven anemometer atop the fuselage.

1.4 Why do airlines consider the following systems part of “avionics”: air conditioning,
fire detection, landing gear?
Answer: Because they now contain a large amount of electronics.

1.5 What technology was widely adopted in avionics to reduce size and weight, as well as
provide greatly increased function.
Answer: Digital electronics.

1.6 What system, made possible by digital electronics, greatly reduces the problem of mid-
air collisions?
Answer: Traffic Alert and Collision Warning System (TCAS).

1.7 What replaces early “steam gauges” in aircraft instrument panels?

Answer: EFIS, the Electronic Flight Instrument System.
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1.8 How can the function of an electronic instrument be easily changed?

Answer: Through software.

1.9 What does “CNI,” which describes basic functions of avionics, stand for?
Answer: Communications, Navigation, Interrogation.

1.10 What does the term “FADEC” mean?

Answer: Full Authority Digital Engine Control.

1.11 Name the world body that deliberates future aviation technology?
Answer: ICAO, International Civil Aviation Organization.

1.12 “Avionics” is a contraction of ________ and _________.

Answer: Aviation, electronics

Review Questions
Chapter 2 A Brief History
2.1 Radio frequencies are measured in Hertz (Hz), after Heinrich Hertz. What was his
contribution to communications?
Answer: He was the first to demonstrate radio waves in the laboratory.

2.2 What was the first system for marking cross-country airways? How was it limited?
Answer: Lighted beacons every ten miles. They were not visible through fog and clouds.

2.3 What was the first instrument to enable pilots to maintain control of an airplane
without seeing outside the cockpit?
Answer: Turn and Bank indicator .

2.4 What component led to the artificial horizon and autopilot? Name the developer of
these early systems.
Answer: Gyroscope. Elmer Sperry

2 5 What type of transmitter sent the first radio message from an airplane to the
ground?
Answer: Spark transmitter.

2.6 What was the first radionavigation system for guiding airplanes?
Answer: Four-course radio range

2.7 Who was the pioneer who flew the first instrument flight, sometimes known as “blind
flying,” in 1929?
Answer: Jimmy Doolittle

2.8 What system in Air Traffic Control replaced position reports by voice?
Answer: Radar surveillance.
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2.9 In 1980, manufacturers began designing airliners without a third crew member (the
navigator). What avionics development made it possible?
Answer: EFIS, the Electronic Flight Instrument System

Review Questions

Chapter 3 VHF Com

3.1 What frequencies define the Very High Frequency (VHF) band?
Answer: 30 - 300 MHz

3.2 What is the frequency coverage of the VHF com band?

Answer: 118 - 136.975 MHz

3.3 What is “splitting” channels?

Answer: Spacing them more closely within a band.

3.4 What development greatly reduces the number of voice reports on VHF com?
Answer: The VDR (VHF Data Radio), which sends digital messages.

3.5 What is the narrowest spacing for channels in the VHF com band?
Answer: 8.33 kHz

3.6 What is the purpose of a mic key line?

Answer: It turns on the transmitter when the microphone button is pressed.

3.7 A typical com radio has two frequency displays; one for the ______ frequency, the
other for the ________ frequency.
Answer: Active, stored.

3.8 What is the purpose of a squelch?

Answer: It quiets atmospheric noise when no signal is received

3.9 What function does the “com test” control provide?

Answer: It disables the squelch to determine if atmospheric noise is coming through the
receiver.

3.10 Where is the LRU (line replacable unit) for a com transceiver of a large aircraft
located?
Answer: In the electronics bay.

3.11 What is the benefit of a radio management system?

It eliminates many panel knobs and displays by concentrating them in a single control-display
unit.

3.12 What is the third VHF com radio of an airliner often used for?
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Answer: ACARS, the Aircraft Communication and Reporting System, which sends and receives
airline company messages.

Review Questions
Chapter 4 HF Com
4.1 Why are High Frequency communications not as reliable as those of VHF?
Answer: Constant changes in the ionosphere.

4.2 What is the advantage of “Autotune.”

Answer: It automatically matches a fixed-length HF antenna to any operating
frequency in the HF band.

4.3 Why is SSB (single sideband) more efficient than conventional AM radio?
Answer:It captures power wasted in the carrier and one sideband, and places it into the
remaining sideband.

4.4 What made HF datalink successful?

Answer: The HF radio automatically searches for the best signal from ground stations, a process
known as “sounding.”

4.5 What are three major components of an HF line-replaceable unit (LRU)?

Answer: Antenna coupler, power amplifier and receiver-exciter.

4.6 Name two advantages of HF datalink?

Answer: Lower pilot workload, short message transmission time

4.7 What is the purpose of an HF antenna coupler?

Answer: It matches the HF transmitter to the antenna for any frequency.

4.8 Where is the HF antenna mounted on many airliners?

Answer: The vertical tail fin.

Review Questions
Chapter 5 Satcom (Satellite Communications)
5.1 What are three advantages of satellite communications?
Answer: World-wide coverage, little effect from the ionosphere, less interference from
atmospheric noise.

