Material Testing MCQ

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1. Subdivision/layout plan which shall be drawn on a scale of not less than _______
a) 1:100
b) 1:500
c) 1:1000
d) 1:50
Answer: b
Explanation: As per National Building Code, scale for Layout plan is specified as 1:500. In this plan, the location of
all proposed and existing roads, dimensions of plot along with building line, locations of sewer and drainage line etc
. are mandatory.
2. The plan of the buildings and elevations and sections accompanying the notice shall be drawn to a scale ________
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a) 1:10
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b) 1:50
c) 1:100
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d) 1:500
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Answer: c
Explanation: This plan includes floor plans which shows the use or occupancy of all parts of the building. Hence the
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se parts needs to be large enough for the engineers to understand well. Therefore NBC have a specified scale of 1:10
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0.
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3. A ___________ line usually parallel to the plot boundaries and laid down in each case by the Authority, beyond
which nothing can be constructed towards the site boundaries.
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a) Building line
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b) Control line
c) Property line
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d) Plot line
Answer: a
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Explanation: Building line or Set-back is provided to avoid traffic congestion in front of the building. Buildings like
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mall, multi-complexes, factories, etc. which attract a large number of vehicles, should have be set-back a further dist
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ance apart from the building line. This line after this extra margin is called as Control Line.
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4. The ratio of the total floor area inclusive of all the floors to the area of the plot on which building stands is known
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as ___________
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a) Groundage
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b) Plot area
c) Floor area
d) Built-up area
Answer: d
Explanation: It is also known as the Floor Space Index (FSI) or Floor Area Ratio (FAR). The value of built-up area i
s determined by local authorities and it may be different for different areas for different buildings of the town. Floor
area means built up area excluding area of walls.
5. The aggregate area of doors and windows shall not be less than ___________ of the floor area of room.
a) 1/10
b) 1/9
c) 1/7
d) 1/6
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Answer: c
Explanation: As per IS code, if the area is less than the specified area, occupants of the building will not receive eno
ugh lighting and ventilation. The area of such openings excluding area of doors should be minimum 1/10 of the floo
r area for dry-hot climate and minimum 1/6 of the area for wet-hot climate.
6. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in proper correlation of their functions and in due proximity w
ith each other is known as ___________
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Circulation
d) Grouping
Answer: d
Explanation: Grouping is the proper arrangement of rooms according to their functions leads to better planning of a
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building. It is observed that grouping leads to saving in unnecessary movements, proper correlation, easy control an
d overall economy.
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7. The term ____________ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the building.
_Q
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
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c) Elegance
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d) Roominess
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: Prospect is dictated by the surrounding peculiarities of the site of the project. This can help us to conce
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al some unwanted views and reveal the beauty of the building.
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8. The area on the earth which lies between the zones of cancer and Capricom is known as the _______
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a) Tropic zone
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b) Frigid zone
c) Torrid zone
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d) Arctic zone
A
Answer: a
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Explanation: Topic zone lies between zone of cancer (i.e. 231/2 degree north latitude) and Capricom (i.e. 231/2 degr
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ee south latitude). The typical features of tropical countries are burning sun, fixed seasons and rainfall which is heav
y, moderate and with storm.
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9. Landscape architecture comes under in which principle of planning?

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a) Function
b) Form
c) Aesthetic
d) Elegance
Answer: c
Explanation: Aesthetic plays major role in architectural landscaping. It includes the appearance of the building and o
verall beauty. Whereas function and form are both same which deals with the utility of the rooms according to their f
unctions.
10. When building bye-laws came into force?
a) April 1984
b) July 1983
c) April 1983
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d) July 1972
Answer: a
Explanation: Building bye-laws came into force on April 1984. This local law was framed by the subordinate author
ity. Its specifications are designed to minimum safeguard to the workers during construction; to the health and comf
ort of users; and to provide enough safety to the public in general.
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1. Burnings sun, fixed seasons and rainfall which is heavy, moderate and with storm are the typical features of ____
___
a) Cancer zone
b) Capricom zone
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c) Torrid zone
d) Tropical zone
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Answer: d
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Explanation: The area on earth which lies between the zone of cancer and Capricorn is known as the tropics. Whole
part of India is considered to be typically tropical climate.
_Q
2. The tropical climate which consists of heat waves hot winds and low humidity comes under which climatic condit
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ions?
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a) Hot-wet
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b) Hot-dry
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c) Cool-dry
d) Rainy
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Answer: b
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Explanation: Hot-dry places are cool in winter. The maximum day temperature in summer will be about 27°C to 42°
C and the night temperature will be moderate to say about 15°C to 25°C.
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3. Which city of Maharashtra experiences Hot-dry climatic conditions.

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A
a) Nagpur
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b) Hyderabad
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c) Mumbai
d) Nashik
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Ahmedabad, Nagpur and similar other places situated away from the coastal regions are the typical exa
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mple of experiencing hot dry climate. These regions are famous for the highest temperature records in India during s
ht
ummer season.
4. Which type of climate consists of high humidity throughout the year and even in the dry season with variations in
day and night temperatures?
a) Hot wet
b) Hot dry
c) Cool dry
d) Rainy
Answer: a
Explanation: The temperature ranges in the hot season and cold season or 25°C to 30°C and 10°C to 22°C respective
ly. Bombay which is situated near the sea is a typical example of experiencing hot wet or humid climate.
5. The data regarding temperature, moisture, timings of sunset and sunrise and direction of wind are collected and pr
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eserved by ____________
a) Bureau of Indian Standards, New Delhi

b) Meteorological Department of the Ministry of Commerce, Govt. of India
c) Indian Institute of Weather Forecasting and Research Centre
d) National Institute of Technology
Answer: b
Explanation: Meteorological Department of the Ministry of Commerce, Govt. of India works throughout the year an
d records every data possible. They predict the future climatic conditions by comparing the past records of 10 to 15
years. This department has recognised the following four seasons of the year: Cool-dry, Hot-dry season, General Rai
ny season, Season of the Retreating South-West Monsoon.
6. From the given climatic conditions which have its worst effects on the building structure in India.
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a) Dust storm
b) Humidity
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c) Heavy rain
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d) Hot summer days
Answer: c
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Explanation: Every year due to heavy rain huge destruction of building materials takes place. Mumbai itself invests
more than Rs.10000 crore maintenance and repair of buildings.
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7. Which building material have high Seismic resistance and flexibility of nailed joints.
_B
a) Bamboo
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b) Timber
c) Ply
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d) Husk
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Answer: b
Explanation: As long has materials and workmanship are of good quality, timber structures can perform very well in
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an earthquake. A wooden frame is usually considered to have medium to low vulnerability towards earthquake.
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8. Pyramids are the best example of ___________

A
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a) Flood Resisting structure

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b) Dust storm Resisting structure

c) Insulating structure
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d) Earthquake resisting structure

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Answer: d
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Explanation: Triangle is the most stable geometric structure. Hence, the pyramids are very well designed and can sus
ht
tain for long periods. Along with durability, these structures can withstand severe weather conditions like earthquake
.
9. Which is the most important advanced technique of earthquake resistant design and construction?
a) Flexible steel form

b) Reinforced concrete
c) Base Isolation
d) Steel strengthening Treatment
Answer: c
Explanation: Along with energy dissipation devices, Base Isolation technique is most advanced which isolates the st
ructure by a series of bearing pads. This bearing pads absorbs maximum shocks develop due to seismic activity.
10. The temperature at the _______ is the highest and it is lowest at the ____________
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a) longitude, latitude
b) poles, equator
c) north, south
d) equator, poles
Answer: d
Explanation: India is in the Tropics zone and hence there is a temperature gradient from equator to poles and depend
ing upon the latitude of the locality, its temperature range can be decided.
1. _____________ used to mean the regulation of admitting more or less sunshine in the room.
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a) Elegance
b) Roominess
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c) Circulation
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d) Aspect
Answer: d
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Explanation: The meaning of aspect has now been given wider scope and it includes the arrangement of doors and w
indows in the external walls of buildings particularly of residential buildings, so as to fully enjoy the natural gifts of
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sunshine, Breeze, scenery, etc.
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2. The term ____________ is used to mean the link or access or movement between the various rooms and floors of
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building.
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a) Flexibility
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b) Prospect
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c) Circulation
d) Elegance
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Answer: c
Explanation: The proper provision of circulation makes the building comfortable and convenient. The circulation in
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a building is of two types- Horizontal circulation and Vertical circulation.

A
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3. _____________ is used to indicate the architectural effect produced by elevation in relation to width, height positi
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on of doors and windows, materials employed in the construction of external walls, etc.
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a) Furniture requirements
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b) Elegance
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c) Roominess
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d) Grouping
Answer: b
Explanation: The result of elegance is aesthetics and without the aesthetics sense, the elevation will be devoid of ele
gance. For creating elegant structures, it is necessary to understand clearly the principles of architectural design and
composition.
4. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in a proper correlation of their functions and in due proximity
with each other is known as ____________
a) Sanitation
b) Prospect
c) Economy
d) Grouping
Answer: d
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Explanation: Correct grouping grants the status of a balanced design. For instance, in a residential building, kitchen
and dining room should be grouped close to each other. It is observed that grouping leads to saving in unnecessary
movements proper correlation easy control and the overall economy.
5. One of the important requirements of good planning is ____________
a) Privacy
b) Furniture requirements
c) Prospect
d) Roominess
Answer: a
Explanation: Privacy offers special comfort to the occupants. It should not be confused as it is the total isolation and
is desirable only in certain cases as study rooms, library, etc. Privacy is of two types- External privacy and Internal p
rivacy.
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6. The term _____________ is used to refer the effect derived from space of a room that is its length, width and heig
nt
ht.
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a) Prospect
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b) Sanitation
c) Privacy
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d) Roominess
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Answer: d
Explanation: Roominess is nothing but the feeling of spaciousness. The planning of room should be such that maxim
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um benefit is obtained from the minimum dimensions of the room. For example, rectangle shaped room looks more
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spacious than square shaped room of same area.
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7. As a principle of planning, the term _______ is used to mean architectural hygiene.

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a) Sanitation
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b) Drainage
c) Water supply
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d) Waste water
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Sanitation comprise of drainage system and water supply. It includes proper sanitation of waste water a
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long with its treatment and supply to the major pipelines.

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8. Due to improper ventilation, which gas gets stuck into house and develops dizziness to the occupants.
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a) Oxygen
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b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: If the room is not properly ventilated, there will be excessive quantity of carbon dioxide in the air. The
more the amount of carbon dioxide, the more difficult is the breathing. For comfortable working, the carbon dioxide
content should be limited to about 0.6% by volume.
9. The proper and sufficient ventilation results in absence of _________
a) Condensation
b) Deposition
c) Precipitation
d) Circulation
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Answer: a
Explanation: The difference of temperature between the outside air and the inside air tends to the deposition of moist
ure on the room surfaces. This is known as the condensation and it can be effectively controlled by the provision of s
uitable ventilation of the room.
10. The ________ is required to control dust and other impurities in the air.
a) Circulation
b) Sanitation
c) Ventilation
d) Purification
Answer: c
Explanation: Controlling dust and other impurities from coming into the building is the main cause of insisting prop
er ventilation in the commercial buildings. The ventilation is also required to suppress odours, smoke, the concentrat
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ion of bacteria, etc.
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_Q
1. Construction of cavity walls as external walls to protect the building from the outside heat or cold as the hollow s
pace between two walls act as an ________
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a) Burning material
b) Insulating material
_B
c) Destructive material
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d) Building material
Answer: b
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Explanation: Properly insulated building cuts down the cost of electric burning in summer as well as in winter. Cavit
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y walls are one of the types of thermal insulation which consists of two walls with cavity in between them.
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2. __________ in a building means the free passage of clean air in a building.

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a) Habitation
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b) Protection
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c) Sanitation
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d) Ventilation
Answer: d
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Explanation: Ventilation is essential in every building. The main cause of insisting proper ventilation in the industria
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l buildings is to control dust and other impurities from entering into the building rooms.
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3. Which gas leads to suffocation and dizziness to the occupants when an increase in its quantity in the air.
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: d
Explanation: If the room is not properly ventilated, there will be an excessive quantity of carbon dioxide in the air. It
is observed that breathing is difficult when the amount of carbon dioxide by volume is about 6% and a man loses co
nsciousness when it reaches about 10% or so.
4. The termite, which are responsible for the destruction of wooden materials, are popularly known as _______
a) Red ants
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b) White ants
c) Black ants
d) Big ants
Answer: b
Explanation: There are over 2300 species of termites but only about 4% of the termite spaces are responsible for the
damage of the buildings. The termites live in a colony and they are very fast in eating wooden and other cellulosic m
aterials as food.
5. The science which deals with the sound insulation in a building is known as ___________
a) Reverberation
b) Transmission
c) Acoustic
d) Air borne
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Answer: c
Explanation: The terms sound insulation all soundproofing is used to indicate the reduction in the level of sound wh
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en it passes through a building component. Acoustics becomes very essential in some buildings like cinema hall, Au
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ditorium, Opera House, etc.
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6. Fire extinguisher extinguishes the small fires in the house bye using ___________
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a) Carbon dioxide
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b) Nitrogen gas
c) Water
_B
d) Foam
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Answer: a
Explanation: Standards of fire safety or fire extinguishers are specified in the Building Code should be provided wit
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h sufficient and quick fire exit. Fire extinguishers are one of the important building requirements which helps in exti
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nguishing small fires.

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7. The process in which the difference of temperature between the outside air and the inside air tends to the depositio
n of moisture on the room surfaces is known as ____________
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A
a) Saturation
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b) Accumulation
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c) Precipitation
d) Condensation
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Answer: d
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Explanation: The temperature difference which leads to condensation can be effectively controlled by the provision
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of suitable ventilation of a room.

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8. The treatment given to the roof of a building to prevent the roof from the leakage of water is known as _________
a) Fire proofing
b) Damp proofing
c) Termite proofing
d) Sound proofing
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the basic requirements in case of all the buildings is that the structural should remain dry as far
as possible. If this condition is not satisfied, it is likely that the building may become inhabitable and hence damp pr
oofing or water proofing is required.
9. _________ is a flexible material which is commonly used for the damp proofing.
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a) Hot bitumen
b) Bituminous felts
c) Mastic asphalt
d) Metal sheets
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to its physical nature, hot bitumen remain flexible even after cooling and it is placed on the beddin
g of concrete or mortar. This material should be applied with a minimum thickness of 3 mm. Whereas Mastic Aspha
lt is a semi rigid material and it forms and excellent impervious layer for damp proofing.
10. Which one of the given below is a chemical insecticide for termite proofing?
a) Dieldrin
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Rodenticide
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d) Pyrethrins
Answer: a
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Explanation: Dieldrin is a chlorinated hydrocarbon. The application of this chemical serve as a chemical barrier bet
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ween the building and the ground and this method has proved to be most effective method of termite proofing. Wher
eas, Rodenticide is used for killing rats.
_Q
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1. The part of a building constructed below ground level is known as _________
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a) Plinth
b) Superstructure
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c) Basement
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d) Foundation
Answer: d
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Explanation: Foundation is laid below the ground level and it is in direct contact with sub-strata and transmits all the
loads to the sub-soil. The structure below the ground level is also known as Substructure or Foundation (excluding
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plinth).
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2. The load of the structure distributed by the foundation is __________

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a) Concentrated
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b) Varying
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c) Uniform
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d) Eccentric
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Answer: c
Explanation: The foundation is laid below the ground in such a way that a load of the structure is uniformly distribut
ed to the ground to make the structure stable.
3. For loose soil, the formula used to find the minimum depth of foundation is given by _______
a) Rankine’s formula
b) Hiley formula
c) Bernoulli’s formula
d) Newtonian formula
Answer: a
Explanation: The depth of foundations can also be obtained by drawing the lines of angles 45 degrees and 60 degree
s from the base of the foundation towards ground level. Hence to simplify the method, Rankine formula is used.
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4. The foundation in which the loading on the soil remains practically the same after the construction of the building
is known as _______
a) Step foundation
b) Grillage foundation
c) Raft foundation
d) Inverted arch foundation
Answer: b
Explanation: Grillage foundation or Floating foundation is so adjusted that the weight of the excavated earth is just e
qual to the total load of the building. In such a case, the settlement is reduced to a minimum extent.
5. _________ method of increasing the bearing power of soil becomes very useful when the load coming on the soil
is practically uniform.
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a) Raft foundation
b) Grillage foundation
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c) Mat foundation
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Raft foundations are very useful in the soil which is of yielding nature that is soft clay or reclaimed soil
. The raft is designed as an inverted RCC roof with uniformly distributed load of the soil pressure and supported by
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walls, beams and columns.
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6. When the ground is sloping _____________ foundations are used to correct the levels of the sloping ground on w
_B
hich the building is to be constructed.
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a) Shallow foundation
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b) Combined foundation
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c) Cantilever foundation
d) Steeped foundation
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Answer: d
Explanation: Stepped foundation is adopted when the construction becomes uneconomical to provide foundations at
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the same level. In this, minimum depth of 800 mm should be provided at all the points.
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7. Which type of foundation is used for the construction of building on black cotton soil?
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a) Inverted arch foundation

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b) Floating foundation
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c) Mat foundation
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d) Grillage foundation
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Answer: c
Explanation: Black cotton soil is clay or loose type of soil and is considerably swells and shrinks by variation in moi
sture content. The variation in the volume of the soil is to the extent of 20 to 30% of the original volume. Hence, Raf
t Foundation or Mat Foundation plays important role in uniform distribution of a load of structure over black cotton
soil.
8. ________ is applied to the process of laying down certain lines and marks on the ground before the excavation of
foundation trenches.
a) Ground tracing
b) Surveying
c) Dumpy level
d) Digging
Answer: a
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Explanation: The sitting out or Ground tracing is mainly done for two purposes- firstly, the excavation of foundation
trenches can be started immediately after this process is completed and secondly, the lines and marks established by
this process serve as a guide.
9. If the foundation of the structure is to be divided into two or more independent units ________ are provided to tak
e care of unequal settlement.
a) Construction joints
b) Mechanical joints
c) Slip joints
d) Connecting joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Slip joints are situated on the boundary of independent units and they help in localising the effect of un
equal settlement in affected portion of the structure only.
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10. A common footing provided for two or more columns is known as _________
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a) Continues footing
b) Combined footing
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c) Cantilever footing
d) Eccentric footing
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Answer: b
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Explanation: Combined footing becomes useful when an exterior column is situated near the boundary line of the pl
ot and it is not possible to project its footing symmetrically on both sides.
_B
es

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1. The part of the building above the ground level and up to the floor level immediately above the ground is known a
s __________
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a) Plinth area
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b) Formation level
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c) Ground level
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d) Plinth
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Answer: d
Explanation: Plinth is therefore defined as the portion of the structure between the surface of the surrounding ground
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and surface of the floor, immediately above the ground. Plinth is an important component of building which prevent
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s crawling animals, water and other insects from coming inside the building.
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2. The built up area measured and the plinth level is known as __________
a) Total area
b) Plinth area
c) Plot area
d) Floor area
Answer: b
Explanation: Plinth area is nothing but the build-up covered area measured at the floor level.
3. What should be the average height of plinth?
a) 300-500 m
b) 1-2 m
c) 300-450 mm
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d) 50-100 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally the plinth level is provided at about 300 to 400 mm above finished ground level. It is suggest
ed that plinth level should be decided by considering the top level of the ground and hence considering the level.
4. In a market area, the plinth area should not exceed __________ of the area of site.
a) 75%
b) 25%
c) 95%
d) 55%
Answer: a
Explanation: As per regulations, the plinth area should not exceed 75% of the area of commercial sites, provided suf
ficient off-street parking facilities for loading and unloading of vehicles are provided on the same plot as the buildin
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g.
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5. The ____________ provides support to the occupants, furniture, fixtures and equipments of a building.
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a) Plinth
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b) Ramp
c) Floor
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d) Lifts
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Answer: c
Explanation: Different floors divide the building in two different levels to provide more accommodation on a given
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plot of land. The floor of a building immediately above the ground is known as the ground floor.
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6. _________ is known as Substructure of the building.

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a) Plinth
b) Trenches
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c) Foundation
d) Footing
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Answer: c
A
Explanation: Superstructure is the part of the building constructed about the plinth level. Foundation, plinth, baseme
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nt, ground level, etc. comes under Superstructure.

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7. The height of the Plinth should not be less than __________

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a) 45 cm
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b) 20 cm
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c) 1 m
d) 500 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Indian Standards, the minimum height for the Plinth is 45 cm. The height of the plinth de
pends upon architectural elevation, ground level, highest flood level, etc.
8. The portion below the plinth level is known as ____________
a) Plinth area
b) Superstructure
c) Sub-structure
d) Formation level
Answer: c
Explanation: Substructure or foundation is the lower portion of the building which lies below the plinth level. Substr
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ucture transmits loads of the superstructure to the supporting soil.
9. Foundations are more susceptible to ____________
a) Settlement
b) Corrosion
c) Fracture
d) Shocks
Answer: a
Explanation: Settlements is most commonly seen in foundation which are within the permissible limits, without caus
ing cracks in the superstructure and soil does not fail in shear.
10. The word Plinth is derived from ___________
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a) Latin
b) Greek
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c) Spanish
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d) Polish
Answer: b
_Q
Explanation: In architecture, a Plinth (from Greek plinthos, “brick”) is the base or platform upon which a column, pe
destal, statue, monument or structure rests.
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_B
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1. _______ is the part of building constructed above the plinth level.
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a) Superstructure
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b) Substructure
c) Foundation
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d) Plinth
Answer: a
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Explanation: Superstructure is constructed of above the plinth level which consists of RCC walls and columns, uppe
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r floors, sills, Lintels, etc. Whereas, substructure is a part of building constructed below the plinth level which consis
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ts of foundation plinth, etc.

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2. In order to secure superstructure from an earthquake ________ technique is most preferred and used worldwide.
/
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a) Reinforcement
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b) Base Isolation
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c) Energy Dissipation
d) Sesmic Dampers
Answer: b
Explanation: Base Isolation technique separates the building from the building foundation by wearing pads. It consis
ts of lead rubber bearing or spherical sliding isolation system. In case of an earthquake, fix base building deform and
damaged, whereas base isolated building rocks back and forth like a boat and reduce the shock by 60%.
3. In old times, the construction of superstructure was done by using _________ building material.
a) Rubber
b) Bamboo
c) Mud
d) Timber
Answer: d
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Explanation: Timber floor consists of Plank of wood with 25 mm thickness which is supported by joist with size of
50 mm×75 mm to 100 mm. Timber was most preferred building material as compared to bamboo as Timber was che
ap and easily available.
4. __________ wall is constructed in order to support load other than its own.
a) Load supporting
b) Load distributing
c) Load bearing
d) Load releasing
Answer: c
Explanation: Load bearing walls support all loads before transferring them to the foundation the wall thickness is not
money not less than one break or 215 mm. This wall also uses reinforcement Steel bars to strengthen its position.
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5. In architecture _________ refers to such super-structural element that also has certain proportional and decorative
features.
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a) Beam
b) Column
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c) Lintels
d) Sills
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Answer: b
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Explanation: Early columns were constructed of stone, some out of a single piece of stone, usually by turning on a la
the-like apparatus. Single piece columns are among the heaviest stones used in architecture. Modern columns are co
_B
nstructed out of Steel, precast concrete, or brick.
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6. ________ are structural members design to carry and transfer transverse loads across space to support elements.
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a) Beams
b) Columns
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c) Lintels
d) Sills
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Answer: a
A
Explanation: A beam is a structural element that is capable of withstanding load primarily by resisting bending. The
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bending force introduced into the material of the bean as a result of external loads, own weight and external reaction
t.m
s to these loads is called a bending moment.

/
7. In architecture, a _________ is generally the lower horizontal surface of a room, and/or the supporting structure u
s:/
nderneath it.
tp
ht
a) Sill
b) Basement
c) Ramp
d) Floor
Answer: d
Explanation: A floor typically consists of a support structure called a sub-floor on the top of which is laid a floor cov
ering to provide a working surface. The floor is actually constructed above the plinth.
8. ______ is the top most part of building which provides covering to the entire assembly and the occupants.
a) Roof
b) Ceiling
c) Coping
d) Parapet wall
16 / 405
Answer: a
Explanation: Roof is one of the most important building structures which provides safety and protect occupants from
sun light, storms and rain. Basic types of a room designs are Flat roof, Shed roof, Gable roof, Hip roof, etc.
9. __________ is special material used to make sure that no moisture leaks in those areas of a roof that are particular
ly vulnerable to penetration.
a) Dampers
b) Flashing
c) Ceramic
d) Wax
Answer: b
Explanation: Flashing is a strip of metal used to stop water penetrating the junction of a roof with another surface. A
reas where flashing is commonly used: where roofs meet walls, wherever the roof is pierced by a Chimney, skylight,
um
air or plumbing vent.
nt
10. ________ is the structural method to maintain the favourable room temperature in every season of the year.
ua
a) Condensation
_Q
b) Damping
c) Air conditioning
ks
d) Insulation
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: Because hot air rises, roof lose more heat than walls and does require greater degree of insulation. The
_B
re is a multitude of different locations for the insulation in a roof such as resting above ceiling, attached between raft
es
ers, between substrate and roofing, etc.
ot
_N

TU
1. A square pit, known as _________ with side as about 1.50 m, is excavated upto a depth at which sufficiently hard
soil is available.
K
A
a) Test pits
e/
b) Probing
t.m
c) Test piles
d) Deep boring
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: Using Trail pits or Test pits, various Tata of the soil can be inspected, studied and classified accordingl
tp
y. This method is useful when hard soil is available within a maximum depth of 1.50 metre.
ht
2. _________ consists of driving either a hollow tube or a steel rod or an iron rod into the ground.
a) Trail pits
b) Test piles
c) Probing
d) Digging
Answer: c
Explanation: In Probing, a hollow tube of diameter 35 mm to 50 mm is taken. The tube is driven into the ground 300
mm or so at a time. It is then withdrawn and the material caught in the slit is inspected.
3. The ____________ is the term used to denote a method in which case is driven into the ground and the material in
side the casing is washed out and brought to the surface for inspection.
17 / 405
a) Deep boring
b) Percussion boring
c) Rotary drilling
d) Wash boring
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of wash boring consists in driving an inner tube of diameter 25 mm to 50 mm, inside an ou
ter tube of diameter 100 mm to 150 mm. Whereas, percussion boring and rotary drilling are the types of Deep boring
.
4. Identify the given diagram below.
a) Percussion machine
b) Rotary drilling machine
c) Electrical resistivity method
um
d) Seismogram
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: In this process, a hollow tube is driven by rotary motion which cuts solid core. The water is used to fac
ua
ilitate the cutting process. The machine can be used either for soft or hard material.
_Q
5. The method in which 4 electrons are driven in the ground at equal distance apart and in a straight line upto a depth
which the ground distance is to be measured.
ks
oo
a) Seismic refraction method
b) Geophysical method
_B
c) Electrical resistivity method
es
d) Current extraction method
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: This method is based on the principle that each soil has different electrical resistivity, depending upon i
_N
ts water content, compaction and composition. For instance, the saturated soil will have lower electrical resistivity as
compared to the loose dry gravel or solid rock.
TU
6. The number of blows required to drive the penetrometer into the ground through a distance of 300 mm is measure
K
d which is known as _____________ of the soil.

A
e/
a) Standard penetration resistance

t.m
b) Bearing power of soil

c) Maximum safe bearing capacity
/
d) Allowable bearing pressure

s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The bearing capacity and the other engineering properties of certain types of soil are they known by ref
ht
erring to the curves correlating Standard Penetration Resistance or SPT and the corresponding characteristics of soil.
The values of SPT of soil and different depths are determined.
7. The resistance of the soil with depth is measured by means of a tool known as the _______
a) Seismometer
b) Potentiometer
c) Penetrometer
d) Ammeter
Answer: c
Explanation: The penetrometer is used under static or dynamic loading which may consist of a sampling spoon, a co
ne or tool of other shape. The penetrometer is driven in the ground with the help of blows from a 650 N weight fallin
g from a height of 750 mm.
18 / 405
8. Identify the given diagram below.
a) Post-hole auger
b) Screw auger
c) Shell auger
d) Rod
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of the tube is about 1.50 M and it is provided with a Jaws at the end so that it can be suitabl
y explore or dig the ground easily. The auger is work by applying leverage at the top.
9. The shock waves so produced travel down in the sub soil strata and get reflected after striking a hard rock surface
below and recorded by the instrument known as ___________
a) Microphone
um
b) Geophone
c) Receiver
nt
d) Sensors
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: A number of geophones are arranged along a line. Some of the waves, known as direct or primary wav
_Q
es, are picked first buy Geophones. The Other waves which travel down through the soil get reflected after striking a
hard rock surface below.
ks
oo
10. What is the average depth of a Test pit?
_B
a) 10 m
es
b) 2 m
c) 1.50 m
ot
d) 15 m
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: Test Pit is excavated up to a depth about 1.50 m at which sufficiently hard soil is available. The various
TU
data of soil can be inspected, studied and classified accordingly. This method is useful when hard soil is available w
ithin a maximum depth of 1.50 m.
K
A
e/

t.m
1. _________ is used to indicate the maximum load per unit area which the soil will resist safely without displaceme
/
nt.
s:/
tp
a) Bearing power
ht
b) Maximum safe bearing capacity

c) Strength of soil
d) Allowable bearing pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The Load of the structure is ultimately coming on the soil and hence it is of utmost importance to know
the strength and behaviour of the soil. Dividing the ultimate bearing power of soil by a factor of safety, the safe bear
ing capacity of soil is obtained.
2. The term _________ on soil is used to indicate the maximum pressure which can be exerted on soil while taking i
nto account shear failure, settlement and the ability of structure to resist settlement.
a) Bearing capacity
b) Net pressure intensity
c) Allowable bearing pressure
19 / 405
d) Maximum safe bearing capacity
Answer: c
Explanation: The value of Allowable Bearing Pressure on soil depends on the nature of ground and the type of build
ing. The maximum safe bearing capacity of soil is generally more than the allowable bearing pressure on soil.
3. The maximum differential settlement should not exceed ___________ mm in case of foundation on sandy soil.
a) 100
b) 40
c) 50
d) 25
Answer: d
Explanation: The total amount of settlement should be generally limited between 40 mm and 100 mm. The term diff
erential settlement indicates the relative settlement of the adjacent portion of the structure.
um
4. The maximum differential settlement should not exceed __________ mm in case of foundation on clayey soil.
nt
ua
a) 40
b) 25
_Q
c) 100
d) 50
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: For ordinary frame structures of concrete, the permissible angular distortion is 1/500 i.e. one horizontal
to 500 vertical and the desirable value is 1/1000 i.e. one horizontal to 1000 vertical. The term angular distortion is u
_B
sed to indicate the deformation of the structure in a vertical plane.
es
5. The maximum safe bearing capacity of hard rocks with defects and lamination such as granite, diorite and trap is
ot
___________ kN/m2.
_N
a) 1650
TU
b) 3300
c) 250
K
d) 100
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: The term maximum safe bearing capacity of soil is used to indicate the maximum pressure that is soil c
t.m
an be here without any risk of shear failure only, irrespective of any settlement that may occur.
/
6. The maximum safe bearing capacity of very soft, wet, pasty or muddy clay is __________ kN/m2.
s:/
tp
a) 150
ht
b) 100
c) 50
d) 25
Answer: c
Explanation: As the given soil is very soft, wet, muddy clay, the soil possess very least minimum safe bearing capaci
ty. This is because, this soil possess very less intermolecular attraction between the molecules hence it has low beari
ng capacity.
7. In case of non-cohesive soils such as sand and gravel ___________ reduction in allowable bearing capacity of the
soil should be applied, if the water table is situated below or near the bearing surface of the soil.
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 80%
20 / 405
d) 100%
Answer: b
Explanation: However, if water table is situated below the bearing surface of the soil at a depth equal to the width of
the foundation trench, no such reduction should be applied. But in this case, 50% reduction is applied. For intermedi
ate depths of the water table, the proportion and percentage reduction should be applied.
8. Identify the method given below for the determination of the bearing power of soil.
a) Plate load test method

b) Electrical resistivity method
c) Seismic refraction method
d) Geophysical method
Answer: a
Explanation: Plate load test method is one of the methods of determination of bearing power of soil. Plate load test
um
method is the improved point method and it is widely used for determination of the bearing capacity. Other methods
for determination are the method of loading, method of dropping weight, analytical methods and Presumptive metho
nt
d.
ua
9. In which method, a square steel plate is used to determine the bearing power of soil.
_Q
a) Plate load test
ks
b) Method of loading
oo
c) Analytical method
d) Penetration test
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: In method of loading, a square steel plate is used whose size depends on practical conditions and it gen
erally varies from 3000 mm2 to 7500 mm2. The plate should have sufficient thickness to with stand the maximum b
ot
ending stresses due to probable loading.

_N
10. The bearing capacity of soil is calculated in ______ units.

TU
a) gm/cc
K
b) kg/m3
A
c) kN/m2
e/
d) N/m
t.m
Answer: c
Explanation: The bearing capacity of soil is calculated as the maximum load divided by the total area of steel plate i.
/
e. Bearing Capacity = max. Load ÷ area of steel plate and the unit is N/m2 or kN/m2.
s:/
tp
ht
1. For determining the bearing capacity of soil, in method of loading the size for a square steel plate used is about __
______
a) 300 mm2 to 750 mm2

b) 3000 mm2 to 7500 mm2
c) 3 m2 to 75 m2
d) 3 mm2 to 75 mm2
Answer: b
Explanation: In method of loading comma the size of square steel plate generally variance from 3000 mm2 to 7500
mm2. The plates should have sufficient thickness to with stand the maximum bending stresses due to probable loadi
ng. But in no case, it should be less than 25 mm.
21 / 405
2. In method of loading, which material is used for loading?
a) Wooden pegs
b) Square steel plate
c) Sand bags
d) Rocks
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of banks full of sand or arrange on the rolled Steel section. The sand bag is on the platfor
m till the settlement of the ground ceases or stops. The loading should be applied without shock or impact at the cent
re.
3. The bearing capacity of sandy soil and gravelly soils is affected to the extent of ___________% by the presence o
f water table.
um
a) 50
b) 10
nt
c) 25
ua
d) 80
Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: If the water table is above the foundation level, the water should be pumped out before placing the stee
l plate. If water is made with at a depth of one metre below the level of the foundation level, the load test should be c
ks
arried out at that level.
oo
4. Due to the adjustment of soil particles under the action of loading, there is some settlement at zero loading, this is
_B
known as the ___________
es
a) Bearing capacity
ot
b) Safe bearing capacity

_N
c) Vibroflotation
d) Zero correction
TU
Answer: d
Explanation: Zero correction is obtained from the load settlement curve. The zero correction should be deducted fro
K
m the observed settlements to get the actual settlements.

A
e/
5. The loading to the test plate is applied with the help of ______
t.m
a) Sand bags
/
b) Hydraulic jack
s:/
c) Wooden pegs
tp
d) Hard rocks
ht
Answer: b
Explanation: In the plate load test, the hydraulic Jack is preferably provided with the remote control pumping unit. T
he reaction of the hydraulic jack is borne either by the gravity loading platform method or by the reaction truss meth
od.
6. In analytical methods, which soil parameters used to determine the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil?
a) Angle of internal friction

b) Permeability
c) Adhesion
d) Porosity
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of internal friction and Cohesion are the soil parameters which are used in analytical method to
determine the ultimate bearing capacity of soil. The samples, preferably of undisturbed soil, are collected from the b
22 / 405
ore holes or test pits and various test are then carried out in the soil testing laboratory for the purpose of analytical an
alysis of the soil.
7. In Penetration test, the formula obtained for the safe bearing capacity of soil per unit area is given by?
a) R÷{A×F}
b) R-{A×F}
c) R+{A×F}
d) R×{A×F}
Answer: a
Explanation: Safe bearing capacity of soil per unit area = R÷{A×F} where R is equals to ultimate resistance of soil,
A = 2 cross sectional area of the substance, F equals two factor of safety. The results obtained by this method are ap
proximate and hence this method is used for minor engineering structures.
um
8. Identify the method given below.
nt
a) Plate load test
ua
c) Analytical method
_Q
d) Penetration test
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: Plate load test is the improved refined method and it is widely used for determining the bearing capacit
oo
y of soil for important civil structures. Specifically, this method is plate load method with gravity loading par platfor
m which consists of loading of sand bags.
_B
es
9. Identify the method given below.
ot
a) Penetration test
_N
c) Plate load test
TU
d) Analytical method
Answer: a
K
Explanation: Method of dropping a weight or Penetration test is used when a substance of non weight is dropped fro
A
m a known height. The date of the impression made by the weight on the soil is noted. Then the bearing capacity of
e/
soil is worked out.

t.m
10. Which method for determining the bearing power of soil is most preferred among the given below?
/
s:/
a) Method of loading
tp
b) Plate load test

ht
c) Penetration test
Answer: b
Explanation: Plate load test is the improved refined method and it is widely used for determining the bearing capacit
y of soil for important civil engineering structures. This method can be carried out in two ways: gravity loading platf
orm method and reaction Truss method.
1. Stone columns are invariably used in which soil.
a) Poor bearing capacity

b) Strong bearing capacity
23 / 405
c) Low bearing capacity
d) Very poor bearing capacity
Answer: a
Explanation: It is normally used in soft inorganic soils. Stone columns are essentially a method of soil reinforcement
in which soft cohesive soil is replaced at discrete points by compacted stone or crushed rock in pre bored vertical ho
le to form columns or files within the soil.
2. The construction of which piles proves to be very useful in case of sandy soil or soft.
a) Cast iron pile

b) Sand pile
c) Steel pile
d) Timber pile
Answer: b
um
Explanation: These piles are formed by making holes in the ground and then filling the holes by sand. If sand is kept
confined, it possesses great crushing strength and becomes incompressible.
nt
ua
3. The movement of soil under the action of load can be prevented by confining the ground by use of _________
_Q
a) Steel pile
b) Sand pile
ks
c) Timber pile
oo
d) Sheet pile
Answer: d
_B
Explanation: When the sheet piles are used in such ground, it will result in the increase of bearing power of soil. The
es
wooden sheet piles are commonly used for the temporary work such as cofferdams. They usually consists of woode
n boards 80 mm to 150 mm thick, 200 mm to 300 mm wide and 2 metres to 4 metres long.
ot
_N
4. Identify the given pile below.

TU
a) Steep pile
b) Sand pile
K
c) Sheet pile
A
d) Timber pile
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Shown above is a typical sand pile. The sand piles are placed at 2 metres to 3 meters, usually under the
column of the structure. Load test should be carried out to determine the bearing capacity of sand pile.
/
s:/

tp
ht
a) Sand pile
b) Sheet pile
c) Timber pile
d) Steel pile
Answer: c
Explanation: Figure given above is a Timber pile. At the bottom, a cast iron shoe is provided at the top, a steel plate
is fixed. If a group of timber piles is driven, the top of each member of the group is brought at the same level and the
n, a concrete cap is provided to have a common platform.
6. Identify the given Sheet pile below.
a) Arch web sheet pile

b) R.C.C. sheet pile
c) Straight web sheet pile
24 / 405
d) Timber sheet pile
Answer: d
Explanation: The bottom of timber sheet pile is chamfered so as to form a cutting edge and if necessary, both top an
d bottom are provided with suitable iron fittings. They usually consist of wooden boards 80 mm to 150 mm thick, 20
0 mm to 300 mm wide and 2 m to 4 m long.
a) Concrete sheet pile

b) Corrugated sheet pile
c) Z-type sheet pile
d) Timber sheet pile
Answer: a
Explanation: Concrete sheet piles are square or rectangular in cross section and they are driven side by side so as to f
um
orm a continuous wall. The weight of precast RCC piles varies from 500 mm to 600 mm and the thickness varies fro
m 20 mm to 60 mm.
nt
ua
_Q
a) Universal joist steel sheet pile
b) Z-type steel sheet pile
ks
c) Corrugated steel sheet pile
oo
d) Built up type steel sheet pile
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: The given figure shows a universal joint Steel sheet pile. These piles consist of I-beams connected by s
es
tandard clutches or lock bars. But its flanges are curved so as to accommodate the flanges of I beams as shown in gi
ven figure.
ot
_N

TU
a) Timber pile
b) Concrete pile
K
c) Composite pile
A
d) Screw pile
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: Composite pile is formed when it is a combination either of a bored pile and driven Pile or of driven pil
es of two different materials. In this combination, the advantage is taken of the durability of concrete piles and the c
/
heapness of timber piles.

s:/
tp
10. The commercial method which combines the effect of vibration with jetting is known as _______
ht
a) Flooding
b) Ramming
c) Vibration
d) Vibroflotation
Answer: d
Explanation: Vibroflotation is very useful especially when the foundation is required to support heavy loads spread
over a great area. In this method, a heavy cylinder known as Vibroflot is inserted in the ground while the cylinder vi
brates due to a Rotary eccentric weight.
1. A spread is given under the base of a wall or common is known as ________

25 / 405
a) Piles
b) Pier
c) Footing
d) Plinth
Answer: c
Explanation: Such spread is known as footing and the foundation is known as spread footing. Footing which contain
s steps or off sets and it is also referred to as the step footing. If the wall rests directly on foundation concrete withou
t any step, it is known as the simple footing.
2. What is the value of angle of response for clay(dry) soil.
a) 10°
b) 45°
um
c) 30°
d) 60°
nt
Answer: c
ua
Explanation: The depth of footing should also be such that the rate of angle of spread of the load from the wall base t
o the outer edge of ground bearing does not exceed the permissible value.
_Q
3. Identify the given type of foundation below.
ks
oo
a) Stepped foundation
b) Single foundation
_B
c) Sloped foundation
es
d) Shallow foundation
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: If the wall raised directly on foundation concrete without any step, it is known as the simple footing or
_N
single footing. In this case, the load of the wall is directly subjected to the footing without any step distribution and
hence mostly affected by central buckling.
TU

K
A
e/
b) Shallow foundation
t.m
c) Sloped foundation
d) Single foundation
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: The above given figure contains steps or offsets and it is also referred to as the stepped footing. Such ty
tp
pe of footing are commonly used in the small buildings or single storey buildings in which load is distributed step wi
ht
sely into the ground.
b) Deep foundation
c) Single foundation
d) Sloped foundation
Answer: d
Explanation: Above given figure shows sloped footing for an RCC column or pier. It is an type of Shallow Foundati
on which is commonly used for the piers of bridges with shallow depth below in water.
6. Which Foundation is used when the wall carries light loads or when the safe bearing pressure is very high?
26 / 405
a) Simple Strip footing
b) Simple pad footing
c) Grillage footing
d) Strap footing
Answer: a
Explanation: In that case, a simple strip footing is provided. The wall directly rest on the concrete base, and no maso
nry offset are provided since spread is not required.
a) Combine footing
b) Grillage footing
c) Strap footing
d) Wall footing
um
Answer: c
Explanation: A strap putting comprises of two or more footings of individual columns, connected by a beam, called
nt
as a strap. The function of the strap been is to transfer a load of heavily loaded outer column to the inner one.
ua
8. Identify the type of foundation below.
_Q
a) Compaction pile
ks
b) Anchor pile
oo
c) End bearing pile
d) Sheet pile
_B
Answer: c
es
Explanation: End bearing pile is used to transfer load through water or soft soil to a suitable bearing stratum. Such ty
pes of foundations are used in clay soil or marshy soil.
ot
_N

TU
a) Fender pile
b) Batter pile
K
c) Tension pile
A
d) Friction pile
e/
Answer: d
t.m
Explanation: Friction pile are used to transfer loads to a depth of a friction load carrying Material by means of skin f
riction along the length of piles. Such Foundation is used where hard Strata is not available to a certain depth below
/
the soil.
s:/
tp
10. Identify the given foundation below.

ht
a) Anchor pile
b) Dolphin pile
c) Tension pile
d) Sheet pile
Answer: a
Explanation: It is an type of deep foundation. Anchor piles provide Anchorage against horizontal pull from sheet pili
ng other pulling forces. Whereas, sheet piles are commonly used as bulkheads, or as impervious cut off to reduce see
page and uplift under hydraulic structures.
11. Identify the given deep foundation below.
a) Tension pile
b) Compaction pile
27 / 405
c) Batter pile
d) Friction pile
Answer: a
Explanation: Tension pile or uplift pile anchor down the structures subjected to uplift due to hydrostatic pressure due
to over turning moment. Such foundations are always under very high tension and hence need to be laid very carefu
lly.
12. Identify the missing data.
a) Fender pile
b) Batter pile
c) Uplift pile
d) Bulkhead
Answer: b
um
Explanation: The batter piles are used to resist large horizontal or incline forces. It is an type of miscellaneous piles
and used in combination with sheet pile.
nt
ua
_Q
1. ________ foundation is provided for heavily loaded Timber column or masonry wall.
ks
oo
a) Steel grillage
b) Timber grillage
_B
c) Raft
es
d) Inverted arch
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: Timber Grillage Foundation uses Timber planks and Timber beams in the place of Steel joists. This Fo
_N
undation is specially useful in waterlogged areas where the bearing power of soil is very low.
TU
2. In the case of waterlogged area, the loading on the soil is limited to __________ KN/m2.
K
a) 10-20
A
b) 160-200
e/
c) 600-800
t.m
d) 50-60
Answer: d
/
Explanation: Water logged areas have very low bearing capacity of soil. Hands to overcome this we cannot use steel
s:/
beams which may get corroded due to subsoil water therefore Timber grillage Foundation is preferred.
tp
ht
3. Identify the given foundation below.
a) Timber grillage foundation

b) Steel grillage foundation
c) Raft foundation
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber grillage foundation consists of two layers of wood planks comma separated by rectangular secti
ons of timber placed at right angle to the direction of the wall.
4. A _________ foundation is a special type of isolated footing, generally provided for heavy loaded steel structure s
pecially in those location where bearing of soil is poor.
a) Raft
28 / 405
b) Grillage
c) Inverted arch
d) Combine
Answer: b
Explanation: Grillage Foundation is very useful where bearing of soil is poor. The depth of foundation is limited fro
m 1 m to 1.5 m. The load of column is distributed or spread to a very large area by means of layers of joists.
5. _____________ is the method of increasing the bearing power of soil when load coming on the soil is practically
uniform.
a) Grillage Foundation
b) Raft foundation
c) Inverted arch foundation
d) Mat foundation
um
Answer: b
Explanation: The raft is design as an inverted RCC roof with uniformly distributed load of soil pressure and support
nt
ed by walls, beams and columns. This method consists of providing and RCC slab of suitable thickness and with nec
ua
essary reinforcement with help in increasing the bearing power of soil.
_Q
6. Identify the given Special foundation below.
ks
a) Grillage Foundation
oo
b) Mat foundation
_B
d) Raft foundation
es
Answer: d
Explanation: The design of raft foundations require careful attention. Usually, the raft is so shaped and proportioned,
ot
wherever possible, that the centre of gravity of the imposed load is vertically under the centre of area of bearing gro
_N
und.
TU
7. _______ consist of constructing the inverted arches between the piers.

K
a) Grillage foundation
A
b) Raft foundation
e/

t.m
d) Combine foundation
Answer: c
/
Explanation: The inverted arch should be set in cement mortar. The rise of the inverted arch is about 1/5th to 1/10th
s:/
of the span and the inverted arch is invariably built in half brick rings.
tp
ht
8. _________ foundation is suitable for the structures such as bridges, reservoirs, supports for drainage lines, tanks,
etc.
a) Raft
b) Inverted arch
c) Grillage
d) Stepped
Answer: b
Explanation: Inverted arch foundation is a method of spreading the weight over a large area is not common for the c
onstruction of foundations of buildings. Hence this method is applicable for the structures of large projects like bridg
es.
9. The ________ foundations are useful for public buildings, office buildings, School buildings, residential quarters,
etc.
29 / 405
a) Raft
b) Grillage
c) Inverted arch
d) Concentrated
Answer: a
Explanation: Raft foundation is the method of increasing the bearing power of soil becomes useful especially when t
here is a large number of openings on ground floor in a structure.
10. Identify the special Foundation given below.
a) Grillage foundation
b) Raft foundation
um
d) Stepped foundation
Answer: c
nt
Explanation: The depth of foundations is considerably reduced when this method is adopted and hence, it proves to
ua
be economical in case of foundations in soft soil.
_Q
ks
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1. The formula d=a×√(3q)/m is used to calculate _________
_B
a) Depth of soil
es
b) Height of column
c) Depth of concrete bed block
ot
d) Height of footing
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: The depth of concrete bed block depends upon the type of concrete, the projection of block and the soil
TU
bearing pressure. It is found on the basis of the bending moment imposed on it, and on the basis of safe modulus of
rupture. Here, d = depth of concrete block in metre, a = projection beyond the masonry face in centimetres, m = safe
K
modulus of rupture of concrete mix, q = net soil bearing pressure.

A
e/
2. If the wall or column under construction is near some other property, it will not be possible to spread the footing t
t.m
o both the sides of War or column. In search case which footing is used?
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a) Simple pad footing

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b) Eccentric footing
tp
c) Isolated footing
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d) Reinforced footing
Answer: b
Explanation: Normally, the footing are so designed and proportion that the centre of gravity of the superimposed loa
d coincides with the CG of the base area, so that the footing is subjected to concentric loading, resulting in uniform b
earing pressure. However, it may not be possible to do so and hence eccentric loading footings are applied.
3. Identify the given footing below.
a) Strip footing
b) Combine footing
c) Reinforced footing
d) Isolated footing
Answer: a
Explanation: A strip footing is the one that provides a continuous longitudinal bearing. Thus, a spread footing for a c
30 / 405
ontinuous wall is called a strip footing. The above given diagram shows two types of strip footings for a wall- i) Sim
ple strip footing without masonry offset and
a) Continuous footing
b) Cantilever footing
c) Strip footing
d) Combine footing
Answer: b
Explanation: A cantilever footing consist in an eccentric footing for the exterior column, the concentric footing for t
he interior column and a strap or a cantilever beam joining these two footing as shown in the given figure above.
um
a) Cantilever footing
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b) Continuous footing
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c) Strip footing
d) Pad footing
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: In this type of construction, the footings of two or three adjacent columns are made continuous by prov
ks
iding beans between the successive footings as shown in the above given figure. This type of construction is cheaper
oo
than raft foundations and it is adopted to avoid differential or uneven settlement of the structure.
_B
es
a) Simple pad footing

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b) Steeped footing
_N
c) Strip footing
d) Stepped pad footing
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Answer: d
Explanation: If the column load is more, or if the safe bearing pressure of soil is less, the base area found by equatio
K
n b+2a and hence there is a use of stepped pad footing instead of simple pad footing.
A
e/
7. Identify the type of foundation below.

t.m
a) Wall footing
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b) Combine footing
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c) Grillage footing
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d) Strap footing
ht
Answer: c
Explanation: The grillage Foundation is a special type of isolated footing, generally provided for heavily loaded stee
l, specially in those location where bearing capacity of soil is poor.
8. Which type of footing is applicable when the wall carries light loads or when the safe bearing pressure is very hig
h?
a) Simple strip footing

b) Stepped footing
c) Simple pad footing
Answer: a
Explanation: In this case, the width of the footing would be very low. In this type of footing, the wall directly rests o
n the concrete base and no masonry offset are provided since spread is not required.
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9. The shape of combined footing is mostly ___________
a) Rectangular
b) Square
c) Circular
d) Trapezoidal
Answer: d
Explanation: The shape of the combined footing should be so selected that the centres of gravity of the column loads
of soil reaction remains in the same vertical line. Usually a rectangular or a trapezoidal shape is selected.
10. A spread footing for a single column is known as the __________
a) Isolated footing
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b) Combine footing
c) Strip footing
nt
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Answer: a
Explanation: A spread footing for a single column is either known as the isolated footing or pad footing. The base ar
_Q
ea of such a footing is given by A = P/q where P is the total load transmitted by the column, including that of the foo
ting and q is the safe bearing pressure for the soil.
ks
oo
_B
es
1. If the foundation of the structure is to be divided into two or more independent units, the _______ may be provide
d to take care of unequal settlement.
ot
_N
a) Slip joints
b) Strap joints
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c) Base plate
d) Joists
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Slip joints are situated on the boundary of the independent units and they help in localising the effect of
e/
unequal settlement in affected portion of the structure only.

t.m
2. Which type of foundation should be adopted in a clayey or lose type of soil which considerably swells and shrinks
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by variation in the moisture content.

s:/
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a) Raft foundation
ht
b) Inverted arch foundation

c) Cantilever foundation
d) Grillage foundation
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of clay or loose type of soil, Raft foundation is very helpful in increasing the bearing power
of soil which becomes very useful when load coming on the soil is practically uniform.
3. Which types of foundation should be adopted when the ground is sloping and it is economical to provide Foundati
on at the same level.
a) Simple foundation
b) Pad foundation
c) Stepped foundation
d) Pier foundation
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Answer: c
Explanation: In such case, Stepped foundation is used to correct levels of the sloping ground on which the building i
s to be constructed and taken and a longitudinal section is prepared accordingly.
4. For heavy structures with uneven loading, the _______ should be adopted for the foundations.
a) RCC slab
b) Piles
c) Arch
d) Beam
Answer: b
Explanation: Pile foundations are most appropriate when the loading of the structure is uneven. Piles are driven deep
into the ground up to the hard Strata which helps to distribute the load evenly.
um
5. The cavities or old Wells occur during excavation of the foundation trenches are filled with _________
nt
a) Hard material
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b) Rocks
c) Concrete
_Q
d) Murum
Answer: c
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Explanation: To make the foundation safe, such cavities or wells are need to be filled to avoid uneven settlement in f
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uture. If the cavity is small, it is filled with concrete. But if the cavity is large enough to make the feeling of concrete
expensive, a suitable arch should be provided.
_B
es
6. In case of soft soil, a line is drawn from the edge of bottom of old footing at an angle of ___________ with the ho
rizontal.
ot
_N
a) 45°
b) 60°
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c) 90°
d) 30°
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Answer: d
A
Explanation: The horizontal spacing between two footing in case of average soil is adjusted by keeping the angle of i
e/
nclination is 45°. The horizontal spacing of to footing its adjusted in such a way that the edge of bottom of new footi
t.m
ng is not intersected by this line.

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7. ____________ indicates the dead load or weight of the machine for which Foundation is to be provided.
s:/
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a) Static load
ht
b) Kinetic load
c) Dead load
d) Live load
Answer: a
Explanation: The static load is constant for a particular machine and it plays minor role in the design of a machine F
oundation. The foundation area should be sufficient to take up this load.
8. In case of kinetic load, it is desirable to provide ___________ at the top as well as and the bottom of the foundatio
n block.
a) Reinforcement
b) Extra beam
c) Masonry
d) Piers
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Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforcement is provided even though the design considerations do not demand such reinforcements.
The amount of reinforcement will depend on the type of machine.
10. What do you understand from the given figure below?
a) Turning moment
b) Moisture
c) Vibrations
d) Electricity
Answer: c
Explanation: The foundations should be insulated from the vibrating machinery because it may cause settlements on
sands and gravels. The various methods adopted for this purpose such as by filling in sand or saw dust between the f
oundation block and the side soil.
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11. What do you understand from the given figure below?
nt
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a) Foundation on cavities
b) Spacing of footings
_Q
c) Foundation on black cotton soil
d) Foundation on an old well
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Answer: d
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Explanation: In case of old wells, all those materials should be removed from the well and the well, thus cleared, sho
uld be filled with hard material. Then suitable beams or arches should be provided to span the well.
_B
es

ot
_N
1. _______ occurs due to various reasons such as unequal distribution of load on the foundations, varying bearing po
wer of the sub soil, eccentricity of the load, etc.
TU
a) Unequal settlement of the sub-soil

K
b) Unequal settlement of the masonry

A
c) Horizontal movement of the earth

e/
d) Withdrawal of moisture from the sub-soil

t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to unequal settlement of the sub-soil, the cracks are formed in the buildings, which in future, leads
/
to serious defects. To prevent such failure, the foundations should rest on the rock or hard murum.
s:/
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2. The motor used as the binding material in the masonry construction shrinks and gets compressed when loaded exc
ht
essively before it has fully set which leads to the __________
a) Unequal settlement of the sub-soil

b) Lateral pressure on the superstructure
c) Unequal settlement of the masonry
d) Atmospheric action
Answer: c
Explanation: To avoid such Unequal settlement of the masonry, the mortar to be used in the masonry should be stiff
and in line with the workability desired. The masonry work should be raised evenly.
3. _______ occurs at places where there is considerable variation in the height of water table.
a) Transpiration of trees and shrubs

b) Atmospheric action
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c) Horizontal movement of earth
Answer: d
Explanation: When withdrawal of moisture from the sub-soil takes place i.e. water table falls, the soil particles loses
Cohesion and hence, there is a shrinkage of soil, resulting in the cracks to the buildings.
4. Due to ______________ the thrust of a Pitched roof or arch action or wind action on the superstructure causes wa
ll to overturn.
a) Horizontal movement of the earth

c) Unequal settlement of the sub-soil
Answer: b
um
Explanation: The remedial measures to prevent lateral pressure on the superstructure would be to provide a sufficien
t wide base and to design the foundations for the worst conditions.
nt
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5. Due to ______________ very soft soil is liable to give way under the action of load, especially at places such as sl
oping ground, riverbank, etc.
_Q
a) Horizontal movement of earth
ks
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c) Transpiration of the trees and shrubs
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: In the case of horizontal movement of the earth, it is desirable to construct the retaining walls to drive s
heet piles to prevent the escape of the earth.
ot
_N
6. Due to the ____________ the roots of trees planted near a building may extend upto the foundation level and may
absorb the moisture.
TU
a) Withdrawal of moisture from the sub-soil

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b) Transpiration of the trees and shrubs

A
c) Atmospheric action
e/
d) Unequal settlement of the soil

t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: The effect of transpiration of trees and shrubs is seen in the form of depression on the ground and it ma
/
y lead to cracks in the buildings. The remedial measures such as the foundation should be taken sufficiently deep in
s:/
case to avoid such effect.

tp
ht
7. To avoid __________ the foundations should be taken beyond the depth up to which rain water can not reach.
a) Unequal settlement of the soil

b) Horizontal movement of the earth
c) Atmospheric action
Answer: c
Explanation: Atmospheric action results in heavy rains or considerable variations in temperature or Frost action may
damage the foundations. Hence the foundations are made at sufficient depth up to which rainwater cannot come in c
ontact with it.
8. ________ results rain water carrying certain Chemicals and salt which reacts with the material used for the founda
tion work and turn them into powder.
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a) Atmospheric action
b) Unequal settlement of the soil
c) Lateral pressure on the superstructure
d) Transpiration of trees and shrubs
Answer: a
Explanation: The rain and son are the main atmospheric agents to seriously affect the foundation of a building. The r
ain may carry certain Chemicals and salts obtained from sewage, animal dung, etc. which reacts with the foundation
and leads to its destruction.
9. In case of ________ it is seen that the allowable bearing pressure on the soil is not exceeded, even under the worst
conditions.
a) Withdrawal of moisture from the sub-soil

b) Transpiration of trees and shrubs
um
nt
Answer: c
ua
Explanation: Such preventive measures are adopted in case of unequal settlement of the subsoil which leads to form
ation of cracks in the buildings, which in future, leads to serious defect.
_Q
10. The proper watering or curing for a period of at least 10 days should be done to the missionary work in case of _
ks
_______
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a) Horizontal movement of the earth
_B
b) Unequal settlement of the masonry
es
d) Lateral pressure on the superstructure
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: Proper watering or curing is done to ensure the development of adequate strength of mortar joints. In th
is case, the masonry work should be raised evenly.
TU
K

A
e/
1. _________ is defined as the main plank which remains in contact with sides of Trench.
t.m
a) Sheeting
/
b) Wale
s:/
c) Sheathing
tp
d) Bracing
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: The term Sheathing is used to indicate vertical members of timber in which directly resist pressure fro
m the side of a Trench.
2. Identify the missing data in the below figure.
a) Bracing
b) Sheeting
c) Strut
d) Wale
Answer: c
Explanation: The piece of timber which maintains of fixed distance between the sheeting or between the wales is kn
own as Strut. It is the horizontal member used in the trenches as shown in the above figure.
36 / 405
3. Identify the missing data in the below figure.
a) Ranger
b) Wale
c) Sheathing
d) Bracing
Answer: d
Explanation: The diagonal piece of timber used to give rigidity to the Framework is known as the Bracing. These me
mbers are mostly subjected to compressive forces.
a) Wale
b) Strut
um
c) Bracing
d) Sheeting
nt
Answer: a
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Explanation: Ranger or Wale is the name given to the piece of timber which transfers the load from the sheeting to t
he Strut. This piece of timber also acts as a supporting member for bracing.
_Q
5. Identify the given type of Timbering.
ks
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a) Runner
b) Stay bracing
_B
c) Box sheeting
es
d) Vertical sheeting
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: Box sheeting arrangement of preventing the slip of earth in foundation trenches is used when excavatio
_N
n is to be carried out in loose soil and when the depth of excavation does not exceed 4 meters.
TU
6. Identify the given type of Timbering.

K
a) Sheet piling
A
b) Runner
e/
c) Stay bracing
t.m
Answer: b
/
Explanation: In case of extremely loose and soft ground which requires immediate support as the excavation progres
s:/
ses, the arrangement of Runner as shown in above given figure is adopted.

tp
ht
7. The __________ arrangement of preventing the sleep of earth in foundation trenches is used when the excavation
is to be carried out in the moderately firm ground.
a) Runner
b) Stay bracing
c) Vertical sheeting
d) Sheet piling
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of moderately firm ground, Stay bracing is adopted when the depth of excavation does not exce
ed 2 metres. In this, the vertical sheets of piling boards are placed opposite each other against the wall of the trench.
8. The _______ arrangement of preventing the slip of earth in the foundation trenches is adopted when a large area i
s to be excavated for depth greater than 10 meters.
37 / 405
a) Sheet piling
b) Runner
c) Box sheeting
d) Stay bracing
Answer: a
Explanation: Sheet piling is used when a large area is to be excavated for depth greater than 10 meters, soil to be exc
avated is soft or loose, width of the trench is also large and the subsoil water is present.
9. In _______ arrangement, the vertical sheets are placed nearer or sometimes, touching each other.
a) Stay bracing
b) Box sheeting
c) Vertical sheeting
d) Runner
um
Answer: b
Explanation: The Box sheeting arrangement is adopted for loose soil. In this, the sheets are kept in position by longit
nt
udinal rows of wales, usually 2 in numbers and then, the Struts are provided across the wales.
ua
10. The _______ method is similar to box sheeting except that the work is carried out in stages and at each stage, an
_Q
d offset is provided.
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a) Sheet piling
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b) Box sheeting
c) Stay bracing
_B
es
Answer: d
Explanation: For deep trenches up to about 10 metres in soft ground, the vertical sheeting is adopted. In this for each
ot
stage, vertical sheets, horizontal wales, Struts and braces are provided as usual.
_N
TU

K
1. Which the given method is used for dewatering of the foundation trenches.
A
e/
a) Deep boring
t.m
b) Geophysical method
c) Well Point System
/
s:/
Answer: c
tp
Explanation: A Well Point is a pipe about 1 m long and diameter is about 40 mm to 50 mm. The whole system comp
ht
rises of a Riser, swinger arm, header and together work as a well point system.
a) Riser
b) Swinger arm
c) Header
d) Head
Answer: a
Explanation: A Riser is a vertical pipe driven in the ground. The well point is provided at the bottom end of the riser.
The diameter of the Riser is about 40 mm to 50 mm.

38 / 405
a) Jetting hole
b) Header
c) Riser
d) Swinger arm
Answer: b
Explanation: A Header is a pipe to which all the swinger arms of the different well points are attached. The header, i
n turn, is connected to a pumping unit. The header is laid on the ground and its diameter varies from 150 mm to 250
mm.
4. Identify the type of Well Point System.
a) Vacuum system
b) Single stage system
c) Pumping
um
d) Multi stage system
Answer: d
nt
Explanation: When the depth of excavation exceeds 5 M below the water table, the process of providing well Point i
ua
s carried out in different stages known as Multi stage system.
_Q
5. Identify the type of Well Point System.
ks
a) Vacuum system
oo
c) Multi stage system
_B
d) Pumping
es
Answer: a
Explanation: The vacuum process is very much useful and effective for inorganic and organic silts and very fine san
ot
d. But several weeks may be required to achieve consolidation by this method.

_N
6. In case of releasing artesian pressure, which precaution should be taken when the system of well points is adopted
TU
.
K
a) Pumping rate
A
b) Air locks
e/
c) Duplication of pumps
t.m
d) Blowing action
Answer: d
/
Explanation: Blowing action is adopted for the release of artesian pressure. At some places, the artesian conditions e
s:/
xists at a certain death from the ground level. If the foundation trench reaches that depth, its bottom is likely to be bl
tp
own off due to hydrostatic pressure.

ht
7. Which precautions to be taken in case of multistage system to achieve stability of the side slope?
a) Deep well pumps

b) Duplication of pumps
c) Connections
d) Pumping
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of multistage system of well points, the deep well pumps should be used when the instability of
the side slopes is expected. As deep well pumps are expensive, they are adopted on important works.
8. The organic Chemicals include epoxy resin, polyester resin and other resins are used in which method of dewateri
ng of the foundation trenches.
39 / 405
a) Well Point System
b) Cement grouting
c) Chemical grouting
d) Electro osmosis process
Answer: c
Explanation: In 1925, H.J. Joosten, a Dutch mining engineer, adopted for the first time the chemical grouting. He us
ed concentrated solution of sodium silicate and calcium chloride as electrolyte.
9. From given below, which method for the dewatering of foundation trenches is portable and can be easily moved
when required?
a) Pumping
b) Well Point System
c) Freezing process
um
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: In pumping method, the pumps are installed along the foundation trenches at suitable points. The water
ua
gaining access to the trenches is pumped out. These pumps are portable so that it can be easily moved as and when r
equired.
_Q
10. Identify the type of Well Point System which can suck water up to 5 meters?
ks
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a) Single stage system
b) Multi stage system
_B
c) Vacuum system
es
d) Pumping
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: The practical limit upto which the water can be lifted by a suction pump is about 5 meters or so. Hence,
_N
the depth of excavation is not to exceed 5 metres in single stage system well point is adopted.
TU
11. From the below diagram, identify the Method used for the dewatering of the foundation trenches.
K
a) Pumping
A
b) Freezing process
e/
c) Electro osmosis process

t.m
d) Well Point System

Answer: d
/
Explanation: Well Point System consists of a well points, riser, swinger arm, and header. The area to be devoted is s
s:/
urrounded by number of well points. The minimum spacing between the well points is 1 m.
tp
ht
1. Identify the Method used for the dewatering of the foundation trenches.
a) Pumping
b) Freezing process
Answer: d
Explanation: Well Point System consists of a well points, riser, swinger arm, and header. The area to be devoted is s
urrounded by number of well points. The minimum spacing between the well points is 1 m.
40 / 405
a) Pumping
b) Providing sumps and side drains
c) Well Point System
d) Cement grouting
Answer: b
Explanation: In providing sumps and side drains, the side drains are constructed along the bottom of the foundation
Trenches. The sumps are constructed at a distance of 45 M to 60 M and the side drains are given such as slope that
water is collected in the sumps.
a) Electro osmosis process

b) Chemical process
um
c) Cement grouting
d) Freezing process
nt
Answer: d
ua
Explanation: In the freezing process method, the area surrounding the excavation is frozen and thus a solid wall of fr
ozen Earth is formed. The principle of ground freezing is the use of refrigeration to convert in-situ pore water to Ice.
_Q
ks
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a) Vacuum system
_B
c) Pumping
es
d) Multi stage system
Answer: d
ot
Explanation: When the depth of excavation exceeds 5 M below the water table, the process of providing well Point i
_N
s carried out in different stages known as Multi stage system.

TU
K
a) Vacuum system
A

e/
c) Multi stage system

t.m
d) Pumping
Answer: a
/
Explanation: The vacuum process is very much useful and effective for inorganic and organic silts and very fine san
s:/
d. But several weeks may be required to achieve consolidation by this method.

tp
ht
6. In which method a refrigeration plant of required capacity is needed to be installed near the site of work?
a) Pumping
b) Well Point System
c) Freezing process
Answer: c
Explanation: The principle of ground freezing process is the use of refrigeration to convert in-situ pore water to Ice.
Hence, refrigeration plant of required capacity is installed near the site of work to perform the process of refrigeratio
n.
7. ________ process consists of making a number of holes in the ground and then filling these holes by the cement g
rout under pressure.
41 / 405
a) Chemical grouting
b) Cement grouting
c) Freezing process
Answer: b
Explanation: In cement grouting method, the cement grout, which is a mixture of sand, cement and water is used. Th
e term grouting is used to indicate a process of injecting the cementing materials into the cracks.
8. The organic Chemicals include epoxy resin, polyester resin and other resins are used in which method of dewateri
ng of the foundation trenches?
a) Well Point System

b) Cement grouting
c) Chemical grouting
um
Answer: c
nt
Explanation: In 1925, H.J. Joosten, a Dutch mining engineer, adopted for the first time the chemical grouting. He us
ua
ed concentrated solution of sodium silicate and calcium chloride as electrolyte. According to him, the chemical must
be able to modify the properties of soil as desired or expected.
_Q
9. The ________ can be adopted as an aid in construction to stop rock movements and to increase the permeability o
ks
f the strata as in the case of oil wells.
oo
a) Chemical grouting
_B
b) Cement grouting
es
c) Pumping
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: As the chemical grouting has been developed recently, the precise information of its long-term after eff
ects is not available. Hence it has yet not become an established technique as the conventional grouting.
TU
10. The _______ can be effectively adopted for excavation in or at the foot of the slope of a hill.
K
A
a) Freezing process
e/
b) Cement grouting
t.m
c) Pumping
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Answer: a
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Explanation: The freezing is a powerful versatile tool for foundation engineering for temporary ground support, grou
tp
ndwater control and structural underpinning. A portion of the slope is frozen and this position act as a temporary Da
ht
m to support the soil and it prevents the earth slides.
1. Identify the type of pile.
a) Raymond step taper concrete pile

b) Friction pile
c) Raymond Standard concrete pile
d) Mac Arthur pile
Answer: c
Explanation: Raymond standard concrete pile consists of a thin corrugated shell closed at the bottom. The shell is dri
ven into the ground with a collapsible Steel mandrel core in it. When the desired depth is reached, the mandrel is col
42 / 405
lapsed and withdrawn.
a) Raymond standard concrete pile

b) Raymond step taper concrete pile
c) Mac Arthur pile
d) Base driven pile
Answer: b
Explanation: Raymond step taper concrete pile consists of Steel sections of suitable length. The bottom of the first s
hell to be driven is closed by a flat steel plate. The diameter of pile increases in steps at the rate of 25 mm for each s
uccessive shell section.
um
a) Mac Arthur pile
nt
b) Base driven pile
ua
c) Swage pile
d) Monotube pile
_Q
Answer: a
Explanation: In Mac Arthur pile, a heavy steel casing with a core is driven into the ground as shown in given figure.
ks
When the desired depth is reached, the core is withdrawn and a corrugated steel shell is placed in the casing.
oo
_B
es
a) Base driven pile
b) Friction pile
ot
c) Swage pile
_N
d) Button bottom pile

Answer: a
TU
Explanation: Base driven pile consists of a helically welded shell of steel plate. A concrete plug is provided at the bo
ttom of the shell and driving its done by allowing pile Hammer to fall on the concrete plug.
K
A

e/
t.m
a) Swage pile
b) Base driven pile
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c) Button bottom pile

s:/
d) Mac Arthur pile

tp
Answer: a
ht
Explanation: In Swage pile, a precast concrete plug of slight conical shape provided at the bottom of a steel shell. Th
ese piles are used for hard soil or at places where it is desired to have a watertight shell before concrete is placed in t
he Shell.
a) Swage pile
b) Button bottom pile
c) Simple pile
d) Friction pile
Answer: b
Explanation: In Button bottom pile, a concrete button is used at the bottom to provide an enlarged hole in the soil wh
en the file is being driven.
43 / 405
a) Pressure pile
b) Pedestal pile
c) Vibro pile
d) Simplex pile
Answer: d
Explanation: In Simplex pile, a Steel Tube fitted with cast iron shoe is driven into the ground up to required depth as
shown in the above figure. The reinforcement, if necessary, is put up.
a) Simplex pile
b) Simplex Alligator pile
um
c) Franki pile
d) Vibro pile
nt
Answer: b
ua
Explanation: In Simplex Alligator jaw pile, the cast iron shoe is provided by alligator jaw point. When concrete is po
ured, the jaw opens and allows concrete to flow. In this type of pile, the shoe does not remain in the ground.
_Q
ks
oo
a) Simplex pile
b) Franki pile
_B
c) Pedestal pile
es
d) Pressure pile
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: In the Pedestal pile, a concrete pedestal can be seen at the bottom of the pile which is driven into the gr
_N
ound. The pressure is applied on the concrete through the core and at the same time, the case is withdrawn and hence
the concrete is sprayed into the voids.
TU

K
A
a) Under reamed pile

e/
b) Pedestal pile
t.m
c) Simplex pile
d) Pressure pile
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: In Pressure pile, the compressed air is then admitted through the air Pipe and which is applied to raise t
tp
he tube. Thus, the tube is lifted slightly and at the same time, the concrete is forced into the surrounding ground by c
ht
ompressed air.
a) Load bearing pile

b) Friction pile
c) Cast iron pile
d) Timber pile
Answer: a
Explanation: Load bearing piles penetrate through the soft soil and their bottom rest on a hard bed. Thus, they are en
d bearing piles and act as a column or piers. The soft ground through which the piles pass also give some lateral sup
port and thus increases the load carrying capacity of the bearing piles.

44 / 405
a) Load bearing piles
b) Sand pile
c) Friction pile
d) Steel pipe
Answer: c
Explanation: When loose soil extends to a great depth, the piles are driven up to such a depth that the frictional resist
ance developed at the sides of the piles equals the load coming on the piles.
1. __________ have been developed for determining the load bearing capacity of piles.
um
a) Wave action theory
b) Empirical formulas
nt
c) Static formulas
ua
d) Dynamic formulas
Answer: b
_Q
Explanation: Empirical formulas are based on tests that are carried out under limited conditions and hence such form
ulas are not generally adopted.
ks
oo
2. The ___________ is based upon the longitudinal wave transmission and end impact.
_B
a) Static formulas
es
b) Dynamic formulas
c) Empirical formulas
ot
d) Wave action theory

_N
Answer: d
Explanation: The wave action theory is too complex to be used for ordinary cases and it can be applied only after the
TU
preparation of charts with the help of electronic computers.

K
3. The __________ equate the soil resistance to the bearing power of the pile.
A
e/
a) Dynamic formulas
t.m
b) Wave action theory

c) Static formulas
/
d) Empirical formulas
s:/
Answer: c
tp
Explanation: To determine Static formulas, the samples of soils through which piles are to be driven are tested in the
ht
laboratory and properties of different soils are studied in detail. These results from the laboratory tests are then used
to determine the bearing capacity of a pile of a given length, shape and size.
4. The ___________ obtain the bearing power of the piles by equating the soil resistance to the energy of the blow.
a) Static formulas
b) Dynamic formulas
c) Wave action theory
d) Empirical formulas
Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme care should be taken while adopting dynamic formulas. There is no dynamic formula which c
an be applied for all the varying conditions of the work. Most of the dynamic formulas are based on some rational ap
proach.
45 / 405
5. Identify the given pile driving formula.
a) Dutch formula
b) Eytelwein formula
c) Hiley formula
d) Engineering News formula
Answer: a
Explanation: Above given formula is Dutch formula.
a) Dutch formula
b) Engineering News formula
c) Eytelwein formula
um
d) Hiley formula
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: Above given formula is Engineering News formula.
ua
_Q
a) Eytelwein formula
ks
b) Dutch formula
oo
c) Engineering News formula
d) Hiley formula
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: Above given Eytelwein formula is for drop hammers.
ot

_N
a) Dutch formula
TU
b) Hiley formula
c) Engineering News formula
K
d) Ritter formula
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Above given formula is Hiley formula. This formula is widely used in determining the safe load on pil
t.m
e.
/

s:/
tp
a) Major Sander formula

ht
b) Merriman formula
c) Ritter formula
d) Kreutzer formula
Answer: d
Explanation: Kreutzer formula can be used only for Drop hammer and it is given as above. Where, H1 and H2 = diff
erent heights of fall of hammer in centimetre.
a) Ritter formula
b) Major Sander formula
c) Kreutzer formula
d) Vulcan Iron Works formula
Answer: b
46 / 405
Explanation: Major Sander formula is the simplest form of pile driving formula using a factor of safety of 8. Where,
R1 = safe load on a pile in kg.
a) Merriman formula
b) Ritter formula
c) Vulcan Iron Works formula
d) Kreutzer formula
Answer: b
Explanation: Above given formula is Ritter formula. It is an important pile driving dynamic formula. Where, R = ult
imate load carrying capacity of pile in kg.
um
a) Merriman formula
nt
b) Ritter formula
ua
c) Kreutzer formula
d) Dutch formula
_Q
Answer: a
Explanation: Merriman formula is same as the Major Sander formula except that a factor of safety of 6 is used. It is
ks
one of the most important pile-driving dynamic formulas.
oo
_B
es
1. A _______ is defined as a temporary structure which is constructed so as to remove water and/or soil from an area
ot
and make it possible to carry on the construction work under reasonably dry conditions.
_N
a) Cofferdam
TU
b) Foundation
c) Caisson
K
d) Spillway
A
Answer: a
e/
Explanation: The cofferdam is generally constructed at the site of work. The cofferdam should be reasonably waterti
t.m
ght. It may either raised on the impervious soil or may be extended to impervious strata through pervious soils. It sh
ould be noted that absolute water tightness is not desired in a cofferdam.
/
s:/
2. A _________ is an embankment of some material.

tp
ht
a) Wall
b) Intrusion
c) Dike
d) Rock-fill
Answer: c
Explanation: The materials commonly employed for the construction of dike are earth, rock and sand bags. The dike
are generally employed for a short duration, particularly to enable the construction of a more durable cofferdam beh
ind them.
3. __________ is the simplest form of cofferdam.
a) Single wall cofferdam

b) Earth-fill cofferdam
c) Cellular cofferdam
47 / 405
d) Rock-fill cofferdam
Answer: b
Explanation: Earth dikes or Earth-fill cofferdams are limited to Shallow depth of water, say about 1200 mm to 1500
mm, with a low velocity of flow. It consists of an Earth bank which is placed around the site to be enclosed.
4. ________ type of cofferdam is economical at places where rock is available in plenty.
a) Earth dikes
b) Sand-bags dikes
c) Rock-fill cofferdam
d) Single wall cofferdam
Answer: c
Explanation: Rock dikes or Rock-fill cofferdams can be used for a depth of water up to about 3 metres and a suitable
even in case of Swift water. The only disadvantage of this type of cofferdam is that it is not impervious.
um
5. In __________ type of cofferdam consists of a mixture of sand and clay which is filled in a bag and placed instea
nt
d of earth or rock to form a cofferdam.
ua
a) Cellular cofferdam
_Q
b) Earth dikes
c) Rock dikes
ks
d) Sand-bag dikes
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: The sand-bag dykes or Sand-bag cofferdams are useful for small depth of water. The individual bags ar
_B
e laid in courses as in case of masonry work and the joints are filled with puddle.
es
6. __________ it suitable when available working space is limited and the area to be enclosed is small.
ot
_N

b) Double wall cofferdam
TU
c) Dikes
d) Concrete cofferdam
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Single wall cofferdams is suitable up to a maximum depth of water of 25 m. In this type of cofferdam,
e/
a single row of Piles is used on either side of the cofferdam. The sheet pile maybe of wood or steel. The wooden pile
t.m
s are generally used for depth of water up to about 10 m.

/
7. When the area to be enclosed is large, it becomes essential to provide the _________ construction so as to give sta
s:/
bility to the cofferdam.

tp
ht

b) Cellular cofferdam
c) Double wall cofferdam
d) Suspended cofferdam
Answer: c
Explanation: Double wall cofferdam was frequently used on the river Ohio in USA and hence, it derives its name as
Ohio river type cofferdam. It is cheap and can be built up rapidly l. It is suitable for hard bed where there is no probl
em of erosion. This type of cofferdam is unsuitable for deep water.
8. __________ is useful when depth of water is about 6 metres to 10 meters.
a) Wood or steel sheeting cofferdam

b) Ohio river type cofferdam
c) Rock-filled crib cofferdam
48 / 405
d) Suspended cofferdam
Answer: a
Explanation: For small and ordinary type of cofferdam, the wooden sheet piles are employed. But when cofferdams
are large or where it is not possible to drive guide piles due to more depth of water, the steel sheet piles with suitable
bracing are used for the construction of this type of cofferdam.
9. The ___________ is made of steel sheet piles and this type of cofferdam is proved successful in unwatering large
areas.
a) Suspended cofferdam
b) Cellular cofferdam
c) Dikes
d) Concrete cofferdam
Answer: b
um
Explanation: Cellular cofferdam consists of diaphragm cells or circular cells or modified circular cells or cloverleaf
cells. In case of circular cofferdams with diaphragm cells, the series of arcs are connected to straight cross wall. The
nt
radius of arcs is generally made equal to the distance between the cross-walls.
ua
10. A __________ consist of timber cribs.
_Q
a) Cellular cofferdam
ks
b) Suspended cofferdam
oo
c) Concrete cofferdam
d) Rock-filled crib cofferdam
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: A crib is a box or a cell open at the bottom and it essentially consists of a framework of horizontal timb
ers laid in alternate courses. The Rock-filled crib cofferdam have been employed with success on many important Jo
ot
bs. The ideal set of conditions favourable for this type of cofferdam is the depth of water is about 10 meters to 20 m.
_N
11. ___________ is to be incorporated as a part of a permanent structure which have been proved to be economical.
TU
a) Concrete cofferdam
K
b) Suspended cofferdam
A
c) Single wall cofferdam

e/
d) Cellular cofferdam
t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: Concrete cofferdams are actually small concrete dams and they have been used economically on many
/
Jobs. The Framework usually consists of precast RCC piles and sheets. The main disadvantage of a concrete cofferd
s:/
am is that it is costly.
tp
ht
12. __________ are the cofferdams which can be lifted, floated and placed in another position as soon as its purpose
is served.
a) Dike cofferdam
b) Double wall cofferdam
c) Suspended cofferdam
d) Single wall cofferdam
Answer: c
Explanation: Suspended cofferdams are also known as the movable cofferdams. The suspended cofferdams may tak
e up any forms. In one form, it consists of a hollow steel cylinder which can be used to prepare a temporary enclosed
space for the construction work.

49 / 405
1. A _____________ is defined as a structure which is sunk through ground or water to exclude water and semi fluid
material during the process of excavation of foundations.
a) Cofferdam
b) Caisson
c) Well
d) Pit
Answer: b
Explanation: A Caisson is a relatively large deep foundation and resembles is pile foundation in transferring the supe
rstructure load to some desired depth. However, Caisson differs from a pile in size and in the method of construction
.
2. A _______ becomes uneconomical in cases where the plan area of foundation work is small as compared to the d
um
epth of water.
nt
a) Cofferdam
ua
b) Caisson
c) Pile
_Q
d) Pit
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: Under such circumstances, cofferdam becomes uneconomical. Hence, caisson would prove to be most
oo
suitable. At places where cofferdam cannot be Dewatered successfully, the Caissons are used.
_B
3. The _________ is suitable for caissons of Open Well type.
es
a) Steel
ot
b) Timber
_N
c) Reinforced cement concrete

d) Cast-iron
TU
Answer: d
Explanation: New segments of cast iron are bolted as the caisson sinks. Cast iron is unsuitable for pneumatic caisson
K
s as there is risk of failures due to tension developed by the compressed air. The cost also works out to be more in re
A
lation to steel or RCC.

e/
t.m
4. The __________ is suitable for caisson shoes.

/
a) Reinforced cement concrete

s:/
b) Cast-iron
tp
c) Timber
ht
d) Steel
Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforced cement concrete has more weight and therefore it creates difficulties in handling and floatin
g the Caisson in the early stage of construction. Therefore it becomes economical to construct a Steel Caisson with c
oncrete filling.
5. The __________ is found to be the most suitable material for the construction of caisson.
a) Timber
b) Cast iron
c) Steel
d) RCC
Answer: c
Explanation: Steel is usually in the form of a double skin of Steel plating and the hollow space in then filled with ce
50 / 405
ment concrete. Due to its strength and durability it is found to be most suitable material.
6. The ___________ was used as a material for the construction of caisson in the early stages of development of Cai
sson.
a) Steel
b) Timber
c) Cast iron
d) RCC
Answer: b
Explanation: In old days, Timber was the cheapest material due to its availability in abundance. But this material is n
ow practically not adopted mainly because of its bulk and the risk of Fire.
7. A ______ caisson is open at top and closed at bottom.
um
a) Wells
nt
b) Pneumatic caissons
ua
c) Cylinders
d) Box caissons
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: Box Caisson is merely a variation of the Suspended type cofferdam. The box caissons may be built of r
ks
einforced concrete, steel or timber. Condition for box caisson is that the depth of water is about 6 meters to 8 meters.
oo
8. A ________ is a caisson which is open at top as well as at bottom.
_B
es
a) Well
b) Box Caisson
ot
c) Pneumatic caissons
_N
d) Cofferdam
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: Well is provided with a cutting edge at the bottom so as to facilitate sinking. The shape of a well is gen
erally decided by the requirements of the superstructure, vertical and horizontal forces on well, base of the pier or ab
K
utment, cost of sinking, chances of tilting and shifting during execution, etc.
A
e/
9. A __________ are open at bottom and closed at top.

t.m
a) Cylinders
/
b) Wells
s:/
c) Box Caisson
tp
d) Pneumatic caissons
ht
Answer: d
Explanation: The pneumatic caissons are adopted when the depth of water is more than 12 metres or so. The maxim
um depth of water upto which pneumatic caissons can be used is limited from the consideration of health of the wor
kers.
10. An open _______ is a convenient form of foundation for Bridge piers.
a) Monoliths
b) Cylinder
c) Multiple wells
d) Cofferdam
Answer: b
Explanation: Cylinder is used when depth of water is more than 12 meters or when it becomes essential go deep to a
void exposure of foundations due to scouring action of flowing water. The cylinder is a light shell which invariably
51 / 405
become part of the permanent structure.
1. The term ______ is used to indicate the art of building the structures in stones.
a) Masonry
b) Mortar
c) Brick
d) Bond
Answer: a
Explanation: The term Masonry is used to indicate the art of building the structures in either stone or bricks. The for
mal type is called the stone masonry and the latter type is called the brick masonry.
um
2. The horizontal course provided at suitable levels between the plinth and the cornice is termed as a ______
nt
ua
a) Sill
b) Corbel
_Q
c) String Course
d) Cornice
ks
Answer: c
oo
Explanation: String Course break the monotony of a plane surface and it is sometimes moulded and given architectu
ral treatment. The string course is suitably weathered and throated so as to throw off the rain water clear of the wall s
_B
urface.
es
3. The projecting course at ground floor level is known as _______

ot
_N
a) Throating
b) Plinth
TU
c) Coping
d) Weathering
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: Plinth is also used to indicate the height of the ground floor level from ground level. The Plinth course
e/
protects the interior of a building from rain, water, frost, etc. It is sometimes moulded and give an ornamental treatm
t.m
ent.
/
4. A __________ is a course of stone which is laid at the top wall so as to protect the wall from rain water.
s:/
tp
a) Course
ht
b) Cornice
c) Corbel
d) Coping
Answer: d
Explanation: The course of coping is generally provided at the top of a compound wall or a parapet wall and it is suit
ably weathered and throated. Sometimes the term Coping is used to refer a cutting of the stone by means of feathers,
plugs and wedges.
5. A _________ is a course of stone provided at the top of wall to dispose off rain water.
a) Throating
b) Sill
c) Cornice
d) Weathering
52 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: Cornice is generally moulded and given an ornamental treatment. It is weathered and throated to dispos
e off rain water. In order to prevent the overturning of the cornice, sufficient bearing and extra weight at the top in th
e form of a parapet wall should be provided.
6. The term ________ is sometimes used to denote the wearing of stone surfaces by the action of the weather.
a) Weathering
b) Throating
c) Corbel
d) Sill
Answer: a
Explanation: The upper surface of stones used for sill, cornice and coping is dressed in a sloping way so that the wat
er may flow off easily. This is termed as the Weathering.
um
7. A _________ is a projecting stone which is usually provided to serve as support for roof truss, beam, weather she
nt
d, etc.
ua
a) Course
_Q
b) Cornice
c) Corbel
ks
d) Coping
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: The Corbel are generally moulded and give an ornamental treatment. The Corbels should extend at leas
_B
t two-third of their length into the wall.
es
8. Stones which are placed at regular interval right across the wall are known as _______
ot
_N
a) Spalls
b) Through stones
TU
c) Reveals
d) Springer
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: If the wall is considerably thick, two through stones with overlap are provided. The area covered by the
e/
throw stones should be about one-fourth to one-half of the area of the wall surface.
t.m
9. The external corners angles of your wall surface are called the ______
/
s:/
a) Bond
tp
b) Reveals
ht
c) Jambs
d) Quoins
Answer: d
Explanation: The Quoin stones are selected from large and sound stones and their beds are properly dressed. The sto
nes or bricks forming the quion are known as the quoin stones or quoin bricks.
10. The sites of the opening such as doors, windows, etc. are known as the ______ and they are constructed similar t
o quoins.
a) Jambs
b) Spalls
c) Through stones
d) Stooling
Answer: a
53 / 405
Explanation: The Jambs maybe either plain or square or rebated. The splayed Jambs are preferred as they allow the s
hutters to open up at an obtuse angle and thus permit more light and air into the room.
11. The projecting course from an arch or Window head is known as a _____
a) Apex
b) Skew Corbel
c) Kneeler
d) Label
Answer: d
Explanation: Label is usually moulded and is sometimes known as a drip stone. Whereas, the coping provided at the
summit of a gable wall is known as an Apex or Summit stone.
12. The horizontal stones provided at the top of openings of Doors, Windows, etc. are known as the _______
um
a) Reveals
nt
b) Heads
ua
c) Springer
d) Sill
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of Heads or Lintels, a bearing of 150 mm to 200 mm should be given on either side of the openi
ks
ng. Whereas, the exposed vertical surface at right angles to the door or Window frames are known as the Reveals.
oo
_B
es
1. _________ is an igneous rock used for rubble masonry, road metal, foundation work, etc.
ot
_N
a) Basalt
b) Granite
TU
c) Laterite
d) Kankar
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Basalt and trap are hard and tough igneous stones which is difficult to work. Its specific gravity is 3 an
e/
d compressive strength varies from 150 to 185 Newton per mm square. Its weight varies from 18 to 29 kN per metre
t.m
cube.
/
2. ________ is a metamorphic rock which is used in street paving, rough stone masonry work, etc.
s:/
tp
a) Granite
ht
b) Gneiss
c) Marble
d) Sandstone
Answer: b
Explanation: Gneiss splits into themes labs and it is easy to work. Its specific gravity is 2.69 and compressive strengt
h is 206 Newton per mm square. It is mostly found in Madras, Bihar, Maharashtra, Bengal, Kerala and Gujarat.
3. _______ is a pure white limestone and which is soft and easy to form powder.
a) Chalk
b) Sandstone
c) Murum
d) Slate
Answer: a
54 / 405
Explanation: Chalk is a sedimentary rock that is used in preparing glazier’s putty, also used as colouring material in
manufacture of Portland cement. It is mostly found in Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Punjab, Gujarat, Andaman Islands an
d Himachal Pradesh.
4. _________ is an Igneous rock with compressive strength varies from 75 to 127 Newton per mm square and its we
ight is about 26 to 27 kN per metre cube.
a) Basalt
b) Granite
c) Marble
d) Slate
Answer: b
Explanation: Granite is hard, durable and available in different colours, highly resistant to natural forces and can tak
e nice polish. It is used in steps, sills, facing work on walls, Bridge piers, columns, Road metals, ballast, etc. It is uns
um
uitable for carving.
nt
5. ________ is an impure limestone.
ua
a) Sandstone
_Q
b) Slate
c) Laterite
ks
d) Karkar
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: Kankar is a sedimentary rock that is impure in nature. It is used in road metal, manufacture of hydrauli
_B
c line, etc. It is mostly found in north and Central part of India.
es
6. __________ is a metamorphic rock with compressive strength varies from 1.8 to 3.1 Newton per mm square.
ot
_N
a) Gneiss
b) Chalk
TU
c) Murum
d) Laterite
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: Laterite posses porous and spongy structure which can be easily quarried in blocks and contains high p
e/
ercentage of oxide of iron and also available in different colours. It is mostly used as building stone, Road metal, rou
t.m
gh stone masonry work, etc.

