NCERT Examples & Exercises MCQs (XII - Physics)

Electric Charges and Fields : NCERT Example &
Excercise Based MCQs Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 5.
NCERT Examples A charged metallic sphere A is suspended by a nylon

Question 1. thread. Another identical charged metallic sphere B held
We can charge a metal sphere positively without touching by an insulating handle is brought close to A such that
it by: the distance between their centres is 10 cm, as shown in
Fig.(a). The resulting repulsion of A is noted. Then
1. Conduction spheres A and B are touched by identical uncharged
2. Induction spheres C and D respectively, as shown in Fig.(b). C and
D are then removed and B is brought closer to A to a
3. Friction distance of 5.0 cm between their centres, as shown in Fig.
(c). What is the expected repulsion on A on the basis of
4. Both (1) and (2)
Coulomb’s law?
Question 2.
If 109 electrons move out of a body to another body

every second, how much time approximately is required
to get a total charge of 1 C on the other body?
1. 200 years
2. 100 years
3. 150 years
4. 250 years
Question 3.
The amount of positive and negative charges in a cup of
water (250 g) are respectively:
9 9
1. 1. 6 × 10 C, 1. 4 × 10 C
9 9
2. 1. 4 × 10 C, 1. 6 × 10 C
7 7
3. 1. 34 × 10 C, 1. 34 × 10 C
8 7
4. 1. 6 × 10 C, 1. 6 × 10 C
1. Electrostatic force on A due to B remains unaltered.
2. Electrostatic force on A due to B becomes double.
Question 4. 3. Electrostatic force on A due to B becomes half.

The ratio of the magnitude of electric force to the 4. Can't say.
magnitude of gravitational force for an electron and a
proton will be:
(m = 1. 67 × 10
−27
kg, m = 9. 11 × 10
−31
kg)

p e
39
1. 2. 4 × 10
36
2. 2. 6 × 10
36
3. 1. 4 × 10
39
4. 1. 6 × 10
Page: 1
Question 6. Question 7.
Consider three charges q , q q each equal to q at the

1 2, 3 Consider the charges q, q, and –q placed at the vertices of
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l. What is the an equilateral triangle, as shown in the figure. Then the
force on a charge Q (with the same sign as q) placed at sum of the forces on the three charges is:
the centroid of the triangle, as shown in the figure?
3 Qq
1. 2
4πε0 l
2
q
9 Qq 1.
2
2. 4πε0 l
2
4πε0 l
2. Zero
3. Zero
2
2q
6 Qq 3.
4. 2
4πε0 l
2
4πε0 l
2
3q
4.
4πε0 l
2
Question 8.
An electron falls through a distance of 1.5 cm in a
uniform electric field of magnitude 2 × 10 N C 4 −1
[figure (a)]. The direction of the field is reversed keeping

its magnitude unchanged and a proton falls through the
same distance [figure (b)]. If t and t are the time of
e p
fall for electron and proton respectively, then:
1. te = tp
2. te > tp
3. te < tp
4. None of these
Page: 2
Two-point charges q and q , of magnitude +10 C

1 2
−8
Two charges ±10 µC are placed 5.0 mm apart. The
and −10 C , respectively, are placed 0.1 m apart. The
−8
electric field at a point Q, 15 cm away from O on a line
electric field at point A (as shown in the figure) is: passing through O and normal to the axis of the dipole, as
shown in the figure is:

5 −1
4 −1 1. 2. 8 × 10 NC
1. 3. 6 × 10 NC
5 −1
4 −1 2. 3. 9 × 10 NC
2. 7. 2 × 10 NC
5 −1
3 −1 3. 1. 33 × 10 NC
3. 9 × 10 NC
6 −1
4 −1 4. 4. 1 × 10 NC
4. 3. 2 × 10 NC
Question 10.
Two charges ±10 µC are placed 5.0 mm apart. The Question 12.
electric field at a point P on the axis of the dipole 15 cm The electric field components in the shown figure are
away from its centre O on the side of the positive charge, E = ax , E = E = 0, in which α = 800 N/C m .
1/2 1/2
as shown in the figure is:

x y z
The net flux through the cube is: (Assume that a = 0.1 m)
5 −1
1. 2. 7 × 10 NC
6 −1
2. 4. 13 × 10 NC
6 −1
3. 3. 86 × 10 NC
5 −1
4. 1. 33 × 10 NC
2 −1
1. 1. 05 Nm C
2 −1
2. 2. 03 Nm C
2 −1
3. 3. 05 Nm C
2 −1
4. 4. 03 Nm C
Page: 3
The electric field components in the shown figure are An electric field is uniform, and in the positive x-
E = ax
x
, Ey = Ez = 0, in which α = 800 N/C m .
1/2 1/2
direction for positive x, and uniform with the same
Find the charge within the cube if net flux through the magnitude but in the negative x-direction for negative x.
cube is 1. 05 N m C : (Assume that a = 0.1 m).
2 −1 It is given that E =200 î N/C
for x > 0 and E = –200 î N/C for x < 0. A right circular

cylinder of length 20 cm and radius 5 cm has its centre at
the origin and its axis along the x-axis so that one face is
at x = +10 cm and the other is at x = –10 cm (as shown in
the figure). What is the net outward flux through the
cylinder?

1. Zero
−12
2. 2. 7 × 10 C
−12
3. 7. 9 × 10 C 1. 0
−12
2 −1
4. 9. 2 × 10 C 2. 1. 57 N m C
2 −1
3. 3. 14 N m C
2
4. 2. 47 N m C
−1
Page: 4
An electric field is uniform, and in the positive x- An early model for an atom considered it to have a
direction for positive x, and uniform with the same positively charged point nucleus of charge Ze,
magnitude but in the negative x-direction for negative x. surrounded by a uniform density of negative charge up to
It is given that E =200 î N/C
a radius R. The atom as a whole is neutral. For this
for x > 0 and E = –200 î N/C for x < 0. A right circular model, the electric field at a distance r (r>R) from the
cylinder of length 20 cm and radius 5 cm has its centre at nucleus is:
the origin and its axis along the x-axis so that one face is Ze 1 r
1. ( − )
at x = +10 cm and the other is along the x-axis so that 4πε0 r
2
R
3
one face is at x = +10 cm and the other is at x = –10 cm 2. 0

(as shown in the figure). What is the net charge inside the Ze 1
3.
cylinder? 4πε0 r
2
Ze r
4.
3
4πε0 R
Question 18.
The accelerations of electron and proton due to the
electrical force of their mutual attraction when they are 1
Å (=10 m) apart
−10
are respectively:
−27 −31
(mp = 1. 67 × 10 kg, me = 9. 11 × 10 kg)
22 2 22 2
1. 2. 5 × 10 m/s , 2. 5 × 10 m/s
−11
1. 2. 78 × 10 C 22 2 19 2
2. 2. 5 × 10 m/s , 1. 4 × 10 m/s
−12
2 3. 10 × 10 C
19 2 22 2
−10
3. 1. 4 × 10 m/s , 2. 5 × 10 m/s
3. 1. 37 × 10 C
19 2 19 2
−12 4. 1. 4 × 10 m/s , 1. 4 × 10 m/s
4. 2. 62 × 10 C
Question 16.
An early model for an atom considered it to have a
NCERT Exercises
Question 19.
positively charged point nucleus of charge Ze,
surrounded by a uniform density of negative charge up to The force between two small charged spheres having
a radius R. The atom as a whole is neutral. For this charges of 2 × 10 C and 3 × 10 C placed 30 cm −7 −7
model, the electric field at a distance r(r<R) from the apart in the air is:
nucleus is:
−3
(1) 6 × 10 N
Ze 1 r
1. ( − )
4πε0 2 3 −3
r R
(2) 5 × 10 N
Ze 1
2. −4
2
4πε0 R (3) 4 × 10 N
Ze 1
3. −4
2
4πε0 r (4) 5 × 10 N
Ze r
4.
4πε0 R
3

Page: 5
The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge 0.4 µC A spherical conductor of radius 12 cm has a charge of 1.6
due to another small sphere of charge –0.8 µC in the air x 10-7C distributed uniformly on its surface. The electric
is 0.2 N. The distance between the two spheres is: field just outside the sphere is:
(1) 14 cm (1) 0
(2) 12 cm 5
(2) 10 N C
−1
(3) 16 cm
−5 −1
(3) 10 N C
6 −1
(4) 10 cm (4) 10 N C
Question 21.
Dimensional formula of

ke
2
is: Question 25.

Gme mp
1 1 1
A system has two charge qA = 2.5 x 10-7 C and qB = -2.5
(1) [M L T ]
0 1 1
x 10-7 C located at point A: (0, 0, -15 cm) and B: (0, 0,
(2) [M L T ]
+15 cm) respectively. The electric dipole moment of the
(3) [M
0 0
L T
0
] system is:
−1 0 2 −8
(4) [M L T ] (1) 7. 5 × 10 C m (Along negative Z − axis)
(2) 8. 5 × 10
−8
C m (Along positive Z − axis)
Question 22.
−8
(3) 5. 5 × 10 C m (Along positive Z − axis)
Four point charges qA = 2μc, qB = -5μc, qC = 2μc and qD (4) 3. 5 × 10 C m (Along negative Z − axis)
−8
= -5μc are located at corners of a square ABCD of side

10 cm. The force on a charge of 1μc placed at the center

of the square is:

Question 26.
(1) 2 N
An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10 C m is −9
(2) 1 N aligned at 30° with the direction of a uniform electric

field of magnitude 5 × 10 N C . The magnitude of the
4 −1
(3) 5 N
torque acting on the dipole is:
(4) 0 N −5
(1) 2 × 10 N m
(2) 10
−4
N m
−5
Question 23. (3) 10 N m
−4
(4) 2 × 10 N m
Two point charges qA = 3 µC and qB= –3 µC are located
20 cm apart in a vacuum. The electric field at the
midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges is:
(1) 4.5×106 N/C along OA
(2) 5.4×106 N/C along OA
(3) 4.5×106 N/C along OB
(4) 5.4×106 N/C along OB

Page: 6
Which of the following statements about electric field The figure below shows tracks of three charged particles
lines is incorrect? in a uniform electrostatic field. Which particle has the
highest charge to the mass ratio?
(1) Electric field lines never cross each other at any point.
(2) Electric field lines do not form any closed loop.
(3) Electric field lines can not be taken as continuous
curves.
(4) Electric field lines start from a positive charge and
end on a negative charge.
(1) 2
Question 28. (2) 3

A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a (3) 1
negative charge of 3 × 10 C . Transfer of mass from
−7
(4) 1 and 3
wool to polythene is:
−18

(1) 0. 7 × 10 kg

(2) 1. 7 × 10
−17
kg Question 31.
−17
(3) 0. 7 × 10 kg
What is the flux of electric field
−18 →
(4) 1. 7 × 10 kg
(E
3
= 3 × 10 î N /C) through a square of 10 cm on
a side whose plane is parallel to the y z – plane?
2
(1) 15 N m /C
2
Question 29. (2) 10 N m /C
Two insulated charged copper spheres A and B have their (3) 30 N m /C
centers separated by a distance of 50 cm. What is the (4) 0

mutual force of electrostatic repulsion if the charge on

each is 6. 5 × 10 C ? The radii of A and B are

−7
negligible compared to the distance of separation.

Question 32.
−2
(1) 1. 52 × 10 N
The electric field at the surface of a black box indicates
(2) 3. 7 × 10
−2
N that the net outward flux through the surface of the box is
(3) 2. 01 × 10
−2
N 8.0×10 3 N m 2 /C. What is the net charge inside the box?
−1
(4) 2. 23 × 10 N (1) 1. 01 μC
(2) 0. 01 μC
(3) 0. 03 μC
(4) 0. 07 μC
Page: 7
A point charge + 10 μC is at a distance 5 cm directly A point chargecauses an electric flux of

above the centre of a square of side 10 cm, as shown in −1. 0 × 10 N m /C to
3 2
pass through a spherical
the figure. What is the magnitude of the electric flux Gaussian surface of 10.0 cm radius centered on the
through the square? charge. If the radius of the Gaussian surface were
doubled, how much flux would pass through the surface?
3 2
(1) − 2. 0 × 10 N m /C
3 2
(2) − 1. 0 × 10 N m /C
3 2
(3) 2. 0 × 10 N m /C
(4) 0
1. 3. 18 × 10 5 2
N m C
−1 Question 36.
2. 2. 10 × 10 5 2
N m C
−1 A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has an unknown
charge. If the electric field, 20 cm from the centre of the
3. 1. 03 × 10 5 2
N m C
−1
sphere is 1.5×10 3 N/C and points radially inward, what
is the net charge on the sphere?
4. 1. 88 × 10 5 2
N m C
−1
(1) -5.70 nC

(2) -6.67 nC

(3) 6.67 nC
(4) 5.70 nC
Question 34.

A point charge of 2.0 μC is at the center of a cubic
Gaussian surface 9.0 cm on edge. What is the net electric Question 37.
flux through the surface?
A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.4 m
5 2 −1
(1) 2. 26 × 10 N m C diameter has a surface charge density of 80. 0 μC/m 2
5
(2) 2. 09 × 10 N m C
2 −1 . The charge on the sphere is:
5 2 −1 −3
(3) 4. 33 × 10 N m C (1) 2. 077 × 10 C
5 2 −1 −3
(4) 4. 71 × 10 N m C (2) 2. 453 × 10 C
−3
(3) 1. 447 × 10 C
(4) 3. 461 × 10
−3
C
Question 38.
An infinite line charge produces a field of 9×10 4 N/C at

a distance of 2 cm. The linear charge density is:
(1) 0. 1 μC/m
(2) 100 μC/m
(3) 1. 0 μC/m
(4) 10 μC/m

Page: 8
Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each Which among the curves shown in the figure represents
other. On their inner faces, the plates have surface charge electrostatic field lines?
densities of opposite signs and of magnitude 17.0 x 10-22
C/m2. The electric field between the plates is:
−10
(1) 0. 96 × 10 N /C
−10
(2) 1. 92 × 10 N /C
(3) 0
−10
(4) 3. 84 × 10 N /C
Question 40. 1.
An oil drop of 12 excess electrons is held stationary

under a constant electric field of 2. 55 × 10 N C .
−4 −1
The density of the oil is 1. 26 g cm . The radius of the

−3
drop is:
−4
(1) 9. 82 × 10 mm
−7
(2) 9. 82 × 10 mm
−4
(3) 8. 92 × 10 mm
−7
(4) 8. 92 × 10 mm
2.
3.
4.

Page: 9
In a certain region of space, the electric field is along the A particle of mass m and charge (–q) enters the region
z-direction throughout. The magnitude of the electric between the two charged plates initially moving along
field is, however, not constant but increases uniformly the x-axis with speed v (as shown in the figure). The
x
along the positive z-direction, at the rate of 10 N C

5 −1
length of the plate is L and a uniform electric field E is
per meter. What is the torque experienced by a system maintained between the plates. The vertical deflection of
having a total dipole moment equal to 10 C m in the
−7
the particle at the far edge of the plate is:
negative z-direction?

(1) 10 −2
N m
(2) 0
(3) 10 −1
N m
(4) 0. 01 N m

Question 43. 2qEL

2
(1) 2
3m ( vx )
A hollow charged conductor has a tiny hole cut into its 2
surface. The electric field in the hole is:

2qEL
(2) 2
m ( vx )
3σ 2
3qEL
(1) ( ) n̂
ε0 (3)
2
2m ( vx )
2σ
2
(2) ( ) n̂ qEL
ε0
(4)
2
2m ( vx )
σ
(3) ( ) n̂
2ε0

(4) (
σ
) n̂

ε0
Question 45.
A spherical conducting shell of inner radius r and outer

1
radius r has a charge Q. A charge q is placed at the

2
center of the shell. The surface charge density on the

outer surfaces of the shell is:
Q+q
(1) 2
4πr2
q
(2)
2
4πr1
− ( Q+q )
(3) 2
4πr2
−q
(4)
2
4πr1
Page: 10
Question 46.
A long charged cylinder of linear charged density is

surrounded by a hollow co-axial conducting cylinder.
What is the electric field in the space between the two
cylinders at distance d from the common axis?
2λ
(1)
πε0 d
λ
(2)
2πε0 d
λ
(3)
πε0 d
πλ
(4)
2ε0 d
Fill OMR Sheet*

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
days of ANY NEETprep
course
Page: 11
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance : NCERT
Example & Excercise Based MCQs
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 4.
NCERT Examples Figures (a) and (b) show the field lines of a positive and
Question 1. negative point charge respectively.
The potential at a point P due to a charge of 4 × 10–7 C The signs of the potential difference
located 9 cm away is: VP − VQ and VB − VA are respectively :
6
1. 3 × 10 V
6
2. 4 × 10 V
4
3. 3 × 10 V
4
4. 4 × 10 V
Question 2.
The potential at point P is 4 × 10 V . The work done in
4
bringing a charge of 2 × 10–9 C from infinity to the point

1. +, −
P is:
2. +, +
−6
1. 6 × 10 J 3. −, +
−4
2. 4 × 10 J 4. −, −
−5
3. 8 × 10 J
−4

4. 9 × 10 J

Question 5.
Figures (a) and (b) show the field lines of a positive and
Question 3.
negative point charge respectively. The signs of the
Two charges 3 × 10–8 C and –2 × 10–8 C are located 15 potential energy difference of a small negative charge
cm apart. At what point on the line joining the two between the points Q and P & A and B are respectively:
charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential
at infinity to be zero.
1. 9 cm away from 3 × 10–8 C
2. 25 cm away from 3 × 10–8 C
3. 45 cm away from 3 × 10–8 C

4. Both (1) and (3)
1. +, −
2. +, +
3. −, +
4. −, −
Page: 1
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Figures (a) and (b) show the field lines of a positive and Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square
negative point charge respectively. The sign of the work ABCD of side d, as shown in the figure. The work
done by the field in moving a small positive charge from required to put together this arrangement will be:
Q to P and the sign of the work done by the external
agency in moving a small negative charge from B to A,
respectively, will be:
2
−q
1. (4 − √2)
4πε0 d
2
−q
2. (2 − √2)
4πε0 d
1. +, − 2
−q
3. (4 + √2)
2. +, + 4πε0 d
3. −, + −q
2
4. (2 + √2)
4πε0 d
4. −, −
Question 7.
Figures (a) and (b) show the field lines of a positive and
negative point charge respectively. The kinetic energy of
a small negative charge in going from B to A:
1. decreases.
2. increases.
3. remains the same.
4. first increases and then decreases.
Page: 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square How much work is required to separate two
ABCD of side d, as shown in the figure. A charge q is0 charges 7 µC and –2 µC (and with no external field)
brought from ∞ to the centre E of the square, the four placed at (–9 cm, 0, 0) and (9 cm, 0, 0) infinitely away
charges being held fixed at its corners. How much work from each other?
is needed to do this?
1. 0.2 J
2. -0.7 J
3. -0.2 J
4. 0.7 J