5.2 What is the name of the next generation air traffic control system based on satellites?
Answer: FANS, Future Air Navigation System

5.3 How many Inmarsat satellites provide global coverage, and where are
they located?
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Answer: Four; Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, Atlantic Ocean East, Atlantic Ocean West.

5.4 Name two types of stations used in satellite communications.

Answer: GES (Ground Earth Station), AES (Aircraft Earth Station).

5.5 Name one advantage and one disadvantage of a low gain satcom antenna.
Answer: Advantage: inexpensive; disadvantage; handles data only.

5.6 What is an advantage and disadvantage of a high gain satcom antenna?

Answer: Advantage: handles all services; disadvantage: complex and expensive

5.7 What is a “conformal” antenna?

Answer: Antenna that fits the curve of the fuselage and protrudes only slightly from
the surface.

5.8 What is the term “Space Segment”?

Answer: Satellites in orbit.

5.9 After satellite messages are received at a Ground Earth Station, how do they get to
their final destination?
Answer: Through international telecommunications networks.

5.10 On what band does the aircraft send and receive satellite communications?
Answer: L-band, from 1.5 to 1.6 GHz.

5.11 What is the purpose of a Beam Steering Unit?

Answer: It keeps the aircraft antenna aimed at the satellite as the airplane changes position.

5.12 What is the typical location on the airplane for an electromechanically steered
antenna?
Answer: Inside the rudder cap.

5.13 Why do communications satellites appear to remain fixed in one position?

Answer: They are “geostationary,” meaning they orbit once per earth rotation (24 hours).
For this to occur, satellites must be “parked” over the equator at an altitude of 22,500 miles.

Review Questions
Chapter 6 ACARS
6.1 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “ACARS”?
Answer: Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System

6.2 What type of communications occur on ACARS?

Answer: AOC, for Airline Operational Control. It is also known as “company
communications” because it’s used between pilots and airline ground facilities.

6.3 Who operates ground and satellite services for ACARS?

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Answer: ARINC in the U.S.; SITA in Europe.

6.4 What is the meaning of the ACARS message, “OOOI”?

Answer: Out-Off-On-In

6.5 How is an ACARS message received only by the aircraft it’s intended for?
Answer ACARS transmits the address of the aircraft to receive the message.

6.6 What two bands carry ACARS services?

Answer: HF and VHF

6.7 What satellite-based system carries ACARS services worldwide?

Answer: GLOBALink.

Review Questions
Chapter 7 Selcal
7.1 What does the contraction “Selcal” mean?
Answer: Selective Calling

7.2 Give two reasons why Selcal is used?

Answer: It accepts messages from the ground addressed to the intended airplane. During
operation on the HF band, it quiets the receiver between calls.

7.3 How many tones are in a Selcal code?

Answer: Four

7.4 How many Selcal tone pairs are transmitted simultaneously?

Answer: Two

7.5 Can two aircraft have the same Selcal code?

Answer: Yes (because of a shortage of codes).

7.6 What precaution is necessary if a pilot receives a Selcal intended for a different
airplane?
Answer: The pilot should contact the ground station and report his identification.

7.7 How is the problem reduced where two aircraft have the same Selcal code?
Answer: The code is assigned to aircraft in widely separated regions of the world.

7.8 How is the pilot warned of an incoming Selcal message?

Answer: An audio alert (chime) and visual signal (lamp).

Review Questions
Chapter 8 ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter)
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8.1 What three radio frequencies are sent out by an ELT during a distress call?
Answer: 121.5 MHz, 243 MHz, 406 MHz.

8.2 Why must an ELT be mounted in line with the direction of flight?
Answer: To assure proper activation of the G-switch during a crash.

8.3 Name the satellites that pick up and relay ELT signals?
Answer: SARSAT (US) and COSPAS (Russia).

8.4 Name one method satellites use to locate a downed aircraft transmitting an ELT
signal.
Answer: They measure the Doppler shift of the signal during several passes over
the crash site.

8.5 Where do satellites relay the location of downed aircraft?

Answer: Ground stations, known as “Local User Terminals,” located around the world.

8.6 What is the most accurate method for identifying the location of an ELT signal, as
used in the 406 MHz system?
Answer: An ELT that broadcasts latitude and longitude, obtained from the aircraft GPS receiver.

8.7 What is the main benefit of registering ELT’s, giving aircraft ID, and ownership?
Answer: Authorities can do a telephone search to determine if it’s a false alarm, and
avoid a dangerous rescue mission.

8.8 How accurately can searchers locate a 406 MHz ELT coupled to a GPS source?
Answer: 300 feet or less.

Review Questions
Chapter 9 VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range)

9.1 What is the name of a combined VOR and Tacan navigational station?
Answer: Vortac

9.2 What problem of early radionavigation did VOR overcome?

Answer: Interference from natural and man-made sources.

9.3 VOR waves travel _________

Answer: Line of sight

9.4 Name the two major components of a VOR signal

Answe: Reference and variable phase.

