ELECTRO-MOTION

DEVICES
Lecture 4- Magnetic Circuits
 Magnetism

Magnetic fields are an essential element in the conversion of mechanical

energy to electrical energy and vice versa

Sources of magnetic fields:

Permanent magnets Current carrying conductors

1
 Unlike magnet poles
(a) Permanent Magnets Attract

Like magnet poles

Repulse

Magnetic lines of force that move from N to S

They form closed loops
2
 (b) Current Carrying Conductors

Direction can be determined

+ using the right hand grasp rule

3
 If this concept was extended to a multi-turn coil wound over
a non magnetic former; then magnetic field is produced
which is identical to that of a bar of magnet

4
 Magnetic Flux and Magnetic Flux Density

(a) Magnetic Flux (φ)

Total number of magnetic lines of force present in a magnetic field

Unit….. Weber (wb)

(b) Magnetic Flux Density (B)

It is a measure of the concentration of the magnetic flux per unit area (Tesla)

B = φ/A (wb/m2) or Tesla

5
 Example (1)

The total magnetic flux at the pole face of a bar magnet is 3×10-4 wb, the bar Magnet is
rectangular and has a cross sectional area of 2 cm2. what is the Flux density within the
magnet?

Solution
B = φ/A = 3×10-4 / 2×10-4

= 1.5 Tesla (wb/m2)

6
 (c) Magneto-motive Force (Fm)

In a magnetic circuit, a magnetic flux is created when a magneto-motive Force

(m.m.f ) acts on the circuit

Fm = N×I …… (AT)
N: number of turns I: Current flowing through coil (A)

(d) Reluctance (Rm)

φ
In a magnetic circuit Rm, is the opposition
offered by the magnetic circuit to the Rm Rm = Fm/φ …… (AT/wb)
Fm
establishment of the magnetic flux by the
m.m.f

7
 (e) Permanence (Pm)

Permanence is defined as the ability of the magnetic circuit to permit the

establishment of a magnetic field
Pm = 1/Rm …… (wb/AT)

(it is more convenient to use Pm in making calculations in parallel magnetic circuits)

(f) Permeability (μ)

Permeability is a measure of the ease with which a magnetic field may be established
It could be given as the permanence per unit length and cross sectional area of a magnetic field

μ = Pm l /A = l/A Rm (wb / AT.m)

(l: length of magnetic circuit, A: cross sectional area of magnetic circuit, Rm: Reluctance)
8
 Note the following

In electric circuits conductor materials are compared according to its Resistivity (δ),
R = δ l/A Ω
 In magnetic circuits conductor materials are compared by means of its permeability
μ = Pml/A wb/AT.m

Permeability of free space (μ0)= 4π×10-7 wb/AT.m

 For magnetic materials, permeability is given as follows:
μ = μ0 × μr
Where μr = 1 for air and non magnetic materials
= (500-2500) for iron and steel μr is unit less

9
 (g) Magnetic field intensity (H)

It is the magneto-motive force per unit length

H = Fm/l (AT/m)
l: length of magnetic circuit

Note

As Rm = Fm /φ, then Pm = φ/Fm and since μ=Pml/A

Then μ = (φ×l) / (Fm×A) = B/H

10
 Example (2)

What is the magnetic field intensity and the m.m.f. needed to produce a flux of 2×10-4
wb in a steel ring whose mean circumferential length is 100 cm and has a cross-
sectional area of 5 cm2, assume μr = 500

Solution
Given: φ=2×10-4 wb, l =1 m, A = 5×10-4 m2 and μr =500
Required: H and Fm

Fm = NI = φRm = φl/μA = φl/μ0 μr A = 2×10-4 ×1 / 500 ×4π ×10-7 ×5 ×10-4

= 636.62 AT

H = Fm/l= 636.62/1 = 636.62 AT/m

11
 Magnetization Curves

Magnetic flux (φ) is produced by passing an electric current through a coil that Creates a m.m.f

To have an effective comparison between materials , they are compared in terms of unit
quantities (Flux density “B” and Magnetizing force “H”)