Question 12.
The electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting
of two charges 7 µC and –2 µC (in an external electric
field E = A(1/r2); A = 9 × 105 C m–2) placed at (–9 cm,
0, 0) and (9 cm, 0, 0) respectively is:
1. 34 J
2
−q
1.
4πε0 d
(4 − √2) 2. 49.3 J
2. zero 3. 47 J
2
−q
(4 + √2)
3.
4πε0 d 4. 43 J
2
4.
−q
(2 + √2)
4πε0 d
Question 13.
A molecule of a substance has a permanent electric

Question 10.
dipole moment of magnitude 10–29 C m. A mole of this
The electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting substance is polarised (at low temperature) by applying a
of two charges 7 µC and –2 µC (and with no external strong electrostatic field of magnitude 106 V m–1. The
field) placed at (–9 cm, 0, 0) and (9 cm, 0, 0) respectively direction of the field is suddenly changed by an angle of
is: 60 . The heat released by the substance in aligning its
0
1. 0.2 J dipoles along the new direction of the field is: (For
simplicity, assume 100% polarisation of the sample).
2. -0.7 J
1. 6 J
3. -0.2 J
2. 8 J
4. 0.7 J
3. 3 J
4. 4 J

Page: 3
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Which one of the following is wrong? A network of four 10 µF capacitors is connected to a 500
V supply, as shown in the figure. The charge on the
1. A comb run through one’s dry hair attracts small bits capacitor (C ) is: (Note, the charge on a capacitor is the
of paper.
charge on the plate with higher potential, equal and

2. Ordinary rubber is an insulator. But special rubber
opposite to the charge on the plate with lower potential).
tyres of aircraft are made slightly conducting.
3. Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have

metallic ropes touching the ground during motion.
4. A bird perches on a bare high power line and gets a

fatal shock. A man standing on the ground touches the
same line and nothing happens to the man.
Question 15.
A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same
area as the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor of
capacitance C but has a thickness (3/4)d, where d is the
0
separation of the plates. What is the capacitance of the −3

1. 1. 4 × 10 C
capacitor when the slab is inserted between the plates? −4
2. 9 × 10 C
4K −3
1. ( )C0 3. 1. 7 × 10 C
K+3
−3
4. 5. 0 × 10 C
2K
2. ( )C0
K+2

3. C0
3 Question 18.
4. C0
4
A 900 pF capacitor is charged by a 100 V battery. The
electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor is U. If the
capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected

Question 16. to another 900 pF capacitor (as shown in the figure ) the
A network of four 10 µF capacitors is connected to a 500 electrostatic energy stored by the system is U'. The ratio
V supply, as shown in the figure. The equivalent of is:
U
U'
capacitance of the network is:
10
1. μF 2
3 1.
1
20
1
2. μF
3 2.
2
40
3. μF 3. 1
3
2
16 4.
4. μF 3
3

Page: 4
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 22.
NCERT Exercises Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF, and 4 pF are

Question 19. connected in parallel. The charge on 4 pF capacitor if the
A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 µC at combination is connected to a 100 V supply is:
each of its vertices. The potential at the center of the −10
(1) 4 × 10 C
hexagon is:
−9
(2) 3 × 10 C
6
(1) 2. 7 × 10 V
−10
(3) 2 × 10 C
(2) 0
−9
(4) 1 × 10 C
6
(3) 3. 7 × 10 V
6
(4) 2. 0 × 10 V

Question 23.
Question 20.
A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has Two charges 5×10-8 C and -3x10-8 C are located 16 cm
a capacitance of 8pF. What will be the capacitance if the apart from each other. At what point on the line joining
distance between the plates is reduced by half, and the the two charges is the electric potential zero? Take the
space between them is filled with a substance of potential at infinity to be zero.
dielectric constant 6? (1) 10 cm from the positive charge between the charges.
(1) 48 pF (2) 40 cm from the positive charge between the charges.
(2) 8 pF (3) 10 cm from the negative charge between the charges.
(3) 96 pF (4) 40 cm from the negative charge between the charges.
(4) 60 pF
Question 24.
Question 21. In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates,
Three capacitors connected in series have a capacitance each plate has an area of 6 × 10 m , and the distance
−3 2
of 9pF each. The potential difference across each between the plates is 3 mm. The capacitance of the
capacitor if the combination is connected to a 120 V capacitor is:
supply is: (1) 16.12 pF
(1) 10 V (2) 17.71 pF
(2) 20 V (3) 15.01 pF
(3) 30 V (4) 11.32 pF
(4) 40 V
Question 25.
A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery. How
much electrostatic energy is stored in the capacitor?
−8
(1) 3. 1 × 10 J
−8
(2) 2. 9 × 10 J
−8
(3) 3. 3 × 10 J
−8
(4) 1. 5 × 10 J

Page: 5
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200V supply. It is Two tiny spheres carrying charges of 1.5 µC and 2.5 µC
then disconnected from the supply and is connected to are located 30 cm apart. What is the potential at a point
another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much 10 cm from the midpoint in a plane normal to the line
electrostatic energy is lost in the process? and passing through the mid-point?
−6 5
(1) 5 × 10 J (1) 1. 5 × 10 V
−5 5
(2) 6 × 10 J (2) 1 × 10 V
−6 5
(3) 6 × 10 J (3) 2. 4 × 10 V
−5 5
(4) 5 × 10 J (4) 2 × 10 V
Question 27.
A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. The work done
in taking a small charge of −2 × 10 C from a point P

−9
Question 30.
(0, 0, 3 cm) to a point Q (0, 4 cm, 0), via a point R (0, 6
cm, 9 cm) is: In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton are bound at
a distance of about 0.53 Å. The potential energy of the
(1) 3. 27 J
system in eV is: (Taking the zero of the potential energy
(2) 1. 27 J at an infinite separation of the electron from the proton.)
(3) 0. 27 J
(1) -23.1 eV
(4) 2. 70 J
(2) 27.0 eV
(3) -27.2 eV
Question 28. (4) 23.7 eV

A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices.
The potential due to this charge array at the center of the
cube is: Question 31.

(1)
4q
Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are
√3πε0 b
connected to each other by a wire. The ratio of electric
(2)
8q
fields at the surfaces of the two spheres is:
√3πε0 b
a
2q (1)
(3) b
√3πε b
0
(2) 1
(4) 0
2a
(3)
b
(4)
a
Question 32.
What is the area of the plates of a 2 F parallel plate
capacitor, given that the separation between the plates is
0.5 cm?
2
(1) 1100 km
2
(2) 1130 km
2
(3) 1110 km
2
(4) 1105 km
Page: 6
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
The equivalent capacitance of the circuit is: If Q is the charge on the capacitor, and E is the
magnitude of the electric field between the plates. Then
force on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has a
magnitude equal to:
1
(1) QE
2
(2) QE
(3) 2QE
(4) 0
Question 37.
(1) 200 pF
A spherical capacitor has an inner sphere of radius 12 cm
(2) 200
pF and an outer sphere of radius 13 cm. The outer sphere is
3
earthed and the inner sphere is given a charge of 2.5 μC.
(3) 200 pF The space between the concentric spheres is filled with a
liquid of dielectric constant 32. The capacitance of the
(4) 150 pF capacitor is:
−9
(1) 4. 0 × 10 F
Question 34.
−9
(2) 4. 5 × 10 F
−9
The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 90 (3) 5. 5 × 10 F
cm each and are separated by 2.5 mm. The capacitor is

2 −9
(4) 3. 3 × 10 F
charged by connecting it to a 400 V supply. How much
electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor?
−6
(1) 1. 17 × 10 J Question 38.
−6
(2) 2. 12 × 10 J
A cylindrical capacitor has two co-axial cylinders of
(3) 2. 55 × 10
−6
J length 15 cm and radii 1.5 cm and 1.4 cm. The outer
−6
cylinder is earthed and the inner cylinder is given a
(4) 1. 66 × 10 J
charge Of 3.5 μC. The capacitance of the system is:
−10
(1) 3. 4 × 10 F
(2) 1. 2 × 10
−10
F
−9
Question 35. (3) 4. 8 × 10 F
−9
(4) 2. 5 × 10 F
A 4 μF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then
disconnected from the supply and is connected to another
uncharged 2 μF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy
of the first capacitor is lost in the form of heat and

electromagnetic radiation?
−2
(1) 3. 10 × 10 J
−3
(2) 3. 33 × 10 J
−2
(3) 1. 23 × 10 J
−2
(4) 2. 67 × 10 J
Page: 7
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 39.
A parallel plate capacitor is to be designed with a voltage

rating of 1 kV, using a material of dielectric constant 3
and dielectric strength of about 107 V m-1. For safety, we
should like the field never to exceed, say 10% of the
dielectric strength. What minimum area of the plates is
required to have a capacitance of 50 pF?
2
(1) 19 cm
2
(2) 17 cm
2
(3) 15 cm
2
(4) 23 cm
Question 40.
In a Van-de-Graff type generator, a spherical metal shell
is to be a 15×10 V electrode. The dielectric strength of
6
the gas surrounding the electrode is 5 × 10 V/m. What

7
is the minimum radius of the spherical shell required?

(1) 20 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 35 cm

Fill OMR Sheet*

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
course
Page: 8
Current Electricity : NCERT Example & Excercise Based
MCQs Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 4.
NCERT Examples A network of resistors is connected to a 16 V battery with

Question 1. an internal resistance of 1Ω, as shown in the figure. The
What is the average drift speed of conduction electrons in equivalent resistance of the network is:
a copper wire of cross-sectional area 1. 0 × 10 m−7 2
carrying a current of 1.5 A? Assume that each copper

atom contributes roughly one conduction electron. The
density of copper is 9. 0 × 10 kg /m , and its atomic
3 3
mass is 63.5 u.

−1
1. 1. 1 mm s
−1
2. 2. 1 mm s
−1
3. 3. 1 mm s
−1
4. 4. 1 mm s 1. 4Ω
2. 5Ω
3. 7Ω
Question 2. 4. 2Ω
An electric toaster uses nichrome for its heating element.
When a negligibly small current passes through it, its
resistance at room temperature (27.0 °C) is found to be Question 5.

75.3 Ω. When the toaster is connected to a 230 V supply, A network of resistors is connected to a 16 V battery with
the current settles, after a few seconds, to a steady value an internal resistance of 1 Ω, as shown in the figure. The
of 2.68 A. What is the steady temperature of the current in 1 Ω resistor between B and C will be:
nichrome element? The temperature coefficient of
resistance of nichrome averaged over the temperature
range involved is 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1
0
1. 827 C
0
2. 820 C
0
3. 847 C
0
4. 800 C

1. 4 A
2. 2 A
3. 1 A
Question 3. 4. 3 A
The resistance of the platinum wire of a platinum
resistance thermometer at the ice point is 5 Ω and at the
steam point is 5.39 Ω. When the thermometer is inserted

into a hot bath, the resistance of the platinum wire is
5.795 Ω. The temperature of the bath is:
0
1. 300. 20 C
0
2. 345. 65 C
0
3. 320. 20 C
0
4. 400. 12 C
Page: 1
A network of resistors is connected to a 16 V battery with The current in the branch AB in the given network is:
an internal resistance of 1 Ω, as shown in the figure. The
voltage drop across AB is:
1. 2 V 1. 5/8 A
2. 25 V 2. 5/2 A
3. 4 V 3. 15/8 A
4. 6 V 4. 3/2 A

Question 9.
Question 7. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have the following

resistances as shown in the figure. A galvanometer of
A battery of 10 V and negligible internal resistance is 15Ω resistance is connected across BD. What is the
connected across the diagonally opposite corners of a current through the galvanometer when a potential
cubical network consisting of 12 resistors each of difference of 10 V is maintained across AC?
resistance 1 Ω (as shown in the figure). The total current
in the network is:
1. 4.87 mA
1. 6 A
2. 12 A 2. 3.72 mA
3. 4 A
3. 5.01 mA
4. 2 A
4. 2.65 mA
Page: 2
In a meter bridge (shown in the figure), the null point is Which one of the following is correct?
found at a distance of 33.7 cm from A. If now a
resistance of 12 Ω is connected in parallel with S, the 1. After acquiring drift speed by the electrons, there is no
null point occurs at 51.9 cm. The values of R and S are acceleration of the electrons.
respectively: 2. To have a large amount of electric current, the drift
speed of the electrons should be very large.
3. When electrons drift in metal from lower to higher
potential, all the free electrons move in the same
direction.
4. The paths of the elctrons between two successive
collisions are curved in the presence of electric field.

1. 13. 5 Ω, 6. 86 Ω NCERT Exercises

2. 13. 5 Ω, 13. 5 Ω Question 13.
3. 6. 86 Ω, 6. 86 Ω
A storage battery of emf 8.0 V and internal resistance
4. 6. 86 Ω, 13. 5 Ω
0.5 Ω is being charged by a 120 V dc supply using a
series resistor of 15.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of
the battery during charging?

Question 11. (1) 11.5 V
A resistance of R Ω draws current from a potentiometer. (2) 12 V
The potentiometer has a total resistance R Ω (as shown
0
in the figure). A voltage V is supplied to the (3) 13.3 V

potentiometer. What is the voltage across R when the (4) 10 V
sliding contact is in the middle of the potentiometer?

Question 14.
In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V
gives a balance point at 35.0 cm length of the wire. If the
cell is replaced by another cell and the balance point
shifts to 63.0 cm, then the emf of the second cell is:
(1) 1.27 V
(2) 2.25 V
1.
2V R
R0 +4R
(3) 3.27 V
2.
VR
(4) 3.25 V
R0 +4R
3.
2V R
R0 +2R

VR
4.
R0 +2R
Page: 3
Choose the correct alternative: The number density of free electrons in a copper
(1) Alloys of metals usually have less resistivity than that conductor is 8.5×1028 m–3. How long does an electron
of their constituent metals. take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m long to its other
end? The area of the cross-section of the wire is 2.0×10–
(2) Alloys usually have much higher temperature 6 m2 and it is carrying a current of 3.0 A.
coefficients of resistance than pure metals.
4
(1) 2. 7 × 10 s
(3) The resistivity of the alloy manganin is nearly
independent with an increase of temperature. 4
(2) 3. 3 × 10 s
3
(4) The resistivity of a typical insulator (e.g., amber) is (3) 2. 0 × 10 s
less than that of a metal by a factor of the order of 3

(4) 3. 9 × 10 s
) .
22 23
(10 /10

Question 19.
Question 16.
Six lead-acid type of secondary cells each of emf 2.0 V
Given n resistors each of resistance R, what is the ratio of and internal resistance 0.015 Ω are joined in series to
the maximum to minimum resistance? provide a supply to a resistance of 8. 5 Ω. What is the
1 current drawn from the supply?
(1)
n
(2) n
(1) 2.10 A
(3)
1 (2) 1.39 A
2
n
(4) n
2 (3) 1.71 A
(4) 2.21 A
Question 17.
Given the resistances of 1Ω, 2Ω, 3Ω, how will we Question 20.
combine them to get an equivalent resistance of (11/3): A secondary cell after long use has an emf of 1.9 V and a
(1) 1Ω, 2Ω in parallel and the combination in series with large internal resistance of 380 Ω. What maximum
3Ω current can be drawn from the cell?
(2) 3Ω, 2Ω in parallel and the combination in series with (1) 0.05 A
1Ω (2) 0.005 A
(3) 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω in parallel (3) 5.0 A
(4) 1Ω, 2Ω in series and the combination in parallel with (4) 0.05 A
3Ω

Question 21.
The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the
internal resistance of the battery is 0. 4 Ω, what is the
maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?
(1) 30 A
(2) 20 A
(3) 10 A
(4) 40 A

Page: 4
A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3 Ω is At room temperature (27.0 °C) the resistance of a heating
connected to a resistor. If the current in the circuit is 0.5 element is 100 Ω. What is the temperature of the element
A, what is the terminal voltage of the battery when the if the resistance is found to be 117 Ω? (given that the
circuit is closed? temperature coefficient of the material of the resistor is
.)
−4 0 −1
1. 70 × 10 C
(1) 10 V
0
(1) 1027 C
(2) 8.5 V
0
(2) 1007 C
(3) 1.5 V 0
(3) 1020 C
(4) 7.2 V 0
(4) 1127 C
Question 23.
Question 26.
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, and 3 Ω are combined in
A negligibly small current is passed through a wire of
series. If the combination is connected to a battery of
length 15 m and uniform cross-section 6. 0 × 10 m ,
−7 2
emf 12 V and negligible internal resistance, the potential

and its resistance is measured to be 5. 0 Ω. What is the
drop across 2 Ω resistor is:
resistivity of the material at the temperature of the
(1) 2 V experiment?
(2) 5 V (1) 1 × 10
−7
Ω m
(3) 4 V
−7
(2) 2 × 10 Ω m
−7
(4) 6 V (3) 3 × 10 Ω m
−7
(4) 1. 6 × 10 Ω m

Three resistors 2 Ω, 4Ω, and 5 Ω are combined in A silver wire has a resistance of 2. 1 Ω at 27. 5 °C, and a
parallel. If the combination is connected to a battery of resistance of 2. 7 Ω at 100 °C. The temperature
emf 20 V and negligible internal resistance, the total coefficient of resistivity of silver is:
current drawn from the battery is: (1) 0. 0033 °C
−1
(1) 10 A (2) 0. 039 °C

−1
(2) 17 A
−1
(3) 0. 0039 °C
−1
(4) 0. 033 °C
(3) 13 A
(4) 19 A
Page: 5
The current drawn from a 12 V supply with internal Figure shows a potentiometer with a cell of 2.0 V and
resistance 0. 5 Ω by the infinite network (shown in the internal resistance 0.40 Ω maintaining a potential drop
figure) is: across the resistor wire AB. A standard cell which
maintains a constant emf of 1.02 V (for very moderate
currents up to a few mA) gives a balance point at 67.3 cm
length of the wire. To ensure very low currents drawn
from the standard cell, a very high resistance of 600 kΩ
is put in series with it, which is shorted close to the
balance point. The standard cell is then replaced by a cell
of unknown emf ε and the balance point found similarly,
turns out to be at 82.3 cm length of the wire. The value
of ε is:

