Uscg

USCG
Engineering Test Gen Sub 1 2 Formatted by Bruce Sherman
ABS VER Question Choice A Choice B Choice C Choice D Illustr Ans GenSub
The mutual action between parts of a material to

preserve their relative positions when external loads
ultimate tensile
210001 1 are applied to the material, which tends to resist stress strain shear strength A 1
strength
deformation when subjected to external forces, is
known as __________.
A "barrel" is defined as a unit of liquid, measured at

210002 1 31.5 U.S. gallons 42.0 U.S. gallons 55.0 U.S. gallons 60.0 U.S. gallons B 1
60°F, and is equivalent to __________.
A "barrel" is defined as a unit of liquid, measured at

210002 3 25 U.S. gallons 42 U.S. gallons 55 U.S. gallons 60 U.S. gallons B 1
60°F, and is equivalent to _______.
Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative
210003 1
velocities of the objects is defined as __________.
potential energy pressure energy kinetic energy relative energy C 1
density of a differences in mass of substance buoyancy of an
A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing substance in water volume between measured with the indicator in water
210008 1 D 1
the __________. with the density of water and the liquid density of the same with the buoyancy of
the same subject in measured substance the same indicator in
How many BTUs must be added to one pound of
210050 1
water at 32°F to raise the temperature to 212°F?
16 BTU's 144 BTU's 180 BTU's 970 BTU's C 1
The boiling point of water in an open container at sea
increase and then decrease and then
210051 1 level is 212°F. If the pressure on the open container is increase decrease B 1
decrease increase
decreased, the boiling point will __________.
Which of the following best describes the adiabatic As pressure As pressure As pressure As volume
210053 2 A 1
pressure/volume relationship with regards to a fixed decreases, volume increases, volume decreases, volume increases, pressure
The chemical substance initially responsible for heat
210055 2 sulfur carbon hydrogen nitrogen D 1
loss in the combustion process is __________.
In pressure measurement, absolute pressure is any two pressures atmospheric gage pressure and a perfect vacuum
210056 1 D 1
defined as the difference in pressure between measured with pressure and ambient atmospheric and the total
The difference between the pressure at a point being
210056 2 measured and that of a perfect vacuum is known as internal pressure gauge pressure absolute pressure external pressure C 1
__________.
The rate of heat
Heat transfer rate The high
Heat is always transfer is not
Which of the statements listed concerning heat increases as temperature region
210057 1 transferred at a affected by B 1
transfer is correct? temperature is known as a heat
constant rate. temperature
difference increases. sink.
difference.
The difference between the pressure at a point being
210058 2
measured and that of a perfect vacuum is known as
internal pressure gauge pressure absolute pressure external pressure C 1
Archimedes' principle states that the resultant acts vertically will cause the body is proportional in is applied equal and
210060 1 A 1
pressure acting on a body immersed in a fluid upward through the to have a reduction magnitude and in all directions
Crawford Nautical School 1 www.crawfordnautical.com

USCG Engineering Test Gen Sub 1 2 Formatted by Bruce Sherman
As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an

orthographic projection is indicated by figure "19",
210061 1 and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "23", Figure "17" Figure "12" Figure "3" Figure "8" GS-0165 D 1
which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT
SIDE VIEW"?
210061 2
orthographic projection is indicated by figure "1", and
Figure "13" Figure "6" Figure "20" Figure "5" GS-0165 C 1
As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the
210061 3 Figure "2" Figure "10" Figure "8" Figure "15" GS-0165 B 1
"TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection, and figure
210061 4 Figure "17" Figure "23" Figure "9" Figure "8" GS-0165 A 1
210061 5 Figure "11" Figure "16" Figure "2" Figure "15" GS-0165 D 1
and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "15",
which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT
210061 6
Figure "5" Figure "6" Figure "10" Figure "16" GS-0165 C 1
210061 7 Figure "3" Figure "2" Figure "17" Figure "8" GS-0165 B 1
210061 8 Figure "24" Figure "6" Figure "7" Figure "9" GS-0165 D 1
An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter wheel
210100 1 120 RPM at 4 HP 160 RPM at 4 HP 220 RPM at 4.5 HP 220 RPM at 4.8 HP A 1
via a pair of belts. The power input is supplied by a 5
The disc of a relief valve has an area of 0.85 square
210101 2 208 psi 227 psi 231 psi 250 psi A 1
inches when seated, lifts at a set point pressure of
The disc of a relief valve has an area of 0.75 square 206 psi (1420.16 227 psi (1564.94 231 psi (1592.51 250 psi (1723.50
210101 3 B 1
inches (483.87 square mm) when seated, and lifts at kPa) kPa) kPa) kPa)
As shown in the illustration, a section of standard
210102 1
weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter
1.050 inches 2.670 inches 5.498 inches 6.912 inches GS-0108 C 1
As shown in the illustration, a section of pipe with a
210102 2 4.714 inches 5.054 inches 5.161 inches 5.498 inches GS-0108 D 1
3.068 inch internal diameter, has a wall thickness of
As shown in the illustration, a section of 4.5 inch
internal diameter standard weight, seamless steel
210102 6
210102 7 7.980 inches 8.168 inches 13.168 inches 16.127 inches GS-0108 B 1
of 5.2 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree
turn,
As the length
shown in theofillustration,
the outside edge of of
a section thestandard
curve "A-B"
weight seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter
210102 8 10.367 inches 13.006 inches 15.367 inches 19.059 inches GS-0108 A 1
turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B"