12
 B-H Curve

Saturation

Upper knee

Linear B-H, maximum permeability

Lower knee

13
 The B-H curve is divided into 4 regions:
 Lower Knee: indicates alignment of magnetic domain whose axes
are nearly parallel to the applied magnetic field
 Linear Part: movement of most domains into alignment with the
applied magnetic field (BαH , μ is constant and max.)
 Upper Knee: increasing magnetizing force that must be applied to
force the alignment of all domains with the applied
magnetic field (B is not proportional to H and μ is decreasing)
 Saturation: region where most domains have been aligned with the
external magnetic field

14 (no more increase of B and μ is approaching Zero)

 B-H Curves for different materials

1.Sheet steel
2.Silicon steel
3.Cast steel
4.Tungsten steel
5.Magnet steel
6.Cast iron
7.Nickel
8.Cobalt
9.Magnetite

15
 Scaled B-H Curves for different materials

16
 Variation of permeability with increasing flux density

17
 A magnetic material is said to be fully
saturated when its permeability
becomes almost the same as that of free space
(H is so high)
 If “H” is lowered by decreasing the current in
the coil, B will not decrease
as rapid as it increased (the B-H curve will not
retrace itself), this
irreversibility is called Hysteresis (B lags H)
 when H is reduced to zero, residual flux
density Br will appear meaning that
the magnetic material has been magnetized

18
 Hysteresis Curve

High Br: hard magnetic material

Low Br : Soft magnetic material
19 Residual flux density: ±Br
 Magnetic Circuits versus Electric Circuits

Magnetomotive Force “Fm” Electromotive Force “ E”

Flux “φ” Current “I”

Reluctance “Rm” Resistance “R”

20
 Items Magnetic Circuit Electric Circuit

Driving Force m.m.f (Fm = NI = Hl) e.m.f (E)

Produces Flux (φ = Fm/Rm) Current (I=E/R)

Limited by Reluctance (Rm =l/μA) Resistance (R=δl/A)

Ampere’s circuital law

The algebraic sum of the magnetomotive force drops around a magnetic circuit

Is equal to the applied magnetomotive force

Fm = Fm1 + Fm2 + Fm3 +…......................... +Fmm = ∑ NI

= H1l1 + H2l2 + H3l3 +…………………. +Hmlm

21
 Example(3)

A magnetic flux density of 0.2 wb/m2 is to be produced

in a toroid of cast steel, the mean diameter of the
toroid is 10 cm. Calculate the required current and the
relative permeability of cast steel if a coil of 1000 turns
is wound around the toroid

Solution
Fm = H×l = N×I, then I = H×l/N
l = π d = 3.14×0.1 = 0.314 m
From cast steel B-H curve, at B = 0.2 Tesla, H = 250 AT/m then:
I = (250×0.314/1000) = 0.0785 A
μ = μ0 μr = B/H = 0.2/250 = 0.0008,
then μr = 0.0008/4π×10-7 = 637
22
 Example (4)

A magnetic flux density of 1.5 wb/m2 is to be produced

in a toroid of cast steel, the mean diameter of the toroid
is 10 cm. Calculate the required current and the relative
permeability of cast steel if a coil of 1000 turns is
wound around the toroid

Solution
Fm = H×l = N×I, then I = H×l/N
l = π d = 3.14×0.1 = 0.314 m
μr is not constant
From cast steel B-H curve, at B = 1.5 Tesla H = 4000 AT/m, then I
for one type of
= (4000×0.314/1000) = 1.26 A material
μ = μ0 μr = B/H = 1.5/4000 = 0.006, then μr = 0.006/4π×10-7= 298

23
 Example (5)

Find the current needed to produce a flux of 1.5×10-4 wb in the shown magnetic circuit, the flux
path has a width of 15 cm and a length of 10 cm

Solution Sheet Steel

The given circuit could be

N =100
Simplified as follows:
Cast Steel
a b
1 cm
1.25 cm
I = Fm/N = H×l/N, then N I = Hab lab + Hbcda(lbc+lcd+lda)
B = φ/A = 1.5×10-4 / 1.25×10-4 = 1.2 Tesla
d C From curves Hsheet steel = 400 AT/m
lab = lcd = 0.15 m
Hcast steel = 1500 AT/m
lbc = lad = 0.1 m 100 I = 400×0.15 + 1500×(0.1+0.15+0.1)
24 Then I = 585/100 = 5.85 A
 Air Gaps and their effects