(1) 3.12 A
(2) 3.72 A
(3) 2.29 A
(4) 2.37 A
(1) 1.33 V
(2) 1.50 V
(3) 1.24 V
(4) 1.07 V

Page: 6
Question 30.
Figure shows a potentiometer circuit for comparison of Fill OMR Sheet*

two resistances. The balance point with a standard
resistor R=10.0 Ω is found to be 58.3 cm, while that with *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
the unknown resistance X is 68.5 cm. The value of X is: where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
(1) 12. 1Ω
course
(2) 12. 4 Ω
(3) 10. 3 Ω
(4) 11. 7 Ω
Question 31.
Figure shows a 2.0 V potentiometer used for the
determination of internal resistance of a 1.5 V cell. The
balance point of the cell in open circuit is 76.3 cm. When
a resistor of 9.5 Ω is used in the external circuit of the
cell, the balance point shifts to 64.8 cm length of the
potentiometer wire. The internal resistance of the cell is:
(1) 1. 68 Ω
(2) 0. 13 Ω
(3) 0. 31 Ω
(4) 1. 12 Ω
Page: 7
Moving Charges and Magnetism : NCERT Example &
Question 3.
NCERT Examples The radius of the path of an electron and frequency

Question 1.
(mass 9 × 10 kg and charge 1. 6 × 10 C) moving
−31 −19
A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a at a speed of 3 ×107 m/s in a magnetic field of 6 × 10–4 T
current of 2 A. It is suspended in mid-air by a uniform perpendicular to it are respectively:
horizontal magnetic field B (shown in the figure). What
is the magnitude of the magnetic field? 1. 24 cm, 4 MHz
2. 22 cm, 4 MHz
3. 28 cm, 2 MHz
4. 26 cm, 2 MHz

Question 4.
1. 0.65 T
An electron
2. 0.77 T (mass 9 × 10
−31
kg and charge 1. 6 × 10
−19
C) is
3. 0.44 T moving at a speed of 3 ×107 m/s in a magnetic
4. 0.20 T field perpendicular to it. The energy of the electron in
keV is: ( 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)
1. 2.5 keV
Question 2. 2. 3.5 keV
In a region of space, magnetic field is parallel to the 3. 20 keV
positive y-axis and the charged particle is moving along
the positive x-axis (as shown in the figure). The 4. 3.0 keV
directions of Lorentz force for an electron (negative
charge) and proton (positive charge) are respectively:

Question 5.
A cyclotron’s oscillator frequency is 10 MHz. The radius
of its ‘dees’ is 60 cm, what should be the operating
magnetic field for accelerating protons and the kinetic
energy (in MeV) of the proton beam produced by the
accelerator?
1. 0.66 T, 6 MeV
2. 0.33 T, 6 MeV
1. -z-axis, +z-axis
3. 0.66 T, 7 MeV
2. +z-axis, -z-axis
4. 0.33 T, 7 MeV
3. -z-axis, -z-axis

4. +z-axis, +z-axis
Page: 1
An element Δl = Δx î is placed at the origin and A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a
carries a large current I =10 A (as shown in the figure). semi-circular arc of radius 2.0 cm as shown in the figure.
What is the magnetic field on the y-axis at a distance of Consider the magnetic field B at the centre of the arc.
0.5 m? (∆x = 1 cm). What is the magnetic field at centre due to the semi-
circular loop?

1. 0
−4
2. 3. 8 × 10 T
−4
3. 1. 9 × 10 T
−8
1. 6 × 10 T −4
4. 2. 9 × 10 T
−8
2. 4 × 10 T
−8

3. 5 × 10 T

−8
4. 5. 4 × 10 T Question 9.
Consider a tightly wound 100 turn coil of radius 10 cm,
carrying a current of 1 A. What is the magnitude of the
magnetic field at the centre of the coil?

Question 7. −4
1. 8. 2 × 10 T
A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a 2. 4. 6 × 10

−4
T
semi-circular arc of radius 2.0 cm as shown in the figure. 3. 5. 2 × 10

−4
T
Consider the magnetic field B at the centre of the arc. −4
4. 6. 2 × 10 T
What is the magnetic field due to the straight segments?

1. 0
−4
2. 1. 2 × 10 T
−4
3. 2. 1 × 10 T
4. N one of these
Page: 2
The figure shows a long straight wire of a circular cross- The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at
section (radius a) carrying steady current I. The a certain place is 3.0 ×10–5 T and the direction of the
current I is uniformly distributed across this cross- field is from the geographic south to the geographic
section. If the magnetic field in the region (r < a) is B
1 north. A very long straight conductor is carrying a steady
and for (r > a) is B , then is:
B1
2
B2
current of 1 A. What is the force per unit length on it
when it is placed on a horizontal table and the direction
of the current is south to north?
−5 −1
1. 3 × 10 N m
−7 −1
2. 2 × 10 N m
3. 0
−7 −1
4. 5 × 10 N m
Question 14.
a
1.
r A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm
2.
a
2
carries a current of 3.2 A. The magnetic field at the
r
2
centre of the coil is:
2
r
3. −3
2
a 1. 4 × 10 T
r −3
4. 2. 6 × 10 T
a
−3
3. 2 × 10 T
−3
4. 5 × 10 T
Question 11.
A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is
made up of 500 turns. It carries a current of 5 A. What is Question 15.

the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid? A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm
1. 6. 28 × 10 T
−3 carries a current of 3.2 A. the magnetic moment of this
−3
coil is:
2. 3. 14 × 10 T
−3 2
3. 2. 72 × 10 T 1. 20 A m
2
−3 2. 10 A m
4. 5. 17 × 10 T
2
3. 30 A m
2
4. 15 A m
Question 12.
The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at

a certain place is 3.0 ×10–5 T and the direction of the
field is from the geographic south to the geographic
north. A very long straight conductor is carrying a steady
current of 1 A. What is the force per unit length on it
when it is placed on a horizontal table and the direction
of the current east to west?
−5 −1
1. 3 × 10 N m
−7 −1
2. 2 × 10 N m
3. 0
−7 −1
4. 5 × 10 N m
Page: 3
A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm For the circuit (shown in the figure), the current is to be
carries a current of 3.2 A. The coil is placed in a vertical measured. The ammeter shown is a galvanometer with a
plane and is free to rotate about a horizontal axis that resistance R = 60 Ω. The value of current is:
G
coincides with its diameter. A uniform magnetic field of

2T in the horizontal direction exists such that initially, the
axis of the coil is in the direction of the field. The coil
rotates through an angle of 90° under the influence of the
magnetic field. What is the difference of magnitude of
the torque on the coil in the initial and final position?

1. 0
2. 10 N − m
3. 20 N − m
4. 15 N − m
1. 0.004 A
2. 0.032 A
3. 0.222 A
4. 0.048 A
Question 17.

A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm
carries a current of 3.2 A. What is the angular speed Question 20.
acquired by the coil when it has rotated by 90° under the
influence of a magnetic field of magnitude 2T that is In the circuit (shown in the figure) the current is to be
applied along the axis of the coil? The moment of inertia measured. What is the value of the current if the ammeter
of the coil is 0.1 kg-m .
2
shown is a galvanometer (R = 60 Ω) but converted to
G
−1
an ammeter by a shunt resistance r = 0. 02 Ω?
s
1. 10 s
−1
2. 30 s
−1
3. 40 s
−1
4. 20 s
Question 18.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) A current-carrying circular loop lies on a smooth
horizontal plane. A uniform magnetic field can be set up
1. 0. 99 A
in such a manner that the loop turns around itself (i.e.,
turns about the vertical axis). 2. 0. 33 A
3. 0. 26 A
(2) A current-carrying circular loop is located in a 4. 0. 20 A
uniform external magnetic field. If the loop is free to
turn, the orientation of stable equilibrium is one where
the area vector A of the loop is in the direction of the
external magnetic field.

(3) A loop of irregular shape carrying current is located
in an external magnetic field. If the wire is flexible, it
changes to a circular shape.
(4) None of these.
Page: 4
Question 24.
NCERT Exercises For a circular coil of radius R and N turns carrying

Question 21. current I, the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point
In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 6.5 G (1 G = on its axis at a distance x from its centre is given by,
2
10–4 T) is maintained. An electron is shot into the field

μ0 I R N
B = 3
with a speed of 4.8 ×10 m s–1 normal to the field. the
2 2
6 2 ( x +R ) 2
radius of the circular orbit is:

The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is:
(e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, m = 9.1×10–31 kg)
e
μ0 I N
(1)
R
(1) 4. 2 cm
2μ0 I N
(2)
(2) 5. 3 cm R
(3) 4. 7 cm (3) 0
μ0 I N
(4) 5. 2 cm (4)
2R

A circular coil of 30 turns and a radius of 8.0 cm carrying A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of
a current of 6.0 A is suspended vertically in a uniform cross-section as 1. 6 × 10 m , carrying a current of
−4 2
horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field 4.0 A, is suspended through its center allowing it to turn
lines make an angle of 60° with the normal of the coil. in a horizontal plane. The magnetic moment associated
What will be the magnitude of the counter-torque that with the solenoid is:
must be applied to prevent the coil from turning?
2
(1) 0. 18 Am
(1) 7.12 N m
2
(2) 3. 24 Am
(2) 3.13 N m 2
(3) 1. 28 Am
(3) 6.50 N m (4) 0. 38 Am

2
(4) 4.44 N m
Question 26.
A monoenergetic electron beam with an electron speed of

Question 23. 5.20 x 106 m/s is subject to a magnetic field of 1.30 x 10-
4 T normal to the beam velocity. What is the radius of the
Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii 16 cm and
10 cm, respectively, lie in the same vertical plane circle traced by the beam, given e/m for electron equals
containing the north to south direction. Coil X has 20 1.76 x 1011 C kg-1?
turns and carries a current of 16 A, coil Y has 25 turns
(1) 22.7 cm
and carries a current of 18 A. The sense of the current in
X is anticlockwise, and clockwise in Y, for an observer (2) 21.3 cm
looking at the coils facing west. The magnitude and
direction of the net magnetic field due to the coils at their (3) 20.0 cm
centre is: (4) 21.9 cm
−4
(1) 2π × 10 T (East)

−4
(2) 5π × 10 T (East)

(3) 5π × 10
−4
T (W est)
−4
(4) 4π × 10 T (W est)
Page: 5
An electron gun with its collector at a potential of 100 V A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of
fires out electrons in a spherical bulb containing radius 8.0 cm carries a current of 0.40 A. What is the
hydrogen gas at low pressure (~10 mm of H g). A
−2
magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the
magnetic field of 2. 83 × 10 T curves the path of the
−4 coil?
electrons in a circular orbit of radius 12.0 cm. (The path (1) 3. 14 × 10
−4
T
can be viewed because the gas ions in the path focus the
−4
beam by attracting electrons, and emitting light by (2) 2. 12 × 10 T
electron capture; this method is known as the 'fine beam (3) 1. 41 × 10

−4
T
tube' method. Specific charge ratio (e/m) is: −4
(4) 2. 01 × 10 T
11 −1
(1) 1. 21 × 10 C kg
11 −1

(2) 1. 73 × 10 C kg

(3) 2. 53 × 10
11
C kg
−1
Question 31.
(4) 3. 02 × 10
11
C kg
−1
Two moving coil meters, M1 and M2 have the following
particulars:
R1 = 10 Ω, N1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 x 10-3 m2 and B1 = 0.25 T
Question 28. R2 = 14 Ω, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 x 10-3 m2 and B2 = 0.50 T

A toroid has a core (non-ferromagnetic) of inner radius ( The spring constants are identical for the two meters. )
25 cm and outer radius 26 cm, around which 3500 turns
of a wire are wound. If the current in the wire is 11 A, the The ratio of current sensitivity (M2 to M1) is:
magnetic field inside the core of the toroid is:
(1) 3 × 10
−2
T
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(2) 0
(3) 1.4 : 1
(3) 2 × 10
−3
T (4) 1: 1.4
(4) 1 × 10
−2
T
Question 29.
An electron emitted by a heated cathode and accelerated Question 32.

through a potential difference of 2.0 kV, enters a region
with a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. if the field is A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and
transverse to its initial velocity, the radius of the circular carries a current of 12 A. The coil is suspended vertically
path is: and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of
30º with the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic
(1) 2.10 mm field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of
torque experienced by the coil?
(2) 0.11 mm
(1) 0.79 N m
(3) 1.01 mm
(2) 0.88 N m
(4) 0.12 mm
(3) 0.49 N m

(4) 0.96 N m
Page: 6
Closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length
windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of the solenoid on a wire carrying a current of 8 A and making an angle
is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A, the magnitude of 30 with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of
0
of B inside the solenoid near its centre is: 0.15 T?

(1) 3. 7 × 10
−2
T (1) 0.04 N/m
−2
(2) 3. 1 × 10 T (2) 0.6 N/m
−2
(3) 2. 5 × 10 T
(3) 1.5 N/m
−2
(4) 1. 44 × 10 T
(4) 0.33 N/m
Question 34.
Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying Question 37.
currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same direction are
separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. the force on a 10 cm A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90
section of wire A is: A in the east to west direction. What is the magnitude
and direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5
(1) 3 × 10 N−5
m below the line?

(2) 2 × 10 −5
N (1) 1. 2 × 10
−5
T towards north
(3) 3 × 10 −4
N (2) 2. 1 × 10
−5
T towards south
−5
(4) 2 × 10 −4
N (3) 1. 2 × 10 T towards south
−5
(4) 2. 1 × 10 T towards north
Question 35.
A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed inside Question 38.

a solenoid perpendicular to its axis. The magnetic field A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a
inside the solenoid is given to be 0.27 T. What is the current of 50 A in the north to south direction. The
magnetic force on the wire? magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at a point
(1) 8. 1 × 10
−2
N
2.5 m east of the wire is:
−2 −6
(2) 9. 8 × 10 N (1) 4 × 10 T vertically upward
−2 −6
(3) 7. 6 × 10 N (2) 4 × 10 T vertically downward
−2 −6
(4) 6. 8 × 10 N (3) 3 × 10 T vertically upward
−6
(4) 3 × 10 T vertically downward
Question 39.
A long straight wire carries a current of 35 A. The
magnitude of the magnetic field at a point 20 cm from the
wire is:
−6
(1) 3. 5 × 10 T
−5
(2) 3. 5 × 10 T
−6
(3) 4. 5 × 10 T
−5
(4) 4. 5 × 10 T

Page: 7


A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.45 m and A circular coil of 20 turns and a radius of 10 cm is placed
mass 60 g is suspended by two vertical wires at its ends. in a uniform magnetic field of 0.10 T normal to the plane
A current of 5.0 A is set up in the rod through the wires. of the coil. If the current in the coil is 5.0 A, what is
(a) What magnetic field should be set up normally to the the total torque on the coil?
conductor in order that the tension in the wires is zero?
(1) 1.0 N m
(1) O.13 T
(2) 0
(2) 0.06 T
(3) 0.5 N m
(3) 0.26 T
(4) 0.3 N m
(4) 0.18 T

Question 44.
Question 41.
A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 Ω and the
The wires which connect the battery of an automobile to metre shows full-scale deflection for a current of 4 mA.
its starting motor carry a current of 300 A (for a short How will you convert the metre into an ammeter of range
time). What is the force per unit length between the wires 0 to 6 A?
if they are 70 cm long and 1.5 cm apart?
(1) a shunt resistor 0.02 Ω is to be connected in series
(1) 2.2 N/m with the galvanometer.
(2) 4.7 N/m (2) a shunt resistor 0.02 Ω is to be connected in parallel
with the galvanometer.
(3) 3.2 N/m
(3) a shunt resistor 0.01 Ω is to be connected in series
(4) 1.2 N/m with the galvanometer.
(4) a shunt resistor 0.01 Ω is to be connected in parallel
with the galvanometer.

Question 42.

A uniform magnetic field of 1.5 T exists in a cylindrical
region of a radius of 10.0 cm, its direction parallel to its Question 45.
axis along east to west. A wire carrying a current of 7.0
A in the north to south direction passes through this A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12 Ω and the
region. What is the magnitude and direction of the force metre shows full-scale deflection for a current of 3 mA.
on the wire if, the wire intersects the axis? How will you convert the metre into a voltmeter of range
0 to 18 V?
(1) 3.4 N, vertically downward direction.
(1) a resistor of resistance 5988 Ω is to be connected in
(2) 2.1 N, vertically upward direction. series with the galvanometer.
(3) 3.4 N, vertically downward direction. (2) a resistor of resistance 4988 Ω is to be connected in
(4) 2.1 N, vertically upward direction. parallel with the galvanometer.

series with the galvanometer.

parallel with the galvanometer.

Page: 8
A solenoid 60 cm long and of radius 4.0 cm has 3 layers A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic
of windings of 300 turns each. A 2.0 cm long wire of fields. The angle between the field directions is 60°, and
mass 2.5 g lies inside the solenoid (near its centre) one of the fields has a magnitude of 1. 2 × 10 T . If the
−2
normal to its axis; both the wire and the axis of the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an angle of 15°
solenoid are in the horizontal plane. The wire is with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field?
connected through two leads parallel to the axis of the [Given : sin 15° = 0. 26]
solenoid to an external battery which supplies a current
−3
of 6.0 A in the wire. What value of current (with an 1. 7. 29 × 10 T
appropriate sense of circulation) in the windings of the 2. 4. 39 × 10

−3
T
solenoid can support the weight of the wire? −3
3. 6. 18 × 10 T
−2
(g = 9. 8 m s )
−3
4. 5. 37 × 10 T
(1) 106 A

(2) 108 A
(3) 100 A
(4) 110 A
Fill OMR Sheet*
Question 47.
A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross-

section 2. 5 × 10 m carries a current of 3.0 A. If the

−4 2
solenoid acts like a bar magnet. What is its associated

magnetic moment? CLICK HERE to get
FREE ACCESS for 3
−1
(1) 0. 6 J T
−1
(2) 0. 7 J T
(3) 0. 3 J T
−1
course
−1
(4) 0. 8 J T
Question 48.
A monoenergetic (18 keV) electron beam initially in the

horizontal direction is subjected to a horizontal magnetic
field of 0.04 G normal to the initial direction. The up or
down deflection of the beam over a distance of 30 cm
is: (m = 9. 11 × 10 kg).
e
−31
(1) 3.9 mm
(2) 2.7 mm
(3) 4.2 mm
(4) 5.1 mm
Page: 9
Magnetism and Matter : NCERT Example & Excercise
Based MCQs Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 4.
NCERT Examples A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with an
Question 1. external field of 800 G experiences a torque of 0.016 N-
Which of the following statement is incorrect? m. What is the work done in moving it from its most
stable to the most unstable position?
(1) If a bar magnet is cut into two pieces transverse to its
length and along its length, in either case, one gets two 1. 0.036 J
magnets, each with a north and south pole. 2. 0.016 J
(2) A magnetized needle in a uniform magnetic field 3. 0.064 J
experiences a torque but no net force. An iron nail near a
bar magnet, however, experiences a force of attraction in 4. 0
addition to torque.