/
7. ________ consist of carbonate of lime with specific gravity varies from 2 to 2.75 and compressive strength is 54
s:/
Newton per mm square.

tp
ht
a) Sandstone
b) Marble
c) Limestone
d) Slate
Answer: c
Explanation: Limestone is used in floors, steps, walls, Road metal, manufacturing of lime in blast furnace, etc. It is
mostly found in Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Punjab, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
8. _________ is a metamorphic rock with specific gravity about 2.65 and compressive strength is 71 Newton per m
m square.
a) Marble
b) Quartz
c) Laterite
55 / 405
d) Slate
Answer: a
Explanation: Marble can take good polish and available in different colours. It is used in flooring, facing work, orna
mental work, etc. It can easily be sawn and carved. It is mostly found in Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Mysore, Madhy
a Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
9. ________ is a decomposed laterite which is deep brown or red in colour.
a) Quartzite
b) Murum
c) Slate
d) Sandstone
Answer: b
Explanation: Murum is a metamorphic rock. It is used in blindage from metal roads, for fancy paths and garden wall
um
s. It is mostly found in Bihar, Orissa, Mysore, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Madras.
nt
10. ________ is a metamorphic rock which is hard, brother, crystalline and compact in nature.
ua
a) Quartzite
_Q
b) Sandstone
c) Slate
ks
d) Kankar
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: Quartzite is hard and hence it is difficult to walk and dress. It is used in retaining walls, Road metals, c
_B
oncrete aggregate, pitching, rubble masonry, facing of buildings, etc. It is mostly found in Bengal, Himachal Prades
es
h, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab and Rajasthan.
ot
11. _______ is a sedimentary rock with specific gravity varies from 2.65 to 2.95 and compressive strength is 64 Ne
_N
wton per mm square.

TU
a) Limestone
b) Sandstone
K
c) Laterite
A
d) Kankar
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Sandstone consists of quartz and other minerals. It is easy to work and dress and also available in differ
ent colours. Its weight is about 20 to 22 kN per metre cube. It is used in steps, facing work, flooring, ornamental car
/
ving, etc.
s:/
tp
12. __________ is a metamorphic rock with specific gravity about 2.89 and compressive strength varies from 75 to
ht
207 Newton per mm square.
a) Quartzite
b) Murum
c) Marble
d) Slate
Answer: d
Explanation: Slate is non-absorbent, mostly in black colour and splits along natural bedding planes. It is used in dam
p proof courses, roofing work, sills, etc. Mostly found in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Madras and Mysore
.

56 / 405
1. Identify the type of Joint in stone masonry.
a) Butt joint
b) Rebated joint
c) Tongued joint
d) Saddled joint
Answer: a
Explanation: In Butt or square joint, the square surface of one stone is placed again that of another as shown in the g
iven figure above. This is the most common joint and is extensively used for ordinary work.
a) Table joint
b) Cramped joint
um
c) Rebated joint
d) Butt joint
nt
Answer: c
ua
Explanation: In Rebated joint, the rebates are provided which prevents the movement of stones. The length of rebate
depends on the nature of the work. But it should not be less than 70 mm. This joint is used for arch work, copying o
_Q
n gables, etc.
ks
oo
a) Rusticated joint
_B
b) Table joint
es
c) Cramped joint
d) Plugged joint
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: In Table joint, a joggle is song in the bed of the stone to prevent lateral movement. The depth of project
ion is about 40 mm and the width of projection is about one third the breath of the stone. This type of joint is used in
TU
case of structures such as sea walls.

K

A
e/
a) Saddle joint
t.m
b) Table joint
c) Butt joint
/
d) Rebated joint
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: In Saddle or water joint, the stone is rounded off as shown in the given figure. This type of joint is prov
ht
ided to protect the joints of the cornice and such other weathered surfaces. The saddle is generally bevelled backwor
d from the front edge so as to make it inconspicuous.
5. Identify the type of joint in stone masonry.
a) Plugged joint
b) Dowelled joint
c) Rusticated joint
d) Table joint
Answer: c
Explanation: Sometimes the margins or edges of stones used for Plinth, Quoin, outer walls of lower storeys, etc., are
sunk below the general level. The term rusticated is used to indicate such masonry. There are three forms of rusticat
ed joints – channel joint, Vee joint, Vee and channelled joint.
57 / 405
a) Butt joint
b) Joggle joint
c) Table joint
d) Cramped joint
Answer: b
Explanation: In Tongued and grooved joint, a projection is kept on one stone and corresponding sinking is provided
in the other side as shown in above figure. This arrangement prevents the sliding of one stone over the other. This jo
int is also known as a Joggle joint and is rarely used as it involves a great deal of labour and thus becomes expensive
.
um
a) Rusticated joint
b) Dowelled joint
nt
c) Cramped joint
ua
d) Plugged joint
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: In Plugged joint, the dovetail shaped mortices are provided in the sides of adjacent stones as shown in t
he given above figure. When Stone are placed in position, the molten lead is poured in the joints, which, when coole
ks
d, connects the stones firmly.
oo
8. Identify the given type of joint in stone masonry.
_B
es
a) Rusticated joint
b) Cramped joint
ot
c) Plugged joint
_N
d) Butt joint
Answer: b
TU
Explanation: In Cramped joint, the cramps are used instead of dowels. The cramps are the pieces of non corrosive m
etal such as gunmetal, copper, etc. and their ends are turned down to a depth of about 40 mm to 50 mm. The length,
K
width and thickness of the cramps vary from 200 mm to 300 mm, 25 mm to 15 mm and 5 mm to 10 mm respectivel
A
y.
e/
t.m
9. In ________ joint, a hole is cut into each stone and loose dowels l, which are small pieces of hard stone, Slate, gu
nmetal, brass, bronze or copper, are inserted and secured with the cement.
/
s:/
a) Cramped joint
tp
b) Plugged joint
ht
c) Dowelled joint
d) Table joint
Answer: c
Explanation: The Dowelled joint, when adopted for columns, is known as a Bed Plug. The dowels are generally 25
mm thick and 100 mm to 150 mm long. This joint also ensure stability of the stones against the displacement.
10. With the help of __________ arrangement, any water moving on the way that surface is diverted from the joints.
a) Saddle joint
b) Rebated joint
c) Table joint
d) Grooved joint
Answer: a
Explanation: In Water joint or Saddle joint, the stone is rounded off. The saddle is generally bevelled back word fro
58 / 405
m the front edge so as to make it inconspicuous. This type of joint is provided to protect the joints of the cornice and
such other weathered surfaces.
1. Identify the type of stone masonry.
a) Dry rubble masonry

b) Random rubble masonry
c) Polygon rubble masonry
d) Flint rubble masonry
Answer: b
Explanation: Random rubble masonry is the roughest and cheapest form of stone walling. In this type of masonry, th
um
e stone used are of widely different sizes. Larger stones are selected for quoins and Jambs to give increased strength
and better appearance.
nt
ua
_Q
a) Uncoursed rubble masonry
b) Dry rubble masonry
ks
c) Flint rubble masonry
oo
d) Polygon rubble masonry
Answer: d
_B
Explanation: In Polygon rubble masonry, the stones are hammer dressed and stones selected for face work are dresse
es
d in an irregular polygonal shape. Thus, the face joints are seen running in an irregular fashion in all directions.
ot

_N
a) Ashlar fine masonry

TU
b) Ashlar Chamfered masonry

c) Ashlar facing masonry
K
d) Ashlar block masonry

A
Answer: c
e/
Explanation: Ashlar facing masonry is provided along with brick or concrete block masonry, to give better appearan
t.m
ce. The sides and Beds of each block are properly dressed so as to make them true to shape. The exposed faces of th
e stones are roughly tooled and chamfered.
/
s:/

tp
ht
a) Ashlar facing masonry

b) Ashlar fine masonry
c) Ashlar Chamfered masonry
d) Ashlar block masonry
Answer: b
Explanation: In Ashlar fine masonry, the beds, sides and faces are finely chiseled dressed. The stones are arranged in
proper Bond and the thickness of mortar joint does not exceed 3 mm. This type of construction gives perfectly smo
oth appearance, but it is costly in construction.
a) Ashlar Chamfered masonry

b) Ashlar fine masonry
c) Ashlar facing masonry
59 / 405
d) Ashlar bond masonry
Answer: a
Explanation: Ashlar Chamfered masonry is special form of Rock faced ashlar masonry in which the strip provided a
round the perimeter of the exposed face is chamfered or bevelled at an angle of 45° by means of a chisel to a depth
of 25 mm. Due to this, a groove is formed in between adjacent blocks of stone.
6. ______ type of ashlar masonry occupies an intermediate position between the rubble masonry and ashlar masonry
.
a) Ashlar Chamfered masonry

b) Ashlar facing masonry
c) Ashlar block-in-course masonry
d) Ashlar rough tooled masonry
Answer: c
um
Explanation: In Ashlar block-in-course masonry, the faces of the stones are generally hammer dressed and the thickn
ess of mortar joints does not exceed 6 mm. These type of construction is used for heavy Engineering Works such as
nt
a retaining walls, sea walls, etc. and in some cases is may be also adopted for public buildings.
ua
7. In ______ rubble masonry the stones used are flints which are irregularly shaped nodules of silica.
_Q
a) Flint rubble masonry
ks
b) Dry rubble masonry
oo
c) Polygon rubble masonry
d) Random rubble masonry
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: In Flint rubble masonry, the width and thickness vary from 80 mm to 150 mm and the length varies fro
m 150 mm to 300 mm. The stones are extremely hard. But they are brittle and therefore they break easily. This type
ot
of masonry is used at places where the Flints are available readily and economically.
_N
8. In _______ type of construction, the stones of irregular sizes are used.

TU
a) Rubble masonry
K
b) Ashlar masonry
A
c) Brick masonry
e/
d) Granite masonry
t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: In Rubble masonry, the stones, as obtained from quarry, are taken in use in the same form or they are b
/
roken and shaped in suitable sizes by means of hammer as the work proceeds. The strength of rubble masonry mainl
s:/
y depends on the quality of mortar and the use of long through Stone at frequent intervals.
tp
ht
9. In _______ masonry, the stones of irregular sizes and shapes are used which are arranged so as to have a good ap
pearance.
a) Dry rubble masonry

b) Polygon rubble masonry
c) Random rubble masonry
d) Uncoursed rubble masonry
Answer: c
Explanation: In Random rubble masonry, the face stones are chisel addressed and the thickness of mortar joints does
not exceed 6 mm. This type of masonry is used for the construction of residential buildings, compound walls, godo
wns, etc.
10. In _________ type of construction, the square or rectangular blocks of stones are used.
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a) Brick masonry
b) Rubble masonry
c) Rock Masonry
d) Ashlar masonry
Answer: d
Explanation: In Ashlar masonry, the height of stone various from 250 mm to 300 mm. The length of stone should no
t exceed 3 times the height and the depth into the wall should be at least equal to half the height.
1. Identify the tool used in stone masonry.
a) Square
um
b) Spalls hammer
c) Mallet
nt
d) Trowel
ua
Answer: d
Explanation: Trowel is used to lift and to spread mortar. Whereas, Mallet is used to strike the Mallet headed chisels.
_Q
ks
oo
a) Square
b) Jumper
_B
c) Drag
es
d) Gad
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: A square is used to set the right angles. Whereas, Jumper is used to bore holes for blasting purpose in a
_N
quarry.
TU

K
a) Line and pins

A
b) Dummy
e/
c) Plumb rule and Bob

t.m
d) Square
Answer: c
/
Explanation: The plumb rule and Bob is used to check the verticality of the work. Whereas, dummy are used similar
s:/
to Mallet but used for carving work.

tp
ht
a) Mash hammer
b) Scabbing hammer
c) Club hammer
d) Waller’s hammer
Answer: c
Explanation: Club hammer is used to strike the narrow headed chisels. Whereas, Mash hammer and Waller’s hamme
r are used to dress the stone.
a) Spirit level
b) Line and pins
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c) Boaster
d) Punch
Answer: b
Explanation: Line and pins are used to maintain the alignment. Whereas, punch is used to dress roughly the stones a
nd Boaster is used to cut the soft Stones.
a) Drag
b) Hand saw
c) Frame saw
d) Cross cut saw
Answer: b
Explanation: The Hand saw is used to cut the soft stone. Whereas, frame saw is used to cut the large blocks of stone.
um
nt
ua
a) Cross-cut saw
b) Bevel
_Q
c) Drag
d) Gad
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: Cross-cut saw is used to but the heart stones. Whereas, Drag is used to make a level surface and Gad is
used to split the stones.
_B
es
ot
a) Claw chisel
_N
b) Wood handled chisel

c) Tooth chisel
TU
d) Jumper
Answer: b
K
Explanation: Wood handled chisel is used to dress the soft stones. Whereas claw chisel and tooth chisel are used to d
A
ress the hard stones.

e/
t.m

/
a) Scabbing hammer
s:/
b) Club hammer
tp
c) Mash hammer
ht
d) Spalls hammer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mash hammer is used to dress the stones. Whereas, Scabbing hammer is used to remove the irregular b
ushings and Spall hammer is used to dress the stone in the quarry.
a) Spirit level
b) Gauge
c) Broad tool
d) Serrate pick
Answer: a
Explanation: Spirit level is used to check the horizontality of the work. Whereas gauge is used to dress the stones for
Cornice, string courses, etc.
62 / 405
a) Wood handled chisel

b) Tooth chisel
c) Claw chisel
d) Axe
Answer: b
Explanation: Tooth chisel is used to dress the hot stones. Whereas, Axe is used to dress roughly and to split the ston
es in the quarry.
a) Crow pick
um
b) Scabblig pick
c) Ordinary pick
nt
d) Serrate pick
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: A Crow pick is used to dress roughly and to split the stones in the quarry. The ordinary pick, serrated p
_Q
ick and scabbling pick have same function as that of crow bar.
ks
oo
_B
1. Identify the dressing of stone surface.
es
a) Quarry-faced finish
ot
b) Scabbling finish
_N
c) Hammer-dressed finish
d) Axed finish
TU
Answer: c
Explanation: In Hammer-dressed finish, the stones are made roughly square or rectangular by means of a Waller’s h
K
ammer as shown in the given figure above. The Hammer-dressed Stones have no sharp or irregular corners and have
A
comparatively even surface so as to fit well in the masonry.

e/
t.m
2. Identify the dressing of stone surface.

/
a) Furrowed finish
s:/
b) Reticulated finish
tp
c) Vermiculated finish
ht
d) Droved finish
Answer: a
Explanation: In Furrowed finish, a margin of about 20 mm width, is sunk on all the edges of the stone and the centra
l position is made to project about 15 mm. A number of vertical or horizontal grooves about 10 mm wide are formed
in this projected position. This finish is generally adopted to make the quoins prominent.
3. Identify the dressing finish of stone surface.
a) Dragged finish
b) Sunk finish
c) Circular finish
d) Tooled finish
Answer: d
Explanation: In Tooled finish, the stone surface is finished by means of a chisel and parallel continuous mark, either
63 / 405
horizontal or vertical on inclined, are left on the surface.
a) Vermiculated finish
b) Reticulated finish
c) Boasted finish
d) Rubbed finish
Answer: c
Explanation: In Boasted finish, the Boaster is used to make non continuous parallel marks on the stone surface. The
marks maybe horizontal, vertical or inclined. A Boaster is a chisel having an edge of width about 60 mm.
um
a) Polished finish
b) Dragged finish
nt
c) Circular finish
ua
d) Rubbed finish
Answer: b
_Q
Explanation: In Dragged or Combed finish, a Drag or a comb, which is a piece of Steel with a number of teeth, is ru
bbed on the surface in all directions. This finish is suitable for soft stones only.
ks
oo
_B
a) Reticulated finish
es
b) Vermiculated finish
c) Boasted finish
ot
d) Plain finish
_N
Answer: a
Explanation: Reticulated finish represents a neat appearance. A margin, about 20 mm wide, is marked on the edges o
TU
f the stone and irregular sinking are made on the enclosed space. A pointed tool is used to put the marks on the sunk
surface so as to present a pock-marked appearance.
K
A
7. Some stones, has obtained from the quarry, possess a smooth surface and hence such a stone surface is termed as t
e/
he __________
t.m
a) Scabbling finish
/
b) Self-faced finish
s:/
c) Axed finish
tp
d) Punched finish
ht
Answer: b
Explanation: Self-faced or Rock-faced or Quarry-faced finished stones can be directly placed on the work from the q
uarry. Whereas, in Scabbling finish, the irregular projections are removed by a scabbling hammer and in this way th
e stones are roughly dressed.
8. The finished surface obtained from the moulded stones are known as ________
a) Circular finish
b) Polished finish
c) Moulded finish
d) Rubbed finish
Answer: c
Explanation: The surface of the stone can be moulded in any desired shape so as to improve the appearance of the w
ork. The mouldings can be made either by hand or machine.
64 / 405
9. ___________ finish is obtained by sinking the surface below the original level in the form of white grooves, cham
fers, inclined surfaces, etc.
a) Vermiculated finish
b) Droved finish
c) Boasted finish
d) Sunk finish
Answer: d
Explanation: Vermiculated finish is just similar to the reticulated type accept that the sinking or more. The finish pre
sents a worm eaten appearance.
10. In _______ type of finish, the surface of the stone is made approximately smooth with the saw or with a chisel.
um
a) Chisel-draughted margins
b) Sunk finish
nt
c) Polished finish
ua
d) Plain finish
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: Whereas, in polished finish, the surface of stone such as Marbles, granites, etc. can be polished either b
y hand or with machine. All these factors are to be careful examined before recommending a particular type of finish
ks
for the stone work.
oo
_B
es
1. Identify the given figure below.

ot
_N
a) Queen closer
b) King closer
TU
c) Bevelled closer
d) Mitred closer
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Queen closer is obtained by cutting the brick longitudinally into equal parts. It can also be made from t
e/
wo quarter bricks, known as the quarter closer, to minimize the wastage of bricks. A queen closer is generally place
t.m
near the Quion.

/

s:/
tp
a) Queen closer
ht
b) Bevelled closer
c) Mitred closer
d) King closer
Answer: d
Explanation: King closer is obtained by cutting a triangular portion of the bricks such that half a header and half a str
etcher are obtained on the adjoining cut faces. A king closer is used near door and window opening to get a satisfact
ory arrangement of the mortar joints.
3. Identify the missing data in the figure given below.
a) Bed
b) Bed joint
c) Header
d) Perpends
65 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: Header is a brick laid with its breadth or with parallel to the phrase or front or direction of a Wall. The
Course containing header is called a header course. Whereas, the lower surface of the brick when laid flat is known
as the bed.
4. Identify the figure given below.
a) King closer
b) Bevelled closer
c) Half bat
d) Perpends
Answer: b
Explanation: The Bevelled closer is obtained by cutting a triangular portion of half the widthl but of full length. A b
evelled closer appears as a closer on one face and as a header on the other face. It is used for the splayed brickwork.
um
nt
ua
a) Three quarter bat
b) Mitred closer
_Q
c) Queen closer
d) Bullnose
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Mitred closer is obtained by cutting a triangular portion of the breeze through its width and making an
angle of 45° to 60° with the length of the break. It is used at corners, junctions, etc.
_B
es
ot
a) Squint quoin
_N
b) Bat
c) Lap
TU
d) Bed
Answer: b
K
Explanation: Bat is a piece of brick, usually considered in relation to the length of brick and accordingly known as h
A
alf bat or three quarter bat. The Half bat may be formed as shown in figure.
e/
t.m

/
a) Bullnose
s:/
b) Bevelled bat
tp
c) Bevelled closer
ht
d) Perpends
Answer: a
Explanation: A brick moulded with rounded angle is termed as a Bullnose and it is used for rounded Quoin. A conne
ction that is formed when a wall takes a turn is known as a Quion. The centre of the curved portion is situated on the
long centre line of the brick.
8. A _________ is a mark of depth about 10 mm to 20 mm which is placed on the face of a brick to form a key for h
olding the mortar.
a) Tooting
b) Cownose
c) Frog
d) Bullnose
Answer: c
66 / 405
Explanation: The wire cut bricks are not provided with Frogs. A pressed brick as a rule as frogs on the both the faces
. A handmade brick has only one frog. Whereas, a brick moulded with a double Bull nose on ends is termed as a co
wnose.
9. The termination of a wall in such a fashion that each alternate course at the end projects is known as the ________
_
a) Racking back
b) Tooting
c) Frog
d) Lap
Answer: b
Explanation: Tooting is adopted to provide adequate bond when the walls are continued horizontally at a later stage.
Whereas, termination of a wall in a stepped fashion is known as a Racking back.
um
10. The vertical joints separating the bricks in either length or cross direction is known as the _________
nt
ua
a) Perpends
b) Closer
_Q
c) Bed
d) Arrises
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: Perpend is for a good Bond, and Perpends in alternate courses should be vertically one above the other.
Whereas, the ages formed by the intersection of plane surfaces of bricks are called as the Arrises.
_B
es

ot
_N
1. In ___________ type of bond, all the brakes are arranged in the stretcher courses.
TU
a) English bond
b) Header bond
K
c) Stretcher bond
A
d) Flemish bond
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: The stretcher bond is useful for one brick partition walls as there are no headers in such walls. As this b
ond does not develop proper internal bond, it should not be used for walls having thickness greater than that of one-
/
brick wall.
s:/
tp
2. In ____________ type of bond, all the bricks are arranged in header courses.
ht
a) Header bond
b) Flemish bond
c) Dutch bond
d) Facing bond
Answer: a
Explanation: Header bond does not have strength to transmit pressure in the direction of the length of the wall. Henc
e it is not suitable for load bearing walls. However, this bond is used for curved surfaces in the brick work because st
retches, if used for curved faces, would project beyond the face of the wall.
3. __________ bond is considered as the strongest Bond in brick work.
a) English bond
b) Raking bond
67 / 405
c) Garden-wall bond
d) Dutch bond
Answer: a
Explanation: English bond is generally used in practice. In English bond, the alternate courses consist of stretches an
d headers, the queen closer is put next to the queen header to develop the face slap and each alternate header is centr
ally supported over a stretcher.
4. In _______ type of bond, the headers are distributed evenly.
a) Stretcher bond
b) Flemish bond
c) Header bond
d) English bond
Answer: b
um
Explanation: In Flemish bond, the headers are distributed evenly and hence, it creates a better appearance than the E
nglish bond. In Flemish Bond, in every course, the headers and stretchers are placed alternately. Here, the Quoin clo
nt
ser is put next to the Quoin header in alternate courses to develop the face lap.
ua
5. In the ________ bond, one header course is provided after three or five stretcher courses.
_Q
a) English cross bond
ks
b) Facing bond
oo
c) Raking bond
d) Garden-wall bond
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: As the name suggests, the Garden-wall bond is used for the construction of the boundary walls, compo
und walls, Garden walls, etc. The wall is one brick wall and its height does not exceed 2 metres. The wall my may b
ot
e constructed either in English bond or Flemish bond.

_N
6. The __________ bonds are used when was become weak in the longitudinal direction due to filling of thicker wal
TU
l in the headers only.

K
a) Dutch bond
A
b) Facing bond
e/
c) Raking bond
t.m
d) English cross bond

Answer: c
/
Explanation: As the filling of thicker wall is done by headers only, such wall become weak in the longitudinal direct
s:/
ion. The raking on inclined bonds are used in such cases as remedial measures. The raking or inclination should be i
tp
n opposite direction in alternate courses of the Raking bond.

ht
7. __________ is a modified form of English bond and by this bond, the corner of the walls is strengthened.
a) Dutch bond
b) Brick-on-edge bond
c) Facing bond
d) Flemish bond
Answer: a
Explanation: In Dutch bond, the alternate courses are of headers and stretchers, the Quoin of a stretcher course is a t
hree quarter but and a header is introduced next to the three quarter bat in every alternate stretcher course.
8. In _______ type of bond, the brakes are laid on edge instead of bed.
a) English cross bond

68 / 405
b) Brick on-edge bond
c) Raking bond
d) Dutch bond
Answer: b
Explanation: Brick-on-edge bond is economical and as it consumes less number of bricks and less quantity of mortar
. It has however not strong and hence easily is used for the construction of Garden walls, compound walls, partition
walls, etc.
9. _______ is another modified form of the English bond and it is used to add beauty in the appearance on the wall.
a) Brick-on-edge
b) Facing bond
c) Garden wall bond
d) English cross bond
um
Answer: d
Explanation: The elevation of a wall with English cross Bond is also known as the St. Andrews Cross bond. In this b
nt
ond, the alternate courses are of headers and stretchers, the queen closer as are place next to the Quoin header and a
ua
header is introduced next to the Quoin Stretcher in every alternate stretcher course.
_Q
10. In ________ type of bond, a header course place after several Stretcher courses.
ks
a) Header bond
oo
b) Stretcher bond
c) Flemish bond
_B
d) Facing bond
es
Answer: d
Explanation: If the facing and backing bricks vary in size and shape, the facing bond is adopted. The least common
ot
multiple of the thickness of facing and backing bricks decides the distance between the successive header courses. If
_N
the facing bricks are expensive and if it is desired to economise, the facing bond is adopted.
TU

K
A
1. A connection between a main wall and partition wall is termed as __________

e/
t.m
a) Bond
b) Joint
/
c) Junction
s:/
d) Bed
tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: In a Junction, the header course of the cross wall will enter the stretcher course of the main wall and th
e alternate course of the cross wall are simply abutting the main wall. Injunction is classified into two categories – ri
ght angled junction and squint Junction.
2. ________ type of right angle junction forms the shape of the English letter T in plan.
a) Tee-junction
b) Cross-junction
c) Squint junction
d) Brick junction
Answer: a
Explanation: In Tee-junction, alternate courses of tee junction between one brick external wall and half brick interna
l wall, both the walls being constructed in English bond. One of the courses of the internal wall enters the stretcher c
ourse of the main wall, creating a lap of half brick.
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3. A ___________ junction is formed when two continuous walls cross or intersect each other.
a) Squint junction
b) Cross-junction
c) Obtuse squint
d) Right angled junction
Answer: b
Explanation: In Cross-junction or an Intersection, the alternate courses of the cross wall i.e. the courses of one of the
walls simply butt against the courses of the other wall. Also, the alternate courses which are not continuous are prov
ided with tie bricks in the form of key headers to create the necessary bond and lap.
4. A ________ is formed when two walls meet each other at an angle other than a right angle without making a quoi
n.
um
a) Cross-junction
nt
b) Squint junction
ua
c) Quoin
d) Intersection
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: Squint junction may be in the English bond and Flemish Bond. The Squint junction is however not co
ks
mmon in brickwork and it is rarely adopted because great difficulties experience in accurately forming it in practice.
oo
5. ________ form of quoin is formed when two walls meet at an angle of 90°.
_B
es
a) Square quoin
b) Squint quoin
ot
c) Acute quoin
_N
d) Obtuse quoin
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: As the term implies, right-angled or square quoin is the form of quoin which is formed when two walls
meet an angle of 90°. In right angled quoin, at the same level, header course on one face of angle is converted into a
K
stretcher course on the other face of the angle. No vertical continuous joints are formed in this type of quoin.
A
e/
6. A _________ is formed when a wall takes a turn and makes an angle other than a right angle.
t.m
a) Right angled junction

/
b) Acute squint
s:/
c) Squint quoin
tp
d) Right angled quoin

ht
Answer: c
Explanation: In Squint quoin, the continuous straight joint should be avoided, the maximum length should be obtain
ed with the maximum cutting of the bricks and the number of broken bricks to be used should be reduced to a minim
um.
7. In ______ the in closed angle on the inside of the wall is less than a right angle.
a) Acute quoin
b) Acute squint
c) Squint quoin
d) Obtuse squint
Answer: a
Explanation: In Acute squint, the enclosed angle on the inside of the wall is less than 90°. An acute squint can be in t
he form of an English bond or in the double Flemish bond.
70 / 405
8. In _________ the enclosed angle on the inside of the wall is between 90 degrees and 180 degrees.
a) Obtuse quoin
b) Acute squint
c) Acute quoin
d) Obtuse squint
Answer: d
Explanation: In Obtuse squint, angle usually varies from 105° to 135°, the more common being 120°. An obtuse qui
nt may be in the form of English bond or in the double Flemish bond. The walls in both the cases are of one and half
times of brick thickness.
um
a) Tee junction
b) Cross junction
nt
c) Quoin
ua
d) Squint
Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: Above given figure shows the plan of alternate courses of a Tee-junction between one and half bricks e
xternal wall and one brick internal wall, both the walls being constructed in the English bond. The header course of t
ks
he internal wall enters the stretcher course of the main wall.
oo
_B
es
a) Tie junction
b) Right angled junction
ot
c) Square quoin
_N
d) Squint junction
Answer: d
TU
Explanation: Above given figure shows the plan of alternate courses of a Squint junction between one brick wall and
one & half brick wall, both the walls being constructed in the English bond. The angle between the bond is 45°.
K
A
e/

t.m
1. Which of the following is not a type of composite masonry?

/
s:/
a) Stone composite masonry

tp
b) Brick composite masonry

ht
c) Cement concrete masonry

d) Glass block masonry
Answer: b
Explanation: Composite masonry is the one that is constructed out of two or more than two types of building units or
in which different types of building materials are used for construction. It is of the following types – stone composit
e masonry, brick stone composite masonry, cement concrete masonry, hollow clay tile masonry, reinforced brick ma
sonry and glass block masonry.
2. Which form of brick stone composite masonry is commonly used at locations where rubble stone is available in h
uge amounts, but ashlar is not available?
a) Brick-backed ashlar masonry

b) Brick-backed stone slab facing
c) Rubble-backed brick masonry
71 / 405
d) Stone-backed masonry
Answer: c
Explanation: Bricks and stones can be simultaneously used in three forms of composite masonry – brick-backed ashl
ar masonry, brick-backed stone slab facing and rubble-backed brick masonry. In brick-backed ashlar masonry, altern
ate courses of ashlar are present. Brick-backed stone slab facing is composed of bricks which are laid in courses wit
h proper bonds whereas rubble-backed brick masonry is usually used at locations where rubble stone is available in
huge amounts, but ashlar is not available.
3. Composite stone masonry generally, consists of a combination of ______ and _____ masonry.
a) Stone and brick

b) Stone and ashlar
c) Ashlar and rubble
d) Brick and rubble
um
Answer: c
Explanation: Composite stone masonry generally, consists of a combination of ashlar masonry and rubble masonry.
nt
In rubble masonry, irregular shapes of stones are used whereas in ashlar masonry, regular shaped stones are used.
ua
4. According to the recommendations laid by the Concrete Association of India, what should be the least strength of
_Q
the blocks used in concrete masonry?
ks
a) 3 N/mm2
oo
b) 4 N/mm2
c) 2 N/mm2
_B
d) 5 N/mm2
es
Answer: a
Explanation: Concrete Association of India recommends that the strength of the blocks used in concrete masonry sh
ot
ould be at least 3 N/mm2 and the recommended size of common blocks used in cement concrete masonry are 39 cm
_N
x 19 cm x 30 cm; 39 cm x 19 cm x 20 cm and 39 cm x 19 cm x 10 cm.

TU
5. In concrete masonry, a hollow concrete block has core-void area greater than __________ of the gross area.
K
a) 20%
A
b) 15%
e/
c) 30%
t.m
d) 25%
Answer: d
/
Explanation: Concrete masonry uses two types of cement concrete blocks for the construction of walls – hollow con
s:/
crete block and solid concrete block. A hollow concrete block has core-void area greater than 25% of the gross area.
tp
ht
6. In which of the following surface finishes, finishing material such as marble is used on the facing side of the bloc
k?
a) Common finished surface

b) Glazed finish
c) Specially faced finish
d) Coloured finish
Answer: c
Explanation: Common finished surface is obtained by mixing appropriate aggregates. Glazed finish is used to give a
shiny appearance. Coloured finish is obtained by adding various colored pigments to the concrete mix to impart diff
erent colors whereas in specially faced finish, finishing material such as marble, is used on the facing side of the blo
ck.
7. While manufacturing the concrete masonry bricks, the cement aggregate ratio should not be thinner than _______
72 / 405
___
a) 1:6
b) 1:3
c) 3:4
d) 1:4
Answer: a
Explanation: While manufacturing the concrete masonry bricks, the cement aggregate ratio should not be thinner tha
n 1:6. The aggregate should have a mixture with the proportion of fine aggregate being 60% and coarse aggregate be
ing 40%.
8. Which of the following surface finishes is used for decorative works?
a) Slumped finish
um
b) Coloured finish
nt
d) Glazed finish
ua
Answer: d
Explanation: Glazed finish is used to give a very pleasing and shiny appearance to the surfaces. Hence, this type of s
_Q
urface finish is widely used for decorative works.
ks
9. The figure below represents __________
oo
a) Stretcher block
_B
b) Jamb block
es
c) Frogged brick block
d) Solid brick block
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: The figure represents a frogged brick block. A frog is an indentation in the face of a brick, usually, use
d for holding the mortar.
TU
10. In hollow clay blocks masonry, the load bearing main walls should be constructed in __________ (cement, lime,
K
san
A
d) mix.
e/
t.m
a) 1:2:6
b) 1:1:6
/
c) 1:2:9
s:/
d) 1:1:9
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: In hollow clay blocks masonry, the load bearing main walls should be constructed in 1:1:6 (cement, li
me, sand), while non-load bearing main walls should be constructed in 1:2:9 mix.
11. Reinforced brick work is used in which of the following circumstances?
a) When the brick wall is to carry light loads

b) When the brick work has to bear some shear stress
c) When it is needed to decrease the longitudinal bond
d) When the brick work does not have to bear shear stresse
Answer: b
Explanation: Reinforced brick work is used in the circumstances when the brick work has to bear some shear stress,
when it is needed to increase the longitudinal bond and when the brick wall is to carry and support heavy loads.
12. In stone composite masonry, ashlar masonry is used in backing of the wall while rubble masonry is used in the f
73 / 405
acing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Composite stone masonry is a combination of ashlar masonry and rubble masonry. Rubble masonry is
composed of irregular shaped stones, while ashlar masonry consists of regular shaped stones and gives a smooth and
pleasant appearance. Hence, rubble masonry is used in the backing of the wall while ashlar masonry is used in the f
acing.
13. Reinforced brick work uses __________
a) First class bricks with high compressive strength

b) First class bricks with moderate compressive strength
um
c) Second class bricks with high compressive strength
d) Second class bricks with moderate compressive strength
nt
Answer: a
ua
Explanation: Reinforced brick work is the one in which the resultant composite masonry is capable of bearing any ki
nd of tensile or shear stresses in addition to the compressive stresses. Therefore, it uses first class bricks with high co
_Q
mpressive strength in order to impart great strength to the resulting masonry.
ks
14. Which of the following is a type of sheet metal which has been cut and stretched to form a diamond network?
oo
a) Bricktor
_B
b) Pier
es
c) Exmet
d) Hoop iron
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: Steel meshed strips that are used in horizontal reinforcement are generally cut and stretched by a machi
ne to form a diamond network. These strips are known as expanded metal or exmet.
TU
15. In reinforced brick masonry, the reinforcement is laid only horizontally.

K
A
a) True
e/
b) False
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: In reinforced brick masonry, the reinforcement can be laid both horizontally or vertically. In horizontal
/
reinforcement, bars are placed in such a way that they go all the way through the wall while in vertical reinforceme
s:/
nt, vertical steel bars are placed at all the corners of the walls.
tp
ht
1. Which form of brick stone composite masonry is commonly used at locations where rubble stone is available in h
uge amounts, but ashlar is not available?

Answer: c
Explanation: Rubble-backed brick masonry is usually used at locations where rubble stone is available in huge amou
nts, but ashlar is not available. It uses rubble stones in large amounts. Rubble stones are rough and uneven.
74 / 405
2. Which of the following tools is used for cutting soft bricks?
a) Scutch
b) Trowel
c) Jointer
d) Spirit level
Answer: a
Explanation: Scutch is a tool that is used for cutting soft bricks. A trowel is used for laying the mortar. A jointer is u
sed for pointing the joints while the spirit level is used for levelling.
3. Mason’s square is used for checking __________ angles.
a) Acute
b) Obtuse
um
c) Right
d) Straight
nt
Answer: c
ua
Explanation: Mason’s square is widely used by builders and masons for checking right angles. It is one of the most i
mportant tools used for masonry work.
_Q
4. Which of the following is not a form of brick stone composite masonry?
ks
oo
a) Brick-backed ashlar masonry masonry
_B
es
Answer: d
ot
Explanation: Bricks and stones can be simultaneously used in three forms of composite masonry – brick-backed ashl
_N
ar masonry, brick-backed stone slab facing and rubble-backed brick masonry. Hence, stone-backed masonry is not a
form of brick stone composite masonry.
TU
5. Plumb rule is used for checking the __________ of brick walls.

K
A
a) Horizontality
e/
b) Angularity
t.m
c) Uniformity
d) Verticality
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: Plumb rule is a tool that consists of a plumb line and a bob. It is extensively used by builders and surve
tp
yors for checking the verticality of the walls.

ht
6. Which of the following should be used for construction in brick-backed ashlar masonry?
a) Cement mortar
b) Lime mortar
c) Mud mortar
d) Cement concrete
Answer: a
Explanation: In brick-backed ashlar masonry, cement mortar should be used for construction. Cement mortar is used
to form joints of uniform thickness and imparts strength to the masonry.
7. In rubble-backed brick masonry, each alternate course comprises of a __________
a) Header
75 / 405
b) Stretcher
c) Bat
d) Quoin header
Answer: d
Explanation: In rubble-backed brick masonry, each alternate course comprises of a quoin header. It is defined as a c
orner on the face side of a wall.
8. B in the figure represents __________
a) Brick backing
b) Facing
c) Ashlar
d) Stone slab
Answer: a
um
Explanation: The above is a figure of brick stone composite masonry. A in the figure represents stone slabs or tiles
while B represents brick backing.
nt
ua
9. In which of the following types, stone marble may be used for making stone tiles?
_Q
ks
oo
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: In brick-backed ashlar masonry, alternate courses of ashlar are present. In brick-backed stone slab facin
es
g, stone marble may be used for making stone tiles.
ot
10. In brick-backed stone slab facing, it is advisable to use steel cramps for connecting the facing and backing.
_N
a) True
TU
b) False
Answer: b
K
Explanation: Brick-backed stone slab facing is composed of bricks that are laid in courses with proper bonds. In bric
A
k-backed stone slab facing, it is advisable to use metal cramps for connecting the facing and backing.
e/
t.m

/
s:/
1. According to the recommendations laid by the Concrete Association of India, what should be the least strength of
tp
the blocks used in concrete masonry?

ht
a) 3 N/mm2
b) 4 N/mm2
c) 2 N/mm2
d) 5 N/mm2
Answer: a
Explanation: Concrete Association of India recommends that the strength of the blocks used in concrete masonry sh
ould be at least 3 N/mm2 and the recommended size of common blocks used in cement concrete masonry are 39 cm
x 19 cm x 30 cm; 39 cm x 19 cm x 20 cm and 39 cm x 19 cm x 10 cm.
2. In concrete masonry, a hollow concrete block has a core-void area greater than __________ of the gross area.
a) 20%
b) 15%
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c) 30%
d) 25%
Answer: d
crete block and solid concrete block. A hollow concrete block has a core-void area greater than 25% of the gross are
a.
3. In which of the following surface finishes, finishing material such as marble is used on the facing side of the bloc
k?
a) Common finished surface

b) Glazed finish
d) Colored finish
um
Answer: c
Explanation: Common finished surface is obtained by mixing appropriate aggregates. Glazed finish is used to give a
nt
shiny appearance. Colored finish is obtained by adding various colored pigments to the concrete mix to impart differ
ua
ent colors whereas in the specially faced finish, finishing material such as marble, is used on the facing side of the bl
ock.
_Q
4. While manufacturing the concrete masonry bricks, the cement-aggregate ratio should not be thinner than _______
ks
___
oo
a) 1:6
_B
b) 1:3
es
c) 3:4
d) 1:4
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: While manufacturing the concrete masonry bricks, the cement-aggregate ratio should not be thinner tha
n 1:6. The aggregate should have a mixture with the proportion of fine aggregate being 60% and coarse aggregate be
TU
ing 40%.
K
5. Which of the following surface finishes is used for decorative works?

A
e/
a) Slumped finish
t.m
b) Colored finish
/
d) Glazed finish
s:/
Answer: d
tp
Explanation: Glazed finish is used to give a very pleasing and shiny appearance to the surfaces. Hence, this type of s
ht
urface finish is widely used for decorative works.
6. Solid concrete blocks are obtained from lightweight aggregates while hollow concrete blocks are obtained from h
eavy aggregates.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
crete block and solid concrete block. Solid concrete blocks are obtained from heavy aggregates while hollow concret
e blocks are obtained from lightweight aggregates.
7. In concrete masonry, hollow concrete units are used for _________ walls.
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a) Either load-bearing or non-load bearing
b) Only load-bearing
c) Only non-load bearing
d) Neither load-bearing nor non-load bearing
Answer: a
crete block and solid concrete block. Solid concrete blocks are used only in load-bearing walls whereas hollow conc
rete blocks can be used for either load-bearing or non-load bearing walls.
8. In the figure below, A and B represent __________ and _________
a) Solid brick block and floor block

b) Partition block and solid brick block
c) Partition block and floor block
um
d) Solid brick block and partition block
Answer: d
nt
Explanation: There are various blocks used in concrete masonry. These are solid brick blocks, partition blocks, floor
ua
blocks, lintel blocks, corner blocks, etc. The solid brick blocks are the most commonly used blocks.
_Q
9. The cores in the blocks used in concrete masonry should be _________ shaped.
ks
a) Oval
oo
b) Square
c) Triangular
_B
d) Circular
es
Answer: a
Explanation: The Concrete Association of India recommends that the shape of the cores in the blocks used in concre
ot
te masonry should be oval. There should be at least two cores in the blocks.
_N
10. Which of the following surface finishes is a rough finish?

TU
a) Glazed finish
K
b) Colored finish
A

e/
d) Slumped finish
t.m
Answer: d
Explanation: Slumped finish is obtained by preparing a concrete of the desired slump. It is a rough finish. Glazed fin
/
ish is used to give a shiny appearance. Colored finish is obtained by adding various colored pigments to the concrete
s:/
mix to impart different colors whereas in the specially faced finish, finishing material such as marble, is used on the
tp
facing side of the block.

ht
1. In hollow clay blocks masonry, the load bearing main walls should be constructed in __________ (cement, lime, s
an
d) mix.
a) 1:2:6
b) 1:1:6
c) 1:2:9
d) 1:1:9
Answer: b
Explanation: In hollow clay blocks masonry, the load bearing main walls should be constructed in 1:1:6 (cement, li
78 / 405
me, sand). And non-load bearing main walls should be constructed in 1:2:9 mix.
2. Thermal insulation of hollow clay blocks is good because of ____________
a) Air within the cells of blocks

b) Air outside the cells of blocks
c) Resistance to water
d) Resistance to air
Answer: a
Explanation: Hollow clay blocks are fireproof and thermally insulated. The reason behind their good thermal insulati
on is the presence of a huge amount of air within the cells of these blocks.
3. Which of the following is not a type of structural clay unit in hollow clay blocks masonry?
um
a) Partition block
b) Fixing block
nt
c) Load bearing block
ua
d) Cavity block
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: Hollow clay blocks are available in various shapes and sizes. Various types are partition block, fixing b
lock, load-bearing block, rug faced block, conduit block, etc.
ks
oo
4. In grooved tiles, the area covered by the grooves should not exceed _________ of the area of cored faces.
_B
a) 20%
es
b) 30%
c) 40%
ot
d) 50%
_N
Answer: d
Explanation: Tiles used in hollow clay blocks masonry may have grooves on their faces. While manufacturing groov
TU
ed tiles, it is to be kept in mind that the area covered by the grooves should not exceed 50% of the area of the cored f
aces.
K
A
5. In hollow clay blocks masonry _________ act as partitions between the cells.
e/
t.m
a) Webs
b) Shells
/
c) Grooves
s:/
d) Blocks
tp
Answer: a
ht
Explanation: In hollow clay blocks masonry, a shell surrounds the hollow interior. The role of a web is to serve as p
artitions between the cells.
6. What should be the least overall average thickness of the shells used in hollow clay blocks masonry?
a) 1 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 4 cm
Answer: b
Explanation: The shell of a clay block surrounds the hollow interior while a web acts as a partition between the cells.
The least overall average thickness of a shell should be 2 cm.
7. Grooved tiles are used only in those cases where plastering is to be done.
79 / 405
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Grooved tiles are used only in those cases where plastering is to be done. In all other cases, smooth tile
s should be used.
8. The given figure represents a __________
a) Partition block
b) Conduit block
c) Load bearing block
d) Fixing block
Answer: a
um
Explanation: Various types of structural clay units of hollow blocks are partition block, fixing block, load-bearing bl
ock, rug faced block, conduit block, etc. The given figure represents a partition block.
nt
ua
9. In hollow clay blocks masonry, the overall average thickness of the web of clay blocks used should not be less tha
n __________ cm.
_Q
a) One
ks
b) Two
oo
c) Three
d) Four
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: The least overall average thickness of a web should not be less than 1 cm. And, the least overall averag
e thickness of a shell should be 2 cm.
ot
_N
10. In hollow clay blocks masonry, all the blocks should be dipped in _________ before using them.
TU
a) Alcohol
b) Acetone
K
c) Water
A
d) Ethene
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: Hollow clay blocks are widely used in hollow clay blocks masonry. They are usually made up of clay.
All the types of blocks should be dipped in water before using them.
/
s:/
tp

ht
1. Reinforced brickwork is used in which of the following circumstances?
a) When the brick wall is to carry light loads

b) When the brickwork has to bear some shear stress
c) When it is needed to decrease the longitudinal bond
d) When the brickwork does not have to bear any shear stress
Answer: b
Explanation: Reinforced brickwork is used in the circumstances when the brickwork has to bear some shear stress,
when it is needed to increase the longitudinal bond and when the brick wall is to carry and support heavy loads.
2. Reinforced brickwork uses __________
a) First class bricks with high compressive strength

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b) First class bricks with moderate compressive strength
c) Second class bricks with high compressive strength
d) Second class bricks with moderate compressive strength
Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforced brickwork is the one in which the resultant composite masonry is capable of bearing any ki
nd of tensile or shear stresses in addition to the compressive stresses. Therefore, it uses first class bricks with high co
mpressive strength in order to impart great strength to the resulting masonry.
3. Which of the following is a type of sheet metal which has been cut and stretched to form a diamond network?
a) Bricktor
b) Pier
c) Exmet
d) Hoop iron
um
Answer: c
Explanation: Steel meshed strips that are used in horizontal reinforcement are generally cut and stretched by a machi
nt
ne to form a diamond network. These strips are known as expanded metal or exmet.
ua
4. In reinforced brick masonry, the reinforcement is laid only horizontally.
_Q
a) True
ks
b) False
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: In reinforced brick masonry, the reinforcement can be laid both horizontally or vertically. In horizontal
_B
reinforcement, bars are placed in such a way that they go all the way through the wall while in vertical reinforceme
es
nt, vertical steel bars are placed at all the corners of the walls.
ot
5. The figure below represents __________

_N
a) Exmet
TU
b) Bricktor
c) Pile
K
d) Pier
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Bricktor is a form of meshed reinforcement which is made up of straight tension wires of length 1.4 m
t.m
m interlaced with binding wires. The length of binding wires is nearly 1.1 mm.
/
6. In horizontal reinforcement, how many strips of hoop iron are used for one header brick?
s:/
tp
a) One
ht
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: In horizontal reinforcement, wrought iron flat bars called hoop iron is extensively used. The number of
strips of hoop iron used for one header brick is generally two.
7. In horizontal reinforcement, how many strips of hoop iron are used for one stretcher brick?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
81 / 405
Explanation: In horizontal reinforcement, the number of strips of hoop iron used for one stretcher brick is generally
one. The hoop iron is placed in a uniform way throughout the wall.
8. What is the length of the coil in which exmet is supplied?
a) 80 m
b) 83 m
c) 85 m
d) 87 m
Answer: b
Explanation: Exmet is a network of steel meshed strips. Generally, the length of the coil in which exmet is supplied i
s 83 m.
9. Which of the following is used to embed the reinforcement?
um
a) Lime mortar
nt
b) Cement concrete
ua
c) Dense cement mortar
d) Slaked lime
_Q
Answer: c
Explanation: The reinforcement is embedded by using dense cement mortar. Mortar strengthens the reinforcement a
ks
nd prevents the formation of cracks.
oo
10. Corrosion of the reinforcement results in __________
_B
es
a) Expansion of joints
b) Contraction of joints
ot
c) Shrinkage
_N
d) Tightening of joints
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: In reinforced brickwork, it is important to keep in mind that it should be embedded with dense cement
mortar in order to prevent corrosion. Corrosion of the reinforcement results in cracking as well as the expansion of j
K
oints.
A
e/
t.m

/
1. A wall may be defined as that component of a building, whose width is _________ times its thickness.
s:/
tp
a) Two
ht
b) Four
c) Eight
d) Sixteen
Answer: b
Explanation: A wall is a vital component of the building whose function is to divide the space of the building. Gener
ally, the width of a wall exceeds four times its thickness. There are basically two types of walls – load bearing and n
on-load bearing walls.
2. A column is _______ member.
a) Vertical load-bearing
b) Vertical non-load bearing
c) An Isolated load-bearing
d) An Isolated non-load bearing
82 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: A column is defined as an isolated load-bearing member. The main difference between a wall and a col
umn is that the width of a wall exceeds four times its thickness while the width of a column does not.
3. Load-bearing walls are defined as those walls which carry their own weight only whereas non-load bearing walls
are defined as those walls which can carry superimposed loads in addition to their own weight.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are basically two types of walls – load-bearing walls and non-load bearing walls. Load-bearing
walls are those which can support and carry superimposed loads in addition to their own weight whereas non-load b
earing walls are those which can carry and support their own weight only.
um
4. Which of the following types of walls is constructed to divide the space within the building?
nt
a) Partition wall
ua
b) Cavity wall
c) Party wall
_Q
d) Curtain wall
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: A partition wall is defined as either load-bearing or non-load bearing internal wall whose function is to
oo
divide the space within the building so as to make the building more productive and useful. A cavity wall consists of
two leaves. A party wall is used to separate adjacent buildings occupied by different people. A curtain wall does not
_B
carry any vertical loads.
es
5. A panel wall is an __________

ot
_N
a) Internal non-loading bearing wall

b) External load-bearing wall
TU
c) Internal load-bearing wall

d) External non-load bearing wall
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: Walls are mainly divided into two types – load-bearing and non-load bearing walls. Each type is furthe
e/
r divided into internal and external walls. A panel wall is defined as an external non-load bearing wall.
t.m
6. Cross-wall construction is composed of internal walls which run at __________ angles to the length of the buildin
/
g.
s:/
tp
a) Straight
ht
b) Acute
c) Right
d) Obtuse
Answer: c
Explanation: Cross-wall construction is that form of construction which is composed of internal walls which run at r
ight angles to the length of the building. The function of this composition of internal walls is to support and carry all
the loads which the building is subjected to.
7. A __________ is a wall which separates adjacent buildings belonging to different persons.
a) Party
b) Separating
c) Cavity
d) Partition
83 / 405
Answer: a
Explanation: A party wall is defined as a wall that is constructed in order to separate adjacent buildings that belong t
o different owners. A party wall can be either load-bearing or non-load bearing.
8. A separating wall is defined as a wall that separates _________ residencies within the _________ building.
a) Same, same
b) Same, different
c) Different, different
d) Different, same
Answer: d
Explanation: A separating wall is defined as that type of wall which is constructed in order to separate different resid
encies within the same building. They are fire-resistant and also provide sound insulation.
um
9. In the figure below, B represents __________
nt
a) Beam
ua
b) Panel wall
c) Column
_Q
d) Party wall
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: In the given figure, B represents a column. A column is defined as an isolated load-bearing member. A
oo
represents a beam and C represents a panel wall.
_B
10. Which of the following is not a type of load-bearing wall?
es
a) Solid masonry wall

ot
b) Panel wall
_N
c) Cavity wall
d) Faced wall
TU
Answer: b
Explanation: Load-bearing walls are further classified into the following types – solid masonry wall, cavity wall, ve
K
neered wall, and faced wall. A panel wall is a non-load bearing wall which is used in framed structures.
A
e/
11. A curtain wall carries ___________

t.m
a) Only vertical loads

/
b) Only lateral loads

s:/
c) Both vertical and lateral loads

tp
d) Their own weight only

ht
Answer: b
Explanation: A curtain wall is defined as that type of wall which carries no vertical loads but is subjected to lateral l
oads. Hence, a curtain wall is also known as a self-supporting wall.
12. A cavity wall is a wall that consists of _________ leaves.
a) Only one leaf

b) Two
c) Four
d) Zero
Answer: b
Explanation: A cavity wall is that type of load-bearing wall which consists of two leaves. These leaves are made up
of structural units and are separated by a cavity which is why these are called cavity walls.
84 / 405
13. A faced wall is that type of load-bearing wall in which facing and backing are made of the same material.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A faced wall is a load-bearing wall. In a faced wall, the facing and the backing are made of two differe
nt materials.
14. In which of the following types of load-bearing walls, the facing is attached to the backing but not bonded?
a) Faced wall
b) Cavity wall
c) Veneered wall
d) Panel wall
um
Answer: c
Explanation: In a veneered wall, the facing is attached to the backing but not bonded. In a faced wall, the facing and
nt
the backing are bonded together. A cavity wall is the one that consists of two leaves. A panel is a non-load bearing
ua
wall.
_Q
15. In a cavity wall, the space between the leaves should be filled with a material which is not __________
ks
a) Waterproof
oo
b) Load-bearing
c) Non-load bearing
_B
d) Insulating
es
Answer: b
Explanation: In a cavity wall, the space between the leaves or the cavity should be filled with a material that is highl
ot
y insulating, waterproof and non-load bearing. This is done in order to increase the effectivity of the wall.
_N
TU

K
1. Which of the following is not a type of load coming on the wall structures?
A
e/
a) Dead load
t.m
b) Black load
c) Live load
/
d) Earthquake load
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Load-bearing walls are subjected to various types of loads. Loads coming on a structure are of the type
ht
s – live loads, dead loads, snow loads, wind loads and earthquake loads.
2. Which of the following reasons is not responsible for setting up stresses in a wall?
a) Its own weight

b) Weight of superimposed loads
c) Cement
d) Lateral pressure
Answer: c
Explanation: Stresses are set up in walls by its own weight, by the weight of superimposed loads and by lateral press
ure. The resistance to these stresses determines the strength of a wall. More the resistance more is the strength.
3. Live loads and dead loads act in a horizontal direction.

85 / 405
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A building may be subjected to various types of loads like live loads, dead loads, snow loads, wind loa
ds and earthquake loads. Live loads and dead loads act in a vertical direction.
4. In a masonry wall, the strength of the mortar should be __________ that of the masonry unit.
a) Lesser than
b) Greater than
c) Equal to
d) Greater than or equal to
Answer: a
Explanation: The strength of a masonry wall depends on the mortar strength and the strength of masonry units. Whil
um
e keeping the design considerations of a wall in your mind, it must be noted that the strength of the mortar should be
lesser than that of the masonry unit.
nt
ua
5. Weak mortar has __________
_Q
a) Only lime
b) Only cement
ks
c) More cement and less lime
oo
d) More lime and less cement
Answer: d
_B
Explanation: Mortar consists of both lime and cement. The strength of the mortar determines the strength of a wall.
es
Weak mortar has more of lime and less of cement.
ot
6. Slenderness ratio of a wall does not depend on __________

_N
a) Height of the wall

TU
b) Length of the wall

c) Mass of the wall
K
d) Thickness of the wall

A
Answer: c
e/
Explanation: When vertical loads act on a wall, then the strength of the load intensity depends on the slenderness rati
t.m
o. The slenderness ratio further depends on the length, height and thickness of the wall. It also depends upon the sup
port conditions.
/
s:/
7. Stability problem results when slenderness ratio is more than __________

tp
ht
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
Answer: a
Explanation: The load capacity of a wall is a stability problem when the slenderness ratio is more than 30. It become
s a stress problem when the slenderness ratio is less than 30.
8. The actual thickness of one brick wall in case of modular bricks is __________
a) 18 cm
b) 19 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 21 cm
86 / 405
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of bricks used for the construction of brick walls. These are modular bricks and tra
ditional bricks. The thickness can be actual or nominal. The actual thickness of one brick wall in the case of modular
bricks is 19 cm.
9. The nominal thickness of one brick wall in case of modular bricks is __________
a) 18 cm
b) 19 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 21 cm
Answer: c
Explanation: The nominal thickness of one brick wall in the case of modular bricks is 20 cm. Nominal thickness incl
udes the thickness of the mortar while actual thickness doesn’t include the thickness of the mortar.
um
10. Slenderness ratio is inversely proportional to __________
nt
ua
a) Effective height
b) Effective thickness
_Q
c) Effective length
d) Effective height and effective thickness
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Slenderness ratio depends on the effective length or height and effective thickness. It is directly proport
ional to the effective length or effective height, whichever is less. And, it is inversely proportional to the effective thi
_B
ckness of the wall.
es
ot

_N
1. The load-bearing capacity of a wall is dependent on the _________ of the lateral supports.
TU
a) Size
K
b) Spacing
A
c) Material
e/
d) Mass
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: Load-bearing walls are subjected to various types of loads. A wall can be laterally supported at both ho
/
rizontal and vertical intervals. The load-bearing capacity of a wall is dependent on the spacing of lateral supports. It
s:/
also depends on its effectiveness.

tp
ht
2. A wall cannot be laterally supported at a horizontal level by __________
a) Cross wall
b) Pier
c) Roof/Floor
d) Buttress
Answer: c
Explanation: Stresses are set up in walls by its own weight, by the weight of superimposed loads and by lateral press
ure. A wall can be supported at the horizontal level by cross walls, piers or buttresses which transfer horizontal force
s to the foundation.
3. Lateral support to a wall limits the slenderness and provides stability to the structure.
a) True
87 / 405
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Lateral support to a wall limits the slenderness and provides stability to the structure. A wall may requi
re lateral support either at horizontal or vertical level.
4. A wall can be laterally supported at a vertical level by __________
a) Load bearing wall

b) Pier
c) Roof/Floor
d) Buttress
Answer: c
Explanation: A wall can be supported at the vertical level by floor/roof which transfers horizontal forces to cross wal
ls. These cross walls further transmit these forces to the foundation and provide stability to the structure.
um
5. ___________ masonry gives high basic compressive stress.
nt
ua
a) Rubble
b) Stone
_Q
c) Brick
d) Ashlar
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: The basic compressive stress is dependent on various factors like crushing strength of bricks, shape, an
d size of units, type of mortar used, etc. Ashlar masonry gives high values of basic compressive stress while coursed
_B
stone masonry gives low values.
es
6. Coursed stone masonry has __________ joints while ashlar masonry has _________ joints.
ot
_N
a) Thin, thin
b) Thick, thick
TU
c) Thick, thin
d) Thin, thick
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: Coursed stone masonry requires thick joints while ashlar masonry requires thin joints. This is because
e/
coursed stone masonry uses stones of irregular shapes and sizes whereas ashlar masonry uses finely dressed stones o
t.m
f proper shapes and sizes.

/
7. In the formula for calculating the total load supported by a lintel in which total load is given by the expression 0.4
s:/
4 L2 x t x W /100, W represents _________

tp
ht
a) Unit weight of masonry

b) Total weight of masonry
c) Unit weight of the load
d) Total weight of the load
Answer: a
Explanation: When the load is concentrated, it is supported by lintels. The total supported by a lintel is given by the
expression 0.44 L2 x t x W /100 where L represents the span of the lintel, t represents the wall thickness and W repr
esents the unit weight of masonry.
8. The anchors provided for timber floors and roofs should be at intervals of less than __________ meters in two-sto
reyed buildings.
a) One
b) Two
88 / 405
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Timber floors and roofs should be anchored by metal anchors. National Building Code of India specifi
es that the anchors provided for timber floors and roofs should be at intervals of less than two meters in two-storeye
d buildings.
9. The formula for calculating the total load supported by a lintel in which total load is given by the expression 0.44
L2 x t x W /100 is derived by assuming an angle of spread of __________
a) 15°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 60°
um
Answer: b
Explanation: The total supported by a lintel is given by the expression 0.44 L2 x t x W /100. This formula is derived
nt
assuming an angle of spread of 30° and that the lintel supports a load of the shape of an equilateral triangle having si
ua
de equal to L meters.
_Q
10. A in the figure below represents __________
ks
a) Wall
oo
b) Cross walls
c) Pier
_B
d) Buttress
es
Answer: b
Explanation: The given figure represents cross-walls providing lateral support to the wall. Therefore, A in the figure
ot
represents cross walls.

_N
TU

K
1. The effective height of a wall is used for computing ________ ratio.

A
e/
a) Thickness
t.m
b) Stress
c) Slenderness
/
d) Lateral support
s:/
Answer: c
tp
Explanation: The effective height of a wall denoted by h, is used to compute the slenderness ratio. It is the ratio of ef
ht
fective height or effective length, whichever is less and the effective thickness of the wall.
2. Effective height of a wall is the function of __________ of the wall.
a) Weight
b) Mass
c) Actual height
d) Thickness
Answer: c
Explanation: The effective height of a wall is the function of the actual height of the wall which is denoted by H. It i
s also a function the lateral support condition. It is used for computing the slenderness ratio.
3. The effective height of a wall of actual height H, partially restrained at one end and laterally restrained at the other
end is __________
89 / 405
a) 0.85H
b) 0.75H
c) 1.00H
d) 1.50H
Answer: a
Explanation: The effective height of a wall of actual height H, partially restrained at one end and laterally restrained
at the other end is 0.85H. It includes timber below or above and roof trusses above a reinforced concrete floor.
4. The actual height of the wall represented by H is the height of the wall between the __________ of support.
a) Centers
b) Ends
c) Edges
um
d) Faces
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: H is the height of the wall which is measured between the centers of support. It is known as the actual
ua
height of the wall and is used to determine the effective height of the wall.
_Q
5. The effective height of a wall of actual height H, partially restrained at the bottom and having no lateral support at
the top is __________
ks
oo
a) 0.85H
b) 0.75H
_B
c) 1.00H
es
d) 1.50H
Answer: d
ot
Explanation: The effective height of a wall of actual height H partially restrained at the bottom and having no lateral
_N
support at the top is 1.50H. This is also true if it has no rotational support at the top.
TU
6. The effective height of a wall of actual height H when it is supported by free-standing non-load bearing members
is __________
K
A
a) 0.85H
e/
b) 0.75H
t.m
c) 1.00H
d) 2.00H
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: The effective height of a wall of actual height H when it is supported by free-standing non-load bearing
tp
members is 2.00H. Non-load bearing members are those which can carry their own weight only. They do not carry
ht
any superimposed loads.
7. Effective height of a masonry wall is calculated using equation h = ρH where ρ represents __________
a) Reduction factor
b) Expansion factor
c) Slenderness ratio
d) Basic compressive stress
Answer: a
Explanation: Effective height of a masonry wall is calculated using equation h = ρH. In this equation, h represents th
e effective height, H represents the actual height of the wall and ρ represents the reduction factor.
8. Reduction factor (ρ) for walls partially restrained at the top and bottom is __________
90 / 405
a) 0.60
b) 0.75
c) 0.80
d) 0.85
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation h = ρH is used for calculating the effective height of a wall. Reduction factor (ρ) for walls
partially restrained at the top and bottom is 0.75.
9. Effective height of a wall is the function of the weight of the wall.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective height of a wall depends on the actual height of the wall and the conditions of the support
um
. The effective height of a wall is determined by multiplying the actual height of the wall with the reduction factor w
hich depends on the conditions of the support.
nt
ua
10. The effective height of a column is ________ the actual height for the direction when it is not laterally supported
.
_Q
a) Equal
ks
b) Twice
oo
c) Thrice
d) Four times
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: The effective height of a column is twice the actual height for the direction it is not laterally supported.
However, the effective height of a column is equal to the actual height for the direction it is laterally supported.
ot
_N

TU
1. L is the length measured between _________ of piers.

K
A
a) Ends
e/
b) Centers
t.m
c) Edges
d) Faces
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: Actual length of a wall is denoted by L whereas effective length is denoted by l. Actual length (L) is th
tp
e length which is measured between the centers of piers.

ht
2. Effective length of a wall supported by a buttress at each end is ________
a) 0.8L
b) 1.0L
c) 1.5L
d) 2.0L
Answer: b
Explanation: Effective length of a wall supported by a buttress at each end is 1.0L where L is the actual length of the
wall. Effective length of a wall varies with the variations in the conditions of support.
3. Effective thickness is equal to the actual thickness for solid walls.
a) True
91 / 405
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of solid or faced walls, effective thickness is equal to the actual thickness. But if the solid w
alls are bonded into piers and it is given that the slenderness ratio is based on the effective height, then effective thic
kness is calculated by multiplying actual thickness with a constant called stiffening coefficient.
4. Effective length of a wall when it is supported by a buttress only at one end is __________
a) 1.5L
b) 1.0L
c) 0.5L
d) 2.0L
Answer: a
Explanation: Effective length of a wall when it is supported by a buttress only at one end is 1.5L where L is the actu
um
al length of the wall. In this case, the wall is free at the other end. The support can be provided by a cross-wall also i
nstead of a buttress.
nt
ua
5. Effective thickness of masonry is reduced if the eccentricity ratio exceeds ___________
_Q
a) 1/2
b) 1/3
ks
c) 1/5
oo
d) 1/6
Answer: d
_B
Explanation: Effective thickness of masonry is reduced if the eccentricity ratio exceeds 1/6. When the eccentricity ra
es
tio exceeds 1/6, it results in the tension on one side of the member which reduces the effective thickness.
ot
6. The effective thickness should be _________ of the sum of actual thicknesses of the two skins of a cavity wall if
_N
both the skins have uniform thickness throughout.

TU
a) One-fourth
b) Half
K
c) Two-thirds
A
d) One-third
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: The effective thickness should be two-thirds of the sum of the actual thicknesses of the two skins of a c
avity wall. This is applicable only if both the skins or leaves of the cavity wall are of uniform thickness throughout.
/
s:/
7. The stiffening coefficient varies inversely with the __________

tp
ht
a) Actual thickness of the wall

b) Thickness of pier
c) Spacing of wall
d) Width of pier
Answer: a
Explanation: The stiffening coefficient depends on the thickness of the pier to which the wall is bonded and the actu
al thickness of the wall. It varies directly with the thickness of the pier and inversely with the actual thickness of the
wall.
8. The effective thickness of a __________ column is equal to the actual thickness.
a) Square
b) Rectangular
c) Circular
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d) Trapezoidal
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective thickness of a rectangular column is equal to the actual thickness. The effective thickness
for non-rectangular columns is calculated by multiplying the thickness of the square column with the moment of ine
rtia.
9. Effective length of a continuous wall supported by piers is ___________
a) 0.8L
b) 1.0L
c) 1.5L
d) 2.0L
Answer: a
Explanation: Effective length of a continuous wall supported by piers is 0.8L. The support can be provided by buttre
um
sses or cross-walls as well. However, when a wall is supported at both its ends, then the effective length becomes 1.
0L.
nt
ua
10. Effective length of a continuous wall is 0.8L when there is no opening within _________ of the height of the wal
l.
_Q
a) One-fourth
ks
b) One-eighth
oo
c) One-sixteenth
d) One-half
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: Effective length of a continuous wall is 0.8L when there is no opening within one-eighth of the height
of the wall. Therefore, when the opening in the wall is not closer than H/8 from the cross wall, then the effective len
ot
gth is 0.8, where H represents the actual height of the wall.

_N
TU

K
1. ___________ categorises walls into calculated walls and non-calculated walls.

A
e/
a) British Code CP. 11

t.m
b) British Code CP. 3

c) British Code CP. 16
/
d) British Code CP. 4

s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: British Code CP. 11 classifies walls into two categories which are calculated walls and non-calculated
ht
walls. Calculated walls are the load-bearing walls while non-calculated walls are the non-load bearing walls.
2. The design of calculated walls is determined using the method called as ________
a) Calculated method
b) Calculated masonry method
c) Numerical method
Answer: b
Explanation: The design of calculated walls is based on calculations and not on rules. It is determined by the calculat
ed masonry method. This method can be applied in two ways – design by the use of nomograms and design by struct
ural analysis.
3. The design of non-calculated walls is based on certain regulations and not on calculations.
93 / 405
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Non-calculated walls are the non-load bearing walls which do not carry any superimposed loads. They
are used as panel walls. The design of these walls is based on certain regulations and not on any calculations.
4. ___________ has presented the results of structural analysis based on calculated masonry method in the form of n
omograms.
a) National Building Code of India (SP: 7-2005)

b) Concrete Association of India
c) British Code CP. 3
d) British Code CP. 11
um
Answer: a
Explanation: National Building Code of India (SP: 7-2005) has presented the results of structural analysis based on c
nt
alculated masonry method in the form of nomograms. The nomograms that are given in the Code cover buildings up
ua
to 6 storeys.
_Q
5. It is advisable to use nomograms for determining the design of buildings up to __________ storeys only.
ks
a) 2
oo
b) 3
c) 4
_B
d) 6
es
Answer: b
Explanation: The nomograms given in the National Building Code of India (SP: 7-2005) cover up to 6 storeys. But it
ot
is advisable to use nomograms for determining the design of buildings up to 3 storeyed buildings only. This is beca
_N
use of the errors generated due to the formation of stresses. If the height of the buildings exceeds 3 storeys then the d
esign is determined by structural analysis.
TU
6. The nomograms which are used to determine the thickness of the wall contain __________ vertical lines.
K
A
a) Three
e/
b) Six
t.m
c) Nine
d) Twelve
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: The nomograms which are used to determine the thickness of the wall contain nine vertical lines. Thes
tp
e lines are in reference to the National Building Code of India (SP: 7-2005) which covers nomograms up to a height
ht
of 6 storeys.
7. Line 1, starting from left, in the nomogram represents ___________
a) Basic stress
b) Storeys
c) Span point
d) Thickness
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 9 vertical lines in a nomogram. Line 1 in the nomogram represents basic stress starting from
left. Basic stress of masonry depends on the strength of masonry units and the type of mortar used.
8. There are __________ reference lines in a nomogram.

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a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: In a nomogram, there are two reference lines. Starting from the left, line 3 represents the first reference
line and line 5 represents the second reference line.
9. Which line, starting from the left takes care of all the openings provided in the wall?
a) Line 4
b) Line 6
c) Line 7
d) Line 8
um
Answer: b
Explanation: Starting from the left, line 6 takes care of all the openings provided in the wall. These openings can be
nt
provided for doors, windows, ventilators, etc.
ua
10. The percentage opening is calculated using the formula ___________
_Q
a) (Area of the wall where there is no opening/ Area of opening) x 100
ks
b) (Area of opening / Area of the wall where there is no opening) x 100
oo
c) (Area of the total wall / Area of the wall where there is no opening) x 100
d) (Area of the total wall / Area of opening) x 100
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: The percentage opening in a wall is given by (Area of opening / Area of the wall where there is no ope
ning) x 100. The areas are calculated by multiplying the length and the thickness of the wall.
ot
_N
11. In a nomogram, the numbers on the lines 7, 8 and 9 indicate ___________

TU
a) Brick thickness
b) Span
K
c) Length
A
d) Mass
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: In a nomogram, lines 7,8 and 9 represent the thickness of the wall for three different spans. There are c
ertain numbers written on these lines. These numbers indicate the brick thickness whether the brick is one brick thic
/
k, one and a half brick thick and so on.

s:/
tp
12. The number of lines representing the thickness of a wall in a nomogram is __________
ht
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: A nomogram consists of total of nine vertical lines. Out of these 9 lines, three lines represent the thickn
ess of a wall. These thicknesses are given for three different spans. Lines representing the thickness are line 7, 8 and
9.
13. The value of the dividing line below the point of intersection on the thickness line gives the value of the thicknes
s of the wall.
a) True
95 / 405
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the dividing line above the point of intersection on the thickness line gives the value of th
e thickness of the wall. It is represented by the lines 7,8 and 9 in a nomogram.
14. The art of drawing nomograms is called as ____________
a) Nomography
b) Nomogramy
c) Nomology
d) Nomogramiology
Answer: a
Explanation: The art of drawing nomograms is called nomography. A nomogram is also known as a nomograph. It i
s a two-dimensional diagram consisting of vertical lines which is used to determine the design of a building.
um
15. In the figure of a nomogram given below, line 4 represents ____________
nt
ua
a) Basic stress
b) Span point
_Q
c) Height
d) Bearing capacity
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: In the nomogram shown above, line 4 represents the span point. It is a point through which all lines mu
st pass through in order to arrive at the wall thickness.
_B
es

ot
_N
1. Which of the following is not a requirement of a good mortar?

TU
a) Strength
b) High drying shrinkage
K
c) Low drying shrinkage

A
d) Water retentivity
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: A good mortar is an essential component required for masonry. The requirements of a good mortar are
strength, low drying shrinkage, and water retentivity. The strength of the mortar determines the strength of the wall.
/
s:/
2. Which of the following reasons is not a type of mortar?

tp
ht
a) Cement mortar
b) Lime mortar
c) Lemon mortar
d) Cement-lime mortar
Answer: c
Explanation: A good mortar is an essential component required for masonry. Mortar is broadly classified into three t
ypes – cement mortar, lime mortar, and cement-lime mortar. Cement-lime mortar has qualities of both cement and li
me mortar.
3. A mortar with good water retentivity readily loses water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
96 / 405
Explanation: The requirements of a good mortar are strength, low drying shrinkage, and water retentivity. A mortar
with good water retentivity does not lose water readily. High water retentivity provides high resistance to the masonr
y against rain penetration.
4. Cement mortars gain strength _______ while lime mortars gain strength _______
a) Quickly, slowly
b) Slowly, quickly
c) Slowly, slowly
d) Quickly, quickly
Answer: a
Explanation: Mortar is broadly classified into three types – cement mortar, lime mortar, and cement-lime mortar. Ce
ment mortars gain strength quickly while lime mortars gain strength slowly. Cement-lime mortar has qualities of bot
h cement and lime mortar. Hence, it has medium strength.
um
5. In cement mortar and lime mortar __________ is used as fine aggregate.
nt
ua
a) Lime
b) Cement
_Q
c) Slaked lime
d) Sand
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: Mortar is broadly classified into three types – cement mortar, lime mortar, and cement-lime mortar. In
cement mortar, cement acts as the binding material and sand is used as fine aggregate. Sand is used as the fine aggre
_B
gate in lime mortar as well where lime acts as the binding material.
es
6. Which of the following is not a type of mortar mix?

ot
_N
a) Type M
b) Type S
TU
c) Type P
d) Type N
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: Mortar mix is available in various types viz type M, type S, type N, type O and type K. These are name
e/
d using the alternate letters of the word “MASON WORK” starting from M. They are classified on the basis of the r
t.m
atios of portland cement, lime, and sand. Out of these, type K mortar is least used.
/
7. In surkhi mortar _________ is used as binding material.

s:/
tp
a) Lime
ht
b) Cement
c) Surkhi
d) Sand
Answer: a
Explanation: There are various types of mortar available like lime mortar, cement mortar, cement-lime mortar, surkh
i mortar, mud mortar, gauged mortar, etc. In surkhi mortar, lime is used as the binding material while surkhi is used
as the fine aggregate.
8. Which type of mortar has the lowest strength?
a) Type M
b) Type O
c) Type N
d) Type S
97 / 405
Answer: b
Explanation: Mortar mix is available in various types viz type M, type S, type N, type O and type K. They are classif
ied on the basis of the ratios of portland cement, lime, and sand. Out of these, type M is the strongest while type O h
as the lowest strength.
9. The pyramids at Giza are plastered with ___________ mortar.
a) Cement
b) Lime
c) Cement-lime
d) Mud
Answer: b
Explanation: Mortar is broadly classified into three types – cement mortar, lime mortar, and cement-lime mortar. Li
me mortar is used in the plastering of the pyramids of Giza. In lime mortar, lime acts as the binding material and san
um
d is used as fine aggregate.
nt
10. Type M of mortar has __________ parts of Portland __________ part of lime and _________ parts of sand.
ua
a) 3,1,9
_Q
b) 3,1,12
c) 2,1,9
ks
d) 1,3,12
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: Mortar mix is available in various types viz type M, type S, type N, type O and type K. They are classif
_B
ied on the basis of the ratios of portland cement, lime, and sand. Type M consists of 3 parts of Portland, 1 part of lim
es
e and 12 parts of sand. It is the strongest type of mortar while type K is the least used mortar.
ot
_N

TU
1. _______ is the type of wall which consists of two separate walls with a gap in between them.
K
a) Partition wall
A
b) Cavity wall
e/
c) Party wall
t.m
d) Separating wall
Answer: b
/
Explanation: Partition walls are built to divide the space within the building. Cavity walls are the walls which consis
s:/
t of two separate walls with a gap in between them. Party walls separate adjacent buildings occupied by different ow
tp
ners and separating walls separate different residencies within the same building.
ht
2. The two separate walls in a cavity wall are called as __________
a) Petals
b) Blocks
c) Leaves
d) Fragments
Answer: c
Explanation: Cavity wall is comprised of two separate walls. These are called leaves. They are also known as skins.
There is a cavity between these leaves. Hence, these are called cavity walls.
3. Cavity walls are usually the inner walls of the building.
a) True
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b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cavity walls are usually the outer walls of the building because they are constructed for providing ther
mal and sound insulation to the buildings. They also prevent the moisture from entering the building and hence prev
ent the formation of cracks in the building.
4. The inner and outer skin of a cavity wall should be greater than __________ cm (half brick).
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
Answer: a
Explanation: While constructing a cavity wall, it should be kept in mind that the inner, as well as the outer skin of th
um
e cavity wall, should not be less than 10 cm (half brick). The size of the cavity may vary from 4 to 10 cm.
nt
5. The insulating value of cavity walls is __________ greater than the solid walls.
ua
a) 10%
_Q
b) 15%
c) 20%
ks
d) 25%
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: A huge amount of air is present inside the cavity of a cavity wall which is a poor conductor of heat. He
_B
nce cavity walls provide great thermal insulation to the buildings. The insulating value of a cavity wall is 25% greate
es
r than a solid wall.
ot
6. In the figure of the brick cavity wall given below, C represents __________
_N
a) DPC
TU
b) Flooring
c) Window
K
d) Cavity
A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: The above is a figure of cavity concreted up to ground level. In the figure, A represents flooring, B repr
t.m
esents DPC, C represents cavity and D represents the ground floor.

/
7. In a brick cavity wall, the inner and outer leaf is __________ brick thick.
s:/
tp
a) Half
ht
b) One
c) One and a half
d) Two
Answer: a
Explanation: In a brick cavity wall, the inner and outer leaf is half brick thick. However, if the superimposed loads a
re very heavy, then the thickness of the inner leaf is increased in the multiple of half brick thickness.
8. In a cavity wall, the width of the cavity should not be more than _________ mm.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200
Answer: b
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Explanation: In a cavity wall, it must be ensured that the width of the cavity should not be more than 100 mm. Also,
it should not be less than 40 mm.
9. Which organization specifies the distance between the wall ties placed in a cavity wall?
a) Building Regulations of India

b) Building Regulations of Japan
c) Building Regulations of U.K.
d) Building Regulations of Italy
Answer: c
Explanation: Building Regulations of U.K. specifies that the wall ties should be placed at distances apart not exceedi
ng 450 mm vertically and 900 mm horizontally. There should be at least 5 ties per square meter of the wall.
10. In a cavity wall, weep holes are provided at the bottom of the outer skin at an interval of _________ m.
um
a) 0.5
nt
b) 1
ua
c) 1.5
d) 2
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: In a cavity wall, weep holes are provided at the bottom of the outer skin at an interval of 1 m. A weep h
ks
ole is a small opening that allows the drainage of water. They are usually located at the bottom so as to ensure prope
oo
r drainage.
_B
es
ot
1. Which of the following is not a type of partition wall?

_N
a) Brick partitions
TU
b) Glass partitions
c) Gum partitions
K
d) Concrete partitions
A
Answer: c
e/
Explanation: A partition wall is a type of wall which is used to divide the space within the building. It is of the follo
t.m
wing types – brick partitions, glass partitions, concrete partitions, metal lath partitions, plaster slab partitions, timber
partitions, etc.
/
s:/
2. Which of the following is an important requirement in the design of internal walls?

tp
ht
a) Thermal insulation
b) Sound insulation
c) Weather exclusion
d) Heat
Answer: b
Explanation: Sound insulation is an important requirement in the design of internal walls. An internal wall is a load-
bearing partition wall. Strength is also an important factor in the design of internal walls.
3. Partition walls are load-bearing walls.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Partition walls can be either load-bearing or non-load bearing. Partition walls are generally non-load be
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aring walls.
4. A partition wall should be _______
a) Heavy and thick

b) Light and thick
c) Light and thin
d) Light and thick
Answer: c
Explanation: A partition wall should be as light and as thin as possible. Lighter the partitions, the lighter will be the s
tructural elements. This will result in a better economy of the building.
5. Which of the following is a requirement which must be filled by partition walls?
um
a) A partition wall should be heavy
b) A partition wall should be fire resistant
nt
c) A partition wall should be thick
ua
d) A partition wall may not act as a sound barrier
Answer: b
_Q
Explanation: Some of the requirements that must be filled by partition walls are they should be light and thin. They
must act as a sound barrier. They should be fire resistant and strong enough to carry their own load.
ks
oo
6. Hollow clay blocks used for clay block partition walls are not _________
_B
a) Good insulator of heat
es
b) Good conductor of heat
c) Good insulator of sound
ot
d) Fire-resistant
_N
Answer: b
Explanation: For the construction of clay block partition walls, hollow clay blocks may be used. They are good insul
TU
ators of heat and sound. They are also fire-resistant.

K
7. In hollow clay blocks used for clay block partition walls ___________ serve as a key to plaster.
A
e/
a) Grooves
t.m
b) Frog
c) Arris
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d) Kick
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: In hollow clay blocks used for clay block partition walls, grooves serve as a key to plaster. Grooves are
ht
provided on the top, bottom and sides of the blocks. A frog is an indentation in the brick for holding the mortar. An
arris is an edge of a brick. A kick is another term used for a frog.
8. In concrete partitions, concrete mix adopted for precast slab units is _________
a) M 10
b) M 15
c) M 20
d) M 25
Answer: b
Explanation: In concrete partitions, concrete mix adopted for precast slab units is usually M 15. In M 15, M denotes
Mix and 15 is the characteristic compressive strength of concrete cube at 28 days in N/mm2.
9. The thickness of cast-in-situ concrete partitions is generally ___________

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a) 80-100 mm
b) 80-100 cm
c) 40-60 mm
d) 40-60 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: The thickness of cast-in-situ concrete partitions is generally 80-100 mm. They are rigid and stable. Ho
wever, they require large costs for their construction.
10. The thickness of precast concrete partitions is generally ___________
a) 10-15 mm
b) 25-40 mm
c) 50-80 mm
um
d) 45-60 mm
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: Concrete partitions consist of slabs which may be either precast or cast-in-situ. The thickness of precast
ua
concrete partitions is generally 25-40 mm. They are lighter than the cast-in-situ partitions.
_Q
11. In precast concrete partitions ___________ is used for jointing.
ks
a) Mud mortar
oo
b) Lime mortar
c) Cement mortar (1:3)
_B
d) Cement mortar (1:2)
es
Answer: c
Explanation: In precast concrete partitions, generally, cement mortar (1:3) is used for jointing. Precast T-shaped or L
ot
-shaped units are used for concrete partitions and a lightweight partition is obtained.
_N
12. In metal lath partitions, vertically placed channels are called as _________
TU
a) Piers
K
b) Piles
A
c) Studs
e/
d) Grooves
t.m
Answer: c
Explanation: In metal lath partitions, channels are placed vertically which are called studs. They can be 2 cm or 2.5 c
/
m in length. Metal lath is fixed to it on one of its sides.

s:/
tp
13. What is the distance between the channels placed in metal lath partitions?
ht
a) 15-30 cm
b) 5-10 cm
c) 10-15 cm
d) 40-50 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: The distance between the channels placed in metal lath partitions is usually 15-30 cm. The thickness of
the partition generally varies between 5 and 7.5 cm.
14. In metal lath partitions __________ wire is used for tying metal lath to channels.
a) Silver
b) Copper
c) Galvanized iron
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d) Aluminium
Answer: c
Explanation: In metal lath partitions, a galvanized iron wire is used for tying metal lath to channels. Metal lath partiti
ons are strong and thin. They have high durability and are fire resistant.
15. In the figure given below, A represents _________
a) Metal lath
b) Channel
c) Plaster
d) Concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: The given figure represents a metal lath partition for a solid wall. Here, A represents a channel, B repre
sents metal lath and C represents plaster.
um
nt
ua
1. Putty is made of __________
_Q
a) Mustard oil
ks
b) Sunflower oil
oo
c) Linseed oil
d) Peanut oil
_B
Answer: c
es
Explanation: Putty is a cementing material which is used to keep glass sheets in position while constructing glass sh
eet partition walls. Putty is made up of linseed oil and whiting chalk.
ot
_N
2. Glass sheet partition walls are not __________

TU
a) Lightweight
b) Heavy
K
c) Sound-proof
A
d) Damp-proof
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: In glass sheet partitions, glass sheets are fixed in a wooden framework. Glass sheet partition walls are l
ight in weight. They are sound-proof and damp-proof.
/
s:/
3. Which of the following is not a strong variety of glass?

tp
ht
a) Wired glass
b) Ordinary glass
c) Bullet-proof glass
d) Three-ply glass
Answer: b
Explanation: Wired glass, bullet-proof glass and three-ply glass are all strong varieties of glass. However, ordinary g
lass is weak. It needs frequent replacement as well.
4. Hollow blocks used in glass partitions have a thickness of _________
a) 5 cm
b) 8 cm
c) 10 cm
d) 12 cm
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Answer: c
Explanation: Hollow blocks used in glass partitions have a thickness of 10 cm. They are usually square in shape wit
h dimensions being either 14 x 14 cm or 19 x 19 cm.
5. The glass blocks are laid in _________
a) Lime mortar
b) Cement-lime mortar
c) Cement mortar
d) Mud mortar
Answer: b
Explanation: The glass blocks used in glass partition walls are generally laid in cement-lime mortar. All the joints m
ust be filled very carefully. They are painted on the internal edges and sanded on the external.
um
6. The thickness of plain sheets used to make asbestos partition is _________
nt
a) 5 mm
ua
b) 10 mm
c) 5 cm
_Q
d) 10 cm
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: There are two types of sheets used in asbestos partitions. These are plain sheets and corrugated sheets.
oo
The thickness of plain sheets used is 10 mm.
_B
7. The thickness of corrugated sheets used to make asbestos partition is ________
es
a) 5 mm
ot
b) 10 mm
_N
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrugated sheet is an inner sheet that is used in asbestos partitions. Plain sheets are attached to this in
K
ner corrugated sheet. The thickness of the corrugated sheets used is 5 mm. Cement mortar is used for joining the she
A
ets.
e/
t.m
8. Asbestos sheet partitions are weak and heavy.

/
a) True
s:/
b) False
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: In asbestos sheet partitions, asbestos sheets are fixed to a suitable wood framework to serve as a partiti
on wall. Asbestos sheet partitions are lightweight and quite strong.
9. Which of the following partitions are made from burnt gypsum?
a) Metal lath partitions

b) Asbestos sheet partitions
c) Clay block partitions
d) Plaster slab partitions
Answer: d
Explanation: Plaster slab partitions are made from burnt gypsum. Plaster of Paris can also be used instead of burnt g
ypsum. Metal lath partitions consist of channels with metal lath on one of their ends. Clay block partitions use clay b
locks, either solid or hollow. Asbestos sheet partitions use asbestos sheets.
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10. Sawdust is added to gypsum used in making plaster slab to ___________
a) Increase its weight

b) Reduce its weight
c) Impart colour
d) Impart odour
Answer: b
Explanation: Sawdust is added to gypsum used in making plaster slab in order to reduce its weight. Instead of sawdu
st, other fibrous material may be used. Plaster slabs are good insulators of heat and sound.
11. Which of the following slabs show large movements with a change in moisture content?
a) Plaster slab
b) Concrete slab
um
c) Wood-wool slab
d) Metal slab
nt
Answer: c
ua
Explanation: Wood-wool comprises of long wood fibres bound together with cement. Wood-wool slabs show large
movements with a change in moisture content. Care must be taken in order to restrain such movements.
_Q
12. Whiting chalk used in the construction of glass partitions consists of _____________
ks
oo
a) Calcium bicarbonate
b) Sodium bicarbonate
_B
c) Calcium carbonate
es
d) Sodium carbonate
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: Whiting chalk is made up of calcium carbonate. It is an ingredient used in making putty which is furthe
_N
r used to secure glass sheets in sashes.