In many applications, magnetic flux must cross one or more air gaps

As the magnetic lines of force cross the air gap, they spread out because the
Individual lines repel each other. This spreading out is called Fringing
25
 φ
Rm

Fm
Rg

In the analysis of magnetic circuits, the following is assumed:

 Neglect the fringing effect in the air gap region
The magnetic flux density is uniform within the magnetic material
 Magnetic flux is restricted to flow within the magnetic material with no
leakage
26
 Example (6)

An electromagnet of square cross-section similar to the one

shown in figure has a tight wound coil of 1500 turns. The
inner and outer diameters are 10 and 12 cm respectively, the N=1500 1 cm
length of air gap is 1 cm. if the current in the coil is 4A and the
relative Permeability of the magnetic material is 1200,
Determine the flux density in the magnetic circuit
Solution
φ
B = φ/A, and φ = NI/Rtotal where Rtotal = Rm+ Rg Rm
Rm = lm/μ Am and Rg = lg / μ0Ag
l = lmean = 2πrmean = π (12+10)/2 = 39.56 cm Fm
Rg
Then lm =69.12-1 = 68.12 cm, Am = Ag =1×1= 1 cm2
Rm = 68.12×10-2/4π×10-7×1200×1×10-4 = 1.129×106 /4 AT/wb
Rg = 1×10-2/4π×10-7×1×10-4 = 19.894×106 /4 AT/wb
Rtotal = Rm+Rg = 21.023×106 AT/wb, then φ = 1500×4/21.023×106 = 285.4×10-6 wb
B = 285.4×10-6/ 4×10-4 = 0.714 Tesla
27
 Parallel magnetic circuits

a b c

f e d

Rab φ2 φ1 Rbc
Rfa Rcd
φT Rbe
+
Fm Rde
Ref
28
 Example (7)

a b c
In the following figure, calculate the coil current if the coil
has 50 turns to obtain a flux of 1×10-4 wb in the path
bcde, where the square cross section area is 4 cm2 and all N

portions are made of cast steel with 10 cm length each.

f e d

Solution
Lbc + Lcd + Lde = 30 cm = 0.3 m
As φbcde = 1×10-4 wb, then Bbcde = 1/4 =0.25T
From the B-H curve of cast steel, at B = 0.25 T, H is equal to 280 φ2 φ1
Rfa Rab Rbc Rcd
AT/m, thus Hbcde =280AT/m
φT
The m.m.f Fm = 280×0.3 = 84AT, and as for parallel branches Fm = + Rbe
84 AT then: Fm Rde
Ref
HbeLbe = 84, then Hbe = 84/0.1 = 840 AT/m

29 From B-H curve the corresponding Bbe = 0.97T

 Consequently φ2 can be calculated as follows:

Q2 = Bbe A = 0.97×4×10-4 =3.88×10-4 wb

The total flux φT = φ1+ φ2 = (1+3.88) ×10-4 wb = 4.88×10-4 wb

The flux density in path efab, Befab is then given by 4.88×10-4/4×10-4 = 1.22 T

From the B-H Curve, at B= 1.22, H is given by 1550 AT/m

As Fm = H×L = N×I, then

1550×0.3 = 50×I, thus I = 9.3 A

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 ELECTRO-MOTION
DEVICES
Lecture 5- Faraday’s law and Hysteresis losses
 Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction

The amplitude of the induced voltage in a coil is proportional to the time Rate
of change of the magnetic flux linking that coil and to the number of coil turns

For N-Turns coil

1
 As IP = Imax Sin wt, then the produced Flux is time
varying, consequently
φ = φmax Sin wt

A produced e.m.f will be produced across any Coil linking such a

time varying flux as follows:
e1 = N1 dφ/dt = - N1 φmax w Cos wt
Faraday’s law
e2 = N2 dφ/dt = - N2 φmax w Cos wt

e1 = - N1 φmax w Cos wt = -E1max Cos wt e2 = - N2 φmax w Cos wt = -E2max Cos wt

E1max = N1 φ w = 2πFN1 φmax E2max = N2 φ w = 2πFN2 φmax

2
 The r.m.s value of the e.m.f can be written as:

E1rms = 2πFN1 φmax /√ 2 = 4.44 FN1 φmax

E2rms = 2πFN2 φmax /√ 2 = 4.44 FN2 φmax

Induced e.m.f is produced by one of the following means

 The movement of a closed conductor system with respect to a stationary magnetic field (DC machines)
e = Blv Sinθ (l: conductor length, v: conductor velocity)