turn, the length of the out side edge of the curve "A-
B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the
curve "C-D" by __________.
210102 12
A standard grade of 3 inch steel pipe has an outside
3 inch nominal size 3 inch nominal size
diameter of 3.5 inches and an inside diameter of
210104 1 3.5 inches 3.75 inches pipe of schedule 80 pipe of schedule 160 A 1
3.068 inches. What is the nominal size of steel pipe
thickness thickness
having an outside diameter of 4.0 inches and an
A measurement of .625 inches is equal to
210105 1
__________.
15/32 inches 9/16 inches 5/8 inches 35/64 inches C 1
A measurement of .2344 inches is equal to

210105 2 11/32 inches 15/32 inches 11/64 inches 15/64 inches D 1
__________.
A vessel departed from point "A" at 1206 with a
210106 1
counter reading of 616729 and arrived at point "B"
1.04% 1.29% -6.65% -11.04% C 1
Upon a vessel's departure from point "A" at 1206, the
210106 2
counter reading was 616729. At midnight, the counter
353.2 miles 364.8 miles 398.4 miles 413.9 miles C 1
If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots,
210106 3 13.8 tons 11.5 tons 10.7 tons 9.5 tons A 1
how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 knots?
Your ship has steamed 1786 miles at 17 knots using
515 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your
210106 4 652 tons 767 tons 858 tons 902 tons B 1
next port is 1922 miles. If you increase speed to 20
knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?

210106 5
10.1 tons 12.8 tons 16.3 tons 19.1 tons C 1

210106 6 690 tons 710 tons 772 tons 868 tons D 1



210106 8 714 tons 850 tons 1012 tons 1214 tons B 1

210106 9 20.3 tons 22.0 tons 26.1 tons 29.4 tons B 1

210106 10
640 tons 722 tons 983 tons 1060 tons C 1

210106 11 11.7 tons 14.2 tons 17.2 tons 25.2 tons D 1

210106 12 332 tons 435 tons 522 tons 1216 tons A 1
next port is 1750 miles. If you decrease speed to 16


210106 14
210106 16 425 tons 537 tons 625 tons 712 tons A 1



210106 18
If your ship burns 2.9 tons of fuel per hour at 20
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 15
What is the diameter of a cylinder whose cross-
210107 1 36 inches 30 inches 24 inches 15 inches B 1
sectional area is 706.86 square inches?
A 30 HP electric motor is rotating shaft "A" at 300

210109 1 rpm. What is the horsepower and rpm at shaft "B", if 20 H.P. at 200 RPM 20 H.P. at 900 RPM 30 H.P. at 100 RPM 30 H.P. at 900 RPM GS-0136 B 1
the efficiency of the spur gears is 67%?
If the temperature in a hot air manifold were found to

210110 1 be 122°F, what will be the equivalent reading on the 35°C 40°C 45°C 50°C D 1
centigrade scale?
The mechanical efficiency of a particular centrifugal