TU
13. Reinforcement is placed in every course of hollow blocks used in glass partitions if the height of the block excee
ds ___________
K
A
a) 10 cm
e/
b) 15 cm
t.m
c) 20 cm
d) 25 cm
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: Hollow glass blocks are units of glass which are light in weight. They are available in various sizes and
tp
shapes. Reinforcement is placed in every course of hollow blocks used in glass partitions if the height of the block e
ht
xceeds 25 cm. However, for blocks up to 15 cm in height, reinforcement is placed in every third or fourth course.
14. In the figure below, A represents __________
a) Stud
b) Groove
c) Nogging
d) Beading
Answer: c
Explanation: The given figure is of an enlarged plan of a glass partition. In glass partition, a wooden framework is u
sed which consists of horizontal and vertical posts. Here, A represents nogging, B represents stud and C represents b
eading.
15. In the figure given below, B represents ___________

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a) Plain sheet
b) Corrugated sheet
c) Cement mortar
d) Concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: The given figure represents an asbestos cement slab used in asbestos sheet partitions. Here, A represent
s a plain sheet, B represents corrugated sheet and C represents cement mortar.
1. Which of the following is not a type of brick partitions?
um
a) Plain brick partitions
b) Reinforced brick partitions
nt
c) Brick nogging partitions
ua
d) Brick concrete partitions
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: Brick partitions are the cheapest type of partitions which makes them very common. There are three ty
pes of brick partitions. These are plain brick partitions, reinforced brick partitions, and brick nogging partitions.
ks
oo
2. Plain brick partitions are ______ brick thick.
_B
a) Half
es
b) One
c) One and a half
ot
d) Two
_N
Answer: a
Explanation: Plain brick partitions are generally half brick thick. In plain brick partitions, the wall is plastered on bot
TU
h its sides and is quite strong.

K
3. Reinforced brick partitions are weaker than the ordinary brick partitions.
A
e/
a) True
t.m
b) False
Answer: b
/
Explanation: Reinforced brick partitions are much stronger than the ordinary brick partitions. Hence, they are used
s:/
when the partition wall has to carry and support self-imposed loads in addition to its own weight.
tp
ht
4. In reinforced brick partitions, exmet is provided at every __________ course of the reinforcement.
a) Second
b) Third
c) Fourth
d) Fifth
Answer: b
Explanation: In reinforced brick partitions, reinforcement consists of steel meshed strips which are known as exmet
or expanded metal. It is provided at every third course of the reinforcement.
5. The thickness of half brick is __________
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
106 / 405
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm
Answer: b
Explanation: Thickness of half brick is 10 cm. In all the types of brick partitions, the thickness of the wall is kept hal
f brick thick i.e. 10 cm thick.
6. Which of the following is not a component of the framework used in brick nogging partitions?
a) Sill
b) Head
c) Bricktor
d) Stud
Answer: c
Explanation: In brick nogging partitions, a timber framework is used. The components of this framework are sill, he
um
ad, stud and noggings. Bricktor is a type of meshed reinforcement.
nt
7. The horizontal members provided in the framework of brick nogging partitions are called __________
ua
a) Nogging pieces
_Q
b) Studs
c) Sill
ks
d) Head
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: In brick nogging partitions, the framework is provided with members at both horizontal and vertical lev
_B
els. The horizontal members are called nogging pieces and the vertical members are called studs.
es
8. In the framework of brick nogging partitions, studs are spaced at _________ times the length of the brick.
ot
_N
a) 2-4
b) 4-6
TU
c) 6-8
d) 8-10
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: In the framework of brick nogging partitions, studs are spaced at 4-6 times the length of the brick. The
e/
framework imparts stability to the partitions against lateral loads. The bricks are generally laid flat.
t.m
9. In brick nogging partitions ___________ is used for coating the surface of the timber framework coming in conta
/
ct with the brickwork.

s:/
tp
a) Coal tar
ht
b) Cement
c) Concrete
d) Mud
Answer: a
Explanation: In brick nogging partitions, coal tar is used for coating the surface of the timber framework coming in c
ontact with the brickwork. Cement mortar (1:3) is used to fill the joints.
10. Which of the following statements about reinforced brick partitions is false?
a) They are used when a better longitudinal bond is needed

b) They are used when a better lateral bond is needed
c) They are used when the partition has to support super-imposed loads
d) The thickness of the wall is kept equal to 10 cm
Answer: b
107 / 405
Explanation: In reinforced brick partitions, the thickness of the wall is kept equal to 10 cm. They are used when a be
tter longitudinal bond is needed and when the partition has to support super-imposed loads.
1. Which of the following is not true about wooden partitions?
a) They are light in weight

b) They are costlier
c) They are fire resistant
d) They are likely to get attacked by termites
Answer: c
Explanation: Wooden partitions are light in weight. However, they are costlier. Wooden partitions are not resistant t
um
o fire. They can be easily decayed and are likely to get attacked by termites.
nt
2. Braced partitions are also called __________ partitions.
ua
a) Trussed
_Q
b) Common
c) Stud
ks
d) Nogging
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of wooden partitions. These are common or stud partitions and braced partitions. B
_B
raced partitions are also called trussed partitions.
es
3. Which of the following is a defect occuring in timber due to conversion?

ot
_N
a) Blue stain
b) Diagonal grain
TU
c) Sap strain
d) White rot
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: Diagonal grain is an example of a defect occuring in timber due to conversion i.e. during the conversio
e/
n of timber to commercial form. Blue stain, sap strain and white rot are examples of defects caused in timber due to
t.m
attack by fungi.
/
4. Refractory timber catches fire readily while non-refractory timber does not catch fire readily.
s:/
tp
a) True
ht
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Timber is classified into types with respect to fire-resistance. These are refarctory and non-refractory.
Refractory timber does not catch fire readily while non-refractory timber catches fire readily.
5. Which chemical is used in the coating of timber surface in Sir Abel’s process?
a) Dilute solution of sodium silicate

b) Concenterated solution of sodium silicate
c) Dilute solution of aluminium nitrate
d) Concenterated solution of aluminium nitrate
Answer: a
Explanation: Dilute solution of sodium silicate is used in the coating of the timber surface in Sir Abel’s process. Thi
s is a method that is adopted to make timber more fire-resistant.
108 / 405
6. In stud partitions, a stud of short length is known as ______
a) Sill
b) Head
c) Puncheon
d) Nogging
Answer: c
Explanation: In stud partitions, there are vertical members called studs and horizontal members called noggings. A s
tud of short length is known as puncheon. It is usually provided on an opening.
7. What are the dimensions of the head and sill in the framework of stud partitions?
a) 10 cm x 75 mm
um
b) 10 cm x 75 cm
c) 50 cm x 75 mm
nt
d) 50 cm x 75 cm
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: The upper horizontal member in the framework of stud partitions is called head and the lower horizont
_Q
al member is called sill. The dimensions of the head and sill are 10 cm x 75 mm.
ks
8. In trussed partitions, additional member provided between the head and sill is known as __________
oo
a) Nogging
_B
b) Exmet
es
c) Bricktor
d) Inter-tie
ot
Answer: d
_N
Explanation: In trussed partitions, additional member provided between the head and sill is known as inter-tie. It is u
sed to impart strength and rigidity. Exmet and bricktor are forms of reinforcements used in reinforced brick partition
TU
s. Nogging is a horizontal member of the timber framework.

K
9. Inclined members provided in the framework of trussed partitions are known as _________
A
e/
a) Braces
t.m
b) Piers
c) Piles
/
d) Rods
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: Inclined members provided in the framework of trussed partitions are known as braces. Its framework i
ht
s quite similar to the framework of stud partitions but braces and steel bolts are additionally used.
10. Which of the following is not a component of ascu?
a) Arsenic pentoxide
b) Arsenic sulphate
c) Copper sulphate
d) Potassium dichromate
Answer: b
Explanation: Ascu is a preservative that is used for the preservation of timber in order to prevent the timber from dec
aying. It contains arsenic pentoxide, copper sulphate and potassium dichromate. Ascu is available in powder form.

109 / 405
1. The temporary framework is known as __________ and it is useful in construction demolition, maintenance or re
pair works.
a) Underpinning
b) Shoring
c) Scaffolding
d) Grouting
Answer: c
Explanation: When the height above floor level exceeds about 1.5 m a temporary structure, usually of timber, is erec
ted close to the work to provide a safe working platform for the workers and to provide limited space for the storage
of plant and building materials. This temporary Framework is known as scaffolding or simply of scaffold.
2. ___________ is the most common type of scaffolding and is widely used in the construction of brickwork.
um
a) Suspended scaffolding
nt
b) Single scaffolding
ua
c) Trestle scaffolding
d) Steel scaffolding
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: Single scaffolding or Bricklayers scaffolding consists of a single row of standards placed at a distance
ks
of about 1.20 m from the wall. The distance between the successive standards is above 2 metre to 2.50 m. The ledger
oo
s are then fixed to the standards at a vertical distance of about 1.20 metre to 1.80 metres.
_B
3. _________ is stronger than the single scaffolding and it is used in the construction of stone work.
es
a) Trestle scaffolding
ot
b) Steel scaffolding
_N
c) Patented scaffolding
d) Double scaffolding
TU
Answer: d
Explanation: In Double scaffolding or Mason’s scaffolding, the Framework is similar to the single scaffolding accep
K
t that two rows of standards are provided. The distance between the face of the wall and the first show of standard is
A
about 200 mm to 300 mm and the distance between the two rows is about 1 m.
e/
t.m
4. __________ type of scaffolding is used when the proper hard ground is not available for the standards to rest.
/
a) Steel scaffolding
s:/
b) Trestle scaffolding
tp
c) Bricklayers scaffolding
ht
d) Cantilever scaffolding
Answer: d
Explanation: In Cantilever scaffolding or Needle scaffolding, the general Framework maybe of single scaffolding ty
pe or of double scaffolding type. Thus but the standards are supported by a series of needles or ties which are taken
out at floor level or through opening or through hole kept in the masonry.
5. __________ is a very light type of scaffolding and can be used only for the maintenance work such as painting, p
ointing, whitewashing, etc.
b) Suspended scaffolding
c) Patented scaffolding
d) Needle scaffolding
Answer: b
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Explanation: In Suspended scaffolding, the working platform is suspended from the roof by means of ropes, wires or
chains and arrangements are made such that the platform can be raised or lowered. This type of scaffolding does not
create any obstruction on the ground and it is the most effective as it always provides the optimum level for workin
g.
6. In __________ type of scaffolding, the working platform is supported on movable contrivances such as Ladders, t
ripods, etc., mounted on wheels.
b) Cantilever scaffolding
c) Mason’s scaffolding
d) Bricklayers scaffolding
Answer: a
Explanation: Trestle scaffolding is useful for minor repairs on painting work inside the room and the maximum heig
um
ht of to reach this type of scaffolding can be adopted is about 5 metre from the supporting surface.
nt
7. In __________ type of scaffolding, in place of timber, the Steel tubes can be effectively used for the scaffolding
ua
work.
_Q
a) Steel scaffolding
b) Patented scaffolding
ks
c) Suspended scaffolding
oo
d) Trestle scaffolding
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: In steel scaffolding, the Steel tubes are available in standard lens with special coupling and set screws.
es
The scaffolding can be used upto any height. It is strong and more durable; it can be easily irritated and dismantle; it
possesses high scrap value and it is resistant to fire.
ot
_N
8. _________ are the vertical members of the framework and they are either supported on the ground or embedded i
nto the ground.
TU
a) Ledgers
K
b) Standards
A
c) Putlogs
e/
d) Rakers
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: Whereas, Putlogs are the transverse species which are placed on the Ledgers and which are supported o
/
n the wall at one end. They are at the right angle to the wall. And the Ledgers are the horizontal members parallel to
s:/
the wall.
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ht
9. ________ is a piece which is used to bridge an opening in a wall and it supports one end of the putlog at the openi
ng.
a) Transoms
b) Braces
c) Rope
d) Bridle
Answer: d
Explanation: Whereas, Transoms are the Putlogs, but their both ends are supported on the Ledgers. And, Braces are t
he diagonals cross species fixed on the standards.
10. _________ is a Board placed parallel to the Ledgers and supported between the Putlogs.
a) Toe board
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b) Guard rail
c) Raker
d) Bolts
Answer: a
Explanation: Toe board is provided to work as a protective measure on the working platform. Whereas, Guard rail is
a rail provided like a Ledger at the working level.
1. Sometimes the structures are to be temporarily supported. This is achieved by what is known as the _________
a) Scaffolding
b) Shoring
um
c) Underpinning
d) Grouting
nt
Answer: b
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Explanation: Shoring is essential for structures which have become unsafe due to an equal settlement of foundation
or due to removal of the adjacent building or due to any other reason. For safe structures, The Shoring is required to
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prevent movement when certain additions and alterations are being carried out.
ks
2. In ____________ shore arrangement, the inclined supports are given to the external walls from the ground.
oo
a) Raking shore
_B
b) Flying shore
es
c) Dead shore
d) Patented shore
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: A Raking shore or Inclined shore consists of a wall plate, needles, plates, cleats, bracing and sole plate.
The wall plate is placed against the wall and is secured by the means of needles which penetrate into the wall for a d
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istance of about 150 mm. The wall plate distributes the pressure evenly.
K
3. In __________ arrangement, the horizontal supports are given two parallel walls which have become unsafe due t
A
o the removal or collapse of the intermediate building.

e/
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a) Inclined shore
b) Raking shore
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c) Dead shore
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d) Flying shore
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Answer: d
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Explanation: A Flying shore consists of wall plate, needles, cleats, strut, straining pieces and folding wedges. The fl
ying shore should have a depth of not less than 1/13th of the clear span and width should not less than 1/15th of its l
ength.
4. In ___________ arrangement, the horizontal members, known as the needles are supported by vertical members.
a) Horizontal shore
b) Flying shore
c) Dead shore
d) Raking shore
Answer: c
Explanation: In Dead shore arrangement, the needles are driven at right angles to the wall through the holes made in
the wall. A Dead shore is used when the lower part of the wall has become defective and the foundations are to be d
eepened.
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5. ____________ is necessary to tie back the scaffolding with the building at suitable levels.
a) Loading
b) Tying-in
c) Raising
d) Spacing
Answer: b
Explanation: Tying-in scaffold can be achieved in different ways: A vertical or horizontal tube, wedged by means of
a rebel pn, may be provided in an opening and one of the ends of the Putlogs maybe coupled with this tube.
6. The loading on the scaffolding decides the __________ of standards.
a) Bedding
um
b) Raising
c) Finishing
nt
d) Spacing
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Answer: d
Explanation: The spacing of standards is less for heavy loading and more for light loading. The maximum spacing is
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about 3 metres.
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7. If the standards or not resting on the firm ground, the _________ of the standard should be provided and their bott
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om ends.
_B
a) Bedding
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b) Finishing
c) Raising
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d) Spacing
_N
Answer: a
Explanation: If standards are not resting on the firm ground, the base plates of suitable size should be provided at the
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ir bottom ends. Further, if required, Timber sole plate should be provided on which all base plates rest.
K
8. In ___________ shores, the needles are placed at a distance of about 1.5 m to 2 m and they are suitably braced.
A
e/
a) Vertical shores
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b) Horizontal shore
c) Inclined shore
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d) Raking shore
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Answer: a
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Explanation: In vertical shores, the folding wedges, sole plate, dogs and braces are used. A Raking shore may be pro
ht
vided as an additional safety especially in case of weak walls.
9. ___________ type of Shoring is suitable for a maximum distance of about 9 m between the adjacent parallel walls
.
a) Dead shore
b) Raking shore
c) Vertical shore
d) Flying shore
Answer: d
Explanation: But when the distance is between 9 m to 12 m, a Compound or Double Flying shore is provided. It sho
uld be seen that both the horizontal shores are symmetrical placed with respect to the floor levels.
10. The ____________ should be preferably Inclined at 45° with the ground.
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a) Horizontal shore
b) Raking shore
c) Dead shore
d) Vertical shore
Answer: b
Explanation: However, in actual practice, the angle of inclination in Raking or Inclined shore may vary from 45° to
75°. The top raker should not be inclined steeper than 75° with the horizontal.
1. The placing of new Foundation below and the existing foundation of the process of strengthening the existing Fou
ndation is known as the ___________ of foundation.
um
a) Shoring
nt
b) Underpinning
ua
c) Grouting
d) Scaffolding
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: Following are the situations demanding underpinning: A building with deep Foundation is to be constr
ks
ucted at joint to an existing building; The settlement of existing Foundation has taken placed, resulting in serious cra
oo
cks in the wall; The basement is to be provided to an existing building.
_B
2. In __________ method of underpinning, the existing wall is divided into suitable sections of width about 1.20 met
es
re to 1.50 metre.
ot
a) Pit Method
_N
b) Pile Method
c) Miscellaneous Method
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d) Chemical Method
Answer: a
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Explanation: In Pit Method, the holes are then made in the existing wall. The needles with bearing plates and then in
A
serted through this holes are supported on Jack. The pit is excavated and the existing foundation is taken up to the re
e/
quired level.
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3. In _________ method, the piles are driven along both the sides of existing wall and the needle in the form of pile
/
caps are provided through the existing one.

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a) Pit method
ht
b) Pile method
c) Miscellaneous method
d) Vibroflotation
Answer: b
Explanation: Pile method is useful in clayey soils and for waterlogged areas and for walls carrying heavy loads. For
underpinning very light structures, the piles are driven along the structure and then brackets or cantilever needles are
provided to carry the structure.
4. __________ method is used to restore slab or pavement which has settled.
a) Vibroflotation
b) Freezing
c) Chemical consolidation
d) Cement grouting
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Answer: d
Explanation: The operation of Cement grouting is simple. The holes are drilled in a slab and then cement grout is for
ced under pressure through these holes. The pressure is maintained until the cement grout has set.
5. In _________ method, the soil under the existing footing is consolidated by using chemicals.
a) Chemical consolidation
b) Freezing
c) Cement grouting
d) Vibroflotation
Answer: a
Explanation: The procedure for chemical consolidation is as: The perforated pipe are driven in an inclined direction.
The inclination slopes are so adjusted that the entire area under the existing putting comes under the command of the
inclined pipes; The chemical reaction takes place between two chemicals and the soil is consolidated.
um
6. _________ method is useful when the soil consists of sand or granular material.
nt
ua
a) Vibroflotation
b) Chemical grouting
_Q
d) Freezing
ks
Answer: c
oo
Explanation: Here, the cost of consolidation depends on the nature of soil, depth of consolidation, site of work, etc. I
n this method, the soil under the existing footing is consolidated by using Chemicals. The chemical reaction takes pl
_B
ace between two chemicals and hence the soil is consolidated.
es
7. In ____________ method, the freezing pipes are driven below the existing footing and the soil is frozen.
ot
_N
a) Vibroflotation
b) Cement grouting
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d) Freezing
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Answer: d
A
Explanation: Freezing is really adopted, mainly because of two reasons: it is expensive and more time is required for
e/
the installation of the freezing pipes.

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8. In ___________ method, the underpinning is carried out by vibrating the sand.

/
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a) Cement grouting
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b) Vibroflotation
ht
d) Freezing
Answer: b
Explanation: Vibroflotation increases the density of soil which ultimately results in the increase of bearing capacity
of soil. This method is useful for granular or sandy soil and before the processing of underpinning start, the building
or any of its structure components is shored carefully.
9. When one building is higher than the other _____________ may be provided on the horizontal shores.
a) Raking shore
b) Pile Underpinning
c) Flying shore
d) Pit Underpinning
Answer: a
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Explanation: Whereas, the flying shores are generally erected at a distance of about 3 m to 5 m in plan and horizonta
l Struts are introduced, if necessary, to act as a lateral bracing between the adjacent line shores.
10. A large factor of safety should be adopted in the design of __________ as it is difficult to assess the actual loads.
a) Vertical shores
b) Pit method
c) Horizontal shore
d) Pile method
Answer: c
Explanation: In Flying or horizontal shore arrangement, the horizontal supports are given to the parallel walls which
have become unsafe due to the removal or collapse of the intermediate building.
um
nt
1. In order to prevent the entry of damp into a building, the course are provided are known as the ________ course.
ua
a) Termites proofing
_Q
b) Water proofing
c) Corrosion proofing
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d) Damp proofing
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Answer: d
Explanation: The Damp proofing courses are provided at various levels of entry of damp into a building. At present,
_B
practically all the buildings are given the treatment of damp proofing. Thus, the provision of damp proofing courses
es
prevent the entry of moisture from the walls, floor and basement of a building.
ot
2. Due to ______________ the dampness finds its way to the floors through the substructure.
_N
a) Action of rain
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b) Exposed tops of walls

c) Raising of moisture from ground
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d) Condensation
A
Answer: c
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Explanation: The ground on which the building is constructed may be made of soils which easily allow the water to
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pass. Usually the buildings material used for the foundation absorb moisture by capillary action. Thus, the Dampnes
s finds his way to the floor through the substructure.
/
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3. Due to ________ the external faces of wall become the sources of entry of dampness in a structure.
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ht
a) Exposed tops of walls

b) Miscellaneous causes
c) Action of rain
d) Condensation
Answer: c
Explanation: If faces of wall, exposed to heavy showers of rain, not suitable protected, they become the sources of e
ntry of the dampness in a structure. Similarly, the leaking roof also permits the rain water to enter the structure.
4. ________ is the main source causing dampness in badly designed kitchens.
a) Action of rain
b) Condensation
c) Exposed tops of walls
d) Miscellaneous causes
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Answer: b
Explanation: The process of condensation takes place when the warm humid air is cooled. This is due to the fact that
cool air can contain less invisible water vapours than warm air. The moisture is a deposit on the walls, floor and ceil
ing. This is the main source causing dampness in badly design kitchens.
5. __________ is a flexible material and it is easy to lay & is available in rolls of normal wall width.
a) Hot bitumen
b) Metal sheets
c) Mastic asphalt
d) Bituminous felts
Answer: d
Explanation: The Bituminous felts can accommodates slight moments. But it is liable to squeeze out under heavy pr
essure and it offers little Resistance to sliding. The material is available in rolls and it should be careful unroll, espec
um
ially in cold weather.
nt
6. ________ is a semi-rigid material and it forms an excellent impervious layer of damp proofing.
ua
a) Hot bitumen
_Q
b) Mastic asphalt
c) Bituminous felts
ks
d) Metal sheets
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: The good Mastic asphalt is a very durable and completely impervious material. It can be withstand onl
_B
y very slight distortion. It is liable to squeeze out in very hot climates or under very heavy pressure. It should be laid
es
by experience men of the specialist firms.
ot
7. ________ is a flexible material and is placed on the bedding of concrete or mortar.

_N
a) Mastic asphalt
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b) Hot bitumen
c) Bituminous felts
K
d) Metal sheets
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Hot bitumen is a flexible material and is placed on the bedding of concrete or mortar. This material sho
t.m
uld be applied with a minimum thickness of 3 mm.

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8. The _________ of lead, Copper and Aluminium can be used as the membrane of damp proofing.
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tp
a) Metal sheets
ht
b) Bituminous felts
c) Mastic asphalt
d) Hot bitumen
Answer: a
Explanation: The lead sheet is a flexible material. The thickness of lead sheet should be such that its weight is not le
ss than 200 N/m2. The lead can be dressed to complex shapes without facture and it possesses high resistant to slidin
g action.
9. __________ material is made of black polythene having a thickness of about. 50 mm to 1 mm.
a) Brick
b) Stone
c) Plastic sheet
d) Cement concrete
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Answer: c
Explanation: The plastic sheets are made of black polythene having a thickness of about 0.50 mm to 1 mm with usua
l width of wall and it is available in roll length of 30 metres. This treatment is relatively cheap but it is not permanen
t.
10. A _________ layer is in proportion 1:2:4 is generally provided at the plinth level to work as a damp proofing co
urse.
a) Mortar
b) Cement concrete
c) Stone
d) Brick
Answer: b
Explanation: The depth of cement concrete layer varies from 40 mm to 150 mm. It stops the rise of water by capillar
um
y action and it is found to be effective at places where them is not excessive.
nt
11. __________ absorbing water less than 4.50% of their weight can be used for Damp proofing.
ua
a) Bricks
_Q
b) Mortar
c) Stones
ks
d) Cement concrete
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: The dense Bricks, absorbing water less than 4.50% of their weight, can be used for damp proofing at pl
_B
aces where damp is not excessive. The joints are kept open. Such bricks are widely used when damp proofing course
es
s to be inserted in an existing wall.
ot
12. Sometimes, the _______ can be fixed as in case of roof surfaces, on the exposed face of the wall, etc.
_N
a) Mortar
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b) Plastic sheet
c) Felts
K
d) Stones
A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: The two courses of sound and dense stone such as granite, slate, etc. laid in cement mortar with vertical
t.m
breaking joints can work as an effective damp proofing course. The stone should extend for full width of the wall.
/
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1. The term _________ in the buildings is used to mean the coming out of water from components like walls and flo
ors of the buildings.
a) Damp proofing
b) Termite proofing
c) Water proofing
d) Dampness
Answer: c
Explanation: The Water leakage in the buildings is the most common problem actually in all types of building such a
s the residential flats, hospitals, offices, School buildings, etc. It is observed in the building Industry that 99% of wat
er leakage problems are concentrated on the terrace roofs and in the toilets.
2. The remedy lies in _________ initially with epoxy mortar or at least later stage while repairing the causes of the p
roblems due to aging.
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a) Push cocks
b) Filling of joints
c) Design of floor slab
d) Plumbing
Answer: b
Explanation: The joints in the drainage system should be filled with rich cement mortar. Due to aging, the strength o
f cement mortar deteriorates resulting in Leakages through the cracked Joints. The remedy lies in feeling such joints,
initially with epoxy resin mortar or at least at a later stage while repairing the same.
3. For ordinary buildings of cheap construction, the ________ of roof surface is done at the time of laying cement co
ncrete.
a) Finishing
um
b) Brushing
c) Plastering
nt
d) Painting
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: The finishing of flat roof is carried out in cement mortar of proportion 1:4 i.e. one part of cement to fo
_Q
ur parts of sand by volume.
ks
4. In __________ method, the surface of RCC slab is kept rough and on this surface a layer of concrete is laid.
oo
a) Mastic Asphalt
_B
b) Finishing
es
c) Bedding Concrete
d) Finishing
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: In bedding concrete and Flooring, the concrete maybe brickbat lime concrete 1:2:4 or brickbat cement
concrete 1:6:12 or 1:5:10. The thickness of concrete layer is about 100 mm. The surface of bedding concrete is provi
TU
ded by suitable flooring such as tiles, terrazzo, Indian Patent stone, etc.
K
5. In _________ method, a layer of hot mastic Asphalt is laid on the roof surface.
A
e/
a) Dampness
t.m
b) Termite proofing
c) Mastic Asphalt
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d) Roofing
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Answer: c
tp
Explanation: The jute cloth is spread over the layer of hot mastic Asphalt. Then one more layer of mastic Asphalt is
ht
applied so that the jute cloth is sandwiched between two layers of mastic Asphalt. The sand is then Sprinkled over th
e entire surface of roof.
6. When compound like ____________ is added to cement during construction, it prevents seepage, leakage and da
mp cause by capillary absorption.
a) Puldo
b) POP
c) Steel
d) Chlorine
Answer: a
Explanation: When Compound like Pludo, impermo, etc. Are added to cement during construction, it prevents seepa
ge, leakage and damp cause by capillary absorption of the moisture in cement, mortar and concrete. The quantity of
water proofing compound to be added is also very small, set 2% and does a bag of cement will require only about 10
119 / 405
N of such compounds.
7. For the overhead RCC ___________ it should be seen that the permissible limits of stresses relating to resistance t
o cracking are not exceeded.
a) Relief valves
b) Water tanks
c) Push cocks
d) Taps
Answer: b
Explanation: The bottom slab of overhead water tank should be placed 1 metre above the roof slab. It will facilitate
proper centring during construction and also for the location and repairing the leakage after construction.
8. The joints in the _________ of WC seats and nahni trap should be filled with rich cement mortar and cured for 7
um
days.
nt
a) Plumbing
ua
b) Spouts
c) Traps
_Q
d) Toilet
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: If curing is not done properly come on the rich cement mortar gets crack and leads to leakage. If possib
oo
le, one piece P trap should be used to reduce one joint in the drainage system and it should be fixed before waterpro
ofing of the WC Block is started.
_B
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9. The concussive or violently shaking type fitted _______ for the flushing of WC pans leads to vibration.
ot
a) Spouts
_N
b) Slab
c) Toilets
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d) Push cocks
Answer: d
K
Explanation: The concussive or violently shaking type push cocks fitted for the flushing of WC pans lead to vibratio
A
n and consequently in the joints in the drainage system get dislodged and lose water tightness. It is therefore desirabl
e/
e to provide wheel valve or other suitable valve which do not cause vibration.
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10. _______ is necessary to provide at suitable vertical distance in multi storage buildings.
/
s:/
a) Push cocks
tp
b) Water tanks
ht
c) Wheel valve
d) Relief valves
Answer: d
Explanation: It is necessary to provide brake pressure relief valve at suitable vertical distance in multi storey buildin
gs to prevent seepage of water through the plumbing system.
1. The _______ are popularly known as the white ants though they are in no way related to the ants.
a) Termites
b) Ants
c) Bugs
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d) Beatles
Answer: a
Explanation: The front pair of Wings of ant is longer than their hind pair whereas in termites, both the pairs are equa
l. The Termites are found in abundance in tropical and subtropical countries.
2. The term _______ is used to indicate the treatment which is given to a building so as to prevent or control the gro
wth of termite in a building.
a) Damp proofing
b) Water proofing
c) Leakage proofing
d) Termite proofing
Answer: d
Explanation: Termites live in a Colony and they are very fast in eating wood and other cellulosic material as food. T
um
hey also damage non cellular materials like plastic, leather cover, etc. The cellulose forms their basic nutrient. They
also damage materials of organic origin like household article, furniture, clothing and stationery.
nt
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3. ______ are also known as non subterranean or wood nesting termites.
_Q
a) Subterranean termites
b) Ground nesting termites
ks
c) Drywood termites
oo
d) White ants
Answer: c
_B
Explanation: Drywood termites cause great damage to the buildings in humid coastal areas. They live in dry wood in
es
small colonies without maintaining any connection with the soil. These termites are less in number and they are gen
erally found in the humid coastal regions of South India.
ot
_N
4. _________ termites cannot survive or live without maintaining a connection with the soil.
TU
a) White ants
b) Drywood
K
c) Subterranean
A
d) Non subterranean
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: Subterranean or ground nesting termites require adequate moisture and it is supplied either from the soi
l through the tunnels or through wet spots in the building or through any other available source. The mud tubes betra
/
y the presence of these termites. Such termite damage a variety of wood and other cellulosic material like paper, car
s:/
dboard, clothes, etc.

tp
ht
5. The entry of _________ termites into buildings takes place through cracks or fissures of even 0.5 mm thickness in
concrete and masonry, floor joints, etc.
a) Ground nesting
b) Non subterranean
c) Drywood
d) White ants
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also to be noted that it is very difficult to control land to remove the ground nesting termites or sub
terranean termites, once they have entered the structure. It is found that loss caused by the termites in our country ru
ns into several millions of rupees every year.
6. Which chemical is used as a soil treatment in termite proofing?

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a) Chlorine
b) Bromine
c) Aldrin
d) Potassium hydroxide
Answer: c
Explanation: The various patented chemical Insecticide such as DDT, PHP, PCP, etc. are available. But the followin
g chemicals in oil solution or preferably water emulsion have proved to be successful. They are Aldrin, Chlordane,
Dieldrin, Heptachlor, etc.
7. Chemical like DDT, PHP, PCP, etc. Are used in which method of termite proofing.
a) Structural barrier
b) Soil treatment using powder
c) Soil treatment using emulsion
um
d) Electronic method
Answer: c
nt
Explanation: In soil treatment with chemical, all Chemicals are chlorinated hydrocarbons. They are insoluble in wate
ua
r and hence they are not reached out by the subsoil water. The application of this chemical serve as a chemical barrie
r between the building and the ground and this method has proved to be the most effective method of termite proofin
_Q
g.
ks
8. In which method of termite proofing, insecticides are poisonous.
oo
a) Chemical
_B
b) Burning
es
c) Watering
d) Blowing
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: There will be adverse effects of chemicals like DDT, BHC, PCP, etc. Are absorbed through skin, inhal
ed as vapour or swallowed. It is therefore necessary to follow strictly the precautions mentioned on the containers of
TU
insecticides.
K
9. To prevent the entry of termites through walls, the impenetrable physical ___________ may be provided continuo
A
usly at plinth level.

e/
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a) Chemicals barriers
b) Structural barrier
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c) Physical barrier
s:/
d) Water barrier
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: Structural barrier maybe in the form of a cement concrete layer or metal layer at plinth level. The ceme
nt concrete layer or coping is 50 mm to 75 mm thick and it is preferable to keep it projected about 50 mm to 75 mm
internally and externally.
10. Which method is likely to be damaged by the termites.
a) Chemical method
b) Structure barrier
c) Soil treatment
d) Poisonous insecticides
Answer: b
Explanation: In Structural barrier, the metal barrier consists of sheets of non corrodible metals such as copper or gal
vanized iron, having a thickness of about 0.80 mm. The metal barriers are likely to be damage and made prove to be
ineffective against termites.
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1. The __________ is a mixture of cement, sand, pebbles or crushed rock and water, which, when placed in the skel
eton of forms and are allowed to cure, becomes hard like a stone.
a) Cement concrete
b) Cement slurry
c) Cement grouting
d) Cement mortar
Answer: a
Explanation: The cement concrete has attained the status of major building material in all branches of the Modern co
nstruction because it can be readily moulded into durable structural items of various sizes and shapes as practically n
um
o considerable labour expenditure and many other reasons like this.
nt
2. Cement concrete is prove to be more economical than _________
ua
a) Aluminium
_Q
b) Steel
c) Copper
ks
d) Silica
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: This is due to the fact that sand and pebbles or crushed rocks, forming the bulk of cement concrete, to t
_B
he extent of about 80% to 90%, usually available at moderate cost. The form work, which is of Steel or timber, can b
es
e used over and over again or for other purposes after it is removed.
ot
3. There is initial ___________ of cement concrete which is mainly due to loss of water through forms, absorption b
_N
y surfaces of forms, etc.

TU
a) Swelling
b) Cracking
K
c) Dispersion
A
d) Shrinkage
e/
Answer: d
t.m
Explanation: The shrinkage of cement concrete occurs as it hardens. This tendency of cement concrete can be minim
ised by proper curing of concrete.
/
s:/
4. Cement concrete has tendency to be ________

tp
ht
a) Flexible
b) Elastic
c) Porous
d) Shine
Answer: c
Explanation: The tendency to be porous is due to the presence of voids which are formed during and after it’s placed
. To prevent Porosity, there should be proper grading and consolidation of aggregates. The minimum water cement r
atio should be adopted.
5. ________ is the commonly accepted theory of corrosion.
a) Direct corrosion
b) Chemical action theory
c) Electro osmosis theory
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d) Electrolytic theory
Answer: d
Explanation: In Electrolytic theory, the corrosion takes place due to the chemical reaction in combination with electr
olysis. It takes place at or near the room temperature when the metal comes into contact with moisture orbit and liqui
d solutions of salt acid or base.
6. The _________ is the simplest corrosion produced by means of a chemical attack.
a) Direct corrosion
b) Indirect corrosion
d) Electro Chemical action
Answer: a
Explanation: In Chemical Action theory or Direct corrosion, corrosion produced by means of chemical attack and it
um
includes oxidation in which the oxygen of atmosphere combines with all or a part of surface of material.
nt
7. The _________ is most liable to corrosion.
ua
a) Gold
_Q
b) Copper
c) Steel
ks
d) Wood
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: The steel is most liable to corrosion and hence the study of Steel corrosion is of Paramount importance.
_B
To minimise the chances of development of corrosion of Steel in concrete, some preventive measures may be taken
es
such as avoiding heavily congested reinforcement especially at the intersection of beams and columns, etc.
ot
8. Most important affect of corrosion is the formation of _________

_N
a) Swelling
TU
b) Cracks
c) Bubbles
K
d) Gas
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: It should however be remembered that action of corrosion becomes more intensive when it is combine
t.m
d with adverse effects of internal and external stresses. One important effect of corrosion is the formation of cracks a
nd these cracks usually progress on advanced most rapidly where the shearing stresses are the greatest.
/
s:/
9. It is found that the ________ does not lead to the corrosion of reinforcement, provided that the concrete is dense a
tp
nd there is enough cover to the enforcement.

ht
a) Ground water
b) Lake water
c) Sea water
d) Stream Water
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum cement content for concrete permanently under sea water should be 3 kN per metre cube
and the minimum cover over there enforcement should be 75 mm. However it is not advisable to take the risk of cor
rosion of reinforcement for prestressed concrete and hence the sea water should not be used for the making of the pr
estressed concrete.
10. All ________ tend to accelerate the setting of cement and to improve the strength of concrete in early stages.
a) Chlorides
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b) Sulphates
c) Sodium
d) Potassium
Answer: a
Explanation: On other hand, the sulphates tend to retard the setting of cement and to discourage the strength of concr
ete in early stages. It is found that the net effect of these two contradiction reactions in the fall in strength of concrete
to the tune of about 8% to 20%.
1. The term ________ is define as an act or process of gradual wearing away of a metal due to chemical or electro c
hemical reaction by its surrounding such that the metal is converted into an oxide, salt or some other compound.
um
a) Precipitation
b) Dissolution
nt
c) Erosion
ua
d) Corrosion
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: A substance known as rust results from corrosion. In other words, the Corrosion indicates the deteriorat
ion and loss of material due to chemical attack.
ks
oo
2. The ____________ is the simplest corrosion produced by means of chemical attack.
_B
a) Electrolytic theory
es
b) Chemical action theory
c) Galvanic action theory
ot
d) High temperature oxidation

_N
Answer: b
Explanation: Chemical action theory or Direct corrosion includes oxidation in which the oxygen of atmosphere com
TU
bines with all or part of surface of a material. In this the combined action of oxygen, carbon dioxide and moisture on
steel results in corrosion or rust.
K
A
3. ________ is the commonly accepted theory of corrosion.

e/
t.m
a) Direct corrosion
b) High temperature oxidation
/
c) Electrochemical corrosion
s:/
d) Galvanic action theory

tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: According to Electrolytic theory or Electrochemical corrosion, the corrosion takes place due to chemic
al action in combination with electrolysis. It takes place at or near the room temperature when the metal comes into
contact with moisture in contact with aqueous solution of salt, acid or bases.
4. ___________ corrosion takes place at or near the room temperature when the metal comes into contact with moist
ure or with aqueous solutions of salt, acids or bases.
a) Direct corrosion
b) Dry corrosion
c) Galvanic corrosion
d) Electrochemical corrosion
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrolytic theory or Electrochemical corrosion is the commonly accepted theory of corrosion. For ele
ctrochemical corrosion to occur, conditions that should be satisfied are- there should be an electrolyte; the current sh
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ould be passed through the circuit and the circuit must be closed.
5. The _______ corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals are in electrical contact with each other and exposed to
an electrolyte.
a) Galvanic corrosion
b) High temperature oxidation
c) Dry corrosion
d) Electrochemical corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Whereas, the rusting of ferrous alloys at high temperatures from scales and oxides. It indicates high te
mperature dry corrosion.
6. One of the important effects of the collision is the formation of _______
um
a) Slug
nt
b) Cracks
ua
c) Gases
d) Shine
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: It should however be remembered that action of corrosion become more intensive when it is combined
ks
with adverse effects of external and internal stresses. Cracks usually progress or advanced more rapidly where the sh
oo
earing stresses are the greatest.
_B
7. The ________ is most liable to corrosion.
es
a) Steel
ot
b) Aluminium
_N
c) Copper
d) Nickel
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: The steel is most liable to corrosion and hence the study of Steel corrosion is of Paramount importance.
K
To minimise the chances of development of corrosion of Steel in concrete, there should be avoiding of heavy conge
A
sted reinforcement especially at the intersection of beams and columns.

e/
t.m
8. The ________ water tends to develop dampness and inflorescence of the concrete structures.
/
a) Lake
s:/
b) Mineral
tp
c) Sea
ht
d) River
Answer: c
Explanation: Hence, the sea water can be adopted for concrete structures where finishing characteristics are not imp
ortant or where persistent dampness of surfaces permissible.
9. It is found that the _______ water does not lead to corrosion of reinforcement, provided the concrete is dense and
there is enough cover to the reinforcement.
a) Sewage
b) Fresh
c) River
d) Sea
Answer: d
Explanation: The minimum cement content for concrete permanently under sea water should be 3 kN per m^3 and th
126 / 405
e minimum cover over the reinforcement should be 75 mm.
10. What is minimum cement content for concrete permanently under sea water to avoid the corrosion of reinforcem
ent?
a) 5 kN/m3
b) 5 N/m3
c) 3 kN/m3
d) 3 N/m3
Answer: c
Explanation: However it is not advisable to take the risk of corrosion of reinforcement for prestressed concrete and h
ence the seawater should not be used for making the prestressed concrete.
um
nt
1. The process of selection of relative proportions of cement, sand, course aggregate and water, so as to obtain a con
ua
crete of desired quantity is known as the ________
_Q
a) Proportioning of reinforcement
b) Proportioning of concrete
ks
c) Proportioning of cement
oo
d) Proportioning of water
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: Proportioning of concrete result is independent of the size of stones. It is interesting to note that if sand
es
is taken in place of stones, the same result will be obtained. The result can be verified by pouring water in the vessel,
it is just full.
ot
_N
2. The theory of formation of __________ is based on the phenomenon of the formation of voids.
TU
a) Concrete
b) Cement
K
c) Water-cement
A
d) Slurry
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: In this theory, when coarse aggregate is placed, voids are formed. When fine aggregates i.e. sand is add
ed, it occupies these voids. Further, when finely powdered cement is added, it occupies the voids of sand particles.
/
s:/
3. In _______ method of volumetric proportions, the proportions of cement, sand and coarse aggregate are fixed or b
tp
eta really such as 1:2:4 or 1:3:6 etc.

ht
a) Minimum void method

b) Maximum void method
c) Water-cement ratio method
d) Arbitrary method
Answer: d
Explanation: In Arbitrary method, there is no rigid control over the strength of the concrete mix. However, this meth
od is widely used for all works of small magnitude because of its simplicity in the design.
4. 1:2:4, 1:3:6, etc. Are used in which method of volumetric proposition.

b) Water-cement ratio method
c) Arbitrary method
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d) Finesse modulus method
Answer: c
Explanation: In Arbitrary method of volumetric proportions, the proportions of cement are depending on the nature
of work for which concrete is required. Thus the general expression for proportions of cement, sand and coarse aggr
egate is 1:n:2n by volume.
5. For lean concrete bases and simple foundation for masonry walls ________ grades of concrete may be used.
a) M40 and M35

b) M5 and M7.5
c) M10 and M20
d) M1.5 and M2.5
Answer: b
Explanation: The letter M refers to the mix and the number indicates the specified concrete compressive strength of t
um
hat makes at 28 days expressed in Newton per mm square. The grades of concrete lower than M15 are not to be used
in RCC work.
nt
ua
6. In ________ method, the fineness modulus of sand and aggregate is determined by the standard tests.
_Q
a) Fineness modulus method
b) Minimum void method
ks
c) Arbitrary method
oo
d) Maximum void method
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: The Tom fineness modulus is used to indicate an index number which is roughly proportional to the av
es
erage size of the particle in the enter quantity of aggregates. The number of the BIS sieves used are from 80 mm to n
umber 15, which are used to determine the fineness modulus.
ot
_N
7. In ________ Method, the voids of coarse aggregate and fine aggregate are determined separately.
TU
a) Arbitrary method
b) Minimum void method
K
c) Maximum void method

A
d) Optimum void method

e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: In Minimum void method, the quantity of fine aggregate used in the mix is about 10% more than the v
oids in the coarse aggregate and the quantity of cement is kept at about 15% more than the voids in the fine aggregat
/
e.
s:/
tp
8. ________ method is based on the principle that the densest concrete is achieved by proportioning its aggregate in
ht
such a manner that the heaviest weight of concrete for same volume is obtained.

b) Arbitrary method
c) Water-cement ratio method
d) Maximum void method
Answer: d
Explanation: In Maximum void method, a box is filled with varying proportions of fine and coarse aggregate. The pr
oportion which give the heaviest weight is then adopted. The method of maximum density is not very popular becau
se the grades cannot be accurately achieved.
9. The strength of well compacted concrete with good workability is depended only on the _________
a) Water content
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b) Cement content
c) Water-cement ratio
d) Water-soaked ratio
Answer: c
Explanation: Similarly the higher water content increases the workability. But it is not useful for chemical action. Th
e excess water evaporates living pores in the concrete. Thus the increase water cement ratio lowers the strength of co
ncrete.
10. According to the __________ law given by Abram as a result of many experiments, the strength of well compact
ed concrete with good workability is dependent only on the water cement ratio.
a) Water content law

b) Water-cement ratio law
c) Water-sand ratio law
um
d) Cement content law
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: It is noted that to apply Water-cement ratio law, the concrete is assumed to be fully compacted. The lo
ua
wer water content produces stiff paste having greater binding property and hence the lowering of water cement ratio
within certain elements results in the increase strength.
_Q
ks
oo
1. According to the __________ law given by Abram as a result of many experiments, the strength of well compacte
_B
d concrete with good workability is dependent only on the water cement ratio.
es
a) Water-cement ratio
ot
b) Cement content
_N
c) Water-sand ratio
d) Water content
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: It is to be noted that to apply Water-cement ratio law, the concrete is assumed to be fully compacted. T
K
he lower water content produces stiff paste having greater binding property and hence the lowering of water cement
A
ratio within certain limits resulting in the increase strength.

e/
t.m
2. The water enters into chemical action with cement and this action causes ________ and ________ of concrete.
/
a) Swelling, shrinkage
s:/
b) Expansion, contraction
tp
c) Setting, hardening
ht
d) Strong, weak
Answer: c
Explanation: The water lubricates the aggregate and it facilitates the passage of cement with the voids of aggregates.
This mean that water makes the concrete workable.
3. The ratio of the amount of water to the amount of cement by weight is termed as the _______
a) Aggregate-sand ratio
b) Water-cement ratio
c) Cement-water ratio
d) Sand-aggregate ratio
Answer: b
Explanation: It is found theoretically that the water required for Function is about 0.50 to 0.60 times the weight of ce
ment. The strength and quality of concrete primarily depend upon the water cement ratio.
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4. For structures which are regularly wetting and drying, the water cement ratio by weight should be ______ and __
_______ for thin section respectively.
a) 0.55, 0.45
b) 0.45, 0.55
c) 0.55, 0.65
d) 0.65, 0.55
Answer: b
Explanation: The water cement ratio for structure which are exposed to weather should be carefully decided. For str
uctures that are continuously underwater, the water cement ratio by which should be 0.55 and 0.65 for thin sections
and mass concrete respectively.
5. The term _________ is used to describe the ease or difficulty with which concrete is handed, transported and plac
um
ed between the forms with minimum lost of homogeneity.
nt
a) Water-cement ratio
ua
b) Homogeneous mixture
c) Setting time
_Q
d) Workability
Answer: d
ks
Explanation: The workability, as a physical property of concrete alone irrespective of a particular type of constructio
oo
n, can be defined as the amount of useful internal work necessary to produce full compaction. For instance, the work
ability suitable for mass concrete is not necessarily sufficient for thin, inaccessible or heavy reinforced sections.
_B
es
6. If the concrete mix is too wet, the ______________ settle at the bottom of concrete Masha and the resulting concr
ete becomes of non uniform composition.
ot
_N
a) Fine aggregate
b) Coarse aggregate
TU
c) Sand
d) Cement
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: On the other hand, if the concrete mixture is too dry, it will be difficult to handle and place it in positio
e/
n. Both these conflicting condition should be correlated by proportioning carefully the various component of concret
t.m
e mixture.
/
7. The _________ is used to measure the workability of concrete mixture which is commonly used in the field.
s:/
tp
a) Vee-bee test
ht
b) Slump test
c) Compaction factor
d) Workability test
Answer: b
Explanation: The first to suggest the concept of Slump was probably C.M. Champman as a measure of concrete cons
istency in 1913 and it first appeared in USA book of standard in 1922. Thus the slump test is too old and very few te
st method of concrete technology have beaten this record.
8. In ________ test, the workability of concrete is measured in the terms of internal energy required to compact the c
oncrete fully.
a) Compaction factor test

b) Vee-bee test
c) Rotating table test
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d) Slump cone test
Answer: a
Explanation: In Compaction factor test, the concrete is allowed to fall in a lower cylindrical mould of 150 mm diame
ter and 300 mm height through into vertical placed conical Hopper. The surplus concrete appearing about the top of
the mould is removed with a trowel. The weight of concrete in the mould is then found out.
9. The presence of moisture in the sand _____________ the volume of the sand.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Shrink
d) Contract
Answer: a
Explanation: The increase in volume of sand is due to the fact that the moisture causes film of water around sand par
um
ticles and it results in the increase of volume of sand. For moisture content of about 5% to 8%, this increase of volu
me may be as much as 20% to 40%, depending upon the grading of sand.
nt
ua
10. The finer the material, the more will be increasing volume for a given moisture content and this phenomenon is
known as the _____________
_Q
a) Shrinkage of sand
ks
b) Contraction of sand
oo
c) Bulking of sand
d) Expansion of sand
_B
Answer: c
es
Explanation: When moisture content is increased by adding more water, the sand particles pack near each other and t
he amount of bulking of sand is decreased. Thus the dry sand and the sand completely flooded with water have pract
ot
ically the same volume.

_N
TU

K
1. The process of rolling, folding and spreading of the particle is known as the __________ of concrete.
A
e/
a) Curing
t.m
b) Mixing
c) Grouting
/
d) Watering
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: The materials of concrete should be mixed thoroughly so that there is a uniform distribution of material
ht
s in the mass of concrete. The thorough mixing also ensures that water cement paste completely covered the surface
of aggregate.
2. For _______ mixing, the materials are stacked on watertight platform, which may be either of wood, Brick or stee
l.
a) Machine
b) Roller
c) Hand
d) Mixer
Answer: c
Explanation: The mixing by hand is allowed in case of small works on unimportant work were small quantity of con
crete is required. For important work, if hand mixing is to be adopted, it is advisable to use 10% more cement than s
pecified.
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3. For ________ mixing, all the material of concrete including water, are collected in a revolving drum and drummer
is rotated for a certain period.
a) Drum
b) Hand
c) Roller
d) Machine
Answer: d
Explanation: It is found that the materials of concrete with the help of machine is more efficient and it produces con
crete of better quality in a short time. The mixtures of various types and capacities are available in the market. They
are may either be of tilting type or non tilting type.
4. For ordinary building works, the ___________ is formed and the concrete is conveyed in pans from hand to hand.
um
a) Conveyor belt
nt
b) Bucket
ua
c) Human ladder
d) Pump
_Q
Answer: c
Explanation: The type of equipment to be used for transport of concrete depends on the nature of work, height above
ks
the ground level and the distance between the points of preparation and placing of concrete. For important words, th
oo
e various mechanical devices such as dumpers, truck mixer, conveyor belts, etc. may be used.
_B
5. The term ________ of concrete is used to mean the compaction between aggregate and aggregate; between aggre
es
gate and reinforcement and between aggregate and forms.
ot
a) Consolidation
_N
b) Hardening
c) Compaction
TU
d) Curing
Answer: a
K
Explanation: The main aim of consolidation of concrete is to eliminate air Bubbles and thus to give maximum densi
A
ty to the concrete. The importance of consolidation of concrete can be seen from the fact that a presence of 5% of vo
e/
ids reduces 30% strength of concrete.

t.m
6. The ________ are the gaps between two individual particles.

/
s:/
a) Spaces
tp
b) Voids
ht
c) Pores
d) Bubbles
Answer: b
Explanation: The difference between voids and pores may be noted. The pores represent the opening within the indi
vidual particles. The process of consolidation of concrete can be carried out either by hand or by means of vibrators.
7. Form unimportant works, the consolidation of concrete is carried out by ___________ method which include Ra
mming, tamping, spading and slicing with suitable tools.
a) Machine
b) Roller
c) Vibrator
d) Hand
Answer: d
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Explanation: The Hand Method require use of a fairly wet concrete. It should however be remembered that wherever
feasible, the hand competition should be preferred because the use of vibrator may lead to the segregation of the agg
regates.
8. _________ vibrators consists of the Steel Tube which is inserted in fresh concrete.
a) Surface vibrators
b) Internal vibrators
c) Vibrating table
d) Shutter vibrators
Answer: b
Explanation: The Internal vibrators or Immersion vibrators should be inserted and withdrawn slowly and they shoul
d be operated continuously while they are being withdrawn. In this, the Steel Tube is called poker and it is connecte
d to an electric motor or a petrol engine through a flexible tube.
um
9. _________ vibrators are mounted on platforms or screeds.
nt
ua
a) Form vibrators
b) Surface vibrators
_Q
c) Shutter vibrators
d) Immersion vibrators
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Surface vibrators are used to finish concrete surface as a bridge floors, roads slabs, station platform, etc
. These vibrators are found to be more effective for compacting very dry concrete mixes because the vibration acts i
_B
n the same direction of gravity and the concrete is compacted in the confined zone.
es
10. __________ vibrators are attached to the form work and the external centring of walls, column, etc.
ot
_N
a) Shutter vibrators
b) Surface vibrators
TU
c) Internal vibrators
d) Immersion vibrators
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: In Form or Shutter vibrators, the Vibrating action is conveyed to concrete through the formwork. A co
e/
nsiderable energy is absorbed by the formwork during transmission of vibration. Hence they are not generally used.
/ t.m

s:/
tp
1. The concrete having bulk density between 5 kN/m3 to 18 kN/m3 is known as _________
ht
a) Coloured concrete
b) Lightweight concrete
c) No-fines concrete
d) Heavyweight concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: The lightweight concrete is highly porous and hence, it leads to the corrosion of reinforcement, if not p
roperly protected. For lightweight concrete, the loose porous materials are used as aggregates.
2. The sound absorption of light weight concrete is _________
a) Medium
b) Bad
c) Good
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d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: The sound absorption of light weight concrete is good because of the fact that the air borne sound ener
gy is converted into heat in the minute channels of the concrete.
3. The sound absorption coefficient of lightweight concrete is nearly ___________ than that of ordinary concrete.
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Equal
d) Eight times
Answer: a
Explanation: The depth within which corrosion can occur under suitable conditions, is nearly twice than that of nor
mal concrete. Hence special care will have to taken to overcome sufficient problems.
um
4. The only drawback of lightweight concrete is that the ___________
nt
ua
a) Depth of carbonation
b) Heavy absorption
_Q
c) Desalination
d) Oxidation
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: The depth within which collision can occur under suitable conditions, is nearly twice than that of norm
al concrete. Hence special care will have to be taken to provide sufficient cover to the reinforcement of lightweight s
_B
tructure to grant protection against corrosion.
es
5. The use of lightweight concrete results in the reduction of cost to the extent of about _______
ot
_N
a) 30% – 40%
b) 50-60%
TU
c) 10-20%
d) 70-80%
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: The reduction in weight of concrete helps easy removal, transport and erection of precast products. The
e/
lightweight concrete does not present a special problem with respect to freezing and thawing.
t.m
6. The ________ Concrete consist of cement, coarse aggregate and water.

/
s:/
a) Heavyweight concrete
tp
b) Lightweight concrete
ht
c) Coloured concrete
d) No-fines concrete
Answer: d
Explanation: Here, the fine aggregate or sand is eliminated and such concrete has been adopted for cast in situ extern
al load bearing walls of single and multi storey houses, small retaining walls, damp proof sub base material, etc.
7. As compared to conventional concrete, the ________ of no fines concrete is relatively low.
a) Swelling due to absorption

b) Drying shrinkage
c) Capillary action
d) Water transmission
Answer: b
Explanation: As there is an absence of capillary passages, there is no transmission of water by capillary action. It pos
134 / 405
sesses better insulating characteristics than the conventional concrete because of the presence of large voids.
8. As no-fines concrete has little or no ___________ in the fresh state, it requires long time for the removal of forms.
a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
c) Shrinkage
d) Swelling
Answer: b
Explanation: No-fines concrete is highly permeable as compared to conventional concrete and hence the rendering o
f walls become essential. However, in certain cases, such as the drainage layer in the soils, the advantage of quality
of high permeability of no fines concrete can be taken.
9. The use of reinforcement in the no-fines concrete is generally ________
um
a) Economical
nt
b) Recommended
ua
c) Not recommended
d) Corrosion proof
_Q
Answer: c
Explanation: However, if reinforcement in the no-fines concrete is to be used, it is to be coated with a thin layer of a
ks
bout 3 mm thickness of cement pastes so as to improve the bond characteristics and also to improve the resistance to
oo
corrosion.
_B
10. The Unit Weight of no fines concrete is about ________ of the Unit Weight of conventional concrete.
es
a) 2/3
ot
b) 3/2
_N
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: Hence the pressure of formwork is greatly reduced. Also, the formwork need not to be water tight and
K
hence it is possible to use cheap formwork.

A
e/
t.m

/
1. Identify the given joint in Concrete Structures.

s:/
tp
a) Horizontal construction joint

ht
b) Vertical construction joint

c) Expansion construction joint
d) Water tank joint
Answer: a
Explanation: The construction joints are provided at locations were the construction is stopped either at the end of th
e day or for any other reason. The provisions of the construction joint become necessary to ensure proper bond betw
een the old work and the new work.
a) Horizontal construction joint

b) Expansion construction joint
c) Vertical construction joint
d) Water tank joint
135 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: The construction joint maybe horizontal or vertical. For an inclined or curved member of the joint shou
ld be at right angle to the axis of the member. It is necessary to determine the location of construction joints well in a
dvance for the viewpoint of structural stability.
3. Identify the given type of joint in Concrete Structures.
a) L beam construction joint

b) T beam construction joint
c) Expansion joint
d) Contraction Joint
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of T-beams, the ribs should be filled with concrete first and in the slabs forming the flanges can
be filled up to the centre of the ribs. If a construction joint between slab and beam becomes unavoidable especially
um
as in the case of long and deep beams, that T beams are used.
nt
ua
a) Expansion joint
_Q
b) Contraction Joint
c) Water tank joint
ks
d) Vertical construction joint
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: For water tanks and other structured which store water, the strips of copper, aluminium, galvanized iro
_B
n or other corrosion resistant material known as water stops or waterbars, are placed in construction joint as shown i
es
n given figure above.
ot

_N
a) Partial contraction joint

TU
b) Complete Contraction Joint

c) Horizontal construction joint
K
d) Dummy joint
A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: Above figure shows another form of contraction joint. It is also known as a dummy joint and in this cas
t.m
e, a groove of 3 mm width is created in the concrete member to act as a joint. The groove is filled with the joint filler
and its depth is about 1/3 to 1/5 of the total thickness of the member.
/
s:/
6. For water tanks and other structure which store water, the strips of copper, aluminium, galvanized iron or other co
tp
llision resistance material, known as the ________

ht
a) Joints
b) Waterstops
c) Dowels
d) Fillers
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of waterstops is to seal the joint against the passage of water. The waterstop may also be t
he natural and synthetic rubber or polyvinyl chloride(PVC).
7. The expansion and contraction joints generally consist of some elastic material, known as ________ which should
be compressible, rigid, cellular and Resilient.
a) Keys
b) Joint filler
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c) Keys
d) Fillers
Answer: b
Explanation: The usual joint filler are built-in strips of metal, bitumen treated felt, cane fibre board, cork bound with
rubber or resin, dehydrated cork, natural cork, softwood free from knots, etc.
8. The _________ are provided in expansion and contraction joints to transfer the load.
a) Dowels
b) Fillers
c) Joint filler
d) Waterbars
Answer: a
Explanation: The contraction joints are installed to allow for shrinkage movement in the structure. It may either be a
um
complete contraction joint or a partial construction joint. In the former case, there is complete discontinuity of both c
oncrete and steel.
nt
ua
9. The ___________ is the most effective process of repairing concrete work which has been damaged due to inferio
r work or other reasons.
_Q
a) Grouting
ks
b) Scraping
oo
c) Dewatering
d) Guniting
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: In Guniting, the surface to be treated is cleaned and washed. The nozzle is generally kept at a distance
of about 750 mm to 850 mm from the surface to be treated and velocity of nozzle values from 120 m/sec to 160 m/s
ot
ec.
_N
10. The _______ is a mixture of cement and sand, the usual proportion being 1:3.
TU
a) Mortar
K
b) Slurry
A
c) Gunite
e/
d) Concrete
t.m
Answer: c
Explanation: A cement gun is used to deposit the Gunite mixture on the concrete surface under pressure of about 20
/
N/cm2 to 30 N/cm2. The cement is mixed with slightly moist sand and the necessary water is added as the mixture c
s:/
omes out from the cement gun.

tp
ht
1. The concrete is contained in a timber or steel casing for a certain period after its placing, this casing is known as t
he ____________
a) Tremie
b) Hopper
c) Shuttering
d) Grouting
Answer: c
Explanation: The shuttering, formwork or moulds is to be removed when concrete has Harden sufficiently to support
its own weight. The formwork should be designed in such a way that it can be easily removed and used again.
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2. A ___________ consists of a watertight pipe of diameter about 250 mm to 300 mm.
a) Hopper
b) Grout
c) Bucket
d) Tremie
Answer: d
Explanation: The pipe extends from the level of working platform to the lowest point where concrete is to be deposit
ed. The bottom of the Tremie is provided with the concrete block which is forced out when concrete starts.
3. A _____________ is provided at the top of the Tremie to receive the concrete.
a) Bucket
b) Hopper
um
c) Tremie
d) Pipe
nt
Answer: b
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Explanation: It is necessary to keep the bottom end of the Tremie sufficiently deep in the fresh concrete so as to prev
ent the entry of water in the Tremie. A Hopper is provided at the top to receive the concrete which goes through the
_Q
Tremie into the water.
ks
4. __________ method is not in common use in case of placing concrete underwater.
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a) Tremie
_B
b) Grouting
es
c) Guniting
d) Spreading
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Tremie Method consist of spreading course aggregate underwater and then the salary of cement and sa
nd its food through the pipe so as to replace the water in the voids of the coarse aggregate.
TU
5. The ____________ is the most effective process of repairing concrete work which has been damaged due to enqui
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ry work or other reasons.

A
e/
a) Grouting
t.m
b) Guniting
c) Vibrating
/
d) Pouring
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: In Guniting method, the surface to be treated is cleaned and washed, the nozzle of gun is generally kept
ht
at a distance of about 750 mm to 850 mm from the surface to be treated and the velocity of nozzle varies from 120
m/sec to 160 m/sec.
6. The _________ is a mixture of cement and sand, the usual proposition being 1:3.
a) Grout
b) Mortar
c) Slurry
d) Gunite
Answer: d
Explanation: A cement gun is used to deposit the Gunite on the concrete surface under a pressure off about 22 N/cm
2 to 30 N/cm2. The cement is mixed with slightly moist sand and the necessary water is added as the mixture comes
out from the cement gun.
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7. It is observed that in cold weather, the curing is _________ in the initial stages of the setting of concrete.
a) Moderate
b) Slow
c) High
d) Fast
Answer: b
Explanation: The slow curing of concrete results in higher ultimate strength. The concrete should be cured adequatel
y especially when humidity is low and heat is used to control the temperature.
8. While placing concrete in hot weather, the aggregate should be _____________ to bring down the temperature of
concrete.
a) Burnt
um
b) Pre cooled
c) Heated
nt
d) Washed
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Answer: b
Explanation: In summer, the usual mistake made while placing concrete is the addition of extra water to the mixture
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as well as the finish concrete surface. Such an extra water resistance the strength and other properties of concrete.
ks
9. In cold weather conditions, the temperature of concrete should not be allowed to fall below ___________ for at le
oo
ast 3 days after its placing.
_B
a) 5° C
es
b) 25°C
c) 15°C
ot
d) 50°C
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: At the time of placing, the temperature of concrete should be between 15° Celsius to 25° Celsius and it
TU
should not be allowed to come into contact with water having a temperature of 35° Celsius.
K
10. The ___________ are open at top and their bottoms are provided with openable doors.
A
e/
a) Tremie
t.m
b) Hopper
c) Buckets
/
d) Bevel
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Answer: c
tp
Explanation: The concrete is put up in the bucket and it is covered by means of Canvas to protect it from water when
ht
bucket is being lowered point. When bucket reaches the desired depth, the bottom doors are opened out and concret
e is allowed to drop slowly.
1. An ___________ is a structure which is constructed to span across an opening.
a) Doors
b) Windows
c) Arches
d) Bridges
Answer: c
Explanation: Arches generally consist of small wedge shaped unit which are joined together with mortar. However, t
139 / 405
he arches made of steel and RCC are built in single units without the use of wedge shaped unit and they are used for
the bridge construction.
2. __________ is the inner surface of Arch.
a) Intrados
b) Soffit
c) Crown
d) Haunch
Answer: b
Explanation: Soffit is the inner surface of the arch. Sometimes the terms, extrados and Soffit are treated as synonym
ous. Whereas, Intrados is the inner curve of the arch.
3. __________ is the inclined or splayed surface on the abatement.
um
a) Skewback
nt
b) Springer
ua
c) Back
d) Piers
_Q
Answer: a
Explanation: Skewback is prepared to receive the arch and from it, springs the arch. Whereas, Back is the external c
ks
urve of an Arch.
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4. ____________ is the first voussoir and springing level on the other side of an arch and it is immediately adjacent t
_B
o the skewback.
es
a) Key
ot
b) Crown
_N
c) Abutment
d) Springer
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Answer: d
Explanation: Voussoirs are the wedge shaped unit forming the courses of an arch. Whereas, Abutment is the end sup
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port of an arch.
A
e/
5. ___________ is the wedge shaped unit at the Crown of an arch.

t.m
a) Key
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b) Crown
s:/
c) Ring
tp
d) Haunch
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: Key is sometimes made prominent by making out of a larger section and projecting it below and above
the outlines of an arch.
6. ____________ is the clear vertical distance between the highest point on the intrados and springing line.
a) Span
b) Rise
c) Arcade
d) Center
Answer: b
Explanation: Whereas, Span is the clear horizontal distance between the supports. And Centre is the geometrical cen
tre of the curve of an arch.
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7. ____________ is the lower half portion of the arch between the crown and the skewback.
a) Spandril
b) Soffit
c) Haunch
d) Ring
Answer: c
Explanation: Whereas, Spandril is the irregular triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line
drawn tangent to the crown.
8. The horizontal distance measured perpendicular to the front and back faces of an arch is known as the _________
a) Piers
b) Ring
um
c) Crown
d) Thickness
nt
Answer: d
ua
Explanation: Whereas, Ring is the circular course forming an arch. And Piers are the intermediate supports of an Ar
cade.
_Q
9. ____________ is a row of arches supporting a wall above and being supported by the piers.
ks
oo
a) Soffit
b) Arcade
_B
c) Crown
es
d) Impost
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: Whereas, Crown is the highest point of the extrados. The Springing line is the imaginary horizontal lin
_N
e joining the two springing points.

TU
10. The projecting course at the upper part of a Pier or an abutment to stress the springing line is called as the _____
______
K
A
a) Impost
e/
b) Height
t.m
c) Springing Point
d) Crown
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: Whereas, Springing Points are the points from which the curve of an arch Springs. And Height is the p
tp
erpendicular distance between the Intrados and extrados.

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1. Identify the type of Arch given below.
a) Semi circular arch

b) Inverted arch
c) Segmented arch
d) Flat arch
Answer: d
Explanation: The apparent shape of this arch is Flat and the usually skewback forms an angle of 60 degrees with the
horizontal as shown in the figure above. Thus an equilateral triangle is formed with one side as Intrados.
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a) Horse shoe arch

b) Pointed arch
c) Relieving arch
d) Stilted arch
Answer: c
Explanation: Relieving arch is constructed over a wooden joist or a flat arch as shown in the given figure above. It re
lieves the joints or flat arch from carrying the load. The ends of the relieving arch should be kept sufficiently inside t
he solid wall.
a) Florentine arch
um
b) Stilted arch
c) Pointed arch
nt
d) Venetian arch
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: In Venetian arch, the depth at crown is more than that at the Springing line as shown in figure. The Ve
_Q
netian arch has four centres all located on the springing line.
ks
oo
a) Florentine arch
_B
b) Venetian arch
es
c) Horse shoe arch
d) Relieving arch
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: Florentine arch is similar to the Venetian arch accept that the Intrados has the shape of semi circular cu
rve are shown. There are three centres for a Florentine arch, all located on the Springing line.
TU

K
A
a) Horse shoe arch

e/
b) Stilted arch
t.m
c) Two centred arch

d) Pointed arch
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: Stilted arch has a semi circular shape attached at the tops of two vertical position as shown. The Spring
tp
ing line of arch passes through the tops of vertical position.

ht
6. The flat, segmental, semicircular, horse-shoe and Stilted arches are __________
a) Two centred arch

b) Three centred arch
c) Five centred arch
d) One centred arch
Answer: b
Explanation: This type of earth has one Centre only. Sometimes the circular windows are used to have an architectur
al effect. For this purpose a bulls eye arch is adopted.
7. The pointed Arch of the Tudor period is an example of __________ arch.
a) Three centred arch

142 / 405
b) Four centred arch
c) Two centred arch
d) Five centred arch
Answer: a
Explanation: Tudor period arch has four centres. It consists of two different curves and has the appearance of an elli
pse at the haunches. The Venetian arch provides another illustration of this type of Arch.
8. ___________ type of arch is constructed from ordinary un-cut bricks.
a) Rough arch
b) Axed arch
c) Rough cut arch
d) Gauged arch
Answer: a
um
Explanation: A rough arch is used where appearance is of secondary importance or when it is intended to plaster the
face of the arch. In order to prevent the thick end of mortar to become too large, such arches are constructed in rings
nt
of half bricks.
ua
9. _________ types of arches are constructed from bricks which are cut to a wedge shaped by means of an axe.
_Q
a) Rough cut arch
ks
b) Rough arch
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c) Gauged arch
d) Cut arch
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: According to class of the work, the bricks are rough axed or fine-axed. The thickness of mortar joints v
aries from 3 mm to 6 mm.
ot
_N
10. ____________ type of arch is constructed from bricks which are finely cut by means of wire saw.
TU
a) Wire cut arch

b) Gauged arch
K
c) Rough arch
A
d) Saw cut arch

e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: The Gauged arch is used where are fine finish of the surface is required. The surfaces of bricks are finis
hed with file. The mortar joints are as thin as 1.50 mm to 0.75 mm.
/
s:/
11. __________ arches can be constructed in rubble masonry or ashlar masonry.

tp
ht
a) Stone arches
b) Wooden arches
c) Brick arches
d) Concrete arches
Answer: c
Explanation: The rubble masonry arch is comparatively weak and hence it is used for inferior type of work. The spa
n of rubble masonry stone arches is limited to about 1 m or so.
12. ____________ arches can be constructed from ordinary bricks or purpose made bricks or soft bricks.
a) Crushes arches
b) Stone arches
c) Brick arches
d) Concrete arches
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Answer: c
Explanation: The ordinary bricks are not cut to shape of Voussoirs and hence the rough bricks arches are formed. Fo
r getting the arch curve, the joints are made wedge shaped with greater thickness at the extrados and smaller thickne
ss at the intrados.
There's some sort of error here.

1. A _________ is a horizontal member which is placed across an opening to support the position of the structure ab
ove it.
a) Door
b) Window
c) Sill
um
d) Lintel
Answer: d
nt
Explanation: The function of a lintel is just the same as that of arch or beam. However, the lintels are easy and simpl
ua
e in construction. For an arch, special centring or formwork is required.
_Q
2. At present, the lentils of _________ are widely used to span the openings for doors, windows, etc. in a structure.
ks
a) Timber
oo
b) Wood
c) RCC
_B
d) Cement
es
Answer: c
Explanation: In general, it should be seen that the bearing of lintel i.e. the distance upto which it is inserted in the su
ot
pporting wall, should be minimum of 100 mm or height of lintel.

_N
3. _________ lintels consist of pieces of timber which are placed across the opening.
TU
a) Timber
K
b) RCC
A
c) Steel
e/
d) Brick
t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: The Timber Lintels are the oldest type of lintels and they have become absolute except in hilly areas or
/
places where timber is easily available.

s:/
tp
4. In Wood or Timber lintels, the depth of lintel should be about __________ to __________ of the span with the mi
ht
nimum value of 80 mm.
a) 1/6,1/4
b) 1/12,1/4
c) 1/12,1/8
d) 1/6,1/8
Answer: c
Explanation: The Wood Lintels are comparatively weak and relieving arches of brick or stone should therefore be pr
ovided. The wooden lintels help have in securing the heads of frames of timber doors and windows.
5. ___________ consist of slabs of Stones which are placed across the opening.
a) Stone Lintels
b) Brick Lintels
144 / 405
c) Steel Lintels
d) Wood Lintels
Answer: a
Explanation: The stone ring tones may be formed of a single piece or more than one piece the stone lintels are not ge
nerally favoured mainly due to the stone possess low tensile resistance.
6. ___________ consist of bricks which are generally placed on one end or edge.
a) Stone Lintels
b) Brick Lintels
c) Wood Lintels
d) Timber Lintels
Answer: b
Explanation: It is founded the bricks having frogs are more suitable for the brick lintel. It is due to the fact that the fr
um
ogs, filled with mortar, form keys between different layers and thus the shear resistance of end joint is increased.
nt
7. ______________ consists of Steel angles or rolled Steel joists.
ua
a) RCC Lintels
_Q
b) Steel Lintels
c) Wood Lintels
ks
d) Timber Lintels
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: The Steel Lintels are used for small spans and light loading and the latter is used for large span and hea
_B
vy loading. A steel lintel becomes useful when there is no space available to accommodate the rise of an arch.
es
8. ____________ consists of the reinforcement cement concrete and they have replaced practically all other material
ot
s for the lintels.

_N
a) RCC Lintels
TU
b) Wood Lintels
c) Stone Lintels
K
d) Timber Lintels
A
Answer: a
e/
Explanation: The RCC lintels are fireproof, durable, strong, economical and easy to construct. No relieving arches ar
t.m
e necessary when the RCC lintels are adopted.

/
9. The usual concrete mix for RCC lintel is ___________ (cement:sand:aggregate).

s:/
tp
a) 1:2:3
ht
b) 1:2:4
c) 1:4:8
d) 1:3:6
Answer: b
Explanation: The usual Congress mixed for RCC lintel is 1:2:4 i.e. 1 part of cement, two parts of sand and four parts
of aggregate by volume. The plain concrete lintel can be used up to a span of about 800 mm.
10. ___________ arrangement helps in improving the appearance of the face and also reduces the quality of concret
e.
a) Rebated boot lintel

b) D.P.C.
c) RCC
d) Reboot Lintel
145 / 405
Answer: a
Explanation: A flexible D.P.C. should be provided and the toe of the boot should be strong enough to bear the load o
f the wall above it.
1. A __________ is defined as a sequence of steps and it is provided to afford the means of Ascent and Descent bet
ween the floors or landings.
a) Stair
b) Beam
c) Roof
d) Sidewalk
um
Answer: a
Explanation: The apartment or room of building, in which the stair is located, is known as a staircase and opening or
nt
space occupied by stair is known as a Stairway.
ua
2. _________ is the vertical member which is fixed between string and handrail to give support to the handrail.
_Q
a) Baluster
ks
b) Balustrade
oo
c) Flight
d) Barrister
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: The combined framework of handrail and balusters is known as balustrade or barrister. Whereas, flight
is defined as an unbroken series of step between the landing.
ot
_N
3. The incline rail over the string is known as a _________

TU
a) Headroom
b) Landing
K
c) Handrail
A
d) Heading
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: Handrail is generally moulded and some forms of handles varies with shape. The Handrail serves as a g
uide rail and it should be provided at a convenient height so as to give grasp to the hand during Ascent and descent.
/
s:/
4. _________ is the horizontal distance between the faces of two consecutive Risers.
tp
ht
a) Riser
b) Flight
c) Going
d) Newel post
Answer: c
Explanation: Whereas, Nawel post is the vertical member with is placed at the ends of flight to connect the ends of S
trings and handrails.
5. The horizontal platform between two flights of a Stair is known as the _________
a) Landing
b) Pitch
c) Nosing
d) Rise
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Answer: a
Explanation: A landing facilitates change of direction and provides an opportunity for taking rest during the use of a
stair. Whereas, the vertical distance between two consecutive threads is known as a rise.
6. The protecting part of the tread beyond the face of Riser is known as a __________
a) Pitch
b) Rise
c) Riser
d) Nosing
Answer: d
Explanation: The term line of Nosing is used to denote an imaginary line parallel to the strings and tangential to the
Nosing. It is useful in the construction of handrails.
um
7. The vertical or Front member of the step, which is connected to the treads, is known as a __________
nt
a) Rise
ua
b) Run
c) Riser
_Q
d) Pitch
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: Whereas, the angle of inclination of the stairs with the floor is known as a Pitch. It also indicates the an
oo
gle which the line of nursing makes with the horizontal.
_B
8. The total length of a Stair in a horizontal plane is known as the __________
es
a) Run
ot
b) Soffit
_N
c) Scotia
d) Step
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: Riser includes the length of landings also. Whereas, Scotia is an additional finish or moulding provided
K
to the nosing or tread to improve the elevation of the step and to provide strength to the nosing.
A
e/
9. ____________ has one end or both ends splayed in plan.

t.m
a) Bullnose step
/
b) Balancing step
s:/
c) Splayed step
tp
d) Common step
ht
Answer: c
Explanation: Whereas, bullnose step is generally provided at the bottom of flight. It projects in front of the Newel po
st and it ends form a circular quadrant in a plan.
10. A combination of tread and riser is known as ___________
a) Soffit
b) String
c) Waist
d) Step
Answer: d
Explanation: Whereas, the under surface of a Stair is known as the soffit. It is generally covered with ceiling or finis
hed with plaster.
147 / 405
11. _________ is an ordinary step of rectangular shape in plan.
a) Flier
b) Round-ended step
c) Splayed step
d) Common step
Answer: a
Explanation: Whereas, Round-ended step is similar to a boon or step accept that its end or ends are semi-circular in
plan. And, a common step has a curved riser and tread.
12. __________ do not radiate from a common centre.
a) Common step
b) Dancing steps
um
c) Tread
d) Waist
nt
Answer: b
ua
Explanation: Whereas, the thickness of the structural slab in case of an RCC Stair is known as a waist. And, the hori
zontal upper portion of the stair is known as a tread.
_Q
ks
oo
1. A _________ is a sloping surface and it is adopted as a substitute for stair for easy connection between the floors.
_B
es
a) Rise
b) Pitch
ot
c) Ramp
_N
d) String
Answer: c
TU
Explanation: The usual slope of ramp is 1 in 15. But a slope of 1 in 10 is desirable. This indicates that the ramp requi
res more space. For instance, total length of 45 M of ramp will be required to connect the floor of height of 3 m with
K
slope and 1 in 15.

A
e/
2. In ________ all steps lead in one direction only.

t.m
a) Turning steps
/
b) Circular steps
s:/
c) Straight steps
tp
d) Geometrical steps
ht
Answer: c
Explanation: Straight steps consist of one or more flights and they are used when the space available for staircase is l
ong but narrow in width.
3. A Stair turning through one right angle is known as a _______ stair.
a) Quarter- turn
b) Half-turn
c) Dog-legged
d) Open navel
Answer: a
Explanation: Quarter Turn steps are commonly used in public buildings near their entrance hall. The stairs has a wid
er flight at the bottom which bifurcates into two narrower flights at the landing, one turning to the left and other to th
e right.
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4. A Stair turning through two right angles is known as a _________ stair.
a) Straight
b) Geometrical
c) Spiral
d) Dog-legged
Answer: d
Explanation: In case of Dog-legged stairs, the flight run in opposite directions and there is no space between them in
plan. These stairs are useful where the total width of space available for the staircase is equal to twice the width of t
he steps.
5. In case of _______ stair, there is a well or hole or opening between the flights in the plan.
um
a) Spiral
b) Three Quarter Turn
nt
c) Open Newel
ua
d) Dog-legged
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: In Open Newel stair, the well maybe rectangular or of any geometrical shape and it can be used for fixi
ng lifts. These stairs are useful where the available space for staircase has a width greater than twice the width of the
ks
steps.
oo
6. A Stair turning through three right angles is known as a ________ stair.
_B
es
a) Three Quarter Turn
b) Two Quarter Turn
ot
c) Four Quarter Turn

_N
d) Single Quarter Turn

Answer: a
TU
Explanation: In Three Quarter Turn, an open well is formed. This type of stair is used when the length of the stairs L
imited and when the vertical distance between the two floors is quite large.
K
A
7. In ___________ types of stairs, the steps radiate from the centre and they do not have either any landing or any in
e/
termediate Newel post.

t.m
a) Helical
/
b) Geometrical
s:/
c) Turning
tp
d) Straight
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: In Circular or Helical or spiral types of stairs, the flight consists of winders only and they may be conti
nued through any design number of turns. A spiral stair may be constructed of cast iron, mild steel or concrete.
8. The ___________ stairs are useful where the space available is limited and where the traffic is less.
a) Straight
b) Turning
c) Spiral
d) Geometrical
Answer: c
Explanation: The core of spiral stair maybe solid and hollow and the stair may be provided with cut or closed strings
. The height of the floor and riser respectively 3.68 M and 160 mm.
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9. _________ stairs have any geometrical shape and they require no newel posts.
a) Helical
b) Circular
c) Dog-legged
d) Geometrical
Answer: d
Explanation: The handrail of a geometrical stair continuous without interruption and without any angular turns. The
construction of geometrical stairs required considerable skill and it is found that geometrical stairs weaker than corre
sponding open newel stairs.
10. The stairs which are kept in motion by a revolving drum is known as a _______
a) Escalator
um
b) Revolving Stairs
c) Lift
nt
d) Elevator
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: These stairs are known as the escalators a were moving flights of electrically operated stairs. A few ste
_Q
ps at top and bottom are kept level through moving individually. The only thing a person has to do is to occupy a ste
p of the escalator for his upward and downward motion.
ks
oo
_B
es
1. The __________ to be used for the construction of stairs should be hard and non absorbent and they should posse
ss through resistant to the action of Fire.
ot
_N
a) Wooden blocks
b) Stone
TU
c) Brick
d) Timber
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The choice of the type of material to be adopted for the construction of stairs will depend on the availa
e/
bility of funds, qualities desired to use of the stairs durability and expected architectural effect required, etc.
t.m
2. In the case of ________ the arrangement is made to show rectangular steps which contain Rebated joint.
/
s:/
a) Spandril steps
tp
b) Tread and Riser steps

ht
c) Cantilever steps
d) Rectangular steps
Answer: a
Explanation: In rectangular steps, the overlap is about 25 mm to 40 mm. This arrangement results in considerable sa
ving in labour of cutting and dressing stones.
3. In ___________ arrangement, the steps are triangular in shape and they are cut in such a way so as to obtain aci pl
ain Soffit.
a) Rectangular steps
b) Tread and rise steps
c) Spandril steps
d) Cantilever steps
Answer: c
150 / 405
Explanation: Spandril steps are used where the headroom is desired. The Soffit affords a nice appearance and the we
ight of step is also reduced. The ends of the Spandril step with which are built into the wall should be square so as to
provide a horizontal seating or bearing.
4. In ____________ arrangement, the treads and Risers of stones are provided is in case of timber steps.
a) Spandril steps
b) Stone steps
c) Cantilever steps
d) Tread and Riser steps
Answer: d
Explanation: In Tread and riser steps, the Treada and rises of stone are provided in case of timber steps. The stone sl
ab trades and Risers are connected by Dowels in these steps.
um
5. In _________ arrangement, the steps are formed of treads only.
nt
a) Tread slab steps
ua
b) Cantilever tread slab steps
c) Spandril steps
_Q
d) Rectangular steps
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: In Cantilever Tread slab steps, the steps are formed of trades only. For this purpose, only thick stone sl
oo
ab are used without any Riser. The steps either be rectangular and triangular in shape.
_B
6. ____________ steps are in the form of trade and risers of thin stone slabs.
es
a) Spandril steps
ot
b) Built up steps
_N
c) Rectangular steps
d) Cantilever steps
TU
Answer: b
Explanation: Built up steps are placed over brick or concrete steps. The thickness of stone slab may vary from 20 m
K
m to 50 mm. This arrangement is generally adopted for marble steps to give an ornamental covering to the step.
A
e/
7. _________ stairs are light in weight, they are mostly used for residential buildings.
t.m
a) Timber
/
b) Stone
s:/
c) Marble
tp
d) Cantilever
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: The main objective of the provision to a wooden stair is that it is easily attacked by fire and thus, in cas
e of a fire, the occupants of upper floor cannot escape. But if a wooden stair is constructed from good quality Timbe
r such as teak and if it’s thickness is about 45 mm it becomes sufficiently fireproof.
8. ________ stairs are now not frequently used.
a) RCC
b) Marble
c) Brick
d) Stone
Answer: c
Explanation: A Brick stair maybe made of solid construction or arches may be provided. The latter arrangement red
uces the total quality of brick work and give some additional space which can be used for making cupboards, etc.
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9. The external file escaped stairs are generally made of _______
a) Wood
b) Stone
c) Metal
d) Brick
Answer: c
Explanation: The common Metals, used for the construction of stairs, are cast iron, bronze and mild steel. Thus the
metal stairs are widely used in factories, workshops, godowns, etc.
10. _________ stairs are now commonly used in all types of construction and in case of a frame structure of reinforc
ed concrete.
um
a) RCC
b) Brick
nt
c) Stone
ua
d) Metal
Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: The RCC stairs are found to resist wear and fire better than any other material and can be moulded to t
he desired shape. The steps can be provided with suitable finishing materials such as marble, terrazo tile, etc. These
ks
stairs can be easily maintained clean and they are strong, durable and pleasing in appearance.
oo
_B
es
1. The temporary casing is known as the __________

ot
_N
a) Support
b) Formwork
TU
c) Built up
d) Casing
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: When concrete is placed, it is in plastic state. It wants to be supported by temporary supports and casin
e/
gs of the desired shape till it becomes sufficiently strong to support its own weight. This temporary casing is known
t.m
as the form work or forms or shuttering.

/
2. Forms whose components can be reused several times are known as the _______
s:/
tp
a) Stripping
ht
b) Panel Forms
c) Newel forms
d) Shuttering
Answer: b
Explanation: The operation of removing the from work is commonly known as the stripping and when the stripping t
akes place, the components of the form work are removed and then reused for another part of the structure. Such for
ms whose components can be reused several times are known as the panel forms.
3. The __________ of formwork plays a significant role in the cost of concrete.
a) Conditions
b) Work
c) Period
d) Economy
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Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of formwork varies from 30% to 40% of the cost of concrete for ordinary structures and mayb
e go as high as 50% to 60% for special structures are just dams, bridges, etc.
4. The formwork should be sufficiently strong enough to bear the _________ of weight concrete as well as the weig
hts of the equipment, labour, etc.
a) Live load
b) Dead load
c) Wind load
d) Snow load
Answer: b
Explanation: This requires careful design of formwork. The over estimation of load result in inexpensive formwork
and the underestimation of load results in the failure of formwork. The load on the vertical forms are to be assessed f
um
rom various consideration such as the density of concrete, dimensions of section, etc.
nt
5. The inside surface of formwork should be ________ so as to turn out a good concrete surface.
ua
a) Smooth
_Q
b) Undulated
c) Rough
ks
d) Geometrical
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: The Smooth Surface is achieved by applying crude oil or soft soap solution to the inside surface of the
_B
formwork. This also makes the removal of formwork easy.
es
6. The ___________ formwork is used for formwork when it is desired to reuse the formwork several times.
ot
_N
a) Wooden
b) Timber
TU
c) Steel
d) Custom
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: The initial cost of steel formwork is very high. But it proves to be economical for large works requiring
e/
many repetitions of the form work.

t.m
7. The column formwork consists of a box prepared from __________ separate sides.
/
s:/
a) One
tp
b) Two
ht
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: The four sides of the box are held in position by wooden blocks, bolts and yokes. The formwork for an
RCC column of section 300 mm× 300 mm.
8. The form work for an RCC floor consists of a ___________ to receive the concrete.
a) Block
b) Skeleton
c) Trap
d) Beam
Answer: b
Explanation: The Skeleton consist of rows of the vertical post which carry small wooden beams and their tops. The
153 / 405
planks for slab are placed on these beams.
9. The boxes for beams are play prepared from ________ sides and ________ bottom in formwork for an RCC floor
.
a) One, One
b) Two, Two
c) One, Two
d) Two, One
Answer: c
Explanation: The vertical posts are suitable supported by lateral supports. The laterals, tampering blocks, base beam
s, wooden blocks and Struts are provided to make the formwork for floor strong enough to bear the load coming up
on it.
um
10. In formwork for the wall, the _________ are provided by vertical Struts and horizontal wales.
nt
a) Studs
ua
b) Wales
c) Sheets
_Q
d) Ties
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: The ties are provided to maintain the distance between the sheets and to resist the bursting action of co
oo
ncrete. In the small pieces of timber known as the spacers may be used and they are to be removed as the concrete re
aches that level.
_B
es

ot
_N
1. The _______ is used for formwork when it is desired to reuse the formwork several times.
TU
a) Stone
b) Steel
K
c) Timber
A
d) Bamboo
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: The erection and removal of steel formwork is simple and it presents a smooth surface on removal. The
initial cost of steel formwork is very high. But it proved to be economically for large ones requiring many repetition
/
s of the formwork.
s:/
tp
2. ___________ gives excellent exposed concrete surface requiring no further finishing treatment.
ht
a) Timber
b) Teak wood
c) Steel
d) Fibre glass
Answer: c
Explanation: The exposed surface obtained by use of timber formwork invariably requires plastering for getting the
desired finish of the concrete surface. Steel possesses more strength and is more durable than timber formwork.
3. When form work is required for small ones requiring less repetitions, the ________ is preferred to Steel.
a) Steel
b) Timber
c) Fibre glass
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d) Metal sheets
Answer: b
Explanation: The Timber formwork is cheap in initial cost and it can be easily adopted or altered for new use. The ti
mber to be used as formwork should be well Seasoned, free from loose knots, light in weight and easy workable wit
hout splitting.
4. The __________ formwork should be neither too dry nor too wet.
a) Fibre glass
b) Steel
c) Timber
d) Metal
Answer: c
Explanation: If it is too dry, the timber will swell and get distorted when wet concrete is placed on it. This will affect
um
the workability of concrete and honeycomb surface will appear on removal of the formwork.
nt
5. It is found that moisture content of about __________ is appropriate for the timber formwork.
ua
a) 20%
_Q
b) 30%
c) 40%
ks
d) 50%
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: If the timber is too wet, it will shrink in hot weather resulting in gaps in the form work through which c
_B
oncrete will flow out. Hence, the ridges will be formed on the concrete surface.
es
6. The _________ formwork can be reused several time as compared to ordinary Timber formwork.
ot
_N
a) Sunmica
b) Cardboard
TU
c) Fibre ply
d) Plywood
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: Under normal conditions, the plywood formwork can be used for 20 times to 25 times and the timber f
e/
ormwork can be used for 10 times to 12 times. The plywood formwork give surface which are plain and smooth and
t.m
they may not required any further finishing treatment.