 The movement of a magnetic field with respect to a stationary conductor system (hydroelectric
generators)

 The linking of a time varying field with a stationary conductor system (Transformers) e = N dφ/dt
3
 Example (1)

The magnetic field linking a 100 turns coil changes from 5×10-3 to 3×10-3
wb in 0.02 sec, what is the amplitude of the induced voltage?

Solution

∆φ = (5-3)×10-3 = 2×10-3 wb
∆t = 0.02 sec
E = N ∆φ/∆t = 100× 2×10-3/0.02 = 10 V

4
 Machines’ Losses

1) Copper Losses: In the windings (PCu Losses = I2R)

2) Mechanical Losses: arise owing to the rotation of rotating parts (friction)

5 3) Magnetic Losses: (a) Eddy Current losses (b) Hysteresis Losses

 Eddy Currents’ Losses

An alternating magnetic field linking a closed conductor system

will induce a voltage in the conductor system, this will produce
eddy currents in the magnetic circuits of different machines

Eddy currents, just like any other electrical currents, are affected
by the resistance of the material in which the currents flow

The resistance of any material is inversely proportional to its A B

cross-sectional area

View A, shows the eddy currents induced in an armature core that is a solid piece of soft iron. View B,
shows a soft iron core of the same size, but made up of several small pieces insulated from each other.
This process is called lamination. The currents in each piece of the laminated core are considerably less
than in the solid core because the resistance of the pieces is much higher.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zJ23gmS3KHY
6
 Lamination of iron core decreases the cross-sectional area of each piece, thus
Increasing its resistance leading to smaller eddy current values and the heat loss I2R is reduced

Ke : constant
Peddy loss = KeF2δ2B2m Bm : Flux density (T) δ: Laminations thickness (m)
7 F : Frequency (Hz)
 Hysteresis Losses

When a ferromagnetic material is

magnetized in one direction, it will not
relax back to zero magnetization when
the imposed magnetizing field is
removed. It must be driven back to zero
by a field in the opposite direction

8
 If an alternating magnetic field is applied to the material, its magnetization will trace
out a loop called a hysteresis loop. The lack of retraceability of the magnetization
curve is the property called hysteresis and it is related to the existence of magnetic
domains in the material

Once the magnetic domains are reoriented, it takes some energy to turn
them back again

The area enclosed by the hysteresis loop represents the power loss involved in
overcoming the retained magnetic field

KH : constant
PHys loss = KH F Bnm Bm : Flux density (T) n: Steinmetz constant (1.25-2.5)
9 F : Frequency (Hz)
 KeF2δ2B2m + KH F B m
n
Pcore = Peddy + PHyst =

KH : constant n: Steinmetz constant (1.25-2.5)

Ke : constant
Bm : Flux density (T) δ: Laminations thickness (m)
F : Frequency (Hz)

10
 Solved Examples

The figure below shows a simplified rotor and stator for

a DC motor. The mean path length of the stator is 50CM
and its cross-sectional area is 12CM2. The mean path
length of the rotor is 5CM and its cross sectional area is
also 12 CM2. Each air gap between the rotor and stator is
0.05cm wide and the cross-sectional area of each air gap
is 14 CM2.
The iron of the core has a relative permeability of 2000
and there are 200 turns of wire on the core. If the
current in the wire is 1A, what will the resulting flux
density in the air gap be?
11
12
13
 ELECTRO-MOTION
DEVICES
Lecture 6- Power Transformer_1
 Electrical Transformers

Electrical transformers have many applications:

• Step up voltages (for electrical energy transmission with

minimized losses)

• Step down voltages to suite load requirements

• Provide electrical isolation between different grids

• Provide impedance matching for maximum power transfer (XL

= XC)

• Provide reduced AC voltages and currents for protection and

metering purposes
1
 Construction of Electrical Power Transformers

1. Magnetic sheet steel to reduce eddy currents

2. Primary windings (receive power from source)

2 3. Secondary windings (delivers power to load)