9.5 The reference phase broadcasts in what direction?

Answer: All directions

9.6 The variable phase rotates _____ times per second.

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Answer: 30

9.7 What happens when the variable phase moves through magnetic north (0 degrees)?
Answer: The reference phase signal is at 0 degrees

9.8 How does the VOR receiver know its bearing from the VOR station?
Answer: It compares variable and reference phases. The difference is the bearing from
the VOR station in degrees.

9.9 Besides fixed and variable phase signals, what other information is broadcast by a
VOR station?
Answer: Morse code ID and voice.

9.10 Why is it necessary to place the reference phase signal on an FM subcarrier?

Answer: To keep it from mixing with the variable phase signal.

9.11 What is the purpose of the course deviation indicator (CDI) on a VOR receiver?
Answer: It gives left-right steering commands to the pilot.

Review Questions
Chapter 10 ILS (Instrument Landing System)
10.1 Name three markers along an ILS.
Answer: Inner marker, middle marker, outer marker

10.2 How is RVR (Runway Visual Range) measured on an ILS runway?

Answer: Tranmissometer

10.3 Name the categories of ILS

Answer: Cat. I, Cat II, Cat. III

10.4 What component of an ILS provides an extended centerline to the runway.?

Answer: Localizer

10.5 Name the ILS component that provides vertical guidance to a runway?
Answer: Glideslope

10.6 How many channels are allocated to localizers?

Answer: 40

10.7 The localizer frequency is selected on the _________ receiver.

Answer: VOR

10;.8 The frequencies of the two audio tones that provide left-right guidance on
a localizer are ______ and _____.
Answer: 90 Hz and 150 Hz.
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10.9 When a localizer frequency is selected on the VOR receiver, the indicator needle
becomes _______times more sensitive than for VOR navigation.
Answer: Four

10.10. The frequencies of the two audio tones that provide up-down guidance on
a glideslope are _______ and ______.
Answer: 90 Hz and 150 Hz (same as for the localizer).

10.11 The compass locator of an ILS is received on the ____________.

Answer: ADF receiver.

10.12 How are glideslope receiver frequencies selected?

Answer: They are automatically channeled when a localizer frequency is selected on the VOR
receiver.

10.13 What is the frequency for all marker receivers?

Answer: 75 MHz

Review Questions
Chapter 11 MLS (Microwave Landing System)
11.1 What were reasons for approving the Microwave Landing System?
Answer: Shortage of ILS frequencies, ILS course is limited to one runway,
ILS problems with obstructions in the terrain.

11.2 MLS creates inbound courses to runways by a scanning beam which

moves __________. This is called the _________ signal.
Answer: “To and fro.” Azimuth

11.3 Glidepaths are creating by a scanning beam which moves ______.

This is called the ________ signal.
Answer: Vertically. Elevation

11.4 How does an MLS scanning beam determine the centerline of a runway?
Answer: By measuring the time difference between “To and Fro” scanning beams.

11.5 Why are there so few MLS installations at airports?

Answer: Rapid development of GPS landing systems.

11.6 What type of receiver can use ILS, MLS and GPS signals?
Answer: Multimode receiver.

Review Questions
Chapter 12 ADF (Automatic Direction Finder)
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12.1 On what bands does ADF operate?

Answer: Low and Medium Frequency bands.

12.2 An ADF with a fixed compass card can only indicate _________
bearing to an NDB (non-directional beacon) station.
Answer: Relative

12.3 When the edge of an ADF loop points toward the station, strongest signal is
received. This is known as a _________.
Answer: Peak

12.4. When the flat side of the loop faces the station, the received signal is
weakest. This is known as a _______.
Answer: Null.

12.5 Which is used by the ADF receiver for determining direction, the peak or null? Why?
Answer: Null. Because it is sharper than the peak, and gives a more accurate bearing.

12.6 What is the purpose of a sense antenna?

It eliminates the second (ambiguous) null position, the one that points away from the station.

12.7 What is “quadrantal error.”

Answer: Distortion to the ADF signal by metal areas on the airplane.

12.8 How can the sense antenna be selected by the pilot?

Answer: By dialing the position marked REC (receive) or ANT (antenna).

12.9 How is direction-finding selected?

Answer Dial “ADF”.

12.10 What is the function of the switch marked “BFO” or “Tone”.

Answer: It activates the BFO (beat frequency oscillator). It’s needed for NDB stations that
do not transmit an ID as an audio signal. The BFO generates the audio tone.

12.11 What methods can reduce interference to ADF reception?

Answer: Shielded cables, filters, bypass capacitors and grounding.

12.12 What type of interference may occur from distant stations?

Answer: Night effect.

12.13 What device in an ADF receiver reduces the effect of metal masses on the airplane?
Answer: Quadrantal error corrector.

Review Questions
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Chapter 13 DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)

13.1 An airborne DME sends out a pulse known as an ____________.
Answer: Interrogation

13.2 DME is a component of a military system known as _________.

Answer: Tacan

13.3 A DME station is located as part of a _______ ground station. Together

they are known as a __________.
Answer: VOR. Vortac.

13.4 In addition to distance-to-station, an airborne DME computes________ and _______.

Answer: Ground speed, time-to-station.