bilge pump is 92.5%. What is the smallest
210111 1 horsepower motor that can effectively operate this 1/4 HP 1/2 HP 3/4 HP 1.0 HP B 1
pump at a capacity of 100 gpm with a discharge head
of 15 feet?
A cylindrical tank measures 10 feet in diameter and
20 feet in length, weighs 4 long tons when empty.
210112 1 When completely filled with a petroleum product 29 long tons 33 long tons 37 long tons 41 long tons GS-0149 D 1
having an API gravity of 35.5 at 60°F, what is the total
weight of the tank and its contents in long tons?
A fuel tank on your vessel is 20 feet high, 20 feet long
and 20 feet wide. If it is filled 100% with fuel having
210112 2 177.76 188.25 196.47 210.84 GS-0149 B 1
an API gravity of 35.7 at a temperature of 60°F, how
many long tons of fuel are in the tank?
Your vessel has taken on 25,000 gallons of fuel with
an API gravity of 35.1 at 60°F. Using the table shown
210112 3 69.74 long tons 78.92 long tons 81.22 long tons 88.40 long tons GS-0149 B 1
in the illustration, how many long tons of fuel has
been actually taken on board?
Your vessel has taken on 25,000 gallons of fuel with

an API gravity of 30.4 at 60°F. Using the table shown
210112 4
in the illustration, how many long tons of fuel have
63.57 long tons 72.48 long tons 81.22 long tons 90.97 long tons GS-0149 C 1
you taken onboard?

Referring to the table shown in the illustration, your

vessel has just taken aboard 30,000 gallons of fuel
with an API gravity of 35.2 at 60°F. Your vessel's
210112 5 36.2 42.4 48.6 54.8 GS-0149 B 1
specific fuel consumption at full power is 0.5 lbs. per
Hp-Hr. How many hours will the fuel last if it is all
burned
Your in thehas
vessel 10,000 hp main
just taken engine?
aboard 1200 barrels of fuel
with an API gravity of 30.9 at 60°F. Referring to the
table shown in the illustration, how many long tons of
fuel have you taken aboard?
It is desired to operate an air compressor with a 12
210113 1 2.5 inches 3.5 inches 4.5 inches 5.5 inches B 1
inch flywheel at a speed of 510 rpm. If the motor runs
A volume of one cubic foot would equal how many

210114 1
gallons?
5.48 gallons 6.48 gallons 7.48 gallons 8.48 gallons C 1
One cubic foot of salt water would equal

210114 2
approximately how many pounds?
24 44 64 84 C 1
Figure "I" shown in the illustration is a diagram of a

valve hand wheel, with S=5 inches and T=50 lbs.
210115 2 When an 18 inch cheater bar is used instead, and 115% 154% 250% 360% GS-0109 D 1
V=50 lbs., as shown in Figure "II", what value of
additional
Figure torque in
"I" shown is the
nowillustration
being applied to the hand
is a diagram of a
valve hand wheel, with S=8 inches and T=50 lbs.
When an 24 inch cheater bar is used instead, and
210115 5 100% 300% 400% 500% GS-0109 B 1
V=50 lbs., as shown in Figure "II", what value of
additional torque is now being applied to the hand
wheel valve stem?
In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 62.8 feet.

210117 1
What is the area of the shaded portion?
27.5 square feet 28.0 square feet 28.5 square feet 29.0 square feet GS-0134 C 1
In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 62.8 feet.

210117 2 28.5 square feet 38.5 square feet 15.1 square feet 53.5 square feet GS-0134 A 1
What is the area of the shaded portion?
In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 43.96

210117 3 10.5 square feet 14.0 square feet 2.4 square feet 26.2 square feet GS-0134 B 1
feet. What is the area of the shaded portion?


210117 4
2.7 square feet 0.5 square feet 9.3 square feet 17.4 square feet GS-0134 C 1

210117 5 14.1 square feet 15.1 square feet 16.1 square feet 17.1 square feet GS-0134 D 1

210117 6 18.3 square feet 19.3 square feet 20.3 square feet 21.3 square feet GS-0134 A 1

210117 7 65.0 square inches 41.1 square inches 38.5 square inches 77.0 square inches GS-0134 B 1
inches. What is the area of the shaded portion?

210117 8
234.0 square inches 107.0 square inches 114.1 square inches 214.0 square inches GS-0134 C 1

210117 9 394.0 square inches 168.5 square inches 337.0 square inches 179.6 square inches GS-0134 D 1
If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

210118 1
shown in figure "C" of the illustration and "W" is 250
83.33 lbs. 104.16 lbs. 125.00 lbs. 250.00 lbs. GS-0110 C 1
210118 2
shown in figure "C" in the illustration, the amount of
shown in figure "D" in the illustration, the amount of
210118 3
force "P" required to hold the 225 pound load
34 lbs. 45 lbs. 75 lbs. 90 lbs. GS-0110 C 1
stationary would be __________.
210118 4
210118 5 40 lbs. 53 lbs. 56 lbs. 89 lbs. GS-0110 D 1
stationary would
If a block and be __________.
tackle arrangement were rigged as
210118 6 42 lbs. 94 lbs. 113 lbs. 114 lbs. GS-0110 B 1


illustrated in figure "D", the amount of force "P"
210118 7 94 lbs. 107 lbs. 114 lbs. 125 lbs. GS-0110 A 1
required to hold the 283 pound load stationary would
be __________.
210118 9 force "P" required to hold the 383 pound load 57 lbs. 77 lbs. 128 lbs. 153 lbs. GS-0110 C 1
stationary would be __________. (See illustration GS-
0110)