 Operation principle

When the primary winding is connected to a primary source VP, an alternating Flux φ is produced in the
magnetic core. This flux links the turns of the secondary Winding and induces a voltage E2, it also induces
E1 in the primary windings

e1 = N1 dφ/dt = - N1 φmax w Cos wt

e2 = N2 dφ/dt = - N2 φmax w Cos wt

3
 If the secondary winding is connected to a load, a current i2 flows where
Instantaneous power input = instantaneous power output
V1i1 = V2i2

The transformation ratio “α” is given by

a=

> 1…………………… Step down Transformer

α
< 1…………………… Step up Transformer
4
 As IP = Imax Sin wt, then the produced e1 = N1 dφ/dt = - N1 φmax w Cos wt
Flux is time varying, consequently
φ = φmax Sin wt e2 = N2 dφ/dt = - N2 φmax w Cos wt

e1 = - N1 φmax w Cos wt = -E1max Cos wt e2 = - N2 φmax w Cos wt = -E2max Cos wt

E1max = N1 φ w = 2πFN1 φmax E2max = N2 φ w = 2πFN2 φmax

The r.m.s value of the e.m.f can be written as:

E1rms = 2πFN1 φmax /√ 2 = 4.44 FN1 φmax

E2rms = 2πFN2 φmax /√ 2 = 4.44 FN2 φmax

5
 Ideal Transformers

In Ideal transformers, the following is assumed

• No core or copper losses • Infinite core permeability

• No leakage fluxes • Same m.m.f for both sides

6
 Example(1)

A single phase transformer has a primary winding with 1500 turns and a Secondary
winding with 80 turns. If the primary winding is connected to a 2300 V, 60 Hz supply,
calculate: (a) the secondary voltage
(b) maximum flux

Solution

(a) V1/V2 = N1/N2 , then V2 = 2300 × 80/1500 = 122.67 V

(b) Φmax = V1/ 4.44 N1F = 2300/4.44×1500×60 = 0.0058 wb

7
 Referring the Load Impedance

V2 = I2ZL ………………….. ZL = V2/I2

This means that the load impedance can be replaced by an equivalent value Z\L
In the primary circuit of the transformer

8
 Example(2)

A 200 KVA, 500/250 V single phase ideal transformer supplies its full KVA to a resistive
load at 200 V, find:
• Secondary voltage, current and VA
• Load resistance
• Primary Voltage and current
• load resistance referred to primary
Solution

• V2 =200V, S2 = 200 KVA, then I2 = 200×103/200 = 1000 A

• RL = V2/I2 = 200/1000 = 0.2 ohm

• V1 = V2 × N1/N2 = 200×500/250 = 400 V , then I1 = 200×103/400 = 500 A

9 • R\L = V1/I1 = 400/500 = 0.8 ohm = 0.2 ×(500/250)2 = 0.8 ohm

 Example(3)

A stereo system can be represented by a voltage source of 50 V and an internal

Resistance of 16 ohm has to supply power to 4 ohm speakers. Calculate the turns
Ratio of an ideal transformer that can be used to allow speakers to receive max.
Power , calculate this max. power

I1=I\2
Solution
For max. power Ri = R\L , then Ri R\L

R\L = 16 = (N1/N2)2 RL = α2 ×4, then α = 2

I\2 = V1/ (R1+R\L) = 50/(16+16) = 1.5625 A ~ 50 V

Pmax = I\22 R\L = 1.56252 ×16 = 39.1 W

10
 Practical single phase Transformers

The restrictions previously assumed for ideal transformers are removed as follows:

(1) Winding Resistance (2) Leakage Fluxes

• The inclusion of winding • Primary leakage flux set up by

resistance leads to: Pinput > Poutput the primary does not all link the
i.e. Efficiency < 100% secondary

• Secondary leakage flux set up by

the secondary does not all link the
primary

• The terminal voltage V1 is not

equal to the Induced emf E1

11
 Phase diagram for non ideal transformers

V1
V1 = E1 + I1 (R1+jX1 ) I1X1

V2 = E2 – I2 (R2+jX2 ) I1R1
E1
I1
12
 Example(4)