13.5 A distance error in DME is called _________.

Answer: Slant range

13.6 A DME that searches for several DME ground stations is known as a ____________.
Answer: Scanning DME

13.7 All aircraft interrogating the same DME ground station are on the same
frequency. How does an aircraft identify its replies from all others?
Answer: Each aircraft sends pulses with a random spacing known as “jitter.” Its DME receiver
searches for pulses with its jitter pattern.

13.8 How is a DME station tuned in?

Answer: By selecting a VOR frequency. The correct DME frequency is automatically
selected, or “channelled.”

13.9. What happens when more than about 100 aircraft interrogate the same DME
ground station?
Answer: To avoid overload, the ground station reduces its receiver sensitivity. This excludes
interrogations of the most distant aircraft.

13.10 Why does the DME ground station delay its reply by 50 microseconds?
Answer: To avoid interference between outgoing interrogations and incoming replies when the
airplane is
close to the ground station.

13.11 Does the DME station transmit an ID?

Answer: Yes, an ID in Morse code is transmitted every 30 seconds.

Review Questions
Chapter 14 Transponder
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14.1 A transponder receives an ____________ from a ground station and transmits a

________.
Answer: interrogation, reply
14.2 The transponder operates in a system known as “SSR”. What do the letters mean?
Answe: Secondary Surveillance Radar
14.3 How is an airline transponder labelled?
Answer: ATC
14.4 How many digits are in a transponder ID code?
Answer: Four
14.5. What are two advantages of transponder signals over primary radar, or “skin”
return”?
Answer: Transponder replies carry data (aircraft ID and altitude). Replies are
strengthened thousands of times.
14. 6 The first secondary surveillance system is known as ____________. The improved
system is called ___________.
Answer: ATCRBS (Air Traffic Control Radiobeacon System). Mode S (Mode Select)
14.7 What is the main benefit of Mode S?
Answer: The controller can interrogate (address) a single aircraft, greatly reducing
the number of replies from other aircraft.
14.8 What transponder information is carried by Mode A? Mode C?
Answer: Mode A = Identification (“squawk” code). Mode C = Altitude
14.9 When a radar interrogator wants all aircraft in range to reply (ATCRBS
and Mode S), it transmits an ____________.
Answer: All Call

Review Questions
Chapter 15 Radio Altimeter

15.1 What is the main application of the radio altimeter?

Answer: Approach to landing in low visibility.
15.2 The radio altimeter measures ___________altitude.
Answer: Absolute
15.3 The altitude indicated by a radio altimeter is AGL. What do the letters mean?
Answer: Above Ground Level
15.4 What are three major components of a radio altimeter?
Answer: Transmitter, receiver, antenna
15.5 What is the carrier frequency of a radio altimeter?
Answer: 4300 MHz
15.6 What categories of approach require a radio altimeter?
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Answer: Category II and III

15.7 The carrier of a radio altimeter is frequency modulated, meaning
it moves _______ and ______ in frequency.
Answer: Up, down.
15.8 One factor in measuring radio altitude is the difference in frequency between
the _________ and _________ wave.
Answer: Transmitted, reflected
15.9 When are radio altimeters useful in helicopter operations?
Answer: Descending in darkness.

Review Questions
Chapter 16 GPS/Satnav

16.1 How many satellites are there in a GPS constellation?

Answer: 24

16.2 How many GPS satellites are active? How many are spares?
Answer: 24, 3
16.3 What is the European equivalent of GPS?
Answer: Galileo
16.4 Why don’t GPS receivers in airplanes require expensive atomic
clocks (like those in satellites) to measure time with high accuracy?
Answer: Satellites transmit accurate time to the receiver.
16.5 How does a GPS receiver identify a satellite?
Answer: The receiver already contains code patterns for the identity of all satellites. The
receiver “correlates,” or matches, the satellite signal with its stored code.

16.6 What is the term for a satellite’s identity?

Answer: Pseudorandom code.
16.7 How does a GPS receiver measure the time for the signal to travel
from satellite to receiver?

Answer: The receiver knows the time the signal was transmitted (from the
satellite message). The receiver compares this time with its internal clock time.
The difference is the transit time of the satellite signal.
16.8 How is distance determined between the GPS receiver and the satellite?
Answer: The time of signal travel is multiplied by 186,000 miles per second (the
speed of the radio wave.
16.9 GPS frequencies, or channels, are designated by the letter _____
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Answer: L
16.10 How many satellites are required for a three-dimensional fix (latitude, longitude and
altitude)?
Answer: Four
16.11. How many satellite frequencies are required to perform propagation corrections?
Answer: Two
16.12 What part of the satellite signal carries the satellite’s precise position in orbit?
Answer: Ephemeris

16.13 Name the three segments of the GPS system

Answer: Space Segment, User Segment, Command Segment
16.14 The Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) uses ground stations
and satelllites to ____________
Answer: To measure errors in signal propagation and transmit corrections to
GPS receivers in aircraft.
16.15 What is the advantage of LAAS (Local Area Augmentation System) over WAAS?
Answer: Greater accuracy than WAAS for precision landings.