/
7. The column formwork consists of a box prepared from _______ separate sides.
s:/
tp
a) One
ht
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: The four sides of boxer held in position by wooden blocks, bolts and yokes. The details of formwork fo
r an RCC column of section is 300 mm x 300 mm. Here, the spacing of yokes is about 1 metre in length.
8. The formwork for an ___________ consists of rows of the vertical post which carry small wooden beams at their
tops.
a) RCC floors
b) RCC slab
c) RCC column
d) RCC beam
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Answer: a
Explanation: The formwork for an RCC floor consists of a skeleton to receive the concrete. The planks for slab are p
laced on these beams. The boxes for beams are prepared from two sides and one bottom.
9. In case of formwork for the floor, the ________ supports should be firmly supported at the bottom.
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Inclined
d) Slanting
Answer: b
Explanation: For this purpose, the base plates of Steel may be used. The wooden wedges are provided at the bottom
so as to facilitate the tightening or loosening of the post.
um
10. The formwork for ________ consists of stringers, sheets, joist, bearers and vertical post.
nt
a) Walls
ua
b) Column
c) Beams
_Q
d) Stairs
Answer: d
ks
Explanation: The Riser forms are supported on the plates which are fixed on the stringers for walls as the case may b
oo
e. The bottom edge of the Riser forms is Chamfered so that concrete can be placed right up to the level of the next ri
ser.
_B
es
11. The formwork for ___________ consists of sheets, studs, Wales, ties and braces.
ot
a) Column
_N
b) Beams
c) Walls
TU
d) Stairs
Answer: c
K
Explanation: The Sheets are supported by vertical studs and horizontal wales. The ties are provided to maintain the d
A
istance between the sheets to resist the bursting action of the concrete.
e/
t.m
12. The forms are raised by the concrete is in a plastic state and such forms are therefore sometimes referred to as th
e ___________
/
s:/
a) Climbing forms
tp
b) Jumping forms
ht
c) Riser forms
d) Running forms
Answer: a
Explanation: After a set of slip forms is completely assembled on a concrete base, the forms are filled slowly with co
ncrete. When the concrete in the bottom portion of the forms has gained sufficiently rigidity, the upward movement
of the form is started and it is continued at a speed that is controlled by the rate at which the concrete sets.
1. Which of the following is not a function of a window?
a) To admit light into the building

b) To admit air to the building
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c) To admit water to the building
d) To provide thermal insulation
Answer: c
Explanation: A window serves many functional purposes. It is used to allow in light and air in a building. It is also u
sed to provide thermal insulation to the building. In some cases, it may provide sound insulation as well.
2. A window should be located on the __________ side of a room as seen from the point of view of fresh air.
a) Eastern
b) Northern
c) Western
d) Southern
Answer: b
Explanation: A window should be located on the northern side of a room as seen from the point of fresh air. This wo
um
uld let the fresh air inside the building and will provide good ventilation.
nt
3. A door should not be located in the centre of a wall.
ua
a) True
_Q
b) False
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: A door should not be located in the centre of a wall. It should be located in such a way that it meets the
oo
functional necessities of the room. It should be located near the corner of the room.
_B
4. Which of the following factors does not determine the selection of the location of a window?
es
a) Size of the room

ot
b) Location of the room

_N
c) Number of bricks used

d) Direction of wind
TU
Answer: c
Explanation: There are various factors that are used to determine the selection of the location of a window. These in
K
clude the size of the room, the location of the room, the utility of the room and the direction of the wind.
A
e/
5. Which of the following rules is used in order to select the location of a window?
t.m
a) Height of window = 1/8 (width of room + breadth of room)

/
b) Breadth of window = 1/8 (width of room + height of room)

s:/
c) Length of window = 1/8 (width of room + breadth of room)

tp
d) Width of window = 1/8 (height of room + breadth of room)

ht
Answer: b
Explanation: While selecting the location of a window, it should be kept in mind that the breadth of the window mus
t be equal to one-eighth the sum of width of the room and the height of the room. This results in achieving better ven
tilation.
6. The minimum area of windows should be __________ of the floor area in case of public buildings.
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum area of windows should be 20% of the floor area in case of public buildings. Climatic co
nditions such as humidity and temperature are also taken into account while considering the selection of location of
157 / 405
a window in a public building.
7. The length of a module as recommended by Indian Standard is __________
a) 100 mm
b) 100 cm
c) 10 mm
d) 50 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the Indian Standard, number of modules indicates the width and height of an opening. Th
e recommended length of a module is 100 mm.
8. In the designation 6 WS 12, the letter S stands for __________
um
a) Window opening
b) Single shutter
nt
c) Double shutter
ua
d) Height of opening
Answer: b
_Q
Explanation: The designation 6 WS 12 denotes a window opening with single shutter where the letter W stands for
window opening and the letter S stands for a single shutter. It tells that the width of the opening is 6 modules and hei
ks
ght is 12 modules.
oo
9. In the designation 10 WT 13, letter T stands for _________
_B
es
a) Double shutter
b) Single shutter
ot
c) Window opening
_N
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: In the designation 10 WT 13, the letter W stands for window opening and the letter T stands for double
shutters. It tells that the width of the opening is 10 modules and height is 13 modules.
K
A
10. The panels are fully glazed in a __________ window.

e/
t.m
a) Sliding window
b) Sash window
/
c) Double hung window

s:/
d) Fixed window
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: The panels are fully glazed in a sash window. It is a type of casement window. It consists of sash bars t
o which glass panes are fixed by means of glazing beads.
1. Which of the following components of a door is an assembly of horizontal and vertical members?
a) Shutter
b) Frame
c) Frog
d) Nogging
Answer: b
Explanation: A door consists mainly of two parts – door frame and door shutter. A frame is an assembly of horizont
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al and vertical members which is attached in the opening of the wall by hold-fasts.
2. ____________ is the top horizontal part of a frame.
a) Head
b) Shutter
c) Style
d) Rail
Answer: a
Explanation: Head is the top horizontal part of a frame. A shutter is a component of door fixed to a frame. Style and
rail are the components of a door shutter.
3. __________ is the openable part of a door or window.
um
a) Frame
b) Rail
nt
c) Shutter
ua
d) Sill
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: A shutter is the openable part of a door or window. It is held in position with the help of the door frame
. A door frame is generally made up of wood.
ks
oo
4. Which of the following is not a component of a door shutter?
_B
a) Style
es
b) Panel
c) Frame
ot
d) Rail
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: A door shutter comprises of styles, panels and rails. There are mainly three types of rails – top rail, loc
TU
k rail and bottom rail.

K
5. _______ is the bottom-most horizontal part of a frame.

A
e/
a) Head
t.m
b) Sill
c) Brace
/
d) Style
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Sill is the bottom-most horizontal part of a frame. A head is the top horizontal part of a frame. Braces a
ht
re the inclined members provided for braced doors. Style is a component of a door shutter.
6. Sills are normally not provided in door frames.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Sills are normally not provided in door frames. They are generally provided for window frames only an
d are defined as the lowermost part of a window frame.
7. _______ is the vertical outer member of the shutter.
a) Style
b) Top rail
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c) Lock rail
d) Bottom rail
Answer: a
Explanation: The vertical outer member of the shutter is known as style. Top rail, lock rail and bottom rail are the ho
rizontal members of a door shutter.
8. _______ is a horizontal projection of the head and sill of a frame.
a) Ledge
b) Horn
c) Batten
d) Shutter
Answer: b
Explanation: A horn is a horizontal projection of the head and sill of a frame. Battened and ledged doors are made of
um
vertical bonds known as battens which are fixed with the help of horizontal supports known as ledges.
nt
9. The length of the horn is _____________
ua
a) 10-15 cm
_Q
b) 15-20 cm
c) 25-30 cm
ks
d) 30-35 cm
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of the horn is generally about 10-15 cm. It is used to facilitate the fixing of the frame in the
_B
wall opening.
es
10. _____________ is the top horizontal member of a shutter.

ot
_N
a) Head
b) Top rail
TU
c) Style
d) Sill
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The top rail is the top horizontal member of the shutter. The middle horizontal member of the shutter is
e/
the lock rail and the lowermost horizontal member of the shutter is called the bottom rail.
/ t.m

s:/
tp
1. Intermediate rail is also known as ___________

ht
a) Top rail
b) Bottom rail
c) Cross-rail
d) Lock rail
Answer: c
Explanation: Intermediate rail is also known as a cross rail. A rail provided between the top rail and the lock rail is k
nown as frieze rail.
2. __________ is the vertical face of an opening in the wall which supports the door frame.
a) Shutter
b) Jamb
c) Style
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d) Head
Answer: b
Explanation: Jamb is the vertical face of an opening in the wall which supports the door frame. Jamb is essential in o
rder to open the door properly. In case of a window, it is known as side jamb when it is along the sides of the windo
w and when along the top, it is known as the head jamb.
3. The sill of a door is known as ________
a) Head
b) Frame
c) Shutter
d) Threshold
Answer: d
Explanation: The sill of a door is known as threshold. It is a cross wooden piece and is provided only when necessar
um
y. A sill is usually not provided for a door and is generally provided only for a window.
nt
4. ________ are used to fix the frame in the opening of the wall.
ua
a) Jambs
_Q
b) Shutters
c) Holdfasts
ks
d) Rails
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: Holdfasts are used to fix the frame in the opening of the wall. These are mild steel bars and their proper
_B
painting must be ensured before fixing them.
es
5. Holdfasts are generally bent into __________ shape.

ot
_N
a) T
b) Z
TU
c) H
d) K
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: Holdfasts are generally bent into a Z shape. One end is fixed to the door frame and the other end is emb
e/
edded in the wall. The minimum number of holdfasts recommended on each side of the door is generally three.
t.m
6. The horizontal length of the holdfast is ________

/
s:/
a) 5 cm
tp
b) 10 cm
ht
c) 20 cm
d) 25 cm
Answer: c
Explanation: The horizontal length of the holdfast is generally 20 cm. The dimensions of the section of the holdfast
are 30 mm x 6 mm.
7. _________ is the depression created inside the door frame in order to receive the door shutter.
a) Rebate
b) Reveal
c) Jamb
d) Ledge
Answer: a
Explanation: Rebate is the depression created inside the door frame in order to receive the door shutter. The width of
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the rebate cut is about 12 mm and its depth is kept equal to the thickness of the shutter.
8. __________ is a vertical member of the frame used to subdivide a door vertically.
a) Panel
b) Shutter
c) Mullion
d) Reveal
Answer: c
Explanation: Mullion is a vertical member of the frame used to subdivide a door or a window vertically. These are al
so used for the sub-division of panels in framed and panelled doors. The main function of a mullion is to provide sup
port to the lintels and arches.
9. _________ is the external jamb of a door.
um
a) Reveal
nt
b) Rebate
ua
c) Frame
d) Hold fast
_Q
Answer: a
Explanation: Reveal is the external jamb of a door or a window. It opens at right angles to the face of the wall. In cas
ks
e of a window, these are the timber lines provided inside the window.
oo
10. In the figure below, C represents _________
_B
es
a) Reveal
b) Transom
ot
c) Threshold
_N
d) Rebate
Answer: b
TU
Explanation: The above figure is of a window. Here, C represents transom. It is a horizontal member of a window fr
ame which is used to sub-divide the window opening horizontally. It is generally made of a wooden sheet. Also, in t
K
he figure above, A represents the head, B represents transom light, D represents panel and E represents rail.
A
e/
t.m

/
1. The height of a door should not be less than _______

s:/
tp
a) 1-1.2 m
ht
b) 1.3-1.4 m
c) 1.8-2 m
d) 2-2.3 m
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the rules, the height of a door should not be less than 1.8-2 m. The size of the door should
be such that it ensures the movement of the largest object likely to use that door.
2. The width of a door should be such that it ensures the passing of two people walking ______ through that door.
a) Head to head
b) Shoulder to shoulder
c) Toe to toe
d) Hand to hand
Answer: b
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Explanation: The width of a door should be such that it ensures the passing of two people walking shoulder to shoul
der through that door. In the case of an opening, the number of modules indicates the width and the height, where ea
ch module is of 100 mm.
3. Which of the following relations between the height and width of a door are correct?
a) Height = (width + 1.2) metres

b) Width = (height + 1.2) metres
c) Height = (width + 1.4) metres
d) Width = (height + 1.4) metres
Answer: a
Explanation: The height and the width of a door are related in a way such that the height of the door is 1.2 metres m
ore than the width of the door. For example, if the width of a door is 0.8 metres, then its height will be (0.8 + 1.2) m
i.e. 2 metres.
um
4. According to the relations used in India between the height and the width of a door, the width of a door should be
nt
______ times height.
ua
a) 0.1-0.2
_Q
b) 0.3-0.5
c) 0.4-0.6
ks
d) 0.8-1.0
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the relations used in India between the height and the width of a door, it must be kept in
_B
mind that the width of a door should be 0.4-0.6 times its height. For an opening, the height is calculated from below
es
the floor finish to the ceiling of the lintel.
ot
5. What should be the size of an external door of a residential building?

_N
a) (1.0 m x 3 m) to (2.1 m x 3 m)
TU
b) (1.0 m x 2 m) to (1.1 m x 2 m)
c) (2.0 m x 2.1 m) to (2.1 m x 3 m)
K
d) (1.0 m x 2.9 m) to (2.1 m x 3 m)

A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: The generally adopted size of an external door of a residential building is (1.0 m x 2 m) to (1.1 m x 2 m
t.m
). The adopted size of doors for bathrooms and closets is usually (0.7 m x 2 m) to (0.8 m x 2 m).
/
6. Which of the following cannot be the thickness of a door shutter?

s:/
tp
a) 20 mm
ht
b) 25 mm
c) 125 m
d) 30 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: A door shutter is an openable part of a door. It consists of styles, panels and rails. Style is the vertical
member of a shutter while rails are the horizontal members of the shutter. Depending upon the size, the thickness of
a door shutter can be 20, 25 or 30 mm.
7. What should be the size of the internal door of a residential building?
a) (0.9 m x 2 m) to (1 m x 2 m)
b) (1.0 m x 2.9 m) to (2.1 m x 3 m)
c) (1.0 m x 3 m) to (2.1 m x 3 m)
d) (0.9 m x 1 m) to (1 m x 3 m)
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Answer: a
Explanation: The size of an internal door of a residential building is generally (0.9 m x 2 m) to (1 m x 2 m). The size
of doors for garages for cars is generally 2.25 m (height) x 2.25 m (width) to 2.25 (height) x 2.40 (width).
8. In the designation 8 DS 20, the letter D stands for __________
a) Window opening
b) Single shutter
c) Double shutter
d) Door opening
Answer: d
Explanation: The designation 8 DS 20 denotes a door opening with single shutter where the letter D stands for door
opening and the letter S stands for single shutter. It tells that the width of the door opening is 8 modules i.e. 800 mm
and height is 20 modules i.e. 2000 mm.
um
9. In the designation 10 DT 21, letter T stands for _________
nt
ua
a) Double shutter
b) Single shutter
_Q
c) Door opening
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: In the designation 10 DT 21, the letter D stands for door and the letter T stands for double shutters. It te
lls that the width of the door opening is 10 modules i.e. 1000 mm and the height is 21 modules. Each module is of 1
_B
00 mm.
es
10. The size of the door frame (in mm) recommended for the designation 8 DS 20 is __________
ot
_N
a) 890 x 2090
b) 790 x 1990
TU
c) 790 x 2990
d) 890 x 1990
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The size of the door opening for the designation 8 DS 20 (in mm) is 800 x 2000. The size of the door fr
e/
ame (in mm) recommended for this designation is 790 x 1990. The size of the door shutter (in mm) recommended fo
t.m
r the same is 700 x 1905.

/
s:/

tp
ht
1. The size of a door frame is determined after allowing a margin of __________ all-round.
a) 1 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 7 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: A door frame consists of horizontal and vertical members forming an enclosure. The size of a door fra
me is determined after allowing a margin of 5 mm to both the sides and the top of the door opening. This is one of th
e recommendations laid down by the Indian Standard.
2. Which of the following frames are used only for those residential buildings where more funds are available?
a) Timber frames
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b) Aluminium frames
c) Steel frames
d) Stone frames
Answer: b
Explanation: Aluminium frames are used only for those residential buildings where more funds are available becaus
e of their large costs. Timber frames can be easily attacked by termites. Stone frames are used in villages where the s
tone of good quality in required size is available.
3. The cross-sectional area of the head and the post of a door frame is generally kept the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The cross-sectional area of the head and the post of a door frame is generally kept the same. The top ho
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rizontal member of the door frame is known as the head while the vertical members are known as posts.
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4. Which of the following statements about concrete frames is false?
ua
a) They are replacing timber frames in urban areas
_Q
b) They cost less than timber frames
c) They cost more than timber frames
ks
d) They are cheaper than iron frames
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: Concrete frames are nowadays replacing timber frames in urban areas due to large costs of timber fram
_B
es. Also, timber frames decay very readily. Concrete frames are cheaper than timber frames as well as than iron fram
es
es.
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5. The thickness of a timber frame may vary between _______

_N
a) 20-35 mm
TU
b) 60-75 mm
c) 20-35 cm
K
d) 60-75 cm
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Depending upon the size of the door opening and the type of timber used, the thickness of a timber fra
t.m
me may vary between 60-75 mm. The same thickness is used for the horizontal and vertical members of the door fra
me.
/
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6. The width of a timber door frame is _______ if the shutter is provided only to one side of the door.
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ht
a) 10 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 200 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: The width of a timber door frame is 100 mm if the shutter is provided only to one side of the door. This
is the general case of a timber frame. However, if the shutter is provided to both the sides of the frame, then the wid
th is taken 125-140 mm.
7. The width of rebating of the timber frame at its outer edge varies between ________
a) 12.5-15 mm
b) 2.5-13 mm
c) 8.1-9.2 mm
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d) 18.5-20.5 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: The width of rebating of the timber frame at its outer edge varies between 12.5-15 mm. In this case, the
depth is equal to the thickness of the shutter. However, the depth of rebating of the timber frame at its inner edge is
equal to 10 mm.
8. Which of the following is not a type of joint between the head and the post of the timber frame?
a) Closed mortised and tenoned joint

b) Open and pin joint
c) Pin and tenoned joint
d) Dovetailed joint
Answer: b
Explanation: The various types of joints between the head and the post of the timber frame are – closed mortised and
um
tenoned joint, pin and tenoned joint, and dovetailed joint. However, Indian Standard recommends a dovetail joint o
ut of these three types.
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ua
9. Which of the following is an anti-termite solution?
_Q
a) Aldrex
b) Acetone
ks
c) Alcohol
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d) Water
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: Aldrex is an anti-termite solution. It is added to coal tar which is then rubbed on all the parts of the tim
es
ber frame which are in contact with the masonry. This prevents the timber from the attack of termites. Acetone is a v
olatile solution and hence is soaked by the wood which makes it ineffective against the attack of termites.
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_N
10. In the figure below, B represents ____________

TU
a) Head
b) Post
K
c) Rebate
A
d) Holdfast
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: The above figure represents a door frame. In this figure, A represents the head, B represents post, C rep
resents rebate and D represents holdfast. The post is the vertical member of a door frame. It is also known as the jam
/
b.
s:/
tp
ht
1. Which of the following is not a section of a steel door frame?
a) Single angle iron

b) Double angle iron
c) Q-section
d) T-section
Answer: c
Explanation: The various sections of a steel door frame are single angle iron, double angle iron, T-section and chann
el sections. Steel frames are widely used in factories and workshops.
2. In case of softwood frames, which of the following shall be of hardwood?

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a) Bottom shutter of the window
b) Bottom sill of the window
c) Bottom head of the window
d) Bottom rail of the window
Answer: b
Explanation: Members of frames of timber doors and windows are usually made of the same species of timber excep
t in the case of softwood frames. In softwood frames, the bottom sill of the window shall be of hardwood.
3. The right angle of the members of a door shall be checked from their outer surface.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: According to the Indian Standard, all the members of a door should be exactly at right angles. The right
um
angle of these members shall be checked from their inner surfaces.
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4. How many holdfasts shall be fixed on each side in case of window and ventilator frames with height less than 1 m
ua
?
_Q
a) Two
b) Three
ks
c) Four
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d) Five
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: Two holdfasts shall be fixed on each side in case of window and ventilator frames with height less than
es
1 m. According to the Indian Standards, these should be fixed at the quarter points of the frames.
ot
5. The contact surfaces of tenons should be treated with __________ before putting together.
_N
a) Mud
TU
b) Animal glue
c) Amber
K
d) Alcohol
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: The contact surfaces of tenons should be treated with animal glue before putting together. In place of a
t.m
nimal glue, you can use a proper adhesive or polyvinyl acetate dispersion based adhesive.
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6. In panelled doors, the maximum area of a single panel of timber should not be more than _______
s:/
tp
a) 0.5 m2
ht
b) 1 m2
c) 1.5 m2
d) 2 m2
Answer: a
Explanation: In panelled doors, if panels are made up of timber, it must be kept in mind that the maximum area of a
single panel of timber should not be more than 0.5 m2. It must also be ensured that its minimum thickness should be
15 mm.
7. Solid core flush door is also known as ________
a) Laminated core flush door

b) Cellular core flush door
c) Sash door
d) Battened door
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Answer: a
Explanation: Flush doors are of two types – solid core flush door and hollow core flush door. Solid core flush door i
s also known as a laminated core flush door. It consists of a wooden frame comprising styles, top rail and the bottom
rail. The top and bottom rails are used to hold the core.
8. Which of the following doors are used to check the entry of flies and insects?
a) Battened doors
b) Wire-gauged doors
c) Sliding doors
d) Swing doors
Answer: b
Explanation: Wire-gauged doors are used to check the entry of flies and insects. In these doors, a wire mesh is provi
ded in the panel which allows free movement of air. These doors are usually used for hotels, sweet shops etc.
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9. In the figure below, C represents __________
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a) Style
b) Lock rail
_Q
c) Glass panel
d) Timber panel
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Answer: d
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Explanation: The above figure is of a partly glazed and partly panelled double leaf door. In this figure, A represents
glass panel, B represents lock rail and C represents timber panel. In partly glazed doors, the ratio of panelled portion
_B
to the glazed portion is 1:2.
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10. The minimum number of holdfasts on each side of the door and window timber frames should be ________
ot
_N
a) Two
b) Three
TU
c) Four
d) Five
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The minimum number of holdfasts on each side of the door and window timber frames should be three.
e/
One should be at the centre point and the other two should be fixed at 300 mm from the top and the bottom of the fr
t.m
ames.
/
s:/

tp
ht
1. A ___________ may be defined as an openable barrier secured in an opening left in a wall for the purpose of prov
iding access to the user of the structure.
a) Window
b) Door
c) Ventilator
d) Lintel
Answer: b
Explanation: Door basically consists of two parts, namely, frame and shutter. The door shutter is held in a position b
y the door frame which in turn is fixed in the opening of the wall by some suitable means.
2. A ____________ may be defined as an opening made in a wall for the purpose of providing daylight, vision and v
entilation.
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a) Ventilator
b) Door
c) Shutter
d) Window
Answer: d
Explanation: Window is also like door consists of two parts i.e. Frame and shutter. The window frame is suitably fix
ed in the opening of the wall and the window shutter is held in position by the window frame.
3. The main function of _________ in a building is to serve as a connecting link between the various internal parts.
a) Window
b) Ventilator
c) Door
d) Opening
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Answer: c
Explanation: The number of rows in a room should be kept minimum due to the fact that more number of doors will
nt
cause of obstruction and reduce the effective usable carpet area of the room.
ua
4. The ___________ are generally provided to give light and ventilation both to the interior part of a building.
_Q
a) Ventilators
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b) Doors
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c) Windows
d) Lintels
_B
Answer: c
es
Explanation: When Windows are provided for a purpose of light only, as in case of storage room, showrooms, etc., t
hey may be fixed so that they cannot be open. But when Windows are provided for light and ventilation, some or all
ot
the portions of Windows must open.

_N
5. The minimum width for __________ doors ____________ doors and doors in public building such as hospitals, li
TU
brary, etc., are 800 mm, 1 m and 1.2 meters respectively.

K
a) Internal, External
A
b) External, Internal
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c) Internal, Main
t.m
d) External, Main
Answer: a
/
Explanation: Regarding height and width of a door, the general rule followed in India is as follows – Height = width
s:/
+ 1 m to 1.2 m approx. & WidthWidth = 0.4 to 0.6 of height.

tp
ht
6. The size of ________ depends on the dimension of the room, use of the room, location of the room, direction and
speed of the wind, obstruction to light by neighbouring buildings, etc.
a) Ventilator
b) Door
c) Window
d) Lintels
Answer: c
Explanation: For 30 M3 inside content of the room, there should be at least 1 m square of window opening. The tota
l area of the window opening should be at least 15% of the floor area of the room.
7. The BIS recommends that the size of a door frame and window frame should be derived after allowing a margin o
f ______ mm alround an opening for convenience of fixing.
169 / 405
a) 2 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The width and height of an opening is indicated by number of modules where each module is of 100 m
m. The height of opening for door is considered from below the floor finish to the bottom of lintel.
8. For instance, the designation 6 WS 13 denotes a window opening with single shutter having width equal to 6 mod
ulus i.e. _______ and height equal to 13 modulus i.e. _________
a) 600 mm, 13 mm
b) 6 mm, 13000 mm
c) 600 mm, 1300 mm
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d) 6 mm, 13 mm
Answer: c
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Explanation: In a similar way, the designation 12 WT 12 denotes a Window opening with two Shutters having width
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and height is equal to 12 models i.e. 1200 mm.
_Q
9. The _______ is the most common material for door and windows as it can be moulded in variety of shapes and ca
n thus present a decent appearance.
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a) Wood
b) Glass
_B
c) Plywood
es
d) Metal
Answer: a
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Explanation: The usual materials for doors and windows are wood, glass, plywood and metals. The glass is used for
_N
panels to admit more light. The plywood can be used as a covering material. The metals, such as aluminium and stee
l, now commonly used, especially for the windows.
TU
10. The traditional __________ door shutters have inevitable problems of wrapping, rotting, painting and maintenan
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ce.
A
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a) Metal
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b) Wooden
c) Glass
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d) Plywood
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Answer: b
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Explanation: The traditional wooden door shutters cannot therefore be considered suitable for bathrooms, toilets and
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kitchens where the water contact is continuous.
1. ________ consists of a group of member which form a support for a door or window.
a) Sill
b) Head
c) Style
d) Frame
Answer: d
Explanation: Whereas, the lowermost or bottom horizontal part of a window frame is known as the Sills. The door fr
ames are usually not provided with the sills.
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2. _________ is the top most horizontal member of the shutter.
a) Head
b) Bottom rail
c) Top rail
d) Style
Answer: c
Explanation: Whereas, bottom rail is the lowermost horizontal member of the shutter. Style is the outside vertical me
mber of the shutter of a door or a window.
3. __________ is the middle horizontal member of the shutter where the locking arrangement is provided.
a) Lock rail
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b) Cross rail
c) Top rail
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d) Bottom rail
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Answer: a
Explanation: The additional horizontal rails fixed between the top and bottom rails of a shutter are known as the inte
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rmediate or cross rails. A rail which is fixed between the top rail and cross trail is called as Frieze rail.
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4. The top or uppermost horizontal part of a frame is known as the _______
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a) Panel
_B
b) Hold fast
es
c) Horn
d) Head
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Answer: d
_N
Explanation: Whereas, Horn is a horizontal projection of head or sill beyond the face of the frame. It facilitates the fi
xing of the frame on the wall opening and its length is about 100 mm to 150 mm.
TU
5. ________ is the area of shutter enclosed between the adjacent rails.

K
A
a) Sash
e/
b) Jamb
t.m
c) Holdfast
d) Panel
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Answer: d
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Explanation: Whereas, Holdfast is generally in the form of a mild steel flat bar of Section 30 mm x 6 mm and the len
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gth of 200 mm. The three numbers of such holdfast are provided on each side of the door frame.
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6. The entire assembly of styles, panels and rails is known as the __________
a) Putty
b) Horn
c) Sash
d) Shutter
Answer: d
Explanation: Whereas, Sash is a special type of frame, made of light sections and designed to carry glass. A Sash co
nsists of two vertical styles, top rail and bottom rail. Sash can be divided vertically or horizontally by providing bars.
7. _________ is a vertical member which is employed to subdivided a window or door opening vertically.
a) Transom
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b) Jamb
c) Mullion
d) Rebate
Answer: c
Explanation: Whereas, Transom is a horizontal member that is employed to subdivide a window opening horizontall
y.
8. ____________ is a piece of timber which is fixed in an inclined position within a frame.
a) Jamb
b) Reveal
c) Rebate
d) Louver
Answer: d
um
Explanation: Whereas, the external jamb of a door or Window opening at the right angle to the wall face is known as
the Reveal.
nt
ua
9. __________ is a mixture of a linseed oil and whiting Chalk.
_Q
a) Putty
b) POP
ks
c) Concrete
oo
d) Jamb
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: Putty is used for fixing glass panels. Whereas, the vertical wall face of an opening which support the fr
es
ame of door and window is known as the Jamb.
ot
10. _________ is a strip of wood, usually moulded or Splayed, which is fixed on the sides and head of opening.
_N
a) Style
TU
b) Architrave
c) Architect
K
d) Head
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Architrave, thus, helps in giving a decent appearance to the joint of frame with the masonry. It is used
t.m
only when the doors and windows are placed flush with the face of masonry.
/
s:/

tp
ht
1. A __________ door is formed from the vertical boards, known as the battens, which are secured by horizontal sup
ports, known as ledges.
a) Ledged
b) Ledged and braced
c) Ledged and framed
d) Ledged, framed and braced
Answer: a
Explanation: In Ledged doors, the battens are 100 mm to 150 mm wide and 20 mm to 30 mm thick. The ledges are g
enerally 100 mm to 200 mm wide and 30 mm thick. The three ledges are generally employed to top, middle and bott
om. The battens are secured by means of suitable joints and the shutter is hung on T-Hinges which are fixed on the l
edges.
2. _________ doors are similar to the ledge doors except that the diagonal members, known as the braces, are provid
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ed.
a) Collapsible
b) Revolving
c) Ledged and braced
d) Glazed
Answer: c
Explanation: The braces are generally 100 mm to 150 mm wide and 30 mm thick. The braces give rigidity to the doo
r and hence the doors of these types are useful for wide openings. The braces are usually housed in the ledges.
3. In ________ type of doors, a Framework for Shutters is provided to make the doors strong and better in appearanc
e.
a) Sliding
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b) Ledged and framed
c) Sash
nt
d) Braced
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Answer: b
Explanation: In Ledged and framed doors, the styles are generally 100 mm wide and 40 mm thick. The battens and l
_Q
edges are provided as usual.
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4. _________ doors are just similar to the framed type except that the braces are introduced.
oo
a) Ledged, framed and braced
_B
b) Swing
es
c) Louvered
d) Sash
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Ledged, framed and braced type of door is more durable and stronger and hence it can be adopted for e
xternal use. The braces should be inclined upward form the hanging side.
TU
5. _________ is the most usual variety of door and consist of a framework in which panels are fitted.
K
A
a) Framed and panelled

e/
b) Glazed
t.m
c) Flush
d) Collapsible
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Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: Framed and panelled types of door reduces the tendency of shrinkage and presents a decent appearance
tp
. The styles are continuous from top to bottom and rails are joined to the styles.
ht
6. In order to admit more light, in addition to that coming from the windows _________ doors are used.
a) Swing
b) Sash
c) Collapsible
d) Flush
Answer: b
Explanation: Usually the ratio of glazed or sash portion to panelled portion is 2:1. The glass is received into the rebat
es provided in the wooden Sash bar and secured by nails and putty or by wooden beads fix to the frame.
7. A _________ door consists of a framework of rails and styles and it is covered with plywood or hardboard.
a) Revolving
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b) Swing
c) Sliding
d) Flush
Answer: d
Explanation: There are two varieties of flush doors i.e. frame flush door and a laminated flush door. A framed flush
door consists of styles, rails, horizontal ribs, vertical ribs and plywood. A laminated flush door consists of styles, rail
s, laminated core and plywood.
8. In _________ types of doors, the shutters are provided with louvers, either fully or partly.
a) Swing
b) Louvered
c) Rolling
d) Revolving
um
Answer: b
Explanation: The louvers are arranged at such an inclination that the horizontal vision is obstructed. Thus the upper
nt
back is of any louver will be higher than the lower front edge of the louver just above it.
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9. A _________ door consists of a mild steel frame.
_Q
a) Louvered
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b) Swing
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c) Collapsible
d) Revolving
_B
Answer: c
es
Explanation: In Collapsible steel door, the two vertical pieces of mild steel channels, about 15 mm to 20 mm wide, a
re joined together with the hollow portion of the channel inside. A vertical gap of about 12 mm to 15 mm is thus cre
ot
ated.
_N
10. A ___________ door essentially consists of a centrally placed mullion or pivot in a circular opening.
TU
a) Revolving
K
b) Swing
A
c) Collapsible
e/
d) Shutter
t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: The revolving shutters or leaves which are 4 in numbers are radially attached to the pivot. The shutters
/
may be fully glazed, fully panelled or partially panelled and partially glazed. The central pivot is provided with the b
s:/
all bearing at the bottom and Bush bearing at the top so that its rotation is smooth and without any jerks, friction and
tp
noise.
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11. A __________ steel door consists of a frame, a drum and a shutter of thin Steel plates or Iron sheets of thickness
about 1 mm.
a) Revolving
b) Swing
c) Rotation
d) Rolling
Answer: d
Explanation: The rolling Steel doors are sufficiently strong and as they can be easily rolled up at the top, they cause
no obstruction to the floor as well as the opening. The Rolling doors are usually provided for the garage, showrooms
, shops, factory buildings, etc.
12. A _________ door is provided with special Hinges known as the double action spring Hinges and thus the shutte
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rs of the door are held in a closed position when the door is not in use.
a) Swing
b) Revolving
c) Rolling
d) Collapsible
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of Swing doors, when the door is to be used a slight push is made and then the action of spring
brings the shutter in the open position. This type of door is widely used in passages of public building such as gover
nment offices, banks, etc.
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1. __________ are the windows, the shutters of which open the doors.
nt
a) Double Hung Windows
ua
b) Casement windows
c) Pivoted window
_Q
d) Sliding Windows
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: The construction of a Casement window is similar to the door construction and it consists of a frame, st
oo
yles, rails, vertical and horizontal Sash bars and sometimes, it also includes mullion and transoms.
_B
2. _________ windows consist of a pair of shutter which can slide within the groove provided in the frame.
es
a) Sliding
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b) Sash
_N
c) Metal
d) Double-hung
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Answer: d
Explanation: Double-hung Windows is so arranged that the upper sash moves in the downward direction, thus openi
K
ng at the top and the lower Sash moves in the upward direction, thus opening at the bottom.
A
e/
3. In ________ windows, the shutters are allowed to swing around the pivot.
t.m
a) Swing
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b) Sliding
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c) Pivoted
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d) Glazed
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Answer: c
Explanation: The frame of a Pivoted window is just similar to casement window except that no rebates are provided.
The windows maybe vertically pivoted or horizontally pivoted.
4. _________ windows are similar to the sliding doors and the shutter moves on the roller bearings, either horizontal
ly or vertically.
a) Sliding
b) Swinging
c) Rolling
d) Metal
Answer: a
Explanation: In Sliding Windows, suitable openings are provided in the walls to receive the shutters when Windows
are opened out. Such Windows are provided in trains, buses, Bank counters, shops, etc.
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5. In __________ windows, the louvers are provided as in case of Louvered doors.
a) Louvered
b) Glazed
c) Metal
d) Circular
Answer: a
Explanation: Louvers allow free passage of air when closed and at the same time, they maintain sufficient privacy. T
he shutter consists of top rail, bottom rail and two styles which are a group to receive the louvers. The economical an
gle of inclination of the louvers is 45° and they are generally fixed in position.
6. ___________ are fully glazed casement windows.
um
a) Casement window
b) Metal windows
nt
c) Corner windows
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d) Sash windows
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: The sashes are rebated to receive glass panels. The width and depth of rebates is about 15 mm and 5 m
m respectively. The glass is secured in the position either by putty or by small fillets, known as glazing beads.
ks
oo
7. ____________ are nowadays widely used, especially for public buildings.
_B
a) Circular windows
es
b) Gable windows
c) Dormer windows
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d) Metal windows
_N
Answer: d
Explanation: The metal used in the construction maybe mild steel, bronze or other alloys. The Steel Windows are m
TU
anufactured in standard sizes and are widely used metal Windows. The metal frame maybe fix directly to the wall or
it may be fixed on a wooden frame.
K
A
8. __________ windows are provided at the corner of a room.

e/
t.m
a) Circular
b) Corner
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c) Gable
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d) Dormer
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Answer: b
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Explanation: Corner Windows are placed at the corner of room and thus they have two faces in two perpendicular di
rections. Due to such situation, there is entry of light and air from two directions and in many cases, the elevation of
the building is also improved.
9. ______________ are the windows provided on the sloping rooms.
a) Gable
b) Circular
c) Dormer
d) Skylight
Answer: c
Explanation: The main purpose of providing Dormer Windows is to admit light and air to rooms that are constructed
within or below the roof slopes. Whereas, Circular Windows are pivoted Windows of circular shape. They are usefu
l for factories, workshops, etc.
176 / 405
10. ________ windows project outside the external wall of a room.
a) Clerestory
b) Lanterns
c) Spayed
d) Bay
Answer: d
Explanation: Bay Windows may be square, splayed, circular, polygon or of any shape. The projection of Bay Windo
ws may start from floor level to sill level. These Windows admit more light, increase opening area, provide ventilati
on and improve the appearance of the building.
11. _________ windows are provided near the top of main roof.
um
a) Lanterns
b) Skylight
nt
c) Clerestorey
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d) Bay
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: The Clerestorey Windows provide ventilation to the inside of the room as the front is blocked by the ve
randah. They also improve the appearance of the building. The care should be taken to see that the upper part opens i
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nside and the lower parts open outside.
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12. __________ are the windows which are fixed on the flat roofs to provide light in the inner portion of the buildin
_B
g where light coming from the windows in the external wall is insufficient.
es
a) Lantern lights
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b) Skylight
_N
c) Daylight
d) Sunlight
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: Lantern Windows or Lantern lights may be square or rectangular or curved. The glass panel are general
K
fixed. But if ventilation is also required in addition to light, the Pivoted Windows may be provided.
A
e/
13. ________________ are the windows which are provided on the sloping surface of a pitched roof.
t.m
a) Skylight
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b) Bay Windows
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c) Clerestorey Windows
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d) Lantern Windows
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Answer: a
Explanation: The common rafters are suitability trimmed and the skylight is erected on the curb frame. As Skylight a
re mainly mean for light, they are usually provided with the fix glass panels. The opening of skylight is properly trea
ted by lead flashing to make waterproof and roof area surrounding the opening.
1. Which of the following is not a type of fixture or fastening for a door?
a) Hinges
b) Bolts
c) Frames
d) Locks
177 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: The various types of fixtures and fastenings used for doors, windows and ventilators are hinges, handle
s, bolts, and locks. A frame is a component of the door fixed in the opening of the wall to which shutters are fixed.
2. Which of the following types of hinges are used where there are thin shutters?
a) Butt hinge
b) Strap hinge
c) Spring hinge
d) Back flap hinge
Answer: d
Explanation: Back flap hinge is used where there are thin shutters. The flanges of these type of hinges are wider than
the flanges of the butt hinges.
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3. One flange of the butt hinge is screwed to the edge of the door shutter while the other is screwed to the ________
____ of the door frame.
nt
ua
a) Rebate
b) Sill
_Q
c) Style
d) Rail
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: Butt hinges are used to fix doors and window shutters to the frame. One flange of the butt hinge is scre
wed to the the door shutter while the other flange is screwed to the rebate of the frame of the door.
_B
es
4. The counter-flap hinge has two centres.
ot
a) True
_N
b) False
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: A counter-flap hinge is formed in three parts. There are two centers in a counter-flap hinge.
K
5. Garnet hinge is also known as _________

A
e/
a) Z-shutter
t.m
b) T-shutter
c) P-shutter
/
d) K-shutter
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Garnet hinge is also known as T-shutter. This type of hinges is used for ledged and battened doors, led
ht
ged and braced doors etc. A garnet hinge has two arms. The long arm is screwed to the shutter while the short arm is
screwed to the frame.
6. Nar-madi hinge is used for light doors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Nar-madi hinge is used for heavy doors. Other types of hinges that can be used for heavy doors are stra
p hinges, garnet hinges etc.
7. Rising butt hinges are provided with helical __________ joints.
a) Nickel
178 / 405
b) Gold
c) Brass
d) Barium
Answer: a
Explanation: Rising butt hinges are provided with helical nickel joints. This raises the shutter by 10 mm on being op
ened. These types of hinges are used for doors of rooms having carpets. They are now replacing ordinary butt hinges
.
8. Which of the following is a substitute of garnet hinge?
a) Pin hinge
b) Nar-madi hinge
c) Strap hinge
d) Butt hinge
um
Answer: c
Explanation: Strap hinge is a substitute of the garnet hinge. It is used for ledged and braced doors and other heavy d
nt
oors such as for garages and stables.
ua
9. The figure below represents ___________
_Q
a) Pin hinge
ks
b) Garnet hinge
oo
c) Butt hinge
d) Back flap hinge
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: The above figure represents a pin hinge. This type of hinge is used for heavy door shutters. The centre
pin of the hinge can be removed and the two leaves of the hinge can be fixed separately to the door frame and the do
ot
or shutter.
_N

TU
a) Pin hinge
K
b) Parliamentary hinge
A
c) Butt hinge
e/
d) Back flap hinge

t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: The above figure represents a parliamentary hinge. These types of hinges are used in the case of narro
/
w openings and when it is needed to keep the opening free from any obstructions due to shutters.
s:/
tp
ht
1. Which of the following hinges are used for swinging doors?
a) Strap hinges
b) Butt hinges
c) Spring hinges
d) Garnet hinges
Answer: c
Explanation: Spring hinges are used for swinging doors. They can be single acting or double acting. Single acting hi
nges are used when the shutter opens in one direction only while double-acting hinges are used when the shutter ope
ns in both directions.
2. Which of the following bolts is used for fixing back faces of doors?
179 / 405
a) Aldrop
b) Barrel bolt
c) Hasp and staple bolt
d) Hook and eye
Answer: b
Explanation: Barrel bolt is used for fixing back faces of doors. It is a rod-shaped bolt.
3. Aldrop is fixed in internal doors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Aldrop is the type of bolt which is fixed in external doors where pad locks are to be used. Another type
um
of bolt that is used for external doors where pad locks are to be used is hasp and staple bolt.
nt
4. Which of the following bolts is used to secure high doors?
ua
a) Aldrop
_Q
b) Latch
c) Espagnolette bolt
ks
d) Flush bolt
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: Espagnolette bolt is used to secure high doors and windows where it is not easy to reach at the top. The
_B
se bolts are available in a wide variety of sizes and styles.
es
5. Which of the following bolts is fixed to the inside of the door?

ot
_N
a) Hook and eye

b) Aldrop
TU
c) Hasp and staple

d) Latch
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: Latch is fixed to the inside of the door while aldrop and hasp and staple bolts are fixed in external door
e/
s. A latch is generally made of malleable iron or bronze. It consists of a level which is pivoted at one of its ends.
t.m
6. In hook and eye bolt, the hook is fixed to ________

/
s:/
a) Head of the frame

tp
b) Bottom rail of the shutter

ht
c) Sill of the frame

d) Top rail of the shutter
Answer: c
Explanation: In hook and eye bolt, the hook is fixed to the sill of the frame while the eye is fixed to the bottom rail o
f the shutter. This type of bolt is used to keep the window shutter in position when the window is open.
7. A and B in the following figure represents _______
a) Hasp and staple

b) Staple and hasp
c) Hook and eye
d) Eye and hook
Answer: a
Explanation: The above figure is of a hasp and staple bolt. In this figure, a represents hasp and B represents staple. T
180 / 405
he staple is fixed to the frame while the hasp is fixed to the shutter.
8. Which type of handle is represented in the given figure?
a) Bow type
b) Lever handle
c) Wardrobe handle
d) Door handle
Answer: b
Explanation: The above figure represents a lever handle. Handles can be of various types such as bow-type handles,
lever handles, wardrobe handles, door handles, etc.
9. Which type of lock is represented in the given figure?
um
a) Cupboard lock
b) Rim lock
nt
c) Pad lock
ua
d) Mortise lock
Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: The above figure represents a cupboard lock. Various types of locks commonly used are mortise locks,
cupboard locks, rim locks, pad locks, lever handle locks, etc.
ks
oo
10. The figure below represents _______
_B
a) Aldrop
es
b) Barrel bolt
c) Latch
ot
d) Flush bolt
_N
Answer: d
Explanation: The above figure represents a flush bolt. A flush bolt is generally used for double doors. Generally in a
TU
double door, one door is active while the other door is inactive.
K
A

e/
t.m
1. ________________ gas hampers oxygen from reaching the brain.

/
a) Carbon dioxide
s:/
b) Carbon monoxide
tp
c) Nitrogen peroxide
ht
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b
Explanation: Carbon monoxide is the most abundant of fires gases. It is invisible and odourless. Nitrogen dioxide is
extremely toxic and it numbs or deadens the throat.
2. ____________________ gas overestimates the rate of breathing and it is thus responsible for increasing the intake
of other toxic gases.
a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Nitrogen dioxide
Answer: c
Explanation: Whereas, Hydrogen sulphide effects the nervous system and it causes dizziness and pain in the respirat
181 / 405
ory system. Also, nitrogen dioxide is extremely toxic and it numbs or deadens the throat.
3. During fire, the human body can withstand temperature upto __________
a) 150°C
b) 120°C
c) 200°C
d) 80°C
Answer: b
Explanation: If escape from a tall building is not affected within 10 minutes or 15 minutes of the outbreak of fire, th
e temperatures as high as 800°C and dense poisonous smoke can fatally trap the people within the building. It is esti
mated that nearly 15000 people are killed by fire every year in our country.
4. The content of oxygen is normally ________% in air.
um
a) 100
nt
b) 50
ua
c) 73
d) 21
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: If the oxygen content falls below 17% during a fire, rational thought and muscle control become extre
ks
mely difficult. When the oxygen level falls below 6%, the breathing stops and after 4 minutes to 6 minutes without o
oo
xygen the brain death occurs.
_B
5. The hazard due to fire spread into a building through the open air is known as__________
es
a) Windward hazard
ot
b) Internal hazard
_N
c) Exposure hazard
d) Personal hazard
TU
Answer: c
Explanation: Sometimes a fire spreads into a building through the open air from fire in other adjacent buildings or fr
K
om across the road or other divisions of the same building. The risks involved in such fire spreading is known as the
A
Exposure Hazard.
e/
t.m
6. The hazard with concerns damage or destruction of building itself is known as the ______________
/
a) Internal hazard
s:/
b) Building hazard
tp
c) Surrounding hazard
ht
d) Personal hazard
Answer: a
Explanation: Internal Hazard concerns damage or destruction of the building itself and it is directly related to the fire
load which, in turn, enables the building to be graded when considered along with the duration of fire.
7. The hazard which concerns with the loss or damage to life is referred to as the ______________
a) Peron hazard
b) People Hazard
c) Personal hazard
d) Internal hazard
Answer: c
Explanation: The possibility of loss or damage to life is referred to as the personal hazard and naturally it is not perm
anent importance. The fire safety provisions would be liberally provided for this type of hazard and safe fireproof ex
182 / 405
ist should be suitably accommodated in the division of the building having more than one storey.
8. The term _____________ is used to indicate the amount of heat liberated in kilojoules per square metre of floor ar
ea of any compartment by the combustion of the content of the building and any combustible part of the building its
elf.
a) Combustion
b) Fire load
c) Calorific value
d) Heat liberation
Answer: b
Explanation: The fire load is determined by multiplying the weights of all combustible materials by the respective ca
lorific values and dividing by the floor area under consideration. The fire load is used for grading of occupancies as
per BSI: 1641-1960.
um
9. The class of fire-load not exceeding 1.15×10^6 is considered as _________
nt
ua
a) High
b) Low
_Q
c) Moderate
d) Extreme
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Low class of fire-load is concerned with the occupancies living in domestic buildings, hotels, boarding
houses, restaurants, schools, hospitals, temples, factories where NH material are used, etc.
_B
es
10. The class of fire-load limiting between 2.23×10^6 to 4.60×10^6 is considered as ______________
ot
a) Extreme
_N
b) Moderate
c) High
TU
d) Low
Answer: c
K
Explanation: High class of fire-load is concerned with the occupancies living in the godowns and similar structure us
A
ed for bulk storage of NH material and goods. Whereas, moderate class lies between 1.15×10^6 to 2.30×10^6 and it
e/
is concerned with retail shops, Emporium, markets, factory, workshops, etc.

t.m
11. The __________ is a bad conductor of heat and it is also non-combustible building material.
/
s:/
a) Sandstone
tp
b) Granite
ht
c) Stone
d) Limestone
Answer: c
Explanation: The stone is also liable to disintegrate into small pieces when heated and suddenly cooled. The granite
explodes and gets easily disintegrated in case of a fire. The limestone is easily crumbled even by ordinary fire.
12. It is found that the _______ are not seriously affected until very high temperature of 1200°C to 1300°C are reach
ed.
a) Plastic
b) Limestone
c) Sandstone
d) Brick
Answer: d
183 / 405
Explanation: Brick is poor conductor of heat. If the type of motor and quality of workmanship are good, the brick m
asonry generally offers good resistant to fire. However, or brick has its own structural limitations for using the buildi
ngs.
13. The structural elements made of __________ gets Ignite and get rapidly destroyed in case of fire.
a) Cast iron
b) Timber
c) Stone
d) Steel
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to make Timber more fire-resistant, the surface of the timber are sometimes coated with certai
n chemical such as Ammonium Phosphate and sulphate, borax and boric acid, etc. Such a treatment on timber surfac
es retards the rise of temperature during a fire.
um
14. ________________ is rarely used as a structural material at present construction works.
nt
ua
a) Steel
b) Cast iron
_Q
c) Aluminium
d) Asbestos cement
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Cast iron files into pieces when heated and suddenly cooled. Hence, when this material is used in const
ruction, it is covered either by brick work of one brick thickness or any other fire resisting material such as concrete.
_B
es
15. ______________ is a poor conductor of heat and the cracks are formed in this material when heated and then su
ddenly cooled.
ot
_N
a) Glass
b) Steel
TU
c) Brick
d) Aluminium
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: The reinforced glass with steel wire is more fire resistant than ordinary glass and it can resist sudden va
e/
riations in temperature without the formation of cracks. The wired glass, even if it breaks, keeps the fractured glass i
t.m
n its original position.

/
s:/

tp
ht
1. ______________ is a non combustible building material, but it is a good conductor of heat and hence, it is rapidly
heated in case of a fire.
a) Glass
b) Brick
c) Limestone
d) Steel
Answer: d
Explanation: It is found that the Steel loses its tensile strength with the increase in the heat and yield stress of mild st
eel at 600°C is about one third of its value at normal temperature. Hence, under intense fire, the unprotected steel be
ams sag, unprotected Steel column buckle and structure collapse.
2. _________________ is a very good conductor of heat.

184 / 405
a) Asbestos cement
b) Aluminium
c) Cast iron
d) Wrought iron
Answer: b
Explanation: Aluminium also possesses poor fire resisting properties. Hence, it’s use is restricted to those structure
which have very low fire risk.
3. _________________ is a non combustible building material with low coefficient of expansion.
a) Sandstone
b) Glass
c) Brick
d) Asbestos cement
um
Answer: d
Explanation: Asbestos cement possess high fire resistance. Hence, the asbestos cement products are widely used for
nt
the construction of fire resistant partition walls, roofs, etc. This material is also used as a protective covering against
ua
fire.
_Q
4. ___________________ is a bad conductor of heat and it is an effective material for fire resisting construction.
ks
a) Aluminium
oo
b) Steel
c) Granite
_B
d) Concrete
es
Answer: d
Explanation: The concrete offers a much higher resistance to a fire than any other material. The actual behaviour of
ot
concrete in case of fire depends on the quality of cement and the type of aggregate forming the concrete and in case
_N
of reinforced and pre stressed structure, it also depends on the position of Steel in the concrete.
TU
5. _________________ systems are installed with a view to give an alarm and to call for assistance in case of fire.
K
a) Water supply
A
b) Electric
e/
c) Alarm
t.m
d) Remote
Answer: c
/
Explanation: It is rightfully said that the first five minutes of a fire are more important than the next 5 hours. This is
s:/
due to the fact that the control over the fire is achieved effectively, if fought in the initial stage of its occurrence.
tp
ht
6. The _____________ alarm system consist of hand bell or such other arrangement by which the occupants of the
whole or part of the building are informed about the happening of a fire.
a) Man made
b) Manual
c) Automatic
d) Electric
Answer: b
Explanation: The manually operated alarms should be provided near all main exits and in the natural path of escape f
rom fire and at readily accessible points which are not likely to be obstructed by smoke. It is of utmost important to
make suitable arrangement to protect opening in case of a fire.
7. ___________________ include portable fire extinguishers, the usual being carbon dioxide type.
185 / 405
a) Manual fire extinguisher
b) Automatic sprinkler
c) Internal hydrants
d) Water taps
Answer: a
Explanation: Sometimes buckets of water, and asbestos blankets maybe kept ready at all time to extinguish fire. This
equipment are useful for quenching a fire immediately on its generation.
8. ____________________ arrangement consists of a system of overhead pipe which are fixed in the ceiling of the r
oof.
a) Fire extinguishers
b) Internal hydrants
c) Automatic sprinkler
um
d) Water pipes
Answer: c
nt
Explanation: The pipes are usually provided at the centre to centre distance of 3 M. The head actuated devices, know
ua
n as the sprinkler heads are situated at regular intervals, usually 3 metres along the pipe. This arrangement is adopted
for important structures such as textile mills, Paper Mills, factories, theatres, hospitals, etc.
_Q
9. _________________ extinguishes fire by dilute inflammable mixtures of air and flammable gases or vapours to p
ks
roportion below their flammable limits.
oo
a) Water vapour
_B
b) Carbon monoxide
es
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen sulphide
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: The carbon dioxide is a clean, non combustible and non corrosive gas. It does not conduct electricity a
nd it penetrates and spreads as a gas over the entire area to be protected from air. The carbon dioxide is stored in a c
TU
ontainer either at high pressure or low pressure.

K
10. ____________________ system includes a supply of dry chemical, an expellent gas such as compressed nitroge
A
n, detection devices and nozzles for discharging the dry chemical into the hazard area.
e/
t.m
a) Hydrant
b) Foam
/
c) Dry chemical
s:/
d) Water spray
tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: The dry chemical system can be applied in two ways, namely, total flooding or local application. The f
ormer is used for enclosed area where all openings can be closed automatically when the system starts working.
11. In ___________________ system, the chemical foam is formed by passing foam producing liquid and water thro
ugh an agitation device.
a) Chemical
b) Foam
c) Wet resin
d) Halon
Answer: b
Explanation: The foam is an aggregate of air filled bubbles. It is lighter than flammable liquids and oils. It has the ap
pearance of soap leather and it flows easily over a liquid surface. It floats on the surface of the liquid and thus forms
a continuous blanket which separates effectively the flammable liquid from air supply.
186 / 405
12. The ________________ indicates of specific family of chemicals which are produced by replacing one or more
hydrogen atoms with halogen atoms.
a) Halon system
b) Wet resin system
c) Carbon dioxide system
d) Dry chemical system
Answer: a
Explanation: The Halon is contain the cylinder under pressure in liquid state and it is released through nozzle on the
piping distribution arrangement. An actuator is provided on the cylinder control valve and it is operated either by ele
ctric or pneumatic signal when a fire occurs.
um
nt
1. The term ________ includes such forms of construction which have to resist is due to loads coming up on them.
ua
a) Carpenter
_Q
b) Joinery
c) Carpentry
ks
d) Joints
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: A carpenter constructs permanent Timber work such as roof, floor, etc. as well as temporary Timber w
_B
orks such as scaffolding, Shoring, centering, etc.
es
2. The term ____________ is used to indicate the art of preparing internal fittings and finishing of timber.
ot
_N
a) Joints
b) Joinery
TU
c) Carpenter
d) Carpentry
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: A Joiner construct Timber work such as doors, Windows, stairs, floor boards, furniture, cupboards, etc.
e/
Thus the joinery is used for delicated construction requiring precise workmanship for enhancing the architectural be
t.m
auty of timber.
/
3. ________________ is a semi-circular projection which is formed on the edges of surfaces of wood.

s:/
tp
a) Chamfering
ht
b) Bead
c) Batten
d) Groove
Answer: b
Explanation: Bead is used at the joints of straight board to avoid the unsightly appearance of the joint in case of shri
nkage of wood. The four forms of Bead, namely, single quirked beads, double quirked flush beads, cock bead and co
ck bead with fillet.
4. _____________ term is used to indicate the taking off the edge of corner or arris of a wooden piece.
a) Groove
b) Studding
c) Planning
d) Chamfering
187 / 405
Answer: d
Explanation: Chamfering forms an angle of 45° and a V joint will be formed when two chamfered pieces are placed
together. If the angle of chamfer is other than 45°, it is known as the Bevel. If the chamfer does not continue for the
full length of timber, it is called as Stopped Chamfer.
5. _______________ is a term which is used to indicate a recess formed in a piece of timber.
a) Groove
b) Veneering
c) Sawing
d) Nosing
Answer: a
Explanation: If the groove is made parallel to the grain of wood, it is called the Plough grooving and if the groove is
made across the grain of wood, it is known as the cross grooving.
um
6. __________ are wooden blocks which are fixed previously to a wall to act as additional support for wide architra
nt
ve, ornamental moulds, etc.
ua
a) Housing
_Q
b) Grounds
c) Scribing
ks
d) Moulding
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: The surfaces of grounds are flush with plaster and thus they act as a guide for the plastering work. The
_B
grounds are used in superior work.
es
7. ___________ is a term which is used to indicate the sinking of edge of one piece of timber into another.
ot
_N
a) Mitring
b) Scribing
TU
c) Housing
d) Nosing
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: Mitring is a term that is used to indicate a process of joining two pieces of timber at an angle. If one en
e/
d of moulding is good to suit the profile of another moulding, it is known as scribing.

t.m
8. ___________ is a term which is used to indicate the process of formation of moulded sections.
/
s:/
a) Nosing
tp
b) Moulding
ht
c) Planning
d) Sawing
Answer: b
Explanation: Moulding can be done either by hand or by machine. Whereas, the art of cutting of wood by means of s
aw is known as the Sawing.
9. The edge of portion overhanging a vertical surface is known as the ____________
a) Rebating
b) Studding
c) Veneering
d) Nosing
Answer: d
Explanation: Nosing term has a slightly different meaning when used in relation to the step of a Stair. A rounded No
188 / 405
sing has the overhanging edge semi-circular in section.
10. The process of taking of the shaving from wood with the help of plane is known as the _______________
a) Planing
b) Rebating
c) Sawing
d) Veneering
Answer: a
Explanation: Planing makes the timber surface smooth and the plane or smooth and surface is known as the dressed
surface. Whereas, Studding term is applied to the fixing of small Timber battens to the timber was to which laths an
d broads are to be nailed.
11. _______________ is a term which is used to indicate the covering of entire or part of the exposed surface of tim
um
ber by means of Veneers.
nt
a) Rebating
ua
b) Studding
c) Wainscot
_Q
d) Veneering
Answer: d
ks
Explanation: In Veneering, the inner position is designed to satisfy structural requirements and the Veneers are fixed
oo
for decorative purposes. The Veneers may be laid in large sheets or into small pieces of suitable shapes.
_B
12. _______________ indicates the lining of panelling of wood on the lower part of masonry walls say for height of
es
about 600 mm from the floor level.
ot
a) Rebating
_N
b) Wainscot
c) Studding
TU
d) Planing
Answer: b
K
Explanation: Whereas, Rebating is a term that is used to indicate the process of preparing a rectangular portion on th
A
e edge of a timber piece so as to receive another timber piece which is also similarly cut.
e/
t.m

/
s:/
1. _________________ joints are employed to extend the length of a member by joining two pieces of timber.
tp
ht
a) Lapped
b) Angle
c) Lengthening
d) Bearing
Answer: c
Explanation: Lengthening joints are also known as the spliced or longitudinal joints. The method of lengthening will
depend on the situation of the member in a frame structure where such joints are commonly required.
2. ___________________ is the simplest form of joint.
a) Lapped joint
b) Framing joint
c) Oblique joint
d) Widening joint
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Answer: a
Explanation: Lapped joint is form by putting the two Timber pieces one over the other from a short distance and the
binding them together by means of iron straps or Stirrups.
3. _________________ straps are provided in case of Lapped joint.
a) Aluminium
b) Nickel
c) Wooden
d) Iron
Answer: d
Explanation: The iron straps are provided with bolts on sides for additional strength and in the member as to resist te
nsile stress, the bolts passing through both the pieces may be provided.
um
4. In __________ joint, the two Timber pieces are placed touching each other and then wooden or iron fishplate are
placed on the opposite faces.
nt
ua
a) Scarfed
b) Spliced
_Q
c) Fished
d) Lapped
ks
Answer: c
oo
Explanation: In Fished joints, the fish plates are secured in position by bolts passing through the pieces. The bolts ar
e arranged in a zigzag fashion in plan so that there is only one Bolt hole at any cross section.
_B
es
5. A ___________ joint is formed by making projections and corresponding depression on the other piece.
ot
a) Scarfed
_N
b) Widening
c) Tongued
TU
d) Angle
Answer: a
K
Explanation: In case of Scarfed Joint, the pieces are then secured by using bolts, straps, keys and the metal fish plate
A
. The fish plates used in the joints are usually bent and lent into the wooden members.
e/
t.m
6. A _________________ joint present a neat appearance and is useful where depth of beam is to be preserved.
/
a) Widening
s:/
b) Lapped
tp
c) Angle
ht
d) Spliced
Answer: d
Explanation: In Spliced or Scarfed Joint, the keys or wedges are of hardwood and they are used to tighten up the join
t. Sometimes the use of keys make the provision of bolts unnecessary.
7. _______________ joints are employed to extend the width of board or planks, which are placed edge to edge.
a) Angle
b) Widening
c) Lapped
d) Oblique
Answer: b
Explanation: Widening Joints are also known as the side joints or boarding joints and they are used for wooden door
s, floors, etc.
190 / 405
8. _________________ are the corner joints which are employed to connect the members at ends so as to form a cor
ner or angular edge.
a) Widening joint
b) Angle joint
c) Oblique joint
d) Corner joint
Answer: b
Explanation: Angle joints are very often secured by nailing and glue is used for making these joints. Butt joint, Reba
ted butt Joint, Tongues joint, Housed joints, etc are some examples of this type of joint.
9. ______________________ joints are employed to connect the members at an angle other than a right angle.
um
a) Angle
b) Lapped
nt
c) Oblique
ua
d) Bearing
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: The angular nodes is made in the incline members. This note is called as Birds mouth. The other memb
ers fit into the Birds mouth.
ks
oo
10. In ________ joint, half the thickness of each Timber piece is cut in the shape of dovetail or wedge.
_B
a) Dovetailed
es
b) Bridle
c) Birdsmouth
ot
d) Mitre
_N
Answer: a
Explanation: Dovetailed joint is used when one or both side of the member to be connected are to be flushed on one
TU
or both the sides. Whereas, Bridle joint is just the reverse of mortise and tenon joint.
K
11. The two members meeting at an angle can be joined by a ____________

A
e/
a) Bridle joint
t.m
b) Oblique tenon joint

c) Mitre joint
/
d) Birds mouth joint

s:/
Answer: c
tp
Explanation: For inclined members, the mitre joint may be formed on the same line. A mortise is cut in the inclined
ht
members and the corresponding Bridle or projection is left in the horizontal member.
12. ______________ joint is used to connect members of bigger sizes.
a) Lapped joint
b) Oblique tenon joint
c) Mitre joint
d) Birdsmouth joint
Answer: b
Explanation: The tenon of the inclined member is oblique and it fits into the corresponding mortise of the inclined m
ember. This joint is frequently used in the construction of timber roof and it is sometimes strengthened by means of
bolts, straps, etc.
191 / 405
1. ______________ is a form of a solid head where the threads are provided on which a nut moves.
a) Nail
b) Nut
c) Connector
d) Bolt
Answer: d
Explanation: The size of bolts should be calculated according to the stresses which they have to resist. The bolts ma
ybe of Steel, wrought iron on bras and they are stronger than Nails or screws. They are used especially for joint subj
ected to considerable tensile stress and they form the rigid joints.
2. ___________ are the rings of metal which can be used for fasten two members abutting each other.
um
a) Dogs
nt
b) Nails
ua
c) Pins
d) Connectors
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: The connectors do not damage the timber and are found to possess sufficient strength. They are usually
ks
embedded in the individual members in such a way that the gradual transfer of stress from one member to other is p
oo
erfectly ensured and there is no danger of sliding of joints.
_B
3. ____________ are the pieces of wrought iron and are bent at ends to connect other members.
es
a) Nails
ot
b) Dogs
_N
c) Lath
d) Spikes
TU
Answer: b
Explanation: Dogs maybe flat or circular. The ends of dogs are appointed so as to facilitate driving into the timber.
K
Dogs can be imagined as a channel section with sharpen ends.

A
e/
4. ______________ are the pieces of wrought iron or steel and these are driven into the member to be connected usi
t.m
ng hammer or other means.

/
a) Nails
s:/
b) Screws
tp
c) Sockets
ht
d) Wedges
Answer: a
Explanation: Nails are used for rough but strong work. The various types of nails are available in market such as Clo
ut nail which are large, flat, circular head. Lath nail which has a square and tapering sank with rough sides and vario
us other nails are with different shapes and sizes.
5. ________________ are the pieces of wrought iron or cast iron and are used to protect the ends of timber.
a) Spikes
b) Wedges
c) Sockets
d) Straps
Answer: c
Explanation: When sockets are placed at the feet of member, they are known as shoe. Whereas, Spikes are large nail
192 / 405
s of length about 100 mm to 150 mm and they are used for heavy work.
6. _______________ are the bands of steel or wrought iron which can be used to joint two pieces of timber.
a) Straps
b) Spikes
c) Wedges
d) Nails
Answer: a
Explanation: The breadth of strap is about 40 mm to 50 mm and it’s thickness depends upon the stress coming up on
it. The great advantage of using a strap is that the timber is not required to be cut and thus the timber is not weekene
d.
7. ________________ are used in case of mortise and tenon joint.
um
a) Bolts
nt
b) Nuts
ua
c) Wedges
d) Spikes
_Q
Answer: c
Explanation: Wedges are the pieces of wood that are tapered and are used for securing Timber joints as in case of m
ks
ortise and tenon joint. They are sometimes known as the keys and when used in pairs, they are termed as the folding
oo
wedges.
_B
8. _____________ are used when joint is subjected to vibration and the work is to be done in pieces.
es
a) Auger
ot
b) Pins
_N
c) Sockets
d) Screws
TU
Answer: d
Explanation: Screws are used under the following circumstances; the work is likely be removed; the security of wor
K
k is required without making the joint unnecessarily rigid; the driving of a nail is likely to split the timber; the joint i
A
s subjected to the vibrations and work done to be is in pieces.

e/
t.m
9. Split ring connector and toothed ring connector are the examples of ___________
/
a) Screws
s:/
b) Bolts
tp
c) Dogs
ht
d) Connectors
Answer: d
Explanation: The connectors are available in various other forms which can be used only under special circumstance
s. Split ring connector and toothed connected maybe either have teeth on single side or both the sides. The connector
s are widely used in the construction of timber arches, trusses and similar other structures.
10. A wire nail is also known as ____________ and it is very tough and strong.
a) Clout nail
b) Lath nail
c) French nail
d) Trenail
Answer: c
Explanation: Whereas, a clout nail has large, flat, circular ahead. Lath nail has a square and tapering shank with roug
193 / 405
h sides. Trenail is a pin of hard wood and can be used in pieces of Iron nails where it is feared that the Iron nails wo
uld rust and injuries the timber.
1. Which of the following is not a marking tool?
a) Chisel
b) Bevel
c) Square
d) Scribing knife
Answer: a
Explanation: Marking tool is a tool that is used for marking lines on wood. Bevel, square and scribing knife are exa
um
mples of marking tools. Chisel is a cutting tool and is used to cut shaping joints.
nt
2. Bevel is used for __________
ua
a) Setting right angles
_Q
b) Setting angles other than a right angle
c) Cutting wood
ks
d) Cutting timber
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: Bevel is a marking tool. It is used for setting angles other than a right angle. In case of setting right ang
_B
les, a square is used.
es
3. Mortise gauge is used to mark lines perpendicular to the edges.

ot
_N
a) True
b) False
TU
Answer: b
Explanation: Mortise gauge is used to mark lines parallel to the edges. In place of a mortise gauge, a marking gauge
K
can also be used to mark parallel lines to the edges.

A
e/
4. Which of the following is not a cutting tool?

t.m
a) Compass saw
/
b) Firmer chisel
s:/
c) Plier
tp
d) Coping saw
ht
Answer: c
Explanation: Compass saw, coping saw and firmer chisel are examples of cutting tools. Plier is used to take out the d
amaged nails.
5. Which of the following is not a boring tool?
a) Ratchet brace
b) Screwdriver
c) Auger bit
d) Pointed awl
Answer: b
Explanation: A boring tool is used to drive holes in timber members. Ratchet brace, auger bit and pointed awl are ex
amples of boring tools. A screwdriver is used to drive nails and screws.
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6. Which of the following cutting tools is used for cutting wood?
a) Coping saw
b) Cross-cut saw
c) Compass saw
d) Tenon saw
Answer: c
Explanation: Compass saw is used for cutting wood. A coping saw and cross-cut saw are used to cut timber member
s. A tenon saw is used to cut shaping joints.
7. Dovetail saw is used to cut __________
a) Timber
b) Wood
um
c) Hardwood
d) Plywood
nt
Answer: a
ua
Explanation: Dovetail is a cutting tool which is used to cut timber members. Other tools which can be used for cuttin
g timber are coping saw and cross-cut saw.
_Q
8. Which of the following boring tool is used for deep boring?
ks
oo
a) Centre bit
b) Auger
_B
c) Gimlet
es
d) Brad awl
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: Auger is a tool that is used for deep boring. Centre bit is used for boring holes of various sizes and sha
_N
pes. Gimlet is used for boring small holes. With brad awl, small and fine holes can be made.
TU
9. Which of the following is not a planning tool?

K
a) Rose plane
A
b) Bead plane
e/
c) Jack plane
t.m
d) Rebate plane
Answer: a
/
Explanation: Planning tools are used to plan surfaces. Examples of planning tools are bead plane, jack plane and reb
s:/
ate plane. They are also used to cut small moldings along the edges.
tp
ht
10. __________ is used for sharpening various tools.
a) Claw hammer
b) Oil stone
c) Pincer
d) Ratchet brace
Answer: b
Explanation: Oil stone is used to sharpen various tools and blades. Claw hammer is used to drive nails and screws. P
incer is used to take out damaged nails. Ratchet brace is a boring tool.
11. Cut nails are _________ in section.
a) Rectangular
b) Square
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c) Trapezoidal
d) Circular
Answer: c
Explanation: Cut nails are trapezoidal in section. Usually, they have small lengths. They are used to secure timber jo
ints in position.
12. Wire nails are available in _______ shape.
a) Circular
b) Triangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Rectangular
Answer: a
Explanation: Wire nails are circular in shape. They can also be found in an oval shape. They are usually made up of
um
steel or wrought iron.
nt
13. The length of a spike is _________
ua
a) 5-10 cm
_Q
b) 10-15 cm
c) 15-20 cm
ks
d) 20-25 cm
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: A spike is a large nail which is mainly used for securing heavy members. The length of a spike is usual
_B
ly 10-15 cm.
es
14. The figure below represents ______

ot
_N
a) Screwdriver bit
b) Brad awl
TU
c) Centre bit
d) Auger bit
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: The given figure represents a screwdriver bit. It is a boring tool which is used for boring holes of vario
e/
us sizes and shapes.

t.m
15. The figure below represents _______

/
s:/
a) Cut nail
tp
b) Dog spike
ht
c) Bevel
d) Compass saw
Answer: b
Explanation: The given figure represents a dog spike. It is U-shaped and has pointed ends. It is usually made up of w
rought iron.
1. The exposed term surfaces of floors are termed as the ____________
a) Roofs
b) Floors
c) Flooring
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d) Roofing
Answer: c
Explanation: The ground floor or basement floors with directly rest on the ground do not require the provision of a fl
oor. But they are provided with a suitable type of floor covering or simply flooring.
2. The other floors of each storey about the ground level are known as the ___________
a) Roofing
b) Upper floor
c) Lower floor
d) Roof
Answer: b
Explanation: The major problems of ground and basement floors are damp exclusion and the thermal insulation. The
moisture is generally present in the ground and unless suitable measures are taken to prevent its entry, it will pass in
um
to the building through floors.
nt
3. In auditoriums, to carry out dances or Dramas, the ____________ are constructed on the ground floor.
ua
a) Composite floors
_Q
b) Jack arch floors
c) RCC floors
ks
d) Basement timber floors
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: In Basement or ground floor of timber, the sleepers walls which may be one half Brick or one brick thi
_B
ckness are constructed at centre to Centre distance of 1.20 metre to 1.80 metre. The wall plates are provided along th
es
e wall as well as along the sleeper walls and they reduce the span of the bridging joist.
ot
4. ______________ floors consists of single joist which are placed below the floor boards.
_N
a) Single joint timber floor

TU
b) Single joist timber floor

c) Single timber floor
K
d) Joist Floor
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: The joists are usually placed at the centre to Centre distance of 300 mm to 450 mm. The joists are supp
t.m
orted on the wall plates at their ends. The space of about 50 mm is kept for the circulation of the air.
/
5. In ___________________ floors, the intermediate supports, known as the binders, provided for the bridging joists
s:/
.
tp
ht
a) Single joists timber floor

b) Double joists timber floor
c) Bridging joists
d) Triple Joist timber floor
Answer: b
Explanation: The binders are generally placed at the centre to Centre distance of 1.8 metre to 2.4 meters. The ends of
Binder rest on the wooden or stone blocks. The double joist Timber floor are stronger than the single joist Timber fl
oor.
6. In ______________ floors, intermediate supports, known as the girders, provided for the binders.
a) Single Joist timber floor

b) Double joists timber floor
c) Triple Joist timber floor
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d) Tetra Joist timber floor
Answer: c
Explanation: The Triple Joist timber floor consists of girders, binders, a bridging joists and floor boards. The girders
are generally placed at a Centre to Centre distance of 3 meters. The binders are staggered and connected to the girde
rs by tusk and tenon joints.
7. In _________________ floors, the flag stones are used in the two layers.
a) Double flagstones floors

b) Single flagstones floors
c) Triple flagstones floors
d) Filler joists timber floors
Answer: a
Explanation: In Double flagstones floors, the steel beams are placed at a distance of about 3 meters Centre to centre
um
and the joist are placed at right angles to the beans. The Flagstones of about 14 mm thickness and of suitable width a
re fixed on the lower flanges and upper flanges.
nt
ua
8. In ________________ floors, the small sections of rolled Steel joists are placed in concrete.
_Q
a) Jack arch floors
b) RCC floor
ks
c) Rib floor
oo
d) Filler joists
Answer: d
_B
Explanation: The joists may be either rest on wall or on Steel beam. The joists act as reinforcement and are spaced a
es
t a centre to Centre distance of 600 mm to 900 mm.
ot
9. In _____________ floors, the brick arches or cement concrete arches are constructed and these arches rest on the l
_N
ower flanges of mild steel joists.

TU
a) Filler Joist
b) Pre cast Concrete
K
c) Jack arch
A
d) Hollow block
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: In Jack arch floors, the joists in turn raised either on wall around beam. The joists are placed at a distan
ce of about 800 mm to 1200 mm Centre to centre. The rise of arches should be 100 mm to 200 mm and the minimu
/
m depth of concrete at the Crown should be 150 mm.

s:/
tp
10. In ________________ floors, the Steel bars and concrete are used to form of floor.
ht
a) Hollow block
b) Precast concrete
c) RCC
d) Jack arch
Answer: c
Explanation: RCC floor is widely used in Modern construction. The slab and beam design as per loading coming on
the floor and proper Reinforcement is placed at a suitable place.
11. In ______________ floors, the hollow blocks of clay or concrete are used to reduce the total weight of the floor.
a) Hollow block
b) RCC
c) Lapped
198 / 405
d) Jack arch
Answer: a
Explanation: In one form, the blocks are placed 100 mm apart and in this space, the mild steel bars are placed. A mi
nimum cover of 80 mm is kept at the top. Suitable flooring at top and ceiling finish are provided.
12. With the development of _______________ construction technique, it is possible to prepare the precast unit for t
he floor.
a) Pre cast
b) On site
c) Factory made
d) In situ
Answer: a
Explanation: These precast units are available in suitable sizes as can be conventionally handled, transported and fix
um
ed. They may be supported either on walls or on rolled Steel joist.
nt
ua
_Q
1. The thickness of the mortar bed on which the brick flooring is laid is ________
ks
a) 8 mm
oo
b) 10 mm
c) 12 mm
_B
d) 15 mm
es
Answer: c
Explanation: Brick flooring is used in cheap construction, especially in those places where good bricks are available.
ot
The method of preparing the base course varies from place to place. The thickness of the mortar bed on which the b
_N
rick flooring is laid is 12 mm.

TU
2. In muram flooring, the thickness of the layer of muram laid over the prepared subgrade is _______
K
a) 15 mm
A
b) 15 cm
e/
c) 6 mm
t.m
d) 6 cm
Answer: b
/
Explanation: In muram flooring, the thickness of the layer of muram laid over the prepared subgrade is 15 cm. Over
s:/
this layer, a layer of fine muram of thickness 2.5 cm is spread and sprinkled with water. After it, the surface is ramm
tp
ed well. The method of construction of muram flooring is very easy.

ht
3. Mud and muram floorings can be used in both low-cost housing as well as high-cost housing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Mud and muram floorings are cheap and easy to construct. They are used only in low-cost housing. Th
ey have good thermal insulation property which helps them to remain cool in summer and sufficiently warm in wint
er.
4. The thickness of the flagstone used in flagstone flooring is _________
a) 0.5-1 cm
b) 0.5-1 mm
199 / 405
c) 2-4 cm
d) 2-4 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: Flagstone is a laminated sandstone of thickness 2-4 cm available in the form of stone slabs. These ston
e slabs can be squares of size 30 cm x 30 cm, 45 cm x 45 cm or 60 cm x 60 cm or they can be rectangular of size 45
cm x 60 cm.
5. The mortar used in flagstone flooring has cement and sand in the ratio ______
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 1:4
d) 1:6
Answer: b
um
Explanation: In flagstone flooring, while laying the slabs a string is stretched between two corner slabs. Other slabs
are then laid in such a way that their tops touch this string. If a particular slab falls below the string level, then it is re
nt
-laid with the help of a fresh layer of mortar. The mortar used in flagstone flooring has cement and sand in the ratio
ua
1:3.
_Q
6. Which of the following reasons is not responsible for the preference of non-monolithical construction over monoli
thical construction in cement concrete flooring?
ks
oo
a) Development of hair cracks in monolithical construction
b) Damaging of the topping in monolithical construction
_B
c) Smaller overall thickness in monolithical construction
es
d) Slow work progress in monolithical construction
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: In cement concrete flooring, non-monolithical construction is preferred over monolithical construction
_N
because of the following disadvantages of monolithical construction. These are the development of hair cracks, dam
aging of the topping and slow work progress in monolithical construction. However, the only advantage of monolith
TU
ical construction is that in this, good bonds are formed which result in smaller overall thickness.
K
7. How many components are there in cement concrete flooring?

A
e/
a) Two
t.m
b) Three
c) Four
/
d) Six
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The floor in cement concrete flooring consists of two components. These are base concrete and topping
ht
surface. The topping surface is also known as the wearing surface. The two components of the floor can be construc
ted in two ways – monolithically or non-monolithically.
8. The base course in cement concrete flooring is made of __________ coarse aggregate.
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 30%
d) 70%
Answer: b
Explanation: The base course in cement concrete flooring is made of lime concrete containing 40 % mortar and 60
% coarse aggregate. The nominal size of the coarse aggregate is generally 40 mm. The mortar used has lime and san
d in the ratio 1:2.
200 / 405
9. The minimum thickness of the granolithic finish, when laid over a hardened surface, is __________
a) 35 mm
b) 35 cm
c) 15 mm
d) 15 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: Granolithic finish is composed of rich concrete made with a very tough quality coarse aggregate like ba
salt, granite etc. The minimum thickness of the granolithic finish, when laid over a hardened surface is 35 mm while
when laid monolithically with the top concrete, it is 25 mm.
10. Which of the following types of flooring is a decorative flooring?
a) Cement concrete flooring
um
b) Terrazzo flooring
c) Mud flooring
nt
d) Muram flooring
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: Terrazzo flooring is a decorative flooring. It has good wearing property. Because of this, it is extensive
_Q
ly used in residential buildings, offices, hospitals and other public buildings. It is laid in thin layers over the concrete
topping.
ks
oo
11. The ratio of cement and marble in terrazzo is __________
_B
a) 1:3/4 to 1:3
es
b) 1:3/4 to 1:4
c) 1:5/4 to 1:2
ot
d) 1:5/4 to 1:4
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: Terrazzo is a specially prepared concrete surface. The ratio of cement and marble in terrazzo is 1:5/4 to
TU
1:2. The cement may be white or grey. However, colour can be added to the white cement in order to set the desired
tint.
K
A
12. The size of the marble chips used in terrazzo flooring varies from __________
e/
t.m
a) 2-4 mm
b) 3-6 mm
/
c) 8-10 mm
s:/
d) 12-15 mm
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: The size of the marble chips used in terrazzo flooring varies from 3-6 mm. Marble chips of different co
lors are used. They are exposed by grinding operation once the surface has set. Terrazzo flooring is comparatively m
ore expensive.
13. In mosaic flooring, the surface is rubbed with __________ to make it smooth and polished.
a) Pumice stone
b) Aerosol
c) Gravel
d) Acetone
Answer: a
Explanation: In mosaic flooring, broken tiles of china glazed or of marble are used. They are cut in desired shapes a
nd sizes and arranged in various patterns. In this type of flooring, pumice stone is used to make the surface smooth a
nd polished.
201 / 405
14. Which of the following is used as an alternative to terrazzo flooring when the floor needs to be laid quickly?
a) Mosaic flooring
b) Flagstone flooring
c) Tiled flooring
d) Cement concrete flooring
Answer: c
Explanation: Tiled flooring is used as an alternative to terrazzo flooring when the floor needs to be laid quickly. It is
constructed from square or hexagonal shapes made of cement concrete, clay or terrazzo. It is commonly used in scho
ols, offices, hospitals etc.
15. In the figure given below, A represents __________
um
a) Mortar
b) Flagstone
nt
c) Brick
ua
d) Glass
Answer: b
_Q
Explanation: The above figure shows flagstone flooring. In the figure, A represents flagstone. B represents mortar b
ed and C represents batten. The flagstones are the stone slabs available in particular sizes. This kind of work is also
ks
known as paving.
oo
_B
es
1. Which of the following types of flooring is used in bathrooms and kitchens?

ot
_N
a) Mud flooring
b) Muram flooring
TU
c) Marble flooring
d) Timber flooring
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: Marble flooring is used in bathrooms and kitchens. It is also used in those places where extra cleanlines
e/
s is required. Marble slabs are available in different sizes. They are generally of square or rectangular shapes.
t.m
2. In tiled flooring, the flooring is cured for __________ days before polishing it.
/
s:/
a) 7
tp
b) 15
ht
c) 21
d) 27
Answer: a
Explanation: In tiled flooring, the flooring is cured for 7 days before polishing it. The polishing in tiled flooring is d
one in the same way as that in terrazzo flooring. However, the method of laying this flooring is similar to that of flag
stone flooring.
3. In the section of a timber floor given below, A represents __________
a) Sleeper wall
b) Void
c) Joist
d) Air brick
Answer: b
202 / 405
Explanation: In the given figure, A represents a void and B represents sleeper wall. Voids are provided in sleeper wa
lls in order to keep the hollow space between the flooring and oversite concrete dry. Air bricks in the outer walls can
also be provided to keep this space well-ventilated.
4. Damp prevention in timber flooring can be prevented by providing a DPC layer above the flooring.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Damp prevention in timber flooring can be prevented by providing a DPC layer below the flooring. Thi
s is one of the major problems faced in timber flooring. Another problem faced with timber flooring is its high cost.
Because of its high cost, generally, it is not used in residential buildings in India.
5. Suspended type timber floors are supported ___________
um
a) On the ground
nt
b) Below the ground
ua
c) Above the ground
d) Across the wall
_Q
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of timber floors. These are suspended type and solid type. Suspended type timber f
ks
loors are supported above the ground while solid type timber floors are fully supported on the ground.
oo
6. In timber flooring, the spacing between the sleeper walls is not more than __________
_B
es
a) 1.8-2 m
b) 2-2.2 m
ot
c) 2.2-2.4 m
_N
d) 2.4-2.6 m
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: In timber flooring, the spacing between the sleeper walls is not more than 1.8-2 m. Timber flooring is e
xtensively used in carpentry halls and auditoriums. It is also used in hilly areas where timber is cheap and readily av
K
ailable.
A
e/
7. Asphalt mastic has sand and asphalt in the ratio ________

t.m
a) 1:4
/
b) 1:3
s:/
c) 1:2
tp
d) 2:1
ht
Answer: d
Explanation: Asphalt mastic has sand and asphalt in the ratio 2:1. It is mixed hot and then laid in continuous sheets.
The thickness of asphalt mastic for ordinary construction is generally 2.5 cm.
8. In asphalt mastic flooring ___________ should be added to the asphalt mix in order to apply it cold.
a) Water and nickel

b) Mineral oil and nickel
c) Alcohol and asbestos
d) Mineral oil and asbestos
Answer: c
Explanation: In asphalt mastic flooring, mineral oil and asbestos should be added to asphalt mix in order to apply it c
old. The mix is laid on the cement concrete base course and is spread with the help of a trowel to obtain a levelled su
rface.
203 / 405
9. Which of the following types of flooring is used when it is required to transmit light from the upper to lower floor
?
a) Terrazzo flooring
b) Tiled flooring
c) Mosaic flooring
d) Glass flooring
Answer: d
Explanation: Glass flooring is used when it is required to transmit light from the upper to lower floor. This type of fl
ooring is very costly. Glass is available in the form of slabs or tiles whose thickness varies from 12-30 mm.
10. In rubber flooring, tiles of rubber are manufactured by mixing pure rubber with fillers like ___________
um
a) Cotton fibre
b) Mud
nt
c) Asphalt
ua
d) Concrete
Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: In rubber flooring, tiles of rubber are manufactured by mixing pure rubber with fillers like cotton fibre.
Granulated cork or asbestos fibre may also be used. Rubber floorings are noise proof but costly.
ks
oo
11. Granules of cork are heated with ____________ oil to manufacture cork carpet.
_B
a) Mustard
es
b) Peanut
c) Linseed
ot
d) Sunflower
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: Granules of cork are heated with linseed oil to manufacture cork carpet. Cork tiles are available in diffe
TU
rent sizes, thicknesses and shades. The thickness generally varies from 5 to 15 m.
K
12. Cork used in cork flooring is obtained from the bark of _____________ tree.
A
e/
a) Salix matsudana
t.m
b) Quercus suber
c) Montezuma cypress
/
d) Magnolia liliiflora
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Cork used in cork flooring is obtained from the bark of Quercus suber. It is the outer bark of cork oak t
ht
ree which is used to make cork carpets and cork tiles. Cork flooring is completely free from noise and is used in libr
aries and theatres.
13. Which of the following types of flooring is spread directly on concrete?
a) Linoleum flooring
b) Flagstone flooring
c) Cement concrete flooring
d) Brick flooring
Answer: a
Explanation: Linoleum flooring is the type of flooring which is spread directly on concrete. Sheets of linoleum are m
anufactured by adding oxidised linseed oil in resins, wood floor etc. This type of flooring is durable and attractive.
14. Which of the following types of flooring can be easily damaged by bringing burning objects in contact?
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a) Flagstone flooring
b) Asphalt flooring
c) Marble flooring
d) Plastic flooring
Answer: d
Explanation: Plastic flooring consists of tiles made of PVC which stands for Poly-Vinyl-Chloride. This type of floor
ing is smooth and has a good appearance. However, it can be easily damaged by bringing burning objects in contact.
15. In PVC flooring, time taken by the adhesive to set before the tiles are laid is _________
a) 30 seconds
b) 30 mins
c) 30 hours
um
d) 30 days
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: In PVC flooring, first the adhesive is applied on the back of the PVC tile as well as on the concrete bas
ua
e. After the adhesive is set for around 30 mins, the tiles are laid and gently pressed.
_Q
ks
oo
1. R.S.J. stands for _________
_B
a) Reinforced steel joists
es
b) Reinforced stone joists
c) Rolled steel joists
ot
d) Rolled stone joists

_N
Answer: c
Explanation: The full form of R.S.J is rolled steel joists. The cross-section of an R.S.J. beam is usually I or H shaped
TU
. It is generally made of mild steel but aluminium and some other materials can also be used.
K
2. The bearing of joists on the wall should not be less than half of the width of the wall.
A
e/
a) True
t.m
b) False
Answer: a
/
Explanation: The bearing of joists on the wall should not be less than half of the width of the wall. It is generally kep
s:/
t equal to the width of the wall in order to eliminate the eccentric load of the wall. The bearing of joists should also b
tp
e at least equal to the depth of the joist.

ht
3. In steel joist and stone floors, the clear span of the joists is equal to the ___________ of the room.
a) Width
b) Height
c) Volume
d) Area
Answer: a
Explanation: In steel joist and stone floors, the clear span of the joists is equal to the width of the room. Length of av
ailable stone slabs is a factor on which the spacing of the rolled steel joists depends.
4. In jack arch floors, the rise of the arch is equal to ________ of the span.
a) 1/3
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b) 1/4
c) 1/6
d) 1/12
Answer: d
Explanation: In jack arch floors, the rise of the arch is equal to 1/12 of the span. Jack arch is an arch made of either c
oncrete or brick. In this, the spacing between the joists is 1-1.5 m placed center to center.
5. The minimum depth of concrete at the crown in jack arch floors is _________
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm
Answer: c
um
Explanation: The minimum depth of concrete at the crown in jack arch floors is 15 cm. In this type of floors, steel ti
es rods are also provided at the end span generally spaced at 1.8-2.4 m c/c. These are provided because of the tensio
nt
n developed at the end span.
ua
6. Which of the following precautions is not correct while constructing brick jack arch floors?
_Q
a) Key brick should be properly secured in mortar
ks
b) R.S.J should be properly secured in position
oo
c) Only first class bricks are used
d) Any class of bricks can be used
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: Proper precautions must be taken while constructing brick jack arch floors. These are – key brick shoul
d be properly secured in the mortar, R.S.J should be properly secured in position and only first class bricks should b
ot
e used.
_N
7. ___________ is a curved-triangular space formed between the outer curve of an arch and a horizontal line throug
TU
h the crown.
K
a) Spandril
A
b) Skewback
e/
c) Intrados
t.m
d) Extrados
Answer: a
/
Explanation: The curved-triangular space formed between the outer curve of an arch and a horizontal line through th
s:/
e crown is known as spandrel. The outer curve of the arch is known as extrados.
tp
ht
8. In brick jack arch flooring, joists are encased in ___________ mortar, for preventing their rusting from ________
_ mortar.
a) Lime, cement
b) Cement, lime
c) Mud, cement
d) Mud, lime
Answer: b
Explanation: In brick jack arch flooring, joists are encased in cement mortar, for preventing their rusting from the li
me mortar. In this type of flooring, only well-burnt bricks should be used for construction and they are saturated wit
h water before using them.
9. Arch in cement concrete jack flooring is made of __________ cement concrete.