(3) Every magnetic configuration must have a north pole
and a south pole. Question 5.

(4) In a bar magnet, the intensity of the magnetic field is A solenoid of cross-sectional area 2 × 10 m and 1000
−4 2
the strongest at the two ends (poles) and weakest at the turns placed with its axis at 30° with an external field of
central region. 800 G experiences a torque of 0.016 Nm. The magnetic
moment of the solenoid is 0. 40 A m . The current
2
flowing through the solenoid is:
Question 2. 1. 2 A
In the figure, the magnetic needle has a magnetic 2. 4 A
moment of 6.7 × 10–2 Am2 and a moment of inertia I = 3. 1 A
7.5 × 10–6 kg m2. It performs 10 complete oscillations in
6.70 s in a magnetic field. What is the magnitude of the 4. 5 A
magnetic field?
Question 6.
The ratio of the magnitudes of the equatorial and axial
fields due to a bar magnet of length 5.0 cm at a distance
of 50 cm from its mid-point is: (Given, the magnetic
moment of the bar magnet is 0.40 A m ) 2
1
1.
1. 0.02 T
2
2. 2
2. 0.01 T 3. 1
3
3. 003 T 4.
2
4. 0.001 T
Question 3.
A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with an
external field of 800 G experiences a torque of 0.016
Nm. What is the magnetic moment of the magnet?
2
1. 0. 80 A m
2
2. 0. 40 A m
2
3. 0. 29 A m
2
4. 0. 60 A m
Page: 1

The figure shows a small magnetized needle P placed at a Which of the following is the correct representation of
point O. The arrow shows the direction of its magnetic magnetic field lines?
moment. The other arrows show different positions (and
orientations of the magnetic moment) of another identical
magnetized needle Q. Then:
(1) In P Q and P Q configuration, the system is not in

1 2
equilibrium.
(2) In P Q 3 and P Q6 configuration, the system is
unstable.
(3) In P Q 5 and P Q4 configuration, the system is stable.
(4) P Q configuration corresponds to the lowest
5
potential energy among all the configurations shown.

1. (g), (c)
2. (d), (f)
3. (a), (b)
4. (c), (e)

Page: 2

Which one of the following is correct? A solenoid has a core of material with relative
permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are
1. The magnetic field lines also represent the lines of insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the
force on a moving charged particle at every point. number of turns is 1000 per metre, the magnetising field
2. Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined within B is:
the core of a toroid, but not within a straight solenoid. 1. 10 T
3. A bar magnet exerts a torque on itself due to its own 2. 1 T
field.
3. 0.1 T
4. Magnetic field arises due to stationary charges.
4. 2 T
Question 10.
Question 14.
The earth’s magnetic field at the equator is approximately
0.4 G. The earth’s dipole moment is: A solenoid has a core of material with relative
23 2
permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are
1. 1. 05 × 10 A m
insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the
22 2
2. 8. 0 × 10 A m number of turns is 1000 per metre, the magnetization, M
3. 4. 5 × 10
23
A m
2
is:
23 2
4. 2. 10 × 10 A m 5
1. 8 × 10 A/m
5
2. 6 × 10 A/m
5
Question 11. 3. 6. 5 × 10 A/m
In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the 4 8. 9 × 10 A/m
horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is
0.26G and the dip angle is 60°. The magnetic field of the
earth at this location is: Question 15.

1. 0.25 G A solenoid has a core of material with relative
2. 0.20 G permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are
3. 0.35 G number of turns is 1000 per metre, the magnetizing
current I is :
4. 0.52 G m
1. 746 A
2. 700 A
Question 12.
3. 729 A
A solenoid has a core of material with relative
permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are 4. 794 A
number of turns is 1000 per metre, the magnetic field
intensity H is:
2
1. 2 × 10 A/m
3
2. 2 × 10 A/m
3. 2 A/m
4. 20 A/m
Page: 3
A domain in ferromagnetic iron is in the form of a cube A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J/T lies aligned
of side length 1µm. The maximum possible dipole with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.22
moment is: T. What is the amount of work required by an external
torque to turn the magnet so as to align its magnetic
[The molecular mass of iron is 55 g/mole and its density moment normal to the field direction.
is 7.9 g/cm3. Assume that each iron atom has a dipole
(1) 0.66 J
moment of 9.27×10–24 A m ] 2
−13 2
(2) 0.33 J
1. 8. 0 × 10 A m
2. 8. 0 × 10
−12
A m
2 (3) 0
−13
3. 7. 0 × 10 A m
2
(4) 0.44 J
−12 2
4. 7. 0 × 10 A m

Question 17.
Question 20.
A domain in ferromagnetic iron is in the form of a cube
of side length 1µm. The magnetisation of the domain is: A circular coil of 16 turns and a radius of 10 cm carrying
a current of 0.75 A rests with its plane normal to an
[The molecular mass of iron is 55 g/mole and its density external field of magnitude 5. 0 × 10 T . The coil is
−2
is 7.9 g/cm3. Assume that each iron atom has a dipole free to turn about an axis in its plane perpendicular to the
moment of 9.27×10–24 A m ] 2 field direction. When the coil is turned slightly and
released, it oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a
5
1. 9. 0 × 10 Am
−1
frequency of 2.0s .The moment of inertia of the coil
−1
5
2. 8. 0 × 10 Am
−1 about its axis of rotation is:
5 −1 −4
3. 11 × 10 Am (1) 1. 39 × 10 kg m
2
5 −1
4. 3. 0 × 10 Am −4 2
(2) 2. 19 × 10 kg m
(3) 2. 39 × 10
−4
kg m
2
−4 2
NCERT Exercises
(4) 1. 19 × 10 kg m
Question 18.
A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a Question 21.
uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences a A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane
torque of magnitude equal to 4. 5 × 10 J . What is the parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip
−2
magnitude of the magnetic moment of the magnet? pointing down at 22° with the horizontal. The horizontal
(1) 0.36 J/T component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is
known to be 0.35 G. The magnitude of the earth’s
(2) 0.21 J/T magnetic field at the place is:
(3) 0.01 J/T (1) 0.377 G
(4) 0.12 J/T (2) 0.278 G
(3) 0.027 G
(4) 0.101 G

Page: 4
A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross- A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of
section 2. 5 × 10 m carries a current of 3.0 A, is free . The direction and magnitude of the
−4 2 −1
0. 48 J T
to turn about the vertical direction and a uniform magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of
horizontal magnetic field of 0.25 T is applied, what is the 10 cm from the centre of the magnet on the equatorial
magnitude of the torque on the solenoid when its axis lines (normal bisector) of the magnet is:
makes an angle of 30 with the direction of applied field?
(1) 0.38 G along the N-S direction.

−2
(2) 0.48 G along the N-S direction.
(1) 7. 5 × 10 J
−3 (3) 0.38 G along the S-N direction.

(2) 6. 7 × 10 J
(3) 7. 5 × 10
−3
J
(4) 0.48 G along the S-N direction.
(4) 6. 7 × 10
−2
J
Question 26.
Question 23. At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12° west

of the geographic north. The north tip of the magnetic
A short bar magnet of magnetic moment needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of magnetic
5. 25 × 10
−2
J T is placed with its axis perpendicular
−1
meridian points 60° above the horizontal. The horizontal
to the earth’s field direction. At what distance from the component of the earth’s field is measured to be 0.16 G.
centre of the magnet, the resultant field is inclined at 45º The magnitude of the earth’s field at the location is:
with the earth’s field on its normal bisector.
1. 0.16 G
(Magnitude of the earth’s field at the place is given to be
0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet in comparison to 2. 0.48 G
the distances involved.) 3. 0.32 G
(1) 5.6 cm 4. 0.30 G
(2) 6.3 cm
(3) 5.0 cm
Question 27.
(4) 6.5 cm
A Rowland ring of mean radius 15 cm has 3500 turns of
wire wound on a ferromagnetic core of relative
permeability 800. What is the magnetic field B in the

Question 24. core for a magnetizing current of 1.2 A?
A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its (1) 3.27 T
axis aligned along the magnetic north-south direction.
Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm (2) 2.56 T
from the centre of the magnet. The earth’s magnetic field (3) 1.05 T
at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of dip is zero. What is
the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the (4) 4.48 T
magnet at the same distance as the null–point (i.e., 14

cm) from the centre of the magnet?

(1) 0.54 G in the direction of the earth's magnetic field.

(2) 0.44 G in the opposite direction of the earth's
magnetic field.
(3) 0.54 G in the opposite direction of the earth's
magnetic field.
(4) 0.44 G in the direction of the earth's magnetic field.
Page: 5
A sample of paramagnetic salt contains 2. 0 × 10 24

A long straight horizontal cable carries a current of 2.5 A
atomic dipoles each of dipole moment in the direction 10 south of west to 10 north of east.
0 0
1. 5 × 10
−23
J T
−1
. The sample is placed under a The magnetic meridian of the place happens to be 10°
homogeneous magnetic field of 0.64 T and cooled to a west of the geographic meridian. The earth’s magnetic
temperature of 4.2 K. The degree of magnetic saturation field at the location is 0.33 G, and the angle of dip is
achieved is equal to 15%. What is the total dipole zero. The neutral points lie on (ignore the thickness of the
moment of the sample for a magnetic field of 0.98 T and cable)?
a temperature of 2.8 K?

(1) 9.219 J/T
(2) 11.105 J/T
(3) 10.336 J/T
(4) 8.287 J/T
Question 29.
A compass needle free to turn in a horizontal plane is
placed at the centre of a circular coil of 30 turns and a
radius of 12 cm. The coil is in a vertical plane making an (1) a line parallel to the cable at a perpendicular distance
angle of 45° with the magnetic meridian. When the of 1.5 cm above the plane of the paper.
current in the coil is 0.35 A, the needle points west to
(2) a line parallel to the cable at a perpendicular distance
east. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic
of 1.8 cm above the plane of the paper.
field at the location is:
(3) a line parallel to the cable at a perpendicular distance
(1) 0.299 G
of 0.7cm above the plane of the paper.
(2) 0.497 G
(4) none of these.
(3) 0.388 G

(4) 0.535 G

Fill OMR Sheet*


CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
course

Page: 6
Electromagnetic Induction : NCERT Example &
Question 3.
NCERT Examples Consider the figure. What would you do to obtain a large
Question 1. deflection of the galvanometer?
A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.5 Ω is
placed vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform
magnetic field of 0.10 T is set up across the plane in the
north-east direction. The magnetic field is decreased to
zero in 0.70 s at a steady rate. The magnitude of induced
current during this time interval is:
1. 2 mA
2. 1 mA
3. 0.5 mA
4. 3 mA
1. Use a rod made of soft iron inside the coil C 2
Question 2.
2. Connect the coil to a powerful battery
A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns, and resistance
2 Ω is placed with its plane perpendicular to the 3. Move the arrangement rapidly towards the test coil C . 1
horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field. It is 4. All of the above

rotated about its vertical diameter through 180° in 0.25 s.
The magnitude of the current induced in the coil is:
(The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field Question 4.

at the place is 3.0 × 10–5 T)
The figure shows planar loops of different shapes moving
out of or into a region of a magnetic field which is
directed normally to the plane of the loop away from the
1. 3 mA
reader. The direction of the induced current in each loop
2. 2.5 mA is:
3. 5.2 mA
4. 1.9 mA
1. For the rectangular loop abcd, the induced current is

anti-clockwise.
2. For the triangular loop abc, the induced current is
clockwise.
3. For the irregularly shaped loop abcd, the induced
current is anti-clockwise.
4. None of these
Page: 1
Mark the correct statement: The polarity of the capacitor in the given figure is:
(1) A closed-loop is held stationary in the magnetic field
between the north and south poles of two permanent
magnets held fixed. We can generate current in the loop
by using very strong magnets.
(2) A closed-loop moves normally to the constant electric
field between the plates of a large capacitor. When it is
wholly inside the region between the capacitor plates, a 1. The polarity of plate ‘B’ will be positive with respect
current is induced in the loop.
to plate ‘A’.
(i)
2. The polarity of plate ‘A’ will be positive with respect
(3) A closed-loop moves normally to the constant electric to plate ‘B’.
field between the plates of a large capacitor. When it is
partially outside the plates of the capacitor, a current is 3. The polarity of plate ‘A’ will be the same as that of
induced in the loop. plate ‘B’.
(4) None of these. 4. None of these
Question 8.
Question 6. A metallic rod of 1 m length is rotated with a frequency

of 50 rev/s, with one end hinged at the centre and the
A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring
a uniform magnetic field region (as shown in the figure) of radius 1 m, about an axis passing through the centre
to a field-free region with a constant velocity v. In which and perpendicular to the plane of the ring (as shown in
loop do you expect the induced emf to be the figure). A constant and uniform magnetic field of 1 T
constant during the passage out of the field region? The parallel to the axis is present everywhere. What is the
field is normal to the loops. emf between the centre and the metallic ring?
1. Only in the case of the rectangular loop

2. Only in the case of the circular loop
3. In both cases
4. None of these

1. 150 V
2. 130 V
3. 157 V
4. 133V

Page: 2
A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long is Refer to the figure. The arm PQ of the rectangular
rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane normal to conductor is moved from x = 0, outwards. The uniform
the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field HE at magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane and extends
a place. If HE = 0.4 G at the place, what is the induced from x = 0 to x = b and is zero for x > b. Only the arm
PQ possesses substantial resistance r. Consider the
emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel?
−4
situation when the arm PQ is pulled outwards from x = 0
(1 G = 10 T )
to x = 2b with constant speed v. The force necessary to
1. 5. 12 × 10
−5
V
pull the arm is:
2. 0
−5
3. 3. 33 × 10 V
−5
4. 6. 28 × 10 V
Question 10.
Refer to figure. The arm PQ of the rectangular conductor
is moved from x = 0, outwards. The uniform magnetic
field is perpendicular to the plane and extends from x = 0 2 2
to x = b and is zero for x > b. Only the arm PQ possesses 1.

B l v
r
for 0 ≤ x < b, 0 for b ≤ x < 2b
substantial resistance r. Consider the situation when the 2 2

B l v
arm PQ is pulled outwards from x = 0 to x = 2b with a 2.

2r
for 0 ≤ x < b, 0 for b ≤ x < 2b
constant speed v. The induced emf is: 3. 0 for 0 ≤ x < b,

2 2
B l v
for b ≤ x < 2b
r
2 2
B l v
4. 0 for 0 ≤ x < b, for b ≤ x < 2b
2r
1. − Blv for 0 ≤ x < b, 0 for b ≤ x < 2b
2. + Blv for 0 ≤ x < b, 0 for b ≤ x < 2b
3. − Blv for b ≤ x < 2b, 0 for 0 ≤ x < b
4. + Blv for b ≤ x < 2b, 0 for 0 ≤ x < b
Page: 3
Refer to figure. The arm PQ of the rectangular conductor The expression for the magnetic energy stored in a
is moved from x = 0, outwards. The uniform magnetic solenoid in terms of magnetic field B, area A and
field is perpendicular to the plane and extends from x = 0 length l of the solenoid is:
to x = b and is zero for x > b. Only the arm PQ possesses 1 2
substantial resistance r. Consider the situation when the 1.

μ0
B Al
arm PQ is pulled outwards from x = 0 to x = 2b and is 2.

1
B
2
Al
then moved back to x = 0 with constant speed v. The 2μ0
power dissipated as Joule heat is: 3.

2
B
2
Al
μ0
3 2
4. B Al
2μ0
Question 15.
The ratio of magnetic energy per unit volume
and electrostatic energy stored per unit volume in a
parallel plate capacitor is:
2
1 B
1. ( )
ε0 μ0 E
2 2
B l v
2
1. for 0 ≤ x < b, 0 for b ≤ x < 2b 1 E
2r
2. ( )
ε0 μ0 B
2 2 2
B l v
2. for 0 ≤ x < b, 0 for b ≤ x < 2b 2
r
1 B
2 2 2 3. ( )
B l v 2ε0 μ0 E
3. 0 for b ≤ x < 2b, for 0 ≤ x < b
r
2
2 2 2 1 E
B l v
4. 0 for b ≤ x < 2b, for 0 ≤ x < b 4. ( )
2ε0 μ0 B
2r

Two concentric circular coils, one of small radius r1 and Kamla peddles a stationary bicycle. The pedals of the
the other of large radius r2, such that r1 << r2, are placed bicycle are attached to a 100 turn coil of an area of 0.10
co-axially with centres coinciding. The mutual m2. The coil rotates at half a revolution per second and it
inductance of the arrangement is: is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.01 T
2
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the coil. What is
1.
μ0 πr1
the maximum voltage generated in the coil?
3r2
2μ0 πr1
2
1. 0.628 V
2.
r2
μ0 πr1
2 2. 0.421 V
3.
r2
2
3. 0.314 V
μ0 πr1
4.
2r2
4. 0
Page: 4
Question 20.
NCERT Exercises A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east

Question 17.
to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 ms-1, at right angle
A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field,
area 2.0 cm2 placed inside the solenoid normal to its axis. . The instantaneous value of the
−4 −2
0. 30 × 10 W b m
If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily emf induced in the wire is:
from 2.0 A to 4.0 A in 0.1 s, what is the induced emf in −3
1. 2. 5 × 10 V
the loop while the current is changing?
−4
2. 1. 5 × 10 V
−6
(1) 7. 5 × 10 V
−4
3. 2. 5 × 10 V
−6
(2) 6. 5 × 10 V
−3
4. 1. 5 × 10 V
−5
(3) 7. 5 × 10 V
−5

(4) 6. 5 × 10 V
Question 21.
Question 18.
Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If
A 1 m long metallic rod is rotating with an angular an average emf of 200 V is induced, the self-inductance
frequency of 400 rad/s about an axis normal to the rod of the circuit is:
passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in
contact with a circular metallic ring. A constant and 1. 4 H
uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to the axis exists
2. 2 H
everywhere. The emf induced between the center and the
ring is: 3. 1 H
1. 200 V 4. 3 H
2. 100 V
3. 50 V
Question 22.
4. 150 V
A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a
small cut is moving out of a region of the uniform
magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the

Question 19. loop. What is the emf developed across the cut if the
velocity of the loop is 1 cm/s in a direction normal to the
A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated longer side?
about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 50
rad/s in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of (1) 2. 4 × 10
−4
V
magnitude 3 × 10 T . The maximum emf induced in

−2
(2) 2. 0 × 10
−3
V
the coil is: −4
(3) 1. 3 × 10 V
(1) 0.603 V −3
(4) 1. 7 × 10 V
(2) 0.01 V

(3) 0
(4) 1 V

Page: 5
A jet plane is traveling towards the west at a speed of A line charge λ per unit length is lodged uniformly onto
1800 km/h. What is the voltage difference developed the rim of a wheel of mass M and radius R. The wheel
between the ends of the wing having a span of 25 m, if has light non-conducting spokes and is free to rotate
the Earth’s magnetic field at the location has a magnitude without friction about its axis (as shown in the figure). A
of 5 × 10–4 T and the dip angle is 30°. uniform magnetic field extends over a circular region
within the rim. It is given by,
(1) 2. 712 V
→
ˆ
(2) 3. 125 V B = B0 k (r ≤ a; a < R)
(3) 1. 112 V = 0 (otherwise)
(4) 3. 011 V
What is the angular velocity of the wheel after the field is
suddenly switched off?