16.16 What is the purpose of RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring)?

Answer: The receiver checks if there will sufficient satellites with good geometry to make a
safe instrument landing

Review Questions

Chapter 17 EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System)

17.1 What are two benefits EFIS?
Answer: It creates the image of any instrument, or combination). EFIS eliminates most
mechanical components
17.2 The EFIS screen directly in front of the pilot, which shows attitude instruments, is
called a _________.
Answer: PFD (Primary Flight Display)

17.3 The EFIS screen usually in the center of the instrument panel is the __________.
Answer: Multifunction display.
17.4 The center screen of a typical airline displays EICAS, which means __________.
Answer: Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.
17.5 An EFIS system can display BITE, which stands for ______________.
Answer: Built-in Test Equipment
17.6 The control yokes on recent Airbus aircraft are replaced by a sidestick controller.
Why?
Answer: Gives the pilot a better view of the instrument panel.
17.7 First-generation EFIS was based on cathode ray tubes. What replaced them?
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Answer: LCD (liquid crystal display).

17.8 Why are fewer spares required to maintain an EFIS system?
Answer: Most of the cockpit displays are interchangeable and are configured by software.
17.9 What can a pilot do if images fail to appear on his EFIS screen?
Answer: He can switch to sources from the co-pilot’s position.
17.10 Why is it easier to troubleshoot a problem in flight with an EFIS-equipped airplane?
Answer: Because of pictorial displays that show operation of a complete system.

Review Questions
Chapter 18 Cockpit Voice and Flight Data Recorders (CVR and FDR)

18.1 A CVR is required to record for _______ minutes before erasing and recording
again.
Answer: 30 in the U.S., 120 in other countries.
18.2 What is the purpose of an inertial switch?
Answer: To be sure power is removed after a crash and the recording is not erased.
18.3 Name the four audio channels into a CVR
Answer: Captain’s mike, First Officer’s mike, Public Address and Cockpit area mike
18.4 What is the purpose of the cockpit area mike?
Answer: It picks up crew voices, alarms, engines sound and mechanical noises..
18.5 The erase switch on a CVR works only ___________.
Answer: On the ground.
18.6 How long must an Underwater Locating Device send signals after an aircraft
ditches in the water?
Answer: 30 days
18.7 FDR’s for aircraft manufactured after 2002 must record up to ____ parameters.
Answer: 88
18.8 The solid-state FDR replaces tape storage with __________.
Answer: Solid-state memory.

. Review Questions

Chapter 19 Weather Detection

19.1 What is the greatest threat of a thunderstorm to an aircraft?

Answer: Turbulence.
19.2 On a weather radar display, what color indicates maximum hazard to an aircraft?
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Answer: Magenta
19.3 Weather radar detects storms by transmitting ________ of radio energy
and measuring their echoes from water droplets.
Answer: Pulses
19.4 Detecting turbulence in a storm is done by measuring echoes from the __________
movement of water droplets.
Answer: Horizontal
19.5 What is the normal use of the Tilt control?
Answer: It elevates the radar antenna to avoid receiving ground clutter.
19.6 What raises and lowers the radar antenna in a vertical direction for tilt control
Answer: Elevation motor.
19.7 What causes the radar antenna to scan left and right (horizontal motion)?
Answer: Azimuth motor.
19.8 How is the radar antenna stabilized as the airplane maneuvers through pitch and
roll?
Answer: Inertial reference, such as a gyro.
19.9 What is a typical frequency for an airborne weather radar?
Answer: 9.333 MHz.
19.10 Lightning detection systems are usually tuned to a frequency of _______.
Answer: 50 kHz
19.11 What is the most recent method for delivering weather images to the cockpit?
Answer: Transmitting images from ground radar to aircraft via satellite.
19.12 What is the purpose of a radome?
Answer: A nose cone that protects the radar antenna from the impact of rain, hail and other
airborne hazards.
19.13. Radomes must reduce radar power by no more than about ________.
Answer: 10 percent
19.14 Wind shear is a sudden change in wind ________ and is most dangerous near
the________.
Answer: direction or speed, ground
19.15 A dangerous form of windshear, which occurs over a small area, is known as
_________.
Answer: Microburst.
19.16 Windshear detection systems warn the pilot and also provide _____________.
Answer: Flight guidance out of the windshear condition.

Review Questions

Chapter 20 TCAS (Traffic Alert and Collision Warning System)

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20.1 A TCAS aircraft transmits an interrogation once per ______.