A 23 KVA, 2300/230 V, 60 Hz step down transformer has the following

resistance and leakage reactance values: R1 = 4 ohm, R2= 0.04 ohm, X1= 12
ohm, X2=0.12 ohm. The transformer is operating at 75% of its rated load at
rated voltage at the load. If the power factor of the load is 0.866 leading,
determine the efficiency of the transformer.
Solution
• I2 = S2/V2 = 23×103 ×0.75/230 = 75 A, as p.f is 0.866 then I2 = 75 300
E2 = V2 +I2 (R2+jX2) = 230 00 + 75 300 (0.04+j0.12) = 228.287 2.330 V
a = (N1/N2) =2300/230 = 10, then E1= aE2 = 10×228.287 = 2282.78 V
I1 = I2/a= 75/10 = 7.5 300
V1 =E1 +I1 (R1+jX1) = 2282.78 2.330 + 7.5 300 (4+j12) = 2269.578 4.70 V
P0 = Re( V2I*2) = Re(230×75 -300) = 14.94 Kw
Pin = Re (V1I*1) = Re (2269.578 4.70 ×7.5 -300 ) = 15.39 Kw
13 η = P0/Pin = 14.94/15.39 = 0.971 = 97.1%
 (3) Finite Permeability

The core of non ideal transformer has a finite permeability and core loss, where It draws
some current Iφ even at no load
Iφ = IC +Im
Iφ : Excitation current, IC : core loss current, Im : magnetization current

Iφ = I1-Ip = I1 – (I2/a) Xm = E1/jIm …….. Sets up the mutual flux in the core
14
 The referred exact equivalent Circuit
As seen from Primary side

R1 X1 R\2 X\2
I1 I\2

Iφ
IC Im
V1 RC Xm R\L
~ V\2

R\2 = a2 R2 = (Np/NS)2 R2 R\L = a2 RL = (Np/NS)2 RL X\2 = a2 X2 = (Np/NS)2 X2

I\2 = I2/a = I2 NS/Np V\2 = V2 a = V (Np/NS)

15
 As seen from Secondary side

I\1 R\1 X\1 I2 R2 X2

I\φ
I\C I\m
V\1 R\C X\m V2 RL
~

R\1 = R1 / a2 X\1 = X1 / a2 R\C = RC / a2 X\m = Xm / a2

I\1 = I1×a I\φ = Iφ×a I\C = IC × a

16
 ELECTRO-MOTION
DEVICES
Lecture 6- Power Transformer_2
 Example (5)

A 23 KVA, 2300/230 V, 60 Hz step down transformer has the following resistance and leakage
reactance values: R1 = 4 ohm, R2= 0.04 ohm, X1= 12 ohm, X2=0.12 ohm. The equivalent core-
loss resistance and the magnetizing reactance on the primary side of the transformer are 20
KΩ and 15 KΩ respectively. The transformer is operating at 75% of its rated load at rated
voltage at the load. If the power factor of the load is 0.866 leading, determine the efficiency of
the transformer
Solution
• I2 = 75 300 , E2 = 228.287 2.330 V, a = 10, E1= 2282.78 2.330 V
Ip = 7.5 300 and P0 = 14.94 Kw
IC = E1/RC1 = 2282.78/20000 = 0.114 2.330 A
Im = E1/Xm = 2282.78/15000 = 0.152 -87.670 A
Iφ = IC+Im = 0.19 -50.80
I1 = Ip + Iφ = 7.53 28.570
V1 = E1 + I1Z1 = 2282.87 2.330 + 7.53 28.570 (4+j12) =2271.9 4.710 V
Pin = Re (V1I*1) = 15.64 Kw
1 η = P0/Pin = 14.94/15.64 = 0.955 = 95.5 %
 Approximate equivalent Circuit

As seen from Primary side

I1 IP Re1 Xe1

Iφ
IC Im
V1 RC Xm Z\L
~ V\2

Re1 = R1+ a2 R2 Xe1 = X1+ a2 X2 Z\L = a2 ZL

2 IP = I2/a V\2 = a V2
 Approximate equivalent Circuit

As seen from Secondary side

I\1 I2 Re2 Xe2

I\φ

V\1 R\C X\m V2 ZL

~

Re2 = R2+ R1/a2 Xe2 = X2+ X1 /a2 X\m= Xm / a2 R\C = RC / a2

3
 Example(6)

A 150 KVA, 2400/240 V, 60 Hz single phase transformer has the following resistance
and leakage reactance values: R1 = 0.225 ohm, R2= 0.0022 ohm, X1= 0.525 ohm,
X2=0.0045 ohm. Calculate the transformer equivalent values:
(a) Referred to primary
(b) Referred to secondary