210118 12

shown in figure "G" in the illustration, the amount of
210118 14
210118 16 force "P" required to hold the 334 pound load 54 lbs. 61 lbs. 77 lbs. 84 lbs. GS-0110 D 1
0110)



210118 19


shown in figure "F" in the illustration, the amount of
210118 24
52.lbs. 59 lbs. 66 lbs. 87 lbs. GS-0110 C 1



210118 29 97.8 lbs. 99.5 lbs. 104.5 lbs. 109.5 lbs. GS-0110 B 1


210118 99
shown in figure "C" in the illustration, the amount of
If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15

210119 1 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 13.82 tons 15.61 tons 16.00 tons 16.37 tons A 1
knots?

210119 2 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 9.6 tons 13.8 tons 9.5 tons 11.5 tons B 1
knots?

210119 3 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 15 5.3 tons 2.4 tons 1.9 tons 1.5 tons D 1
knots?


210119 5 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 20 11.7 tons 10.7 tons 19.0 tons 14.2 tons C 1
knots?

knots?

210119 7 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 19 12.8 tons 16.3 tons 10.6 tons 10.1 tons B 1
knots?
If your vessel burns 2.9 tons of fuel per hour

210119 8 operating at a speed of 20 knots, how many tons per 1.2 tons 1.6 tons 2.0 tons 2.4 tons A 1
hour will it burn at a speed of 15 knots?

knots?

210119 10 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 17 4.6 tons 3.9 tons 2.8 tons 1.7 tons C 1
knots?
A pressure reading of 00.0 psig is theoretically equal 30.0 inches of 300 millimeters of
210120 1
to __________. vacuum water
14.7 psia 00.0 psia C 1
A turbine exhaust pressure of 14.7 psia is equal to

210120 3 00.000 psig 01.470 psig 07.350 psig 29.400 psig A 1
__________.
What is the gain in potential energy of an object

210121 1 weighing 10 pounds when it is raised to a height of 10 10 ft-lb 20 ft-lb 100 ft-lb 1000 ft-lb C 1
feet?
How much work would be accomplished if a 15

210121 2 pound box were raised to the top of a 25 foot 15 ft-lb 25 ft-lb 40 ft-lb 375 ft-lb D 1
platform?

What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 100 ft-lb (13.83 kg- 1000 ft-lb (138.25 kg-
210121 3
pounds (4.54 kg) at a height of 10 feet (3.05 m)?
10 ft-lb (1.38 kg-m) 20 ft-lb (2.76 kg-m)
m) m)
C 1
A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 8 inches

210122 1 of water. This corresponds to a pressure of .288 psi .433 psi .688 psi .833 psi A 1
__________.
A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 6 inches

210122 2 of water. This corresponds to a pressure of .216 psi .288 psi .433 psi .688 psi A 1
__________.
A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates nine (9)

210122 3 inches of water. This corresponds to a pressure of 0.216 psi 0.228 psi 0.325 psi 0.433 psi C 1
__________.
A machine capable of producing 1650 foot-pounds of

210125 1 work per second is considered to produce how much 1 hp 2 hp 3 hp 4 hp C 1
horsepower?
A gear train is constructed with only two gears: a 2-
inch (50.5 mm) diameter driving gear and a driven
12 inches (304.8 24 inches (609.6 48 inches (1219.2
210126 2 bull gear to rotate a propeller at 200 rpm. If the speed 6 inches (152.4 mm) D 1
mm) mm) mm)
of the driving gear is 4,800 rpm, what is the diameter
of the driven gear?
The speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be

smaller diameter larger diameter drive
210128 1 increased without changing the motor speed by using smaller diameter fan larger diameter fan D 1
drive pulley pulley
a __________.
How many BTUs must be added to one pound of

210129 1
water at 32°F to raise the temperature to 212°F?
16 BTU's 144 BTU's 180 BTU's 970 BTU's C 1
A ballast pump with a capacity of 200 gpm (757 lpm)

is used to fill a ballast tank with seawater. If the pump
48.53 (49.32 t 51.58 (52.43 t
210130 1 discharges seawater into the tank for one hour, how 45.85 (46.5 t metric) 54.38 (55.3 t metric) A 1
metric) metric)
many tons of saltwater ballast have been taken
onboard?
A ballast pump, with a capacity of 200 gpm, takes
suction on a tank containing 300 long tons of sea
210130 2 45.83 long tons 91.66 long tons 183.32 long tons 254.17 long tons D 1
water ballast. How much ballast will remain in the
tank after pumping for one hour?