Answer: Second
20.2 How does an intruder aircraft with an ATCRBS (early type) transponder reply to
TCAS interrogations?
Answer: With Mode A (Ident) and Mode C (altitude) replies, the same as it would to an ATC
radar interrogation.
20.3 How does an intruder aircraft with a Mode S transponder reply to TCAS
interrogations?
Answer: With altitude and aircraft Mode S address.
20.4 How does TCAS determine the direction of a threat?
Answer: Directional antennas.
20.5 How does TCAS determine the distance of a threat?
Answer: BY measuring the time between its interrogation and the reply from the threat aircraft.
20.6 How does TCAS determine whether the other aircraft is a threat?
Answer: It determines the range rate (closing speed) between the two aircraft. If range rate is
constant, the two aircraft are on a collision course.
20.7 What is the concept of “Tau”.
Answer: TCAS will vary the warning time according to the closing speeds of the two aircraft.
For example; a slow-moving aircraft is recognized as a threat at a shorter distance. This
prevents excessive warnings from slow, distant aircraft.
20.8 Name the two kinds of warnings issued by TCAS.
Answer: TA, Threat Advisory and RA, Resolution Advisory.
20.9 Does a Threat Advisory (TA) command the pilot to maneuver out of the way?
Answer: No, the TA shows targets that could become a possible collision.
20.10 What does an Resolution Authority (RA) do?
Answer: It warns the pilot of high risk of a collision and commands him to fly up or fly down to
avoid it.
20.11 If two TCAS aircraft are closing, what prevents them from climbing,
and flying into each other?
Answer: Their Mode S transponders communicate on a datalink and coordinate maneuvers
before
issuing a Resolution Advisory. If one airplane is instructed to fly up, the other is commanded to
fly down.
20.12 What is the technique of ”whisper-shout”?
Answer: It’s designed to prevent overloading a TCAS with too many replies. TCAS begins
interrogations at very low power, triggering replies only from the closest aircraft and the most
sensitive transponder receivers. Once these replies are processed, TCAS raises power slightly to
trigger farther-out transponders. At the same time, it suppresses replies from the first group.
Interrogating power is raised in steps until all aircraft in the coverage area have replied. One
complete whisper-shout cycle happens once per second.
20.13 How does the directional antenna reduce the number of replies for each
interrogation?
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Answer: The directional antenna radiates interrogations within a 90-degree arc. After the
antenna
receives replies from transponders in that direction, the antenna pattern rotates another 90
degrees
and interrogates aircraft in that direction. The antenna, therefore, continuously rotates over four
90-degree arcs.

Review Questions

Chapter 21 Planning the Installation

21.1 Any major rebuilding of an instrument panel must conform to the airplane’s
__________.
Answer: Type Certificate (TC).
21.2 When installing new equipment critical to flight, the work must conform to a
_____________.
Answer: Supplemental Type Certificate (STC).
21.3 In planning a major avionics installation, it is important know under what
conditions the airplane will be flown. What are three general categories?
Answer: Day VFR (visual flight rules), night VFR, IFR (instrument flight rules).
21.4 What instruments are in the “Basic T” layout?
Answer: Airspeed, artificial horizon, altimeter, directional gyro.
21.5 Name two additional flight instruments for instrument flying?
Answer: Turn coordinator (turn and bank), vertical speed indicator.
21.6 Before beginning a wiring job, it’s helpful to locate and identify every ________.
Answer: Connector
21.7 Before wiring, determine the size and type of each wire
by referring to the ______ _________.
Answer: Installation manual.
21.8 Wire sizes are often described as “AWG”. What does it mean?
Answer: “American Wire Gauge.”
21.9 Is a ground wire always connected to the metal airframe?
Answer: No. Grounding points vary, so check the recommendations in
the installation manual.
21.10 When selecting a location on the instrument panel, what is
the consideration for viewing angle.
Answer: Check the manufacturer’s literature. He may require the display
to remain within a certain number of degrees of the pilot’s view.
21.11 What is the purpose of “nav audio?”
Answer: It enables the pilot to hear the Morse code or voice identifier on a
radionavigation station.
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21.12 What is a “keep alive” line?

Answer: It connects directly to the battery to maintain power to certain circuits
(like memories) when all other power is shut off.

Review Questions

Chapter 22 Electrical Systems

22.1 The primary electrical source in most airplanes is low voltage DC (direct current).
What are the two most common voltages?
Answer: 12 and 28 volts DC.
22.2 In a light aircraft, connection to the battery is completed by the ___________.
Answer: Master relay.
22.3 A heavy copper bar that distributes power to most electrical systems aboard the
airplane is called the ________ _______.
Answer: Main bus.
22.4 A heavy copper bar that distributes power only to radios and related equipment is
called the ________ ________.
Answer: Avionics bus.
22.5 Large aircraft distribute power in the form of alternating current (AC) at
________volts. The frequency is ________.
Answer: 115, 400 Hz.

22.6 What is the main purpose of an APU (auxiliary power unit) in a large aircraft?
Answer: To provide power while the airplane is on the ground, engines off.
22.7 What is the meaning of RATS, and how does it work?
Answer: Ram Air Turbine System. In the event of total electrical failure in flight, the ram air
turbine drops into the air stream and generates emergency power.
22.8 Why must switches have the ability to handle more current than required during
normal operation?
Answer: Because many devices draw a large inrush of current when first turned on.
22.9 What is the primary purpose of a fuse or circuit breaker?
Answer: To prevent wires from overheating, smoking or burning.