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a) 1:2:4
b) 1:3:4
c) 1:2:3
d) 2:3:4
Answer: a
Explanation: Arch in cement concrete jack flooring is made of 1:2:4 cement concrete. The arches are supported on t
he lower flanges of mild steel joists. The method of construction of cement concrete jack floors is comparatively eas
y.
10. The thickness of the mild steel plates provided in the centring of cement concrete jack floors is ________
a) 1 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 5 mm
um
d) 7 mm
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: The thickness of the mild steel plates provided in the centring of cement concrete jack floors is 3 mm.
ua
The centring has a pair of holes at the ends which are spaced at 75 cm c/c. The steel plate is bent in the shape of the
arch soffit.
_Q
11. Which of the following is not a type of R.C.C. floor?
ks
oo
a) Simple slab flooring
b) Reinforced slab flooring
_B
c) Curved slab flooring
es
d) Flat slab flooring
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: There are various types of R.C.C. floors. These are simple slab flooring, reinforced slab flooring, flat sl
_N
ab flooring, beam slab flooring and ribbed flooring.

TU
12. R.C.C stands for ___________

K
a) Rolled cement concrete

A
b) Reinforced cement concrete

e/
c) Rolled concrete cement

t.m
d) Reinforced concrete cement

Answer: b
/
Explanation: Reinforced cement concrete is the full form of R.C.C. It is extensively used for the construction of floo
s:/
rs of modern buildings. R.C.C. floors are relatively fireproof and damp proof and have many other advantages over
tp
other types of floors.

ht
13. R.C.C is strong in tension and weak in compression.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Reinforced cement concrete is strong in compression and weak in tension. Due to this property, it is us
ually reinforced with the help of steel bars. The entire bending tension is taken by these steel bars. It also results in R
.C.C. floors having a comparatively smaller thickness.
14. ____________ reinforcement is known as temperature reinforcement.
a) Actual
b) Concrete
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c) Nominal
d) Slab
Answer: c
Explanation: Nominal reinforcement is known as temperature reinforcement. It is also known as distribution reinforc
ement. In simple reinforced cement concrete flooring, nominal reinforcement is provided in a perpendicular directio
n.
15. B in the figure represents ______________
a) Flooring
b) Filler joist
c) Skew
d) Concrete fill
Answer: b
um
Explanation: The above figure shows a filler joist floor. In this figure, A represents flooring, B represents filler joist
and C represents concrete fill. In this type of flooring, the filler joists either rest on walls or on longitudinal steel bea
nt
ms.
ua
_Q
ks
1. In simple reinforced cement concrete slab flooring, it is important to provide reinforcement in both the directions
oo
when the length of the room is _________ times its width.
_B
a) 0.5
es
b) 1
c) 1.5
ot
d) 2
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: In simple reinforced cement concrete slab flooring, it is important to provide reinforcement in both the
TU
directions when the length of the room is 1.5 times its width. This is because in this case, the slab bends in both the
directions and such a slab is called two-way reinforced slab.
K
A
2. Which grade of cement concrete is used in the construction of simple R.C.C. floors?
e/
t.m
a) M15
b) M10
/
c) M30
s:/
d) M20
tp
Answer: d
ht
Explanation: In simple R.C.C. floors, generally cement concrete of M20 mix is used. After pouring of the concrete, i
t is well-compacted and the slab is properly cured. Shuttering can be removed only when the concrete has fully been
set.
3. Which type of bricks should be used in the construction of reinforced brick flooring?
a) First class bricks

b) Second class bricks
c) Third class bricks
d) Fourth class bricks
Answer: a
Explanation: Bricks are classified into 3 types – first class bricks, second class bricks and third class bricks. Only fir
st class bricks should be used in the construction of reinforced brick flooring. The size of the first class bricks is 19 c
m x 9 cm x 9 cm.
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4. The beams used in beam-slab flooring are known as _________
a) B-beams
b) R-beams
c) K-beams
d) T-beams
Answer: d
Explanation: The beams used in beam-slab flooring are known as T-beams. In this type of flooring, the floor is com
prised of R.C.C. beams and slabs cast monolithically. Beams serve as intermediate supports to the slab that is contin
uous over these beams.
5. Ribbed floors are also known as __________
um
a) Filler joists floors
b) R.C.C. floors
nt
c) Hollow-tiled floors
ua
d) Solid-tiled floors
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: Ribbed floors are also known as hollow-tiled floors. In this type of flooring, hollow tiles replace the lo
wer part of the slab since concrete cannot bear the tension caused in the lower part of the slab. The use of hollow tile
ks
s also reduces the weight of the slab.
oo
6. The clearing spacing of the ribs in ribbed flooring should not exceed ________
_B
es
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
ot
c) 40 cm
_N
d) 50 cm
Answer: d
TU
Explanation: In ribbed flooring, the ribs are closely spaced and the clearing spacing of the ribs should not exceed 50
cm. It depends on the size of the hollow blocks available.
K
A
7. In ribbed flooring, lateral ribs having the same width as that of longitudinal ribs are provided if the span exceeds _
e/
_______
t.m
a) 1 cm
/
b) 1 m
s:/
c) 3 cm
tp
d) 3 m
ht
Answer: d
Explanation: In ribbed flooring, lateral ribs having the same width as that of longitudinal ribs are provided if the spa
n exceeds 3 m. These are provided at intervals between 1-3 m.
8. In ribbed flooring, the depth of the rib is at least _________ with the free support.
a) L/10
b) L/20
c) L/25
d) L/30
Answer: b
Explanation: In ribbed flooring, the depth of the rib is at least L/20 with the free support. However, it is at least L/25
with fixed support. Here, L stands for the span of the ribs.
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9. Which of the following about hollow-tiled floors is not true?
a) They are heavy

b) They are light in weight
c) They provide thermal insulation
d) They provide sound insulation
Answer: a
Explanation: Hollow-tiled floors are light in weight. They provide good thermal insulation, sound insulation and are
fire-resistant.
10. _________ mortar is used to fill the joints in precast concrete floors.
a) Cement
b) Lime
um
c) Mud
d) Black
nt
Answer: a
ua
Explanation: Cement mortar is used to fill the joints in precast concrete floors. Concrete guns are used for this purpo
se. The floors can be constructed very easily with the help of precast beam-slabs. These are generally available in 25
_Q
cm width.
ks
11. Which of the following is not a type of timber floors?
oo
a) Half joist timber floors
_B
b) Single joist timber floors
es
c) Double joists timber floors
d) Triple joists timber floors
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Timber floors are mainly of three types. These are – single joist timber floors, double joists timber floo
rs and triple joists timber floors. These types of floors are light in weight and have poor fire resistance.
TU
12. Wooden joists provided in single joist timber floors are called as __________
K
A
a) Separating joists
e/
b) Bridging joists
t.m
c) Binding joints
d) Breaking joists
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: Wooden joists provided in single joist timber floors are called bridging joists. the spacing between thes
tp
e joists is usually 30-40 cm and their width is generally kept 5-8 cm.
ht
13. In single joist timber floors, the depth of the joists is calculated using the formula _______
a) Depth = (4 x spanning metres) + 5 cm

b) Depth = (5 x spanning metres) + 4 cm
c) Depth = (4 x spanning metres) + 8 cm
d) Depth = (8 x spanning metres) + 4 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: In single joist timber floors, the depth of the joists is calculated using the formula – Depth = (4 x spann
ing metres) + 5 cm. Single joist timber floors are the simplest type of timber floors which are widely used for reside
ntial buildings.
14. Which of the following is not an element of triple joists timber flooring?
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a) Floorboards
b) Bridging joists
c) Separating joists
d) Girders
Answer: c
Explanation: There are four elements of triple joists timber flooring. These are floorboards, bridging joists, girders a
nd binders. Triple joists timber floors are also known as framed floors. This type of flooring is used for spans exceed
ing 7.5 m.
15. B in the figure represents ________
a) Boarding
b) Wall plate
c) Bridging joist
um
d) Ceiling
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: The given figure shows single joist timber flooring. In this figure, A represents boarding, B represents
ua
wall plate and C represents bridging joist. A wall plate is a long wooden member which is provided on the top of the
brick or stone wall.
_Q
ks
oo
1. Formerly, the _____________ flooring was not favourite because of bad smell and ugly colour of the Asphalt.
_B
es
a) Asphalt
b) Brick
ot
c) Concrete
_N
d) Cork
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: The Asphalt tiles, which are produced from natural Asphalt, bitumen, asbestos fibre and material pigm
ents are available in different sizes and in a variety of colours. The asphalt Terrazo is formed by combination of Blac
K
k Or coloured asphalt with marble chips.

A
e/
2. __________________ material is used for cheap construction and for places where heavy articles are to be stacke
t.m
d as in case of godowns, Sheds, stores, etc.

/
a) Concrete
s:/
b) Cork
tp
c) Brick
ht
d) Rubber
Answer: c
Explanation: The bricks are laid on the floor and brick work is carried out in cement or lime Mortar. To get a better f
inish, the joints are pointed. The only drawback of this flooring is that it absorbs water.
3. The type of construction which is widely used for cheap residential buildings is known as the ________________
______
a) Indian Patent Stone

b) American Stone
c) Hand made stone
d) Patent Stone
Answer: a
Explanation: The thickness of concrete layer is about 40 mm and it is carried out in proportion of 1 part of cement, t
211 / 405
wo parts of sand and four parts of coarse aggregate by volume. The square or diagonal lines are made on the concret
e surfaces which is still wet. This type of construction is known as the Indian Patent stone.
4. ___________ flooring is available in two forms, namely, tiles and carpet.
a) Marble
b) Plastic
c) Rubble
d) Cork
Answer: d
Explanation: The natural cock is the outer bark of the cork oak tree. The cork tiles which are manufactured from hig
h grade cork bark, available in standard sizes with varying Shades and of different thicknesses.
5. ______________ flooring material is used when it is desired to transmit light to the floor below or to admit light t
um
o the basement from the upper floor.
nt
a) Linoleum
ua
b) Magnesite
c) Glass
_Q
d) Marble
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: The structural glass is available in the form of tiles or slabs or bricks and it can be placed in suitable Fr
oo
amework so that the frame and the glass can sustain the anticipated loads.
_B
6. ______________ flooring material is a mixture of linseed oil, gums and resins, pigments, wood flour, cork dust a
es
nd other filling materials.
ot
a) Linoleum
_N
b) Moorum
c) Plastic
TU
d) Magnesite
Answer: a
K
Explanation: The Linoleum should be laid over an effective damp proof course. The linoleum flooring is attractive i
A
n appearance, cheap, durable, resilient, comfortable, moderately warm and it can be easily clean. It reduces nose to a
e/
considerable extend and is used for residential buildings, restaurants, Railway, public transport buses, etc.
t.m
7. _____________ flooring is known as the composition flooring or jointless flooring.

/
s:/
a) Moorum
tp
b) Rubber
ht
c) Magnesite
d) Stone
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnesite Flooring material can be laid over stone, concrete or wooden floors. A coating of bituminou
s paint should be provided on the metal surface coming in contact with this flooring material. This flooring material
is cheap and it can be laid over rough surfaces.
8. The ______________ is the cheapest flooring material and can be only adopted for ground floor.
a) Rubber
b) Plastic
c) Stone
d) Moorum
Answer: d
212 / 405
Explanation: The murom is a form of disintegrated rock with the binding material. It is laid in layers of 80 mm to 15
0 mm thickness over a prepaid subgrade and it is well consolidated and well water every time. Finally, layer of 25 m
m thickness of powdered or fine moorum is spread and water is sprinkled over it.
9. _____________ flooring is just similar to Moorum flooring except that mud is used in place of Moorum.
a) Mud
b) Murum
c) Stone
d) Plastic
Answer: a
Explanation: The moist selected Earth is evenly spread out and it is rammed well so as to get a consolidated thicknes
s of about 150 mm. The water is not added during the process of ramming and small quantity of straw may be added
to the moist earth before Ramming to avoid the formation of cracks on drying.
um
10. ______________ flooring material called polyvinyl Chloride and it is fabricated in the form of tiles, all different
nt
sizes and various colours shades.
ua
a) Rubble
_Q
b) Plastic
c) Rubber
ks
d) Stone
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: The PVC tile flooring is resilient, smooth and good looking. It can be easily clean. It is however costly
_B
and can be easily damaged when it comes in contact with burning objects. The PVC tiles are usually not laid on the
es
wooden floor as the cost of preparing the surface to receive these types are considerably high.
ot
11. _________________ flooring material is a mixture of raw rubber, fillers such as fibre, cork, etc. and pigments.
_N
a) Plastic
TU
b) Rubber
c) Stone
K
d) Mud
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Rubber Flooring can be laid over any smooth and dry surface. This flooring material is elastic, attractiv
t.m
e in appearance, sanitary, comparatively warm and soft, but it is affected by oil and grease. This flooring material is
used for bathrooms, hospitals, etc.
/
s:/
12. The flooring of _____________ material consists of square or rectangular slab of stones.
tp
ht
a) Stone
b) Marble
c) Glass
d) Cork
Answer: a
Explanation: The stone to be used for flooring should be hard, durable and of good quality. Before fixing in position,
the stone slabs are dressed on all edges and joints are finished with cement. This type of flooring is durable, resistan
t to wear and cheap in stone districts.
1. A _______________ is defined at the upper most part of the building which is constructed in the form of a frame
work to give protection to the building against rain, heat, snow, wind, etc.
213 / 405
a) Roof
b) Truss
c) Chajja
d) Lintels
Answer: a
Explanation: A roof basically consists of structural element provided at the top of building from the support of roof
coverings. The structural element maybe trusses, portals, slabs, domes, etc. and the roof covering maybe AC sheets,
GI sheets, etc.
2. When two roof surface meet together and form an internal angle, a ________ is formed.
a) Rafter
b) ValleyBarge
um
c) Gable
d) Pitch
nt
Answer: b
ua
Explanation: Whereas, the inclination of sides of a roof to the horizontal plane is known as the Pitch and it can be ex
pressed either in terms of degrees or as a ratio of rise to span.
_Q
3. __________________ are the inclined members of a Truss.
ks
oo
a) Principle rafters
b) Cleats
_B
c) Dragon beam
es
d) Gable
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: The lower and upper hip rafter is generally supported on a diagonal piece of wood that is laid across th
_N
e corner of the wall. This diagonal piece is known as a Dragon Beam or a dragon Tie or angle Tie.
TU
4. A wooden piece provided at the Ridge line of a sloping roof is known as the ____________
K
a) Truss
A
b) Verge
e/
c) Ridge
t.m
d) Wall plate
Answer: c
/
Explanation: Wall plates are the long wooden member which are embedded on the top of wall to receive the commo
s:/
n rafters. The actually connect the walls to the roof.

tp
ht
5. The Framework, usually of triangles and design to support the roof covering for ceiling over rooms is known as a
____________
a) Roof truss
b) Roof valley
c) Roof covering
d) Template
Answer: a
Explanation: A bedding block is generally provided at the end of a Truss. This block is known as a template and it h
elps in spreading the load over a large area. A template maybe of wood or stone or RCC.
6. Any rafter which is shorter than a common rafter is known as a _______________
a) Principle rafters
214 / 405
b) Jack Rafter
c) Hip rafters
d) Common rafters
Answer: b
Explanation: Common rafters are the intermediate drafters that give support to the roof covering. Whereas, hip rafter
are the rafters which are provided at the junction of two roof slopes.
7. The wooden piece which are placed horizontally on the principal rafter to carry the common rafter are known as _
____________
a) Pitch
b) Purlins
c) Eaves
d) Gable
um
Answer: b
nt
pressed either in terms of degrees or as the ratio of rise to span.
ua
8. The triangular upper part of a wall formed at the end of pitched roof is known as a ____________
_Q
a) Hip
ks
b) Eaves
oo
c) Cleats
d) Gable
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: Whereas, Cleats are small blocks of wood that are fixed on the trusses to prevent the sliding of purlins.
ot
9. ________________ are the strips of wood which are fixed on the rafter or ceiling.
_N
a) Barge boards
TU
b) Battens
c) Wall plates
K
d) Eaves
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Barge boards are the wooden planks or boards which are fixed on the gable ends of a roof. They conne
t.m
ct the ends of the ridge, Purlins and wall plates.

/
10. ________________ are the pieces of timber which extends from the eves to the ridge.
s:/
tp
a) Battens
ht
b) Purlins
c) Eaves
d) Rafters
Answer: d
Explanation: The lower edges of a roof which are resting up on or projecting beyond the supporting walls are known
as the Eaves. Sometimes a thin board of wood is provided at the eves to cover the end of the common rafters.
1. Which of the following is not a category of roofs?
a) Pitched roofs
b) Flat roofs
215 / 405
c) Aligned roofs
d) Curved roofs
Answer: c
Explanation: Roofs are classified into three categories. These are pitched roofs, flat roofs and curved roofs. Pitched r
oofs are also known as sloping roofs and flat roofs are also known as terraced roofs.
2. Which roofs are preferred in areas having heavy rainfall?
a) Pitched roofs
b) Flat roofs
c) Terraced roofs
d) Curved roofs
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitched roofs are preferred in areas having heavy rainfall. They have a sloping top surface which allow
um
s the rain or snow to slide off. Buildings having limited width can usually be covered by pitched roofs satisfactorily.
nt
3. Which roofs are used in hot regions?
ua
a) Pitched roofs
_Q
b) Flat roofs
c) Sloping roofs
ks
d) Curved roofs
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: Flat roofs are used in hot regions or in the areas having moderate rainfall and no snowfall. They are use
_B
d for the buildings in plain areas.
es
4. Which roofs are more preferred for public buildings like libraries and theatres?
ot
_N
a) Pitched roofs
b) Flat roofs
TU
c) Sloping roofs
d) Curved roofs
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: Curved roofs are more preferred for public buildings like libraries and theatres. Their top surface is cur
e/
ved. These roofs provide architectural effects. They include cylindrical shells and shell domes.
t.m
5. Which of the following roofs slopes in two directions?

/
s:/
a) Lean-to-roof
tp
b) Gable roof
ht
c) Hip roof
d) Mansard roof
Answer: b
Explanation: Gable roof slopes in two directions. These two slopes meet at the apex line. Hip roofs and mansard roo
fs slope in four directions while lean-to-roof slopes in one direction only.
6. Pitch is expressed as a ratio of _______
a) Span to ridge
b) Ridge to span
c) Rise to span
d) Span to rise
Answer: c
Explanation: Pitch is expressed as a ratio of rise to span. Span is the distance between the supports of an arch or bea
216 / 405
m. Rise is the vertical distance measured between the wall plate and the top of the ridge.
7. The hip is formed by the intersection of two sloping roof surfaces making an external angle less than 180°.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Hip is formed by the intersection of two sloping roof surfaces making an external angle more than 180°
while a valley is the reverse of a hip. It is formed by the intersection of two roof surfaces making an external angle l
ess than 180°.
8. The apex line of a pitched roof is known as ________
a) Purlin
um
b) Ridge
c) Hip
nt
d) Valley
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: The apex line of a pitched roof is known as the ridge. Horizontal wooden members are provided at the
_Q
apex of a roof truss in the form of beams. These are known as ridge pieces or ridge beams.
ks
9. __________ is known as the lower edge of an inclined roof surface.
oo
a) Eaves
_B
b) Ridge
es
c) Plate
d) Purlin
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Eaves is known as the lower edge of an inclined roof surface. The rainwater slides off from the roof sur
face from the eaves.
TU
10. Sloping triangles are formed in ______

K
A
a) Gambrel roof
e/
b) Gable roof
t.m
c) Hip roof
d) Mansard roof
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: Sloping triangles are formed in the hip roof at the end faces while in the mansard roof, sloping ends are
tp
obtained. Mansard roof also slopes in four directions just like hip roof but the difference is that in mansard roof, eac
ht
h slope has a break. At the end of the hip roof, the sloped triangular surface formed is known as the hipped end.
1. ______________ are the wooden planks or boards which are fixed on the gable end of a roof.
a) Cleats
b) Battens
c) Barge boards
d) Eaves
Answer: c
Explanation: Barge boards connects the ends of ridge, Purlins and wall plates. Whereas, Cleats are small blocks of w
ood which are fixed on the Truss to prevent the sliding of purlins.
217 / 405
2. __________________ are the thin strips of wood which are fixed on the rafters or ceiling.
a) Dragon beam
b) Eaves
c) Gables
d) Battens
Answer: d
Explanation: Battens support the roof ceiling. Whereas, the triangular upper part of a wall formed at the end of the pi
tched roof is known as a Gable.
3. The diagonal piece of wood which is laid across the corner of the wall is known as a ____________
a) Eave
um
b) Hip
c) Rafter
nt
d) Dragon beam
ua
Answer: d
Explanation: The lower end of a hip rafter is generally supported on a diagonal piece of wood which is lead across th
_Q
e corner of the wall. This diagonal piece is known as the Dragon beam or a dragon tie or an angle tie.
ks
4. The lower edges of a roof which are resting upon or projecting beyond the supporting wall are known as the ____
oo
___________
_B
a) Gables
es
b) Rafters
c) Eaves
ot
d) Wall plates
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: Sometimes, a thin board of wood is provided at the Eaves to cover the ends of the common rafters. Suc
TU
h a board is known as an Eaves board or facia board. It is usually 25 mm thick and 250 mm wide.
K
5. The angle formed at the intersection of two roof slopes is known as the ___________
A
e/
a) Valley
t.m
b) Hip
c) Verge
/
d) Pitch
s:/
Answer: b
tp
ht
pressed either in terms of degrees or as the ratio of rise to span.
6. The wooden piece which are placed horizontally on a principal rafter to carry the common rafters are known as th
e ______________
a) Ridge
b) Rafters
c) Jack Rafter
d) Purlins
Answer: d
Explanation: Whereas, Rafters are the pieces of timber which extend from the Eaves to the ridge. Common rafters,
Hip rafters, Jack Rafter, principal rafters are the various types of rafters.
7. A wooden piece provided at ridge line of a sloping roof is known as the ___________
218 / 405
a) Template
b) Ridge
c) Valley
d) Principle rafters
Answer: b
Explanation: The common rafters are attached to the ridge. A Ridge line indicates the apex line of a sloping roof. W
hereas, principal rafter are the incline members of a Truss.
8. A bedding block is generally provided at the end of a Truss as __________
a) Truss
b) Template
c) Hip rafter
um
d) Pitch
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: Templates helps in spreading the load over a large area. A template may be of wood or stone or RCC.
ua
9. _______________ are the rafters which are provided at the junction of two roof slopes.
_Q
a) Jack Rafter
ks
b) Principal rafter
oo
c) Hip rafter
d) Common rafter
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: Common rafters are the intermediate rafters which give support to the roof covering. Where as, any raft
er with is shorter than a common rafter is known as Jack Rafter.
ot
_N
10. The horizontal distance between the internal faces of walls or support is known as a ___________
TU
a) Span
b) Truss
K
c) Verge
A
d) Wall plates
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: The effective span indicates the horizontal distance between the centres of wall or supports. Whereas, t
he Framework, usually of triangles and design to support the roof covering or ceiling over rooms, is known as a Roo
/
f Truss.
s:/
tp
11. _________________ are the long wooden members which are embedded on top of the walls to receive the com
ht
mon rafter.
a) Valley
b) Wall plates
c) Verge
d) Truss
Answer: b
Explanation: Wall plates actually connect the wall to the roof. Whereas, when two room surfaces meet together and
form an internal angle, a valley formed.
12. The edge of a Gable, running between the Eaves and ridge is known as __________
a) Verge
b) Ridge
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c) Eave
d) Pitch
Answer: a
Explanation: Whereas, the lower edges of a roof which are resting up on or projecting beyond the supporting wall ar
e known as the Eaves.
1. In __________ roofs, the common Rafter are provided to itself without any intermediate support.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Purlin
um
d) Trussed
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: Lean on roof, couple roof, couple close roof, collar beam roof and collar & Scissors roof are the some
ua
varieties of a single roof.
_Q
2. ______________ is the simplest form of a pitched roof and it is also known as pent roof.
ks
a) Collar beam roof
oo
b) Collar and scissor roof
c) Couple roof
_B
d) Lean on roof
es
Answer: d
Explanation: In Lean-on roofs, one wall is carried up sufficiently higher than the other one to give necessary look to
ot
the roof. The Rafters are suitably secured on the wall plates and eave boards, battens and roof covering are provided.
_N
3. In ________________ roof, the common rafter slope upward from the opposite wall and they meet on a Ridge pie
TU
ce in the middle.
K
a) Couple-close roof
A
b) Lean-on roof
e/
c) Collar beam
t.m
d) Couple
Answer: d
/
Explanation: In Couple roofs, the common rafters are firmly secured in position at both the ends, one in being on the
s:/
ridge piece and the other on the wall plate. Such a roof is not very much favoured because it has the tendency to spr
tp
ead out at the feet.

ht
4. __________________ roof is just similar to a couple roof except that the legs of the common after are connected
by tie beam.
a) Collar and scissor

b) Collar beam
c) Couple-close
d) Couple
Answer: c
Explanation: In Couple-close beam, the tie beam prevents the tendency of rafter to spread out and thus the danger of
overturning of the wall is avoided. The tie beam can also be used as a ceiling joists when required.
5. __________________ roof is a variation of a couple close roof.

220 / 405
a) Collar beam
b) Collar and scissor
c) Tie beam
d) Lean on
Answer: a
Explanation: The tie beam is then known as a Collar or collar beam. A collar beam roof is adopted to economise the
space and to increase the height of the roof. The collar beam is usually fixed at one third to one half the vertical heig
ht from the wall to the Ridge.
6. ____________________ roof is similar to the collar beam roof accept that two collar beams which are crossing ea
ch other to present an appearance of scissors are provided.
a) Collar and scissor

b) Collar beam
um
c) Tie beam
d) Lean on
nt
Answer: a
ua
Explanation: Whereas, Lean-on roof is generally used for sheds, out houses attached to main buildings, varandahs, e
tc. It is suitable for a maximum span of 2.4 metres.
_Q
7. In order to reduce the size of rafters, the intermediate support, called the ___________ are introduced under the ra
ks
fters.
oo
a) Couple roofs
_B
b) Purlins
es
c) Tie beam
d) Collar beam
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: When the span exceeds about 2.4 meters, the necessary size for the rafters become economical. Hence
double or Purlin roofs are provided in such cases.
TU
8. When the span exceeds 4.8 M and when there is no inside supporting walls for Purlins, the frame structures adopt
K
ed, known as the _____________

A
e/
a) Single roofs
t.m
b) Purlin roofs
c) Double roofs
/
d) Trussed roofs
s:/
Answer: d
tp
Explanation: The spacing of Trusses depend upon the load on the roof, position of cross walls, span and materials on
ht
the trust. But the spacing is generally 3M for wooden Trusses. The Trusses carry the ridge pieces and Purlins on wh
ich the common rafters rest.
9. In this type of truss, the centre post, known as ___________ form a support for the tie beam.
a) Queen post truss

b) King post truss
c) Mansard truss
d) Truncated truss
Answer: b
Explanation: A King post truss is suitable for roofs of span varying from 5 m to 8 meters. The incline members, kno
wn as the Struts, prevent the principal rafter from bending in the middle.
10. _______________ truss differs from King post Truss in having two vertical members.
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a) Composite truss
b) Mansard truss
c) Truncated truss
d) Queen post truss
Answer: d
Explanation: A Queen post Truss roof is suitable for roof of span varying from 8 meters to 12 meters. A straining sil
l is introduced under tie beam known as a straining beam, between the queen post to counteract the thrust of struds.
1. _______________ is a very light roof covering.
um
a) Shingles
b) Patent tiles
nt
c) Thatch
ua
d) Trafford asbestos cement tile
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: Thatch is combustible, absorbs moisture rapidly and is easily liable to decay. It is unstable against hig
h winds. A bed of matting is prepared to receive the hatch and in order to drain the roof easily, a Pitch of 45° is kept.
ks
oo
2. If tails are laid in two layers, the roof is known as ___________ roof.
_B
a) Single tiled
es
b) Country tiled
c) Double tiled
ot
d) Shingles
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: An overlap of at least 18 mm should be provided when country tiles are used. These tiles are liable to b
TU
reak easily and hence they require frequent replacement.

K
3. The wood _____________ are obtained from the well Seasoned timber with length varying from 300 mm to 380
A
mm.
e/
t.m
a) Patent tiles
b) Eternit slates
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c) Thatch
s:/
d) Shingles
tp
Answer: d
ht
Explanation: Shingles are laid in a similar fashion as tiles and slates and this roof covering is found to be useful espe
cially in hilly areas where the wood is easily and cheaply available.
4. The Mangalore tile are one of _________ type of tiles.
a) Asbestos cement
b) Patent
c) Trafford
d) Corrugated
Answer: b
Explanation: Mangalore tiles are red in colour and made of double channel mission Mangalore pattern. The special
Mangalore tiles are available for ridge. It is found that about 14 Mangalore tiles are required for covering 1 square m
etre of roof area.
222 / 405
5. The ________________ sheets are prepared by pressing flat wrought iron plates between roller with groove and t
hen they are galvanised with the coat of zinc.
a) Asbestos cement
b) Galvanized iron
c) Trafford
d) Corrugated
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of galvanising is name after the 18th century Italian scientist Galvani and it has been prepa
red to highly sophisticated degree achieving improvement in the quality, economic, productivity and labour savings.
The corrugation help to increase strength and rigidity and the permit easy flow of rainwater.
6. _____________ sheets are obtained from the cement which is mixed with about 15% of asbestos fibre.
um
a) Asbestos cement
b) Corrugated Galvanized iron
nt
c) Trafford
ua
d) Shingles
Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: Asbestos cement sheets are commonly known as the AC sheets, with a series of waves or corrugations
are formed and they are used for factories, workshops, big halls, etc. The corrugation helps to increase strength and r
ks
igidity and permit the easy flow of rainwater.
oo
7. ______________ is a light, flexible and waterproof material.
_B
es
a) Sunmika
b) Timber
ot
c) AC sheets
_N
d) Ruberoid
Answer: d
TU
Explanation: Ruberoid is not affected by Extreme heat or cold and it is not attacked by white ants. This material is a
vailable in two colours, red and grey. This material is available in rolls.
K
A
8. Roof which is nearly flat is known as the ________

e/
t.m
a) Pitched roof
b) Flat roof
/
c) Undulating roof
s:/
d) Corrugated roof
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: The Flat roof must slope in one direction or the other to cause rain water to flow of rapidly and easily.
The construction of the flat roofs is same as that of floor except that the top surface is made slightly sloping in case o
f flat roofs.
9. A ____________ is a rounded vault forming a roof.
a) Igloo
b) Tent
c) Dome
d) Church
Answer: c
Explanation: The Dome is useful 1 rupees to be provided on a circular brickwork or regular polygon shape walls. Th
e curved roof afford pleasing appearance in most of the cases, the construction of curves result in the economy of St
eel and concrete.
223 / 405
10. A recent development known as the ___________ roof has combine the advantages of flat roofs and curved roof.
a) Corrugated Inclined
b) Doubly curved tile
c) Asbestos cement tile
d) Galvanising iron tiles
Answer: b
Explanation: Here, the precast units of cement concrete tiles are prepared at the site. The size of the tile is kept about
700 mm x 700 mm with a uniform thickness of at least 20 mm. The cement concrete of proportion 1:2:4 is adopted
and the units are properly cured.
um
1. Which of the following is not a type of single roof?
nt
ua
a) Lean-to-roof
b) Couple roof
_Q
c) King-post roof truss
d) Collar beam roof
ks
Answer: c
oo
Explanation: There are five types of single roofs. These are lean-to-roof, couple roof, couple close roof, collar beam
roof and collar and scissors roof. Single roofs consist of only the rafters which are supported at the ridge and the wal
_B
l plate.
es
2. _________ joint is used to connect the wooden tie and the feet of rafters in a couple of close roof.
ot
_N
a) Dovetail halved
b) Closed mortised and tenoned
TU
c) Pin and tenoned

d) Open and pin
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Dovetail halved joint is used to connect wooden tie and the feet of rafters in a couple of close roof. In a
e/
couple close roof, the ends of the couple of common rafters are connected a tie beam. It is used to prevent the rafter
t.m
s from spreading out of the wall.

/
3. A couple roof is suitable for spans up to _________

s:/
tp
a) 3.6 metres
ht
b) 4.2 metres
c) 5.6 metres
d) 6.3 metres
Answer: a
Explanation: A couple roof is suitable for spans up to 3.6 metres. This type of roof has a great tendency to spread ou
t at the wall plate level. However, a couple close roof is usually used when the span is limited to 4.2 metres.
4. Which of the following is also known as a pent roof?
a) Lean-to-roof
b) Couple roof
c) Couple-close roof
d) Collar beam roof
Answer: a
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Explanation: Lean-to-roof is also known as a pent roof. It is also known as the aisle roof. Lean-to-roof is the simples
t type of sloping roof. In this, rafters’ slope to one side only.
5. How many elements are generally there in a double roof?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There are basically two elements in a double roof. These are rafters and purlins. The purlins provide int
ermediate support to the rafters.
6. Triple-membered roofs are also known as _______
um
a) Verandah roofs
nt
b) Collar tie roofs
ua
c) Purlin roofs
d) Trussed roofs
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: Triple-membered roofs are also known as trussed roofs. A triple-membered roof is used when the lengt
ks
h of the room is large and the span of the room exceeds 5 metres.
oo
7. Which of the following roof is also known as rafter roof?
_B
es
a) Double roof
b) Lean-to-roof
ot
c) Couple-close roof
_N
d) Couple roof
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: Double roof is also known as rafter roof or purlin roof. Double roofs are used when the span exceeds 5
metres. Purlin is used to tie the rafters together.
K
A
8. Lean-to-roof is suitable for maximum span of ______

e/
t.m
a) 1.3 metres
b) 2.5 metres
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c) 3.6 metres
s:/
d) 4.2 metres
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: Lean-to-roof is suitable for a maximum span of 2.5 metres. These types of roofs are generally used for
sheds, verandahs etc. Hence, they can also be called verandah roofs.
9. The central vertical rod provided in the couple close roofs is called as ________
a) King rod
b) Queen post
c) King post
d) Queen stone
Answer: a
Explanation: The central vertical rod provided in the couple close roofs is called king rod. Its function is to connect t
he tie beam and the ridge piece.
10. Tie beam is used in collar beam roofs.

225 / 405
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Tie beam is a horizontal member which is used in a couple close roof. It is provided at the level of the
wall plates whereas, in a collar beam roof, a raised beam known as a collar beam is used. Collar beam is also known
as a collar tie.
11. The thickness and the width of an eaves board are generally ______ and _____ respectively.
a) 10 mm, 10 mm
b) 10 mm, 20 mm
c) 25 mm, 25 mm
d) 15 mm, 25 mm
um
Answer: c
Explanation: Eaves board is a wooden board which is fixed to the feet of the common rafters at the eaves. The thick
nt
ness and the width of an eaves board are generally 25 mm and 25 mm respectively.
ua
12. Which of the following is not a type of roof truss used in triple-membered roofs?
_Q
a) Mansard roof truss
ks
b) King-post roof truss
oo
c) Truncated roof truss
d) Collar beam roof truss
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: The various types of truss used in triple-membered roofs are mansard roof truss, king-post roof truss, q
ueen-post roof truss, truncated roof truss etc. A collar beam roof is a type of single roof which is also known as a col
ot
lar tie roof.

_N
13. B in the figure given below represents __________

TU
a) Ridge piece
K
b) King rod
A
c) Rafter
e/
d) Tie beam
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: The above figure shows a close couple roof. In this figure, A represents ridge piece, B represents king
/
post, C represents rafter and D represents tie beam. A king post is a vertical rod placed at the centre which joins the
s:/
ridge piece and the tie beam.

tp
ht
14. In the figure of the collar beam roof given below, D represents ______
a) Ridge piece
b) Tie beam
c) Collar beam
d) Rafter
Answer: c
Explanation: The figure given above is of a collar beam roof. In this figure, A represents ridge piece, B represents ra
fter, C represents wall plate, D represents collar beam and E represents eaves board. The collar beam is provided at a
raised level.
15. In a collar tie roof, a higher collar position gives a stronger roof.
a) True
226 / 405
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a collar tie roof, a lower collar position gives a stronger roof. A collar tie roof is usually used for spa
ns up to 5 metres.
1. In trussed roofs, the limit of the spacing for wooden trusses is generally _______
a) 1 metre
b) 2 metres
c) 3 metres
d) 4 metres
um
Answer: c
Explanation: In trussed roofs, the limit of the spacing for wooden trusses is generally 3 metres. Trussed roofs are use
nt
d when the span of the roof is greater than 5 m.
ua
2. Trusses are used in trussed roofs to support the _________
_Q
a) Rafters
ks
b) Roofing material
oo
c) Purlins
d) Beams
_B
Answer: c
es
Explanation: There are basically three elements in trussed roofs. These are rafters, purlins and trusses. The function
of the trusses is to provide support to the purlins which in turn provide support to the rafters. Rafters are used to pro
ot
vide support to the roofing material.

_N
3. Which of the following is used to provide end support to the common rafters in a king-post truss?
TU
a) King-post
K
b) Ridge beam
A
c) Queen-post
e/
d) Tie beam
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: The components of a king-post truss are two inclined principal rafters, two struts, a lower tie beam and
/
a king post. A ridge beam is also provided at the apex of the roof. The function of a ridge beam is to provide end sup
s:/
port to the common rafters.

tp
ht
4. In a king-post truss, which of the following types of joints is used to join the king-post to the ends of principal raft
ers at its head?
a) Dovetail joint
b) Open and pin join
c) Pin and tenoned joint
d) Tenon and mortise joint
Answer: d
Explanation: Tenon and mortise joint is used to join the king-post to the ends of principal rafters at its head. A three-
way wrought iron or a mild steel strap on each of its sides are provided to secure the joint.
5. In a king-post truss ________ prevent the purling from tilting.
a) Pole plates
227 / 405
b) Purlins
c) Cleats
d) Rafters
Answer: c
Explanation: In a king-post truss, cleats prevent the purling from tilting. These are fixed on the principal rafters. Purl
ins are placed at right angles to the sloping principal rafters. These purlins are made of stout timber.
6. In a king-post truss, common rafters have the same slope as the principal rafters.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In a king-post truss, common rafters have the same slope as the principal rafters. The function of the pr
incipal rafters is to provide support to the purlins while the function of the purlins is to provide support to the comm
um
on rafters.
nt
7. How many vertical posts are there in a queen-post truss?
ua
a) Two
_Q
b) Three
c) Four
ks
d) Six
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two vertical posts in a queen-post truss, unlike a king-post truss which has only one vertical
_B
post. These two vertical posts in a queen-post truss are known as queen posts. The tops of these queen posts are con
es
nected by a horizontal member known as a straining beam.
ot
8. In the queen-post truss, the joint at the head is formed due to the junction of two compression members and one te
_N
nsion member. This tension member is __________

TU
a) Tie beam
b) Queen-post
K
c) Straining sill
A
d) Principal rafter
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: In the queen-post truss, the joint at the head is formed due to the junction of two compression members
and one tension member. The two compression members are principal rafter and straining beam and the tension me
/
mber is the queen-post.

s:/
tp
9. Queen-post trusses are suitable for spans up to ______

ht
a) 12 m
b) 25 m
c) 32 m
d) 46 m
Answer: a
Explanation: Queen-post trusses are suitable for up to 12 m spans. However, a combination of queen-post and king-
post trusses are suitable up to a span of 18 m.
10. A mansard roof truss is named after a _____ architect.
a) Dutch
b) French
c) Greek
228 / 405
d) Indian
Answer: b
Explanation: Mansard roof truss is named after a French architect named Francois Mansard. This type of roof is a co
mbination of king-post and queen-post trusses.
1. In a mansard roof truss, the upper portion consists of a queen-post truss.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Mansard roof truss is a two-storey truss. The upper portion consists of a king-post truss while the lower
um
portion consists of a queen-post truss.
nt
2. Which of the following types of trusses is in the shape of a bow?
ua
a) Mansard truss
_Q
b) King-post truss
c) Queen-post truss
ks
d) Bel-fast truss
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: Bel-fast truss is in the shape of a bow. It comprises of thin sections of timber. This type of truss is also
_B
known as bowstring truss or latticed roof truss.
es
3. Composite roof trusses are made of _____ and ______

ot
_N
a) Timber and steel

b) Timber and wood
TU
c) Timber and sand

d) Sand and steel
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Composite roof trusses are made of timber and steel. In this type of truss, timber is used to make the co
e/
mpression members while steel is used to make the tension members.

t.m
4. Which of the following types of trusses is not a wooden truss?

/
s:/
a) King-post truss
tp
b) Mansard truss
ht
c) Composite truss
d) Truncated truss
Answer: c
Explanation: King-post truss, queen-post truss, mansard truss, truncated truss and bel-fast truss are all examples of
wooden trusses. However, a composite truss is made up of timber and steel.
5. In the combination of king-post and queen-post trusses given below, C represents _______
a) King-post
b) Princess post
c) Queen-post
d) Rafter
Answer: b
Explanation: In the combination of king-post and queen-post trusses given above, A represents king-post, B represe
229 / 405
nts queen-post and C represents princess post. A princess post is used to strengthen the queen-post truss for large spa
ns.
6. Timber trusses are not preferred when the span is greater than __________
a) 3 m
b) 5 m
c) 7 m
d) 10 m
Answer: d
Explanation: Timber trusses are not preferred when the span is greater than 10 m. In this case, timber trusses become
uneconomical whereas steel trusses are more economical. Hence, steel trusses are used in place of timber trusses.
7. A steel roof truss is designed in such a way that it carries only direct stresses and not binding stresses.
um
a) True
nt
b) False
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: Steel roof truss is designed in such a way that it carries only direct stresses and not binding stresses. Di
_Q
rect stresses can be either compressive or tensile. Steel roof trusses are usually made of angle sections and plates.
ks
8. Which of the following is not a category of steel trusses?
oo
a) Open trusses
_B
b) North light trusses
es
c) Bowstring trusses
d) King-post trusses
ot
Answer: d
_N
Explanation: The various categories of steel trusses are open trusses, north light trusses, bowstring trusses and arche
d rib trusses. King-post trusses are wooden trusses.
TU
9. In a steel roof truss, which of the following is made of single angle sections only?
K
A
a) Principal rafter
e/
b) Strut
t.m
c) Main tie
d) King-post
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: The principal rafter in a steel roof truss is usually made of two angle sections. The main tie is also mad
tp
e of two angle sections. However, struts are usually made of single angle sections.
ht
10. In steel roof trusses, the diameter of rivets used for large spans is _________
a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
c) 20 mm
d) 50 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of rivets used at each joint in steel roof trusses should be at least two. For small spans, gen
erally 15 mm diameter rivets are used and for large spans, usually 20 mm diameter rivets are used.

230 / 405
1. Which of the following about thatch roof coverings is false?
a) They are very light

b) They are not stable against winds
c) They are non-combustible
d) They are likely to decay
Answer: c
Explanation: Thatch roof covering is widely used in villages because of its less cost. They are very light and are not
stable against winds. They are likely to decay easily and are highly combustible.
2. Wood shingles roofing is not fire-resistant.
a) True
b) False
um
Answer: a
Explanation: Wood shingles roofing is not fire resistant. Shingles are thin slabs of wood that are used to cover the ro
nt
ofs. They are used only in hilly areas where local timber is easily and cheaply available.
ua
3. The thickness of a thatch roof covering should be at least ___________
_Q
a) 5 cm
ks
b) 7 cm
oo
c) 10 cm
d) 15 cm
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: The thickness of a thatch roof covering should be at least 15 cm. It consists of bundles of straw or reed
s. Generally, a straw thatch can last for about 20 years and a reed thatch can last for about 60 years.
ot
_N
4. Plain tiles are generally made of ___________

TU
a) Timber
b) Marble
K
c) Steel
A
d) Clay
e/
Answer: d
t.m
Explanation: Plain tiles are generally made of clay. they can also be made of concrete but usually, clay tiles are more
common. They are manufactured in rectangular shapes of thickness varying from 9 mm to 15 mm.
/
s:/
5. Pan-tiles are _________

tp
ht
a) Single lapped
b) Double lapped
c) Triple lapped
d) Quadruple lapped
Answer: a
Explanation: Pan-tiles are single lapped. These tiles are flat longitudinally and curved transversally. However, plain
tiles are double lapped.
6. Which of the following types of tiles are laid in pairs of over-tiles and under-tiles?
a) Pan tiles
b) Plain tiles
c) Flat tiles
d) Half-round country tiles
231 / 405
Answer: d
Explanation: Half-round country tiles are laid in pairs of over-tiles and under-tiles. The under-tiles are laid with the c
oncave surface upwards and the over-tiles are laid with the convex surface upwards. These tiles are similar to Spanis
h tiles.
7. Which of the following statements about asbestos cement sheets is not correct?
a) They are light in weight

b) They are fire-resistant
c) They require protective paint
d) They are vermin resistant
Answer: c
Explanation: Asbestos cement sheets are light in weight, fire-resistant and vermin resistant. They do not require any
protective paint. These sheets are widely used in industries, factories, cinemas, auditoriums etc.
um
8. Which of the following is not a type of asbestos cement roof coverings?
nt
ua
a) Everest small-seven corrugated A.C. sheets
b) Everest big-six corrugated A.C. sheets
_Q
c) Everest standard corrugated A.C. sheets
d) Everest trafford A.C. sheets
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: Asbestos cement roof coverings come in three types in India. These are Everest big-six corrugated A.C
. sheets, Everest standard corrugated A.C. sheets and Everest trafford A.C. sheets.
_B
es
9. Which of the following is not a component of asbestos cement sheets?
ot
a) Asbestos
_N
b) Timber
c) Fibre
TU
d) Portland cement
Answer: b
K
Explanation: Asbestos-cement sheets are made of asbestos, fibre and portland cement. They consist of nearly 15% fi
A
bre. Nowadays, asbestos cement is widely used in the manufacturing of roofing slates and tiles.
e/
t.m
10. White asbestos is a compound of _______ and ________

/
a) Magnesium, aluminium
s:/
b) Magnesia, silica
tp
c) Magnesia, aluminium
ht
d) Aluminium, silica
Answer: b
Explanation: White asbestos is a compound of magnesia and silica. It is the most often used form of asbestos. It is us
ed in the roofs and ceilings of industrial buildings and even residential buildings.
1. Number of corrugations in one big-six type A.C. sheet is _________
a) Three and a half

b) Five and a half
c) Seven and a half
d) Nine and a half
232 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: Number of corrugations in one big-six type A.C. sheet is seven and a half. The overall depth of big six-
type A.C. sheets is 55 mm. While the standard corrugated sheets have ten and a half corrugations per sheet.
2. Asbestos cement sheets are stronger than G.I. sheets.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Galvanised iron corrugated sheets or G.I. sheets are much stronger than the asbestos cement sheets. Ho
wever, nowadays they are being replaced by asbestos cement sheets because of their large costs. G.I. sheets are fixed
in nearly the same fashion as that of A.C. sheets.
3. _______ is used for the galvanisation of iron sheets.
um
a) Sodium
nt
b) Aluminium
ua
c) Copper
d) Zinc
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: Zinc is used for the galvanisation of iron sheets. It is done in order to prevent the rusting of iron by cutt
ks
ing the contact of iron with air or moisture.
oo
4. Which of the following is the correct formula for finding gauge in slate roofing?
_B
es
a) Gauge = (length of slate – lap)/2
b) Gauge = (lap – length of slate)/2
ot
c) Gauge = (length of slate – lap)/4

_N
d) Gauge = (lap – length of slate)/4

Answer: a
TU
Explanation: In slate roofing, the slates are fixed to the battens. The spacing of these battens is known as gauge. Gau
ge is calculated by using the formula – Gauge = (length of slate – lap)/2.
K
A
5. Which of the following is used for both pitched as well as flat roofs?
e/
t.m
a) Sheeting
b) Aluminium sheets
/
c) Decking
s:/
d) Asbestos cement sheets

tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: Decking and sheeting are the two types of lightweight roofing materials. Decking is used for both pitch
ed as well as flat roofs. Sheeting is used for only pitched roofs.
6. Aluminium roof sheeting consists of aluminium alloyed with ________
a) Silica
b) Carbon
c) Magnesium
d) Manganese
Answer: d
Explanation: Aluminium roof sheeting is the lightest of all the roofing materials. It consists of aluminium alloyed wi
th manganese. Manganese is present in a very small amount to impart strength.
7. Which type of tiles is shown in the figure below?

233 / 405
a) Pan tiles
b) Plain tiles
c) Spanish tiles
d) Inter-locking tiles
Answer: a
Explanation: The figure given above represents pan tiles. In this figure, A represents bed and B represents the nib. P
an tiles are curved while plain tiles are flat.
8. In asbestos cement sheets, the laying always begins from __________
a) Rafters
b) Hips
c) Valleys
um
d) Eaves
Answer: d
nt
Explanation: Asbestos cement sheets can be either laid from right to left or from left to right. In asbestos cement she
ua
ets, the laying always begins from eaves. Hence, the eaves course is laid first.
_Q
9. Aluminium alloy and steel decking is suitable up to a load of __________
ks
a) 0.75 kN/m2
oo
b) 1.5 kN/m2
c) 1.75 kN/m2
_B
d) 2.5 kN/m2
es
Answer: a
Explanation: Aluminium alloy and steel decking is suitable up to a load of 0.75 kN/m2. In this, the width of corrugat
ot
ion varies from 450-900 mm, the depth varies from 25-85 mm and the length is up to 10 m.
_N
10. The figure given below represents __________

TU
a) Under tile
K
b) Over tile
A
c) A.C sheet
e/
d) G.I. sheet
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: The figure given above represents over tile. In this figure, A represents the head and B represents the ta
/
il. An over tile tapers down from the tail to head while an under-tile tapers down from the head to tail.
s:/
tp
ht
1. A flat roof is the type of roof which has a slope less than __________
a) 10°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 60°
Answer: a
Explanation: Flat roof is the type of roof that has slope less than 10°. Flat roofs are used as a terrace for playing, gar
dening etc. The method of construction and maintenance of flat roofs is relatively easy.
2. Flat roofs can be made fireproof easier than pitched roofs.

234 / 405
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Flat roofs can be made fireproof easier than pitched roofs. Flat roofs have much better insulating prope
rties and are more stable against high winds.
3. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of flat roofs?
a) They are not appropriate at places of heavy rainfall

b) A flat roof has a very high self-weight
c) Location and rectification of a leak in a flat roof is difficult
d) They require less area of roofing material
Answer: d
Explanation: Some of the disadvantages of flat roofs are they are not appropriate at places of heavy rainfall, their sel
um
f-weight is very high, and location and rectification of a leak in a flat roof is difficult. However, the requirement of a
lesser area of roofing material in flat roofs is an advantage.
nt
ua
4. Which of the following is not a type of flat terraced roofing?
_Q
a) Mud-terrace roofing
b) Lime-concrete terracing
ks
c) Bengal terrace roofing
oo
d) Steel tile roofing
Answer: d
_B
Explanation: Flat terraced roofing is of various types. These are mud-terrace roofing, lime-concrete terracing, Benga
es
l terrace roofing, brick-jelly roofing, lightweight flat roofing, etc.
ot
5. Mud-terrace roofing is made of white earth mud which contains a large percentage of _________
_N
a) Magnesium
TU
b) Aluminium
c) Sodium salt
K
d) Manganese
A
Answer: c
e/
Explanation: Mud-terrace roofing is made of white earth mud which contains a large percentage of sodium salt. This
t.m
type of terracing is used in those areas where rainfall is less.

/
6. In Punjab, mud terracing is done on ________

s:/
tp
a) Teak
ht
b) Wood
c) Timber
d) Tiles
Answer: d
Explanation: In Punjab, mud terracing is done on tiles. In this, well burnt tiles of size 30 cm x 30 cm x 5 cm or 30 c
m x 15 cm x 5 cm are generally used. However, in Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, mud terracing is done on woo
d boards.
7. Brick-jelly roofing is also known as _________
a) Madras terrace roofing

b) Punjab terrace roofing
c) Maharashtra terrace roofing
d) Assam terrace roofing
235 / 405
Answer: a
Explanation: Brick-jelly roofing is also known as Madras terrace roofing. In this, specially prepared bricks of size 1
5 cm x 5 m x 12 mm are generally used and wooden joists are placed on rolled steel joists having a furring piece in b
etween.
8. In mud-phuska terracing with tile paving, bitumen is spread over the R.C.C. slabs at the rate of ________ of bitu
men per m2 of the roof surface.
a) 0.7 kg
b) 1.7 kg
c) 2.7 kg
d) 3.7 kg
Answer: b
Explanation: In mud-phuska terracing with tile paving, bitumen is spread over the R.C.C. slabs at the rate of 1.7 kg
um
of bitumen per m2 of the roof surface. A layer of coarse sand is spread over this bitumen at the rate of 0.6 cubic metr
es of sand for 100 m3 of the roof surface.
nt
ua
9. ___________ of bhusa per m3 of clay is used to prepare mud-phuska.
_Q
a) 4 kg
b) 8 kg
ks
c) 12 kg
oo
d) 15 kg
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: 8 kg of bhusa per m3 of clay is used to prepare mud-phuska. Mud-phuska terracing with tile paving is t
es
he type of terracing that is equally suitable to hot as well as arid places.
ot
10. Which of the following types of roofing is used for timber roofs of verandah?
_N
a) Mud-phuska terracing
TU
b) Bengal terrace farming

c) Punjab terrace farming
K
d) Maharashtra terrace farming

A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Bengal terrace farming is used for timber roofs of the verandah. In this type of roofing, wooden rafters
t.m
are placed on some slope. Across these rafters, wooden battens are placed at 15 c/c.
/
11. In the figure of lime concrete and tiles roofing shown below, B represents _________
s:/
tp
a) Coping
ht
b) Lime concrete
c) R.C.C. slab
d) Ceiling plaster
Answer: c
Explanation: In the figure of lime concrete and tiles roofing shown above, B represents the R.C.C. slab. In this figur
e, A represents lime concrete and C represents ceiling plaster. This type of roofing is usually adopted over reinforce
d cement concrete roofing.
12. The average thickness of the lime concrete laid in lime concrete and tiles roofing is ________
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm
236 / 405
Answer: b
Explanation: The average thickness of the lime concrete laid in lime concrete and tiles roofing is generally 10 cm. It
usually consists of 2 parts of lime, 7 parts of brick ballast and 2 parts of surkhi.
13. The speed of flat roof construction is faster than the pitched roof.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Flat roof construction has a much slower speed than the pitched roof construction. However, the initial
cost of flat roofs is much more than the pitched roofs.
14. The joints between the stone slabs in Jodhpur type roofing should be ___________ shaped.
um
a) H
b) K
nt
c) V
ua
d) T
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: The joints between the stone slabs in Jodhpur type roofing should be V-shaped. It is usually used over f
lagstone roofing. However, it can also be used over R.C.C. slab.
ks
oo
15. In Jodhpur type roofing, ralthal laid should be cured for ___________ days.
_B
a) Two
es
b) Three
c) Five
ot
d) Seven
_N
Answer: d
Explanation: In Jodhpur type roofing, ralthal is laid in order to provide proper slope to the roof. It should be cured fo
TU
r seven days. Hydraulic lime should be used in this type of roofing.

K
A

e/
t.m
1. The exposed surfaces of walls to be provided with ___________

/
a) Guniting
s:/
b) Grouting
tp
c) Pointing
ht
d) Washing
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of pointing is adopted for stone masonry or brick masonry wall plastering is carried out for
expose surfaces of ceiling, walls, column, etc.
2. The term ______________ is used to denote the finishing of mortar joints of either stone masonry on Brick maso
nry.
a) Plastering
b) Guniting
c) Pointing
d) Grouting
Answer: c
Explanation: It is desirable to avoid pointing as far as possible. This is due to the fact that the pointing involve Rakin
237 / 405
g out of joints which are constructed with a good motor and filling the joints with motor which, in many cases, is not
sufficiently watered.
3. The ________________ consists of equal volume of lime and sand.
a) Cement Mortar
b) Lime Mortar
c) Concrete
d) Slurry
Answer: b
Explanation: Lime and sand are carefully ground in motor mill. The sand to be used for preparing the lime mortar sh
ould be clean, fine and free from any organic impurities.
4. The ________________ consists of equal volumes of cement and sand.
um
a) Concrete
nt
b) Sand Mortar
ua
c) Cement mortar
d) Slurry
_Q
Answer: c
Explanation: The cement should comply with standard requirements and sand should be clean, fine and free from an
ks
y organic impurities. The material are thoroughly mixed in dry condition before water is added to them.
oo
5. _______________ type of Pointing is formed by steel or iron rod with a concave edge.
_B
es
a) Flush
b) Recessed
ot
c) Rubbed
_N
d) Beaded
Answer: d
TU
Explanation: The Beaded pointing is good in appearance. But it is difficult to maintain as it can be easily damaged.
K
6. _________________ type of pointing is formed by removing the excess motor from the joint.
A
e/
a) Struck
t.m
b) Recessed
c) Flush
/
d) Rubbed
s:/
Answer: c
tp
Explanation: The joint is made flush with the face. This type of joint does not give good appearance. But it is durabl
ht
e at the does not provide any space for accumulation of dust, water, etc. and is extensively used.
7. ______________ type of pointing is kept vertical and it is placed inside the wall surface.
a) Weathered
b) Tuck
c) Vee pointing
d) Recessed
Answer: d
Explanation: The face of the pointing is kept vertical and it is pressed inside the wall surface by a suitable tool to a d
epth of about 5 mm or more. Recessed pointing use a very good appearance.
8. In ___________ type of pointing, the face of pointing is kept inclined.

238 / 405
a) Struck
b) Tuck
c) Vee
d) Weathered
Answer: a
Explanation: In Struck Pointing, the upper edge of the joint is about 10 mm inside the face of masonry. This joint dis
poses water easily. In the lower edge of the joint is kept inside the face of masonry. It is known as the overhead struc
k Pointing.
9. In ___________ type of pointing, a groove is formed at the centre of joint.
a) Vee
b) Tuck
c) Weathered
um
d) Flush
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: In Tuck pointing, the width and depth of groove are respectively 5 mm and 3 mm. The groove is then f
ua
illed in a tuck in by white cement putty with a projection of about 3 mm. If a projection is done in the mortar, it is ca
lled as bastard pointing.
_Q
10. In __________________ type of pointing, a groove is formed at the centre of head by a pointer.
ks
oo
a) Rubbed
b) Vee
_B
c) Weathered
es
d) Beaded
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: Rubbed or Keyed or Grooved type of pointing use better appearance and is generally adopted. Whereas
_N
, Vee-pointing is a V shaped grooved that is formed in the mortar joint.

TU

K
A
1. The term __________________ is used to describe the thin plastic covering that is applied on the surface of walls
e/
and ceilings.
t.m
a) Plastering
/
b) Pointing
s:/
c) Grunting
tp
d) Grouting
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: The exposed surfaces of walls are to be provided with pointing or plastering. The process of pointing is
adopted for the stone masonry or brick masonry while plastering is carried out for exposed surfaces of ceilings, wall
s, columns, etc. The plastering removes the unevenness of the surface and sometimes the plastering is used to develo
p decorative effects.
2. The _______________ consists of an equal volume of lime and sand, and these two materials are carefully groun
d in a mortar mill.
a) Lime Mortar
b) Cement Mortar
c) Water proof mortar
d) Special mortar
Answer: a
239 / 405
Explanation: The fat lime is recommended for plaster work because the fat lime contains 75% of CaOH and it combi
nes with CO2 of atmosphere and gives CaCO3 quickly. Thus, the lime sets quickly, but it imparts low strength and
hence it can be used only for plaster work.
3. The ______________ contains particles which slake slowly as they come in contact with atmosphere.
a) Gugal mortar
b) Hydraulic Mortar
c) Cement mortar
d) Hump mortar
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to this, Hydraulic Mortar results into a blister on the surface known as blowing. The sand to be use
d for preparing this lime Mortar for plastering work should be clean, coarse and free from any organic impurities.
um
4. In order to improve the binding properties of mortar, kind of Fragrant gum ___________ is added to the lime mor
tar.
nt
ua
a) Rubber
b) Hump
_Q
c) Gugal
d) Blowing
ks
Answer: c
oo
Explanation: The quantity of Gugal is about 16 Newton per metre cube of Mortar. The Gugal is boiled with enough
quantity of fresh water before it is mixed with the lime mortar.
_B
es
5. In order to improve the adhesive and tensile properties of the lime mortar, the _________ is added to the lime mor
tar.
ot
_N
a) Steel flake
b) Rubber gum
TU
c) Carbon fibre
d) Hump
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: The quantity of Hump is about 10 Newton per metre cube of mortar. The mortar thus prepared is kept f
e/
or two days before use and it is turned once in a day to make the mortar of uniform nature.
t.m
6. The ________________ consists of one part of cement to four parts of clean, coarse and angular river sand by vol
/
ume.
s:/
tp
a) Lime Mortar
ht
b) Water proof mortar

c) Cement mortar
d) Hydraulic Mortar
Answer: c
Explanation: In cement mortar, the materials are thoroughly mixed in a dry condition before water is added to them.
The mixing of material is done on the watertight platform and the mortar of one cement bag only is prepared at a tim
e and this quantity of mortar is consumed within 30 minutes after adding water.
7. ____________________ mortar is waterproof and consists of some quantity of pulverized alum.
a) Water proof
b) Hump
c) Cement
d) Lime
240 / 405
Answer: a
Explanation: Water proof mortar is waterproof and it is prepared by mixing one part of cement, two parts of sand an
d pulverized alum at the rate of 120 Newton per metre cube of sand. In the water to be used to, 0.75 Newton of soft s
oap is dissolved for one litre of water and this soap water is added to the dry mix.
8. ________________ is the ordinary trowel and it is useful for applying mortar to mouldings, Corners, etc.
a) Gauging trowel
b) Float trowel
c) Laying trowel
d) Pointed trowel
Answer: a
Explanation: Gauging trowel has a pointed or bull nosed end. Whereas, Laying trowel is used to spread the mortar o
n the surface. It is made of thin tempered Steel.
um
9. The wooden float is known as the ______________ and it is used for final or finishing coat of plaster.
nt
ua
a) Laying trowel
b) Devil float
_Q
c) Skimming float
d) Plumb Bob
ks
Answer: c
oo
Explanation: A float provided with nails projecting by about 3 mm from the surface is known as the Devil float and i
t is used to make Zig Zag lines on the plastered surface so as to form a key for the subsequent coat.
_B
es
10. _______________ tool is used to check the level of plastered surface between the successive screeds.
ot
a) Float
_N
b) Floating rule
c) Plumb Bob
TU
d) Trowel
Answer: b
K
Explanation: Plumb Bob tool is very much useful forming screeds in the same vertical plane. In addition to the abov
A
e tools, other tools such as brushes, spirit level, Set Square, edges, etc. are used for the plastering work.
e/
t.m

/
s:/
1. The plan expanded ________________ is most commonly used and it is under patent names are available in the
tp
market.
ht
a) Wooden lath
b) Metal lath
c) Latex lath
d) Rubber lath
Answer: b
Explanation: Metal lath is prepared from sheets of mild steel which are machine cut and drawn out or expanded. A d
iamond mesh appearance is thus formed throughout the whole area of the sheet. The hybrid which is steel lath can al
so be used for this purpose.
2. The _________________ are supported and fixed with 9 mm to 12 mm diameter Steel rods or steel channels.
a) Metal laths
b) Wooden laths
241 / 405
c) Rubber laths
d) Latex laths
Answer: a
Explanation: The metal laths provided a better fire resistance construction in form of firm and solid foundation for pl
aster work. The various types of metal laths under patent names are available in the market. The ribs in the metal lat
h renders stiffness to the Steel sheet.
3. The ____________________ are the strips of wood used for plastering purpose which are selected from well seas
oned wood.
a) Metal laths
b) Latex laths
c) Rubber laths
d) Wooden laths
um
Answer: d
Explanation: In wooden lath, the strips are generally 25 mm wide and 1 m to 1.20 m long. The length of strips are ad
nt
justed to suit the spacing of timber joists. According to thickness, the wooden strips are classified into three categori
ua
es.
_Q
4. The _________________ are not useful for fire resistant construction.
ks
a) Rubber laths
oo
b) Latex laths
c) Wooden laths
_B
d) Metal laths
es
Answer: c
Explanation: Wooden laths are also likely to be attacked and damaged by the white and fungi. The thicker strips are
ot
useful for ceilings where Strain is more and thinner strips are used for walls and partitions where strain is comparati
_N
vely less.
TU
5. _________________ is the Plastering defect which is particularly seen in case of plastered surfaces inside the buil
ding.
K
A
a) Softness
e/
b) Cracks
t.m
c) Peeling
d) Blistering
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: Blistering of plastered surface is seen in the small patches swell out beyond the plane of the Plastered s
tp
urface and also it is seen in particularly in case of plastered surfaces inside the building.
ht
6. The development of fine hair cracks is known as ____________
a) Popping
b) Crazing
c) Flaking
d) Efflorescence
Answer: b
Explanation: Cracks are formed on the Plastered surface and may be hair cracks or cracks which may be easily seen.
7. The presence of soluble salts in the Plaster making material as well as building materials is due to ____________
_____
a) Flaking
242 / 405
b) Efflorescence
c) Peeling
d) Popping
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to Efflorescence, the soluble salts are present in plaster making materials as well as building mater
ial such as bricks, sand, cement, etc. Even Water used in the construction work may contain soluble salt. When a ne
wly constructed wall dries out, the soluble salts are brought to the surface and they appear in the form of white is a c
rystalline substance.
8. The formation of very small lose mass on the Plastered surface is known as the _____________
a) Peeling
b) Flaking
c) Popping
um
d) Uneven surface
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: The Flaking is mainly due to Bond failure between successive coats of plaster. Uneven surfaces becom
ua
es prominent only due to poor workmanship of the work.
_Q
9. The Plaster from some portion of the surface comes off and forming a patch is due to ________
ks
a) Popping
oo
b) Flaking
c) Peeling
_B
d) Softness
es
Answer: c
Explanation: The plaster from some portion of the surfaces comes off and a patch is formed. Such formation is term
ot
ed as the Peeling and it is also mainly due to Bond failure between successive coats of plaster.
_N
10. A conical hole in plastered surface is formed due to ___________

TU
a) Popping
K
b) Rust stains
A
c) Softness
e/
d) Uneven surface
t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: Sometimes the Plaster mix contains particles with expand on being set. A conical hole in plastered surf
/
ace is formed in front of the particle. This conical whole is known as the blow or pop.
s:/
tp
11. The excessive dampness at certain points on the Plastered surface due to ___________
ht
a) Uneven surface
b) Softness
c) Rust stains
d) Popping
Answer: b
Explanation: The chief reason of such softness are due to thickness of the finishing coat, presence of deliquescent sal
ts, excessive suction of the undercoat, etc. Hence, this leads to excessive dampness at certain points on the plastered
surface makes that portion Soft.
12. _________________ are sometimes seen on the plastered surface, especially when the Plaster is applied on the
metal lath.
a) Rust stains
243 / 405
b) Uneven surface
c) Popping
d) Peeling
Answer: a
Explanation: Whereas, the uneven surface becomes prominent only due to poor workmanship of the work. To mini
mize the defects in plastering works, some remedies should be undertaken such as the bond of bricks should be prop
erly maintained, etc.
1. __________________ surface is prepared when it is desired to give acoustical treatment to the hall or room.
a) Acoustic Plaster
um
b) Marble plaster
c) Barium plaster
nt
d) Gypsum plaster
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: The Acoustic Plastered surface is provided with minute openings that absorb the sound. The plaster is
_Q
usually applied in two coats, each having a thickness of 6 mm. The finishing of the surface should be carried out in a
such a way that it results in the formation of uniform porous surface.
ks
oo
2. _______________ is a mixture of finely crushed marble, asbestos and cement.
_B
a) Granite silicon plaster
es
b) Barium plaster
c) Asbestos marble plaster
ot
d) Acoustic plaster
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: A beautiful marble like finish is obtained by using asbestos marble plaster. Whereas, for finishing work
TU
, Acoustic plaster is preferred to use wooden floats in place of Steel floats.

K
3. ________________ is used as a final coat for surfaces of X-Ray rooms.

A
e/
a) Gypsum plaster
t.m
b) Barium plaster
c) Granite plaster
/
d) Marble plaster
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Barium plaster is used as a final coat for surfaces of X-Ray room so as to protect the person working in
ht
and around X-Ray rooms. It is essentially made from Barium sulphate.
4. ______________ settles quickly and it is highly elastic.
a) Gypsum plaster
b) Granite silicon plaster
c) Asbestos marble plaster
d) Martin cement
Answer: b
Explanation: Granite silicon plaster is therefore not liable to crack. It is used for a superior type of work. Whereas, B
arium plaster is essentially made from Barium sulphate.
5. The resulting product is hemihydrate of calcium sulphate and it is known as first settle plaster or _____________
_____
244 / 405
a) Plaster of Paris
b) Latex
c) Potassium sulphate
d) Parian cement
Answer: a
Explanation: When water is added to plaster of Paris, it hardens in three to four minutes. Hence, to extend the setting
time, suitable retarders are added to it. The usual retarders are clay, citric acid, glue, gum, starch and sugar.
6. The term _______________ plaster is used to indicate plaster of Paris with retarder.
a) Hemihydrate Gypsum
b) Keene’s cement
c) Parian cement
um
d) Sirapite
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: On heating the hemihydrate gypsum, temperature of about 200°C, the entire water of crystallization is
ua
driven off and the resulting product is known as gypsum anhydride or hard burnt plaster. The setting time of the Gyp
sum anhydride is more and to shorten it, the accelerators added to it.
_Q
7. ___________________ is a fire resistant material and it does not allow heat to pass easily.
ks
oo
a) Gypsum plaster
b) Snowcrete
_B
c) Sirapite
es
d) Scagliola
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: Hence, Gypsum plaster is used as an insulating material to protect wood or metal columns and beams f
_N
rom high temperatures. It is light in weight. To decrease the weight, the fillers such as saw dust, wood shaving, etc.
may be added to it.
TU
8. _________________ is obtained when alum is calcined with Plaster of Paris.

K
A
a) Parian cement
e/
b) Martin cement
t.m
c) Keene’s cement
d) Colourcrete Cement
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: Keene’s cement is useful for situation such as angles, skirtings, etc. as it sets hard in few days, giving
tp
white and glass like polish. Whereas borax is calcined with plaster of Paris, Parian cement is obtained. It can be used
ht
in place of Keene’s plaster.
9. _______________ is obtained by dissolving Keene’s cement and colouring pigment in glue.
a) Sirapite
b) Scagliola
c) Snowcrete
d) Colourcrete
Answer: b
Explanation: Scagliola appears like marble and is used for pilasters, panels, etc. Whereas, Sirapite is obtained when
plaster of Paris is slaked in petroleum. It is a quick setting and produces a hard white surface on drying.
10. When plaster of Paris is slaked in petroleum ________________ is obtained.

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a) Thistle
b) Snowcrete
c) Sirapite
d) Parian
Answer: c
Explanation: Sirapite is quickly setting material and produces hard white surface on drying. It is also a better fire res
istant material. Thistle hardwall is a product of high grade gypsum and it possesses a high capacity to carry sand.
1. The surface on which the first coat of plaster is applied is called as ___________
a) Dado
um
b) Dot
c) Background
nt
d) Face
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastering is done in order to prevent the moisture from entering the external surfaces of buildings. It is
_Q
also done to give a smooth and pleasing surface. The surface on which the first coat of plaster is applied is called ba
ckground.
ks
oo
2. Development of swellings on the finished plastered surface is known as __________
_B
a) Dots
es
b) Blistering
c) Dubbing
ot
d) Grinning
_N
Answer: b
Explanation: Development of swellings on the finished plastered surface is known as blistering. This is due to the pr
TU
esence of residual unslaked lime nodules. It is caused by the formation of bubbles under the film of paint.
K
3. Development of fissures in the plaster due to the movement of the background is known as _________
A
e/
a) Cracking
t.m
b) Peeling
c) Hacking
/
d) Grinning
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: Development of fissures in the plaster due to the movement of the background results in a phenomenon
ht
called cracking. Any kind of vibrations or movements in the surrounding structures can also cause cracking.
4. Development of hair cracks is known as __________
a) Cracking
b) Dubbing
c) Crazing
d) Gauging
Answer: c
Explanation: Development of hair cracks in the plastered surface is known as crazing. The cracks are made usually i
n irregular patterns over the finished plastered surface.
5. Dado is the upper part of the plastered wall.

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a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The lower part of the plastered wall is dado. It is applied for a height of 3-7 feet especially in toilets, kit
chens etc. to prevent water absorption and to make the walls smooth.
6. Small projections of plaster which are laid on background for fixing of screeds are known as ________
a) Patches
b) Balls
c) Dots
d) Points
Answer: c
Explanation: Small projections of plaster that are laid on background for fixing of screeds are known as dots. The siz
um
e of the dots is generally 15 cm x 15 cm.
nt
7. ____________ is the process of filling the hollow spaces left in the solid background.
ua
a) Dubbing
_Q
b) Gauging
c) Grinning
ks
d) Painting
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: Dubbing is the process of filling the hollow spaces left in the solid background. Dubbing is done befor
_B
e applying the main body of the plaster.
es
8. The final coat of plaster is known as ___________

ot
_N
a) Background
b) Finishing coat
TU
c) Undercoat
d) Plastered coat
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The final coat of the plaster applied to the walls and ceilings is called the finishing coat. This coat is als
e/
o called skimming coat or setting coat. Painting cannot be done until the finishing coat is applied.
t.m
9. Scaling away patches of plaster of the previous coat is called as _________

/
s:/
a) Flaking
tp
b) Distempering
ht
c) Painting
d) Grinning
Answer: a
Explanation: Scaling away patches of plaster of the previous coat is called flaking. It happens due to lack of adhesio
n with the coats of plaster applied under the finishing coat.
10. Which tool used in the plastering work is represented in the given figure?
a) Metal float
b) Floating rule
c) Wooden float
d) Steel float
Answer: b
Explanation: The given figure represents a floating rule. It is a tool which is used in the plastering work. Various oth
247 / 405
er tools used in the plastering work are a metal float, a wooden float, gauging tools etc.
1. The mixing of different constituents of plaster is called as _______
a) Flaking
b) Blooming
c) Gauging
d) Hacking
Answer: c
Explanation: The mixing of different constituents of plaster is known as gauging. A good plaster should be such that
it remains adhered to the background during all seasons. A good plaster should be hard and durable.
um
2. Wooden strips fixed to the surface on which first coat of plaster is applied are called as _________
nt
ua
a) Hooks
b) Grounds
_Q
c) Pins
d) Bars
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Wooden strips fixed to the surface on which first coat of plaster is applied are called grounds. Such a s
urface is called background. The function of these strips is to secure the primary finishing.
_B
es
3. The process of roughening the background is called as __________
ot
a) Hacking
_N
b) Plastering
c) Painting
TU
d) Damping
Answer: a
K
Explanation: Hacking is the process of roughening the background. Plastering is the method of covering rough surfa
A
ces with plaster in order to obtain an even and smooth surface.

e/
t.m
4. The thin layer of cement particles formed on excessive troweling is called ________
/
a) Undercoat
s:/
b) Peel
tp
c) Laitance
ht
d) Latch
Answer: c
Explanation: The thin layer of cement particles formed on excessive troweling of freshly laid mortar is called laitanc
e. This layer consists of fine cement particles.
5. Undercoat is the first coat of plaster applied.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Undercoat is the coat of plaster applied under the setting coat. The setting coat is the final coat of plaste
r which is also known as the finishing coat.
6. Formation of white crystalline substance which appears on the surface due to the presence of salts in materials use
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d for making plaster is called as __________
a) Cracking
b) Crystallisation
c) Efflorescence
d) Crazing
Answer: c
Explanation: Formation of white crystalline substance that appears on the surface due to the presence of salts in mat
erials used for making plaster is called efflorescence. It results in a very poor and unpleasing appearance. It can be re
moved by washing the surface repeatedly.
7. Dislodgement of plaster from the background is called as ________
a) Peeling
um
b) Plastering
c) Distempering
nt
d) Grinning
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: Dislodgement of plaster from the background is called peeling. Peeling involves the complete dislocati
_Q
on of some part of the plastered surface which results in the formation of a patch.
ks
8. Popping is the formation of a _________ hole in the plastered surface.
oo
a) Circular
_B
b) Conical
es
c) Cylindrical
d) Rectangular
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: Popping is the formation of a conical hole in the plastered surface. It is due to the presence of some par
ticles which on setting result in expansion.
TU
9. Martin’s cement plaster is obtained when __________ is calcined with POP.

K
A
a) Pearl ash
e/
b) Alum
t.m
c) Borax
d) Borane
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: Martin’s cement plaster is obtained when pearl ash is calcined with POP. It has quick setting properties
tp
and is used in internal finishing works.

ht
10. Parian cement plaster is obtained when ________ is calcined with POP.
a) Pearl ash
b) Alum
c) Borax
d) Petroleum
Answer: c
Explanation: Parian cement plaster is obtained when borax is calcined with POP. It is used in interior works. It is mo
re preferred than keene’s cement because of its less cost. Keene’s cement is obtained when alum is calcined with PO
P.

249 / 405
1. Which of the following is used for gauging small quantities of materials?
a) Gauging trowel
b) Gauging bolt
c) Metal float
d) Skimming float
Answer: a
Explanation: The end of a gauging trowel can be either pointed or bull-nosed. It is used for gauging small quantities
of materials. It can also be used for spreading mortar on corners, moldings, etc.
2. Metal float is also known as ____________
a) Gauging trowel
um
b) Laying trowel
c) Skimming trowel
nt
d) Floating rule
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: A float is used to spread mortar on the surface. It is made up of either metal or wood. Metal float is als
_Q
o known as laying trowel.
ks
3. The laying trowel is made of wood.
oo
a) True
_B
b) False
es
Answer: b
Explanation: The laying trowel is made of thin tempered steel. It is used for applying the plaster material and for tro
ot
weling in order to get the desired finish.

_N
4. The blade size of a metal float is _________

TU
a) 10 cm x 20 cm
K
b) 20 cm x 40 cm
A
c) 10 cm x 30 cm
e/
d) 30 cm x 50 cm
t.m
Answer: c
Explanation: The blade size of a metal float is generally 10 cm x 30 cm. However, the size of a wooden float varies f
/
rom 10 cm x 30 cm to 11 cm x 33 cm.
s:/
tp
5. Five types of metal floats are usually used for good work.
ht
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Two types of metal floats are usually used for good work. The first type has a stiff plate and is used for
laying and troweling the plaster while the second type has a thin plate with a slight springing action and is used for f
inishing coat.
6. Wooden float is also known as ____________
a) Gauging trowel
b) Floating rule
c) Skimming float
d) Laying trowel
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Answer: c
Explanation: Wooden float is also known as skimming float. It has a thickness of about 10-12 mm. It is used for the
finishing coat of the plaster.
7. A devil float has a nail projection of about ____________ from the surface.
a) 3 mm
b) 5 cm
c) 7 mm
d) 10 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: A devil float is a tool used to make zigzag lines on the plastered surface in order to form a key. It has a
nail projection of about 3 mm from the surface.
um
8. In the three-coat plaster, the first coat is known as _________
nt
a) Rendering coat
ua
b) Floating coat
c) Setting coat
_Q
d) Finishing coat
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: In the three coat plaster, the first coat is called the rendering coat. The second coat is called the floating
oo
coat while the third coat is called the finishing or the setting coat.
_B
9. The figure below represents _________
es
a) Spirit level
ot
b) Jointer
_N
c) Bolster
d) Plumb rule
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: The given figure represents a spirit level. It is a tool that is used to get a horizontal surface. It is also us
K
ed for levelling.
A
e/

t.m
a) Square
/
b) Jointer
s:/
c) Bolster
tp
d) Plumb rule
ht
Answer: d
Explanation: The given figure represents the plumb rule. It is a tool which is used to check the verticality of walls.
1. The mortar used for the smooth cast finish has cement and sand in the ratio of ___________
a) 1:2
b) 2:3
c) 1:3
d) 1:4
Answer: c
Explanation: The mortar used for the smooth cast finish has cement and sand in the ratio of 1:3. A smooth and levell
251 / 405
ed surface is obtained in this finish.
2. In sand faced finish, the second coat of plaster is applied after curing the first coat for __________ days.
a) 7
b) 15
c) 21
d) 27
Answer: a
Explanation: Sand faced finish is acquired by plastering in two coats. The second coat of plaster is applied after curi
ng the first coat for 7 days. The surface of the final coat is finished by rubbing clean sand of uniform size.
3. In smooth cast finish, steel floats are not recommended for external renderings.
um
a) True
b) False
nt
Answer: a
ua
Explanation: In smooth cast finish, steel floats are not recommended for external renderings. Instead, a wooden float
is used for applying the mortar. This is because steel floats give a very smooth finish which is very likely to crack w
_Q
hen exposed to atmospheric conditions.
ks
4. The first coat in sand faced finish is applied in ___________ cement sand mortar.
oo
a) 1:2
_B
b) 1:3
es
c) 1:1
d) 1:4
ot
Answer: d
_N
Explanation: The first coat in sand faced finish is applied in 1:4 cement sand mortar. However, the mortar for the sec
ond coat has cement and sand in the ratio 1:1. The first coat is provided with zigzag lines.
TU
5. In sand faced finish, the thickness of the second coat is ___________

K
A
a) 4 mm
e/
b) 8 mm
t.m
c) 12 mm
d) 15 mm
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: In sand faced finish, the thickness of the first coat is 12 mm while the thickness of the second coat is 8
tp
mm. The sand in the mortar mix for the second coat should be perfectly screened in order to obtain a uniform size re
ht
sulting in the surface having sand grains of uniform density.
6. Rough cast finish is also known as ____________
a) Dry dash finish

b) Pebble dash
c) Spatter dash finish
d) Textured finish
Answer: c
Explanation: Rough cast finish is also known as spatter dash finish. This type of finish is waterproof and durable. It i
s also resistant to cracking and crazing.
7. In rough cast finish, the mortar for the final coat has the ratio ____________ (cement: sand: aggregate).
252 / 405
a) 1 : 3/2 : 3
b) 3/2 : 1 : 3
c) 1 : 3/2 : 4
d) 1 : 1/2 : 3
Answer: a
Explanation: In rough cast finish, the mortar for the final coat has the ratio 1 : 3/2 : 3 (cement : sand : aggregate). He
re, the size of the coarse aggregate varies from 3mm to 12 mm. A large trowel is used to dash the mortar against the
prepared plastered surface.
8. Which of the following types of plaster finishes is used with stucco plastering?
a) Smooth cast finish

b) Pebble dash
c) Scrapped finish
um
d) Textured finish
Answer: d
nt
Explanation: Textured finish is used with stucco plastering. In this, suitable tools are used to make ornamental patter
ua
ns on the final coat of stucco plastering.
_Q
9. Pebble dash is also known as ___________
ks
a) Dry dash finish
oo
b) Rough cast finish
c) Wet dash finish
_B
d) Spatter dash finish
es
Answer: a
Explanation: Pebble dash is also known as dry dash finish. The mortar used in this type of finish has cement and san
ot
d in the ratio 1:3. It is applied in a thickness of 12 mm.

_N
10. In pebble dash, the size of pebbles used generally varies from ___________
TU
a) 2-5 mm
K
b) 10-20 mm
A
c) 20-35 mm
e/
d) 30-50 mm
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: In pebble dash, the size of pebbles used generally varies from 10-20 mm. These pebbles are dashed aga
/
inst the surface in order to keep them in position. The pebbles may also be lightly pressed in the mortar by using a w
s:/
ooden float.
tp
ht
1. The ________________ are coatings of fluid materials and they are applied over the surfaces of timber and metal
s.
a) Varnishes
b) Paints
c) Distemper
d) Oil
Answer: b
Explanation: Paint protect the surface from weathering effects of the atmosphere and action by other liquids, fumes
and gases. It prevents the care of wood and corrosion in metal.
253 / 405
2. The ______________________ are transparent or nearly transparent solutions of resinous material and they are a
pplied over the painted surfaces.
a) Varnishes
b) Paint
c) Distemper
d) Oil
Answer: a
Explanation: The term Varnish is used to indicate the solution of raisins or resinous substances prepared either in alc
ohol, oil or turpentine. It brightens the appearance of the grain in wood. It renders brilliancy to the painted surface.
3. ____________________ provides a smooth surface for easy cleaning.
a) Turpentine
um
b) Oil
c) Varnish
nt
d) Paint
ua
Answer: d
Explanation: Paint is used to give good appearance to the surface. The decorative effects may be created by painting
_Q
and the surface become hygienically good, clean, colourful and attractive.
ks
4. _________________ protects the painted surface from atmospheric actions.
oo
a) Distemper
_B
b) Varnish
es
c) Paint
d) Water
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: Varnish protects the unpainted wood surfaces of doors, Windows, roof trusses, floors, etc. from the acti
on of atmospheric agencies. It should render the surface glossy.
TU
5. A ________________ is a solid substance in a fine state of division and it forms the bulk of a paint.
K
A
a) Drier
e/
b) Base
t.m
c) Solvent
d) Accelerator
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: Base determines the character of the paint and imparts durability to the surface which is painted. It redu
tp
ces shrinkage cracks formed on drying and it also forms an opaque layer to obscure the surface of the material to be
ht
painted.
6. _____________________ is a carbonate of lead and it forms the base of lead Paints.
a) Lithopone
b) Titanium white
c) White lead
d) Red lead
Answer: c
Explanation: White lead possesses good bulk and is the most widely used base. It is dense, permanent and waterproo
f. It is not suitable for delicate work as lead becomes discoloured when exposed to the sulphur vapour. It is most suit
able for wood surfaces and not used for iron surfaces as it does not afford protection against rusting.
7. ____________________ is an oxide of lead and it forms the base of lead Paints.

254 / 405
a) Red Lead
b) White lead
c) Antimony white
d) Titanium white
Answer: a
Explanation: Red lead is quite suitable for painting iron surfaces and for providing of priming coat to the wood surfa
ces. It solidifies in a short time with linseed oil and hence it is used as a drier also.
8. ______________________ is an oxide of zinc and it forms the base of all zinc Paints.
a) Zinc white
b) Iron oxide
c) Aluminium powder
um
d) Lithopone
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: Oxide of Zinc or zinc oxide is smooth, transparent and non-poisonous. It is not discoloured when expo
ua
sed to the sulphur vapour. It has less bulk and hence it is costly. It is less durable and it is difficult to work.
_Q
9. _____________________ forms the base of all iron Paints.
ks
a) Titanium white
oo
b) Zinc white
c) Antimony white
_B
d) Iron oxide
es
Answer: d
Explanation: The tint of paint varies from yellowish brown to black. It mixes easily with the vehicle. It is effective i
ot
n preventing rusting of iron surfaces. It is cheap and durable. It is generally used for the priming coat of the iron surf
_N
aces.
TU
10. ___________________ forms the bulk of aluminium Paints.