Question 24.
A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H.
If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s,
what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?
1. 35 Wb
2. 25 Wb
3. 30 Wb
4. 20 Wb
2
2πB0 a λ
ˆ
(1) −
MR
k
2
πB0 a λ
ˆ
Question 25. (2) −
MR
k
2
2B0 a λ
If a loop changes from an irregular shape to a circular (3) −
MR
ˆ
k
shape, then magnetic flux linked with it: 2

2B0 a λ
ˆ
(4) − k
1. Decreases πM R

2. Remains constant

3. First decreases and then increases
4. Increases
Page: 6
A straight wire carries a current of 50 A and the loop is Figure shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails
moved to the right with a constant velocity, v= 10 AB and positioned between the poles of a permanent
m/s. the induced emf in the loop at the instant when x = magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in
0.2 m, is:
three mutually perpendicular directions. A galvanometer
(Take a = 0.1 m and assume that the loop has a large G connects the rails through a switch K. Length of the
resistance.)
rod = 15 cm, B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed-loop

containing the rod = 9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be
uniform.
What is the magnitude and direction of the induced emf

if we will keep the K open and the rod will be moved
with the speed of 12 cm/s in the direction shown in the
−5
(1) 3. 4 × 10 V figure?
−5
(2) 1. 7 × 10 V
(1) 9.0 mV, Q to P.
−4
(3) 1. 7 × 10 V
(2) 0.9 mV, P to Q.
−4
(4) 3. 4 × 10 V
(3) 0.9 mV, Q to P.
(4) 9.0 mV, P to Q.
Question 28.
An air-cored solenoid having a length of 30 cm whose

area is 25 cm , and the number of turns is 500 carries a
2
current of 2.5 A. Suddenly the current is turned off and

the time taken for it is 10 s. What would be the
−3
average value of the induced back-emf across the ends of

the open switch in the circuit? (Neglect the variation in
the magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.)
1. 5.5 V
2. 4.5 V
3. 6.5 V
4. 4.0 V
Page: 7
Question 30.
Figure shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails Fill OMR Sheet*
AB and positioned between the poles of a permanent
magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
three mutually perpendicular directions. A galvanometer where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
G connects the rails through a switch K. Length of the
rod = 15 cm, B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed-loop
containing the rod = 9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be
uniform.
CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
What is the emf induced in the moving rod if the
course
direction of the magnetic field is changed from
perpendicular to parallel to the rails?
(1) 0
(2) 9 mV
(3) 0.9 mV
(4) None of these
Question 31.
It is desired to measure the magnitude of the field
between the poles of a powerful loudspeaker magnet. A
small flat search coil of area 2 cm with 25 closely
2
wound turns, is positioned normal to the field direction,

and then quickly snatched out of the field region.
Equivalently, one can give it a quick 90° turn to bring its
plane parallel to the field direction). The total charge
flown in the coil (measured by a ballistic galvanometer
connected to the coil) is 7.5 mC. The combined
resistance of the coil and the galvanometer is 0.50 Ω. The
field strength of the magnet is:
(1) 0.55 T
(2) 0.75 T
(3) 0.67 T
(4) 0.49 T
Page: 8
Alternating Current : NCERT Example & Excercise
Question 5.
NCERT Examples A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. Predict

Question 1. your observations for dc and ac connections.
A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V supply, the 1. When a dc source is connected to a capacitor, the lamp
resistance of the bulb is: will not glow in a steady-state condition.
1. 423 Ω
2. When an ac source is connected to a capacitor, the
2. 440 Ω
lamp will glow.
3. 444 Ω
4. 484 Ω
3. Both (1) and (2) are correct.
4. None of these.
Question 2.

A light bulb is rated at 100W for a 220 V AC supply. The Question 6.

peak voltage of the source is:
A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. AC and
1. 220 V DC sources are connected to the circuit one by one, then
mark the correct statement/s.
2. 110 V
1. When the DC source is connected to the capacitor, the
3. 311 V lamp will not glow in a steady-state condition.
4. 100 V 2. When the AC source is connected to the capacitor and
the capacitance of the capacitor is reduced, the lamp will
glow less brightly.

Question 3. 3. When the DC source is connected to the capacitor and
A light bulb is rated at 100W for a 220 V AC supply. The the capacitance of the capacitor is reduced, the lamp will
RMS current through the bulb is: glow less brightly.
1. 0.243 A 4. Both (1) and (2).
2. 0.454 A
3. 0.242 A Question 7.
4. 0.312 A A 15.0 µF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz
source. If the frequency is doubled, what happens to the
capacitive reactance and the current?
Question 4. 1. The capacitive reactance is halved and the current is

doubled.
A pure inductor of 25.0 mH is connected to an AC source
of 220 V. The RMS current in the circuit is: 2. The capacitive reactance is doubled and the current is
halved.
(The frequency of the source is 50 Hz).
3. The capacitive reactance remains the same and the
1. 20 A
current is doubled.
2. 25 A
4. The current remains the same and the capacitive
3. 28 A reactance is halved.
4. 32 A
Page: 1
A light bulb and an open coil inductor are connected to A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and frequency
an ac source through a key as shown in the figure. 50 Hz is applied to a series LCR circuit in which R = 3Ω
, L = 25.48 mH, and C = 796 µF. The impedance of the
circuit is:
1. 5 Ω
2. 8 Ω
3. 4 Ω
4. 2 Ω

Question 12.
The switch is closed and after some time, an iron rod is
inserted into the interior of the inductor. The glow of the A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and frequency
light bulb: 50 Hz is applied to a series LCR circuit in which R = 3Ω
, L = 25.48 mH, and C = 796 µF. The approximate phase
1. increases difference between the voltage across the source and the
2. decreases current is:
3. is unchanged, as the iron rod is inserted

0
1. − 75
0
2. − 53
4. first increases and then decreases
0
3. 75
0
4. 53
Question 9.
A resistor of 200 Ω and a capacitor of 15.0 µF are Question 13.

connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source. The
voltage (RMS) across the resistor and the capacitor are A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and frequency
respectively: 50 Hz is applied to a series LCR circuit in which R = 3Ω
, L = 25.48 mH, and C = 796 µF. The power dissipated in
1. 160.3 V, 160.3 V the circuit is:
2. 151 V, 151 V 1. 6000 W
3. 160.3 V, 151 V 2. 5200 W
4. 151 V, 160.3 V 3. 4800 W
4. 4500 W
Question 10.
Which one of the following is incorrect? Question 14.

1. For circuits used for transporting electric power, a low A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and frequency
power factor implies large power loss in transmission. 50 Hz is applied to a series LCR circuit in which R = 3Ω
2. Power factor can often be improved by the use of a , L = 25.48 mH, and C = 796 µF. The power factor is:
capacitor of appropriate capacitance in the circuit. 1. 0.4
3. For circuits used for transporting electric power, a low 2. 0.5
power factor implies large power loss in transmission.
3. 0.3
4. Both (1) and (2)
4. 0.6

Page: 2
A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V (suppose the At an airport, a person is made to walk through the
frequency of the source can be varied) is applied to a doorway of a metal detector, for security reasons. If
series LCR circuit in which R = 3Ω, L = 25.48 mH, and she/he is carrying anything made of metal, the metal
C = 796 µF. The frequency of the source at which detector emits a sound. On what principle does this
resonance occurs is: detector work?
1. 35.4 Hz 1. Resonance in ac circuits
2. 50 Hz 2. Logic gate
3. 60 Hz 3. X-rays
4. 39.7 Hz 4. None of these

A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V (suppose the In the free oscillations of an LC circuit, the sum of
frequency of the source can be varied) is applied to a energies stored in the capacitor and the inductor is:
series LCR circuit in which R = 3Ω, L = 25.48 mH, and
C = 796 µF. The current in the circuit at the resonance is: 1. Maybe constant and variable in time
1. 60 A 2. Variable in time
2. 66.7 A 3. Constant in time
3. 65 A 4. None of the above
4. 63.3 A
NCERT Exercises
Question 20.
Question 17. A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac
A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V (suppose the supply. The net power consumed over a full cycle is:
frequency of the source can be varied) is applied to a 1. 484 W
series LCR circuit in which R = 3Ω, L = 25.48 mH, and
C = 796 µF. The power dissipated at the resonant 2. 848 W
condition is: 3. 400 W
1. 10.55 kW 4. 786 W
2. 11.17 kW
3. 12.25 kW
4. 13.35 kW
Question 21.
The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 10 A. The

peak current in the circuit is:
(1) 1.41 A
(2) 14.1 A
(3) 7.07 A
(4) 0.707 A

Page: 3
A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable
supply. The RMS value of the current in the circuit is: frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80 μF, R = 40Ω
1. 1.0 A
2. 15 A
3. 15.92 A
4. 14.29 A

The amplitude of current at the resonating frequency is:

Question 23.
(1) 8.13 A
What is the Q-value of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0
H, C = 32 µF and R = 10 Ω? (2) 3.82 A
1. 35 (3) 4.44 A
2. 20 (4) 1.41 A
3. 15
4. 25 Question 26.
Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable
frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80uF, R = 40 Ω

Question 24.
A charged 30 µF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH
inductor. What is the angular frequency of free
oscillations of the circuit?
3
(1) 1. 11 × 10 rad/s
3
(2) 2. 11 × 10 rad/s
2
(3) 1. 11 × 10 rad/s
2
(4) 1. 11 × 10 rad/s The RMS potential drops across the resistor is:
(1) 200 V
(2) 220 V
(3) 230 V
(4) 0

Question 27.
A radio can tune over the frequency range of a portion of
the MW broadcast band: (800 kHz to 1200 kHz). If its
LC circuit has an effective inductance of 200 µH, what
must be the range of its variable capacitor?
(1) 87. 8 pF − 197. 7 pF
(2) 88. 3 pF − 198. 8 pF
(3) 89. 3 pF − 199. 1 pF
(4) 89. 1 pF − 196. 9 pF
Page: 4
A series LCR circuit with R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H and C = A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is
35 µF is connected to a variable-frequency 200 V ac connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz ac supply. What is the time
supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the lag between the voltage maximum and the current
natural frequency of the circuit, what is the average maximum?
power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle? −3
(1) 4. 11 × 10 s
(1) 2200 W −3
(2) 2. 10 × 10 s
(2) 2000 W −3
(3) 3. 19 × 10 s
(3) 2020 W −3
(4) 2. 23 × 10 s
(4) 2120 W

Question 29.
Question 33.
A 60 µF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz ac
supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is: A 100 µF capacitor in series with a 40 Ω resistance is
connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz supply. What is the
(1) 2. 49 A
maximum current in the circuit?
(2) 2. 12 A
(1) 2.19 A
(3) 1. 97 A
(2) 2.29 A
(4) 1. 24 A
(3) 3.14 A
(4) 3.24 A
Question 30.
An LC circuit contains a 20 mH inductor and a 50 µF
capacitor with an initial charge of 10 mC. The resistance
of the circuit is negligible. Let the instant the circuit is Question 34.
closed be t = 0. What is the total energy stored initially?
A circuit containing an 80 mH inductor and a 60 µF
(1) 1.0 J capacitor in series is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply.
(2) 2.0 J The resistance of the circuit is negligible. the current
amplitude is:
(3) 2.2 J
(1) 11.63 A
(4) 3.3 J
(2) 8.22 A
(3) 10.0 A
Question 31. (4) 9.21 A
A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is
connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz ac supply. What is the
maximum current in the coil?

(1) 1.29 A
(2) 1.82 A
(3) 2.29 A
(4) 2.82 A
Page: 5
A circuit containing an 80 mH inductor and a 60 µF A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric
capacitor in series is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. power at 220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric
The resistance of the circuit is negligible. What is the plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the
average power transferred to the inductor? two wirelines carrying power is 0.5 Ω per km. The town
gets power from the line through a 4000-220 V step-
(1) 18 J/s down transformer at a sub-station in the town. The line
(2) 0 power loss in the form of heat is:
(3) 12 J/s (1) 100 kW
(2) 500 kW
(4) 19 J/s
(3) 400 kW

(4) 600 kW

Question 36.
A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R =
23 Ω is connected to a 230 V variable frequency Question 39.

supply. What is the source frequency for which current A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric
amplitude is maximum? power at 220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric
(1) 444.4 Hz plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the
two wirelines carrying power is 0.5 Ω per km. The town
(2) 663.48 Hz gets power from the line through a 4000-220 V step-
(3) 545.0 Hz down transformer at a sub-station in the town. The
transformer rating is:
(4) 343.41 Hz
(1) 440 − 7000 V
(2) 4000 − 20 V
Question 37. (3) 500 − 6500 V
(4) 220 − 1100 V
A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R =
23 Ω is connected to a 230 V variable frequency
supply. What is the Q-factor of the given circuit?

(1) 11.11

(2) 13.31
(3) 21.74 Question 40.
(4) 22.21 At a hydroelectric power plant, the water pressure head is

at a height of 300 m and the water flow available is
3
100 m s
−1
. If the turbine generator efficiency is 60%,
the electric power available from the plant is:

−2
(g = 9. 8 m s ).
(1) 111.3 MW
(2) 210 MW
(3) 176.4 MW
(4) 213.5 MW

Page: 6
Question 41.
A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V

to a step-down transformer with its primary windings
having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in
the secondary in order to get output power at 230 V?
(1) 200
(2) 250
(3) 350
(4) 400
Question 42.
What is the Q-factor of a series LCR circuit with L = 3.0
H, C = 27µF, and R = 7.4 Ω?
(1) 45
(2) 55
(3) 37
(4) 49
Fill OMR Sheet*

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
course
Page: 7
Electromagnetic Waves : NCERT Example & Excercise
Question 4.
NCERT Examples The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is

Question 1. given by
A parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of radius 1 t).
−7 3 11
B =(2 × 10 )T sin(0. 5 × 10 x + 1. 5 × 10
m has a capacitance of 1 nF. At t = 0, it is connected for The expression for the electric field is:
charging in series with a resistor R = 1 MΩ across a 2V 3 11
battery (as shown in the figure). Find the magnetic field 1. Ez = 60 sin(0. 5 × 10 x + 1. 5 × 10 t) V/m
at a point P, halfway between the centre and the periphery 3

2. Ez = 60 sin(1. 5 × 10 x + 0. 5 × 10
11
t) V/m
of the plates, after t = 10–3 s. (The charge on the 3 11

3. Ez = 55 sin(0. 5 × 10 x + 1. 5 × 10 t) V/m
capacitor at time t is q (t) = CV[1 – exp (–t/τ )], where the
time constant τ is equal to CR.) 3
4. Ez = 55 sin(1. 5 × 10 x + 0. 5 × 10
11
t) V/m
Question 5.
Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2 falls on a non-

reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface has
an area of 20 cm2, what is the average force exerted on
the surface during a 30 minute time span?
−13
1. 0. 74 × 10 T
−6
−13
1. 2. 1 × 10 N
2. 0. 67 × 10 T
−6
2. 1. 8 × 10 N
−12
3. 0. 74 × 10 T
−6
−12
3. 1. 2 × 10 N
4. 0. 67 × 10 T
−5
4. 2. 1 × 10 N

Question 2.
A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz
travels in free space along the x-direction. At a particular Question 6.

→
point in space and time, E = 6. 3 Jˆ V /m. What is B at Assume a bulb of efficiency 2.5% as a point source. The
this point? peak values of the electric field and magnetic field
produced by the radiation coming from a 100W bulb at a
1. 2. 1 × 10
−8
ˆ
k T distance of 3m are respectively:
−8 ˆ −8
2. 1. 2 × 10 k T 1. 2. 5 V/m, 2. 2 × 10 T
−8
ˆ
3. 2. 1 × 10 J T 2. 3. 6 V/m, 3. 6 T
−8
ˆ
4. 1. 2 × 10 J T −8
3. 4. 07 V/m, 1. 4 × 10 T
4. 4. 2 V/m, 3. 4 × 10

−6
T
Question 3.
The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is
given by

t). The
−7 3 11
B =(2 × 10 )T sin(0. 5 × 10 x + 1. 5 × 10
wavelength and frequency of the wave are respectively:

1. 2. 16 cm, 24. 1 GHz
2. 0. 29 cm, 13. 7 GHz
3. 3. 23 cm, 20. 0 GHz

4. 1. 26 cm, 23. 9 GHz

Page: 1

Question 9.
NCERT Exercises A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a vacuum along

Question 7. the z-direction. Then the directions of its electric and
A capacitor is made of two circular plates each of radius magnetic field vectors will be in:
12 cm and separated by 5.0 cm. The capacitor is being 1. The x-y plane and they are parallel to each other.
charged by an external source. The charging current is
constant and equal to 0.15 A. The displacement current 2. The x-y plane and they are mutually perpendicular to
across the plates is: each other.
1. 0 3. The y-z plane and they are mutually perpendicular to
each other.
2. 0.14 A
4. The z-x plane and they are parallel to each other.
3. 0.16 A

4. 0.15 A
Question 10.
A radio can tune in to any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12

Question 8. MHz bands. What is the corresponding wavelength
A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates each of band?
radius R = 6.0 cm has a capacitance C = 100 pF. The (1) 40 to 25 m
capacitor is connected to a 230 V AC supply with an
→
(2) 10 to 100 m
(angular) frequency of 300 rad/s. The amplitude of B at
the point 3 cm from the axis between the plate is: (3) 50 to 60 m
(4) 20 to 10 m

Question 11.
A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium
position with a frequency of 10 H z. What is the
9
frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the

oscillator?
11
(1) 10 H z
(1) 1. 12 × 10 −11
T
7
(2) 10 H z
8
(2) 2. 01 × 10 −12
T (3) 10 H z
9
(4) 10 H z
(3) 1. 63 × 10 −11
T
(4) 1. 01 × 10 −12
T

Question 12.
Which physical quantity does not change in vacuum for
X-rays?
1. speed of light
2. wavelength
3. frequency
4. none of these

Page: 2
Question 13.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic Fill OMR Sheet*
electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B = 510 nT . What
0
is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave? *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
1. 200 N/C

2. 153 N/C
3. 150 N/C
4. 510 N/C
CLICK HERE to get
FREE ACCESS for 3

Question 14.
Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an
electromagnetic wave is E = 120 N /C and that its
0
frequency is ν = 50. 0 M H z. The value of k is:

course
(1) 2.01 rad/m
(2) 1.72 rad/m
(3) 1.05 rad/m

(4) 2.41 rad/m
Question 15.
In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field
oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2. 0 × 10 H z
10
and amplitude 48 V/m. What is the amplitude of the

oscillating magnetic field?
−8
(1) 4. 2 × 10 T
−7
(2) 2. 4 × 10 T
−8
(3) 3. 8 × 10 T
−7
(4) 1. 6 × 10 T
Question 16.
The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in
vacuum is-
→
8
E =( 3. 1 N /C)cos[(1. 8 rad/m)y +(5. 4 × 10 rad/s)t] î
What is the frequency of the wave?