Review Questions
Chapter 23 Mounting Avionics

23. 1 Who should be consulted if an avionics installation will affect structures in the
airplane?
Answer: A Designated Engineering Representative (DER).
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23.2 What designation assures that a piece of equipment has high resistance to heat,
humidity and other environmental conditions of flight?
Answer: Technical Standard Order (TSO).
23.3 “Approved data” for an installation may be found in the _____________
Answer: Manufacturer’s installation manual.
23.4 When selecting aluminum for making structures, what label indicates resistance to
corrosion?
Answer: Alclad.
23.5 What are efficient methods for cutting odd-shaped instrument holes in an aluminum
panel?
Answer: A router or metal punch made for the purpose.
23.6 When mounting new equipment in an instrument panel or in the avionics bay of a
large aircraft, do not exceed the __________ and _________ limitations of the airplane.
Answer: Weight and balance.
23. 7 What are is a major advantage of ARINC cases in large aircraft?
Answer: They have standard sizes and accept avionics of different manufacturers.
23.8 What are the two basic types of Arinc cases?
Answer: ATR (for earlier, analog avionics) and MCU (for digital avionics).
23.9 What are two precautions when handling avionics that are sensitive to electrostatic
discharge (static electricity)?
Answer: Touch a ground (metal case) before touching connector pins. Use conductive covers
when transporting equipment.
23.10 What is the greatest threat to the life of avionics?
Answer: Overheating
23.11 What techniques are used in large and small aircraft to prevent overheating?
Answer: Air-cooled trays in large aircraft. Fans attached to radios in small aircraft.
23.12 When mounting a magnetic compass, always use ________ screws to
avoid___________in the compass.
Answer: brass, deviation

Review Questions
Chapter 24 Connectors

24.1 What is a major cause of failure when newly-installed equipment is first powered up?
Answer: Connector pins incorrectly wired.
24.2 What is one of the most common RF (radio frequency) connector types?
Answer: BNC
24.3 Soldering wires to connectors has mostly been replaced by ___________
Answer: Crimping
24.4 Pins are released from a connector with a ___________ tool.
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Answer: Removal tool.

24.5 Shrink-tubing is installed with a _______ ______.
Answer: Heat gun.
24.6 What is the purpose of a safety wire (also known as a “lock wire”)?
Answer: To prevent hardware from loosening under vibration.
24.7 How can the shield of a coaxial cable be repaired?
Answer: With a solder sleeve.

Review Questions

Chapter 25 Wiring the Airplane

25.1 Hazardous areas for wiring on large aircraft are known as “SWAMP.” What does it
mean?
Answer: Severe Wind and Moisture Problems.
25.2 What type of wire should never be used for new work on an airplane?
Answer: Wire with PVC insulation.
25.3 Why are stranded wires preferred over solid wire for aircraft?
Answer: Stranded wire absorbs vibration more easily.
25.4 What type of insulation is found on wire used in many aircraft today?
Answer: Tefzel
25.5 As the AWG number for a wire size goes up, the wire diameter _________.
Answer: Decreases
25.6 Which wire has the larger diameter; OO or 36?
Answer: OO
25.7 (A) Is it permissible to use wire of greater diameter than required? (B) Are there
disadvantages?
Answer: (A) Yes (B) Larger wire takes up more space, is heavier and may not fit in connectors.
25.8 What is the most important rule for selecting wire size and type?
Answer: Follow the avioncs manufacturer’s recommendation.
25.9 Unshielded wires are more susceptible to picking up or radiating ___________.
Answer: Electrical interference.
25.10 What should you avoid when stripping insulation from wire?
Answer: Nicking the wire, which causes a break if the wire bends several times.
25.11 How many splices may you insert in a length of wire running between two terminals?
Answer: One
25.12 Why should a wire be labelled every 15 inches along its length?
Answer: Troubleshooting at a later time is much easier.
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25.13 What two types of cables should be kept apart to avoid interference?
Answer: Cables that carry strong alternating or pulse-type currents should be separate from
cables which carry low-level signals.
25.14 Why is it important to keep wire bundles from touching aircraft structures?
Answer: Vibration will cause chafing that rubs away insulation
25.15 Why should wiring be supported away from the bottom of the fuselage?
Answer: Moisture accumulates there.
25.16 Every wire entering a connector must have some form of __________ to prevent it
from breaking out of the connector.
Answer: Strain relief
25.17 A wiring harness should run 6 inches or more above or below lines that carry fuel,
oxygen, alcohol or hydraulic fluid?
Answer Above
25.18 Before grounding a wire to the airframe, what steps will insure a good ground?
Answer: The area on the airframe should be clean, and free paint and corrosion.
25.19 What is the purpose of a service loop?
Answer: It enables a radio to slide out of its case and provide hand access to the rear
connectors.