K
a) Titanium white
A
b) Antimony white
e/
c) Aluminium powder
t.m
d) Lithopone
Answer: c
/
Explanation: Aluminium powder keeps moisture content of the wood surface is practically the same. It also prevents
s:/
cracking and wrapping of wood. It is generally used for a priming coat to new woodwork.
tp
ht
11. ________________ is a mixture of zinc sulphide and barites.
a) Antimony white
b) Titanium white
c) White lead
d) Lithopone
Answer: d
Explanation: Lithopone is cheap and it can easily be applied on the surface. It is similar in appearance to oxide of zi
nc. However, when exposed to Daylight, it changes colour. Hence it is used for interior work of inferior nature.
12. The _______________ are the liquid substances which hold the ingredients of a paint in liquid suspension.
a) Drier
b) Base
255 / 405
c) Solvent
d) Vehicle
Answer: d
Explanation: Vehicles are mainly required for two reasons: that is to make it possible to spread the paint evenly and
uniformly on the surface in the form of thin layer and to provide a Binder for the ingredients of paint so that they ma
y stick or adhere to the surface.
13. _________________ is most common material used as a vehicle of a paint.
a) Nut oil
b) Poppy oil
c) Linseed oil
d) Tung oil
Answer: c
um
Explanation: Linseed oil is extracted from flax seeds. The linseed oil prepared from fine full grown ripe seeds is clea
r and transparent, pale, sweet to the taste and particularly odourless. It is used in various grades.
nt
ua
14. Formerly _____________ was prepared by exposing raw linseed oil to the sun till it thickened like Honey.
_Q
a) Stand oil
b) Tung oil
ks
c) Poppy oil
oo
d) Nut oil
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: At present, the heat treatment is used for stand oil. This oil dries slowly and provides a durable, clean a
es
nd shining finish. Whereas, Tung oil is far superior to linseed oil and is used for preparing paints of superior quality.
ot
15. ________________ is thicker and darkly coloured and raw linseed oil.
_N
a) Nut oil
TU
b) Boiled linseed oil

c) Pale boiled linseed oil
K
d) Raw linseed oil

A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Boiled linseed oil is prepared by adding some quantity of dryer such as litharge or red lead to the raw o
t.m
il. It cannot be used for interior delicate work. It is used for exterior surfaces.
/
s:/

tp
ht
1. _____________________ substances accelerate the process of drying.
a) Solvent
b) Distemper
c) Drier
d) Base
Answer: c
Explanation: A drier absorbs oxygen from the air and transfer it to the linseed oil, which in turn, gets hardened. The
y may be either in the form of soluble driers or paste driers.
2. ___________________ is the most reactive of drier metals and is generally regarded as a surface drier.
a) Litharge
b) Cobalt
256 / 405
c) Red lead
d) Magnesium
Answer: b
Explanation: Cobalt is widely used as the only additive in thin film paint formulations. Lead is less reactive than Co
balt has increasing restrictions in its application because of ecological requirements. Numerous of other metals, inclu
ding cerium and vanadium, have been used occasionally and are effective driers.
3. The sulphate of _________________ is used with zinc paint so as to eliminate the risk of discoloration of a lead d
rier.
a) Manganese
b) Magnesium
c) Potassium
d) Calcium
um
Answer: a
Explanation: It is required to take extreme care in mixing sulphate of Manganese. Otherwise, the spots will be forme
nt
d on the painted surfaces.
ua
4. The function of _______________ is to make the paint thin so that it can be easily applied on the surface.
_Q
a) Pigment
ks
b) Solvent
oo
c) Carrier
d) Base
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: Solvent also helps the paint in penetrating through the porous surfaces. The most commonly used is the
spirit of turpentine. When it is desired to have a different colour than the base of a paint, colouring pigment is to be
ot
added. The pigments are available in the form of fine powders in various colours and qualities.
_N
5. The __________________ is inflammable, evaporates rapidly and dries the oil consequently.
TU
a) Distemper
K
b) Turpentine
A
c) Linseed oil
e/
d) Litharge
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: The use of a Turpentine in Paint reduces the protective value of the coating, flattens colours and lesson
/
s the gloss of the linseed oil as the spirit evaporates leaving an excess of colour not mixing with the oil.
s:/
tp
6. The _______________ is a transparent volatile liquid and it is obtained by distilling the resinous exudation of so
ht
me varieties of Pine trees.
a) Turpentine
b) Litharge
c) Red lead
d) Manganese
Answer: a
Explanation: Turpentine has a pungent order and it often adulterate with mineral oils and some of them have higher
penetration values but are otherwise inferior. The benzene and naphtha are used as a substitute.
7. __________________________ is suspended in either quick drying spirit varnish or slow drying oil varnish as pe
r requirement.
a) Aluminium paint
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b) Anti-corrosive paint
c) Asbestos paint
d) Cellulose paint
Answer: a
Explanation: In Aluminium paint, the spirit or oil evaporates and a thin metallic film of Aluminium is formed on the
surface. The advantages of an aluminium paint are: it is visible in darkness and it resists heat to a certain degree. The
surfaces of iron and steel are better protected from corrosion by this paint than any other paint.
8. ______________________ essentially consist of oil and stronger drier.
a) Asbestos paint
b) Cellulose paint
c) Cement paint
d) Anti-corrosive paint
um
Answer: d
Explanation: A pigment such as chromium oxide or lead or red lead or zinc chrome is taken and after mixing it with
nt
some quantity of very fine sand, it is added to the anti corrosive paint. The advantages of anti corrosive paint are: it i
ua
s cheap and it last for long duration.
_Q
9. _______________ is prepared by dissolving Asphalt or mineral pitches or Vegetable bitumen in any type of oil o
r Petroleum.
ks
oo
a) Bituminous paint
b) Asbestos paint
_B
c) Cement paint
es
d) Colloidal paint
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: A variety of bituminous paint is available. The paint presents a black appearance and it is used for pain
_N
ting iron work underwater. Whereas, Asbestos is a peculiar type of paint and it is applied on the surfaces which are e
xposed to the acidic gases and steam.
TU
10. __________________ is prepared from nitro cotton, celluloid sheets, photographic films, etc.
K
A
a) Colloidal paint
e/
b) Emulsion paint
t.m
c) Cellulose paint
d) Enamel paint
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: A cellulose paint hardens by evaporation of cleaning agent. It hardens quickly. It is little more costly, b
tp
ut it presents a flexible, hard and smooth surface. Also, the surface painted with cellulose paint can be washed and e
ht
asily cleaned.
11. ___________________ consists of white cement, pigment, accelerator and other additives.
a) Colloidal paint
b) Cement paint
c) Emulsion paint
d) Enamel paint
Answer: b
Explanation: Cement paint is available in dry powder form. The cement paint is available in a variety of shades and i
t exhibits excellent decorative appearance. It is waterproof and are likely to become damp after painting. For externa
l finish, on cement plastered walls, it is mixed with water immediately before its application.
12. ______________________ contains binding material such as polyvinyl Acetate, synthetic resins, etc.
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a) Colloidal paint
b) Emulsion paint
c) Enamel paint
d) Graphite paint
Answer: b
Explanation: Emulsion paint is easy to apply and it drives quickly about 1 to 2 hours. The colour of paint is retained
for a long period and the surface of paint is tough and it can be cleaned by washing with water.
13. ____________________ contains white lead, zinc white, oil, Petroleum spirit and resinous matter.
a) Graphite paint
b) Inodorous paint
c) Enamel paint
um
d) Luminous paint
Answer: c
nt
Explanation: Enamel paint dries slowly and forms hard and durable surface. The surfaces provided with this paint is
ua
not affected by acids, Alkaline, fumes of gas, hot and cold water, steam, etc. It can be used for both internal and exte
rnal walls.
_Q
14. _____________________ contains calcium sulphide with varnish.
ks
oo
a) Oil paint
b) Plastic paint
_B
c) Inodorous paint
es
d) Luminous paint
Answer: d
ot
Explanation: The surface on which Luminous paint is applied shines like radium dials of watches after the source of
_N
light has been cut off. The paint should be applied on the surfaces which are free from corrosion or any other lead pa
int.
TU
15. ___________________ contains the necessary variety of plastic and it is available in the market under different t
K
rade names.
A
e/
a) Oil paint
t.m
b) Plastic paint
c) Luminous paint
/
d) Inodorous paint
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: The application of plastic paint can be done either by brushing painting or spray painting. This paint po
ht
ssesses pleasing appearance and it is attractive in colour. This paint is widely used for showrooms, auditoriums, etc.
1. ___________________ defects is caused by the water vapour which is trapped behind the painted surface.
a) Flaking
b) Fading
c) Blistering
d) Flashing
Answer: c
Explanation: In Blistering, there is the formation of bubbles under the film of paint. It may occur from various cause
s such as in perfect seasoning of timber, excess oil used in final coat, etc.
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2. In ________________ defect, the formation of dull patches occurs on the finished polished surface.
a) Flaking
b) Bloom
c) Fading
d) Flashing
Answer: b
Explanation: Bloom is due to the defect in Paint or bad ventilation. Whereas, the gradual loss of colour is known as t
he Fading and it is mainly due to the effect of Sunlight on the pigment of paint.
3. A small portion of the painted surface is sometimes seen lose, it is known as the ___________
a) Flashing
um
b) Flaking
c) Grinning
nt
d) Running
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: Flaking is due to poor adhesion. And when a vertical on the inclined surface is too thickly painted, the
_Q
defect of sagging occurs.
ks
4. The glossy patches which are seen on the painted surface resembles the defect of _______________
oo
a) Flashing
_B
b) Saponification
es
c) Wrinkling
d) Sagging
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Flashing is due to poor workmanship, cheap paint or weather actions. And when a vertical or inclined s
urfaces is too thickly painted, the defect of Sagging occurs.
TU
5. The formation of soap patches on the painted surface is termed as the ___________
K
A
a) Wrinkling
e/
b) Running
t.m
c) Sagging
d) Saponification
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: Saponification is due to the chemical action of alkaline. When a horizontal surface is too thickly painte
tp
d , the defect of Wrinkling becomes prominent.

ht
6. The appearance of clear background due to insufficient opacity is known as ____________
a) Running
b) Sagging
c) Wrinkling
d) Grinning
Answer: d
Explanation: When the final coat of paint has not sufficient opacity, the background is clearly seen. This is known as
the Grinning. When a horizontal surfaces is too thickly painted, the defect of Wrinkling becomes prominent.
7. ___________________ defect occurs when surface to be painted is too smooth.
a) Sagging
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b) Running
c) Grinning
d) Wrinkling
Answer: b
Explanation: The paint runs back and leaves small area of surface un covered. Hence running defect occurs when the
surface to be painted is too smooth. Whereas, Saponification occurs due to the chemical action of alkaline.
8. The __________________ is a hard substance and is available from the Earth at the place where pine trees exist i
n past.
a) Lac
b) Copal
c) Shellac
d) Rosin
um
Answer: b
Explanation: Copal is a hard substance that is available in a variety of forms. The Lac or shellac is obtained by exud
nt
ation of some types of insects in India. The Rosin is obtained from Pine trees.
ua
9. Boiled linseed oil is used as a solvent for ___________ resin.
_Q
a) Amber
ks
b) Mastic
oo
c) Gum
d) Rosin
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: Depending upon the nature of reason, the type of solvent is decided. Whereas, Mastic is used in turpent
ine.
ot
_N
10. The __________ varnishes dry slowly, but they form hard and durable surface.
TU
a) Oil
b) Spirit
K
c) Water
A
d) Turpentine
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: In fact, oil varnishes are the hardest and the most suitable varnishes. They are specially adapted for exp
osed work which requires frequent cleaning.
/
s:/
tp

ht
1. The term ____________ is used to indicate the solution of resins or resinous substances prepared either in alcohol
, oil or turpentine.
a) Turpentine
b) Varnish
c) Oil
d) Distemper
Answer: b
Explanation: The main objectives of applying varnish on a wooden surface are- it brightens the appearance of grain i
n wood; it renders brilliancy to the painted surface; it protects the painted surface from atmospheric action; it protect
s the unpainted wooden surface of Doors, Windows, etc., from the action of atmospheric agencies.
2. The __________ is obtained by exudation of some types of insects in India.

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a) Mastic
b) Lac
c) Copal
d) Gum
Answer: b
Explanation: The commonly used resins are copal, lac or shellac and rosins. The copal is a hard substance and is ava
ilable from the Earth at places near Pine trees exist in past. It is available in a variety of forms.
3. The Function of a __________ in varnish is to accelerate the process of drying.
a) Solvent
b) Resin
c) Coolant
um
d) Drier
Answer: d
nt
Explanation: The function of a dryer in Varnish is to accelerate the process of drying. The common dryers used in va
ua
nishes are Litharge, white copper and lead acetate. Depending upon the nature of resin, the type of solvent is decided
.
_Q
4. __________________ are specially adapted for exposed works which require frequent cleaning.
ks
oo
a) Oil Varnish
b) Spirit Varnish
_B
c) Water Varnish
es
d) Turpentine Varnish
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: The linseed oil is used as a solvent in oil vanishes. The hard resins such as Amber and Copal are dissol
_N
ved in linseed oil and if the Varnish is not workable, a small quantity of turpentine is added. The oil vanishes dry slo
wly, but they form hard and durable surface for cleaning.
TU
5. The methylated Spirits of wine are used as a solvent in __________

K
A
a) Spirit Varnish
e/
b) Turpentine Varnish
t.m
c) Water Varnish
d) Oil Varnish
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: The Spirit Varnish dry quickly. The resins are of soft variety such as Lac or shellac. But they are not du
tp
rable and are easily affected by weathering actions.

ht
6. The French polish is a variety of __________ class of varnish.
a) Oil
b) Spirit
c) Water
d) Turpentine
Answer: b
Explanation: The French polish is one of the finest finish for ornamental furniture prepared for superior quality of w
ood. The desired colouring tinge can be obtained by the addition of suitable colouring pigment in Spirit vanishes.
7. The turpentine is used as a solvent in ____________ type of Varnish.
a) Turpentine
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b) Water
c) Methylated
d) Oil
Answer: a
Explanation: The resins adopted for turpentine varnishes are of soft variety such as gum dammar, Mastic and Rosen.
These varnishes dry quickly and possess light colours. They are not durable and tough as oil vanishes.
8. The main objective of applying _____________ to the plastered surfaces is to create a smooth surface.
a) Gum
b) Varnish
c) POP
d) Distemper
Answer: d
um
Explanation: The Distempers are available in the market under different trade names. They are cheaper than Paints a
nd varnishes and they present a neat appearance. They are available in a variety of colours.
nt
ua
9. On drying, film of distemper ___________
_Q
a) Swells
b) Disappears
ks
c) Shrinks
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d) Thickens
Answer: c
_B
Explanation: The distemper possesses the property of shrinkage on drying. Hence it leads to cracking and flaking, if
es
the surface to receive distemper is weak. The coating of distemper are usually thick and they are more brittle than ot
her types of water paints.
ot
_N
10. The _______________ are now widely used for developing decorative finishing of interior walls and they are m
ade exclusively from paper.
TU
a) Whitewashing
K
b) Coatings
A
c) Wall papers
e/
d) Plaster of Paris
t.m
Answer: c
Explanation: Wall papers maybe unprimed, Primed, embossed, metal coated, etc. They are available in one colour or
/
multi colour patterns printed on the face surface. The surface on which wallpaper is to be fixed is dried, levelled and
s:/
make free from chalk or lime solution.

tp
ht
11. _________________ is commonly used for whitewashing.
a) Silicon
b) Distemper
c) Lime
d) Carbonate
Answer: c
Explanation: The fresh lime is slaked at site of work and mixed thoroughly with a sufficient quantity of water in a tu
b. It is then screened through a clean cloth. The clean gum dissolved in hot water is then added at the rate of 20 New
ton per metre cube of lime. The rice may be used in place of gum.
12. ___________________ is prepared by adding the colouring pigment to the screened whitewash.
a) Colourwash
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b) Paint
c) Distemper
d) Turpentine
Answer: a
Explanation: The colourwash is applied in the same fashion as the White wash. A satisfactory work done not give ou
t power when the finished surface is rubbed with the fingers. The process of colour washing imparts cleanliness and
pleasant experience of the surface which are treated.
1. White wash is prepared from ____________
a) Quick lime
um
b) Slaked lime
c) Fat lime
nt
d) Hydraulic lime
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: Whitewash is prepared from fat lime. It is also known as white lime. It is hydrated calcium oxide and s
_Q
ets by absorbing carbon dioxide from the air.
ks
2. While preparing whitewash, how many grams of gum dissolved in hot water is needed per cubic metre of lime cre
oo
am?
_B
a) 500 gm
es
b) 1000 gm
c) 1500 gm
ot
d) 2000 gm
_N
Answer: b
Explanation: While preparing whitewash, 1000 grams of gum dissolved in hot water is needed per cubic metre of li
TU
me cream. Sometimes, rice can also be used in the place of gum.

K
3. Crystals of calcium carbonate formed by fat lime are not very strong.
A
e/
a) True
t.m
b) False
Answer: a
/
Explanation: Crystals of calcium carbonate formed by fat lime are not very strong. Due to this, fat lime does not pos
s:/
sess much strength. It is used for various purposes such as whitewashing, plastering of walls etc.
tp
ht
4. While preparing whitewash, how many kilograms of sodium chloride dissolved in hot water is needed for every 1
0 kg of lime?
a) 1 kg
b) 1.3 kg
c) 2 kg
d) 2.3 kg
Answer: b
Explanation: While preparing whitewash, 1.3 kg of sodium chloride dissolved in hot water is needed for every 10 kg
of lime. Sodium chloride makes the process of carbonation of calcium hydroxide quick which helps in the making t
he coating hard.
5. _____________ is used to apply whitewash.

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a) Bevel
b) Chisel
c) Trowel
d) Moonj
Answer: b
Explanation: Moonj is used to apply whitewash. It is essential to use a proper method for preparing as well as for ap
plying whitewash in order to get a neat and clean finish.
6. While preparing whitewash, up to how many grams of ultra-marine blue is added per kg of lime?
a) 3 gm
b) 30 gm
c) 200 gm
d) 300 gm
um
Answer: a
Explanation: While preparing whitewash, up to three grams of ultra-marine blue is added per kg of lime. It is usually
nt
added to the last two coats of the solution. Ultra-marine blue is a blue colored pigment of sodium aluminosilicate co
ua
ntaining sulphur.
_Q
7. Which of the following is generally used as a pigment for colour washing?
ks
a) Blue vitriol
oo
b) White vitriol
c) Orange vitriol
_B
d) Brown vitriol
es
Answer: a
Explanation: Color washing is obtained by adding coloured pigment to the whitewash. Blue vitriol is generally used
ot
as a pigment for colour washing. Blue vitriol is hydrated copper sulphate with 5 molecules of water of crystallisation
_N
.
TU
8. Before doing whitewashing on the _________ whitewashing on ___________ must be done.

K
a) Walls, doors
A
b) Ceilings, walls
e/
c) Walls, ceilings
t.m
d) Walls, windows
Answer: c
/
Explanation: The specified number of coats needed to apply whitewash is generally three. Each coat must be allowe
s:/
d to dry before the application of the next coat. Before doing whitewashing on the walls, whitewashing on ceilings
tp
must be done.
ht
9. In colour washing, the first coat should be of ____________
a) Colour wash
b) White wash
c) Mixture of colour wash and white wash
d) Paint
Answer: b
Explanation: Minimum number of coats of colour wash in colour washing is two. The first coat should be of whitew
ash only. The subsequent coats should be of colour wash. Colour wash is applied in the same way as that of whitewa
sh.
10. Fifty litres of water is needed per kg of unslaked lime in the preparation of whitewash.
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a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Five litres of water is needed per kg of unslaked lime in the preparation of whitewash. It is allowed to s
tand for 24 hours. Fat lime is slaked at the site using proper methods.
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of sound?
a) Intensity
b) Frequency
c) Speed
um
d) Quality
Answer: c
nt
Explanation: There are three characteristics of sound. These are intensity and loudness, frequency and pitch, and qua
ua
lity or timbre.
_Q
2. Sound travels faster in gases than in solids.
ks
a) True
oo
b) False
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: A sound wave is a longitudinal wave. Sound is transmitted in the form of these longitudinal waves whi
es
ch are a series of compressions and rarefactions created in the medium through which the sound propagates. The vel
ocity of the sound depends on the medium through which it travels. Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
ot
_N
3. The velocity of sound in bricks is __________

TU
a) 1450 m/sec
b) 343 m/sec
K
c) 3000 m/sec
A
d) 4300 m/sec
e/
Answer: d
t.m
Explanation: The velocity of sound in air at 20°C is 343 m/sec. The velocity of sound in bricks is 4300 m/sec while t
hat in concrete is 4000 m/sec.
/
s:/
4. The intensity of sound is proportional to __________ of amplitude.

tp
ht
a) Square root
b) Cube root
c) Square
d) Cube
Answer: c
Explanation: Intensity is the amount of wave energy passing through a unit area per unit time. The area taken is perp
endicular to the direction of the propagation of the wave. The intensity of sound is proportional to the square of the a
mplitude.
5. Which of the following relations between loudness and intensity is correct?
a) I log L
b) I log L2
c) L log I
266 / 405
d) L log I2
Answer: c
Explanation: Loudness is related to intensity by the relation L log I where L is the loudness and I is the intensity
of sound. The loudness of a sound is the degree of sensation which depends on the intensity of sound and the sensiti
vity of eardrums while intensity is purely a physical quantity.
6. Which law states that the magnitude of a sensation is directly proportional to the logarithm of the physical stimulu
s producing it?
a) Beer-Lambert law
b) Huygens–Fresnel law
c) Lorentz law
d) Weber and Fechner’s law
Answer: d
um
Explanation: Weber and Fechner’s law states that the magnitude of a sensation is directly proportional to the logarith
m of the physical stimulus producing it. For example, loudness which corresponds to the magnitude of the sensation
nt
is proportional to the logarithm of the intensity of the sound.
ua
7. The intensity of sound depends on the ear of the listener.
_Q
a) True
ks
b) False
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: Intensity of sound is independent of the ear of the listener. However, loudness does depend on the ear o
_B
f the listener. There is a possibility that the same listener gives different judgments about the loudness of sounds hav
es
ing the same intensity but different frequencies.
ot
8. _________ is the number of cycles made by a sounding body per unit time.
_N
a) Amplitude
TU
b) Frequency
c) Intensity
K
d) Loudness
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Frequency is the number of cycles made by a sounding body per unit time. It is used to distinguish a sh
t.m
rill sound from a grave one. It is the reciprocal of the time period.
/
9. The amount of sound transmitted outside a room depends on the surface while the amount of sound reflected or a
s:/
bsorbed depends on the sound insulation properties of the surface.

tp
ht
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three phenomenons that happen when sound waves strike the surface of a room. These are re
flection, absorption and transmission. The amount of sound transmitted outside a room depends on the sound insulat
ion properties of the surface while the amount of sound reflected or absorbed depends on the surface.
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Pitch of the sound increases with increase in frequency

b) Pitch of the sound decreases with increase in frequency
c) Decibel is equal to 1/100 of bel
d) Increase in the amplitude of the sound decreases the intensity
Answer: a
267 / 405
Explanation: Pitch of the sound increases with an increase in frequency. Decibel is equal to 1/10 of bel. An increase
in the amplitude of the sound increases the intensity.
1. For an echo to be distinguished as separate, it should reach the ear _________ of a second after the direct sound.
a) One-fourth
b) One-fifth
c) One-eighth
d) One-tenth
Answer: d
Explanation: An echo is a defect that is caused due to the reflection of sound waves. For an echo to be distinguished
um
as separate, it should reach the ear one-tenth of a second after the direct sound.
nt
2. Sound waves reflected at a convex surface are diminished.
ua
a) True
_Q
b) False
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: Sound waves reflected at a concave surface are diminished while the sound waves reflected at convex s
oo
urfaces are large and magnified. A convex surface is used to spread the sound waves throughout the room and a con
cave surface is used for the concentration of reflected waves at certain points.
_B
es
3. Reverberation time is directly proportional to ____________
ot
a) Effective surface area

_N
b) Lateral surface area

c) Volume of the room
TU
d) Shape of the room

Answer: c
K
Explanation: The time during which the sound persists is known as the reverberation time. As a result of experiment
A
s performed by Professor W.C. Sabine, reverberation time is directly proportional to the volume of the room and inv
e/
ersely proportional to the effective surface area.

t.m
4. In the Sabine’s expression for reverberation time t=0.16V/A, A represents __________

/
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a) Area of the room

tp
b) Volume of the room

ht
c) Total absorbing power

d) Total adsorbing power
Answer: c
Explanation: In Sabine’s expression for reverberation time t=0.16V/A, A represents total adsorbing power. It is expr
essed in m2 sabines. In this expression, V represents the volume of the room in cubic metres.
5. Rock wool comes under which of the following classifications of absorbents?
a) Porous materials
b) Resonant panels
c) Cavity resonators
d) Composite types
Answer: a
Explanation: Absorbents are broadly classified as porous materials, resonant panels, cavity resonators and composite
268 / 405
types. Rock wool is an example of porous material. Other examples of porous materials are glass wool, wood wool,
etc.
6. The unit of absorption is ____________
a) Poise
b) Stoke
c) Siemens
d) Sabin
Answer: d
Explanation: The unit of absorption is the open window unit which is known as a sabin. It is named after the scientis
t who established this unit. The unit of sound absorbed by one square metre of a fully open window is m2-sabin.
7. Reverberation time is independent of the shape of the room.
um
a) True
nt
b) False
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: Professor Sabine found that the reverberation time is independent of the shape of the room. This time is
_Q
also independent of the position of the source of the sound and the listener.
ks
8. The absorption of a surface is the product of the __________ of the surface and its absorption coefficient.
oo
a) Length
_B
b) Area
es
c) Volume
d) Width
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: The absorption of a surface is the product of the area of the surface and its absorption coefficient. The a
bsorption coefficient is used to indicate the sound reducing the effect of an absorber which depends on its area and o
TU
n the efficiency of the material.

K
9. In which of the following absorbents, absorption takes place due to the frictional losses occurring due to the to an
A
d fro movement of the air contained in the material caused by the sound waves?
e/
t.m
a) Cavity resonators
b) Resonant panels
/
c) Porous materials
s:/
d) Composite types
tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: In porous materials, absorption takes place due to the frictional losses occurring due to the to and fro m
ovement of the air contained in the material caused by the sound waves. These materials absorb sound generally in h
igher frequencies.
10. Which of the following types of absorbents can absorb the sound of any frequency?
a) Resonant panels
b) Cavity resonators
c) Porous materials
d) Composite types
Answer: b
Explanation: Cavity resonators can absorb the sound of any frequency. Porous materials absorb sound at high freque
ncies while resonant panels absorb sound only at lower frequencies.
269 / 405
1. Which of the following is not an acoustical defect?
a) Reverberation
b) Formation of echoes
c) Absorption
d) Sound foci
Answer: c
Explanation: Some of the common acoustical defects are reverberation, the formation of echoes, exterior noise and s
ound foci. Absorption is the property of the sound wave by which a part of its energy is absorbed by friction when it
strikes a surface.
um
2. Excessive reverberation is caused due to __________
nt
a) Sufficient absorption
ua
b) Sufficient adsorption
c) Insufficient absorption
_Q
d) Insufficient adsorption
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: Excessive reverberation is caused due to insufficient absorption. Reverberation is the continuation of th
oo
e sound in space even after the source of sound has been removed.
_B
3. The formation of echoes can take place when the reflecting surfaces are located at a distance greater than _______
es
___
ot
a) 7 m
_N
b) 10 m
c) 13 m
TU
d) 17 m
Answer: d
K
Explanation: The formation of echoes can take place when the reflecting surfaces are located at a distance greater th
A
an 17m. This defect can be removed by making surfaces highly absorbent.

e/
t.m
4. Sound foci is a defect caused by _____________ interior surfaces.

/
a) Convex refracting
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b) Concave refracting
tp
c) Convex reflecting
ht
d) Concave reflecting
Answer: d
Explanation: Sound foci is a defect caused by concave reflecting interior surfaces. It is because of the concentration
of the reflected sound waves at certain spots. This defect can be removed by avoiding curvilinear interiors.
5. Sound intensity is high at dead spots while it is low at sound foci.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Sound foci involves the concentration of sound waves at certain spots creating high sound intensity. De
ad spots are the points where there is a deficiency of the reflected sound waves. Hence, sound intensity is high at sou
nd foci and low at dead spots.
270 / 405
6. Proper shape of the hall can help in preventing the formation of echoes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Echoes are formed due to the unsuitable shape of the hall/auditorium. Hence, the proper shape of the h
all can help in preventing the formation of echoes.
7. Colouring of sound quality is caused due to _________
a) Uncontrolled resonance
b) Controlled resonance
c) Unsuitable shape of halls
d) Vehicles
um
Answer: a
Explanation: Coloring of sound quality is caused due to uncontrolled resonance. Another cause of this defect is selec
nt
tive absorption. In order to remove this defect, wood panel absorbents are used which resonate over a wide range of
ua
frequency.
_Q
8. The branch of science which deals with origin and propagation of sound is called as ___________
ks
a) Thermodynamics
oo
b) Acoustics
c) Anemology
_B
d) Optics
es
Answer: b
Explanation: The branch of science which deals with origin and propagation of sound is called acoustics. Thermody
ot
namics is the study of the flow of heat, anemology is the study of wind and optics is the branch of science dealing wi
_N
th the study of light.

TU
9. Which of the following is not a property of good acoustic materials?

K
a) They have a low coefficient of absorption

A
b) They are comparatively cheap

e/
c) They are durable

t.m
d) They are efficient over a wide frequency range

Answer: a
/
Explanation: Good acoustic materials are comparatively cheap and durable. They have a high coefficient of absorpti
s:/
on and are efficient over a wide frequency range.

tp
ht
10. The absorption ratio of a surface is the ratio of ___________
a) Sound absorbed to reflected sound energy

b) Sound absorbed to incident sound energy
c) Reflected sound energy to incident sound energy
d) Incident sound energy to reflected sound energy
Answer: b
Explanation: The absorption ratio of a surface is the ratio of sound absorbed to incident sound energy. The sound red
ucing the effect of an absorber is dependent on its area and on the efficiency of the material. It is indicated by the so
und absorption coefficient.

271 / 405
1. In the acoustical design of a hall or an auditorium, the angle between the side walls and the curtain line should not
be more than _________ degrees.
a) 20
b) 150
c) 100
d) 180
Answer: c
Explanation: In the acoustical design of a hall or an auditorium, the angle between the side walls and the curtain line
should not be more than 100 degrees. The shape of the hall is an extremely important factor in view of better audibil
ity.
2. For lecture halls, large volumes are beneficial for weak sounds.
um
a) True
b) False
nt
Answer: b
ua
Explanation: For lecture halls, small volumes are beneficial for weak sounds. However, for music halls, the volume
should be large in order to have enough space for the music to spread in the hall.
_Q
3. The width of the seats in an auditorium should be between __________
ks
oo
a) 10-15 cm
b) 13-21 cm
_B
c) 26-37 cm
es
d) 45-56 cm
Answer: d
ot
Explanation: The seats in an auditorium should be arranged in concentric arcs of circles drawn with the centre situat
_N
ed as much behind the centre of the curtain line as its distance is from the rear wall of the auditorium. The width of t
he seats in an auditorium should be between 45-56 cm.
TU
4. In a studio, the noise level should be brought down to ___________

K
A
a) 5-10 dB
e/
b) 10-15 dB
t.m
c) 20-30 dB
d) 50-60 dB
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: In a studio, the noise level should be brought down to 20-30 dB. The acoustic design of the studio shou
tp
ld be such that any kind of echoes is completely eliminated.

ht
5. The recommended volume for a public lecture hall is ___________
a) 1.5-2.5 m3 per person

b) 2.5-3.5 m3 per person
c) 3.5-4.5 m3 per person
d) 5.5-6.5 m3 per person
Answer: c
Explanation: The recommended volume for a public lecture hall is 3.5-4.5 m3 per person. While the volume recom
mended for cinemas is 4.0-5.0 m3 per person and that for musical halls is 4.0-5.5 m3 per person.
6. The average height for small halls should be _________
a) 3 m
272 / 405
b) 6 m
c) 8 m
d) 10 m
Answer: b
Explanation: The average height for small halls should be 6 m while the average height for large halls should be 7.5
m. The height is determined by various factors such as ventilation, presence of balcony, type of performance etc.
7. The auditorium rear wall should be concave in shape.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The auditorium rear wall should not be concave in shape. It should be either flat or convex in shape.
um
8. In the acoustical design of a studio, the ratio of height, breadth and length of the studio should be _________
nt
a) 1:3:5
ua
b) 2:3:5
c) 1:3:7
_Q
d) 2:3:7
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: In the acoustical design of a studio, the ratio of height, breadth and length of the studio should be 2:3:5.
oo
The walls of the studio should be of rigid construction in order to insulate the external noise completely.
_B
9. The interior surfaces of walls in a studio should be of ________ materials.
es
a) Absorbent
ot
b) Adsorbent
_N
c) Reflective
d) Refractive
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: The interior surfaces of walls in a studio should be of absorbent materials. However, the outer surfaces
K
of the walls should be of the reflective type. Provision of windows should be minimum in order to prevent the noise
A
from outside.
e/
t.m
10. Rotatable cylinders are provided in the ceiling of a studio in order to obtain variable __________
/
a) Amplitude
s:/
b) Frequency
tp
c) Reverberation time
ht
d) Intensity
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotatable cylinders are provided in the ceiling of a studio in order to obtain variable reverberation time
. Each cylinder consists of three sectors with three different absorptive materials. It can also be obtained by providin
g hinged panels or shutters.
1. Calculate the transmission loss given the sound levels measured on either side of the wall is 60 dB and 40 dB.
a) 20 dB
b) 100 dB
c) 60 dB
273 / 405
d) 2400 dB
Answer: c
Explanation: Reduction in the sound intensity during the transmission of sound from the source to the adjoining area
is known as transmission loss. The transmission loss is numerically equivalent to the loss in the sound intensity in d
ecibels. Hence, it is given by 60-40 dB = 20 dB.
2. Hard materials used for sound insulation are good absorbers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Sound insulation is a measure which is used to reduce the level of sound when it passes through an ins
ulating component of the building. Hard materials that are used for sound insulation are poor absorbers. However, so
und absorbers are poor sound insulators.
um
3. The sound insulation of plastered solid brick masonry walls varies as __________
nt
ua
a) Weight per unit volume
b) Weight per unit area
_Q
c) Log of weight per unit volume
d) Log of weight per unit area
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: The sound insulation of plastered solid brick masonry walls varies as the log of weight per unit area. T
he sound insulation of all the other non-porous homogeneous rigid partitions varies in the same way.
_B
es
4. Felt and mineral wool are examples of ___________
ot
a) Non-porous rigid partitions

_N
b) Porous rigid materials

c) Non-rigid porous materials
TU
d) Non-rigid non-porous materials

Answer: c
K
Explanation: Felt and mineral wool are examples of non-rigid porous materials. These materials are not usually used
A
for the purpose of noise reduction because the sound insulation provided by them is low as compared to the rigid m
e/
aterials.
t.m
5. In rigid homogeneous walls, the transmission loss of a one-brick wall is _________

/
s:/
a) 10 dB
tp
b) 20 dB
ht
c) 50 dB
d) 70 dB
Answer: c
Explanation: In rigid homogeneous walls, the transmission loss of a one-brick wall is 50 dB. The transmission loss o
f a one and a half brick thick wall is 53 dB and that of a half brick thick wall having 13 mm thick plaster on both sid
es is 45 dB.
6. In cavity wall construction for soundproofing, the width of the cavity should be at least _________
a) 3 cm
b) 5 cm
c) 8 cm
d) 12 cm
Answer: b
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Explanation: In cavity wall construction for soundproofing, the width of the cavity should be at least 5 cm. This type
of construction ideal from the point of view of soundproofing. The cavity is either left air-filled or filled with some
resilient material.
7. The sound insulation offered by rigid homogenous walls decreases with the increase in the thickness of the wall.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A rigid wall is comprised of stone, brick or concrete masonry plastered on one or both sides. The soun
d insulation offered by rigid homogenous walls depends on the weight per unit area and it decreases with the increas
e in the thickness of the wall.
8. Insulation of __________ over a base concrete floor is obtained by using resilient surface material on floors.
um
a) 1-5 dB
nt
b) 5-10 dB
ua
c) 12-15 dB
d) 17-25 dB
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: An insulation of 5-10 dB over a base concrete floor is obtained by using resilient surface material on fl
ks
oors. It consists of providing soft floor finish over a thin concrete screed provided as the R.C.C. slab.
oo
9. Concrete floor floating construction provides good insulation against __________ sounds.
_B
es
a) Impact
b) Air-borne
ot
c) Water-borne
_N
d) Structural
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: Concrete floor floating construction provides good insulation against impact sounds. In this type of con
struction, an additional floor is constructed and isolated from the already existing concrete floor.
K
A
10. Which of the following constructions is effective against both air-borne and structure-borne sounds?
e/
t.m
a) Timber floor floating construction

b) Use of resilient surface material
/
c) Timber floor with suspended ceiling and air space

s:/
d) Concrete floor floating construction

tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: Timber floor with suspended ceiling and air space construction is effective against both air-borne and s
tructure-borne sounds. The extent of improvement effected is dependent on the weight of the ceiling and on the struc
tural rigidity.
1. The word Acoustic is originally derived from a Greek word meaning _________
a) to write
b) to speak
c) to hear
d) to absorb
Answer: c
275 / 405
Explanation: Hence, the Acoustic is defined as the science of sound and as such, discusses the origin, propagation an
d auditory sensation of sound.
2. A _______________ is produced when part of the atmosphere is compressed suddenly.
a) Vacuum
b) Heat
c) Smog
d) Sound
Answer: d
Explanation: The compression produced in the atmosphere is propagated or spread away from the source. Hence, the
Sound travels in the form of waves and when these waves come near over ear drums, we feel the sensation of hearin
g.
um
3. A _________________ produced by sound may shatter windows and can cause damage to the Plaster of walls.
nt
a) Wind blow
ua
b) Sonic boom
c) Explosion
_Q
d) Lighting
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: A sonic boom is very destructive in nature. But the most unfortunate case is when the sound damages t
oo
he delicate organ to receive it, namely, the human ear. Hence, the sound pollution is a very concern problem.
_B
4. The speed at which the sound wave travels or passed through any medium is termed as the ______________
es
a) Sound speed
ot
b) Sound velocity
_N
c) Sound intensity
d) Frequency
TU
Answer: b
Explanation: Sound velocity depends on the nature and the temperature of the medium through which the sound Tra
K
vels. The sound velocity is different for different mediums.

A
e/
5. For atmospheric air medium, the sound velocity at 20°C is about ________
t.m
a) 340
/
b) 1305
s:/
c) 338
tp
d) 2600
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed at which the sound wave travels or passed through any medium is termed as the Sound velo
city. It depends on the nature and the temperature of the medium through which sound travels.
6. The ________________ is defined as the number of pressure variation which a sounding body makes in each uni
t of time.
a) Note
b) Pitch
c) Wavelength
d) Intensity
Answer: b
Explanation: The greater the number of variations, the higher will be the Pitch. The intensity of sound is defined as t
he flow of sound energy per unit of time through a unit area.
276 / 405
7. ______________ is a measure of quantity of sound energy.
a) Wavelength
b) Frequency
c) Intensity
d) Loudness
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between the two terms intensity of sound and loudness should also be noted. The intensi
ty of sound is purely a physical quantity that can be accurately measured and it is independent of ear of listener.
8. The ________________ is the degree of sensation.
a) Hearing
um
b) Frequency
c) Loudness
nt
d) Intensity
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: The intensity of sound and loudness are totally different terms. The intensity of sound is purely physica
_Q
l quantity whereas loudness is not wholly physical, but partly subjective and it does depend on the ear of listener.
ks
9. According to International agreement, the frequency is measured in ________
oo
a) Meters
_B
b) Watts
es
c) Hertz
d) Tesla
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: The range of human ear is very wide extending from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz. It may be noted that the range
from the lowest to the highest note of the piano is about 27.5 Hz to 4186 Hz.
TU
10. The speed of sound is taken as __________

K
A
a) 340 m/s
e/
b) 3.40 m/s
t.m
c) 3400 m/s
d) 0.34 m/s
/
b) 1 to 1000000
s:/
c) 10000 to 10000000
tp
d) 1 to 130
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: The wavelength of sound i.e. the physical distance in air from one wave top to the next can be found o
ut by knowing its speed and frequency with the help of formula or equation. For acoustics and sound measurement p
urposes, the speed of sound is taken as 340 m/s.
11. The range of audible sound too painful noise varies from ________ decibel.
a) Loudness
b) Intensity
c) Pitch
d) Note
Answer: b
Explanation: But this wide range is covered on logarithmic scale between 1 to 130 db units. One db unit is approxim
ately the smallest change of sound intensity which the human ear is able to appreciate.
277 / 405
1. The defect of ___________ results in confusion with the sound created next.
a) Echoes
b) Sound foci
c) Dead spots
d) Reverberation
Answer: d
Explanation: The defect of excessive reverberation is very common in many auditoriums. The effect is that the soun
d once created prolonged for a longer duration resulting in confusion with the sound created next. The remedy of thi
s defect is to correct the time of reverberation by suitably installing the absorbent materials.
um
2. Because of high concentration of reflected sound at the Sound foci, there is a deficiency of reflected sound at som
nt
e point known as __________
ua
a) Live spots
_Q
b) Dead spots
c) Sound foci
ks
d) Reverberation
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: The sound level and at dead spots is generally inadequate for satisfactory hearing. This defect can be re
_B
medied by the installation of the suitable diffuser so as to have even distribution of sound in the hall.
es
3. The formation of ___________ takes place when the reflecting surfaces are situated at a distance greater than 17
ot
M or so.
_N
a) Live spots
TU
b) Loudness
c) Echoes
K
d) Noise
A
Answer: c
e/
Explanation: When the reflecting surfaces are situated at a distance greater than 17 meters or so and when the shape
t.m
of the Auditorium is unsuitable, the formation of echoes takes place. This defect can be removed by selecting proper
shape of the Auditorium and by providing rough and porous interior surfaces to disperse the energy of a Echoes.
/
s:/
4. In case of concave reflecting interior surfaces ________ are formed where reflected sound waves meet and create
tp
a sound of larger intensity.

ht
a) Sound foci
b) Dead spots
c) Exterior noise
d) Interior noise
Answer: a
Explanation: Sound foci is observed where reflected sound wave meet and create a sound of larger intensity. This de
fect can be eliminated by avoiding curvilinear interiors or by providing highly absorbent materials on the focusing ar
eas.
5. _______________ defect is due to the lack of reflecting surfaces near the source of sound and excessive absorptio
n of sound in the hall.
a) Exterior noise
278 / 405
b) Loudness
c) Interior noise
d) Echoes
Answer: b
Explanation: The remedies to correct loudness defect consist in arranging hard reflecting surfaces near the source of
sound and in adjusting the absorption of the hall so as to give an optimum time of reverberation. Also, the location o
f loudspeakers should be carefully adjusted.
6. _______________ defect is due to poor sound insulation.
a) Exterior noise
b) Interior noise
c) Loudness
d) Echoes
um
Answer: a
Explanation: The exterior noise enters the Auditorium either through loose doors and windows on walls and other st
nt
ructural elements having in proper sound insulation. The exterior noise is developed by vehicles, factories, cooling p
ua
lants, etc. The remedy to correct this defect is to provide suitable sound insulation.
_Q
7. The term __________ is used to indicate a big room or a hall where sound is picked up by a microphone and it in
cludes the radio broadcasting station, television station, etc.
ks
oo
a) Concert hall
b) Auditorium
_B
c) Studio
es
d) Recreational hall
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: The basic requirements of a studio will be to have perfect soundproofing and to have variable reverbera
_N
tion time as per nature of sound produced in it. The acoustic design of a studio require special precaution to be under
taken for its effective working.
TU
8. ____________ is a very important consideration in the acoustic design of an Auditorium and it involves geometri
K
cal aspects of the hall.

A
e/
a) Site selection
t.m
b) Seating arrangement
c) Shape
/
d) Sound absorption
s:/
Answer: c
tp
Explanation: A fan shop floor plan gives better performance. The concave walls are not good for acoustic purposes a
ht
s they tend to concentrate sound waves. The plain walls are better. But the convex walls are excellent and are used to
reduce the possibilities of equals to the minimum extend.
9. The adequate absorbing surfaces should be provided in the hall to control the ____________
a) Loudness
b) Noise
c) Reverberation
d) Dead spots
Answer: c
Explanation: As a matter of fact, the acoustic design of an Auditorium will be incomplete without the provision of re
verberation. The careful study of the hall should be made before recommending the type of absorbent material and it
s location in the hall.
279 / 405
10. ______________ is very important to control the noise pollution near an Auditorium area.
a) Seating arrangement
b) Site selection
c) Balcony
d) Volume
Answer: b
Explanation: If the site is not situated in a quiet place, elaborate costly arrangements will have to be made to have an
acoustically good hall. For auditoriums without air conditioning and requiring doors and windows to be kept open d
uring the performance, the orientation should be such that the external noise is permitted to the minimum possible ex
tent.
um
1. The term _________ is used to mean the free passage of clean air in a structure.
nt
ua
a) Circulation
b) Ventilation
_Q
c) Dissipation
d) Condensation
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: In other words, the removal of all vitiated air from a building and its replacement with fresh air is know
n as ventilation. It is important from the engineering viewpoint for various reasons.
_B
es
2. For comfortable working, the ___________ content should be limited to about 0.6% by volume.
ot
a) Oxygen
_N
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon monoxide
TU
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: d
K
Explanation: It is observed that breathing is difficult when the amount of carbon dioxide by volume is about 6% and
A
a man loses consciousness when it reaches about 10% or so. The more the amount of carbon dioxide, the more diffic
e/
ult is the breathing.

t.m
3. The difference of temperature between the outside air and inside air tends to the deposition of moisture in the roo
/
m surfaces known as ___________

s:/
tp
a) Ventilation
ht
b) Diffusion
c) Condensation
d) Dissipation
Answer: c
Explanation: The proper and sufficient ventilation results in the absence of condensation. It can be effectively contro
lled by the provision of suitable ventilation of the room.
4. Where people are working, there has to be ______________ to cause proper ventilation of the premises.
a) Air change
b) Humidity
c) Temperature
d) Moisture
Answer: a
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Explanation: The minimum and maximum rates of air change per hour is 1 and 60 respectively. If the rate of change
is less than 1/hour, it will not create any appreciable effect of the ventilation system. On the other hand, at the rate of
air changes more than 60/hour, it will result in discomfort due to high velocities of air.
5. The rate of amount of water vapour present to the amount it would have contained, had it been saturated, is know
n as the ___________ the temperature being same.
a) Relative humidity
b) Saturated air
c) Dry bulb temperature
d) Wet bulb temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: When a certain volume of air at a certain temperature contents as much water vapour as it can, it is said
to be Saturated air. Generally, the air is not saturated at all times. But it contains a certain amount of water vapour i
um
n it.
nt
6. For working a temperature of 21 degree Celsius, range of 30% to 70% of ____________ is desirable.
ua
a) Saturated air
_Q
b) Dry bulb temperature
c) Relative humidity
ks
d) Wet bulb temperature
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: The value of relative humidity is obtained by comparing dry bulb and wet bulb temperature. For higher
_B
temperatures, the low humidity and greater air movements are necessary for removing greater portion of heat from t
es
he body.
ot
7. The ________________ plays an important role in the comfort of persons affected by ventilation system.
_N
a) Carbon monoxide
TU
b) Purity of air
c) Volume of room
K
d) Health of occupant
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: The air should be free from odours, organic matter, inorganic dust and unhealthy fumes of gases such a
t.m
s carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and Sulphur Dioxide, etc. All the above impurities depend on the habits of occup
ants, volume of a room, source of ventilating air, etc.
/
s:/
8. It is quite evident that the incoming air for ventilation should be ________ in summer and ________ in winter bef
tp
ore it enters the room.

ht
a) cool, warm
b) warm, cool
c) humid, dry
d) dry, humid
Answer: a
Explanation: The usual difference of temperature between inside and outside is kept as about 8°C to 10°C. With reg
ards to human comfort, the term effective temperature is used. It is an index which combines the effect of air movem
ents, humidity and temperature.
9. __________________ is an index which combines the effect of air movement, humidity and temperature.
a) Saturated air
b) Effective humidity
281 / 405
c) Dry bulb temperature
d) Effective temperature
Answer: d
Explanation: Effective temperature indicates the temperature of air at which sensation of same degree of cold or war
mth will be experienced as in quite a fully saturated at the same temperature. Thus, if two rooms have the same effec
tive temperature, no change of temperature will be experienced by a person when he suddenly leaves one room and
enters the room.
10. The value of ______________ depends on type of activity, geographical conditions, age of occupants, etc.
a) Saturated air
b) Relative humidity
c) Effective temperature
d) Condensation
um
Answer: c
Explanation: The popular values of effective temperature in winter and summer or 20°C and 22°C respectively. It sh
nt
ould however be remembered that the effective temperature indicates same feeling of cool or warmth. But it results i
ua
n human comfort only when it is correlated with humidity and air movements.
_Q
11. In ______________ system, the use is made of doors, windows, ventilators and skylights to make the room prop
erly ventilated.
ks
oo
a) Artificial ventilation
b) Air conditioning
_B
c) Natural ventilation
es
d) Mechanical ventilation
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: Natural ventilation is useful for small buildings and it cannot be adopted for big offices, theatres, audit
_N
oriums, etc. The only advantage of the system is that it is economical in the sense that no special equipment is neces
sary for making the room adequately ventilated and that is affords living under natural conditions.
TU
12. In _____________ system, some mechanical arrangement is adopted to provide enough ventilation to the room.
K
A
a) Natural ventilation
e/
b) Skylight
t.m
c) Artificial ventilation
d) Man made
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: Mechanical or Artificial ventilation has become popular due to recent change in notion regarding ventil
tp
ation. At present, the ventilation is required not nearly to furnish warm air or cool air. But the ventilation system sho
ht
uld provide air of such qualities regarding humidity, temperature, etc.
13. Exhaust system, supply system, air conditioning, etc. comes under ________ type of ventilation system.
a) Natural
b) Mechanical
c) Man made
d) Doors
Answer: b
Explanation: The mechanical system is costly, but it results in a considerable increase in the efficiency of the person
under the command of the system. This system is adopted for big offices, banks, industrial plants, theatres, etc.
14. In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the room by exhausting the vitiated inside air
by fans or blowers.
282 / 405
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust
Answer: d
Explanation: In exhaust system, the extraction of air from inside sets of the current of fresh air from outside to inside
and thus, it becomes possible to provide fresh air to the room through doors and windows. The fans or blowers are i
nstalled at suitable places in the outside wall and they are connected to different rooms through duct system.
15. _______________ system is just the reverse of the exhaust system.
a) Air conditioning
b) Exhaust
um
c) Plenum
d) Supply
nt
Answer: d
ua
Explanation: Supply system consist in supplying fresh air to the room by installing input fans in outside walls. This s
ystem is used for ventilating rooms near an unusual quantity of heat or odours is not produced.
_Q
ks
oo
1. Combination system consist of supply system and __________ system.
_B
es
a) Plenum
b) Air conditioning
ot
c) Exhaust
_N
d) Natural
Answer: c
TU
Explanation: The combination of exhaust and supply system gives better results. The exhaust fans and input fans are
installed and suitable places in the outside walls so as to cause a current of fresh air from outside to inside of the roo
K
m.
A
e/
2. In _______________ process, the fresh air is forced in the room and the vitiated air is allowed to leave the room b
t.m
y itself or is extracted by outlet fans.

/
a) Plenum
s:/
b) Air conditioning
tp
c) Exhaust
ht
d) Supply
Answer: a
Explanation: The Plenum process may be employed for downward ventilation or upward ventilation. In the former c
ase, the incoming air is allowed to enter at the ceiling height and while mixing with the vitiated air during its downlo
ad journey, it is taken out through outlets situated at floor level.
3. The term __________ is used to indicate the science of controlling air with respect to humidity, temperature, mov
ement of air, bacteria content, etc.
a) Air conditioning
b) Circulation
c) Condensation
d) Conditioning
Answer: a
283 / 405
Explanation: Air conditioning is the most effective system of artificial ventilation and as it involves many other aspe
cts. It is so as to make the air to suit the physiological requirements of the human body or to the needs of industrial p
rocesses.
4. ________________ are made of mats or screens of split wire or glass wool or such other material and coated with
non drying viscous oil.
a) Dry filters
b) Water sprays
c) Electric precipitator
d) Viscous filters
Answer: d
Explanation: The viscous filters maybe of unit type or automatic type. In the former type, the Mats are replaced whe
n they become dirty or they are washed and recoiled. In the latter type, an endless chain moving over the mats is pro
um
vided.
nt
5. __________________ are used to collect the valuable chemical or mineral dusts.
ua
a) Dry filters
_Q
b) Viscous filters
c) Water filters
ks
d) Electric precipitator
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: The initial cost of electric precipitators is high, but the operation cost is low. A strong electric field is d
_B
eveloped and dust particles are subjected to this electric field are attracted towards negative electrode. The sufficient
es
quantity of dust particles deposited on the negative electrode is removed at intervals.
ot
6. In winter, it becomes necessary to supplied slightly _________ air to the inside of the building.
_N
a) Cool
TU
b) Heated
c) Humid
K
d) Dehumidified
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: During winter, heating of air will also compensate for heat loss from the room. The preheating of inco
t.m
ming air may be carried out by warm air furnaces or by coils around which hot water or steam is circulating. The inc
oming air is allowed to pass over warm air furnaces before it enters the room.
/
s:/
7. In summer, it is necessary to supply ___________ air inside the room before it enters the room.
tp
ht
a) Dehumidified
b) Humid
c) Cool
d) Heated
Answer: c
Explanation: The cooling can be carried out by mechanical refrigeration or water spray or by cold water. In mechani
cal refrigeration system, volatile refrigerant is compressed, cooled and allowed to expand and then, it is passed throu
gh coils. Such coils absorb heat from the incoming air.
8. _____________ is the process by which the required amount of moisture is added in the air.
a) Dehumidification
b) Humidification
c) Absorption
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d) Condensation
Answer: b
Explanation: For humidification, the income air is allowed to pass through pans of water or wetted cloth strips. For h
umidifying a huge quantity of air, the spray humidifiers may be employed.
9. ________________ is the process by which the required amount of moisture is taken out from the air.
a) Condensation
b) Dehumidification
c) Humidification
d) Absorption
Answer: b
Explanation: The Dehumidification may be carried out by first bringing down the temperature of air below the Dew
Point, then condensing out the required quantity of moisture from it and then reheating the air with dry heat upto the
um
desired temperature.
nt
10. The _________ are the substances which allow moisture to stay on their surfaces.
ua
a) Refrigerant
_Q
b) Coolant
c) Adsorbent
ks
d) Absorbent
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: The commonly used Adsorbents are Silica Gel and activated Alumina. When sufficient amount of mois
_B
ture is collected on absorbents, they can be reactivated by heating.
es
11. In Summer, the outside air is hot and hence the process of air conditioning involves filtering, dehumidification a
ot
nd _________
_N
a) Reheating
TU
b) Pre heating
c) Humidification
K
d) Adsorption
A
Answer: a
e/
Explanation: The temperature of inside air will be lower than that of outside air and it will be economical to recircul
t.m
ate a part of the room air. The summer air conditioning consists of filters that dehumidified the air and then it is follo
wed by reheating.
/
s:/
12. In Winter, the outside air is cool and hence, the process of air conditioning involves filtering, preheating and ___
tp
__________
ht
a) Dehumidification
b) Humidification
c) Condensation
d) Circulation
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature of inside air will be higher than that of outside air and it will be economical to recircul
ate a part of room air. In winter air conditioning the circulated air is passed through filters and then it is preheated an
d humidified.
13. ________________ are made of sheet metal of suitable size and shape to convey the conditioned air.
a) Outlets
b) Pumps
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c) Grills
d) Ducts
Answer: d
Explanation: The ducts are to be carefully design with regard to pressure, velocity and volume of air. The ducts shou
ld be so shaped than located that even distribution of conditioned air takes place in a room.
14. The location of _________ depends on various factors such as structural features, composition of openings, heig
ht of room, etc.
a) Inlets
b) Outlets
c) Pumps
d) Ducts
Answer: b
um
Explanation: The outlets maybe situated in ceiling or Wall. The Ceiling outlets maybe in the form of diffuser, pans o
r perforated panels. The air is discharge at the ceiling level.
nt
ua
15. The ____________ of suitable type may be used to distribute air inside the room.
_Q
a) Grills
b) Pumps
ks
c) Ducts
oo
d) Ceilings
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: The selection of air conditioning pumps should be made while keeping in view its efficiency, capacity,
es
available motive power, permissible noise level, etc. Whereas, the wall outlets maybe take various form such as diff
user, grills, etc.
ot
_N

TU
1. If the direction of the wind is at 90° to one of the faces, positive pressure will be produced on __________
K
A
a) Windward face
e/
b) Leeward face
t.m
c) Two windward faces

d) Two leeward faces
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: If the direction of the wind is at 90° to one of the faces, positive pressure will be produced on the wind
tp
ward face. Positive pressure will be produced on two windward faces if the direction of the wind is at 45° to one of t
ht
he faces.
2. The rate of ventilation depends on both the wind effect and the stack effect.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of ventilation depends on both wind effect and the stack effect. In ventilation due to wind effe
ct, the rate depends on the direction and velocity of the wind outside. In ventilation due to the stack effect, the rate is
affected by the convection effects.
3. The rate of flow through an opening due to the wind blowing on the wall containing it is given by the expression
___________
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a) Q = KV/A
b) Q = KA/V
c) Q = AV/K
d) Q = KAV
Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of flow through an opening due to the wind blowing on the wall containing it is given by the e
xpression where Q = rate of air flow in m3/h, A = area of the smaller opening in square metres, K is the coefficient o
f effectiveness and V is the wind speed in m/h.
4. If the direction of the wind is at 45° to one of the faces, negative pressure will be produced on __________
a) Windward face
b) Leeward face
c) Two windward faces
um
d) Two leeward faces
Answer: d
nt
Explanation: If the direction of the wind is at 45° to one of the faces, negative pressure will be produced on two lee
ua
ward faces. Negative pressure will be produced on one leeward face if the direction of the wind is at 90° to one of th
e faces.
_Q
5. The rate of flow of air arising due to the difference in temperature of outside and inside is given by the expression
ks
____________
oo
a) Q = 320 C.A. h(T-t)½
_B
b) Q = 320 C.A. x h(T-t)
es
c) Q = 640 C.A. h(T-t)½
d) Q = 640 C.A. x h(T-t)
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: The rate of flow of air arising due to the difference in temperature of outside and inside is given by the
expression Q = 640 C.A. h(T-t)½. Here, C stands for coefficient of effectiveness, Q is the rate of air flow in m3/h, A
TU
is the free area of the inlet opening, h is the vertical height difference between inlet and outlet, T is the average temp
erature of inside air and t is the average temperature of outside air in degree Celcius.
K
A
6. In the expression for finding the rate of flow of air arising due to the difference in temperature of outside and insi
e/
de, the coefficient of effectiveness for general conditions is taken as ___________

t.m
a) 0.35
/
b) 0.65
s:/
c) 0.85
tp
d) 1.5
ht
Answer: b
Explanation: In the expression for finding the rate of flow of air arising due to the difference in temperature of outsi
de and inside, coefficient of effectiveness for general conditions is taken as 0.65. However, it is taken as 0.50 in the
case of unfavorable conditions.
7. The coefficient of effectiveness decreases with the relative size of the larger opening.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of effectiveness increases with the relative size of the larger opening. It depends on the
direction of the wind relative to the opening.
8. Calculate the flow of air through two square openings of size 0.36 m with the wind blowing at a speed of 5 km/h.
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Given the value of K is 0.3.
a) 174.4 m3/h
b) 194.4 m3/h
c) 267.4 m3/h
d) 234.4 m3/h
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow through an opening is given by the expression Q = K.A.V. Therefore, the flow of air through
two square openings of size 0.36 m with the wind blowing at a speed of 5 km/h is 0.3 x 0.36 x 0.36 x 5000 = 194.4
m3/h.
9. Ventilation arising from the temperature difference between outside and inside takes place due to ____________
effect.
um
a) Stack
b) Stark
nt
c) Zeeman
ua
d) Spark
Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: Ventilation arising from the temperature difference between outside and inside takes place due to the st
ack effect. When the temperature of the inside air is higher than the outside air, warmer air passes through the openi
ks
ng situated in the upper part of the room while the cooler air enters the room via the lower openings.
oo
10. According to the Indian Standard Code IS: 3362-1977, in the case of natural ventilation, flow per unit area of the
_B
opening is greatest when the inlet and outlet openings are of nearly equal __________
es
a) Lengths
ot
b) Volumes
_N
c) Areas
d) Mass
TU
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the Indian Standard Code IS: 3362-1977, in the case of natural ventilation, flow per unit a
K
rea of the opening is greatest when the inlet and outlet openings are of nearly equal areas. Also, inlet openings shoul
A
d be located on the windward side and outlet openings should be located on the leeward side.
e/
t.m

/
s:/
1. The maximum rate of air change is __________

tp
ht
a) 30 per min
b) 30 per hour
c) 60 per min
d) 60 per hour
Answer: d
Explanation: Air change per hour is defined as the volume of outside air allowed in a room per hour as compared to
the volume of the room. The maximum rate of air change is 60 per hour while the minimum rate of air change is 1 p
er hour.
2. Removal of inside air and supply of fresh outside air in a closed room is known as _________
a) Ventilation
b) Absorption
c) Adsorption
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d) Transmission
Answer: a
Explanation: Removal of inside air and supply of fresh outside air in a closed room is known as ventilation. It is nec
essary for the creation of air movement and for preventing suffocation conditions in big rooms. It is also important i
n order to prevent the accumulation of dust particles.
3. Relative humidity of saturated air is ___________
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 80%
d) 100%
Answer: d
Explanation: Relative humidity is the ratio of the amount of water vapour present in the air to the amount of vapour i
um
f the air were saturated, provided the temperature remains the same. Hence, relative humidity of saturated air is 100
%.
nt
ua
4. Clean air should contain less than __________ of suspended impurity per cubic metre.
_Q
a) 0.5 mg
b) 1.5 mg
ks
c) 2.5 mg
oo
d) 3.5 mg
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: Clean air should contain less than 0.5 mg of suspended impurity per cubic metre. Also, it should have l
es
ess than 0.5 part per million of SO . Air should be free from toxic fumes of gases and harmful particles.
ot
5. The general temperature difference between inside and outside of a room is not more than ____________
_N
a) 3°C
TU
b) 5°C
c) 6°C
K
d) 8°C
A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: The general temperature difference between inside and outside of a room is not more than 8°C. It is pre
t.m
ferable that the incoming ventilating air should be warm in winters and cool in summers.
/
s:/

tp
ht
1. Room air conditioners and packaged units are examples of _________
a) Direct expansion systems

b) Indirect expansion systems
c) Chilled water systems
d) Indirect contraction systems
Answer: a
Explanation: Air conditioning systems are classified into two categories. These are direct expansion systems and chi
lled water systems. Room air conditioners and packaged units are examples of direct expansion systems.
2. Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?
a) Compressor
b) Condenser
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c) Chiller
d) Evaporator
Answer: c
Explanation: Packaged air conditioners consist of a compressor, condenser, evaporator and a fan. Unlike packaged a
ir conditioners, chilled water system consists of an additional item called the chiller.
3. In a chilled water system, the refrigerant is used to cool the air directly while in the direct expansion system, a sec
ondary medium like water is used to cool the air.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In the direct expansion system, the refrigerant is used to cool the air directly while in the chilled water
system, a secondary medium like water is used to cool the air. In the chilled water system, the refrigerant first cools t
um
he water and then the water cools the air.
nt
4. In which component of the chilled water system, the return air and the fresh air mixture is filtered?
ua
a) Fan coil unit
_Q
b) Ducting grill
c) Compressor
ks
d) Evaporator
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: In the chilled water system, the return air and the fresh air mixture is filtered in the fan coil unit. Here, i
_B
n addition to filtration, the mixture is cooled and dehumidified. After this, it is distributed to the conditioned space th
es
rough ducting and grills.
ot
5. Which of the following qualities is not possessed by the filters in the air conditioning system?
_N
a) They should be capable of removing dust particles from the incoming air
TU
b) They should afford easy cleaning

c) They should offer low frictional resistance to the airflow
K
d) They should offer high frictional resistance to the airflow

A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: The filters in the air conditioning system should be capable of removing dust particles from the incomi
t.m
ng air. They should afford easy cleaning and should offer low frictional resistance to the airflow.
/
6. Viscous type filters are made of screens of spilt wire and coated with non-drying viscous oil in order to catch and
s:/
remove the dust particles from the incoming air.

tp
ht
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Viscous type filters are made of screens of spilt wire and coated with non-drying viscous oil in order to
catch and remove the dust particles from the incoming air. They can be of two types – unit type or automatic type.
7. Which of the following types of filters used in the air conditioning system is made of cloth that is discarded on get
ting dirty?
a) Viscous type filters

b) Dry filter
c) Spray washers
d) Electric precipitators
Answer: b
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Explanation: Filters used in air conditioning system are of various types. There are viscous type filters, dry filters, sp
ray washers and electric precipitators. A dry filter is made of cloth such as flannel, that is discarded on getting dirty.
8. Which of the following statements about electric precipitators is false?
a) They are used to remove dust by providing a strong electric field

b) Their initial installation cost is high
c) Their operational cost is low
d) Dust particles get attached to the positive electrode
Answer: d
Explanation: Electric precipitators are used to remove dust by providing a strong electric field. In an electric precipit
ator, the dust particles get attached to the negative electrode. Their initial installation cost is high but their operationa
l cost is low.
um
9. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air is known as ___________
nt
a) Heating
ua
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
_Q
d) Dehumidification
Answer: d
ks
Explanation: The process of extraction of a certain required amount of water from air is known as dehumidification.
oo
This can be achieved by condensation or desiccation. Humidification is the addition of water to air.
_B
10. Which of the following is capable of absorbing excess moisture from the air?
es
a) Silica gel
ot
b) Charcoal
_N
c) Salts of calcium or ammonia

d) Activated alumina
TU
Answer: c
Explanation: Absorbents like salts of calcium or ammonia are capable of absorbing excess moisture from the air. Ho
K
wever, the adsorbents like silica gel and activated alumina allow moisture to stay only at the surface.
A
e/
t.m

/
1. According to Indian Standards, it is recommended that the overall thermal transmittance of a roof should not be m
s:/
ore than _______ kcal/m2 h deg C.

tp
ht
a) 2.00
b) 5.00
c) 7.00
d) 9.00
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Indian Standards, it is recommended that the overall thermal transmittance of a roof shoul
d not be more than 2.00 kcal/m2 h deg C. It is also recommended that the thermal dampness of a roof should be less
than 75%.
2. The process of direct transmission of heat through a material is known as __________
a) Conduction
b) Radiation
c) Thermal insulation
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d) Thermal energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of direct transmission of heat through a material is known as conduction. The amount of h
eat transfer by this process depends on various factors like temperature difference, the conductivity of the medium, t
he time for which the flow takes place etc.
3. Thermal insulation keeps the room cool in winters and hot in summers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal insulation keeps the room hot in winters and cool in summers which results in comfortable liv
ing. It minimises heat transfer and helps in saving fuel to maintain the desired temperature in the room.
um
4. The amount of heat flow through a unit area of material of unit thickness in one hour, when the temperature differ
ence is maintained at 1°C is known as ___________ of the material.
nt
ua
a) Thermal conductivity
b) Thermal resistivity
_Q
c) Thermal conductance
d) Thermal resistance
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: The amount of heat flow through a unit area of material of unit thickness in one hour, when the temper
ature difference is maintained at 1°C is known as the thermal conductivity. It is denoted by k. Its units are W/(mK).
_B
es
5. The reciprocal of thermal conductivity is known as __________
ot
a) Thermal conductance
_N
b) Surface resistance
c) Specific conductance
TU
d) Thermal resistivity
Answer: d
K
Explanation: The reciprocal of thermal conductivity is known as thermal resistivity. It is given by 1/k. Its units are (
A
mK)/W.
e/
t.m
6. Which of the following is the correct relationship between thermal resistance and thermal conductivity?
/
a) R = k/L
s:/
b) R = k.L
tp
c) R = L/k
ht
d) R = L2/k
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal resistance and thermal conductivity are related by the equation R = L/k. Here, R is the thermal
resistance, k is the thermal conductivity and L is the thickness. Thermal resistance is the reciprocal of thermal cond
uctance.
7. Surface resistance is the reciprocal of __________
a) Surface coefficient
b) Surface resistivity
c) Surface conductance
d) Surface conductivity
Answer: a
Explanation: Surface resistance is the reciprocal of the surface coefficient. It is given by 1/f where f denotes the surf
292 / 405
ace coefficient. Its units are (m2K)/W.
8. Thermal damping is given by the equation D = (T-t/T) x 100. Here, T denotes _________
a) Outside temperature range

b) Inside temperature range
c) Total outside and inside temperature range
d) Thickness
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal damping is given by the equation D = (T-t/T) x 100. Here, T denotes outside temperature rang
e and t denotes inside temperature range. Also, thermal damping is denoted by D.
9. Which of the following is the correct relation between thermal transmittance and thermal time constant?
um
a) T = Q x U
b) T = k/U
nt
c) T = Q/U
ua
d) T = U/Q
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: Thermal transmittance and thermal time constant are related by the equation T = Q/U. Here, T denotes
the thermal time constant, U is the thermal transmittance and Q is the quantity of heat stored.
ks
oo
10. Which of the following is not a quality of a good thermal insulating material?
_B
a) It should be durable
es
b) It should have a low thermal resistance
c) It should be readily available
ot
d) It should be fireproof
_N
Answer: b
Explanation: A good thermal insulating material should be durable. It should have high thermal resistance. It should
TU
be fireproof and readily available.

K
11. Reflective sheet materials used as thermal insulating material have ___________ reflectivity and __________ e
A
missivity.
e/
t.m
a) High, high
b) High, low
/
c) Low, low
s:/
d) Low, high
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: Reflective sheet materials used as thermal insulating material have high reflectivity and low emissivity.
Because of this property, it offers high heat resistance.
12. Thermal insulation of roofs can be obtained by covering the top exposed surface of the roof with ________
a) 2.5 cm thick layer of mud mortar

b) 2.5 cm thick layer of coconut pitch cement concrete
c) 7.5 cm thick layer of mud mortar
d) 7.5 m thick layer of coconut pitch cement concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal insulation of roofs can be obtained by covering the top exposed surface of the roof with 2.5 c
m thick layer of coconut pitch cement concrete. Coconut pitch cement concrete is prepared by mixing coconut pitch
with water and cement.
293 / 405
13. Presence of moisture in the thermal insulating material increases thermal insulation while the presence of air spa
ces decreases thermal insulation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Presence of moisture in the thermal insulating material decreases thermal insulation while the presence
of air spaces increases thermal insulation. The choice of the thermal insulating material depends on various factors li
ke cost of material, area to be covered, coat of heating or cooling, etc.
14. According to the Indian Standards, it is recommended that thermal damping of a wall should not be less than ___
____
a) 40%
um
b) 50%
c) 60%
nt
d) 80%
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the Indian Standards, it is recommended that the thermal damping of a wall should not be
_Q
less than 60%. Hence, it is also recommended that the thermal time constant should not be less than 16 h.
ks
15. According to Indian Standards, overall thermal transmittance of a wall should not be more than __________ kca
oo
l/m2 h deg C.
_B
a) 1.3
es
b) 2.2
c) 3.7
ot
d) 4.6
_N
Answer: b
Explanation: According to Indian Standards, overall thermal transmittance of a wall should not be more than 2.2 kca
TU
l/m2 h deg C. Heat insulation of exposed walls can be achieved by increasing the thickness of the wall.
K
A

e/
t.m
1. Which of the following is not a classification of rocks from which building stones are obtained?
/
a) Geological classification
s:/
b) Biological classification
tp
c) Physical classification
ht
d) Chemical classification
Answer: b
Explanation: Rocks from which building stones are obtained are classified into three categories – geological classific
ation, physical classification and chemical classification. According to geological classification, rocks are further div
ided into three categories – igneous rocks, sedimentary rocks and metamorphic rocks.
2. Dolerite is an example of ________ rock.
a) Plutonic
b) Sedimentary
c) Hypabyssal
d) Volcanic
Answer: c
Explanation: Dolerite is an example of a hypabyssal rock. Hypabyssal rocks are types of igneous rocks which are for
294 / 405
med due to colling of magma at comparatively shallow depth from the surface of the earth.
3. Which of the following is not a physical classification of rocks?
a) Stratified rocks
b) Unstratified rocks
c) Calcareous rocks
d) Foliated rocks
Answer: c
Explanation: According to physical classification, rocks are divided into three types. These are stratified rocks, unstr
atified rocks and foliated rocks. Physical classification of rocks is based on their general structure. Calcareous rock i
s a type of rock based on chemical classification.
4. In which of the following rocks, clay predominates?
um
a) Argillaceous rocks
nt
b) Calcareous rocks
ua
c) Silicious rocks
d) Volcanic rocks
_Q
Answer: a
Explanation: Clay predominates in argillaceous rocks. Slate is an example of this type of rock. In calcareous rocks, c
ks
alcium carbonate predominates while in siliceous rocks, silica predominates.
oo
5. Augite forms crystals of ________ shape.
_B
es
a) Square
b) Circular
ot
c) Hexagonal
_N
d) Octagonal
Answer: d
TU
Explanation: Augite is a mineral found in igneous rocks and resembles hornblende. Augite forms octagonal crystals
and changes to chlorite by hydration.
K
A
6. The acid test used for testing building stones cannot be applied to limestones.
e/
t.m
a) True
b) False
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: Acid test used for testing building stones cannot be applied to limestones. It is generally carried out on
tp
sandstones.
ht
7. Smith’s test is used to find out ____________
a) The toughness of a stone

b) Compressive strength of a stone
c) Presence of soluble material in a sample of stone
d) Rate of wear of stones
Answer: c
Explanation: Smith’s test is used to find out the presence of soluble material in a sample of stone. To find out the rat
e of wear of stones, the attrition test is used. Crushing test is used to find the compressive strength of a stone and im
pact test is used to find the toughness of the stone.
8. Crushing strength should be greater than ___________ for a good structural stone.
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a) 10 kg per cm2
b) 100 kg per cm2
c) 1000 kg per cm2
d) 10,000 kg per cm2
Answer: c
Explanation: Crushing strength should be greater than 1000 kg per cm2 for a good structural stone. Crushing strengt
h of basalt is as large as 1500 to 1900 kg per cm2 while that of limestone and sandstone is 550 and 650 kg per cm2 r
espectively.
9. Dolomite is a bicarbonate of _________ and ___________
a) Magnesium and aluminium

b) Calcium and aluminium
c) Magnesium and calcium
um
d) Sodium and aluminium
Answer: c
nt
Explanation: Dolomite is a bicarbonate of magnesium and calcium. It is available in different shades and is insoluble
ua
in ordinary water.
_Q
10. For a stone to be used in road work, coefficient of hardness should be greater than ___________
ks
a) 7
oo
b) 10
c) 15
_B
d) 17
es
Answer: d
Explanation: For a stone to be used in road work, coefficient of hardness should be greater than 17. The stone is said
ot
to be of medium hardness if the coefficient of hardness lies between 14 and 17. However, if the coefficient of hardn
_N
ess is less than 14, then the stone is said to be of poor hardness and therefore should not be used in road work.
TU
11. In attrition test used to find the rate of wear of stones, wear should be equal to or less than ___________ for goo
d building stone.
K
A
a) 2%
e/
b) 3%
t.m
c) 5%
d) 6%
/
Answer: a
s:/
Explanation: In attrition test used to find the rate of wear of stones, wear should be equal to or less than 2 % for goo
tp
d building stone. If the wear is more than 3%, then the stone is not satisfactory.
ht
12. Which of the following facts about gypsum is not correct?
a) It is hydrated sulphate of calcium

b) It has excellent solubility in water
c) It is white in the pure state
d) Its solubility in water is extremely poor
Answer: b
Explanation: Gypsum is hydrated sulphate of calcium. It is white in the pure state. Its solubility in water is extremely
poor.
13. Quartz sand is an example of polymineralic rock while granite is an example of a monomineralic rock.
a) True
296 / 405
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Quartz sand is an example of monomineralic rock while granite is an example of a polymineralic rock.
A monomineralic rock consists of only one mineral while a polymineralic rock consists of many minerals.
14. Which of the following is also called white mica?
a) Biotite
b) Felspar
c) Muscovite
d) Microline
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two forms of mica which commonly occur in igneous rocks. These are biotite and muscovite.
Muscovite is also called white mica and biotite is also called black mica.
um
15. Basalt is an example of _________ rock.
nt
ua
a) Sedimentary
b) Volcanic
_Q
c) Metamorphic
d) Plutonic
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Basalt is an example of volcanic rock. These rocks are formed due to the pouring of magma and the sur
face of the earth. The cooling is very rapid and this type of rocks possess finely grained structure.
_B
es

ot
_N
1. The toughness of stone is said to be high if the value of the toughness index exceeds __________
TU
a) 7
b) 13
K
c) 15
A
d) 19
e/
Answer: d
t.m
Explanation: Toughness of stone is said to be high if the value of the toughness index exceeds 19. If it is below 13, t
hen the stone is not tough and if it is between 13 and 19, then the stone is moderately tough.
/
s:/
2. For a good stone, the percentage absorption by weight after a day in the water absorption test should not exceed _
tp
___________
ht
a) 0.60
b) 0.90
c) 1.60
d) 1.90
Answer: a
Explanation: For a good stone, the percentage absorption by weight after a day in the water absorption test should no
t exceed 0.60. Also, the specific gravity should be greater than 2.7 for good building stone.
3. ____________ is the process of taking out stones from natural rock beds.
a) Normalising
b) Quarrying
c) Mining
297 / 405
d) Smelting
Answer: b
Explanation: Quarrying is the process of taking out stones from natural rock beds. Stones obtained from quarrying ar
e widely used for various engineering purposes.
4. Which of the following is not a method of quarrying?
a) Smelting
b) Digging
c) Heating
d) Blasting
Answer: a
Explanation: The various methods of quarrying are digging, heating, wedging and blasting. Before actually starting t
he quarry, it should be kept in mind to carefully examine the exposed surface of rock bed and it is essential to prepar
um
e a complete layout of different stages involved in the quarrying process.
nt
5. The use of explosives in order to convert rocks into small pieces of stones is done in ___________
ua
a) Wedging
_Q
b) Heating
c) Digging
ks
d) Blasting
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: The use of explosives in order to convert rocks into small pieces of stones is done in blasting. Blasting
_B
is used for quarrying hard stones without having any fissures or cracks. Stones obtained by this method are generally
es
of small size.
ot
6. Which tool is used to make blast holes in the process of blasting?

_N
a) Dipper
TU
b) Tamping bar
c) Jumper
K
d) Needle
A
Answer: c
e/
Explanation: A jumper is a tool that is used to make blast holes in the process of blasting. However, a dipper is used
t.m
to drill a hole to the desired depth.

/
7. Blasting powder is a mixture of _____________

s:/
tp
a) Charcoal, sulphur and saltpetre

ht
b) Aluminium, phosphorus and saltpetre

c) Charcoal, calcium and phosphorus
d) Sodium, sulphur and alum
Answer: a
Explanation: Blasting powder is a mixture of charcoal, sulphur and saltpetre. It is also known as gun powder and is c
ommonly used as an explosive in the process of blasting.
8. Which tool is used to remove dust from blast holes in the process of blasting?
a) Priming needle
b) Jumper
c) Tamping bar
d) Scraping spoon
Answer: d
298 / 405
Explanation: Scraping spoon is used to remove dust from blast holes in the process of blasting. A tamping bar is use
d to ram the material while refilling the blast holes.
9. Which of the following statements about dynamite is not correct?
a) It can be used for quarrying under water

b) It does not need hard tamping
c) It is cheaper than blasting powder
d) It is very strong
Answer: c
Explanation: Dynamite is an explosive used in the blasting process. It is very strong and can be used for quarrying u
nder water as well. It does not need hard tamping. It is much costlier than the blasting powder.
10. Cordite is prepared from ___________
um
a) Benzene
nt
b) Nitro-glycerine
ua
c) Phenol
d) Ester
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: Cordite is prepared from nitro-glycerine. It is a powerful explosive used in the blasting process and it c
ks
an be used under water.
oo
11. Rate of the burning of a good fuse is ___________
_B
es
a) 1 mm/sec
b) 1 cm/sec
ot
c) 1 m/sec
_N
d) 1 cm/h
Answer: b
TU
Explanation: A fuse is used to ignite the explosives. The rate of burning of a good fuse is 1 cm/sec.
K
12. Cutting of stones into suitable sizes with suitable surfaces after quarrying is known as ___________ of stones.
A
e/
a) Painting
t.m
b) Dressing
c) Blasting
/
d) Wedging
s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Cutting of stones into suitable sizes with suitable surfaces after quarrying is known as dressing of stone
ht
s. It is carried out in order to get the desired appearance from stonework.
13. The dragged finish is suitable for only soft stones.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Dragged finish is suitable for only soft stones. In this, a drag or a comb is rubbed on the surface in all d
irections. A comb is a piece of steel with a number of teeth.
14. Which type of stone finish is represented in the figure below?
a) Axed finish
b) Dragged finish
299 / 405
c) Boasted finish
d) Circular finish
Answer: c
Explanation: The above figure represents boasted finish. In this, non-continuous parallel marks are made on the ston
e surface with the help of a boaster. These marks can be horizontal, vertical or even inclined.
15. Which of the following is not a property of an ideal preservative used for the preservation of stones?
a) It should be highly economical

b) It should allow moisture to penetrate the surface of the stone
c) It should be harmless
d) It should be non-corrosive
Answer: b
Explanation: An ideal preservative used for the preservation of stones should be highly economical. It should be har
um
mless and non-corrosive. It should not allow moisture to penetrate the surface of the stone.
nt
ua
_Q
1. Latin word for iron is ________
ks
a) Ferrium
oo
b) Ferrious
c) Ferrumous
_B
d) Ferrum
es
Answer: d
Explanation: Latin word for iron is Ferrum. It is chemically denoted as Fe. Metals are grouped into two categories –
ot
ferrous metals and non-ferrous metals. Ferrous metals consist of iron as their main constituent while non-ferrous met
_N
als do not consist of iron as the main constituent.

TU
2. Which of the following is the red oxide of iron?

K
a) Haematite
A
b) Limonite
e/
c) Pyrite
t.m
d) Siderite
Answer: a
/
Explanation: Haematite is the red oxide of iron. It contains about 65-70 % of the iron in its pure state. It is available i
s:/
n the state of Madhya Pradesh in India.

tp
ht
3. Pyrite is an oxide of iron.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Pyrite is a sulphide of iron. The maximum iron content in it is about 45-47 %. This ore is widely sprea
d in almost all parts of the world.
4. Which of the following is the black oxide of iron?
a) Limonite
b) Magnetite
c) Siderite
d) Pyrite
300 / 405
Answer: b
Explanation: Magnetite is the black oxide of iron. Magnetite is the richest iron ore and contains about 70-73 % of th
e iron in its pure state. It is available in Madras in India.
5. The crude impure iron extracted from the ores of iron is called as __________
a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron
c) Steel
d) Pig iron
Answer: d
Explanation: Pig iron is the crude impure iron extracted from the ores of iron. Pig iron is one of the basic materials u
sed in the manufacturing of steel, wrought iron as well as cast iron.
um
6. Smelting is carried out in a ___________
nt
a) Funnel
ua
b) Kiln
c) Blast furnace
_Q
d) Flask
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: Smelting is carried out in a blast furnace. The essential parts of a blast furnace are throat, stack, cylinde
oo
r, bosh, hearth, tuyeres, feeding arrangement and some additional equipment. Smelting is the process of melting in o
rder to separate metal from its ore.
_B
es
7. Which of the following is the lowest part of the blast furnace?
ot
a) Hearth
_N
b) Stack
c) Throat
TU
d) Bosh
Answer: a
K
Explanation: Hearth is the lowest part of the blast furnace. It is also known as the crucible. This portion of the furnac
A
e is used to collect slag and molten iron.

e/
t.m
8. Commonly used fluxing material used in the process of smelting is ___________

/
a) Limestone
s:/
b) Sandstone
tp
c) Concrete
ht
d) Cement
Answer: a
Explanation: Commonly used fluxing material used in the process of smelting is limestone. Fluxing material is a sub
stance that can be readily fused and mixes with the impurities present in the ores of iron and forms a fusible slag.
9. Which of the following is the hottest part of the blast furnace?
a) Throat
b) Stack
c) Bosh
d) Cylinder
Answer: c
Explanation: Bosh the hottest part of the blast furnace. It is the burning zone of the furnace. Bosh is located between
the cylinder and the hearth.
301 / 405
10. Which of the following is not a variety of pig iron?
a) Bessemer pig
b) Pink pig
c) Grey pig
d) White pig
Answer: b
Explanation: The various varieties of pig iron are Bessemer pig, mottled pig, white pig and grey pig. Mottled pig lies
somewhere between the white pig and grey pig. Bessemer pig is obtained from haematite ores.
11. Small amounts of _____________ and __________ improve the quality of Bessemer pig.
a) Copper and sulphur
um
b) Silicon and phosphorus
c) Silicon and manganese
nt
d) Phosphorus and sulphur
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: Small amounts of silicon and manganese improve the quality of Bessemer pig. However, it should be f
_Q
ree from phosphorus, copper and sulphur.
ks
12. Grey pig is produced when the blast furnace is not provided with sufficient fuel while the white pig is produced
oo
when the blast furnace is provided sufficiently with fuel.
_B
a) True
es
b) False
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: The white pig is produced when the blast furnace is not provided with sufficient fuel while the grey pig
_N
is produced when the blast furnace is provided sufficiently with fuel. White pig is used in the manufacturing of wro
ught iron.
TU
13. Which of the following statements about electric reduction furnace is not true?
K
A
a) It is adopted at places where electric power can be cheaply generated

e/
b) Less amount of fluxing material is needed

t.m
c) Less amount of slag is created

d) The external supply of air is essential in this type of furnace
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: Electric reduction furnace is adopted at places where electric power can be cheaply generated. In this, l
tp
ess amount of fluxing material is needed and less amount of slag is formed. The external supply of air is not essentia
ht
l in this type of furnace.
14. Remelting of pig iron with limestone and coke to manufacture cast iron is carried out in a ____________
a) Flask
b) Blast furnace
c) Cupola furnace
d) Ball mill
Answer: c
Explanation: Remelting of pig iron with limestone and coke to manufacture cast iron is carried out in a cupola furna
ce. It has a smaller size than the blast furnace and its shape is cylindrical.
15. Which of the following statements about low shaft blast furnace is not true?
302 / 405
a) In this, the blast is rich in oxygen
b) The gas produced has a low calorific value
c) The oxygen consumed by this furnace can be made available from natural air
d) It consumes fine ores
Answer: b
Explanation: In a low shaft blast furnace, the blast is rich in oxygen. The oxygen consumed by this furnace can be m
ade available from natural air. It consumes fine ores and the gas produced has high calorific value.
1. Which of the following statements is not true about white cast iron?
a) It has a silvery-white colour
um
b) White cast iron is quite hard
c) It melts with great difficulty
nt
d) It can be used for delicate castings
ua
Answer: d
Explanation: White cast iron has a silvery-white colour and is quite hard. It melts with great difficulty and cannot be
_Q
used for delicate castings.
ks
2. In which type of casting, molten metal is poured into moulds which keep on rotating?
oo
a) Centrifugal casting
_B
b) Chilled casting
es
c) Hollow casting
d) Sand casting
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: There are various types of castings. These are centrifugal casting, chilled casting, hollow casting, sand
casting, die casting and vertical sand casting. Molten metal is poured into moulds which keep on rotating in centrifu
TU
gal casting. Centrifugal casting is usually used to prepare pipes.

K
3. Which of the following is not a property of cast iron?