7
1. 5. 7 × 10 H z
7
2. 9. 3 × 10 H z
7
3. 8. 6 × 10 H z
7
4. 7. 5 × 10 H z

Page: 3
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments : NCERT Example &
Question 3.
NCERT Examples An object is placed at 10 cm in front of a concave mirror

Question 1. with a radius of curvature of 15 cm. The magnification of
Suppose that the lower half of the concave mirror’s the image is:
reflecting surface in the given figure is covered with an 1. -3
opaque (non-reflective) material. What effect will this
have on the image of an object placed in front of the 2. 3
mirror?
3. 1
4. -1

Question 4.
An object is placed at 5 cm in front of a concave mirror
with a radius of curvature of 15 cm. The nature of the
image is:
1. The image will show only half of the object 1. Magnified, real, and inverted
2. The image will show the whole of the object 2. Magnified, virtual, and erect
3. The intensity of the image will be low 3. Magnified, real, and erect
4. Both (2) and (3) 4. None of these
A mobile phone lies along the principal axis of a concave Suppose while sitting in a parked car, you notice a jogger
mirror, as shown in the figure. Then, approaching towards you in the side view mirror of R = 2
m. If the jogger is running at a speed of 5 m/s, how fast
does the image of the jogger appear to move when the
jogger is 39 m away?
1. 5 m/s
1
2. m/s
60
1
3. m/s
280
4. 10 m/s
1. The magnification is not uniform due to the length of
the object along the principal axis.
2. The distortion of the image depends on the location of Question 6.

the phone with respect to the mirror. The earth takes 24 h to rotate once about its axis. How
3. Both (1) and (2) much time does the sun take to shift by 1° when viewed
from the earth?
4. None of these
1. 3 minutes
2. 2 minutes
3. 1 minutes
4. 4 minutes

Page: 1


Light from a point source in the air falls on a spherical A convex lens has a 20 cm focal length in air. What is the
glass surface (n = 1.5 and radius of curvature = 20 cm). focal length in water? (Refractive index of air-water =
The distance of the light source from the glass surface is 1.33, refractive index for air-glass = 1.5)
100 cm. At what position the image is formed?
1. +72.72 cm
1. at a distance of 200 cm from the glass surface, in the
direction of incident light. 2. +78.2 cm
2. at a distance of 100 cm from the glass surface, in the 3. -72.72 cm

direction of incident light. 4. +70.2 cm
3. at a distance of 200 cm from the glass surface, in the
opposite direction of incident light.
4. at a distance of 100 cm from the glass surface, in the Question 12.
opposite direction of incident light. Find the position of the image formed by the lens
combination in the given figure.
Question 8.
A magician during a show makes a glass lens with n =
1.47 disappear in a trough of liquid. What is the
refractive index of the liquid?
1. 1.47
2. 1.33
3. 0.66
4. 1.5 1. Final image is formed 30 cm to the right of the third
lens.
2. Final image is formed 20 cm to the left of the third

Question 9. lens.
If f = 0.5 m for a glass lens, what is the power of the 3. Final image is formed 30 cm to the left of the third
lens? lens.
1. +0.4D 4. Final image is formed 20 cm to the right of the third

lens.
2. +4.0D

3. +0.2D
4. +2.0D Question 13.
What focal length should the reading spectacles have for
a person for whom the least distance of distinct vision is

Question 10. 50 cm?
The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex 1. -50 cm

lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. Its focal length is 12 cm. What 2. +50 cm
is the refractive index of glass?
3. -60 cm
1. 1.3
4. +60 cm
2. 1.2

3. 1.5
4. 1.4
Page: 2
The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing
eye. What is the power of the lens required to enable him water to a depth of 80 cm. What is the area of the surface
to see very distant objects clearly? of water through which light from the bulb can emerge
out? The Refractive index of water is 1.33. (Consider the
1. -1.25 D bulb to be a point source.)
2. +1.25 D (1) 5.22 m 2
3. -2.12 D
(2) 1.33 m 2
4. +2.12 D
(3) 2.61 m 2
(4) 1.30 m 2
Question 15.
The near point of a hypermetropic person is 75 cm from

Question 19.
the eye. What is the power of the lens required to enable
the person to read clearly a book held at 25 cm from the A prism is made of glass of unknown refractive index. A
eye? parallel beam of light is incident on the face of the prism.
The angle of minimum deviation is measured to be 40°.
1. +2.67 D
What is the refractive index of the material of the prism?
2. -1.25 D The refracting angle of the prism is 60°.
3. -2.67 D 1. 1.43
4. +1.25 D 2. 1.33
3. 1.50
4. 1.53
NCERT Exercises
Question 16.
Question 20.
A small candle, 2.5 cm in size is placed at 27 cm in front
of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 36 cm. At Double-convex lenses are to be manufactured from a
what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed glass of refractive index 1.55 with both faces of the same
in order to obtain a sharp image? radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature
required if the focal length is to be 20 cm?
(1) 54 cm away from the mirror.
(1) 20 cm
(2) 64 cm towards the mirror.
(2) 22 cm
(3) 40 cm away from the mirror.
(3) 24 cm
(4) 44 cm towards the mirror.
(4) 15 cm
Question 17.
A 4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex

mirror of focal length 15 cm. What is magnification?
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.56
(3) 0.45
(4) 0.15
Page: 3
Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is incident A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is
from the air on a water surface. What is the wavelength placed in the path of the convergent beam 12cm from P.
of reflected light? The refractive index of water is 1.33. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is a
convex lens of focal length 20cm?
(1) 500 nm
(1) 7.5 cm away from the lens on the left side.
(2) 545 nm
(2) 7.5 cm away from the lens on the right side.
(3) 485 nm
(3) 6.5 cm away from the lens on the left side.
(4) 589 nm
(4) 6.5 cm away from the lens on the right side.
Question 22.
Question 26.
The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the speed of
light in glass? An object of size 3.0 cm is placed 14 cm in front of a
8
concave lens of focal length 21 cm. the image produced
(1) 2 × 10 m/s
by the lens is:
8
(2) 3 × 10 m/s
(1) inverted and virtual.
8
(3) 1. 5 × 10 m/s
8
(2) erect and real.
(4) 2. 2 × 10 m/s
(3) erect and virtual.
(4) inverted and real.

Question 23.
Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a plane reflecting
surface. For what angle of incidence is the reflected ray Question 27.
normal to the incident ray? What is the focal length of a convex lens of focal length
1. 37
0 30 cm in contact with a concave lens of focal length 20
0
cm?
2. 45
3. 90
0
(1) -45 cm
0
4. 0
(2) -55 cm
(3) -50 cm
Question 24. (4) -60 cm

A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The
apparent depth of a needle lying at the bottom of the tank
is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. If water is Question 28.

replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 up to the
A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of
same height, by what distance would the microscope
focal length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.25
have to be moved to focus on the needle again?
cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far from the
(1) 1.73 cm objective should an object be placed in order to obtain
the final image at the least distance of distinct vision (25
(2) 1.98 cm cm)?
(3) 1.01 cm (1) 2.5 cm
(4) 1.11 cm (2) 0.5 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 5.0 cm
Page: 4
A person with a normal near point (25 cm) using a A small pin fixed on a tabletop is viewed from above
compound microscope with an objective of focal length from a distance of 50 cm. By what distance would the pin
8.0 mm and an eyepiece of focal length 2.5 cm can bring appear to be raised if it is viewed from the same point
an object placed at 9.0 mm from the objective in sharp through a 15 cm thick glass slab held parallel to the
focus. What is the separation between the two lenses? table? (The Refractive index of glass is 1.5)
(1) 7.20 cm (1) 5 cm
(2) 9.47 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) 2.50 cm (3) 3.5 cm
(4) 2.27 cm (4) 4.5 cm

A small telescope has an objective lens of a focal length A cross-section of a ‘light pipe’ made of a glass fiber of
144 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.0 cm. What is refractive index 1.68. The outer covering of the pipe is
the magnifying power of the telescope? made of a material of refractive index 1.44. What is the
range of the angles of the incident rays with the axis of
(1) 30 the pipe for which total reflections inside the pipe take
(2) 20 place, as shown in the figure?
(3) 24
(4) 32
Question 31.
A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an
objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eyepiece of 0 0
(1) 0 < i < 45
focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is the angular
magnification of the telescope? (2) 0
0
< i < 60
0
(1) 1175
0 0
(3) 45 < i < 75
0 0
(2) 1250 (4) 45 < i < 90
(3) 1300
(4) 1500 Question 34.
The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the wall of a
room is to be obtained on the opposite wall 3 m away by

means of a large convex lens. What is the maximum
possible focal length of the lens required for the purpose?
(1) 0.60 cm
(2) 0.01 m
(3) 0.75 m
(4) 0.65 m

Page: 5
A screen is placed 90 cm from an object. The image of A man with normal near point (25 cm) reads a book with
the object on the screen is formed by a convex lens at small print using a magnifying glass: a thin convex lens
two different locations separated by 20 cm. The focal of focal length 5 cm. What is the ratio of maximum and
length of the lens is: the minimum angular magnification (magnifying power)
possible using the above simple microscope?
(1) 18.81 cm
6
(1)
(2) 20.04 cm 5
5
(2)
(3) 13.01 cm 6
3
(3)
(4) 21.39 cm 2
2
(4)
Question 36.

At what angle should a ray of light be incident on the Question 39.

face of a prism of refracting angle 60° so that it just 2
suffers total internal reflection at the other face? The A card sheet divided into squares each of size 1 mm is
refractive index of the material of the prism is 1.524. being viewed at a distance of 9 cm through a magnifying
glass (a converging lens of focal length 10 cm) held close
0
(1) 29. 75 to the eye. What is the magnification produced by the
(2) 19
0 lens?
(3) 17. 23
0
(1) 11
(4) 19. 57
0
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 12

Question 37.

A man with normal near point (25 cm) reads a book with
small print using a magnifying glass: a thin convex lens Question 40.
of focal length 5 cm. What is the closest distance at
which he should keep the lens from the page so that he A card sheet divided into squares each of size 1 mm2 is
can read the book when viewing through the magnifying being viewed at a distance of 9 cm through a magnifying
glass? glass (a converging lens of focal length 10 cm) held close
(1) 3.5 cm to the eye. The angular magnification of the lens is:
(2) 4.2 cm (1) 3.34
(3) 4.9 cm (2) 1.55
(4) 5.0 cm (3) 3.03
(4) 2.78
Page: 6
The linear magnification and angular magnification in the Light incident normally on a plane mirror attached to a
microscope have similar magnitude when the image is at galvanometer coil retraces backward as shown in the
a distance: figure. A current in the coil produces a deflection of 3.5°
of the mirror. What is the displacement of the reflected
(1) 35 cm spot of light on a screen placed 1.5 m away?
(2) ∞
(3) 25 cm
(4) None of these
Question 42.
Figure shows a biconvex lens (of refractive index 1.50) (1) 15.0 cm
in contact with a liquid layer on top of a plane mirror. A
(2) 18.4 cm
small needle with its tip on the principal axis is
moved along the axis until its inverted image is found at (3) 21.2 cm
the position of the needle. The distance of the needle
from the lens is measured to be 45.0 cm. The liquid is (4) 12.5 cm
removed and the experiment is repeated. The new
distance is measured to be 30.0 cm. What is the refractive
index of the liquid? Question 44.

A Cassegrain telescope uses two mirrors as shown in the
figure. Such a telescope is built with the mirrors 20 mm
apart. If the radius of curvature of the large mirror is 220
mm and the small mirror is 140 mm, where will the final
image of an object at infinity be?

(1) 1.65
(2) 1.51
(3) 1.23
(1) 315 mm away from the secondary mirror.
(4) 1.33
(2) 315 mm towards the secondary mirror.
(3) 313 mm away from the secondary mirror.

(4) 313 mm towards the secondary mirror.

Page: 7
Question 45.
A small telescope has an objective lens of a focal length

140 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm. What is
the magnifying power of the telescope for viewing
distant objects when the telescope is in normal
adjustment (i.e., when the final image is at infinity)?
(1) 26
(2) 32
(3) 28
(4) 30
Question 46.
An angular magnification (magnifying power) of 30X is
desired using an objective of focal length 1.25 cm and an
eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. The separation between
the objective lens and the eyepiece should be:
(1) 11.67 cm
(2) 10.23 cm
(3) 12.21 cm
(4) 13.13 cm
Fill OMR Sheet*

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
course
Page: 8
Wave Optics : NCERT Example & Excercise Based
Question 4.
NCERT Examples Assume that light of wavelength 6000Å is coming from a

Question 1. star. What is the limit of resolution of a telescope whose
What speed should a galaxy move with respect to us so objective has a diameter of 100 inches?
that the sodium line at 589.0 nm is observed at 589.6 nm? −6
1. 1. 2 × 10 radians
1. 164 km/s 2. 3. 3 × 10

−7
radians
−6
2. 332 km/s 3. 1. 7 × 10 radians

−7
4. 2. 9 × 10 radians
3. 102 km/s

4. 306 km/s

Question 5.
Question 2.
For what distance is ray optics a good approximation
Which one of the following is incorrect? when the aperture is 3 mm wide and the wavelength is
1. When monochromatic light is incident on a surface 500 nm?
separating two media, the reflected and refracted light 1. 32 m
both have the same frequency as the incident frequency.
2. 42 m
2. When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium,
the speed decreases. The reduction in speed implies a 3. 18 m
reduction in the energy carried by the light wave. 4. 20 m
3. In the wave picture of light, the intensity of light is
determined by the square of the amplitude of the wave.
4. For a given frequency, the intensity of light in the Question 6.

photon picture is determined by the number of photons The expression for intensity (as shown in the figure) of
crossing a unit area per unit time. transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated between
two crossed polaroids is:
Question 3.
Two slits are made one millimeter apart and the screen is
placed one meter away. What is the fringe separation
when blue-green light of wavelength 500 nm is used?
1. 0.5 mm
I0 2
1. I = sin 2θ
2. 0.3 mm 2
I0
2
3. 0.05 mm 2. I =
4
sin 2θ
I0
4. 0.03 mm
2
3. I = cos 2θ
2
I0
4. I =
4
cos
2
2θ
Page: 1
Question 7.
Unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass surface.

NCERT Exercises
What should be the angle of incidence so that the Question 10.
reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each In Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are separated
other? by 0.28 mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m away. The
0 distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth
1. 45
0
bright fringe is measured to be 1.2 cm. Determine the
2. 67
wavelength of light used in the experiment.
0
3. 57
0 (1) 600 nm
4. 37
(2) 500 nm
(3) 400 nm
Question 8.
(4) 200 nm
Consider the following statements and then mark the
incorrect statement/s.
(a) The actual separation of the fringes increases if the Question 11.
screen is moved towards the plane of the slits.
In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic
(b) The actual separation of the fringes increases if the light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on
(monochromatic) source is replaced by another the screen where path difference is λ is K units. What is
(monochromatic) source of a shorter wavelength. the intensity of light at a point where path difference
(c) The actual separation of the fringes increases if the is λ/3?
separation between the two slits is increased. (1)
K
(d) The sharpness of the fringes increases when (2)

K
the source slit is moved closer to the double-slit plane. 4
K
(3)
2
(4) K
(1) Only b and c

(2) Only a
(3) Only a, b and c Question 12.
(4) All of the above In a double-slit experiment the angular width of a fringe
is found to be 0.2° on a screen placed 1 m away. The
wavelength of light used is 600 nm. What will be the
angular width of the fringe if the entire experimental

Question 9. apparatus is immersed in water? Take the refractive index
Two slits are made one millimetre apart and the screen is of water to be 4/3.
placed one metre away. What should the width of each (1) 0. 33 0
slit be to obtain 10 maxima of the double-slit pattern

within the central maximum of the single slit pattern? (2) 0. 20 0
(1) 2 mm (3) 0. 15 0
(2) 0.2 mm (4) 0. 10 0
(3) 0.02 mm
(4) 20 mm
Page: 2
What is the Brewster angle for air to glass transition? Which of the following is not true:
(Refractive index of glass = 1.5.)
(1) The speed of light is dependent on the color of the
(1) 49. 29 0
light.
(2) 43. 21 0
(2) The speed of violet light is less than the speed of the
red light in the glass.
(3) 50. 30 0
(3) The frequency of light never depends upon the

(4) 56. 31 0
property of the medium.
(4) When the light diverges from a point source, the
shape of the wavefront is plane.

Question 14.

What is the distance for which ray optics is a good
approximation for an aperture of 4 mm and wavelength Question 18.

400 nm?
A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm,
(1) 40 m and 520 nm, is used to obtain interference fringes in
Young’s double-slit experiment. What is the distance of
(2) 30 m
the third bright fringe on the screen from the central
(3) 20 m maximum for wavelength 650 nm?
(4) 50 m (1) 1950
D
nm
d
(2) 1700
D
nm
D
Question 15. (3) 1100
d
nm
D
When the light diverges from a point source, the shape of (4) 1861
d
nm
the wavefront is:

(1) Parabolic.

(2) Plane.
Question 19.
(3) Spherical.
In deriving the single slit diffraction pattern, at which
(4) Elliptical.
angles the intensity is zero?
2nλ
(1)
Question 16. (2)

nλ
When the light is coming from a distant star that is (3)

nλ
intercepted by the earth, the shape of the wavefront is: 2a
(4) 0
(1) Spherical.