Review Questions
Chapter 26 Aviation Bands and Frequencies

26.1 A radio wave travels at the rate of ____________.

Answer: 186,000 miles per second (the speed of light).
26.2 Aircraft communication frequencies between 118-137 MHz are in the _______band.
Answer: VHF (Very High Frequency)
26.3 Satellite navigation, on approximately 1.5 GHz (1500 MHz) are in the _______ band.
Answer: UHF (Ultra-High Frequency)
26.4 What problems made lower-frequency bands---VLF, LF and MF----difficult to use in
aviation?
Answer: They are very susceptible to natural and man-made interference.
26.5 Frequencies in the HF band are able to “skip” long distances. What is the name of the
HF signal that leaves the antenna, reflects off the ionosphere and returns to earth?
Answer: Skywave
26.6 How many kilohertz (kHz) equal 3 MHz (megahertz)?
Answer: 3000
26.7 Frequencies below the Medium Frequency Band mainly travel via ___________
waves.
Answer: Ground
26.8 The localizer frequency in an ILS system operates within the band 108.3 to 111.95
MHz. How are localizer frequencies assigned within the band?
 23

Answer: On odd tenths Megahertz, such as 108.3, 108.5 108.7, 108.9, etc.

Review Questions
Chapter 27 Antenna Installation

27.1 What is the meaning of an arrow symbol on an antenna?

Answer: Some antennas are directional. The arrow shows the mounting direction. The arrow
usually must be parallel to the centerline of the airplane and pointing toward the nose.
27.2 Why should antennas never be painted?
Answer: The paint coating may electrically detune the antenna and cause losses.
27.3 (A) What does VSWR mean? (B) What does it measure?
Answer (A) Voltage Standing Wave Ratio. (B) It shows antenna efficiency.
27.4 What is an “omnidirectional” antenna pattern?
Answer: One that radiates equally in all directions.
27.5 What is antenna “impedance.”
Answer: It is the electrical load of the antenna. Standard impedance for aircraft antennas is 50
ohms.
27.6 The matching device which connects a VOR antenna to its coaxial cable is called a
________.
Answer: Balun
27. 7 What is a poor location for an antenna?
Answer: In line with, and behind, an exhaust pipe.
27.8 What is a major difference between antennas for aircraft that cruise below 200 kt and
aircraft that fly above that speed?
Answer: High-speed aircraft require sturdier antennas, which are usually encased in a plastic
housing.
27.9 To avoid interfering with each other, antennas should be located at least ______inches
apart.
Answer: 36
27.10 Before mounting a new antenna, check the area inside the airplane for ______
______, and _________.
Answer. Wiring harnesses, lines and structural members.
27.11 What is the purpose of a doubler plate?
Answer” To strengthen the antenna mounting area.
27.12 How many ohms of resistance indicate a good electrical bond between antenna base
and the airframe?
Answer: Resistance should not exceed .003 ohms.
27.13 What is the function of an antenna coupler?
Answer: To split the signal from one antenna for two or more receivers.
27.14 Do not locate a GPS antenna on the cabin roof immediately behind the windshield.
Why?
 24

Answer: The GPS antenna will pick up electrical charges generated on the windshield.

Review Questions

Chapter 28 Panel Labels and Abbreviations (Not applicable)

Review Questions

Chapter 29 Test and Troubleshooting

29.1 A frequent problem in avionics occurs when the pilot sets switches _____________.
Answer: To the wrong position.
29.2 If there are no nearby NDB (non-directioal beacon) stations or compass locators, an
ADF may be given a quick check by tuning to ___________.
Answer: A local AM broadcast station.
29.3 When checking an antenna, the VSWR (voltage standing wave ratio) should be less
than:
Answer: 2.5:1
29.4 The power output of a transmitter is measured by an ____________.
Answer: RF wattmeter.
29.5 A quick test of whether a com receiver is working is to disable the squelch (often with
the “Test” button) and listening for _________.
Answer: Background (atmospheric) noise.
29.6 What is a major cause of an inoperative transmitter?
Answer: Broken wire leading to the push-to-talk button.
29.7 How can you check if a DME is being correctly channeled by the VOR receiver?
Answer: If channeling is OK, you can hear the DME Morse code identifier in the headphone or
speaker.
29.8 When can an ELT be tested?
Answer: Only during the first five minutes of the hour.
29.9 What should you check first when the glideslope indication is missing or weak.
Answer: Antenna and coaxial cable connections. Good bonding to ground.
29.10 Damage from lightning strikes may be reduced by ______________.
Answer: Very low resistance between cable shields and ground. Keeping corrosion out of
grounding or bonding points.
29.11 If the transponder code is incorrect, check for ____________
Answer: correct code selection, and if a code knob is stuck between two digits.
 25

29.12 What is a common problem if the transponder is reported to be “identing” at the

wrong time?
Answer: A short in a yoke switch.
29.13 Name three ways a VOR receiver can be checked for accuracy without a ramp tester
Answer: VOT (VOR test facility), VOR receiver checkpoint and comparing two VOR
receivers.
29.14 What are (A) the cause and (B) the cure for “windshield wiper” movement of a
VOR needle?
Answer: (A) Propeller or rotor modulation of the signal. (B) Be sure the antenna is located
according to the manufacturer’s recommendation, make small changes in engine RPM, in
helicopters use a receiver filter from the avionics manufacturer.
29.15 What should you suspect when a radio cuts out when airplane climbs?
Answer: Th radio case is loose and slipping out of its rear connector.
29.16 How do you reduce noise from Precipitation (P) static?
Answer: Replace worn or broken static wicks (also known as “static dischargers). Be sure the
base of the static wick is well grounded.

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