A
e/
a) Cast iron is hard but brittle

t.m
b) Cast iron can be magnetised

c) It does not rust readily
/
d) Cast iron is not ductile

s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Cast iron is hard but brittle. It is not ductile and does not rust readily. Cast iron cannot be magnetised.
ht
4. The manganese content in cast iron should be kept below __________
a) 0.75%
b) 1%
c) 1.5%
d) 1.75%
Answer: a
Explanation: Presence of manganese makes cast iron hard and brittle. Therefore, manganese content in cast iron sho
uld be kept below 0.75%.
5. Which variety of cast iron is obtained by melting cast iron with wrought iron scrap?
a) Mottled cast iron

303 / 405
b) Chilled cast iron
c) Malleable cast iron
d) Toughened cast iron
Answer: d
Explanation: Melting cast iron with wrought iron scrap results in the formation of toughened cast iron. Mottled cast i
ron is an intermediate between white cast iron and grey cast iron.
6. In which type of casting, the outer surface is made hard while the inner surface remains relatively soft?
a) Hollow casting
b) Sand casting
c) Chilled casting
d) Die casting
Answer: c
um
Explanation: In chilled casting, the outer surface is made hard while the inner surface remains relatively soft. Sudde
n cooling or chilling makes the outer surface hard. Chilled casting is used for producing wearing surface as in case o
nt
f tyres.
ua
7. The process of converting pig iron into wrought iron by stirring in the molten state is called as _________
_Q
a) Puddling
ks
b) Refining
oo
c) Rolling
d) Shingling
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: There are four operations involved in the manufacturing of wrought iron. These are refining, puddling,
shingling and rolling. The process of converting pig iron into wrought iron by stirring in the molten state is called pu
ot
ddling.
_N
8. The process of puddling is carried out in a ________

TU
a) Blast furnace
K
b) Flask
A
c) Cupola furnace
e/
d) Reverberatory furnace
t.m
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of puddling is carried out in a reverberatory furnace. The metal does not come in contact
/
with the fuel in a reverberatory furnace. This type of furnace is rectangular in shape and built with refractory materia
s:/
ls like fire-bricks.
tp
ht
9. The material obtained at the end of the shingling process is called as ________
a) Flux
b) Slag
c) Bloom
d) Fuse
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of shingling is used to remove the slag contained in the puddle balls. The material obtaine
d at the end of the shingling process is called bloom. The bloom is then passed through grooved rollers to order to o
btain flat bars which indicate wrought iron of poor quality.
10. Aston’s process is used to manufacture _________
a) Steel
304 / 405
b) Wrought iron
c) Pig iron
d) Cast iron
Answer: b
Explanation: Aston’s process was developed by James Aston in 1925. It is used to manufacture wrought iron and in
a quick and economical way. Aston’s process is fully mechanical.
11. Which of the following is not a property pf wrought iron?
a) Wrought iron is ductile and malleable

b) It fuses easily
c) The specific gravity of wrought iron is about 7.8
d) Wrought iron can be easily forged and welded
Answer: b
um
Explanation: Wrought iron is ductile and malleable. Wrought iron fuses with difficulty but it can be easily forged an
d welded. The specific gravity of wrought iron is about 7.8.
nt
ua
12. Corrosion of ferrous metals is known as ___________
_Q
a) Enamelling
b) Rusting
ks
c) Galvanising
oo
d) Coal Tarring
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: Corrosion of ferrous metals is known as rusting. Rusting of cast iron is less and rusting of wrought iron
es
is medium while that of steel is found to be much more. Enamelling, coal tarring and galvanising are some of the m
ethods used to prevent corrosion.
ot
_N
13. Which metal is used in the galvanisation of iron in order to prevent it from rusting?
TU
a) Zinc
b) Sodium
K
c) Copper
A
d) Silver
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: Zinc is used in the galvanisation of iron in order to prevent it from rusting. The layer of zinc is more re
active than iron, and hence it cuts the contact of iron with air or moisture and protects it from rusting.
/
s:/
14. Which chemical is used in the method of parkerizing, adopted to prevent corrosion?
tp
ht
a) Alum
b) Borax
c) Pareo
d) Vitriol
Answer: c
Explanation: In the method of parkerizing, adopted to prevent corrosion, the article to be treated for corrosion is im
mersed in a hot water bath of a chemical called Pareo. Insoluble phosphates are created on the surface of the article
which keeps away the moisture.
15. Dust of pure _________ is used to cover the article to be treated for corrosion in the method of sherardising.
a) Platinum
b) Zinc
c) Copper
305 / 405
d) Barium
Answer: b
Explanation: Dust of pure zinc is used to cover the article to be treated for corrosion in the method of sherardising. It
is then heated to a suitable temperature in an airtight steel box which results in the melting of zinc. It then combines
with the metal and creates a protective layer on its surface and thus prevents it from rusting.
1. Percentage of carbon content in steel varies from _________
a) 0.25-1.50
b) 2.00-4.00
c) 3.00-4.50
um
d) 2.50-3.50
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: Percentage of carbon content in steel varies from 0.25-1.50. Steel forms an intermediate stage between
ua
wrought iron and cast iron. Cast iron has carbon from 2-4 percent while in wrought iron the percentage of carbon co
ntent does not exceed 0.15.
_Q
2. Which of the following processes is also known as the Siemens-Martin process?
ks
oo
a) Open-hearth process
b) L.D. process
_B
c) Electric process
es
d) Duplex process
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: Open-hearth process is also known as the Siemens-Martin process. This is because Seimens invented t
_N
his process first and then Martin made some improvements in it. This process is used to manufacture steel.
TU
3. Steel can only take up compressive stresses while cast iron is equally strong in compression and tension.
K
a) True
A
b) False
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Cast iron can only take up compressive stresses while steel is equally strong in compression and tensio
n. Due to this, steel has practically replaced cast iron in the practice of building construction these days.
/
s:/
4. The correct order of oxidation of different impurities of pig-iron in the Bessemer process is __________
tp
ht
a) Silicon, carbon, manganese, sulphur, phosphorus

b) Silicon, phosphorus, sulphur, manganese, carbon
c) Carbon, phosphorus, sulphur, manganese, silicon
d) Carbon, phosphorus, silicon, manganese, sulphur
Answer: a
Explanation: Bessemer process, used for the manufacturing of steel is adopted for pig iron containing impurities of a
ny kind. The correct order of oxidation of different impurities of pig-iron in this process is Silicon, carbon, mangane
se, sulphur and phosphorus.
5. Steel produced by crucible steel process is known as __________
a) Blister steel
b) Stained steel
c) Pig steel
306 / 405
d) Cast steel
Answer: d
Explanation: Steel produced by the crucible steel process is known as cast steel. A small quantity of high carbon stee
l is produced in this process. Cast steel is hard and is used for making surgical instruments.
6. Duplex process, used to manufacture steel, is a combination of which of the following two processes?
a) Basic Bessemer process and basic open-hearth process

b) Acid Bessemer process and acid open-hearth process
c) Acid Bessemer process and basic open-hearth process
d) Basic Bessemer process and acid open-hearth process
Answer: c
Explanation: Duplex process, used to manufacture steel, is a combination of acid Bessemer process and basic open-h
earth process. This process is highly economical and has advantages of both Bessemer and open-hearth processes.
um
7. The electric furnace used in the electric process to manufacture steel is lined with _________ material.
nt
ua
a) Basic refractory
b) Basic non-refractory
_Q
c) Acidic refractory
d) Acidic non-refractory
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: The electric furnace used in the electric process to manufacture steel is lined with basic refractory mate
rial. It is either rectangular or circular in shape and is made of steel plates. In the electric process, electricity is used t
_B
o heat and melt the metal.
es
8. What kind of steel is obtained from L.D. process?

ot
_N
a) Highly pure low carbon steel

b) Impure low carbon steel
TU
c) Highly pure high carbon steel

d) Impure low carbon steel
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Highly pure low carbon steel is obtained from L.D. process. This process was first invented in Austria.
e/
It was adopted in two towns named Linz and Donawitz, hence the name L.D. process or Linz-Donawitz process.
t.m
9. It is known as dead steel when the percentage of carbon content is less than __________
/
s:/
a) 0.10
tp
b) 0.20
ht
c) 0.25
d) 0.30
Answer: a
Explanation: Steel is designated as mild steel, medium carbon steel and high carbon steel depending on the percenta
ge of carbon content. It is designated as dead steel or very low carbon steel when the percentage of carbon content is
less than 0.10.
10. The magnetic properties of steel are greatly affected if the percentage content of manganese exceeds about ____
_______
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.25
d) 0.3
307 / 405
Answer: d
Explanation: The magnetic properties of steel are greatly affected if the percentage of content of manganese exceeds
about 0.3. They are also affected in a huge amount if the percentage of the combined content of phosphorus and sul
phur also exceeds about 0.3.
1. Red shortness is a defect occurring in steel due to the presence of an excess amount of ___________
a) Sulphur
b) Phosphorus
c) Sodium
d) Calcium
um
Answer: a
Explanation: Red shortness is a defect occurring in steel due to the presence of an excess amount of sulphur. Steel w
nt
ith this defect cracks when being worked in a hot state.
ua
2. Which of the following forms of steel is popularly known as rolled steel joist or beam?
_Q
a) I-section
ks
b) Expanded metal
oo
c) Corrugated sheet
d) Channel section
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: Steel is available in the market in various forms such as I-sections, expanded metal, angle sections, cha
nnel sections, corrugated sheets, etc. I-sections are popularly known as rolled steel joists or beams.
ot
_N
3. The structure of blister steel is homogeneous and is used for making edge tools.
TU
a) True
b) False
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The structure of blister steel is not homogeneous. It is full of cavities and cannot be used for making ed
e/
ge tools.
t.m
4. Cold shortness is a defect occurring in steel due to the presence of an excess amount of ___________
/
s:/
a) Potassium
tp
b) Phosphorus
ht
c) Sodium
d) Magnesium
Answer: b
Explanation: Cold shortness is a defect occurring in steel due to the presence of an excess amount of phosphorus. St
eel with this defect cracks when being worked in a cold state.
5. Which of the following statements about ribbed-torsteel bars is false?
a) They possess excellent bonding properties

b) They can be easily identified
c) They serve as efficient concrete reinforcement
d) Ordinary plain round bars posses better structural properties than these bars
Answer: d
Explanation: Ribbed-torsteel bars are produced from ribbed-torsteel that is deformed high strength steel. They posse
308 / 405
ss excellent bonding properties and can be easily identified. They possess better structural properties than ordinary p
lain round bars and they serve as efficient concrete reinforcement.
6. Which of the following is not a property of mild steel?
a) Mild steel is ductile and malleable

b) It can be used for all types of structural work
c) It cannot be magnetised permanently
d) Mild steel can be easily forged and welded
Answer: c
Explanation: Mild steel has the following properties. Mild steel can be easily forged and welded and is ductile and m
alleable. It can be used for all types of structural work and it can be magnetised permanently.
7. Which of the following is not a property of hard steel?
um
a) Hard steel can be readily forged and welded
nt
b) It rusts easily
ua
c) Hard steel can be magnetised permanently
d) The specific gravity of hard steel is 7.90
_Q
Answer: a
Explanation: Hard steel has the following properties. Hard steel cannot be readily forged and welded. It rusts easily
ks
and can be magnetised permanently. The specific gravity of hard steel is 7.90.
oo
8. ___________ is the process of saturating the surface layer of steel with nitrogen by heating.
_B
es
a) Nitriding
b) Normalising
ot
c) Nitrating
_N
d) Tempering
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: Nitriding is the process of saturating the surface layer of steel with nitrogen by heating. This process m
akes the steel hard and increases its resistance to corrosion.
K
A
9. Which process is used to make the steel soft?

e/
t.m
a) Hardening
b) Nitriding
/
c) Annealing
s:/
d) Cementing
tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: The process which is used to make the steel soft is called annealing. However, hardening is a process t
hat is the reverse of the annealing process. With the process of hardening, the steel is made hard.
10. Which of the following operations involved in mechanical treatment of steel is used to make wires and rods?
a) Forging
b) Drawing
c) Pressing
d) Rolling
Answer: b
Explanation: The various operations involved in mechanical treatment of steel are forging, drawing, pressing and rol
ling. Drawing is used to make wires and rods while forging is used to make bolts and cramps.
309 / 405
1. Which of the following defects occur in the seasoning process of wood?
a) Bow
b) Brown rot
c) Sap stain
d) Blue stain
Answer: a
Explanation: Bow is a defect that occurs in the seasoning process of wood and is indicated by the curvature which fo
rms in the direction of the length of timber. Blue stain, sap stain and brown rot are the defects caused in timber by fu
ngi.
2. Dry rot is a defect caused in timber in which wood is converted into dry powder form by fungi. Which of the follo
um
wing statements about dry rot is not correct?
nt
a) Unseasoned softwoods cannot be easily attacked by dry rot
ua
b) It usually occurs at places where there is no free circulation of air
c) If the storage of timber after its felling is not done properly, it is liable for the attack of dry rot
_Q
d) It is not essential to have damp conditions for the development of dry rot
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: Dry rot is a defect caused in timber in which wood is converted into dry powder form by fungi. It usual
oo
ly occurs at those places where the free circulation of air is absent. It is found that unseasoned softwoods are easily a
ttacked by dry rot.
_B
es
3. Chir and deodar are examples of hardwoods while oak and sal are examples of softwoods.
ot
a) True
_N
b) False
Answer: b
TU
Explanation: Chir and deodar are examples of softwoods while oak and sal are examples of hardwoods. The terms h
ardwoods and softwoods have commercial importance only.
K
A
4. When a part of the timber is affected by dry rot, the unaffected portion of the timber should be painted with a solu
e/
tion of _________
t.m
a) Aluminium nitrate
/
b) Silver chloride
s:/
c) Copper sulphate
tp
d) Lead acetate
ht
Answer: c
Explanation: When a portion of the timber is affected by dry rot, the left out portion which is not affected should be
painted with copper sulphate solution. While that portion of the timber which is affected and damaged due to dry rot
should be completely taken out.
5. Which of the following is not a variety of industrial timber?
a) Veneers
b) Plywood
c) Fibreboard
d) Baulk
Answer: d
Explanation: Timber that is scientifically prepared in a factory is called industrial timber. There are different varietie
s of industrial timber. These are veneers, plywood, fibreboard, impreg timbers and compreg timbers.
310 / 405
6. Batten is a piece of timber whose thickness and breadth do not exceed ________
a) 10 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 100 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: Timber is available in markets in various forms. These are battens, boards, ends, poles, etc. Batten is a
piece of timber whose thickness and breadth do not exceed 50 mm.
7. Which of the following statements about plywood is not true?
a) Plywoods are available in large sizes
um
b) They are elastic
c) Expansion and shrinkage are very high
nt
d) Plywoods are light in weight
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: Plywoods are light in weight. They are elastic and are available in large sizes. Expansion and shrinkage
_Q
are relatively very low as plies are placed at an angle of 90° to each other.
ks
8. The maximum limit of weight of fibreboards is _________
oo
a) 960 kg/m3
_B
b) 1960 kg/m3
es
c) 2460 kg/m3
d) 2960 kg/m3
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Fibreboards are rigid boards. They are also known as reconstructed wood. The maximum limit of weig
ht of fibreboards is 960 kg/m3. The weight depends on the pressure applied during their manufacturing.
TU
9. Which of the following is available under trade names such as Formica, Sunmica, Sungloss etc?
K
A
a) Fibreboard
e/
b) Veneer
t.m
c) Impreg timber
d) Compreg timber
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: Impreg timber is available under trade names such as Formica, Sunmica, Sungloss, etc. It is the timber
tp
that is partly or fully covered with resin. Impreg timber is strong and durable.
ht
10. Timber which is mostly used for engineering purposes belongs to endogenous trees.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Timber which is mostly used for engineering purposes belongs to exogenous trees. These trees are furt
her divided into two groups – deciduous and conifers. However, timber from endogenous trees has very limited engi
neering applications.
1. What is the colour of river sand?

311 / 405
a) Black
b) Brown
c) Grey
d) White
Answer: d
Explanation: River sand is obtained from banks of rivers. It consists of fine rounded grains and its colour is almost
white. The use of river sand enhances the workability of the mortar.
2. Increase in volume of the sand due to the presence of moisture is called ___________ of sand.
a) Bulking
b) Normalising
c) Shrinkage
um
d) Titrating
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: Increase in volume of the sand due to the presence of moisture is called bulking of sand. For a given m
ua
oisture content, the finer the material, the more will be the rise in volume.
_Q
3. On the basis of the size of grains, the sand is classified into three categories – coarse, fine, and gravelly sand.
ks
a) True
oo
b) False
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: On the basis of the size of grains, the sand is classified into three categories – coarse, fine and gravelly
es
sand. Fine sand is generally used for plastering. Coarse sand is used for masonry work and gravelly sand is mainly u
sed for concrete work.
ot
_N
4. What is the colour of sea sand?

TU
a) Blue
b) Light brown
K
c) Black
A
d) Red
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Sand is basically of three types – pit sand, river sand and sea sand. Sea sand is obtained from seashores
and its colour is light brown.
/
s:/
5. Which of the following is not a property of good sand?

tp
ht
a) Good sand should be chemically inert

b) It should be clean
c) It should not contain any organic matter
d) It must contain salts that can attract moisture from the atmosphere
Answer: d
Explanation: Good sand should not contain salts that can attract moisture from the atmosphere and should be chemic
ally inert. It should be clean and should not contain any organic matter.
6. To detect the presence of organic impurities in sand, solution of ___________ is used.
a) Silver chloride
b) Sodium acetate
c) Sodium hydroxide
d) Calcium carbonate
312 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: To detect the presence of organic impurities in sand, the solution of sodium hydroxide is used. If the co
lour of the solution changes to brown, it indicates the presence of organic matter in the sand.
7. Heavy mortars have a bulk density equal to greater than _________
a) 500 kg/m3
b) 1000 kg/m3
c) 1500 kg/m3
d) 2500 kg/m3
Answer: c
Explanation: Mortars are classified into heavy mortars and lightweight mortars depending on the bulk density of mo
rtar in its dry state. Heavy mortars have a bulk density equal to greater than 1500 kg/m3 while lightweight mortars h
ave a bulk density less than 1500 kg/m3.
um
8. The process of adding cement in order to improve the quality of lime mortar is known as __________
nt
ua
a) Gauging
b) Piling
_Q
c) Slaking
d) Reinforcing
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: The process of adding cement in order to improve the quality of lime mortar is known as gauging. It re
sults in more economical, stronger and denser lime mortar. The proportion of cement to lime by volume is usually a
_B
bout 1:6 to 1:8.
es
9. Fire-resistant mortar is obtained by the addition of ____________ to the powder of fire-bricks.

ot
_N
a) Silica
b) Sodium silicate
TU
c) Aluminous cement
d) Caustic soda
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: Fire-resistant mortar is obtained by the addition of aluminous cement to the powder of fire-bricks. Beca
e/
use this mortar is fire resistant, it is used with fire bricks for lining furnaces, ovens, etc.
t.m
10. Which of the following is not a property of the packing mortar used to pack oil wells?
/
s:/
a) It should be water-resistant
tp
b) It should have low homogeneity

ht
c) It should have resistance to subsoil water pressure

d) It should be able to form solid waterproof plugs in voids of rocks
Answer: b
Explanation: Packing mortar which is used to pack oil wells should be water-resistant and should also have resistanc
e to subsoil water pressure. It should have high homogeneity and it should be able to form solid waterproof plugs in
voids of rocks.
11. _________ is adopted to prepare small quantities of lime mortar.
a) Grinding
b) Grilling
c) Pounding
d) Digging
Answer: c
313 / 405
Explanation: There are two methods to prepare lime mortar – pounding and grinding. Pounding is adopted to prepar
e small quantities of lime mortar while grinding is adopted to prepare large quantities of lime mortar. Pounding is no
t an efficient method to prepare lime mortar.
12. X-ray shielding mortar is a lightweight mortar having a bulk density of less than 1500 kg/m3.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: X-ray shielding mortar is a heavy mortar. The bulk density of this mortar is more than 2200 kg/m3.
13. Lime mortar should be consumed within ___________ after its preparation.
a) 2 days
um
b) 14 days
c) 36 days
nt
d) 36 hours
ua
Answer: d
Explanation: It should be noted that mortar should be consumed as early as possible after its preparation. Lime mort
_Q
ar must be consumed within 36 hours after preparing it.
ks
14. Which type of mortar should be used for damp proof courses and cement concrete roads?
oo
a) Lime mortar (1:2)
_B
b) Lime mortar (1:3)
es
c) Cement mortar (1:2)
d) Lime cinder mortar (1:4)
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: For damp proof courses and cement concrete roads, cement mortar in the ratio 1:2 should be used. Ho
wever, for reinforced brickwork, cement mortar of ratio 1:3 is used.
TU
K

A
e/
1. Which of the following polymers is obtained by condensation polymerization?

t.m
a) Polyethene
/
b) Polystyrene
s:/
c) Polyvinylchloride
tp
d) Carbamide
ht
Answer: d
Explanation: Carbamide is obtained by condensation polymerization. Polyethene, polystyrene and polyvinylchloride
are obtained by addition polymerization.
2. Plastics are divided into thermoplastic and thermosetting on the basis of their ________
a) Behaviour with respect to heating

b) Structure
c) Physical properties
d) Mechanical properties
Answer: a
Explanation: The classification of plastics is done on the basis of their behaviour with respect to heating, structure, p
hysical properties and mechanical properties. Plastics are divided into thermoplastic and thermosetting on the basis o
f their behaviour with respect to heating.
314 / 405
3. In addition polymerization, the molecular weight of the resulting polymer is the same as the sum of the molecular
weights of the reacting molecules.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Polymerization is the process of converting monomers into polymers. In addition, polymerization, the
molecular weight of the resulting polymer is the same as the sum of the molecular weights of the reacting molecules.
4. Which of the following statements about thermosetting plastics is not true?
a) It is possible to change their shape on heating
um
b) They are durable and strong
c) They are available in a variety of colours
nt
d) They become rigid on heating
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermosetting plastics become rigid on heating and it is possible to change their shape. They are durab
_Q
le and strong and are available in a variety of colours.
ks
5. Which of the following types of plastics have a high modulus of elasticity?
oo
a) Rigid plastics
_B
b) Semi-rigid plastics
es
c) Soft plastics
d) Elastomers
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Rigid plastics have a high modulus of elasticity. Semi-rigid plastics have a medium modulus of elastici
ty. Soft plastics and elastomers have a low modulus of elasticity.
TU
6. Which of the following is a thermoplastic resin?

K
A
a) Casein
e/
b) Phenol formaldehyde
t.m
c) Cellulose
d) Urea-formaldehyde
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: Just like plastics, resins are also classified into thermoplastic resins and thermosetting resins depending
tp
on their behaviour with respect to heating. Cellulose is an example of thermoplastic resin. Phenol formaldehyde, cas
ht
ein and urea-formaldehyde are examples of thermosetting resins.
7. Which of the following resins is also known as acrylic?
a) Methyl methacrylate
b) Alkyd
c) Styrene
d) Vinyl
Answer: a
Explanation: Methyl methacrylate is a thermoplastic resin which is also known as acrylic. This resin is derived from
coal petroleum and water. Plastics obtained from this resin are used for roof lights, safety glass, etc.
8. The components of alkyd are _______

315 / 405
a) Alcohol and phthalic acid
b) Glycol and formic acid
c) Glycerine and phthalic acid
d) Glycerine and formic acid
Answer: c
Explanation: Alkyd is a thermoplastic resin that is used to prepare thin films of plastics. The components of alkyd ar
e glycerine and phthalic acid.
9. Which of the following statements about styrene is not true?
a) Styrene is light in weight

b) It has a low electrical resistance
c) Water absorption of styrene is low
d) Styrene is not easily attacked by chemicals
um
Answer: b
Explanation: Styrene is a thermoplastic resin which is not easily attacked by chemicals and which is light in weight.
nt
Water absorption of styrene is low and this resin has a very high electrical resistance.
ua
10. Which of the following resins is obtained by the precipitation of milk with acids?
_Q
a) Vinyl
ks
b) Casein
oo
c) Cellulose
d) Alkyd
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: Casein is a thermosetting resin which is obtained by the precipitation of milk with acids. Plastics obtain
ed from casein are used for buttons, buckles, etc.
ot
_N
11. Melamine is derived from ________

TU
a) Silicon carbide
b) Calcium silicate
K
c) Calcium carbide
A
d) Calcium sulphate
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: Melamine is derived from calcium carbide. It forms a thermosetting resin named melamine-formaldehy
de on reaction with formaldehyde. Plastics obtained from this resin are widely used for electrical insulators.
/
s:/
12. Homogeneous plastic is made of the chain containing only carbon atoms while heterogeneous plastic consists of
tp
the chain containing carbon and oxygen, nitrogen and other elements.
ht
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Plastics are divided into two groups on the basis of their structure – homogeneous and heterogeneous.
Homogeneous plastic is made of the chain containing only carbon atoms while heterogeneous plastic consists of the
chain containing carbon and oxygen, nitrogen and other elements.
13. Hexamethylene tetramine serves as a hardener for ________
a) Cellulose
b) Polystyrene
c) Polyvinylchloride
d) Phenol formaldehyde
316 / 405
Answer: d
Explanation: Hexamethylene tetramine serves as a hardener for phenol-formaldehyde. A hardener is a compound tha
t is used to increase the hardness of resins.
14. Tributyl phosphate is an example of ___________
a) Hardener
b) Pigment
c) Plasticizer
d) Filler
Answer: c
Explanation: Tributyl phosphate is an example of a plasticizer. Plasticizers are used to improve plasticity. They impa
rt softness to plastics and they should be chemically inert.
um
15. Which of the following is not a property of plastics?
nt
a) Plastics are not ductile
ua
b) Plastics are organic in nature
c) Plastics have good electric insulation properties.
_Q
d) PVC plastics are inflammable
Answer: d
ks
Explanation: Plastics are organic in nature. They are not ductile but have good electric insulation properties. Plastics
oo
made of PVC are non-inflammable.
_B
es
ot
1. Aluminium is commercially produced usually from ________

_N
a) Hematite
TU
b) Pyrite
c) Malachite
K
d) Bauxite
A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: Aluminium is available in various forms such as sulphates, oxides, phosphates, etc. Aluminium is com
t.m
mercially produced usually from bauxite. Bauxite is a hydrated oxide of aluminium.

/
2. Which of the following properties is not exhibited by aluminium?

s:/
tp
a) Aluminium is a poor conductor of heat and electricity

ht
b) Aluminium is light in weight

c) It readily dissolves in HCl
d) Aluminium is highly resistant to corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Aluminium is light in weight and readily dissolves in HCl. Aluminium is highly resistant to corrosion a
nd is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
3. Arsenide and sulphoarsenide are two important ores of _________
a) Aluminium
b) Cobalt
c) Steel
d) Iron
Answer: b
317 / 405
Explanation: Arsenide and sulphoarsenide are two important ores of cobalt. The ores are purified and then fused wit
h limestone in a blast furnace. Impure oxide of cobalt is produced.
4. Which of the following is not a property of cobalt?
a) Cobalt is a lustrous white metal

b) It is attacked by alkalies
c) Cobalt is malleable
d) Cobalt is ductile
Answer: b
Explanation: Cobalt is a lustrous white metal which is not attacked by alkalies. Cobalt is ductile and malleable. The
specific gravity of cobalt is 8.8.
5. Which of the following is not an ore of copper?
um
a) Malachite
nt
b) Azurite
ua
c) Copper glance
d) Galena
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: The principle ores of copper are copper glance, malachite, azurite, cuprite and copper pyrites. Copper i
ks
s widely used for making electric cables, lighting conductors, household utensils, etc. Galena is an important ore of l
oo
ead.
_B
6. Which of the following is not a property of copper?
es
a) Copper is a good conductor of heat

ot
b) The melting point of copper is 1083°C

_N
c) Copper becomes brittle above its melting point

d) The specific gravity of copper is 8.9
TU
Answer: c
Explanation: Copper is a good conductor of heat. The melting point of copper is 1083°C and it becomes brittle just b
K
elow its melting point. The specific gravity of copper is 8.9.

A
e/
7. Which of the following is not an ore of Magnesium?

t.m
a) Cassiterite
/
b) Dolomite
s:/
c) Kieserite
tp
d) Carnallite
ht
Answer: a
Explanation: The principle ores of magnesium are magnesite, kieserite, dolomite and carnallite. It does occur in the f
ree state in nature. Cassiterite is an oxide of tin.
8. Which of the following is not an ore of zinc?
a) Limonite
b) Zincite
c) Calamine
d) Franklinite
Answer: a
Explanation: The principle ores of zinc are zincite, franklinite, zinc blende and calamine. Zinc is used in the process
of galvanization. It is also used in electric cells and in the preparation of alloys.
318 / 405
9. Y-alloy is an important alloy of ___________
a) Manganese
b) Iron
c) Aluminium
d) Gold
Answer: c
Explanation: Y-alloy is an important alloy of aluminium. Other important alloys of aluminium are duralumin, aldura
l and aluminium bronze. Y-alloy consists of aluminium, copper, nickel and magnesium and is a good conductor of h
eat.
10. The percentage of copper and zinc in cartridge brass is _______ and __________ respectively.
a) 30%,70%
um
b) 70%, 30%
c) 40%, 60%
nt
d) 60%, 40%
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: The percentage of copper and zinc in cartridge brass is 70% and 30% respectively. It is a common vari
_Q
ety of brass which is used for cartridges, springs etc.
ks
11. The composition of delta metal is _________
oo
a) 60% iron, 3% zinc and 37% copper
_B
b) 3% iron, 60% zinc and 37% copper
es
c) 3% iron, 37% zinc and 60% copper
d) 37% iron, 60% zinc and 3% copper
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: The composition of delta metal is 3% iron, 37% zinc and 60% copper. Delta metal has high resistant to
corrosion and can be used to resist corrosion in place of mild steel.
TU
12. Low brass contains 80% copper and 20% tin.

K
A
a) True
e/
b) False
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: Copper mainly has two types of alloys – brass and bronze. Brass contains copper and zinc while bronz
/
e contains copper and tin. Low brass contains 80% copper and 20% zinc.
s:/
tp
13. When 1% of tin is added to cartridge metal, it is known as ________

ht
a) Naval brass
b) Muntz metal
c) Red brass
d) Admiralty metal
Answer: d
Explanation: When 1% of tin is added to cartridge metal, it is known as admiralty metal. However, if it is added to
Muntz metal, it is known as naval brass which is an exception to the general rule of brass which says that any eleme
nt may be present in brass except tin.
14. The percentage composition of copper in white brass and red brass is __________ and _______ respectively.
a) 40%, 55%
b) 55%, 40%
319 / 405
c) 10%, 85%
d) 85%, 10%
Answer: c
Explanation: The percentage composition of copper in white brass and red brass is respectively 10% and 85% respec
tively. Red brass contains 15% zinc with 85% copper while white brass contains 90% zinc and 10% copper.
15. The percentage composition of copper and zinc in yellow brass is ___________
a) 35% and 65%

b) 65% and 35%
c) 20% and 80%
d) 80% and 20%
Answer: b
Explanation: The percentage composition of copper and zinc in yellow brass is 65% and 35% respectively. The spec
um
ific gravity of yellow brass is 8.47 and it is used for lamp fixtures, plumbing, etc.
nt
ua
_Q
1. Which of the following elements is not present in dow metal?
ks
a) Aluminium
oo
b) Manganese
c) Magnesium
_B
d) Gold
es
Answer: d
Explanation: Dow metal is an important alloy of magnesium. It consists of 4-12 % aluminium, 0.1-0.4 % of mangan
ot
ese and the rest is magnesium.

_N
2. Which of the following elements is not present in electron metal?

TU
a) Silver
K
b) Zinc
A
c) Copper
e/
d) Magnesium
t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: Electron metal is an alloy of magnesium which consists of zinc, magnesium and small percentages of c
/
opper, silicon and iron. The percentage of zinc present is 4%.

s:/
tp
3. Nickel silver is also known as _________

ht
a) Spanish Silver
b) German Silver
c) Indian Silver
d) Asian silver
Answer: b
Explanation: Nickel silver is an alloy of nickel which is also known as German Silver. It is basically a brass in whic
h nickel is added. Therefore, it consists of copper, zinc and nickel.
4. Which of the following is an alloy of nickel?
a) Dow metal
b) Monel metal
c) Bell metal
320 / 405
d) Gunmetal
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two main important alloys of nickel. These are Monel metal and nickel silver. Monel metal c
onsists of copper and small percentages of other elements.
5. Which of the following does not contain zinc?
a) Speculum metal
b) Gunmetal
c) Delta metal
d) Muntz metal
Answer: a
Explanation: Delta metal and Muntz metal are the common varieties of brass which contain zinc. Gunmetal is a vari
ety of bronze but forms an exception to their general rule and contains 2-4 % of zinc. Speculum metal does not conta
um
in zinc.
nt
6. The percentage of copper and tin in bell metal is _______ and _________ respectively.
ua
a) 18%, 82%
_Q
b) 82%, 18%
c) 36%, 64%
ks
d) 64%, 36%
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: Bell metal is a variety of bronze which is used for making bells. The percentage of copper and tin in be
_B
ll metal is 82% and 18% respectively.
es
7. Molybdenum steel consists of molybdenum and _________

ot
_N
a) Copper
b) Silver
TU
c) Manganese
d) Zinc
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: Molybdenum steel consists of molybdenum and manganese. It contains molybdenum to the extent of a
e/
bout 0.2-0.3 % and that of manganese is 0.7-1%.

t.m
8. The composition of phosphor bronze is _________

/
s:/
a) 1% phosphorus, 10% tin and 89% copper

tp
b) 89% phosphorus, 10% tin and 1% copper

ht
c) 1% phosphorus, 89% tin and 10% copper

d) 10% phosphorus, 1% tin and 89% copper
Answer: c
Explanation: The composition of phosphor bronze is 1% phosphorus, 89% tin and 10% copper. Phosphor bronze is
hard and strong and resists corrosion by sea water.
9. Manganese bronze consists of copper and tin.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin but manganese bronze consists of copper and zinc. The percentage
of copper is generally from 56-60 and the rest is zinc. Other elements like manganese, lead, aluminium and iron are
also added.
321 / 405
10. The percentage composition of copper and tin in speculum metal is _________
a) 33% and 67%

b) 67% and 33%
c) 26% and 74%
d) 74% and 26%
Answer: b
Explanation: The percentage composition of copper and tin in speculum metal is 67% and 33% respectively. Specul
um metal is silvery in colour and is used in making telescopes.
11. The percentage of the copper content in copper steel varies from ________
a) 0.15-0.25
um
b) 0.35-0.45
c) 0.50-0.60
nt
d) 0.75-1.00
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: The percentage of the copper content in copper steel varies from 0.15-0.25. Copper steel is a common
_Q
variety of steel alloys that can resist atmospheric resistance better than ordinary carbon steel.
ks
oo
_B
1. Which of the following is not a classification of glass?
es
a) Soda-lime glass
ot
b) Potash-lead glass
_N
c) Potash-lime glass
d) Soda-bromine glass
TU
Answer: d
Explanation: Glass can be mainly classified into three categories – soda-lime glass, potash-lead glass and potash-lim
K
e glass. Glass is amorphous, transparent or translucent and is a mixture of a number of metallic silicates.
A
e/
2. Which of the following is not a property of glass?

t.m
a) Glass can take up a high polish

/
b) Glass can absorb and refract light

s:/
c) Glass has a definite crystalline structure

tp
d) Glass is available in many beautiful colours

ht
Answer: c
Explanation: Glass can take up a high polish and can absorb and refract light. It does not have a definite crystalline s
tructure. Glass is available in many beautiful colours.
3. Soda-lime glass is also known as _________
a) Hard-glass
b) Soft-glass
c) Potash-glass
d) Lead-glass
Answer: b
Explanation: Soda-lime glass is also known as soft-glass or soda-glass. This type of glass is available in a clean and
clear state and is used to manufacture glass tubes and other laboratory apparatus.
322 / 405
4. Soda-lime glass is a mixture of ___________
a) Copper silicate and potassium silicate

b) Sodium silicate and calcium silicate
c) Aluminium silicate and potassium silicate
d) Magnesium silicate and potassium silicate
Answer: b
Explanation: Soda-lime glass is made of calcium silicate with sodium silicate. Soda-lime glass is cheap and is readil
y fusible at relatively low temperatures.
5. Which of the following types of glasses is also known as hard-glass?
a) Potash-lime glass
b) Soda-lime glass
um
c) Potash-lead glass
d) Common glass
nt
Answer: a
ua
Explanation: Potash-lime glass is also known as hard-glass. It is also called Bohemian-glass. It is used to manufactur
e combustion tubes and other glass articles which have to withstand high temperatures.
_Q
6. Potash-lead glass is also known as ____________
ks
oo
a) Flint glass
b) Bottle glass
_B
c) Common glass
es
d) Soft glass
Answer: a
ot
Explanation: Potash-lead glass is also known as flint glass. This type of glass possesses bright lustre and is used to
_N
manufacture artificial gems, lenses, electric bulbs, etc.

TU
7. Potash-lime glass is a mixture of _________

K
a) Aluminium silicate and potassium silicate

A
b) Sodium silicate and calcium silicate

e/
c) Calcium silicate and potassium silicate

t.m
d) Magnesium silicate and aluminium silicate

Answer: c
/
Explanation: Potash-lime glass is a mixture of calcium silicate and potassium silicate. This type of glass fuses at hig
s:/
h temperatures and does not melt very easily.

tp
ht
8. Common glass is also known as __________
a) Cup glass
b) Flask glass
c) Bottle glass
d) Furnace glass
Answer: c
Explanation: Common glass is also known as bottle glass. This type of glass is prepared using cheap raw materials a
nd is generally used to manufacture medicine bottles.
9. Glass becomes hard on heating.
a) True
b) False
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Answer: b
Explanation: On heating, glass becomes soft and soft as the temperature is increased. It finally gets transformed into
a mobile liquid. The manufacturing process of glass has become easy using this property.
10. Potash-lead glass is a mixture of ___________
a) Calcium silicate and potassium silicate

b) Lead silicate and calcium silicate
c) Sodium silicate and potassium silicate
d) Lead silicate and potassium silicate
Answer: d
Explanation: Potash-lead glass is a mixture of lead silicate and potassium silicate. It fuses very readily and can be ea
sily attacked by aqueous solutions. The specific gravity of this glass is about 3-3.3.
um
11. Which of the following is used to prepare soluble glass?
nt
a) Caustic soda
ua
b) Magnesia
c) Lead dioxide
_Q
d) Quartz sand
Answer: d
ks
Explanation: To prepare soluble glass, quartz sand is melted and then it is grinded and thoroughly mixed with soda a
oo
sh, potassium carbonate or sodium sulphate. This type of glass is used to prepare acid-resistant cement.
_B
12. Which of the following types of glass is popularly called glass bricks?
es
a) Wired glass
ot
b) Safety glass
_N
c) Structural glass
d) Shielding glass
TU
Answer: c
Explanation: There are many varieties of glass such as bullet-proof glass, foam glass, wired glass, safety glass, struct
K
ural glass, soluble glass, shielding glass, etc. Structural glass is popularly called glass bricks. This type of glass is us
A
ed for lantern lights.

e/
t.m

/
s:/
1. Litharge is _________
tp
ht
a) Lead trioxide
b) Lead sesquioxide
c) Lead dioxide
d) Lead monoxide
Answer: d
Explanation: Litharge is lead monoxide which is one of the raw materials needed to manufacture potash-lead glass.
Other raw materials required are potassium carbonate and pure sand.
2. Which of the following is a raw material for common glass?
a) Lead dioxide
b) Potassium bicarbonate
c) Salt cake
d) Litharge
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Answer: c
Explanation: The main raw materials required to manufacture common glass are salt cake, chalk, coke and ordinary
sand. The chemical formula of salt cake is Na2SO4.
3. _______ is used to indicate pieces of broken glass or waste glass.
a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Cullet
c) Decolorizer
d) Sand
Answer: b
Explanation: For all the types of glass, in addition to the raw materials, cullets and decolorizers are also added. Culle
t is used to indicate pieces of broken glass or waste glass.
um
4. Common glass is mainly a mixture of ___________
nt
a) Calcium silicate, potassium silicate and copper silicate
ua
b) Sodium silicate, iron silicate and calcium silicate
c) Aluminium silicate, potassium silicate and iron silicate
_Q
d) Magnesium silicate, potassium silicate and zinc silicate
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: Common glass is mainly a mixture of sodium silicate, iron silicate and calcium silicate. It is usually av
oo
ailable in green, brown or yellow colour.
_B
5. Ferric oxide gives a very light yellow tint to the glass while ferrous oxide imparts a green colour.
es
a) True
ot
b) False
_N
Answer: a
Explanation: The raw materials required to manufacture glass usually contain traces of compounds of iron. Ferric ox
TU
ide gives a very light yellow tint to the glass while ferrous oxide imparts a green colour. Decolorizers are added in or
der to avoid such effects.
K
A
6. Which of the following substances is not used as a decolorizer in the manufacturing of glass?
e/
t.m
a) Potassium carbonate
b) Antimony oxide
/
c) Cobalt oxide
s:/
d) Manganese dioxide
tp
Answer: a
ht
Explanation: Potassium carbonate is a raw material needed to manufacture potash-lime glass and potash-lead glass.
Decolorizers are substances which are added to glass in addition to the raw materials in order to avoid any colouring
effects due to the presence of iron compounds in the glass. Some of the examples of decolourisers are antimony oxi
de, manganese dioxide and cobalt oxide.
7. The process of slow and gradual cooling of glass articles is known as _________
a) Pressing
b) Rolling
c) Annealing
d) Spinning
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of slow and gradual cooling of glass articles is known as annealing. There are two method
s of annealing of glass. These are flue treatment and oven treatment.
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8. Glass can be made opaque by grinding the surface of the glass with _________
a) Mortar
b) Flint
c) Alcohol
d) Emery
Answer: d
Explanation: Glass can be made opaque by grinding the surface of the glass with emery. It can also be done chemica
lly by applying hydrochloric acid.
9. In the silvering of glass, a thin coat of ______ is first applied on which silver is then deposited.
a) Tin
um
b) Zinc
c) Iron
nt
d) Copper
ua
Answer: a
Explanation: In the silvering of glass, a thin coat of tin is first applied on which silver is then deposited. Then, a suita
_Q
ble paint is applied in order to protect it against atmospheric effects.
ks
10. Which of the following is added to the glass in order to make its colour violet?
oo
a) Ferric oxide
_B
b) Manganese dioxide
es
c) Tin oxide
d) Copper oxide
ot
Answer: b
_N
Explanation: Colouring pigments are added to the raw materials while manufacturing of the glass in order to make c
oloured glass. Manganese dioxide is added to the glass in order to make its colour violet.
TU
11. Which of the following is added to the glass in order to make its colour green?
K
A
a) Cobalt oxide
e/
b) Magnesium dioxide
t.m
c) Sodium oxide
d) Chromium sesquioxide
/
Answer: d
s:/
Explanation: Chromium sesquioxide is added to the glass in order to make its colour green. Ferric oxide is also adde
tp
d along with it. The coloured glass is used for many purposes such as window panels, decorative tiles, etc.
ht
12. Alternate layers of ________ plastic is present in bullet-proof glass.
a) Styrene
b) Vinyl-resin
c) Methyl methacrylate
d) Alkyd
Answer: b
Explanation: Bullet-proof glass is made of many layers of plate glass. Alternate layers of vinyl-resin plastic are pres
ent in this type of glass. This glass does not allow the bullet to pierce through it.
13. Which of the following is not true about fibreglass?
a) Fibreglass is soft to touch

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b) Fibreglass is flexible
c) Fibreglass readily absorbs water
d) Fibreglass is fire-proof
Answer: c
Explanation: Fibreglass consists of minute glass rods. Fibreglass is fire-proof and soft to touch. This type of glass is
flexible in nature. Also, it does not absorb water.
1. The process of heating to redness in the presence of air is called __________
a) Hydraulicity
b) Setting
um
c) Roasting
d) Calcination
nt
Answer: d
ua
Explanation: The process of heating to redness in the presence of air is called calcination. Hydraulicity is the propert
y of lime by which it sets in damp places or thick masonry walls where the free circulation of air is absent.
_Q
2. Lime is obtained from the calcination of ___________
ks
oo
a) Lime-silica
b) Sandstone
_B
c) Limestone
es
d) Lime-concrete
Answer: c
ot
Explanation: Lime is obtained from the calcination of limestone. Carbon dioxide and moisture are removed from it d
_N
ue to calcination and the product which remains is called lime.

TU
3. The chemical composition of quick lime is ____________

K
a) CaS
A
b) CaO
e/
c) MgO
t.m
d) MgS
Answer: b
/
Explanation: The chemical composition of quick lime is CaO. It is obtained by calcination of relatively pure limesto
s:/
ne. Quick lime has a great affinity for moisture.

tp
ht
4. Slaked lime is __________
a) Calcium oxide
b) Hydrated oxide of calcium
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Calcium silicate
Answer: b
Explanation: Slaked lime is the hydrated oxide of calcium. It is obtained by slaking of lime. Slaking is the process of
adding a sufficient quantity of water to quick lime to form a white powder called slaked lime.
5. Acid-resistant cement and gypsum are examples of _________ materials.
a) Air binding
b) Hydraulic binding
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c) Autoclave binding
d) Sound binding
Answer: a
Explanation: The binding materials are classified into three categories – air binding materials, autoclave binding mat
erials and hydraulic binding materials. Acid-resistant cement and gypsum are examples of air binding materials.
6. Which of the following is an autoclave binding material?
a) Quick lime
b) Hydraulic lime
c) Gypsum
d) Lime-silica
Answer: d
Explanation: Autoclave binding materials are also called autoclave-setting substances. Lime-silica is an example of
um
autoclave binding material. Quick lime and gypsum are examples of air binding materials. Hydraulic lime is an exa
mple of hydraulic binding material.
nt
ua
7. Kankar is an impure limestone while white chalk is pure limestone.
_Q
a) True
b) False
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: Lime generally does not occur in the free state in nature. The major source of obtaining lime is limesto
nes obtained from nature. Kankar is an impure limestone while white chalk is pure limestone.
_B
es
8. In order to develop hydraulicity, it is necessary to have _________ and _________ present in chemical combinati
on with the limestone.
ot
_N
a) Alumina and carbon

b) Magnesium and carbon
TU
c) Silica and carbon

d) Alumina and silica
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: In order to develop hydraulicity, it is necessary to have alumina and silica present in chemical combina
e/
tion with the limestone. Silicates of magnesium, aluminium and calcium are responsible for hydraulicity.
t.m
9. Which of the following is not a property of fat lime?

/
s:/
a) It readily hardens
tp
b) The colour of fat lime is perfectly white

ht
c) Fat lime slakes vigorously

d) Fat lime sets slowly in the presence of air
Answer: a
Explanation: Fat lime is called so because it slakes vigorously. The colour of the fat lime is perfectly white and it har
dens very slowly. Also, fat lime sets slowly in the presence of air.
10. Fat lime is also called _________
a) Water lime
b) Pure lime
c) Impure lime
d) Lean lime
Answer: b
Explanation: Fat lime is also called pure lime. It is also known as high calcium lime, rich lime or white lime. Fat lim
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e is widely used in whitewashing and plastering walls.
1. Poor lime contains more than ________ of clay.
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 30%
Answer: d
Explanation: Poor lime consists of more than 30% of clay. Poor lime slakes very slowly and is also known as lean li
me.
um
2. Fat lime slakes slowly while hydraulic lime slakes vigorously.
nt
ua
a) True
b) False
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: Fat lime slakes vigorously while hydraulic lime slakes slowly. Fat lime is used to prepare mortar with s
ks
and or surkhi while hydraulic lime is used to prepare mortar for thick walls and damp places.
oo
3. Percentage of impurities in limestones should not exceed ________ for preparing fat lime.
_B
es
a) 5%
b) 8%
ot
c) 10%
_N
d) 15%
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: Fat lime is prepared by calcination of a comparatively pure carbonate of lime. It should be composed o
f about 95% calcium oxide. The percentage of impurities in limestones should not exceed 5% for preparing fat lime.
K
A
4. Clay content in feebly hydraulic lime is about ________

e/
t.m
a) 2-4%
b) 5-10%
/
c) 11-20%
s:/
d) 21-30%
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: There are three main types of hydraulic lime- feebly hydraulic lime, moderately hydraulic lime and emi
nently hydraulic lime. Clay content in feebly hydraulic lime is about 5-10% and that in moderately hydraulic lime is
11-20% and in eminently hydraulic lime is 21-30%.
5. Which of the following is not true about hydraulic lime?
a) Hydraulic lime consists of clay and some amount of ferrous oxide

b) Hydraulic lime can set under water
c) It has a perfectly white colour
d) It is also known as water lime
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic lime consists of clay and some amount of ferrous oxide. It can set under water and is also kn
own as water lime. It does not have a perfect white colour due to which it appears less sanitary than white lime or fat
lime.
329 / 405
6. Pure limestones are indicated by _________ colour.
a) Brown
b) Blue
c) Grey
d) White
Answer: d
Explanation: Pure limestones are indicated by white colour. However, hydraulic limestones are indicated by brown,
bluish-grey or some dark colour.
7. Time taken by hydraulic lime to slake is about __________
a) 3-4 hours
um
b) 7-10 hours
c) 12-48 hours
nt
d) 60-65 hours
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: Time taken by hydraulic lime to slake is about 12-48 hours while the time taken by fat lime is about 3-
_Q
4 hours. Quantity of water needed to slake hydraulic lime is less than that required for fat lime.
ks
8. Which of the following statements about kankar is false?
oo
a) It is used to manufacture natural hydraulic lime
_B
b) It is available in nodular and block form
es
c) Kankar in nodular form can withstand heat without disintegration
d) It is a pure limestone
ot
Answer: d
_N
Explanation: Kankar is an impure limestone which is used to manufacture natural hydraulic lime. It is available in t
wo forms – nodular and block form. Kankar in nodular form can withstand heat without disintegration and contains
TU
a higher percentage of clay.

K
9. Which of the following is not true about clamp burning?

A
e/
a) It is adopted for manufacturing lime on a small scale

t.m
b) Best quality of lime is produced by this process

c) It is uneconomical to manufacture lime by this process on a large scale
/
d) Quantity of fuel required in this process is more

s:/
Answer: b
tp
Explanation: Burning of limestones to manufacture lime is generally carried out in one of the following – clamps, co
ht
ntinuous kilns and intermittent kilns. Clamp burning is used for manufacturing lime on a small scale. It is uneconom
ical to manufacture lime by this process on a large scale because the quantity of fuel required in this process is more
and quality of lime produced by this process is not good.
10. Hydraulic lime resembles natural cement with about __________ of clay.
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 60%
Answer: c
Explanation: With an increase in the percentage of clay in hydraulic lime its hydraulic property increases and the sla
king becomes difficult. With about 30% of clay, hydraulic lime resembles natural cement.
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1. The term ceramics is derived from the Greek word ________
a) Ceramus
b) Keramius
c) Keramics
d) Keramos
Answer: d
Explanation: The term ceramics is derived from the Greek word keramos which means potter’s earth. The ceramic p
roducts are mainly classified into three categories – clay products, refractories and glass.
2. The term kaolin is used for indicating the product which has the composition of impure kaolinite.
um
a) True
nt
b) False
ua
Answer: b
Explanation: The term kaolin is used for indicating the product which has the composition of pure kaolinite. Silica a
_Q
nd alumina compounds are held in a colloidal state in kaolin and these form the basic constituents of all clays.
ks
3. ___________ is used for the production of clay in nature.
oo
a) Orthoclase felspar
_B
b) Styrene
es
c) Ortho sulphur
d) Monoclinic sulphur
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: Orthoclase felspar is used for the production of clay in nature. It is predominantly found in igneous roc
ks. It is greyish, whitish or pinkish in colour.
TU
4. In the manufacturing of tiles, the time required to complete the process of burning the tiles is about __________
K
A
a) 24 hours
e/
b) 36 hours
t.m
c) 72 hours
d) 96 hours
/
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: In the manufacturing of tiles, four different operations are involved. These are the preparation of the cl
tp
ay, moulding, drying and burning. Tiles are burnt in kilns. The time required to complete the process of burning the t
ht
iles is about 72 hours.
5. In the preparation of clay for manufacturing tiles, after making the selected clay free from impurities, it is convert
ed into fine powder in a __________
a) Pugmill
b) Ball mill
c) Continuous kiln
d) Intermittent kiln
Answer: a
Explanation: In the preparation of clay for manufacturing tiles, after making the selected clay free from impurities, it
is converted into fine powder in a pug mill. Fine clay left after the whole process is used to manufacture tiles.
6. The method of moulding of clay by potter’s wheel is adopted when the shape of the tile is ________ when on the
331 / 405
wheel.
a) Hexagonal
b) Rectangular
c) Square
d) Circular
Answer: d
Explanation: Moulding of clay can be done with the help of wooden moulds, potter’s wheel or by mechanical means
. The method of moulding of clay by potter’s wheel is adopted when the shape of the tile is circular when on the whe
el.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good tile?
a) It should be free from any bends or cracks
um
b) A good tile should be well burnt
c) It should not produce a clear ringing sound when struck
nt
d) It should be regular in size and shape
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: A good tile should be well burnt and free from any bends or cracks. It should be regular in size and sha
_Q
pe and should produce a clear ringing sound when struck.
ks
8. Thickness of floor tiles varies from ________
oo
a) 12-50 mm
_B
b) 55-70 mm
es
c) 72-130 mm
d) 145-166 mm
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: The different types of tiles depending on the use to which they are put are drain tiles, floor tiles and roo
f tiles. Floor tiles may be of square or hexagonal shape. The thickness of the floor tiles varies from 12-50 mm.
TU
9. Allahabad tiles, corrugated tiles and pantiles are all varieties of ________ tiles.
K
A
a) Drain
e/
b) Roof
t.m
c) Floor
d) Door
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: Allahabad tiles, corrugated tiles and pantiles are important varieties of roof tiles available in the market
tp
. Roof tiles are used as a covering for pitched roofs.

ht
10. Mangalore tiles are ________ in colour.
a) White
b) Blue
c) Red
d) Yellow
Answer: c
Explanation: Mangalore tiles are one of the important varieties of roof tiles. They are of flat pattern and are red in co
lour.

332 / 405
1. The number of Mangalore tiles required to cover 1 square metre of roof area is about ________
a) 5
b) 15
c) 25
d) 50
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of Mangalore tiles required to cover 1 square metre of roof area is about 15. Special Mang
alore tiles are available for ridge, valley and hip portions of the roof.
2. Pantiles are more curved than pot tiles.
a) True
b) False
um
Answer: b
Explanation: Pantiles are short and heavy. Pot tiles are ordinary half round country tiles. Pantiles are less curved tha
nt
n pot tiles.
ua
3. Pot tiles are _________ in section.
_Q
a) Semi-circular
ks
b) Circular
oo
c) Square
d) Hexagonal
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: Pot tiles are prepared on potter’s wheel. The shape of such tiles is given by a potter with his wet hands.
The length of pot tiles is about 20 cm and they are semi-circular in section.
ot
_N
4. Terra in terra-cotta means _______

TU
a) Oven
b) Baked
K
c) Earth
A
d) Burnt
e/
Answer: c
t.m
Explanation: Terra-cotta is a type of earthenware. Terra in terra-cotta means earth and cotta means baked. Terra-cott
a, therefore, means baked earth.
/
s:/
5. The percentage of iron oxide in the clay taken to manufacture terra-cotta is ________
tp
ht
a) 1-3%
b) 5-8%
c) 12-15%
d) 17-20%
Answer: b
Explanation: The percentage of iron oxide in the clay taken to manufacture terra-cotta is 5-8%. However, the proport
ion of lime should be about 1%.
6. Dried products formed after the drying process in the manufacturing of terra-cotta are burnt in _________
a) Blast furnace
b) Cupola furnace
c) Reverberatory furnace
d) Muffle furnace
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Answer: d
Explanation: There are four different operations involved in the manufacturing of terra-cotta. These are the preparati
on of clay, moulding, drying and then burning. Dried products formed after the drying process in the manufacturing
of terra-cotta are burnt in a muffle furnace.
7. Polished terra-cotta is also known as _________
a) Porous terra-cotta
b) Sawdust terra-cotta
c) Faience
d) Perforated terra-cotta
Answer: c
Explanation: Terra-cotta articles are of two types – porous terra-cotta and polished terra-cotta. Polished terra-cotta is
also known as faience or fine terra-cotta. It is available in a variety of colours.
um
8. Which of the following is also known as whiteware?
nt
ua
a) Earthenware
b) Stoneware
_Q
c) Rockware
d) Porcelain
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: Porcelain is also known as whiteware since its colour is white. The term porcelain is used to indicate a
n earthenware which is thin, white and semi-transparent. They are of two types – low voltage and high voltage porce
_B
lain.
es
9. Which of the following statements about porcelain is not true?

ot
_N
a) Low voltage porcelain is obtained by wet process

b) Porcelain is hard and brittle
TU
c) Porcelain is non-porous
d) Porcelain is prepared from felspar, clay, quartz and minerals
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Porcelain is prepared from felspar, clay, quartz and minerals and is non-porous, hard and brittle. Low v
e/
oltage porcelain is obtained by the dry process while high voltage porcelain is obtained by the wet process.
t.m
10. The percentage of clay in zircon porcelain is about ________

/
s:/
a) 5-10%
tp
b) 7-13%
ht
c) 15-30%
d) 40-60%
Answer: c
Explanation: The percentage of clay in zircon porcelain is about 15-30%. It contains 45-60% zircon and 15-30% sili
cate of zircon. Zircon porcelain is used in the manufacturing of spark plugs.
1. Which of the following statements about brickwork and stonework is false?
a) Brickwork is more watertight in comparison to stonework

b) Bricks can resist fire better than stones
c) The stonework is much stronger than brickwork
334 / 405
d) Stonework results in the development of better architectural effects
Answer: a
Explanation: Stonework is much stronger than brickwork. Bricks can resist fire better than stones. Brickwork is less
watertight in comparison to stonework. Stonework results in the development of better architectural effects.
2. Percentage of alumina in good brick earth should be about ________
a) 5-10%
b) 20-30%
c) 35-40%
d) 45-60%
Answer: b
Explanation: Percentage of alumina in good brick earth should be about 20-30%. Alumina is the main constituent of
every kind of clay and it imparts plasticity to earth.
um
3. Percentage of silica in good brick earth should be about _________
nt
ua
a) 10-15%
b) 20-35%
_Q
c) 50-60%
d) 80-90%
ks
Answer: c
oo
Explanation: Percentage of silica in good brick earth should be about 50-60%. Silica exists in clay either in the comb
ined state or in the free state. Its presence prevents shrinking and cracking of raw bricks.
_B
es
4. Excess of iron oxide in the bricks makes them _________ in colour.
ot
a) Red
_N
b) Yellow
c) Dark blue
TU
d) White
Answer: c
K
Explanation: Excess of iron oxide in the bricks makes them dark blue or blackish in colour. However, if its quantity
A
is comparatively less, the bricks will turn yellowish in colour.

e/
t.m
5. Iron oxide imparts ________ colour to the bricks.

/
a) Red
s:/
b) White
tp
c) Black
ht
d) Grey
Answer: a
Explanation: The percentage of iron oxide desirable in good brick earth is 5-6%. Iron oxide imparts a red colour to t
he bricks.
6. What is the correct order in which clay for bricks is prepared?
a) Cleaning, digging, tempering, weathering, unsoiling and blending

b) Digging, tempering, cleaning, weathering, unsoiling and blending
c) Tempering, digging, blending, weathering, cleaning and unsoiling
d) Unsoiling, digging, cleaning, weathering, blending and tempering
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four different operations involved in the process for the manufacturing of bricks. The correct
order in which clay for bricks is prepared is unsoiling, digging, cleaning, weathering, blending and tempering.
335 / 405
7. The process of bringing clay to a proper degree of hardness is called _________
a) Blending
b) Weathering
c) Tempering
d) Pugging
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of bringing clay to a proper degree of hardness is called tempering. It is done in order to o
btain a homogeneous mass of clay and to make it fit for moulding.
8. The process of grinding clay with water and making the clay plastic is called _________
a) Unsoiling
um
b) Weathering
c) Digging
nt
d) Pugging
ua
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of grinding clay with water and making the clay plastic is called pugging. Unsoiling is the
_Q
removal of the top layer of soil which is full of impurities. In digging, clay is dug out from the ground and then spre
ad on the levelled ground. In the process of weathering, clay is exposed to the atmosphere for softening.
ks
oo
9. Tempering is usually done in a __________ in order to manufacture good bricks on a large scale.
_B
a) Pugmill
es
b) Intermittent kiln
c) Continuous kiln
ot
d) Ball mill
_N
Answer: a
Explanation: Tempering is usually done in a pugmill in order to manufacture good bricks on a large scale. A pug mil
TU
l is fixed on a timber base and consists of a conical iron tub with cover at the top of it.
K
10. The height of pugmill is about _________

A
e/
a) 2 m
t.m
b) 6 m
c) 8 m
/
d) 12 m
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The height of pugmill is about 2 m. The diameter of pugmill at its top is about 1 m and that at the botto
ht
m is about 80 cm. The dept of the pugmill below the ground is about 60-80 cm.
11. Steel moulds used in the process of moulding for the manufacturing of bricks are less durable than the brick mou
lds.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two ways of moulding – hand moulding and machine moulding. Moulds are rectangular box
es that are open at the bottom and the top. They can be of either wood or steel. Steel moulds used in the process of m
oulding for the manufacturing of bricks are more durable than the brick moulds.
12. The thickness of steel mould is usually ________

336 / 405
a) 2 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 2 cm
d) 6 cm
Answer: b
Explanation: The thickness of steel mould is usually 6 mm. These are used to manufacture bricks on a large scale. T
hey are prepared from steel plates and channels.
13. The size of moulds should be kept smaller than the fully burnt bricks.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of moulds should be kept larger than the fully burnt bricks. This is because bricks shrink durin
um
g the process of drying and burning. Thus, moulds are made longer in all the directions by 8-12%.
nt
ua
_Q
1. Which of the following is a type of bricks prepared by hand moulding?
ks
a) Ground-moulded bricks
oo
b) Plastic clay bricks
c) Dry clay bricks
_B
d) Wet clay bricks
es
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of bricks prepared by hand moulding. These are ground-moulded bricks and table-
ot
moulded bricks. Moulding can also be done by machines. These machines are mainly divided into two categories –
_N
dry clay machines and plastic clay machines.

TU
2. Which of the following statements about a frog is not true?

K
a) A frog is used to indicate the trade name of the manufacturer

A
b) It is placed on raw bricks during moulding

e/
c) It is a mark of depth about 10-20 cm

t.m
d) It serves as a key for holding mortar

Answer: c
/
Explanation: A frog is used to indicate the trade name of the manufacturer. It is a mark of depth about 10-20 mm. It i
s:/
s placed on raw bricks during moulding and serves as a key for holding mortar.
tp
ht
3. Which of the following is not a variety of continuous kilns?
a) Bull’s trench kiln

b) Hoffman’s kiln
c) Down-draught kiln
d) Tunnel kiln
Answer: c
Explanation: Continous kilns are continuous in operation which means that in these kilns, loading, firing, cooling an
d unloading, all are carried out simultaneously. The various types of continuous kilns are bull’s trench kiln, Hoffman
’s kiln and tunnel kiln.
4. Which of the following types of kilns is also known as flame kiln?
a) Intermittent down-draught kiln

337 / 405
b) Intermittent up-draught kiln
c) Hoffman’s kiln
d) Bull’s trench kiln
Answer: c
Explanation: Hoffman’s kiln is also known as a flame kiln. It is constructed overground. Bricks of good quality are
produced in this kiln since they are burnt equally and evenly.
5. The shape of Hoffman’s kiln is ______ in the plan.
a) Circular
b) Rectangular
c) Hexagonal
d) Trapezoidal
Answer: a
um
Explanation: The shape of Hoffman’s kiln is circular in plan. It is divided into a number of chambers and each cham
ber is provided with the main door for loading and unloading of the bricks.
nt
ua
6. Which of the following is not a quality of a good brick?
_Q
a) It should be well burnt in kilns
b) It should give a clear ringing sound when struck with another brick
ks
c) It should be uniform in shape and should be sufficiently hard
oo
d) It should have a high thermal conductivity
Answer: d
_B
Explanation: A good brick should be well burnt in kilns and should have a low thermal conductivity. It should give a
es
clear ringing sound when struck with another brick. It should be uniform in shape and should be sufficiently hard.
ot
7. Second class bricks should not absorb water more than ________ by weight when soaked in cold water for one da
_N
y.
TU
a) 20%
b) 22%
K
c) 30%
A
d) 42%
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Second class bricks should not absorb water more than 22% by weight when soaked in cold water for o
ne day. Also, first-class bricks should not absorb water more than 20% by weight.
/
s:/
8. The minimum crushing strength of a brick is generally _________

tp
ht
a) 10 kg/cm2
b) 20 kg/cm2
c) 30 kg/cm2
d) 35 kg/cm2
Answer: d
Explanation: The minimum crushing strength of a brick is generally 35 kg/cm2. It is found out by placing the brick i
n a compression testing machine and it is then pressed till it breaks.
9. The efflorescence on the surface of bricks is said to be slight if the white deposits cover about ________ of the su
rface.
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 25%
338 / 405
d) 50%
Answer: a
Explanation: Presence of soluble salts causes efflorescence on the surface of the bricks. The efflorescence on the sur
face of bricks is said to be slight if the white deposits cover about 10% of the surface. It becomes heavy if these dep
osits are found on more than 50% of the surface.
10. First-class bricks are _______ while second class bricks are __________
a) Table-moulded, ground-moulded
b) Ground-moulded, table-moulded
c) Table-moulded, table-moulded
d) Ground-moulded, ground-moulded
Answer: a
Explanation: First class bricks are table-moulded while second class bricks are ground-moulded. The surface and ed
um
ges of first-class bricks are sharp and straight while the surface of second class bricks is somewhat rough.
nt
11. _________ brick is moulded with a double bullnose on the end.
ua
a) Cownose
_Q
b) Hollow
c) Cellular
ks
d) Coping
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: A cownose brick is moulded with a double bullnose on the end. A bullnose brick is moulded with a rou
_B
nded angle and is used for a rounded quoin.
es
12. Which of the following is not correct about pressed and wire cut bricks?
ot
_N
a) These bricks have sharp edges and corners

b) Their external surface is smooth
TU
c) These bricks exhibit uniform texture

d) They are lighter than the ordinary hand-moulded bricks
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: Pressed and wire cut bricks are much heavier than the ordinary hand-moulded bricks. These bricks hav
e/
e sharp edges and corners. They exhibit uniform texture and their external surface is smooth.
/t.m

s:/
tp
1. The substance which is used for removing the excess material by means of cutting is called ____________
ht
a) Abrasive
b) Adhesive
c) Cohesive
d) Asphalt
Answer: a
Explanation: The substance which is used for removing the excess material by means of cutting is called an abrasive
. They are the hardest materials. They are used to polish soft materials and provide them with an attractive appearanc
e.
2. Which of the following is not a natural abrasive?
a) Garnet
b) Silicon
339 / 405
c) Diamond
d) Flint
Answer: b
Explanation: Abrasives are broadly classified into two categories – natural and artificial abrasives. Natural abrasives
are those which occur in nature. Garnet, diamond and flint are examples of natural abrasives while silicon is an artif
icial abrasive.
3. Which of the following is not a synthetic abrasive?
a) Carbides of aluminium
b) Boric acid
c) Corundum
d) Silicon
Answer: c
um
Explanation: Synthetic abrasives or artificial abrasives can be prepared of desired quality and their manufacturing all
ows the exact duplication of the product. Examples of synthetic abrasives are carbides of aluminium, silicon, boric a
nt
cid etc. Corundum is an example of a natural abrasive.
ua
4. Which of the following is not a synthetic resin?
_Q
a) Melamine resins
ks
b) Urea resins
oo
c) Animal protein glue
d) Phenolic resins
_B
Answer: c
es
Explanation: There are mainly four types of synthetic resins. These are melamine resins, urea resins, phenolic resins
and resorcinol resins. Melamine resins are used in the manufacturing of plywood and phenolic resins are used in the
ot
manufacturing of resin-bonded plywood.

_N
5. The thermo-plastic glues are permanent once they are set.

TU
a) True
K
b) False
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: Glues from synthetic resins can be either thermo-plastic glues or thermo-setting glues. The thermo-plas
t.m
tic glues, on reheating, can be made plastic again while the thermo-setting glues are permanent once they are set.
/
6. Nitrocellulose glues are prepared from _________

s:/
tp
a) Natural gum
ht
b) Starch
c) Rubber
d) Pyroxilin
Answer: d
Explanation: Nitrocellulose glues are prepared from pyroxilin. pyroxilin is nitrated cellulose which is derived by the
treatment of cellulose with nitric acid.
7. Rubber glues are obtained by dissolving rubber in _________
a) Alcohol
b) Glycerol
c) Benzene
d) Phenol
Answer: c
340 / 405
Explanation: Rubber glues are obtained by dissolving rubber in benzene. They are extensively used for joining rubb
er, glass, plastics, etc.
8. Which of the following is also known as residual asphalt?
a) Lake asphalt
b) Natural asphalt
c) Rock asphalt
d) Artificial asphalt
Answer: d
Explanation: Asphalt is divided into two categories – natural and residual asphalt. Natural asphalt is obtained from n
ature. Residual asphalt is also known as artificial asphalt.
9. We can obtain lake asphalt from lakes at _________
um
a) Bermudez and Trinidad
nt
b) Argentina and Brazil
ua
c) Chile and Colombia
d) Ecuador and Mexico
_Q
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural asphalt is divided into two groups – lake asphalt and rock asphalt. We can obtain lake asphalt f
ks
rom lakes at Bermudez and Trinidad at depths which vary from 3-60 m.
oo
10. Which of the following is not a property of asphalt?
_B
es
a) Asphalt is a good insulator of heat and electricity
b) Asphalt is waterproof material
ot
c) Asphalt is inflammable
_N
d) Asphalt is not attacked by acids

Answer: c
TU
Explanation: Asphalt is a good insulator of heat and electricity. Asphalt is waterproof material and non-inflammable.
Asphalt is not attacked by acids.
K
A
11. Tensile strength of leather belts should be about _______

e/
t.m
a) 75 kg/cm2
b) 175 kg/cm2
/
c) 275 kg/cm2
s:/
d) 375 kg/cm2
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: Tensile strength of leather belts should be about 175 kg/cm2. Belts are used for driving machinery, for
running mechanical conveyors or for transmitting power.
12. Tensile strength of rubber belts is about _______
a) 100 kg/cm2
b) 300 kg/cm2
c) 400 kg/cm2
d) 1000 kg/cm2
Answer: c
Explanation: Tensile strength of rubber belts is about 400 kg/cm2. Rubber belts are reinforced with jute, cotton, can
vas etc. Rubber belts are quite cheap and have a better grip on pulleys.
13. The binding material present in asphalt is __________

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a) Porcelain
b) Melamine
c) Bakelite
d) Bitumen
Answer: d
Explanation: The binding material present in asphalt is bitumen. It is also called mineral tar and is obtained by partia
l distillation of crude petroleum.
14. The amount of inert filler in plastic bitumen is about _________
a) 5-15%
b) 40-45%
c) 60-75%
um
d) 80-95%
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: Plastic bitumen consists of bitumen, a suitable inert filler and a thinner. The amount of inert filler in pla
ua
stic bitumen is about 40-45%. Plastic bitumen is used to fill cracks in masonry structures.
_Q
15. Which of the following is not true about cork?
ks
a) It is obtained from the bark of cork oak trees
oo
b) Cork is a good conductor of sound and electricity
c) Cork is porous
_B
d) Cork is not attacked by heat and moisture
es
Answer: b
Explanation: Cork is porous and is a good insulator of sound and electricity. It is obtained from the bark of cork oak
ot
trees and is not attacked by heat and moisture.

_N
TU

K
1. The power to resist an electric stress is called as ___________

A
e/
a) Dielectric strength
t.m
b) Conduction
c) Insulation
/
d) Dielectric
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The power to resist electric stress is called dielectric strength. Dielectric is used to refer to a substance t
ht
hat is capable of supporting electric stress.
2. Which of the following is not a property of a good electrical insulator?
a) It has high electrical resistance

b) It has a high dielectric strength
c) It has a high dielectric constant
d) It has a high thermal resistance
Answer: c
Explanation: A good electrical insulator has high electrical resistance and high thermal resistance. It has high dielect
ric strength and low dielectric constant.
3. Coal gas is obtained by thermal decomposition of coal in the presence of air at low temperature.
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a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Coal gas, natural gas and producer gas are some important gaseous fuels. Coal gas is obtained by therm
al decomposition of coal in the absence of air at high temperatures.
4. Which of the following is not a solid fuel?
a) Petroleum
b) Charcoal
c) Coke
d) Coal
Answer: a
Explanation: A fuel is a substance that is capable of creating heat energy which can be put to industrial use. Fuels ar
um
e classified into three groups depending on the state in which they occur. These are solid fuels, liquid fuels and gase
ous fuels. Charcoal, coke and coal are examples of solid fuels while petroleum is a liquid fuel.
nt
ua
5. The percentage content of water and calcium sulphate in gypsum is _______ and _______ respectively.
_Q
a) 20.9, 79.1
b) 15.4, 84.6
ks
c) 30.7, 69.3
oo
d) 55.3, 44.7
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: Gypsum is the hydrated sulphate of calcium and is a white crystalline substance. The percentage conte
es
nt of water and calcium sulphate in gypsum is 20.9 and 79.1 respectively.
ot
6. Which of the following statements about gypsum is not correct?

_N
a) The final setting time of gypsum is 30 minutes

TU
b) The solubility of gypsum in water is very poor

c) Gypsum in insoluble in sulphuric acid
K
d) Gypsum is insoluble in hydrochloric acid

A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: The final setting time of gypsum is 30 minutes. The solubility of gypsum in water is very poor. Gypsu
t.m
m in insoluble in sulphuric acid but soluble in hydrochloric acid.

/
7. Plaster of Paris is __________

s:/
tp
a) Double hydrate of aluminium sulphate

ht
b) Double hydrate of calcium sulphate

c) Hemihydrate of calcium sulphate
d) Hemihydrate of aluminium sulphate
Answer: c
Explanation: Plaster of Paris is hemihydrate of calcium sulphate. On heating finely ground gypsum at a suitable tem
perature, it loses about 14.7% of its water content and forms plaster of Paris.
8. Which of the following should be added to the plaster of Paris in order to increase its setting time?
a) Alum
b) Potassium sulphate
c) Potassium nitrate
d) Citric acid
Answer: d
343 / 405
Explanation: To increase the setting time of the plaster of Paris, suitable retarders are added in it. Citric acid, clay, g
um, glue, starch, etc. are all examples of such retarders.
9. The coefficient of heat conductivity of heat-insulating materials does not exceed _________
a) 0.18 kcal/m.hr.°C
b) 0.28 kcal/m.hr.°C
c) 0.38 kcal/m.hr.°C
d) 0.48 kcal/m.hr.°C
Answer: a
Explanation: The coefficient of heat conductivity of heat-insulating materials does not exceed 0.18 kcal/m.hr.°C. Th
ese materials are needed to give protection against heat and cold. They are generally porous.
10. Which of the following is not a solid lubricant?
um
a) Graphite
nt
b) Mica
ua
c) Grease
d) Soapstone
_Q
Answer: c
Explanation: With the use of lubricants, easy motion of the moving parts of a machine is facilitated. There are two ty
ks
pes of lubricants – solid lubricants and liquid lubricants. Graphite, mica and soapstone are examples of solid lubrica
oo
nts while grease is a liquid lubricant.
_B
11. Which of the following statements about liquid lubricants is false?
es
a) They should be greasy in nature

ot
b) Their melting point should be high

_N
c) Their boiling point should be high

d) They should not contain any impurities
TU
Answer: b
Explanation: Liquid lubricants should be greasy in nature and should not contain any impurities. Their boiling point
K
should be high and melting point should be low.

A
e/
12. Which of the following oils is obtained by boiling fats and other parts of cattle with water?
t.m
a) Lard oil
/
b) Whale oil
s:/
c) Neat’s foot oil

tp
d) Tallow oil
ht
Answer: c
Explanation: Neat’s foot oil is obtained by boiling fats and other parts of cattle with water. The specific gravity of th
is oil is 0.916. Neat’s foot oil is used for delicate mechanisms like clocks, sewing machines, etc.
13. Which of the following oils are obtained by mixing mineral oils with animal or vegetable oils?
a) Animal oils
b) Mineral oils
c) Greases
d) Blended oils
Answer: d
Explanation: Blended oils are obtained by mixing mineral oils with animal or vegetable oils. Blended oils are econo
mical. Also, the mineral oils become less volatile when animal oils or vegetable oils are added to them.
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14. Which of the following oils is obtained from the seed of rape plant?
a) Castor oil
b) Colza oil
c) Hazel-nut oil
d) Olive oil
Answer: b
Explanation: Colza oil is obtained from the seed of rape plant. This plant belongs to the cabbage family. Colza oil is
used as a lubricant for delicate instruments.
15. Buna-S, Neoprene and Butyl are different trade names of _________
a) Natural rubber
b) Synthetic rubber
um
c) Lubricants
d) Animal oils
nt
Answer: b
ua
Explanation: Rubber can be either natural or synthetic. Buna-S, Neoprene and Butyl are different trade names of syn
thetic rubber. Synthetic rubber refers to the rubber-like materials produced by chemical processes.
_Q
ks
oo
1. The colour of natural cement is __________
_B
es
a) Brown
b) Black
ot
c) White
_N
d) Yellow
Answer: a
TU
Explanation: The colour of natural cement is brown. Natural cement sets very quickly after adding water. The best v
ariety of natural cement is called Roman Cement.
K
A
2. Portland cement was invented by ___________

e/
t.m
a) John Raymond
b) Joseph Aspdin
/
c) Charles Frank
s:/
d) James Watson
tp
Answer: b
ht
Explanation: The common variety of artificial cement is called ordinary cement or normal setting cement. This ceme
nt after setting closely resembles a variety of sandstone abundantly found in Portland in England. Portland cement w
as invented by Joseph Aspdin in 1824.
3. Clay predominates in calcareous materials while calcium carbonate predominates in argillaceous materials.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The two basic ingredients of ordinary cement are argillaceous and calcareous. Calcium carbonate predo
minates in calcareous materials while clay predominates in argillaceous materials.
4. Calcium sulphate is present in ordinary cement in the form of __________

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a) Lime
b) Alumina
c) Gypsum
d) Magnesia
Answer: c
Explanation: Various ingredients of ordinary cement are lime, alumina, calcium sulphate, iron oxide, magnesia, etc.
Calcium sulphate is present in ordinary cement in the form of gypsum. The function of calcium sulphate in cement i
s to increase its initial setting time.
5. It results in the failure of concrete made from the cement if the amount of alkali oxides in it exceeds _________
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 12%
um
d) 17%
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: The presence of alkali oxides and magnesium oxide badly affects the quality of the cement. It results in
ua
the failure of concrete made from the cement if the amount of alkali oxides in it exceeds 1%.
_Q
6. Which of the following compounds is not formed during the setting action of the cement?
ks
a) Tricalcium aluminate
oo
b) Tricalcium silicate
c) Dicalcium silicate
_B
d) Dimagnesium carbonate
es
Answer: d
Explanation: Important compounds that are formed during the setting action of the cement are tricalcium aluminate,
ot
tricalcium silicate, dicalcium silicate and tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite. The setting action of the cement persists for
_N
a long time.
TU
7. During the setting action of the cement, tricalcium aluminate is formed within ________ after adding water to the
cement.
K
A
a) 6 hours
e/
b) 24 hours
t.m
c) 4 days
d) 1 week
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: During the setting action of the cement, tricalcium aluminate and tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite are for
tp
med within 24 hours after adding water to the cement. However, tricalcium silicate is formed within a week.
ht
8. Which of the following is the quickest to react with water when the water is added to the cement?
a) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
b) Tricalcium silicate
c) Dicalcium silicate
d) Tricalcium aluminate
Answer: d
Explanation: Tricalcium aluminate is the quickest to react with water when the water is added to the cement. In the o
rder of decreasing rate are tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite, tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate.
9. The percentage of dicalcium silicate in belit is more than ________
a) 10%
346 / 405
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 35%
Answer: d
Explanation: Portland cement is classified into alit, aluminate, belit, alumoferrite, etc. depending on the percentage o
f the mineralogical composition of clinker. The percentage of dicalcium silicate in belit is more than 35%.
10. High-alit contains tricalcium silicate more than ________
a) 10%
b) 13%
c) 30%
d) 60%
Answer: d
um
Explanation: High-alit contains tricalcium silicate more than 60%. However, alit contains tricalcium silicate more th
an 50-60%.
nt
ua
11. In the wet process in the manufacturing of portland cement, argillaceous material is thoroughly mixed with water
in _________
_Q
a) Wash mill
ks
b) Ball mill
oo
c) Reverberatory furnace
d) Blast furnace
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: In the manufacturing of portland cement, the raw materials can be mixed either in dry conditions or in
wet conditions. In the wet process, argillaceous material is thoroughly mixed with water in a wash mill while calcare
ot
ous materials are crushed and stored in storage tanks.

_N
12. The ratio of the percentage of alumina to that of oxide of iron in the cement should not be less than ________
TU
a) 0.24
K
b) 0.39
A
c) 0.66
e/
d) 0.79
t.m
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of the percentage of alumina to that of oxide of iron in the cement should not be less than 0.6
/
6. However, the ratio of the percentage of lime to those of iron oxide, alumina and silica should not be greater than 1
s:/
.02.
tp
ht
13. Total sulphur content in the cement should not be more than _________
a) 1.75%
b) 2.75%
c) 5.25%
d) 7.25%
Answer: b
Explanation: Sulphur content in the cement is calculated as sulphur trioxide. Total sulphur content in the cement sho
uld not be more than 2.75%.
1. The specific surface of cement should not be lesser than __________

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a) 550 cm2/gm
b) 1250 cm2/gm
c) 2250 cm2/gm
d) 5250 cm2/gm
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific surface serves as a measure of the frequency of particles having an average size. The speci
fic surface of cement should not be lesser than 2250 cm2/gm.
2. ___________ is the binding material of acid-resistant cement.
a) Lime
b) Soluble glass
c) Soda ash
um
d) Caustic soda
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: Soluble glass is the binding material of acid-resistant cement. It is a water solution of potassium silicat
ua
e or sodium silicate.
_Q
3. Sodium fluosilicate added in the acid-resistant cement decreases the resistance of cement to water and acid and als
o retards the hardening process of soluble glass.
ks
oo
a) True
b) False
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: An acid-resistant cement consists of acid-resistant aggregates like quartz, additives like sodium fluosili
cate and soluble glass. Sodium fluosilicate added in the acid-resistant cement increases the resistance of cement to w
ot
ater and acid and also accelerates the hardening process of soluble glass.
_N
4. The resistance to water of acid-resistant cement is increased by adding __________ of linseed oil.
TU
a) 0.50%
K
b) 0.15%
A
c) 2.50%
e/
d) 2.75%
t.m
Answer: a
Explanation: Acid-resistant cement is not water-resistant. However, the resistance to water of acid-resistant cement i
/
s increased by adding 0.50% of linseed oil. It is then called acid and water-resistant cement.
s:/
tp
5. The presence of chromium oxide in cement imparts _________ colour.

ht
a) Green
b) Orange
c) Blue
d) Red
Answer: a
Explanation: We can obtain cement of desired colour by mixing mineral pigments with the ordinary cement. The pre
sence of chromium oxide in cement imparts a green colour.
6. Expanding cement is obtained by the addition of an expanding medium like _________ to the ordinary cement.
a) Sodium silicate
b) Potassium silicate
c) Sodium aluminate
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d) Sulpho-aluminate
Answer: d
Explanation: Expanding cement is obtained by the addition of an expanding medium like sulpho-aluminate to the or
dinary cement. Therefore, the expanding cement expands while all other cements shrink. It is used to repair the dam
aged concrete surfaces.
7. The presence of cobalt in cement imparts _________ colour.
a) Yellow
b) Blue
c) Black
d) White
Answer: b
Explanation: The presence of cobalt in cement imparts blue colour. However, manganese dioxide is used to give bla
um
ck or brown coloured cement and oxide of iron in various proportions provide brown, yellow or red colour.
nt
8. In England, high alumina cement is known by the trade name of ___________
ua
a) Lumnite
_Q
b) Lumnite Fondu
c) Limonite
ks
d) Cement Fondu
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: In England, high alumina cement is known by the trade name of Cement Fondu. However, in America,
_B
it is known by the trade name of Lumnite. This cement can stand high temperatures.
es
9. The total alumina content in high alumina cement should not be less than _______
ot
_N
a) 24%
b) 32%
TU
c) 50%
d) 75%
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The total alumina content in high alumina cement should not be less than 32%. Also, it is specified that
e/
the ratio of alumina to lime by weight should lie between 0.85-1.30.

t.m
10. The final setting time of high alumina cement is about _______
/
s:/
a) 30 mins
tp
b) 2 hours
ht
c) 5 hours
d) 24 hours
Answer: c
Explanation: The final setting time of high alumina cement is about 5 hours. The setting action of this cement mainl
y depends on the chemical reactions and therefore it is not essential to grind it to a fine powder. Great amount of hea
t is evolved during setting.
11. Which of the following is not a hydrophobic admixture?
a) Lime silicate
b) Acidol
c) Naphthenesoap
d) Oxidised petrolatum
Answer: a
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Explanation: Hydrophobic cement consists of admixtures that are used to reduce the wetting ability of the cement gr
ains. The usual hydrophobic admixtures used are acidol, oxidised petrolatum and naphthenesoap.
12. Which of the following is not true about pozzuolana cement?
a) Pozzuolana cement can resist the action of sulphates

b) Less heat is evolved during its setting
c) Pozzuolana cement possesses a very low tensile strength
d) It imparts plasticity to the mortar prepared from it
Answer: c
Explanation: Pozzuolana cement possesses higher tensile strength and can resist the action of sulphates. It imparts pl
asticity to the mortar prepared from it and less heat is evolved during its setting.
um
nt
1. _________________ type of equipment have intermittent cycles of work.
ua
a) Intermittent
_Q
b) Continuous flow
c) Mixed
ks
d) Combination
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: Intermittent type of equipment are operated on series of work cycle and its cycle complete in itself. Po
_B
wer shovels, draglines, scrappers, Bulldozers, concrete mixers, etc. are examples of the intermittent type of equipme
es
nt.
ot
2. __________________ types of equipment have a continuous flow of work turned out.

_N
a) Mixed
TU
b) Combined
c) Continuous flow
K
d) Intermittent
A
Answer: c
e/
Explanation: Belt conveyors, pipelines, air compressors, etc. are examples of continuous flow type equipment. Wher
t.m
eas, motor graders, Bulldozers, scrappers, etc. are examples of mixed type equipment.
/
3. _________________ types of equipments are characteristics of both, intermittent as well as continuous flow type
s:/
equipments.
tp
ht
a) Combined
b) Mixed
c) Flow
d) Advanced
Answer: b
Explanation: Mixed type equipment are continuously operated over a define surface area. After completion of a parti
cular sweep, it requires operation cease and readjustment of its position to resume the production on another area.
4. The term ____________ is used to indicate the process of allocating a prepaid expense to accounting periods duri
ng which there are benefits realised from the depreciable equipment.
a) Cost Depreciation
b) Investment charges
c) Maintenance and repairs
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d) Operation cost
Answer: a
Explanation: The methods employed to determine the cost depreciation are arbitrary and they have to be arbitrary be
cause it is not possible to carry out tests, either theoretically or practically, to work out the rate of consumption of th
e economic productive usefulness of depreciable equipment.
5. In _____________ method, it is assumed that a property loses its value by the same amount every year.
a) Sinking fund
b) Operating Cost
c) Constant percentage
d) Straight line
Answer: d
Explanation: Straight line method is employed to work out the cost depreciation effectively. According to this metho
um
d, the total depreciation is the difference between original cost and Salvage or scrap value.
nt
6. In _____________ method, it is assumed that a property will lose its value by a constant percentage of its value a
ua
nd the beginning of every year.
_Q
a) Sinking fund
b) Constant percentage
ks
c) Straight line
oo
d) Operating Cost
Answer: b
_B
Explanation: according to constant percentage method, when the ratio S/P is very small, the depreciation for the first
es
year will be considerable, where S is Salvage or scrap value and P is the original cost.
ot
7. In _____________ method, the depreciation of properties assumed to be equal to the annual sinking fund plus the
_N
interest on the fund for that year.

TU
a) Sinking fund
b) Annual fund
K
c) Constant percentage
A
d) Straight line
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: The amount of the annual installment of the sinking fund may be found out by the sinking fund formul
a where S represents amount of sinking fund and i represent the rate of interest expressed in decimal for example 3
/
%.
s:/
tp
8. In ______________ the owner has to invest a certain amount for the purchase of an equipment.
ht
a) Cost depreciation
b) Investment charges
c) Operation cost
d) Management
Answer: b
Explanation: The investment cost to the owner includes interest on money invested, taxes of all times, insurance pre
mium and charges for storage. The rates of these items will vary from place to place, equipment to equipment and o
wner to owner.
9. The annual cost of _______________ may be determined independently or it may be linked up with the depreciat
ed cost of the equipment by a certain fix percentage.
a) Maintenance and repairs

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b) Depreciation cost
c) Installation
d) Operation cost
Answer: a
Explanation: In any case, the cost allotted to maintenance and repairs should be at least efficient to keep the equipme
nt in the work order. However, records of similar equipment may serve as a good guide for determining the average
annual cost of maintenance and repairs.
10. The ____________________ of an equipment mainly includes the amount spent for fuel and lubricating oil.
a) Maintenance and repairs

b) Refurbishment
c) Operation cost
d) Installation cost
um
Answer: c
Explanation: The operation cost will depend on the type of equipment, conditions under which it is operated, site of
nt
project comprises of fuel, lubricating oil, etc. It is possible to estimate of fairly accurate figure of operation cost for a
ua
ny equipment.
_Q
11. The term _____________ is used to indicate the period during which the equipment is in ideal condition.
ks
a) Depreciation
oo
b) Downtime
c) Inadequacy
_B
d) Normal deterioration
es
Answer: b
Explanation: If the equipment required maintenance and repairs often and often, it’s down time will be more. The in
ot
crease in down time will also affect production. It is there for better to replace the equipment is its down time increa
_N
ses.
TU
12. __________________ indicates the time duration by which we comes to know about the destructive period of an
equipment.
K
A
a) Depreciation
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b) Inadequacy
t.m
c) Obsolescence
d) Normal deterioration
/
Answer: d
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Explanation: As the equipment becomes old, it may be possible to maintain the quantity of production. But after a ce
tp
rtain interval of time, there is mass effect on the quality of production and at this stage, it will be advisable to replace
ht
the equipment to maintain the quality of production.
13. Due to _______________ the equipment seems physically sound but it becomes old fashioned and the rate of its
output becomes less.
a) Depreciation
b) Downtime
c) Obsolescence
d) Deterioration
Answer: c
Explanation: It sometimes so happened that the equipment is physically sound, but due to current development in m
odern technology, it becomes old fashioned and the rate of its output becomes less than the modern machinery.
14. The replacement of the equipment also depend on the _________

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a) Sorority
b) Downtime
c) Inadequacy
d) Working Method
Answer: d
Explanation: If the equipment is worked or operated carelessly, it will have to be replaced in a short time. When the
working load is high and equipment is insufficient for the required output of work, it is advisable to provide addition
al unit for the equipment.
1. _______________ is a self propelled machine which is used mainly to exert a powerful tractive force for pulling
um
other machines.
nt
a) Tractor
ua
b) Bulldozer
c) Angle dozer
_Q
d) Scraper
Answer: a
ks
Explanation: When the tractor is not required for hauling other machines, it can be easily converted to serve as bulld
oo
ozer, angle dozer, etc. The tractor are used for agriculture operations.
_B
2. A _________ is very useful equipment and it can be used for construction work like to clear the site of work, to m
es
ake the land level, etc.
ot
a) Scraper
_N
b) Grader
c) Excavator
TU
d) Bulldozer
Answer: d
K
Explanation: Depending upon the mountains, bulldozer maybe crawler tractor mounted bulldozer or will tractor mou
A
nted bulldozer. The latter can attain higher travel speed on the job and can be moved on paved floor without causing
e/
damage to the floor.

t.m
3. The size of the bulldozer is indicated by the dimension of its _________

/
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a) Site
tp
b) Tyre
ht
c) Engine
d) Blades
Answer: d
Explanation: Each Blade has a theoretical capacity of hauling a particular type of earth and knowing the number of t
urns a bulldozer will make in a given time, the approximate output of a bulldozer can be activated.
4. A ________________ can be used on wet ground and in all conditions of weather.
a) Grader
b) Scraper
c) Escalator
d) Bulldozer
Answer: d
Explanation: By suitable attachments to the bulldozer, it can be utilized to remove trees, rocks, Boulder, etc. In order
353 / 405
to increase the output, two Bulldozers working side by side with their blades in contact can be used.
5. A ____________ is used to level the ground and spreads the loose material.
a) Excavator
b) Scraper
c) Grader
d) Tractor
Answer: c
Explanation: Grader is a self propelled at home by a tractor. It consists of 3 to 4 M long angled blade supported on a
Framework mounted on wheels. It performs various operations like grading, spreading, side cutting and mixing of m
aterials.
6. A Grader which is told by a tractor is known as _________
um
a) Tractor grader
nt
b) Motor grader
ua
c) Scraper
d) Elevating grader
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: The self propelled greater is known as a motor grader. For grading the machine moves forward and ste
ks
ering in controlling by Steering wheel.
oo
7. _______________ consists of a large bucket which is attached to a tractor.
_B
es
a) Bulldozer
b) Scraper
ot
c) Grader
_N
d) Escalator
Answer: b
TU
Explanation: The capacity of scrapper varies from 3 M cube to 9 M cube. The scrap as a cutting edge or blade and th
e bottom and it is possible to dig earth to a depth of about 250 mm.
K
A
8. ________________ are usually mounted on two or four pneumatic tyred wheels.

e/
t.m
a) Scraper
b) Backactor
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c) Elevator
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d) Escalator
tp
Answer: a
ht
Explanation: An apron is provided in front of the container which opens and close in order to regulate the flow of ea
rth in and out of the container. Scrapers are capable of producing a very smooth and accurate formation level.
9. __________________ type of scraper consists of a four wheeled scrapper bowl towed behind crawler Power unit.
a) Three axle
b) Two axle
c) Crawler drawn
d) Four axle
Answer: c
Explanation: Capacities of a scrapper bowl ranges from 3 metre cube to 50 metre cube. The speed of operation is go
verned by the speed of towing vehicles, which is 8 km per hour when hauling, and 3 km per hour, when scrapping.
10. An _______________ is an oldest type of machine which removes earth.