Solution
The transformation ratio a = 2400/240 = 10
Referred to primary side:
Re1= R1 + a2R2 =0.225+100×0.0022 = 0.445 ohm
Xe1 = X1 +a2 X2 = 0.525+100×0.0045 = 0.97 ohm
Referred to secondary side:
Re2 = R2 + R1/a2 = 0.0022+0.225/100 = 0.00445 ohm
4 Xe2 = X2 +X1/a2 = 0.0045+0.525/100 = 0.0097 ohm
 Voltage Regulation

A quantity of interest is the net change in the secondary winding voltage from
no load to full load for the same primary voltage

V.R. % = [( V2NL – V2FL ) / V2FL] ×100

Note:

• For ideal transformers, V.R.= 0

• For the approximate equivalent circuits, V.R is given by:
 V.R. = (V1-aV2)/aV2 ……. As viewed from primary side
 V.R. = (V1/a –V2)/V2 …… As viewed from secondary side

5
 Efficiency “η”
η = (P0 /Pin)×100 = [P0/(P0 +PLoss)]×100

V2I2 Cosθ2
η=
PCu + PC + V2I2 Cosθ2

Where:
PCu: copper losses = I22 RC2
PC : core losses measured in the open circuit test

Note:

VA (max. efficiency) = VA (rated) (magnetic loss/full load copper loss)0.5

6
 Example (7)

I1 IP Re1 Xe1

Iφ
IC Im
V1 RC Xm Z\L
~ V \2

A 2.2 KVA, 440/220 V, 50 Hz step down transformer has the following parameters as referred to the
primary side: Re1 = 3Ω, RC1= 2.5 kΩ, Xe1= 4Ω, Xm1=2 kΩ, the transformer is operating at full load with
a power factor of 0.707 lagging, determine the efficiency and the voltage regulation of the
transformer.
7
 Solution

a = 440/220 =2, V2 = 220 V, S =2200VA

Then I2 = 2200/220 =10 A
For 0.707 lag pf, I2 = 10 -450 A
IP = I2/a = 10/2 = 5 -450 A
V\2 = aV2 = 220×2 = 440 V
V1 = V\2 +I\2(Re1+jXe1) = 440+5 -450 (3+j4) = 464.762 0.440 V
Im = 464.762 0.440 / j2000 = 0.232 -89.560 A
IC = 464.762 0.440 / 2500 = 0.186 0.440 A
I1 = IP+Ic+Im = 5.296 -45.330 A
P0 = V2I2 Cosθ2 = 440×5×Cos (450) = 1555.63 W
Pin = V1I1 Cos θ1= 464.762×5.296×Cos (45.770) = 1716.91 W
η = (P0/Pin)×100 = 90.6 %
V.R. = [(V1-V\2)/V\2] ×100 = [(464.762-440)/440]×100 = 5.63 %
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 Determination of equivalent circuit parameters
1- Open Circuit Test

PCore = POC SOC = VOC.IOC Xm = VOC/Im = V2OC /QOC

RC = V2/POC ΦOC = Cos-1 (POC/SOC) QOC= (S2OC-P2OC)0.5
IC = POC/V OR IC = IOC Cos (φOC) IC VOC
Im = (I2OC-I2C)0.5 Im = IOC Sin (φOC) φOC
Xm =V/Im RC =VOC /IC = V2OC/POC
9 Im IOC
 Determination of equivalent circuit parameters

1- Short Circuit Test

The applied voltage is a fraction of rated voltage so core currents are neglected PSC = Copper losses
at full load ZSC = VSC/ISC , Re1 = PSC/I2SC , Xe1 = (Z2SC – R2SC)0.5

Optimum design criterion

As: I2HRH = I2LRL
RH = a2RL =0.5 Re
10 XH = a2 XL = 0.5 Xe