(2) Plane.
(3) Elliptical.
(4) None of these.
Page: 3
Question 20.
A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a Fill OMR Sheet*

narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is
observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the center where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
of the screen. The width of the slit is:
(1) 0.43 mm

(2) 0.57 mm
(3) 0.13 mm CLICK HERE to get
(4) 0.2 mm
FREE ACCESS for 3
Question 21.
Two towers on top of two hills are 40 km apart. The line
course
joining them passes 50 m above a hill halfway between
the towers. What is the longest wavelength of radio
waves, which can be sent between the towers without
appreciable diffraction effects?

(1) 11.23 cm
(2) 12.5 cm
(3) 10.02 cm
(4) 13.87 cm
Question 22.
In a double-slit experiment using the light of wavelength
600 nm, the angular width of a fringe formed on a distant
screen is 0.1°. What is the spacing between the two slits?
−4
(1) 3. 44 × 10 m
−4
(2) 2. 54 × 10 m
−4
(3) 1. 31 × 10 m
−4
(4) 2. 01 × 10 m
Question 23.
The 6563 Å H line emitted by hydrogen in a star is
α
found to be red-shifted by 15 Å. The speed with which

the star is receding from the Earth is:
5
(1) 6. 87 × 10 m/s
4
(2) 4. 75 × 10 m/s
5
(3) 3. 20 × 10 m/s
4
(4) 5. 45 × 10 m/s
Page: 4
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter : NCERT Example
& Excercise Based MCQs Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 4.
NCERT Examples The wavelength of light in the visible region is about 390
Question 1. nm for violet colour. The energy of photons in (eV) is:
Monochromatic light of frequency 6. 0 × 10 Hz is
14
(Take h = 6. 63 × 10
−34
Js, and 1 eV = 1. 6 × 10
−19
J)
produced by a laser. The power emitted is
W. How many photons per second, 1. 1.64 eV
−3
2. 0 × 10
on average, are emitted by the source?

2. 2.26 eV
15
1. 6 × 10
14
3. 3.19 eV
2. 5 × 10
3. 6 × 10
14 4. 4.03 eV
15
4. 5 × 10

Question 5.
Question 2.
What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an
The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. The threshold electron moving at a speed of 5. 4 × 10 m/s? 6
frequency for caesium is:

1. 0.244 nm
12
1. 5. 03 × 10 Hz
14
2. 0.135 nm
2. 6. 12 × 10 Hz
3. 5. 16 × 10
14
Hz 3. 0.157 nm
12
4. 6. 51 × 10 Hz
4. 0.111 nm

Question 6.
Question 3. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass
The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. The 150 g travelling at a speed of 30.0 m/s is:
wavelength of incident light if the photocurrent is −32
1. 1. 47 × 10 m
brought to zero by a stopping potential of 0.60 V will be: −34
2. 2. 01 × 10 m
1. 454 nm 3. 2. 01 × 10
−32
m
2. 440 nm 4. 1. 47 × 10
−34
m
3. 333 nm
4. 350 nm Question 7.
An electron, an α-particle, and a proton have the same
kinetic energy. Which of these particles has the shortest

de Broglie wavelength?
1. Electron
2. α-particle
3. proton
4. All have the same de Broglie wavelength

Page: 1
Question 8.
A particle is moving three times as fast as an electron.

NCERT Exercises
The ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of the particle to Question 11.
that of the electron is 1. 813 × 10 . The particle’s mass Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon
−4
is: laser which is used in the photoelectric effect. When light

−31
from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the
1. 9. 371 × 10 kg
stopping (cut-off) potential of photoelectrons is 0.38 V.
2. 9. 001 × 10
−31
kg Find the work function of the material from which the
3. 1. 675 × 10
−27
kg
emitter is made.
4. 2. 705 × 10
−27
kg (1) 2.16 eV
(2) 3.06 eV
(3) 2.0 eV
Question 9.
(4) 0.38 eV
What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with an
electron, accelerated through a potential difference of
100 volts?
Question 12.
1. 0.123 nm
What will be the momentum, of the electrons accelerated
2. 0.232 nm
through a potential difference of 56 V.
3. 0.031 nm (1) 4. 07 × 10
−25
kg ms
−1
−24 −1
4. 0.312 nm (2) 4. 04 × 10 kg ms
−24 −1
(3) 4. 07 × 10 kg ms
(4) 4. 04 × 10
−25
kg ms
−1
Question 10.

The wavelength of light in the visible region is about 550
nm (average wavelength) for yellow-green colour. Three Question 13.

materials with work functions are given as Al (4.28 eV),
Cu (4.65 eV) and Na (2.75 eV). From which of these What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron with the
photosensitive materials, can you build a photoelectric kinetic energy of 120 eV?
device that operates with visible light?
(1) Al (1) 0.123 nm
(2) Cu (2) 0.121 nm
(3) Na (3) 0.112 nm
(4) None of the above (4) 0.131 nm
Question 14.
For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated
de Broglie wavelength be
1.40 x 10−10
m?
−2
(1) 1. 1 × 10 eV
−2
(2) 2. 1 × 10 eV
−2
(3) 3. 3 × 10 eV
−2
(4) 4. 2 × 10 eV

Page: 2
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule The work function of cesium metal is 2.14 eV. When
in air at 300 K? Assume that the molecule is moving with light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on the metal
the root-mean-square speed of molecules at this surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the
temperature. (Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u) stopping potential of the metal?
(1) 0.028 nm (1) 0.212 V
(2) 0.031 nm (2) 0.345 V
(3) 0.127 nm (3) 0.127 V
(4) 0.0139 nm (4) 0.311 V
Question 16.
About 5% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is Question 20.

converted to visible radiation. What is the average
intensity of visible radiation at a distance of 1 m from the The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment
bulb? is 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted?
2
(1) 0. 472 W /m
(2) 0. 398 W /m −19

(1) 2. 1 × 10 J
2
(3) 0. 323 W /m −19
(2) 1. 7 × 10 J
2
(4) 0. 401 W /m
−19
(3) 2. 4 × 10 J
(4) 1. 1 × 10
−19
J
Question 17.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a bullet of mass

Question 21.
0.040 kg traveling at the speed of 1.0 km/s?
−35
Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is
(1) 1. 65 × 10 m
produced by a
(2) 1. 05 × 10
−35
m helium-neon laser. The power emitted is 9.42 mW. The
(3) 2. 15 × 10
−35
m
energy of each photon in the light beam is:
−19
−35
(4) 2. 11 × 10 m (1) 4. 801 × 10 J
(2) 2. 121 × 10
−19
J
(3) 5. 043 × 10
−19
J
(4) 3. 141 × 10
−19
J
Question 18.

An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of

1.00 nm. The momentum of the electron will be:

(1) Greater than photon.
(2) Equal to the photon.
(3) Less than photon.
(4) None of these.
Page: 3
The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the Light of frequency 7. 21 × 10 Hz is incident on a
14
earth is 1.388 × 103 W/m2. How many photons(nearly) metal surface. Electrons with a maximum speed of
per square meter are incident on the Earth per second? 6. 0 × 10 m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the
5
Assume an average wavelength of 550 nm. threshold frequency for the photoemission of electrons?
(1) 3. 84 × 10 21
(1) 5. 109 × 10
14
H z
14
(2) 2. 97 × 10 21 (2) 3. 345 × 10 H z
14
(3) 6. 733 × 10 H z
(3) 4. 12 × 10 21
14
(4) 4. 738 × 10 H z
(4) 2. 10 × 10 21
Question 26.
Question 23.
The threshold frequency for a certain metal is
In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, the slope of 3. 3 × 10
14
Hz. If the light of frequency 8. 2 × 10
14
Hz
the cut-off voltage versus frequency of incident light is is incident on the metal, the cut-off voltage for the
found to be 4. 12 × 10 V s. The value of Planck's
−15
photoelectric emission is:

constant is:
(1) 1.1210 V.
(1) 6. 682 × 10 −4
J s
(2) 2.0292 V.
(2) 6. 592 × 10 −34
J s
(3) 3.8651 V.
(3) 6. 621 × 10 −34
J s
(4) 4.0832 V.
(4) 6. 502 × 10 −4
J s

Question 27.
Question 24.
Light of intensity 10-5 W m-2 falls on a sodium photo-
A 100 W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all
cell of surface area 2 cm2. Assuming that the top 5 layers
directions. The lamp is located at the center of a large
of sodium absorb the incident energy, The time required
sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is incident
for photoelectric emission in the wave-picture of
on it. The wavelength of sodium light is 589 nm. What is
radiation is: (The work function for the metal is given to
the energy per photon associated with the sodium light?
be about 2 eV.)
(1) 1. 21 eV
(1) 0.2 year
(2) 2. 21 eV
(2) 0.3 year
(3) 2. 11 eV
(4) 1. 11 eV
(3) 0.4 year
(4) 0.5 year

Page: 4
Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2 nm (1 nm The typical de Broglie wavelength of an electron in metal
= 10-9 m) from a neon lamp irradiates photosensitive at 27 °C will be:
material made of cesium on tungsten. The stopping (1) 4. 4 × 10
−10
m
voltage is measured to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced
−9
by an iron source and its 427.2 nm line irradiates the (2) 3. 4 × 10 m
same photo-cell. The new stopping voltage is: (3) 1. 3 × 10

−10
m
(1) 0.54 eV (4) 6. 2 × 10

−9
m
(2) 1.3 eV
(3) 1.5 eV
Question 32.
(4) 1.63 eV
The typical de Broglie wavelength associated with a He
atom in helium gas at room temperature (27 °C) and 1
atm pressure will be:

Question 29. −11
(1) 4. 63 × 10 m
Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 Å from a 100 W −12
(2) 6. 2 × 10 m
mercury source irradiates a photocell made of
molybdenum metal. If the stopping potential is −1.3 V, (3) 7. 3 × 10
−11
m
the work function of the metal is: (4) 5. 7 × 10

−12
m
(1) 4.15 eV

(2) 3.01 eV
Question 33.
(3) 1.30 eV
An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by a
(4) 2.12 eV voltage of 50 kV. The de Broglie wavelength associated
with the electrons is:
(1) 6. 7 × 10
−12
m
Question 30. −12
(2) 5. 4 × 10 m
In an accelerator experiment on high-energy collisions of −12
(3) 8. 5 × 10 m
electrons with positrons, a certain event is interpreted as
the annihilation of an electron-positron pair of total (4) 4. 4 × 10
−12
m
energy 10.2 BeV into two γ-rays of equal energy. What is

the wavelength associated with each γ-ray? (1BeV = 109
eV)
−16
(1) 3. 4 × 10 m
−16
(2) 1. 7 × 10 m
−16
(3) 2. 4 × 10 m
−16
(4) 3. 1 × 10 m
Page: 5
Fill OMR Sheet*

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
course
Page: 6
Atoms : NCERT Example & Excercise Based MCQs
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 4.
NCERT Examples According to the classical electromagnetic theory, the

Question 1. initial frequency of the light emitted by the electron
In Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom, the nucleus revolving around a proton in the hydrogen atom is:
(radius about 10-15 m) is analogous to the sun about (The velocity of the electron moving around a proton in a
which the electron move in orbit (radius ≈ 10-10 m) like hydrogen atom is 2.2×10 m/s)−6
the earth orbits around the sun. If the dimensions of the 13

1. 7. 6 × 10 Hz
solar system had the same proportions as those of the
15
atom, then: 2. 4. 7 × 10 Hz
15
3. 6. 6 × 10 Hz
(The radius of the earth's orbit is about 1.5 x 1011m. The 4. 5. 2 × 10
13
Hz
radius of the sun is taken as 7 x 108m.)

1. the earth will be closer to the sun than it is actually.
Question 5.
2. the earth will be farther away from the sun than it is
actually. A 10 kg satellite circles earth once every 2 h in an orbit
having a radius of 8000 km. Assuming that Bohr’s
3. the earth remains at the same distance from the sun as
angular momentum postulate applies to satellites just as it
it is actually.
does to an electron in the hydrogen atom. The quantum
4. None of these number of the orbit of the satellite is:
1. 2. 0 × 10
43
45
2. 4. 7 × 10
43
3. 3. 0 × 10
4. 5. 3 × 10
45
Question 2.
In a Geiger-Marsden experiment, what is the distance of Question 6.

the closest approach to the nucleus of a 7.7 MeV α-
particle before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses The wavelength of the first spectral line of the Lyman
its direction? series of the hydrogen spectrum is:
1. 10 fm 1. 1018 Å
2. 25 fm 2. 974.3 Å
3. 30 fm 3. 2124 Å
4. 35 fm 4. 2120 Å
Question 3.
It is found experimentally that 13.6 eV energy is required
to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and an
electron. The velocity of the electron in a hydrogen atom
is:
6
1. 3. 2 × 10 m/s
6
2. 2. 2 × 10 m/s
6
3. 4. 2 × 10 m/s
6
4. 1. 2 × 10 m/s
Page: 1
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 10.
NCERT Exercises The ground state energy of the hydrogen atom is –13.6
Question 7. eV. What is the potential energy of the electron in this
Which one of the following is not true: state?
(1) The sizes of the atoms taken in Thomson's model and (1) -13.6 eV
Rutherford's model have the same order of magnitude. (2) 27.2 eV
(2) In the ground state of Thomson's model, the electrons (3) -27.2 eV
are in stable equilibrium. However, in Rutherford's
model, the electrons always experience a net force. (4) 13.6 eV
(3) A classical atom based on Thomson's model is
doomed to collapse.
Question 11.
(4) The positively charged part of the atom possesses
most of the mass in both the models. The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen
atom is 5. 3 × 10 m. What is the radius of the n = 2
−11
orbit?
Question 8. 0
(1) 1. 67 A
What is the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen 0
series of spectral lines? (2) 4. 77 A
1. 818.9 nm 0
(3) 2. 12 A
2. 779 nm 0
(4) 3. 11 A
3. 500 nm

4. 1024 nm

Question 12.
A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a

Question 9.
photon, which excites it to the n = 4 level. The
A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an wavelength of photon is:
atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when
(1) 97 nm
the atom makes a transition from the upper level to the
lower level? (2) 99 nm
(1) 6. 6 × 10
14
H z. (3) 95 nm
14
(2) 5. 6 × 10 H z. (4) 96 nm
14
(3) 9. 3 × 10 H z.

(4) 7. 9 × 10
14
H z.
Question 13.
The speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom in the n = 1

level is:
6
(1) 1. 1 × 10 m/s
6
(2) 2. 18 × 10 m/s
6
(3) 1. 08 × 10 m/s
6
(4) 3. 07 × 10 m/s
Page: 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
In accordance with Bohr’s model, what is the quantum The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV
number that characterizes the earth’s revolution around electrons is:
the sun in an orbit of radius 1. 5 × 10 m with orbital
11
(1) 0.0414 nm
speed? (Mass of earth = 6. 0 × 10 kg.)
24
76
(2) 0.0041 nm
(1) 1. 8 × 10
74 (3) 0.1410 nm
(2) 2. 3 × 10
(3) 1. 3 × 10
76 (4)0.4140 nm
(4) 2. 6 × 10
74

The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of An X-ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of
the hydrogen atom is about -3.4 eV. What is the kinetic radiation with its short wavelength end at 0.45 Å. What is
energy of the electron in this state? the maximum energy of a photon in the radiation?
(1) 3.4 eV (1) 27. 6 keV
(2) 25. 5 keV
(2) -3.4 eV
(3) 23. 4 keV
(3) 3.2 eV
(4) 25. 1 keV
(4) -3.2 eV

Question 16.
Fill OMR Sheet*
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of
the hydrogen atom is about -3.4 eV. What is the potential *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
energy of the electron in this state? where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
(1) 6.8 eV
(2) -6.8 eV
(3) 0
(4) 3.4 eV CLICK HERE to get
FREE ACCESS for 3

Question 17. days of ANY NEETprep
The ground state energy of a muonic hydrogen atom is:
(Mass of a negatively charged muon, m = 207 me )
course
μ
(1) -2.07 keV
(2) 2.81 keV

(3) -2.81 keV
(4) 2.07 keV
Page: 3
Nuclei : NCERT Example & Excercise Based MCQs
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 4.
NCERT Examples We are given the following atomic masses:

Question 1.
238
U = 238.05079 u, 4
He = 4.00260 u
If the mass of the iron nucleus is 55.85u and A=56, the 92 2
nuclear density of the iron is: 234

Th = 234.04363 u, 1
H = 1.00783 u
90 1
17 −3
1. 2. 29 × 10 kg m 237
91
Pa = 237.05121 u
15 −3
2. 1. 36 × 10 kg m
17 −3
Here the symbol Pa is for the element protactinium (Z =
3. 3. 09 × 10 kg m
91).
15 −3
4. 4. 11 × 10 kg m
Then:

1. 238
92
U can not spontaneously emit a proton.
2. 238
92
U can spontaneously emit a proton.
Question 2.
3. The Q-value of the process is negative.
The energy equivalent of 1 g of substance is:
4. Both (1) and (2)
13
1. 8. 3 × 10 J
13

2. 9 × 10 J

13
3. 7. 7 × 10 J Question 5.
13
4. 11 × 10 J
The energy required in MeV /c to separate 2 16
8
O into its
constituents is:
Question 3. (Given mass defect for 16

8
O = 0. 13691 u )
We are given the following atomic masses: 1. 127.5
238
92
U = 238.05079 u, 4
2
He = 4.00260 u 2. 120.0
234
Th = 234.04363 u, 1
H = 1.00783 u 3. 222.0
90 1
4. 119.0
237
91
Pa = 237.05121 u

Here the symbol Pa is for the element protactinium (Z =
91). Question 6.
The energy released during the alpha decay of U is: 238
The half-life of U undergoing α-decay is 4. 5 × 10

92
238 9
92
1. 6.14 MeV years. What is the activity of the 1g sample of U? 238
92
2. 7.68 MeV 1. 2. 11 × 10 4

Bq
3. 4.25 MeV 2. 3. 12 × 10 3

Bq
4. 5.01 MeV 3. 1. 23 × 10 4

Bq
4. 2. 38 × 10 3
Bq
Page: 1
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 y undergoing beta decay. The three

stable isotopes of neon:
What fraction of a sample of pure tritium will remain 20
10
Ne,
21
Ne have respective abundances of
Ne, and
10
22
10
undecayed after 25 y?
90.51%, 0.27%, and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the

three isotopes are 19.99 u, 20.99 u, and 21.99 u,
1 respectively. The average atomic mass of neon is:
1. th
8
1 (1) 20.1709 u
2. th
4
1
(2) 21.7037 u
3. rd
3
1
(3) 20.1771 u
4. th
5
(4) 21.0097 u

Question 8.
Which one of the following is incorrect?
Question 11.
1. A chemical equation is balanced in the sense that the
number of atoms of each element is the same on both What is the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen
sides of the equation. nucleus N, given m N=14.00307 u?
14
7
14
2. The number of atoms of each element is not (1) 104.44334 MeV.

necessarily conserved in a nuclear reaction.
(2) 106.66334 MeV.
3. The number of protons and the number of neutrons are
(3) 104.66334 MeV.
conserved in each nuclear reaction.
(4) 106.44334 MeV.
4. Mass-energy interconversion takes place only in
nuclear reactions and never in the chemical reaction.
Question 12.
NCERT Exercises A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long

will it take the activity to reduce to 3.125% of its original
Question 9. value?
Two stable isotopes of lithium Li and Li have
6
3
7
3
(1) T years.
respective abundances of 7.5% and 92.5%. These (2) 4T years.
isotopes have masses 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u,
respectively. The atomic mass of lithium is: (3) 3T years.
(1) 6.940934 u (4) 5T years.
(2) 6.897643 u
(3) 7.863052 u Question 13.