A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 gpm.

If suction is taken on a ballast tank containing 200
210130 3
long tons of seawater, how much water will be remain
45.83 long tons 101.63 long tons 154.16 long tons 199.87 long tons C 1
in the tank after discharging for one hour?
The capacity of a particular ballast pump is 200

210130 4 gallons per minute. Approximately how long will it 1.5 hours 2.0 hours 2.5 hours 3.0 hours A 1
take to ballast a tank with 68.5 long tons of seawater?
The capacity of a fuel oil transfer pump is 100 gpm. If
a fuel oil setting tank measures 6 feet by 6 feet by 12
210130 5 24 minutes 28 minutes 32 minutes 36 minutes A 1
feet high, how long must the pump run to fill the tank
to 11 feet, if the tank presently holds 2 feet of fuel?
What would be the final mean draft in sea water of a
210130 6 4 feet, 2 inches 5 feet, 2 inches 6 feet, 2 inches 7 feet, 2 inches A 1
10 foot by 10 foot by 50 foot long barge weighing 10
A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 gpm.
If suction is taken on a ballast tank containing 200
210130 7
long tons of seawater, how much water will be remain
45.83 long tons 101.63 long tons 154.16 long tons 199.87 long tons C 1
in the tank after discharging for one hour?
A fuel oil settler is 35 feet 4 inches (10.7696 m) long, 127,338.99 bbls 101,164.79 bbls 3,031.99 bbls 2,408.35 bbls
210131 1 D 1
25 feet 10 inches ( 7.8740 m) wide, and 19 feet (20245.24 cubic (16083.87 cubic (482.05 cubic (382.95 cubic
A fuel oil settler is 35 feet 4 inches long, 25 feet 10
inches wide, and 19 feet deep. The noon sounding
210131 2 showed a level of 15 feet 2 inches. The oil meter 2,408.69 bbls 3,031.88 bbls 3,235.79 bbls 3,763.12 bbls A 1
reads 6517 at that time and 8911 at 1600. How many
barrels of fuel oil remained in the settler at 1600?
210133 1 A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to __________. 1,000 pounds 2,000 short tons 2,240 pounds 500 short tons D 1
A tank of a MODU, with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet,

210133 2 is pressed up with sea water weighing 64 pounds per 54 kips 67 kips 78 kips 128 kips D 1
cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?
In diagram "A", shown in the illustration, at what draft
210135 1 9 ft 6 ft 3 ft None of the above SF-0024 A 1
does the vessel displace 3000 tons?
In diagram "A", shown in the illustration, what is the 1000 tons (1016.47 2000 tons (2032.94 3000 tons (3049.41 4000 tons (4065.88
210135 3 SF-0024 B 1
displacement of the vessel when it is at a six foot t) t) t) t)
A vessel has a mean draft of 28 feet 08 inches before
taking bunkers. What will be the final aft draft after
210137 2
taking on nine hundred tons of fuel oil, if the TPI
30 feet 00 inches 30 feet 02 inches 30 feet 04 inches 30 feet 08 inches C 1
immersion is 50 and the final forward draft is 30 feet
The distillate pump for a 12000 GPD evaporator,

210138 1 8.3 gpm 200 gpm 300 gpm 500 gpm A 1
should be rated at a minimum of __________.
The distillate pump for a 10000 GPD evaporator,

210138 2 5.9 gpm 6.9 gpm 208.3 gpm 416.7 gpm B 1
should be rated at a minimum of __________.