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a) Escalator
b) Excavator
c) Elevator
d) Bulldozer
Answer: b
Explanation: Excavator performs it work of moving the earth while the main unit is stationary. The title effort is req
uired to move the dead weight of earth in a vertical plane.
11. _________________ type of excavator used for digging the foundation trenches below operating level.
a) Clamshell
b) Backactor
c) Power shovel
um
d) Skimmer
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: Back trench hoe excavator can also be used for the excavation of smaller areas such as basement, footi
ua
ng and trenches. The hoe is an instrument for scrapping, digging and losing the earth.
_Q
12. _________________ type of excavator is used for digging below, at or above operating level in a vertical range.
ks
a) Skimmer
oo
b) Dragline
c) Clamshell
_B
d) Back trench
es
Answer: c
Explanation: The Clamshell excavator are widely used for rehandling of material and for working in Limited space a
ot
s in case of foundation trenches for pipelines, etc. It is also used for jobs that require fairly accurate dumping and dis
_N
posal of material.
TU
13. ________________ type of excavator carries Shovel at its lower end.

K
a) Power shovel
A
b) Dragline
e/
c) Clamshell
t.m
d) Backactor
Answer: a
/
Explanation: Power shovel excavator is used to dig at or above the operating level. It can handle loose rock and the
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material caught in the shovel can be suitably disposed off.

tp
ht
14. __________________ type of excavator is used for digging at or below the operating level.
a) Skimmer
b) Dragline
c) Power shovel
d) Dredger
Answer: b
Explanation: The various types of dragline excavator are available and the factor affecting the output of a dragline e
xcavator are- the size and type of bucket, the depth of cutting, length of boom and the angle of Swing.
15. ________________ type of excavator carries the skimmer at its lower end.
a) Skimmer
b) Dredger
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c) Escalator
d) Elevator
Answer: a
Explanation: Skimmer is used for surface excavation and levelling and it cuts the surface of earth to a depth of about
200 mm to 300 mm. The skimmer excavator can also be used for loading the loose excavated material.
1. ______________ are used to excavate underwater material.
a) Scraper
b) Dredger
c) Excavator
um
d) Escalator
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: In order to provide the necessary depth of water near the ports, it becomes essential to do the process of
ua
dredging which is specialised form of excavation.
_Q
2. A _______________ Dredger consists of an endless chain of bucket mounted on a ladder.
ks
a) Bucket ladder
oo
b) Dipper
c) Grab
_B
d) Hydraulic
es
Answer: a
Explanation: The buckets are provided with a suitable cutting edge to facilitate digging. The material brought up by
ot
buckets is either drop directly into Hopper provided on the vessel or conveyed to the barges standing along side of th
_N
e vessel.
TU
3. A _______________ Dredger consists of a pontoon carrying a frame in which a revolving boom is fixed.
K
a) Grab
A
b) Hydraulic
e/
c) Bucket ladder
t.m
d) Dipper
Answer: d
/
Explanation: The dipper stick connects the bucket and boom. The bucket is dredged by releasing and pulling the hoi
s:/
st cable. The dipper dredger is ideal for working in heavy grounds.

tp
ht
4. A _____________ dredger essentially consist of a graph suspended from cable.
a) Hydraulic
b) Grab
c) Ladder
d) Bucket
Answer: b
Explanation: A grab is in the shape of scooper like a quadrant of a circle. It opens in its normal position. On being lo
wered to the bottom, the grab digs into the mud and by suitable arrangement, the grab is closed.
5. A _______________ Dredger essentially consist of sand pump which excavates and transport the bed material in
one operation.
a) Hydraulic
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b) Skimmer
c) Bucket ladder
d) Grab
Answer: a
Explanation: The suction pipe is provided at bottom with a cutter for hard material. This type of dredger is also kno
wn as suction dredger. A Hydraulic Dredger is unsuitable for open see where the height of sea waves exceeds 1200
mm.
6. ________________ is mounted on the wheels and carries two to four teeth, the usual number being three.
a) Rooter
b) Ripper
c) Ditcher
d) Trencher
um
Answer: a
Explanation: The Ripper is used to break up the ground and to pull up the roots. This loose and material can be remo
nt
ved by using scraper.
ua
7. ________________ is used to excavate the trenches of width from 250 mm to 450 mm and depth 4 m with accura
_Q
cy and speed.
ks
a) Ripper
oo
b) Rooter
c) Scarifier
_B
d) Ditcher
es
Answer: d
Explanation: Ditcher is mainly used to excavate Trenches from mains, gas lines, oil pipelines, telephone cable, drain
ot
age lines etc. These machines are generally crawler mounted. They can be wheel type or ladder type also.
_N
8. ____________ type Trencher can dig a trench up to 10 m in depth and 4 m in width.

TU
a) Bucket
K
b) Wheel
A
c) Ladder
e/
d) Series
t.m
Answer: c
Explanation: Ladder type Trencher consists of two endless chains with travel along the Boom, to which teethed cutte
/
r buckets are attached. By installing shaft mounted side cutter on each side of the Boom, the width of the trench can
s:/
be increased.
tp
ht
9. In a Trencher, a series of small cutting ____________ attached to two endless chains which are supported by a b
oom.
a) Buckets
b) Teeth
c) Grader
d) Cutter
Answer: a
Explanation: A single machine can be used for digging trenches of various size by varying the length of the Boom. S
ome trenches have an angle of mould blade, which have to carry out the back filling operation.
10. ___________________ equipment are used to decrease the porosity of earth and to increase the density and stre
ngth of the earth.
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a) Excavation
b) Compaction
c) Hauling
d) Hoisting
Answer: b
Explanation: Compaction of the earth and it is done by Rolling, kneading, Ramming, tamping, vibrating, etc. There
are three types of compaction equipment that is- rolling equipment, Ramming equipment and vibrating equipment.
11. _________________ type of rollers rely upon their deadweight to carry out consolidation work.
a) Rubber tyre
b) Pneumatic
c) Dead weight
d) Sheep’s foot
um
Answer: c
Explanation: Dead weight Roller are usually diesel powered and driven by a seated operator within a cabin. Their w
nt
eight varying from 1 to 16 tonnes which is distributed to the ground through two large diameter rear wheels and a wi
ua
der but small front Steering wheel.
_Q
12. The weight of _____________ Roller varies from 500 kg to 5 tonnes.
ks
a) Dead weight
oo
b) Vibrating
c) Ramming
_B
d) Tamping
es
Answer: b
Explanation: Vibrating rollers are more effective to consolidate small area in building works particularly in granular
ot
soil. They are available with or without water sprinkler attachments and with vibration ranging upto 3000 vibrations
_N
per minute.
TU
13. A _________________ roller consists of a flat platform below with number of smooth rubber tyre wheels are m
ounted on two or more axles.
K
A
a) Sheep’s foot
e/
b) Pneumatic
t.m
c) Smooth wheeled
d) Dead weight
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: The Rubber tyred or pneumatic rollers are found to be very efficient in the composition of earth upgrad
tp
e, granular soils in base course, final operation for bituminous surface dressing, etc. In addition to the direct pressure
ht
due to rolling these rollers also provide a slight kneading action.
14. ______________ rollers are also known as tamping rollers.
a) Sheep’s foot
b) Rubber tyred
c) Smooth wheeled
d) Pneumatic
Answer: a
Explanation: Sheep’s foot rollers consist of hollow Steel cylinder or cylinders, each about 1.20 m long and 1.20 m in
diameter with 180 mm to 230 mm projections extending out from the curved surface of the cylinder. These projecti
ons are made of steel and they resembles Sheep’s feet and are arranged in row round the cylinders, the projections in
successive rows being staggered.
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15. The ________________ rollers are considered most suitable for compacting clayey soil or soil containing mixtur
e of sand and clay.
a) Smooth wheeled
b) Sheep’s foot
c) Dead weight
d) Pneumatic
Answer: b
Explanation: In the modified form of Sheep’s foot rollers, the projections are replaced by segments or pads or grids
and such a modified form of Sheep’s foot Roller can be used satisfactorily for compacting granular material also.
um
1. A __________________ roller is a multi purpose roller which is used for various purposes and for practically all t
ype of roads.
nt
ua
a) Smooth wheeled
b) Pneumatic
_Q
c) Rubber tyred
d) Dead weight
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: Smooth wheeled rollers are suitable to compact a wide range of soils, preferably granular soil and pave
ment material for various layers. These rollers are particularly helpful in compacting soil and other materials where
_B
a crushing action is advantages.
es
2. Effective compaction is not achieved by ____________ rollers.

ot
_N
a) Rubber tyred
b) Sheep’s foot
TU
c) Pneumatic
d) Smooth wheeled
K
Answer: d
A
Explanation: The performance of three wheeled roller is a better as compared to a two wheel unit because of the con
e/
centration of pressure on the middle wheel when the roller passes over a spot in the surface that is being compacted.
t.m
The single wheel roller has diameter of about 900 mm and length of about 1.20 metres.
/
3. ________________ consist of a vibrating unit mounted on a screed, plate or roller.

s:/
tp
a) Earth rammers
ht
b) Pounding
c) Vibrating rollers
d) Vibratory compactors
Answer: d
Explanation: In Vibratory compactors, the vibrating unit maybe the out of balance weight type or a pulsating hydrau
lic type. This type of compactor is the most suitable for coarse grained soil.
4. The ________________ compact soil close to the earth surface only.
a) Earth rammers
b) Vibrating rollers
c) Ditcher
d) Skimmer
Answer: a
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Explanation: The vibrating earth rammers are generally used to achieve better compaction of the soil. The vibration
also makes it possible to adopt small and light equipment and to lay soil in the thick layers. The earth rammer maybe
run buy petrol or diesel engines.
5. _______________ are the most commonly used equipment for transportation.
a) Dump trucks
b) Rollers
c) Trucks
d) Bulldozers
Answer: c
Explanation: The Truck capacity varies from 0.4 metre cube to 20 m cube and its speed varies from 10 km per hour t
o 100 km per hour. According to self weight light trucks having weight upto 1 tonne, medium truck having weight u
pto 1.5 tonnes to 3 tonnes and heavy truck having with more than 3.5 tonnes and up to 10 tonnes.
um
6. _________________ is a self propelled machine which is used mainly to exert a powerful tractive force for pullin
nt
g other machines.
ua
a) Bulldozer
_Q
b) Crane
c) Dumper
ks
d) Tractor
oo
Answer: d
Explanation: The tractors are used for agricultural operations such as hoeing, tilling, harvesting, etc. When tractors a
_B
re equipped with shovels, they can be used for the mining operations. The tractors maybe crawler mounted or wheel
es
mounted.
ot
7. The trucks with automatic unloading device are called ________________

_N
a) Dumpers
TU
b) Trailers
c) Conveyer
K
d) Dump trucks
A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: In Dump trucks, loading is done manually or by loaders and unloading is done by the device fitted in th
t.m
e truck. Its capacity varies from 50 to 55 tonnes.

/
8. __________________ are very useful for horizontal transportation of materials like bricks, aggregates, scaffoldin
s:/
gs, etc.
tp
ht
a) Elevators
b) Escalators
c) Dumpers
d) Conveyors
Answer: c
Explanation: Dumpers are available in different sizes and varieties. They maybe four wheel drive, two wheel drive,
hydraulic or gravity operated container, side or high level discharge self loading dumpers, etc. Usually, Dumpers are
diesel powered and operated by single operator.
9. _________________ are extra wagons attached to the tractors or trucks.
a) Elevators
b) Conveyors
c) Trailers
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d) Dumper
Answer: c
Explanation: Trailers can be full trailers, semi trailers or trailers. They have hydraulic brakes and their lighting syste
m is operated from main units.
10. ___________________ are used for vertical transportation of aggregates and wet concrete on large project sites.
a) Elevators
b) Trucks
c) Conveyors
d) Escalators
Answer: a
Explanation: To raise the materials like bricks, tiles, cement, etc. to the upper floor level. Elevators moving with hig
h speeds are used. They have short chassis and strong dumping bodies. Dumping of material can be in front or at the
um
back.
nt
11. In order to raise and shift heavy loads from one place to another, the _________ are employed in the constructio
ua
n of big works.
_Q
a) Elevators
b) Conveyors
ks
c) Cranes
oo
d) Trucks
Answer: c
_B
Explanation: To transport materials or passengers vertically by means of a moving level platform, material hoist or p
es
assenger hoists are used. The cranes are mobile and a mobile crane can be used for various other purposes such as to
load and unload the material in coal mines by attaching a magnet to the crane, etc.
ot
_N
12. ________________ crane is used for open sites and it possesses a very long reach.
TU
a) Goliath
b) Derrick
K
c) Swing jib
A
d) Cable
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Derrick cranes can be slewed for 250° approximately. When the Darrick crane is to be permanently ins
talled, counterweight maybe in the form of concrete blocks.
/
s:/
13. In _________________ type of crane, heavy temporary staging or platform is prepared for the working of the cr
tp
ane.
ht
a) Cableways
b) Swing jib
c) Goliath
d) Platform
Answer: c
Explanation: In Goliath cranes, heavy loads can be shifted over considerable distances. These cranes are costly and a
re used in the construction of Harbour works, shops of steel work, etc.
14. ________________ are cranes of Swing jib type and are mounted on high Steel Towers.
a) Cableways
b) Swing jib
c) Tower
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d) Goliath
Answer: c
Explanation: The height of Tower maybe 25 to 30 meters and these cranes are found to be extremely useful in the co
nstruction of tall buildings in congested area. The ground area required for such cranes is also very small and they ca
n be prepared very close to buildings.
15. A ________________ consists of a coil whose diameter is about 50 mm to 100 mm.
a) Cableway
b) Tower crane
c) Roller
d) Hoists
Answer: b
Explanation: The cable has a breaking strength of 2500 kN to 7000 kN and its Unit Weight is about 150 Newton to 5
um
00 Newton per metre length. The use of cable way is usually made in the transport of concrete from one place to the
other.
nt
ua
_Q
1. __________________ is the process of using a drill bit in a drill to produce cylindrical holes in solid materials, su
ks
ch as wood or metal.
oo
a) Pumping
_B
b) Hauling
es
c) Drilling
d) Excavating
ot
Answer: c
_N
Explanation: Different tools and methods are used for drilling depending on the type of material, the size of the hole,
the number of the holes and the time to complete the operation. The term drilling pattern is used to indicate the spac
TU
ing of the drill holes.

K
2. The term _____________ is used to indicate the spacing of the drill holes.
A
e/
a) Drilling bit
t.m
b) Drilling pattern
c) Abrasion drill
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d) Percussion drilling
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Answer: b
tp
Explanation: The drilling pattern to be selected for loading of explosives which depend on the type of drill employed
ht
, depth of the drill holes, amount of stemming required, type of rock, quantity and quality of explosive, etc. There ar
e several drilling patterns based on practical experience and suitable modifications are made to meet with the require
ment of each individual project.
3. In ________________ drilling pattern, the drill holes are arranged nearly parallel in horizontal plane with a slight
inclination.
a) Pyramidal cut
b) Straight line cut
c) Centre cut
d) Parallel cut
Answer: c
Explanation: In general, it is to be observed that the drilling pattern selected should give the desired breakage of roc
k with minimum over breakage. The term drilling pattern is used to indicate the spacing of the drill holes.
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4. In ______________ drilling pattern, the drill holes slope both in the horizontal and vertical planes.
a) Centre cut
b) Parallel cut
c) Pyramidal cut
d) Straight line cut
Answer: c
Explanation: Four cut holes are arranged such a manner that when these holes are blasted, pyramidal shaped rock is
removed from the surface of the rock. Whereas, in Centre cut pattern, the drill holes are arranged nearly parallel in h
orizontal plane with a slight inclination.
5. In ______________ type of drill, the grinding of rock into small particles is carried out through the Abrasive effe
ct of a bit which rotates in the hole.
um
a) Percussion
nt
b) Abrasion
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c) Pyramidal
d) Centre cut
_Q
Answer: b
Explanation: Whereas, pyramidal is a cut pattern, in which the drill holes slope both in horizontal and vertical planes
ks
. And in Centre cut pattern, the drill holes are arranged nearly parallel in the horizontal plane with a slight inclinatio
oo
n.
_B
6. _________________ is a rotary drill and it consists of steel pipe stem on the bottom of which is attached to a rolle
es
r bit.
ot
a) Blasthole
_N
b) Diamond
c) Shot
TU
d) Percussion
Answer: a
K
Explanation: The Blasthole drill bit, as it rotates over the rock, disintegrates it and the cuttings are removed by a stre
A
am of compressed air. The blast of compressed air also cools down the bit. The Blasthole drill is a self propelled dril
e/
l.
t.m
7. _________________ is a self-propelled drill.

/
s:/
a) Percussion drilling
tp
b) Shot drill
ht
c) Blasthole drill
d) Diamond drill
Answer: c
Explanation: The Blasthole drill is a self propelled drill and it is mounted on a truck or on a Crawler truck. This drill
s are suitable for drilling operations of soft to medium rocks.
8. _______________ is a rotary type of drill and its bit consists of a metal mould or Matrix containing a large numb
er of diamonds.
a) Percussion drilling
b) Shot drill
c) Diamond drill
d) Churn drill
Answer: c
363 / 405
Explanation: The Diamond drill is rotated and the diamonds disintegrate the rock. The rate of drilling with a diamon
d drill will depend on the type of rock and it varies from 300 mm to several metres per hour. Diamond drills are capa
ble of drilling holes in excess of 300 meters.
9. _________________ bits are specially used for very hard materials.
a) Churn drill
b) diamond drill
c) Steam hammer
d) Stop hammer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Diamond drill speeds vary depending upon the manufacturer and the type of diamond drill. When
used properly, the Diamond drill bit should never be hot. The drill bit should never be more than warm, to the touch.
If a bit becomes hot, it is an indication of inadequate lubrication, too fast a drill speed or too much pressure for the s
um
pecific material being drilled.
nt
10. ________________ based lubricants do not work well on diamond drill bits.
ua
a) Water
_Q
b) Oil
c) Grease
ks
d) Gum
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: Water or coolant must always be used to cool and lubricate the tip. The lubrication reduces heat, prolon
_B
ging drill bit life and helps to avoid heat fractures in the material. Water is most often used as a lubricant, since it wo
es
rks very well and has no cost.
ot
11. _______________ is a Rotary type drill and its abrasive power depends on the bit which is in the form of a secti
_N
on of steel pipe with serrated or a roughened lower end.

TU
a) Shot drill
b) Churn drill
K
c) Piston drill
A
d) Tripod drill
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: The Shot drill bit is rotated under pressure and the cuttings are removed by water which is supplied thr
ough the drill rod. Standard shot drills can drill holes to a depth of about 180 metres or more with diameter varying f
/
rom 65 mm to 500 mm. It is possible to drill rock of any hardness with the help of these drills.
s:/
tp
12. ________________ type of drill consists of a long Steel bit which is mechanically lifted up and dropped down to
ht
disintegrate the rock.
a) Stop hammer
b) Drop hammer
c) Steam hammer
d) Churn drill
Answer: d
Explanation: Churn Drill can be used to drill holes vertically only. With the help of these drills, it is possible to drill
holes of 150 mm diameter or so to a considerable depth, irrespective of the hardness of the rock.
13. ____________________ is a air operated drill similar to Jack hammer.
a) Jack hammer
b) Drifter
364 / 405
c) Piston drill
d) Stop hammer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drifter is used for drilling vertical or horizontal holes. They are extensively used in tunnel work and th
ey can drill holes of diameter up to about 120 mm. The cuttings can either be removed by air or water.
14. _______________ is a heavy duty rock drills used for drifting and tunnelling and for benching and production dr
ills.
a) Drifter
b) Jack hammer
c) Rotary Hammer
d) Tripod drill
Answer: a
um
Explanation: The Drifter can be used in both under ground and surface work mounted on Wagon drill, with features
of reversible rotation, which can be also disengaged, so that only the impact mechanism works. Flushing is possible
nt
as air blows or water flushing and all drill functions are operated from a control.
ua
15. ________________ is an air operated drill which can easily be carried from one place to the other.
_Q
a) Jack hammer
ks
b) Piston drill
oo
c) Stop hammer
d) Tripod drill
_B
Answer: a
es
Explanation: Jack hammer is also known as a Sinker as it is mainly used to drill vertical holes. The compressed air
moves the Piston and the hammering effect is transferred to the bit through the drill Steel. In place of air, water may
ot
be used to remove the cuttings.

_N
TU

K
1. A ___________________ is also known as roto-hammer drill or masonry drill.

A
e/
a) Rotary percussion drill

t.m
b) Steam hammer
c) Stop hammer
/
d) Tripod drill
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The Rotary hammer drill is a percussion drill that uses a weight to create the impact force on the mason
ht
ry bit. Some styles of these drills are intended for masonry drilling only.
2. A ______________ is a power driven hammer used to shape forgings.
a) Tripod drill
b) Wagon drill
c) Stop hammer
d) Steam hammer
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam hammer consists of a hammer like Piston located within a cylinder. The hammer is raised by the
pressure of steam injected into the lower part of a cylinder and falls down with a force by removing the steam. Stea
m hammer that fall by their own weight are called as steam drop hammers.
3. _________________ is the modified form of Jack hammer.

365 / 405
a) Tripod drill
b) Wagon drill
c) Piston hammer
d) Stop hammer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stop hammer is used for overhead drilling as in case of a tunnel. The feeding of Stop Hammer maybe a
utomatic or hand operated.
4. ________________ is a Jack hammer mounted on a tripod with legs spread out to grant sufficient stability to the
drill.
a) Wagon drill
b) Tripod drill
um
c) Steam hammer
d) Jack hammer
nt
Answer: b
ua
Explanation: In case of Tripod drill, it becomes necessary to frequently move the tripod drill to adjust for subsequent
drilling work and hence, tripod drills are only used for drilling operations on very hard rocks.
_Q
5. ________________ are drifters which are mounted on masts and masts are mounted on two wheels to provide eas
ks
y portability of the drills.
oo
a) Wagon drills
_B
b) Tripod drills
es
c) Rotary percussion drills
d) Rotary hammer drills
ot
Answer: a
_N
Explanation: The Wagon drills can be used to drill holes up to a depth of about 10 meters or more and they give bett
er performance as compared to jackhammers. They can be used to drill at any angle from down to slightly above hor
TU
izontal.
K
6. The _____________ is gripped by a chuck at one end of the drill and is pressed against the target material and rot
A
ated.
e/
t.m
a) Drilling Coolant
b) Drilling hammer
/
c) Drilling bit
s:/
d) Drilling pattern
tp
Answer: c
ht
Explanation: The tip of the drill bit does the work of cutting into the target material, either slicing of thin shaving, gr
inding of small particles or crushing and removing pieces of work. Drill bits are cutting tools used to create cylindric
al holes.
7. In _____________ the bits for Jack hammer and drifters are forged on one end of the drill Steel.
a) Detachable bits
b) Forged bits
c) Rotary bits
d) Revolving bits
Answer: b
Explanation: Forged bits are made up of a single length of drill Steel. They are available in various shapes such as ci
rcular, octagonal, hexagonal, etc. For forging bits, air operated drills has to be installed at the site of work. The sharp
ener sharpens the bit as required.
366 / 405
8. ________________ are Steel bits which are screwed to the ends of drill rods and they can be attached to or remov
ed from the drill steel.
a) Detachable bits
b) Forged bits
c) Removable bits
d) Sharpened bits
Answer: a
Explanation: The advantages of detachable beats as compared to Forge beats are- they are available in various sizes
and shapes and hardness; they are factory made products and hence, they are of superior quality.
9. ______________ are the most common drilling tools used by the handyman with either hand or electric drill.
um
a) Screwdriver bits
b) Tile bits
nt
c) Masonry bits
ua
d) Twist bits
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: Most twist beds are made from other High Speed Steel or Carbon Steel. Twisted bits made from high s
peed Steel are suitable for drilling most types of materials while drilling metals the HSS stands up to high temperatu
ks
res.
oo
10. Twist bits are also available coated with ______________
_B
es
a) Calcium chloride
b) Aluminium Nitrate
ot
c) Titanium Nitrate
_N
d) Titanium Nitride
Answer: d
TU
Explanation: Twist bits coated with Titanium Nitride are easily identified by the gold like colour. This coating incre
ases the hardness of the bit and adds self lubricating property. The coating is only really effective when metal is bein
K
g drilled, it has little effect when working with other materials.

A
e/
11. _________________ are designed to fit in rechargeable screwdriver and have low power.
t.m
a) Tile bits
/
b) Screwdriver bits
s:/
c) Wood auger bits

tp
d) Masonry bits
ht
Answer: b
Explanation: Screwdriver bits have a hexagonal shank and are ideal for drilling pilot holes. They are available in Li
mited sizes.
12. _______________ are designed for drilling into brick, block, stone or concrete.
a) Wood auger bits

b) Masonry bits
c) Bullet pilot bits
d) Spur point bits
Answer: b
Explanation: The cutting tip of masonry bit is often made from tungsten carbide bonded to a spiralled Steel shaft. So
me masonry drills are described as Durium Tipped, means a highly durable Silicon Bronze alloy used instead of tun
gsten as the cutting point.
367 / 405
13. _________________ are also known as a wood or dowel bit.
a) Countersink bits
b) Flat wood bits
c) Hole saw bits
d) Spur point bits
Answer: d
Explanation: Spur point bits have a central point and two raised spurs that helps keep the bit drilling straight. The bit
cuts Timber very fast when used in a power drill and leaves clean sided hole. They are ideal for drilling holes for th
e Dowels as the sides of the holes are clean and parallel.
14. ____________________ are same as Spur point bits, but can be used in metal, wood and plastics.
um
a) Tile bits
b) Wood auger bits
nt
c) Countersink bits
ua
d) Bullet pilot point bits
Answer: d
_Q
Explanation: Bullet pilot point bits cut a clean hole and cause little damage when they break through the back of the
work piece. Size of the bits ranges from 1.5 mm to 13 mm.
ks
oo
15. __________________ is used in a power or hand drill to form the conical recess for the heads of countersunk scr
ews.
_B
es
a) Countersink bit
b) Carbide insert bit
ot
c) Hole saw bit

_N
d) Flat wood bit

Answer: a
TU
Explanation: Countersink bits tends to be designed for use on soft materials such as Timber and plastics, not metals.
When used with a power drill to countersink an existing hole, the bits tends to chatter, leaving a rough surface. Bette
K
r results will be obtained in the counter sink bit is used before the hole is drilled.
A
e/
t.m

/
1. _________________ drilling has rapidly become an inexpensive alternative to outdated mechanical hole drilling
s:/
methods.
tp
ht
a) Laser
b) Ultrasonic
c) Radiation
d) Atomic
Answer: a
Explanation: Laser drilling provides consistency for manufacturing specifications relying on tight tolerance for high
depth to diameter ratios. Laser drilling hole sizes vary depending on laser power, Motion Control and galvo system.
Rapid prototyping is particularly adaptable to a wide range of hole sizes.
2. __________________ laser drilling uses a rapid fire burst of pulses micro-machining method.
a) Conventional
b) Trepanning
c) Percussion
368 / 405
d) Hydrostatic
Answer: c
Explanation: Varying the laser pulse duration, spot size, optics and beam characteristics Percussion laser drilling pro
duces a high quality hole with minimum residue and consistent edge quality from entry to exit point. The percussion
laser drilling evaporates the machine substrate laser by laser without noticeable strata or striations.
3. ____________________ laser drilling is a method used to remove a cylindrical Core, or circular disc from a subst
rate.
a) Trepanning
b) Percussion
c) Pulsating
d) Carbonic
Answer: a
um
Explanation: Unlike percussion laser drilling, the position of the beam or substrate is moved in conjunction with a pr
edetermined laser beam overlap to achieve the desired edge quality and production through out. Less overlap trepan
nt
ning laser drilling increases through out but produces more jagged edge quality.
ua
4. ______________________ is used to heat bitumen before it is applied on the road surface.
_Q
a) Dozer
ks
b) Concrete mixer
oo
c) Grader
d) Bitumen boiler
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: Bitumen boiler is mounted on wheel and can be transferred from one place to another. Whereas, Concr
ete mixer is used to prepare concrete for cement concrete roads.
ot
_N
5. ______________ is mainly used for grading purpose.

TU
a) Grader
b) Dozer
K
c) Scarifier
A
d) Scraper
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Dozer is of three types- bulldozer is used to push the material in the forward direction. Angle Dozer is
used to push the materials sideways. Tree Dozer or stumper contains a slightly curved blade and it is design for felli
/
ng trees and for unrooting the stumps.

s:/
tp
6. __________________ is used for designing the old road to a predetermined depth.

ht
a) Grader
b) Scarifier
c) Road roller
d) Scraper
Answer: b
Explanation: Scraper contents teeth which are known as Tynes. Grader is used for spreading lose material, constructi
ng earth roads and for giving shape to the subgrade. It is either self propelled or is towed by tractor.
7. ________________ is used for rolling and compacting the subgrade, the base and the surface of many types of ro
ads.
a) Tractor
b) Scraper
369 / 405
c) Road roller
d) Concrete mixer
Answer: c
Explanation: Various types of Road rollers such as pneumatic roller or oil rollers, Sheep’s feet roller, etc. are availab
le to suit the requirements of different types of road.
8. __________________ is used for carrying out the earth work operation of a road.
a) Roller
b) Tractor
c) Scraper
d) Dumper
Answer: c
Explanation: Scraper contains of scoops with a cutting edge. The excavated material is collected in the body of scrap
um
per or bucket and it is then removed at the place of dumping. Tractor is mainly used to exert a powerful tractive forc
e for towing other machines and equipment.
nt
ua
9. _____________________ are the bits used for drilling ceramic tiles and glass with a ground tungsten carbide tip.
_Q
a) Flat wood bits
b) Countersink bits
ks
c) Tile bits
oo
d) Carbide insert bits
Answer: c
_B
Explanation: Tile bits can be used with the hand drill, but are best used in a variable speed power drill on slow speed
es
. When drilling glass, some form of lubricants like turpentine or white spirit should be used to keep the tip cool. Cer
amic tiles can be drilled using a masonry bit if it is used at a slow speed.
ot
_N
10. _________________ are intended for power drilling use only, the centre point locates the bit and the flat steel on
either side cuts away the timber.
TU
a) Wood auger bits

K
b) Timber bits
A
c) Carbide insert bits

e/
d) Flat wood bits

t.m
Answer: d
Explanation: Flat wood bits are used to drill fairly large holes and they give a flat bottom hole, so are ideal where the
/
head of screw or bolt needs to be recessed into the timber. Always use these bits before drilling the clearance hole f
s:/
or the Bolt.
tp
ht
11. ______________________ are used for cutting large, fixed diameter holes in a wood or plastic.
a) Carbide insert bits

b) Wood auger bits
c) Hole saw bits
d) Wooden bits
Answer: c
Explanation: Hope saw bits usually cut up to a depth of 18 mm. They are best used in a power drill at low speed. Th
eir sharpening can be done with a fine triangular file. To cut large hole combination holes of bits with the number of
different size round saw blades are used.
12. ____________________ are ideal for drilling large diameter and deep holes in wood or thick man-made boards.
a) Wood auger bits

370 / 405
b) Masonry bits
c) Spur point bits
d) Countersink bits
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally a auger bit should only be used in hand brace. The single spur cuts and defines the edge of th
e hole while the chisel like cutting edge remove the waste within the previously cut circle. The threaded centre bites
into the wood and pulls the bit into the timber.
13. _____________________ bits are used when some rocks are so abrasive that steel bits have to be replaced after t
hey have been drilled only few centimetres of hole.
a) Carbide insert bits

b) Tile bits
c) Bullet pilot point bits
um
d) Spur point bits
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: The actual drilling points in case of carbide insert bits consists of very hard metal, tungsten carbide, wh
ua
ich is embedded in steel. These bits are considerably more expensive than Steel bits.
_Q
ks
oo
1. In ___________________ type of gantries, derricks are built on specially constructed tower at site of work.
_B
a) Gin poles
es
b) Platform
c) Derrick tower
ot
d) Travelling
_N
Answer: c
Explanation: A Gantry is used to replace ordinary scaffolding and it lifts and moves material of all types. Derrick to
TU
wer Gantry is very much suitable for lifting and moving the material in the construction of very tall structures.
K
2. _________________ Gantry consists of a platform which receives and distributes the material.
A
e/
a) Platform
t.m
b) Traveling
c) Gin pole
/
d) Derrick tower
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The platform is constructed on the roadside at a convenient height so that no obstruction is caused to tr
ht
affic during construction of the work. Some hoisting arrangement is provided on the gantry by which materials they
arrive in the vehicle are lifted up and placed on the platform.
3. ____________________ is similar to platform gantry except that the platform is converted into a movable carriag
e.
a) Gin poles
b) Platform Gantry
c) Traveling gantry
d) Derrick tower Gantry
Answer: c
Explanation: Traveling gantry consists of two parallel frame supporting Steel rails fixed on them. The rails are turne
d up at the ends to prevent the carriers from moving beyond the limit. Suitable lifting arrangement is provided on the
carriage.
371 / 405
4. A _______________ is merely a steel or Timber mast which is held in the vertical position by three to four guy ro
pes.
a) Pulley block
b) Hoists
c) Gin poles
d) Gantry
Answer: c
Explanation: Each of the guy rope is well anchored to a dead man which may be in the form of concrete blocks or w
ooden logs buried in the ground. Suitable block is provided at the top of mast to connect hoists tackle with the hoists
rope.
5. A ______________ consist of horizontal platform which is moved upward and downward by a powered winch be
um
tween vertical guides.
nt
a) Pulley block
ua
b) Hoists
c) Elevator
_Q
d) Conveyor
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: The platform maybe slide hung or Centre hung. The former is used for lower capacities and the latter is
oo
used for higher capacities. In order to provide safety and stability to the Hoists, the vertical guides are anchored wit
h the structure.
_B
es
6. _______________ are used to change the direction of ropes and to raise greater loads with less efforts.
ot
a) Pulley blocks
_N
b) Elevators
c) Escalators
TU
d) Conveyors
Answer: a
K
Explanation: The blocks are made of wood and depending on the number of sheaves or Pulley wheels, they are term
A
ed as single or double etc. pulley blocks. The various forms of pulley blocks are available such as differential pulley
e/
blocks, spur gear pulley blocks and worm gear pulley block.
t.m
7. A _________________ is a mechanism in the shape of a cylinder or drum, over which rope or chain is wound.
/
s:/
a) Conveyor
tp
b) Pulley
ht
c) Winch
d) Rotor
Answer: c
Explanation: If a Winch is used only for raising or lowering, it is sometimes referred to as Hoist. Chain blocks in rea
lity are small winches and they may be operated either manually or mechanically. Winches should be enough capaci
ty to accommodate the longest length of rope likely to be wound over them.
8. With the help of _______________ the materials are transported with a continuous flow at comparatively high sp
eeds.
a) Trucks
b) Dumpers
c) Conveyors
d) Elevators
372 / 405
Answer: c
Explanation: The conveyors like Wood salt and chain conveyor, gravity roller conveyor, monorail conveyor, belt co
nveyor are used for this purpose. The belt conveyor is most commonly used.
9. ________________ are the supports of the continuous belt.
a) Idlers
b) Pulleys
c) Cylinders
d) Driving units
Answer: b
Explanation: Depending upon the nature of work, the Idler of proper type and size should be selected and while dete
rmining the power required to drive the belt conveyor, the friction between the belt and idler surface should be consi
dered.
um
10. _________________ are also known as the self-contained conveyors and they are used when placing of small vo
nt
lume of concrete is involved.
ua
a) Spreading Conveyors
_Q
b) Feeder Conveyors
c) Portable Conveyors
ks
d) Supply Conveyors
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: Portable Conveyors can be used on large projects to handle placements of concrete at different places s
_B
imultaneously. A portable conveyor is a self-contained unit which can be readily moved without much difficulty.
es
11. ____________________ conveyors operate in series with end discharge transfer points.
ot
_N
a) Transfer
b) Feeder
TU
c) Spreading
d) Unit
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: The Feeder belt conveyors are operated over an easily installed track system so that the feeder train can
e/
be retracted or extended without interrupting concrete placement. This conveyors are used to transport large volume
t.m
of concrete.
/
12. ________________ conveyors maybe in the form of side discharge conveyors.

s:/
tp
a) Feeder
ht
b) Spreading
c) Radial
d) Discharge
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of radial spreaders, the placing area is decided by the cantilevered support swings the discharge
end through an arc, usually 180° to 360°. These Conveyors are also provided with the arrangement of extending and
retracting the placing Conveyor to a substantial distance.
13. The conception of providing Arial _________ developed from the need to provide an economical alternative to r
oad and Railways for transporting materials.
a) Ropeways
b) Waterways
c) Railways
373 / 405
d) Roadway
Answer: a
Explanation: The initial cost of ropeway is high and hence, its installation is justified when large quantity of material
s used to be handled. It is possible to discharge loads automatically at any point from any desired height while using
ropeways.
14. ______________ ropes are widely used for hoisting purpose and they consist of fibre suitably bound together.
a) Manilla
b) Wire
c) Aluminium
d) Tungsten
Answer: a
Explanation: While using Manilla rope, things to be considered are- ropes should possess the required strength and r
um
esistant to wear and tear. The Rope should be stored in dry and well ventilated place. The rope should never be place
d coiled on a damp surface.
nt
ua
15. __________________ ropes consists of strands of wire of iron, Steel, etc. which are twisted around the core of h
emp.
_Q
a) Manilla
ks
b) Wire
oo
c) Twisted
d) Corrugated
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: The important points to be remembered in connection with the wire ropes are- the ropes should not for
m kinks or twists and should be strong and durable; The proper inspection and maintenance will be necessary to kee
ot
p the ropes in working condition, etc.

_N
TU

K
1. Which of the following is not a component of plumbing water supply system?

A
e/
a) Washbasin
t.m
b) Water supply and distribution pipes

c) Valves
/
d) Storage tanks
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The plumbing system consists of the entire system of piping fixtures which are used for the supply and
ht
drainage of water. The various components of plumbing water supply system are water supply and distribution pipes
, valves, storage tanks, etc.
2. Which of the following is not a component of the plumbing drainage system?
a) Water closets
b) Taps
c) Vent pipes
d) Urinals
Answer: b
Explanation: The different components of the plumbing drainage system are water closets, vent pipes, urinals, septic
tanks, soil waste pipes, traps, etc. Taps form the part of plumbing water supply system.
3. According to the Indian Standard recommendations, a water requirement of _______ per head per day is assumed
374 / 405
for residential buildings.
a) 50 litres
b) 115 litres
c) 135 litres
d) 160 litres
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the Indian Standard recommendations, a water requirement of 135 litres per head per day
is assumed for residential buildings. Out of this, 45 litres may be taken for flushing needs while the rest 90 litres are
taken for domestic purposes.
4. Light gauge copper tubes are used for general purpose work where the pressure is not more than 0.15 N/mm2.
a) True
um
b) False
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: Copper water service pipes are of two types. These are light gauge and heavy gauge. Light gauge copp
ua
er tubes are used for general purpose work where the pressure is not more than 0.15 N/mm2.
_Q
5. Which of the following is not true about lead pipes?
ks
a) Lead pipes are highly resistant to corrosion
oo
b) They have a low hydraulic coefficient of flow
c) Lead pipes are highly flexible
_B
d) When lead goes into solution, it has a cumulative poisoning effect
es
Answer: b
Explanation: Lead pipes have many advantages. They have a high hydraulic coefficient of flow and are highly resist
ot
ant to corrosion. Lead pipes are highly flexible. Still, it is not preferred because when the lead goes into solution, it h
_N
as a cumulative poisoning effect.

TU
6. Which of the following is not true about plastic pipes?

K
a) Plastic pipes are cheaper than the metal pipes

A
b) Plastic pipes are light in weight

e/
c) Plastic pipes can be installed with ordinary tools

t.m
d) Plastic pipes are corrosive

Answer: d
/
Explanation: Plastic pipes are light in weight. Ordinary tools are used to install plastic pipes. Plastic pipes are non-c
s:/
orrosive and are cheaper than metal pipes.

tp
ht
7. The diameter of main service pipe may vary from ___________
a) 2-15 mm
b) 12-40 mm
c) 50-75 mm
d) 60-80 mm
Answer: b
Explanation: The diameter of the main service pipe may vary from 12-40 mm. The materials which are commonly u
sed for service pipes are copper, lead, galvanised iron and polythene.
8. ____________ is used to measure flows to domestic buildings.
a) Rain gauge
b) Water tank
375 / 405
c) Drainpipe
d) Water meter
Answer: d
Explanation: Water meter is used to measure flows to domestic buildings. A water meter should be easy to maintain
and repair and it should measure and register both large and small flows accurately.
9. ____________ is used to measure the flow velocity across a cross-section with a known area.
a) Inferential meter
b) Anemometer
c) Speedometer
d) Barometer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are generally two types of meters used in water distribution systems. These are inferential meter
um
and displacement meter. The inferential meter is used to measure the flow velocity across a cross-section with a kno
wn area.
nt
ua
10. Inferential meters can be used for both low and high flows.
_Q
a) True
b) False
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: Inferential meters are used only for high flows. They are also known as velocity meters. For relatively l
ow flows, displacement meters are used.
_B
es

ot
_N
1. Which of the following is not true about a gate valve?

TU
a) It offers more resistance to the flow of water than the globe valve
b) It is preferred over globe valve where the resistance to the water flow is to be kept at the minimum
K
c) It controls the flow of water equally well from either direction

A
d) It offers less resistance to the flow of water than the globe valve
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: There are two types of valves which are commonly used for domestic water supply. These are the glob
e valve and gate valve. A gate valve offers less resistance to the flow of water than the globe valve and is preferred o
/
ver the globe valve where the resistance to the water flow is to be kept at the minimum. A gate valve controls the flo
s:/
w of water equally well from either direction.

tp
ht
2. Which of the following materials is not used to make storage tanks?
a) Mild steel pressed plates

b) Soda ash
c) Reinforced concrete
d) Stone or brick masonry
Answer: b
Explanation: The materials used to make storage tanks are mild steel pressed plates, stone or brick masonry and rein
forced concrete. A storage tank can be situated either at the roof level or at the ground level or both the levels.
3. Which of the following components of a storage tank is used to clean the tank periodically?
a) Outlet pipe
b) Ball valve
376 / 405
c) Scour pipe
d) Inlet pipe
Answer: c
Explanation: The various components of a storage tank are outlet pipe, inlet pipe, overflow pipe, ball valve, scour pi
pe, etc. A scour pipe is used to clean the tank periodically.
4. According to the Indian Standard code recommendations, the flushing storage capacity for factories and worksho
ps is __________ litres per urinal seat and ______ litres per W.C. seat.
a) 180, 900
b) 180, 270
c) 900, 180
d) 270, 180
Answer: a
um
Explanation: According to the Indian Standard code recommendations, the flushing storage capacity for factories an
d workshops is 180 litres per urinal seat and 900 litres per W.C. seat. For cinemas and public assembly halls, it is 36
nt
0 litres per urinal seat and 900 litres per W.C. seat.
ua
5. In a house drainage system, the pipe through which human excreta flows is called __________
_Q
a) Vent pipe
ks
b) Soil pipe
oo
c) Rainwater pipe
d) Waste pipe
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: In a house drainage system, the pipe through which human excreta flows is called the soil pipe. The siz
e of the soil pipe commonly used in house drainage is 100 mm.
ot
_N
6. In a house drainage system, the pipe which is used to preserve the water seal of traps is called __________
TU
a) Waste pipe
b) Rainwater pipe
K
c) Vent pipe
A
d) Anti-siphonage pipe
e/
Answer: d
t.m
Explanation: In a house drainage system, the pipe which is used to preserve the water seal of traps is called anti-siph
onage pipe. The vent pipe is provided to serve the purpose of ventilation of the system. The waste pipe carries only l
/
iquid waste. Rainwater pipe carries only rainwater.

s:/
tp
7. The strength or effectiveness of a water seal is represented by its _________

ht
a) Mass
b) Depth
c) Volume
d) Thickness
Answer: b
Explanation: A trap is a bent fitting which always remains full of water, when provided in a drainage system, thus m
aintaining a water seal. The strength or effectiveness of a water seal is represented by its depth. Effectiveness of the t
rap increases with the depth of the water seal.
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of traps?
a) A trap should be simple in construction

b) It should be cheap and readily available
377 / 405
c) A trap should be self-cleansing
d) A trap should be of an absorbent material
Answer: d
Explanation: A trap is used to prevent the passage of foul air through it though it permits the sewage to flow through
it. A trap should be cheap and readily available. It should be self-cleansing and simple in construction. A trap shoul
d be of non-absorbent material.
9. Which of the following traps is commonly known as nahni trap?
a) Floor trap
b) Gully trap
c) Silt trap
d) Grease trap
Answer: a
um
Explanation: Traps are classified into floor traps, gully traps, grease traps, silt tarps and intercepting traps according
to their use. A floor trap is commonly called nahni trap. It is used to collect wash water from kitchens, floors and bat
nt
hrooms.
ua
10. The opening at the top of the intercepting trap is called as ___________
_Q
a) Greasy eye
ks
b) Cleaning eye
oo
c) Gully arm
d) Gully eye
_B
Answer: b
es
Explanation: An intercepting trap is provided at the junction of the house drain with the public sewer. The opening a
t the top of the intercepting trap is called the cleaning eye. It is also called a rodding arm. It has a tight-fitting plug a
ot
nd is used for frequent cleaning of the trap.

_N
TU

K
1. The length of the bathtubs generally varies from ___________

A
e/
a) 1.7-1.85 m
t.m
b) 2.5-3.2 m
c) 3.6-4.7 m
/
d) 4.8-5.2 m
s:/
Answer: a
tp
Explanation: The length of the bathtubs generally varies from 1.7-1.85 m. The width varies between 0.7-0.75 m and
ht
the overall height may vary between 0.58-0.6 m.
2. Which of the following is not a type of water closets?
a) Indian-type water closet

b) Spanish-type water closet
c) European-type water closet
d) Anglo-Indian type water closet
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three types of water closets. These are Indian-type water closet, European type water closet a
nd Anglo-Indian type water closet. They are used to receive and discharge human excreta directly from the person u
sing it.
3. Indian type water closet is used in squatting position while European type water closet cannot be conveniently use
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d in squatting position.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Indian type water closet is used in squatting position while European type water closet cannot be conve
niently used in squatting position. This is because Indian type water closet is fixed at the floor level while European
type water closet is fixed at about 40 cm higher than the floor level.
4. The pedestal type European water closet is also known as ________
a) Commode
b) Corundum
c) Luminite
um
d) Limonite
Answer: a
nt
Explanation: The European type water closet is a wash down W.C. which is provided with a seat and a cover and is
ua
generally made of porcelain. The pedestal type European water closet is also known as a commode.
_Q
5. The flushing cistern in the Indian type water closet is normally kept ________ above the closet.
ks
a) 2 metres
oo
b) 4 metres
c) 8 metres
_B
d) 10 metres
es
Answer: a
Explanation: The flushing cistern in the Indian type water closet is normally kept 2 metres above the closet. This typ
ot
e of water closet is simple in construction and working and is usually made of porcelain. In this, a great quantity of
_N
water is required for flushing.

TU
6. Bowl type urinals are used in public buildings while stall type urinals are used in residential buildings.
K
a) True
A
b) False
e/
Answer: b
t.m
Explanation: Generally, there are two types of urinals. These are bowl type and stall type. Bowl type urinals are used
in residential buildings while stall type urinals are used in public buildings.
/
s:/
7. Which of the following is not a classification of traps based on their shape?

tp
ht
a) P-trap
b) Q-trap
c) S-trap
d) W-trap
Answer: d
Explanation: Traps are classified into three types based on their shape. These are P-traps, Q-traps and S-traps. Q-trap
s are also known as half-S-traps. P-trap resembles the shape of letter P, Q-trap resembles the shape of letter Q and S-
trap resembles the shape of letter S.
8. The size of the vent pipe commonly used in house drainage is ________
a) 30 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 50 mm
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d) 75 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the vent pipe commonly used in house drainage is 50 mm. It is provided for the ventilation
of the system. It is open at the top and the bottom to facilitate the exit of foul gases.
9. Bell-type flushing cistern is an example of ___________
a) Valveless siphonic cistern

b) Valve fitted siphonic cistern
c) Tubeless septic cistern
d) Tube fitted septic cistern
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of flushing cisterns. These are valveless siphonic cisterns and valve fitted siphonic
cisterns. Bell-type flushing cistern is an example of a valveless siphonic cistern and is commonly used with the India
um
n type water closets.
nt
10. The size of the rainwater pipe commonly used in house drainage is _________
ua
a) 40 mm
_Q
b) 75 mm
c) 90 mm
ks
d) 115 mm
oo
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of the rainwater pipe commonly used in house drainage is 75 mm. This type of pipe carries on
_B
ly rainwater.
es
ot

_N
1. The single stack system if effective only in the case when the traps are filled with water seal of depth not less than
TU
_________
K
a) 15 mm
A
b) 50 mm
e/
c) 75 mm
t.m
d) 100 mm
Answer: c
/
Explanation: For the drainage of buildings, there are four principal systems of plumbing. These are a single stack sys
s:/
tem, one-pipe system, two-pipe system and partially ventilated single stack system. The single stack system if effecti
tp
ve only in the case when the traps are filled with water seal of depth not less than 75 mm.
ht
2. Partially ventilated single stack system is the modified form of __________
a) Single stack system and two-pipe system

b) Single stack system and one pipe system
c) One pipe system and two-pipe system
d) Two pipe system
Answer: b
Explanation: Partially ventilated single stack system is the modified form of single stack system and one pipe system
. In this type of system, the waste from water closets, basins, etc. is discharged into one common S.W.P. (soil and w
aste pipe).
3. One pipe system is cheaper than the single stack system for the drainage of buildings.
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a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: One pipe system is costlier than the single stack system for the drainage of buildings. In the one-pipe s
ystem, a separate vent pipe is provided and the traps of all basins and water closets are completely ventilated.
4. In the two-pipe system for the drainage of buildings, the discharge from the waste pipe is disconnected from the d
rain by using __________
a) Gully trap
b) Silt trap
c) Floor trap
d) Grease trap
Answer: a
um
Explanation: In the two-pipe system for the drainage of buildings, the discharge from the waste pipe is disconnected
from the drain by using a gully trap. Four pipes are required in this system.
nt
ua
5. The outlet pipe in the septic tank is kept about _________ lower than the inlet pipe.
_Q
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
ks
c) 15 cm
oo
d) 30 cm
Answer: c
_B
Explanation: A septic tank is used for the treatment of sewage from an isolated group of country houses where a pub
es
lic sewer is not available. The outlet pipe in the septic tank is kept about 15 cm lower than the inlet pipe.
ot
6. In the two-pipe system for the drainage of buildings, the discharge from the water closet is connected to the waste
_N
pipe while the discharge from the sinks and baths is connected to the soil pipe.
TU
a) True
b) False
K
Answer: b
A
Explanation: In the two-pipe system for the drainage of buildings, separate waste pipe and soil pipe are provided. In
e/
this, the discharge from the water closet is connected to the soil pipe while the discharge from the sinks and baths is
t.m
connected to the waste pipe.

/
7. Septic action is produced by the septic tank by __________

s:/
tp
a) Fungi
ht
b) Virus
c) Termites
d) Anaerobic bacteria
Answer: d
Explanation: Septic action is produced by the septic tank by anaerobic bacteria. In this, carbohydrates, proteins and f
ats present in the sewage are broken into simpler compounds. The nitrogen is converted into ammonia and the colloi
dal matter is flocculated, liquified and then finally digested.
8. The diameter of a sludge soak pit varies from __________
a) 0.5-1 m
b) 1-1.5 m
c) 2-3 m
d) 5-6 m
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Answer: c
Explanation: The sewage effluent from the house drain is directly discharged in a sludge soak pit. This type of pit is
common in regions where the subsoil is highly pervious. Its diameter varies from 2-3 m.
9. The depth of a sludge soak pit varies from _____________
a) 0.5-1.75 m
b) 2.5-4 m
c) 5-6.5 m
d) 8-9.5 m
Answer: b
Explanation: The depth of a sludge soak pit varies from 2.5-4 m. there is one such soak pit in each house with a life
of about 20 years for a family having 6 persons.
um
10. Which of the following statements regarding systems of plumbing for drainage of buildings is not correct?
nt
a) Only one pipe is used in the single stack system
ua
b) A separate vent pipe is provided in one pipe system
c) The traps of basins are directly connected to the vent pipe in the partially ventilated single stack system
_Q
d) The full form of S.W.P. is soil and waste pipe
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: There are various systems of plumbing for the drainage of buildings. Only one pipe is used in a single s
oo
tack system. A separate vent pipe is provided in one pipe system. The traps of basins are not directly connected to th
e vent pipe in the partially ventilated single stack system.
_B
es

ot
_N
1. The earthquakes which occur along the boundaries of the tectonic plates are known as __________
TU
a) Inter-Plate Earthquakes
b) Intra-Plate Earthquakes
K
c) Internal earthquakes
A
d) External earthquakes
e/
Answer: a
t.m
Explanation: The earthquakes which occur along the boundaries of the tectonic plates are known as Inter-Plate Earth
quakes. An example of this type of earthquake is the Assam earthquake of 1897.
/
s:/
2. The inner core of the earth consists of light materials while the crust is solid and comprises of heavy metals.
tp
ht
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The crust of the earth consists of light materials while its inner core is solid and comprises of heavy me
tals. The heavy metals include nickel and iron while the light materials include granites and basalts.
3. The earthquakes which occur within the tectonic plate itself away from the plate boundaries are known as ______
____
a) Internal earthquakes
b) External earthquakes
c) Intra-Plate Earthquakes
d) Inter-Plate Earthquakes
Answer: c
382 / 405
Explanation: The earthquakes which occur within the tectonic plate itself away from the plate boundaries are known
as Intra-Plate Earthquakes. An example of this type of earthquake is the Latur earthquake of 1993.
4. Which of the following waves has the highest velocity?
a) S-waves
b) Love waves
c) P-waves
d) Rayleigh waves
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of seismic waves. These are surface waves and body waves. Surface waves consist
of Rayleigh waves and Love waves while the body waves consist of S-waves and P-waves. The waves having the hi
ghest velocity are the P-waves. The decreasing order of velocity of others is S-waves, Love waves and Rayleigh wav
es.
um
5. The speed of P-waves in granite is ________
nt
ua
a) 0.5 cm/sec
b) 0.5 km/sec
_Q
c) 1.8 cm/sec
d) 1.8 km/sec
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: P-waves stand for Primary Waves and S-waves stand for Secondary Waves. The speed of P-waves in g
ranite is 1.8 km/sec while the speed of S-waves in granite in 3.0 km/sec.
_B
es
6. The instrument which is used to measure the earthquake shaking is called _______
ot
a) Seismograph
_N
b) Anemometer
c) Barometer
TU
d) Nomograph
Answer: a
K
Explanation: The instrument which is used to measure the earthquake shaking is called seismograph. There are three
A
components of a seismograph. These are the recorder, the sensor and the timer.
e/
t.m
7. The depth of the focus from the epicentre is known as __________

/
a) Shock depth
s:/
b) Epicentre depth
tp
c) Focal depth
ht
d) Earthquake depth
Answer: c
Explanation: The point which is vertically above the focus on the surface of the earth is called the epicentre. The dep
th of the focus from the epicentre is known as focal depth. It is an essential parameter to determine the damaging pot
ential of an earthquake.
8. Which of the following instruments is used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake?
a) Seismograph
b) Speedometer
c) Ammeter
d) Richter scale
Answer: d
Explanation: Richter scale is used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake. Magnitude of an earthquake refers to
383 / 405
the quantitative measure of the actual size of an earthquake. Therefore, the magnitude of an earthquake is a number t
hat is a measure of the energy released in the earthquake.
9. Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale ranges from _________
a) I-XII
b) I-V
c) I-IX
d) I-VIII
Answer: a
Explanation: Intensity of earthquakes is assigned as Roman Capital Numerals. There two intensity scales commonly
used are the MSK scale and the Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale. Both these scales range from I-XII, with I corresp
onding to the least perceptive and XII corresponding to the most severe.
um
10. The maximum acceleration which is experienced by the ground during shaking is known as ________
nt
a) Shaking acceleration
ua
b) Sky acceleration
c) Peak ground acceleration
_Q
d) Radar acceleration
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: The maximum acceleration which is experienced by the ground during shaking is known as peak groun
oo
d acceleration. It is a way to quantify the severity of the ground shaking.
_B
11. According to the Indian Standard considerations, the most severe earthquake effects are ________
es
a) DBE
ot
b) DBS
_N
c) MSE
d) MCE
TU
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the Indian Standard considerations, the most severe earthquake effects is MCE. MCE sta
K
nds for the maximum considered earthquake.

A
e/
12. The full form of DBE is _________

t.m
a) Depth basis earthquake

/
b) Depth breadth earthquake

s:/
c) Design basis earthquake

tp
d) Design breadth earthquake

ht
Answer: c
Explanation: The full form of DBE is depth basis earthquake. DBE is defined as an earthquake that can be reasonabl
y expected to occur at least one time during the life of the structure.
13. Which seismic code states the Indian standard guidelines for repair and seismic strengthening of the buildings?
a) IS 1893
b) IS 1897
c) IS 1390, 1998
d) IS 13935, 1993
Answer: d
Explanation: IS 13935, 1993 states the Indian standard guidelines for repair and seismic strengthening of the buildin
gs. The regulations in these standards ensure that the structures can respond to the earthquake shakings to the possibl
e extent.
384 / 405
14. The first formal seismic code in India is _________
a) IS 1893
b) IS 1920
c) IS 1937
d) IS 1993
Answer: a
Explanation: The first formal seismic code in India is IS 1893. This code was published in 1962. Seismic codes are u
nique to a specific country or region.
15. Indian standard criteria for earthquake resistant design of structures (first part, fifth revision) is stated by ______
______
um
a) IS 1899, 2000
b) IS 1894, 2000
nt
c) IS 1893, 2002
ua
d) IS 1896, 2001
Answer: c
_Q
Explanation: Indian standard criteria for earthquake resistant design of structures (first part, fifth revision) is stated b
y IS 1893, 2002. And, Indian standard code of practice for earthquake resistant design and construction of buildings
ks
(second revision) is stated by IS 4326, 1993.
oo
_B
es
1. Earthquake force is a function of __________

ot
_N
a) Mass
b) Thickness
TU
c) Length
d) Breadth
K
Answer: a
A
Explanation: Earthquake force is a function of mass. Because of this fact, it is recommended that the building should
e/
be as light as possible. Roofs and upper storeys of buildings should also be designed as light as possible.
t.m
2. During the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings, ceiling plaster should be avoided. In case it cannot be a
/
voided, it should be as thick as possible.

s:/
tp
a) True
ht
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: During the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings, ceiling plaster should be avoided. In case it c
annot be avoided, it should be as thin as possible. The suspended ceiling should also be avoided as far as possible.
3. The design of the projecting parts during the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings should be per _______
_
a) IS 1833: 2000
b) IS 1873: 2001
c) IS 1893: 2002
d) IS 1993: 2004
Answer: c
Explanation: During the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings, projecting parts should be avoided as far as p
385 / 405
ossible. In case, they cannot be avoided then the design of the projecting parts should be per IS 1893: 2002.
4. During the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings, it should be kept in mind that those solid concrete block
s should be used which have crushing strength not lesser than _________
a) 10 MPa
b) 20 MPa
c) 35 MPa
d) 60 MPa
Answer: c
Explanation: During the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings, it should be kept in mind that those solid con
crete blocks should be used which have crushing strength not lesser than 35 MPa. However, depending on the thickn
ess of walls and the number of storeys, masonry units of higher strength may be required.
um
5. Where the masonry is provided with steel reinforcing bars, the bars should be embedded with adequate cover in c
ement concrete of grade _________
nt
ua
a) M 5
b) M 10
_Q
c) M 35
d) M 15
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: Where the masonry is provided with steel reinforcing bars, the bars should be embedded with adequate
cover in cement concrete of grade M 15. This is done to achieve corrosion resistance and a good bond.
_B
es
6. Masonry bearing walls should not be built of height greater than _________ subject to a maximum of four storeys
when measured from the mean ground level to the ride level during the construction of earthquake-resistant buildin
ot
gs.
_N
a) 15 metres
TU
b) 30 metres
c) 60 metres
K
d) 75 metres
A
Answer: a
e/
Explanation: Masonry bearing walls should not be built of height greater than 15 metres subject to a maximum of fo
t.m
ur storeys when measured from the mean ground level to the ride level during the construction of earthquake-resista
nt buildings. As far as possible, the bearing walls should be symmetrical in the plan in both the directions.
/
s:/
7. The window and door openings increase the lateral load resistance of the walls.
tp
ht
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The window and door openings reduce the lateral load resistance of the walls. Therefore, they should b
e more centrally located and should preferably be small.
8. The concrete used in coastal areas during the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings should be of grade __
________
a) M 10
b) M 15
c) M 20
d) M 35
Answer: c
386 / 405
Explanation: The concrete used in coastal areas during the construction of earthquake-resistant buildings should be o
f grade M 20. Also, the filling mortar should be of the ratio 1:3.
9. The width of the reinforced concrete band is taken the same as the __________ of the wall.
a) Thickness
b) Height
c) Mass
d) Length
Answer: a
Explanation: The width of the reinforced concrete band is taken the same as the thickness of the wall. The thickness
of the wall should be 200 mm minimum.
10. The vertical thickness of the reinforced concrete band should be _______ minimum where four longitudinal bars
um
are specified.
nt
a) 75 mm
ua
b) 100 mm
c) 150 mm
_Q
d) 180 mm
Answer: c
ks
Explanation: The vertical thickness of the reinforced concrete band should be 150 mm minimum where four bars are
oo
specified. However, it should be 75 mm where bars are specified, one on each face.
_B
es
ot
1. The system which comprises of the reinforced concrete column and connecting beams is known as __________
_N
a) RC frame
TU
b) RC shutter
c) RC style
K
d) RC hinge
A
Answer: a
e/
Explanation: The system which comprises of the reinforced concrete column and connecting beams is known as RC
t.m
frame. A typical RC building is made of both vertical and horizontal members. The horizontal members are the bea
ms and slabs while the vertical members are the columns and walls.
/
s:/
2. Inertia forces generated by the earthquake shakings primarily develop at the floor of the building.
tp
ht
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Inertia forces generated by the earthquake shakings primarily develop at the floor of the building. This
is because most of the mass of the building is present at the floor levels. These inertia forces travel downwards throu
gh beams and slabs to walls and columns and then to the foundations from where they are finally dispersed to the gr
ound.
3. It is desirable to design the RC frame in a way that the plastic hinges are formed in the columns than in beams.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: It is desirable to design the RC frame in a way that the plastic hinges are formed in the beams than in th
387 / 405
e columns. This is because only localized failure takes place due to the collapse of a beam while due to the collapse
of a column, global failure occurs.
4. While considering the design of R.C. buildings for providing ductility, IS codes prohibit the steel grade greater th
an _________
a) Fe 250
b) Fe 320
c) Fe 415
d) Fe 550
Answer: c
Explanation: While considering the design of R.C. buildings for providing ductility, IS codes prohibit the steel grade
greater than Fe 415. It should be kept in mind that relatively low-grade steel should be preferred.
um
5. A spiral column should be preferred if the axial load is greater than ________ times the balanced axial load.
nt
a) 0.25
ua
b) 0.4
c) 0.85
_Q
d) 0.96
Answer: b
ks
Explanation: A spiral column should be preferred if the axial load is greater than 0.4 times the balanced axial load. S
oo
pirals or closed stirrups are used for confining concrete at the section of maximum moments.
_B
6. While considering the design of R.C. buildings for providing ductility, the minimum grade of concrete limited by
es
the Indian Code is _________
ot
a) M 10
_N
b) M 20
c) M 35
TU
d) M 50
Answer: b
K
Explanation: While considering the design of R.C. buildings for providing ductility, the minimum grade of concrete
A
limited by the Indian Code is M 20. The higher grade of concrete leads to a lower ultimate compressive strain which
e/
results in a reduction in ductility.

t.m
7. According to the recommendations of IS 13920: 1993, the thickness of any part of the wall should not be less than
/
__________
s:/
tp
a) 50 mm
ht
b) 100 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 200 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the recommendations of IS 13920: 1993, the thickness of any part of the wall should not
be less than 150 mm. The requirements of this section apply to the shear walls that are a part of the lateral force-resis
ting system of the structure.
8. Base isolation technique was first demonstrated in India after the ________
a) 2005 Kashmir earthquake

b) 1991 Uttarkashi earthquake
c) 1993 Killari earthquake
d) 1950 Assam earthquake
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Answer: c
Explanation: Base isolation technique was first demonstrated in India after the 1993 Killari earthquake. This techniq
ue is used for protecting the buildings from damaging earthquake effects.
9. The four-storeyed building of Bhuj Hospital was built after the __________
a) 2001 Bhuj earthquake

b) 1996 Bhuj earthquake
c) 2006 Bhuj earthquake
d) 1893 Bhuj earthquake
Answer: a
Explanation: The four-storeyed building of Bhuj Hospital was built after the 2001 Bhuj earthquake. It was built usin
g the base isolation technique. The idea behind this technique is to isolate the building from the ground in a way to a
void the transmission of earthquake motions up through the building.
um
10. In viscous dampers, energy gets absorbed by _______ fluid which passes between the piston-cylinder arrangeme
nt
nt.
ua
a) Aluminium-based
_Q
b) Iron-based
c) Silicone-based
ks
d) Copper-based
oo
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two technologies to protect buildings from the effects of earthquakes – seismic dampers and
_B
base isolation devices. Various types of seismic dampers used are viscous dampers, yielding dampers and friction da
es
mpers. In viscous dampers, energy gets absorbed by silicone-based fluid which passes between the piston-cylinder a
rrangement.
ot
_N

TU
1. The full form of BIS is _________

K
A
a) Board of Indian Standards

e/
b) Bureau of Indian Standards

t.m
c) Bureau of International Specifications

d) Board of International Standards
/
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: The full form of BIS is the Bureau of Indian Standards. The conventional symbols used in building dra
tp
wings are standardised by BIS are followed nationally as well as internationally.

ht
2. Which of the following types of plans is the plan at the roof level?
a) Foundation plan
b) Floor plan
c) Terrace plan
d) Structural plan of a typical floor
Answer: c
Explanation: There are various types of plans to represent a building. These are a typical floor plan, terrace plan, fou
ndation plan and structural plan of a typical floor. The plan at the roof level is the terrace plan.
3. A foundation plan depicts the details of different types of foundations provided for the building.
a) True
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b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A foundation plan depicts the details of different types of foundations provided for the building. The va
rious types of foundations which a building may contain are spread footing for walls, strap footing for two columns,
raft foundation for a group of columns etc.
4. The symbol shown below represents __________
a) Bricks and brick masonry

b) Stone and stone masonry
c) Cement concrete
d) Wood
Answer: a
Explanation: The symbol shown above represents bricks and brick masonry. The symbols are an easy way to depict
um
the materials used for building constructions on a plan.
nt
5. The symbols marked A and B represent ___________ and ___________ respectively.
ua
a) Plaster, glass
_Q
b) Glass, plaster
c) Wood, plaster
ks
d) Wood, soil
oo
Answer: a
Explanation: The symbol marked A represents plaster and plaster products. The symbol marked B represents glass.
_B
es
6. Symbols given below represent __________
ot
a) Single leaf, single swing door and double leaf, double swing door
_N
b) Single leaf, double swing door and double leaf, double swing door
c) Double leaf, single swing door and single leaf, single swing door
TU
d) Single leaf, single swing door and single leaf, double swing door
Answer: d
K
Explanation: Symbols are used to represent various construction elements in a building. ‘A’ represents single leaf, si
A
ngle swing door and ‘B’ represents single leaf, double swing door.
e/
t.m
7. The symbol given below represents __________

/
a) Sliding door
s:/
b) Revolving door
tp
c) Stairs
ht
d) Window
Answer: b
Explanation: There are various types of doors which can be represented on a plan using symbols such as sliding doo
r, revolving door etc. The symbol given above represents a revolving door.
8. The symbols A and B represent _________ and ________ respectively.
a) Indian type water closet, washbasin

b) Western-style water closet, washbasin
c) Western-style water closet, Indian type water closet
d) Indian type water closet, western-style water closet
Answer: d
Explanation: The two types of water closets mainly used are Indian type water closet and Western-style water closet.
The symbol A given above represents Indian type water closet. The symbol B represents the Western-style water cl
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oset.
a) Washbasin
b) Plain kitchen sink
c) Refrigerator
d) Rectangular bath
Answer: b
Explanation: Symbols are also used to represent various sanitary items that are commonly used in buildings. The sy
mbol given above represents a plain kitchen sink.
um
1. The symbol given below represents ________
nt
ua
a) Stairs
b) Almirah
_Q
c) Window
d) Shutter
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: The symbol given above represents almirah. These symbols are used in the building drawing. Building
drawing includes the details of all the elements of a building like doors, foundations, windows etc.
_B
es
2. A plan is conventionally cut at the _______
ot
a) Roof level
_N
b) Floor level
c) Plinth level
TU
d) Window sill level

Answer: d
K
Explanation: A plan is conventionally cut at the window sill level. It is a graphical representation of a building repre
A
sented by the plane of a paper.

e/
t.m
3. Windows and almirahs cannot be represented on a plan if it is cut at the plinth level.
/
a) True
s:/
b) False
tp
Answer: a
ht
Explanation: Windows and almirahs cannot be represented on a plan if it is cut at the plinth level. This is because wi
ndows and almirahs have their sill level higher than the plinth level.
4. The given symbol represents __________
a) Heater
b) Electric bell
c) Lamp
d) Tower rail
Answer: b
Explanation: The symbol given above represents an electric bell. An electric bell is a mechanical bell which is widel
y used in telephones, fire alarms, etc.
5. The symbols A and B represent _______ and _______ respectively.

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a) Generator, ammeter
b) Gauge, ammeter
c) Generator, alarm
d) Gauge, alarm
Answer: a
Explanation: The symbol A represents generator and symbol B represents ammeter. An ammeter is an instrument w
hich is used for measuring the current.
6. The symbol given below represents ________
a) Refrigerator
b) Fire hydrant
c) Fire hose
um
d) Flush hose
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: The symbol given above represents fire hydrant. A fire hydrant is used by firefighters to supply water f
ua
or fighting fires.
_Q
7. The symbols A and B represent _______ and _______ respectively.
ks
a) Circular washing fountain, cooking platform
oo
b) Drinking water fountain, cooking platform
c) Circular washing fountain, pedestal drinking water fountain
_B
d) Drinking water fountain, pedestal drinking water fountain
es
Answer: c
Explanation: There are various types of fountains which can be represented using symbols such as circular washing
ot
fountain, drinking water fountain, pedestal drinking water fountain, etc. The symbol A given above represents a circ
_N
ular washing fountain. The symbol B represents pedestal drinking water fountain.
TU

K
a) Water meter
A
b) Water machine
e/
c) Washing machine
t.m
d) Wash meter
Answer: a
/
Explanation: The symbol given above represents a water meter. Water meter is an instrument which is used for meas
s:/
uring the volume of water used by commercial and residential buildings.

tp
ht
a) Ceiling fan
b) Bracket fan
c) Exhaust fan
d) Fan regulator
Answer: c
Explanation: There are different symbols used to represent different types of fans on a plan of a building such as ceil
ing fan, bracket fan, exhaust fan, etc. The above symbol represents an exhaust fan.
1. Which of the following is not a phase of project management?

392 / 405
a) Project planning
b) Project scheduling
c) Project controlling
d) Project being
Answer: d
Explanation: There are three phases of project management. These are project planning, project scheduling and proje
ct controlling. Project management refers to a highly specialised job to achieve the objectives of a project.
2. Who introduced the bar charts?
a) Williams henry
b) Henry Gantt
c) Jane Gantt
um
d) Joseph henry
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: Henry Gantt introduced the bar charts around 1900 A.D. They give pictorial representation in two dime
ua
nsions of a project by breaking it down into numerous manageable units.
_Q
3. Bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts.
ks
a) True
oo
b) False
Answer: a
_B
Explanation: The various tools or techniques used for project management are bar charts, milestone charts and netw
es
ork diagrams. Bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts.
ot
4. The full form of PERT is ___________

_N
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology

TU
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique

c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
K
d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

A
Answer: d
e/
Explanation: There are various network techniques that are called by various names like PERT, CPM, TOPS and LE
t.m
SS. Network technique is one of the major advancements in management science. The full form of PERT is Program
Evaluation and Review Technique.
/
s:/
5. The full form of CPM is ___________

tp
ht
a) Critical Path Method

b) Control Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management
Answer: a
Explanation: The full form of CPM is the Critical Path Method. CPM networks are mainly used for those projects fo
r which a fairly accurate estimate of time of completion can be made for each activity.
6. In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?
a) Red
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Green
393 / 405
Answer: d
Explanation: In bar charts, different colours are sometimes filled in the bars for showing various control information
. For actual progress, green colour is used. For anticipated progress, black colour is used and for progress behind sch
edule, red colour is used.
7. A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is event-oriented.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A CPM network is activity-oriented while a PERT network is event-oriented. Event is the completion o
f an activity or the commencement of an activity. An event may be head event, tail event or dual role event.
8. _________ are used to represent activity in a network diagram.
um
a) Circles
nt
b) Squares
ua
c) Rectangles
d) Arrows
_Q
Answer: d
Explanation: A network is a flow diagram that consists of events and activities which are connected sequentially and
ks
logically. Arrows are used to represent activity in a network diagram. Events are generally represented by circles.
oo
9. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ________
_B
es
a) Pessimistic time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
ot
c) Expected time estimate

_N
d) The most likely time estimate

Answer: b
TU
Explanation: There are three kinds of time estimates made by PERT planners. These are the optimistic time estimate
, the pessimistic time estimate and the most likely time estimate. The shortest possible time in which an activity can
K
be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as the optimistic time estimate.

A
e/
10. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to comple
t.m
te an activity is called as __________

/
a) The most likely time estimate

s:/
b) Optimistic time estimate

tp
c) Pessimistic time estimate

ht
d) Expected time estimate

Answer: c
Explanation: According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed
to complete an activity is called the pessimistic time estimate. This estimate does not include possible effects of floo
ds, earthquakes, etc.
11. In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest path.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a network, a critical path is the time-wise longest path. The critical path in the Critical Path Method
plays an essential role in scheduling and planning.
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12. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known
as _________
a) Free float
b) Independent float
c) Total float
d) Half float
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity
is known as the total float. Hence, the total float is the excess of the maximum available time throughout the time of
the activity.
um
1. Which of the following data is not required to prepare an estimate?
nt
ua
a) Amplitude
b) Drawings
_Q
c) Specifications
d) Rates
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: For preparing an estimate, data such as drawings, detailed specifications, rates, etc. is required. The dra
wings needed to prepare the estimate include plans, sections, elevations, etc.
_B
es
2. Estimating is the technique of calculating the various quantities and is needed for controlling the expenditure duri
ng the execution of the work.
ot
_N
a) True
b) False
TU
Answer: a
Explanation: Estimating is the process of calculating the various quantities and their cost in the building construction
K
. It is needed for controlling the expenditure during the execution of the work.
A
e/
3. The process of working out the cost per unit of each item is known as _________
t.m
a) Work
/
b) Sheet
s:/
c) Data
tp
d) Analysis
ht
Answer: c
Explanation: The preparation of a detailed estimate comprises of working out quantities of different items of work a
nd then determining the cost of each item. The process of working out the cost per unit of each item is known as dat
a.
4. While fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour needed for one unit of an item are strictl
y per __________
a) Special Data Book

b) Standard Data Book
c) Special Data Record
d) Specific Data Record
Answer: b
Explanation: While fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour needed for one unit of an ite
395 / 405
m are strictly per the Standard Data Book. However, the rates of labour and materials are obtained from the current s
tandard scheduled of rates.
5. In the case of works which require some special types of equipment, an amount of ______ percent of the estimate
d cost is given.
a) 1-2
b) 5-9
c) 12-18
d) 16-20
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of works that require some special types of equipment, an amount of 1-2 percent of the esti
mated cost is given. While preparing a detailed estimate, it is also important to select a suitable site of work to reduc
e damage during the loading and unloading of materials.
um
6. Which of the following is not a method used for preparing approximate estimates?
nt
ua
a) Cubical contents method
b) Unit base method
_Q
c) Plinth area method
d) Cylindrical base method
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: There are various methods used for preparing approximate estimates. These are the plinth area method,
unit base method and cubical contents method. An approximate estimate is needed for studying various aspects of t
_B
he work of the project.
es
7. In the plinth area method, the cost of construction is computed by the multiplication of ________
ot
_N
a) Plinth length and rate

b) Plinth breadth and rate
TU
c) Plinth area and plinth area rate

d) Plinth volume and plinth length rate
K
Answer: c
A
Explanation: In the plinth area method, the cost of construction is computed by the multiplication of plinth area and
e/
plinth area rate. This area is calculated by multiplying the length and the breadth.
t.m
8. As per IS 3861-1966, which of the following areas should not be included while calculating the plinth area of a bu
/
ilding?
s:/
tp
a) Porches of non-cantilever type

ht
b) Area of barsati at terrace level

c) Area of walls at floor level
d) Area of lofts
Answer: d
Explanation: As per IS 3861-1966, the areas which should be included while calculating the plinth area of a building
are porches of non-cantilever type, area of barsati at terrace level, area of walls at floor level, etc. However, the area
of lofts should not be included.
9. For the preparation of approximate estimates, cubical contents method is more accurate than the unit base method
and plinth area method.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
396 / 405
Explanation: For the preparation of approximate estimates, cubical contents method is more accurate than the unit ba
se method and plinth area method. Cubical contents method is usually used for multi-storeyed buildings.
10. In the cubical contents method, the cost of a structure is computed by the multiplication of total cubic contents a
nd _______
a) Area of building
b) Volume of building
c) Local cubic rate
d) Length of building
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a structure in the cubical contents method is determined by the multiplication of total cubic
contents with the local cubic rate. Therefore, the cost of the building is calculated by multiplying the volume of buil
dings with the rate per unit volume.
um
nt
ua
1. Which of the following is not a method of working out quantities like earthwork and brickwork in plinth?
_Q
a) Long wall-short wall method
ks
b) Centre line method
oo
c) Thick wall – thin wall method
d) Partly centre line and short wall method
_B
Answer: d
es
Explanation: There are various methods that are used to work out quantities like earthwork, foundation concrete, etc.
Some of these methods are the long wall-short wall method, partly centre line and short wall method and centre line
ot
method.
_N
2. In long wall-short wall method, the wall along the length of the room is said to be the short wall.
TU
a) True
K
b) False
A
Answer: b
e/
Explanation: In long wall-short wall method, the wall along the length of the room is considered as the long wall. W
t.m
hile the short wall is the one which is normal to the long wall.
/
3. To get the quantities, the lengths found using the long wall-short wall method are multiplied with _________
s:/
tp
a) Width
ht
b) Weight
c) Thickness
d) Breadth and depth
Answer: d
Explanation: To get the quantities, the lengths found using the long wall-short wall method are multiplied with bread
th and depth. In this method, the centre line lengths of the individual walls are calculated first to get the length of the
short wall and the long wall.
4. In long wall-short wall method, the length of the long wall is calculated after the addition of _________ to its cent
re line length at each end.
a) Breadth
b) Half breadth
c) Height
397 / 405
d) Half-height
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of the long wall in long wall-short wall method is determined after adding half breadth to its
centre line length at each end. While the length of the short wall is determined by subtracting half breadth at each en
d from its centre line length.
5. In long wall-short wall method, the length of the short wall generally increases from earthwork to brickwork in th
e superstructure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In long wall-short wall method, the length of the long wall generally increases from earthwork to brick
work in the superstructure. However, that of the short wall decreases.
um
6. The centre line method is suitable for walls having ________
nt
ua
a) Different cross-sections
b) Similar cross-sections
_Q
c) Same weights
d) Same materials
ks
Answer: b
oo
Explanation: The centre line method is suitable for walls having similar cross-sections. The estimates prepared using
the centre line method are the quickest and accurate.
_B
es
7. In partly centre line and partly cross wall method, the centre line method is applied to _______
ot
a) External walls
_N
b) Internal walls
c) Thick walls
TU
d) Thin walls
Answer: a
K
Explanation: Partly centre line and partly cross wall method is adopted when the external wall has one thickness and
A
the internal walls have different thicknesses. In such a method, the centre line method is applied to the external wall
e/
s and the long wall-short wall method is applied to the internal walls.
t.m
8. In earthwork calculations, the average horizontal distance between the centre of deposition and the centre of exca
/
vation is known as ___________

s:/
tp
a) Lift
ht
b) Flooring
c) Lead
d) Embankment
Answer: c
Explanation: In earthwork calculations, the average horizontal distance between the centre of deposition and the cent
re of excavation is known as lead. Its unit is 50 m.
9. In earthwork calculations, how many lifts are to be paid to the contractor when the earth is to be lifted for 4.5 metr
es?
a) Four
b) Eight
c) Twelve
d) Sixteen
398 / 405
Answer: a
Explanation: In earthwork calculations, the unit of lift is 2 metres for the first lift and one extra lift for every 1 metre.
Therefore, when the earth is to be lifted for 4.5 metres, four lifts are to be paid to the contractor. For the first 2 metr
es, one lift is needed and for the rest 2.5 metres, three more lifts are required which sums up to a total four lifts.
10. Which of the following is not a lumpsum item in the estimate?
a) Architectural features
b) Water supply and sanitary arrangements
c) Masonry items
d) Electrical installations
Answer: c
Explanation: While preparing an estimate, items other than civil engineering items are referred to as L.S. items or lu
mpsum items. Some of the lumpsum items in the estimate are the architectural features, electrical installations, water
um
supply and sanitary arrangements, etc.
nt
ua
_Q
1. Single units work such as doors and windows are expressed in ________
ks
a) numbers
oo
b) metres
c) m2
_B
d) m3
es
Answer: a
Explanation: Single units work such as doors and windows are expressed in numbers. The units of measurement are
ot
generally classified basis on their nature, size and shape.

_N
2. Work consisting of linear measurements like fencing which involve lengths is measured in __________
TU
a) Kilograms
K
b) Running metres
A
c) m2
e/
d) m3
t.m
Answer: b
Explanation: Work consisting of linear measurements like fencing which involve lengths is measured in running met
/
res. Other works which involve length are cornice, handrail, etc.
s:/
tp
3. Works like whitewashing and plastering are measured in ________

ht
a) m2
b) Metres
c) Litres
d) m3
Answer: a
Explanation: Works like whitewashing and plastering are measured in m2. These works consist of areal surface mea
surements and involve area and hence these are measured in square metres.
4. Works like earthwork and cement concrete are measured in ________
a) Square metres
b) Metres
c) Litres
399 / 405
d) Cubic metres
Answer: d
Explanation: Works like earthwork and cement concrete are measured in cubic metres. These works contain cubical
contents and involve volumes and hence these are measured in m3.
5. Unit of measurement for damp proof course is ____________
a) Sqm
b) Cum
c) Number
d) Kg
Answer: a
Explanation: Unit of measurement for the damp proof course is sqm. While, the unit of measurement of brickwork i
n foundation, plinth, superstructure and arches is cum.
um
6. Unit of measurement of iron holdfasts in steelwork is ___________
nt
ua
a) Sqm
b) Number
_Q
c) Metres
d) Quintal
ks
Answer: d
oo
Explanation: Unit of measurement of iron holdfasts and iron railing in steelwork is quintal. However, the unit of me
asurement of grills in steelwork is sqm.
_B
es
7. Unit of measurement of asbestos cement sheet roofing is __________
ot
a) Sqm
_N
b) Kilograms
c) Metres
TU
d) Number
Answer: a
K
Explanation: Unit of measurement of asbestos cement sheet roofing is sqm and its unit of payment is per sqm. Unit
A
of measurement of centering and shuttering formwork is also sqm.

e/
t.m
8. Unit of measurement of rainwater pipe is ________

/
a) Cum
s:/
b) Litres
tp
c) Number
ht
d) Running metres
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit of measurement of rainwater pipe is running metres. The unit of payment of rainwater pipes is per
RM.
9. The unit of measurement of pointing, painting and varnishing (no. of coats specifie
d) is cum.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The unit of measurement of pointing, painting and varnishing (no. of coats specifie
d) is sqm. The unit of payment is per sqm.
400 / 405
10. The rules for measurement of all items are described in _______
a) IS-1993
b) IS-1896
c) IS-1200
d) IS-1987
Answer: c
Explanation: The rules for measurement of all items are described in IS-1200. It is specified that in booking, the ord
er should be in sequence of length, breadth and height.
11. As per the rules for measurement of items, it is specified that the areas should be measured to the nearest ______
__
a) 0.1 sq m
um
b) 0.25 sq m
c) 0.01 sq m
nt
d) 0.85 sq m
ua
Answer: c
Explanation: As per the rules for the measurement of items, it is specified that the areas should be measured to the n
_Q
earest 0.01 sq m. It is also specified that the cubic contents should be measured to the nearest 0.01 cum.
ks
oo
_B
1. Which of the following is not a classification of labour?
es
a) Skilled first class

ot
b) Skilled second class

_N
c) Unskilled
d) Unskilled fourth class
TU
Answer: d
Explanation: Labour is classified into skilled first-class, skilled second class and unskilled. The purpose of analysis
K
of rates is for working out the economical use of materials and the actual cost of per unit of the items.
A
e/
2. The concrete used for cement concrete roads is of grade ___________

t.m
a) M 10
/
b) M 15
s:/
c) M 20
tp
d) M 35
ht
Answer: b
Explanation: The concrete used for cement concrete roads is of grade M 15 using 20 mm hand broken grade metal.
For base course, concrete of 1:4:8 is used using 40 mm HBG metal.
3. Which of the following is the correct order of stages of estimation of concrete roads?
a) Earthwork excavations, cement concrete for the base course (1:4:8) and cement concrete for wearing course (1:2:
8)
b) Earthwork excavations, cement concrete for wearing course (1:4:8) and cement concrete for the base course (1:2:
8)
c) Earthwork excavations, cement concrete for the base course (1:6:9) and cement concrete for wearing course (1:7:
9)
d) Cement concrete for the base course (1:2:3), cement concrete for wearing course (2:7:9) and earthwork excavatio
ns
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Answer: a
Explanation: The correct order of stages of estimation of concrete roads is earth work excavations, cement concrete f
or the base course (1:4:8) and cement concrete for wearing course (1:2:8). Cement concrete road is laid over an exist
ing Water Bound Macadam road.
4. The rates of materials used for government works are approved by _________
a) Executive Board
b) SDO
c) Elective Board
d) Board of Chief Engineers
Answer: d
Explanation: The Board of Chief Engineers approves the rates of materials used for government works. However, ev
ery year, these are fixed by the Superintendent Engineer.
um
5. Calculate the number of cement bags required for 2500 kg of cement.
nt
ua
a) 50
b) 100
_Q
c) 500
d) 200
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: The weight of one cement bag is 50 kg. Therefore, the number of cement bags required for 2500 kg of
cement is 2500/50 i.e. 50 bags.
_B
es
6. The quantity of sand required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 cubic metres of work is ___________
ot
a) 4.76 m3
_N
b) 10.32 m3
c) 8.43 m3
TU
d) 6.51 m3
Answer: d
K
Explanation: Approximately 1.52 m3 of dry concrete is required for 1 m3 of wet concrete. The quantity of sand requ
A
ired for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 cubic metres of work is 2/(1+2+4) x 1.52 x 15 m3 i.e. 6.51 m3.
e/
t.m
7. The quantity of coarse aggregate required for RCC (1:3:6) for 20 cubic metres of work is ________
/
a) 18.24 m3
s:/
b) 15.23 m3
tp
c) 24.87 m3
ht
d) 32.45 m3
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio 1:3:6 is for cement, sand and coarse aggregate. Therefore, the quantity of coarse aggregate re
quired for RCC (1:3:6) for 20 cubic metres of work is 6/(1+3+6) x 1.52 x 20 m3 i.e. 18.24 m3.
8. Calculate the number of cement bags required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 m3 of work.
a) 24.6
b) 38.9
c) 56.7
d) 93.8
Answer: d
Explanation: The quantity of cement required is 1/(1+2+4) x 1.52 x 15 m3 i.e. 3.257 m3. SP weight of concrete is 14
40 kg/m3 and the weight of one cement bag is 50 kg. Therefore, the number of cement bags required for RCC (1:2:4
402 / 405
) for 15 m3 of work is 3.257 x 1440/50 = 93.8 bags.
9. The unit of payment of cement concrete in lintels is _________
a) Per sqm
b) Per cum
c) Quintal
d) Kilograms
Answer: b
Explanation: The unit of payment of cement concrete in lintels is per cum. The unit of payment of R.C.C. in the slab
is also per cum. Here, per cum stands for per cubic metre.
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Material Testing MCQ

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9. Landscape architecture comes under in which principle of planning?

10. When building bye-laws came into force?

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3. Which city of Maharashtra experiences Hot-dry climatic conditions.

a) Bureau of Indian Standards, New Delhi

8. Pyramids are the best example of ___________

a) Flood Resisting structure

b) Dust storm Resisting structure

d) Earthquake resisting structure

a) Flexible steel form

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a building is of two types- Horizontal circulation and Vertical circulation.

5. One of the important requirements of good planning is ____________

7. As a principle of planning, the term _______ is used to mean architectural hygiene.

long with its treatment and supply to the major pipelines.

9. The proper and sufficient ventilation results in absence of _________

2. __________ in a building means the free passage of clean air in a building.

nguishing small fires.

of suitable ventilation of a room.

2. The load of the structure distributed by the foundation is __________

a) Inverted arch foundation

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3. What should be the average height of plinth?

6. _________ is known as Substructure of the building.

nt, ground level, etc. comes under Superstructure.

7. The height of the Plinth should not be less than __________

8. The portion below the plinth level is known as ____________

9. Foundations are more susceptible to ____________

10. The word Plinth is derived from ___________

ts of foundation plinth, etc.

s to these loads is called a bending moment.

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4. Identify the given diagram below.

d which is known as _____________ of the soil.

a) Standard penetration resistance

b) Bearing power of soil

d) Allowable bearing pressure

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b) Maximum safe bearing capacity

a) Plate load test method

ending stresses due to probable loading.

10. The bearing capacity of soil is calculated in ______ units.

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a) 300 mm2 to 750 mm2

b) Safe bearing capacity

m the observed settlements to get the actual settlements.

a) Angle of internal friction

soil is worked out.

b) Plate load test

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1. Stone columns are invariably used in which soil.

a) Poor bearing capacity

a) Cast iron pile

4. Identify the given pile below.

5. Identify the given pile below.

6. Identify the given Sheet pile below.

a) Arch web sheet pile

7. Identify the given pile below.

a) Concrete sheet pile

9. Identify the given pile below.

heapness of timber piles.

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