(4) 7.167077 u What is the amount of Co necessary to provide a
60
27
radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength? The half-life of
Co is 5.3 years.

60
27
(1) 8. 109 × 10 −6
g
(2) 7. 106 × 10 −6
g
(3) 7. 105 × 10 −5
g
(4) 8. 107 × 10 −5
g

Page: 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. How much nuclear The radionuclide 11
6
C decays according to
energy would be required to separate all the neutrons and
protons from each other? For simplicity assume that
11 11 +
C → B + e + ν : (T1/2 = 20. 3 min)
6 5
the coin is entirely made of Cu atoms (of mass

63
29
The maximum energy of the emitted positron is 0.960
62.92960 u).
MeV.
Mass of proton, mp = 1. 00783 u
Given the mass values:
Mass of neutr on, mn = 1. 00867 u
m ( 11
6
C ) = 11.011434 u and m ( 11
6
B ) = 11.009305 u,
12
(1) 2. 5296 × 10 M eV
25
the value of Q is:
(2) 1. 581 × 10 M eV
20 (1) 0.313 MeV

(3) 3. 1223 × 10 M eV
(4) 931. 02 × 10
19
M eV
(2) 0.962 MeV
(3) 0.414 MeV
(4) o.132 MeV

Question 15.

The amount of Co necessary to provide a radioactive
60
27
source of 8.0 mCi strength is: Question 19.

(The half-life of 60
27
Co is 5.3 years) The nucleus Ne decays by β– emission. What is the
23
10
−6
maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted? Given
(1) 6. 3 × 10 g
that:
−6
(2) 7. 1 × 10 g
m ( 23
Ne
10
) = 22.994466 u
−6
(3) 5. 7 × 10 g
−6 m ( 23
Na
11
) = 22.989770 u.
(4) 6. 9 × 10 g
(1) 4.201 MeV
(2) 3.791 MeV

Question 16.
(3) 4.374 MeV
The half-life of Sr is 28 years. What is the
90
38
disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope? (4) 3.851 MeV

10
(1) 9. 64 × 10 atoms/s

(2) 11. 12 × 10
11
atoms/s Question 20.
10
(3) 7. 87 × 10 atoms/s
The fission properties of Pu are very similar to those
239
94
(4) 10. 04 × 10
11
atoms/s of U. The average energy released per fission is 180
235
92
MeV. How much energy, in MeV, is released if all the
atoms in 1 kg of pure Pu undergo fission?

239
94
Question 17. (1) 2. 5 × 10

25
M eV
The approximately nuclear radii of the gold isotope (2) 4. 5 × 10

25
M eV
Au and the silver isotope Ag is:
197 107
79 47 26
(3) 2. 5 × 10 M eV
(1) 1:1.23 (4) 4. 5 × 10

26
M eV
(2) 1:1.32
(3) 1.01:1
(4) 1.22:1
Page: 3
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in The neutron separation energy is defined as the energy
5.00 yr. How much U did it contain initially? Assume
235
92
required to remove a neutron from the nucleus. The
that the reactor operates 80% of the time, that all the neutron separation energies of the nuclei Ca is:
41
20
energy generated arises from the fission of, U and that

235
92
Given that,
this nuclide is consumed only by the fission process.
m( 40
Ca) = 39.962591 u
(1) 4386 kg. 20
(2) 3076 kg. m(( 41
20
Ca) ) = 40.962278 u
(3) 4772 kg. (1) 7.657 MeV

(4) 8799 kg. (2) 8.363 MeV
(3) 9.037 MeV
(4) 9.861 MeV

Question 22.

How long can an electric lamp of 100W be kept glowing

by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? Take the fusion

Question 25.
reaction as
A source contains two phosphorous radio nuclides P ( 32
H + H → He + n + 3. 27 M eV .
2 2 3 15
1 1 2
T = 14.3d) and P (T = 25.3d). Initially, 10% of
1/2
33
15 1/2
4
(1) 4. 9 × 10 years the decays come from P. How long one must wait until
33
15
4
(2) 2. 8 × 10 years
90% do so?
4
(3) 3. 0 × 10 years (1) 208.5 days
4
(4) 3. 9 × 10 years (2) 200.2 days
(3) 263.9 days
Question 23. (4) 211.7 days
What is the height of the potential barrier for a head-on
collision of two deuterons? (Assume that they can be
taken as hard spheres of radius 2.0 fm.) Question 26.
(1) 300 keV Consider the fission of U by fast neutrons. In one
238
92
fission event, no neutrons are emitted and the final end

(2) 360 keV products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments,
(3) 376 keV are Ce and Ru. What is Q for this fission process?
140
58
99
44
The relevant atomic and particle masses are:

(4) 356 keV
m( U) =238.05079 u
238
92
m( 140
58
Ce ) =139.90543 u
m( 99
44
Ru ) = 98.90594 u
(1) 303.037 MeV
(2) 205.981 MeV
(3) 312.210 MeV
(4) 231.007 MeV

Page: 4
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Question 27.
Consider the D–T reaction (deuterium-tritium fusion) Fill OMR Sheet*

2 3 4
H + H → He + n
1 1 2
What is the energy released in MeV in this reaction from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
the data?
m( H)=2.014102 u
2
m( 4
He ) =4.002603 u
CLICK HERE to get
2
m(n)=1.00867 u
m( 3
1
H) =3.016049 u FREE ACCESS for 3
(1) 17.59 MeV days of ANY NEETprep
(2) 18.01 MeV
course
(3) 20.03 MeV
(4) 19.68 MeV
Question 28.
The energy released by fusion of 1.0 kg of hydrogen
deep within the Sun is:
26
(1) 39. 1495 × 10 MeV
26
(2) 35. 106 × 10 MeV
26
(3) 33. 106 × 10 MeV
26
(4) 37. 106 × 10 MeV
Question 29.
Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD,
200,000 MW of electric power, ten percent of which was
to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we
are given that, on average, the efficiency of utilization
(i.e. conversion to electric energy) of thermal energy
produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of
fissionable uranium would our country need per year by
2020? Take the heat energy per fission of U to be
235
about 200MeV.
4
(1) 5. 041 × 10 kg.
4
(2) 2. 074 × 10 kg.
4
(3) 3. 076 × 10 kg.
4
(4) 4. 026 × 10 kg.
Page: 5
Semiconductor Electronics : NCERT Example &
Question 4.
NCERT Examples The V-I characteristic of a silicon diode is shown in the

Question 1. figure. The resistance of the diode at I = 15 mA is:
D
C, Si, and Ge have the same lattice structure. Why is the

C insulator?
1. Because ionization energy for C is least in comparison
to Si and Ge.
2. Because ionization energy for C is highest in
comparison to Si and Ge.
3. The number of free electrons for conduction in Ge and
Si is significant but negligibly small for C.
4. Both (2) and (3)

1. 20 Ω
2. 30 Ω
Question 2. 3. 15 Ω
4. 10 Ω
Suppose a pure Si crystal has 5 × 10 atoms m . It 28 −3
is doped by a 1 ppm concentration of pentavalent As.
The number of electrons and holes are, respectively:
(Given that n = 1. 5 × 10 m )
16 Question 5.
−3
i
22 3 9 3
The V-I characteristic of a silicon diode is shown in the
1. 5 × 10 /m , 4. 5 × 10 /m
figure. The resistance of the diode at V = −10 V is:
D
9 3 22 3
2. 4. 5 × 10 /m , 5 × 10 /m
22 3 22 3
3. 5 × 10 /m , 5 × 10 /m
9 3 9 3
4. 4. 5 × 10 /m , 4. 5 × 10 /m
Question 3.
Why can't we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and
physically join it to another slab of n-type semiconductor
to get a p-n junction?
1. The diffusion of majority charge carriers will not
occur. 1. 1 × 10 Ω
7
2. The junction will behave as a discontinuity for the

7
2. 2 × 10 Ω
flowing charge carriers. 3. 3 × 10 Ω

7
3. The junction will behave as a continuity for the 4. 4 × 10 Ω
flowing charge carriers.
4. Both (1) and (2).
Page: 1
In a Zener regulated power supply, a Zener diode with The output characteristics of a transistor are shown in the
V = 6.0 V is used for regulation. The load current is to
Z figure. When V is 10 V and I = 4.0 mA, the value
CE C
be 4.0 mA and the unregulated input is 10.0 V. The value of β is:
ac
of the series resistor R will be:(Assume I = 5I )

S Z L
1. Less than 100 Ω
2. Zero
3. Infinite
4. 150 Ω
Question 7.
Which one of the following is not true for the
photodiodes?
1. The current in the forward bias is more than the
current in the reverse bias.
1. 200
2. Photodiodes are preferably used in the reverse bias
condition for measuring light intensity. 2. 250
3. Photodiodes are preferably used in the forward bias 3. 150
condition for measuring light intensity.
4. 100
4. In photodiodes, only a small portion of the incident

photons gets converted to electric current.

Question 10.
The output characteristics of a transistor are shown in the

Question 8.
figure. When V is 10 V and I = 4.0 mA, the value
CE C
Which material is preferred for solar cells? of β is:dc
1. Si
2. GaAs
3. CdS
4. Both Si and GaAs
1. 200
2. 250
3. 300
4. 150
Page: 2
1. The output waveform (Y) of the AND gate for the The output waveform (Y) of the OR gate for the
following inputs A and B given in the figure is: following inputs A and B given in the figure is:
1.
1.
2.
2.
3.
4. None of these 3.
4. None of these
Page: 3
The output waveform (Y) of the NAND gate for the For a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
following inputs A and B given in the figure is: across the collector resistance of 2.0 kΩ is 2.0 V.
Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor
is 100, what should be the value of R in series with
BB
the supply of 2.0 V if the dc base current has to be 10

times the signal current?
1. 18 kΩ
1. 2. 16 kΩ
3. 12 kΩ
4. 14 kΩ
Question 15.
2.
For a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
across the collector resistance of 2.0 kΩ is 2.0 V.
Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor
is 100 if the dc base current has to be 10 times the signal
current. The dc drop across the collector resistance is:
3.
4. None of these
1. 0.1 mA
2. 10 mA
3. 1.0 mA
4. 0.01 mA

Page: 4
Question 16.
In figure, the V supply can be varied from 0 V to 5.0

NCERT Exercises
V. The Si transistor has β = 250 and R = 100 kΩ, R Question 18.
BB
dc B C
= 1 KΩ, V = 5.0 V. Assume that when the transistor is In an n-type silicon, which of the following statement is
CC
saturated, V = 0 V and V = 0.8V. The minimum base true:

CE BE
current, for which the transistor will reach saturation is:

(1) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are
the dopants.
(2) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms
are the dopants.
(3) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are
the dopants.
(4) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the
dopants.

1. 20 μA
2. 5 mA

3. 20 mA
Question 19.
4. 5 μA In an p-type silicon, which of the following statement is
true:
(1) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are
the dopants.
Question 17. (2) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms
In figure, the V supply can be varied from 0 V to 5.0 are the dopants.
BB
V. The Si transistor has β = 250 and R = 100 kΩ, R

dc B C (3) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are
= 1 KΩ, V = 5.0 V. Assume that when the transistor is
CC the dopants.
saturated, V = 0 V and V = 0.8V. The input voltage
CE BE
for which the transistor will reach saturation is: (4) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the
dopants.

Question 20.
Carbon, silicon, and germanium have four valence
electrons each. These are characterized by valence and
conduction bands separated by the energy bandgap
respectively equal to (Eg)C, (Eg)Si, and (Eg)Ge. Which
1. 0.8 V of the following statements is true?
2. 5.0 V 1. (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C
3. 2.8 V 2. (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge > (Eg)Si
4. 1.4 V 3. (Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge
4. (Eg)C = (Eg)Si = (Eg)Ge
Page: 5
In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p- In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency if
region to n-region because the input frequency is 50 Hz?
(1) free electrons in the n-region attract them. (1) 50 Hz
(2) they move across the junction by the potential (2) 100 Hz
difference.
(3) 25 Hz
(3) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to
n-region. (4) 60 Hz
(4) All the above.
Question 26.
Question 22. For a CE-transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage

across the collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 2 V. Suppose the
When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it current amplification factor of the transistor is 100, what
is the base current if the base resistance is 1 kΩ?
(1) raises the potential barrier.
(1) 14 μA
(2) reduces the majority carrier current to zero.
(2) 12 μA
(3) lowers the potential barrier.
(3) 15 μA
(4) None of the above. (4) 10 μA

For transistor action, which of the following statements is Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series
correct: (cascaded). The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10
(1) Base, emitter, and collector regions should have and the second has a voltage gain of 20. If the input
similar size and doping concentrations. signal is 0. 01 volt, the output ac signal is:
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped. (1) 1.0 V
(3) Both the emitter junction as well as the collector (2) 2.4 V
junction are forward biased. (3) 2 V
(4) None of the above. (4) 1.5 V

For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor
1. remains constant for all frequencies. with a bandgap of 2.8 eV. The energy of the incident
photon with a waveength of 6000 nm is:
2. is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the
middle-frequency range. (1) 0.207 eV
3. is low at high and low frequencies and constant at mid (2) 0.270 eV
frequencies. (3) 0.027 eV
4. none of the above. (4) 0.072 eV
Page: 6
The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5 × 1028. This is A NAND gate connected as given in the figure,
doped simultaneously with 5 × 1022 atoms per m3 of
Arsenic and 5 × 1020 per m3 atoms of Indium. The
number of holes is: (Given that n = 1. 5 × 10 m )
i
16 −3
9
(1) 4. 51 × 10
(2) 4. 99 × 10
22
The circuit operates like a:
(3) 1. 56 × 10
22
(1) NOT gate
23
(4) 3. 33 × 10
(2) OR gate
(3) AND gate
Question 30. (4) None of these
In an intrinsic semiconductor, the energy gap Eg is 1.2eV.
Its hole mobility is much smaller than electron mobility
and independent of temperature. What is the ratio

between conductivity at 600K and that at 300K? Assume Fill OMR Sheet*
that the temperature dependence of intrinsic carrier
concentration n is given by,
i
−Eg where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
n = n exp[ ] where n is a constant.
i 0
2KB T
0

(1) 1. 01 × 10 : 1

5
(2) 1. 09 × 10 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2
CLICK HERE to get
FREE ACCESS for 3
Question 31.
Which statement is true for the given circuit: course

(1) (a) is OR gate and (b) is NOT gate.

(2) (a) is NOT gate and (b) is OR gate.
(3) (a) is AND gate and (b) is OR gate.
(4) (a) is OR gate and (b) is AND gate.
Page: 7

NCERT Examples &amp; Exercises MCQs (XII - Physics)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

NCERT Examples &amp; Exercises MCQs (XII - Physics)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Electric Charges and Fields : NCERT Example &

Excercise Based MCQs Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

NCERT Examples A charged metallic sphere A is suspended by a nylon

If 109 electrons move out of a body to another body

2. Electrostatic force on A due to B becomes double.

Question 4. 3. Electrostatic force on A due to B becomes half.

Consider three charges q , q q each equal to q at the

[figure (a)]. The direction of the field is reversed keeping

fall for electron and proton respectively, then:

Question 9. Question 11.

Two-point charges q and q , of magnitude +10 C

as shown in the figure is:

Question 13. Question 14.

for x > 0 and E = –200 î N/C for x < 0. A right circular

Question 15. Question 17.

one face is at x = +10 cm and the other is at x = –10 cm 2. 0

Question 20. Question 24.

Dimensional formula of

is: Question 25.

= -5μc are located at corners of a square ABCD of side

10 cm. The force on a charge of 1μc placed at the center

of the square is:

(2) 1 N aligned at 30° with the direction of a uniform electric

midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges is:

Question 27. Question 30.

Question 28. (2) 3

Two insulated charged copper spheres A and B have their (3) 30 N m /C

centers separated by a distance of 50 cm. What is the (4) 0

each is 6. 5 × 10 C ? The radii of A and B are

negligible compared to the distance of separation.

Question 33. Question 35.

A point charge + 10 μC is at a distance 5 cm directly A point chargecauses an electric flux of

A point charge of 2.0 μC is at the center of a cubic

An infinite line charge produces a field of 9×10 4 N/C at

Question 39. Question 41.

Question 40. 1.

An oil drop of 12 excess electrons is held stationary

The density of the oil is 1. 26 g cm . The radius of the

Question 42. Question 44.

along the positive z-direction, at the rate of 10 N C

Question 43. 2qEL

surface. The electric field in the hole is:

A spherical conducting shell of inner radius r and outer

radius r has a charge Q. A charge q is placed at the

center of the shell. The surface charge density on the

A long charged cylinder of linear charged density is

Fill OMR Sheet*

CLICK HERE to get

bringing a charge of 2 × 10–9 C from infinity to the point

charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential

1. 9 cm away from 3 × 10–8 C

2. 25 cm away from 3 × 10–8 C

3. 45 cm away from 3 × 10–8 C

A molecule of a substance has a permanent electric

charge on the plate with higher potential, equal and

3. Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have

4. A bird perches on a bare high power line and gets a

separation of the plates. What is the capacitance of the −3

A 900 pF capacitor is charged by a 100 V battery. The

electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor is U. If the

capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected

capacitance of the network is:

NCERT Exercises Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF, and 4 pF are

A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. The work done

NCERT Examples & Exercises MCQs (XII - Physics)

NCERT Examples & Exercises MCQs (XII - Physics)