According to the illustrated water filled U-tube draft

210139 1 gage, what is the converted draft reading in pounds .072 psi .144 psi .216 psi .324 psi GS-0115 B 1
per square inch?
The barge shown in the illustration is 40' X 20' X
10'and weighs 22.9 long tons when empty. The
What is the weight of the empty barge shown in the
illustration if it is currently drawing one foot of salt
The barge shown in the illustration is 40' X 20' X 10'
(12.192 m X 6.096 m X 3.048 m ) and weighs 22.9
19.4 long tons (19.72 49.1 long tons (49.91 91.4 long tons (92.91 94.1 long tons (95.65
210140 5 long tons (23.28 t) when empty. It has been loaded to
t) t) t) t)
GS-0157 C 1
a draft of 5 feet (1.524 m) in salt water. How many
long tons of cargo have been added?
(12.192 m X 6.096 m X 3.048 m) and weighs 22.9
long tons when empty. It has been loaded to a draft of
8 feet in salt water. How many long tons of cargo
210140 7 100 long tons 120 long tons 140 long tons 160 long tons GS-0157 D 1
and weighs 22.8 long tons when empty. What would
The ball float shown in the illustration is 9 inches in
diameter, with an effective float arm of 27 inches and
210144 1
floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 1.0. How
120 inch pounds 143 inch pounds 180 inch pounds 243 inch pounds GS-0158 C 1
much operating torque will be available?

210144 2 120 inch pounds 200 inch pounds 240 inch pounds 280 inch pounds GS-0158 D 1
floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.5. What is
the available operating torque?

diameter, with an effective float arm of 31.5 inches
210144 3 94.5 inch-pounds 100.8 inch-pounds 121.4 inch-pounds 220.5 inch-pounds GS-0158 A 1
and floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.95.
What is the operating torque of the system?

210144 4 floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 1.0. If the 6.6 pounds 20.1 pounds 28.2 pounds 43.5 pounds GS-0158 B 1
distance "L" equals 9 inches, what will be the force
available
The at point
ball float shown"X"?
in the illustration is 9 inches in
diameter and is floats in a liquid with a specific gravity
210145 1 36 108 162 324 GS-0158 A 1
of 0.9. If the effective length (EL) is 18 inches and "L"
is 3 inches,
The ball floathow many
shown in pounds of forcehas
the illustration willabe
circumference of 18.85" and is used in water with a
specific gravity of 1.0. If 16 pounds of force is
available at "X", and the effective length of the float

Which unit of measurement is used to measure

210151 1
mechanical potential energy?
British thermal units Horsepower Foot-pounds Calories C 1
The heat required to raise the temperature of a unit

specific heat
210151 2 mass of a substance one degree is called its latent heat entropy adiabatic heat A 1
capacity
__________.
By which of the listed methods may heat be
210152 1 Radiation Convection Conduction All of the above D 1
transferred from one body to another?
The conductivity of Transfer of heat is The amount of heat
The size of the heat
Which of the statements best describes the process the heat source accomplished by available in the
210153 2 sink establishes the B 1
of heat transfer by conduction? controls the final passing through source controls the
final temperature.
temperature. solid material final temperature.
rate of heat transfer total heat contained
Temperature measurement is an indication of the total heat of a
210154 1 level of heat intensity from one substance in any closed energy A 1
__________. substance
to another system
The heat added at line #5 shown in the illustration the latent heat of the latent heat of
210155 1 superheat sublimation SG-0001 A 1
represents __________. fusion only vaporization
Which line on the graph shown in the illustration

210155 2 Line 1 Line 2 Line 3 Line 4 SG-0001 B 1
indicates latent heat of fusion?
Which segment of the graph shown in the illustration

210155 3
represents the latent heat of fusion?
line 4 Line 3 Line 2 Line 1 SG-0001 C 1
The sum of the sensible heat and the latent heat of

210156 1 total heat residual heat specific heat superheat A 1
any substance is known as __________.
The heat identified by only a change in temperature is

210157 1 sensible heat latent heat total heat residual heat A 1
known as __________.
The heat required to change a substance from a solid

210158 1 to a liquid while at its freezing temperature, is known fusion vaporization condensation sublimation A 1
as the latent heat of __________.
The heat required to change a substance from a
210158 2 fusion vaporization sublimation condensation B 1
liquid to a gas without experiencing a temperature
Heat which brings about a change in the physical
210158 3 state of a substance without a change in temperature, specific heat sensible heat latent heat ambient heat C 1
is called __________.

Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be

210158 4 added to a substance in order to change it from a solid to liquid liquid to vapor solid to vapor all of the above D 1
__________.
At what temperature would the reading on the
16 degrees above 32 degrees below 40 degrees below 64 degrees below
210160 1 Fahrenheit scale and the Centigrade scale be
zero zero zero zero
C 1
identical?
A temperature reading of 72 degrees on the
210160 3
Fahrenheit scale would correspond to what
18 degrees 20 degrees 22 degrees 24 degrees C 1
A safety valve with a 2-inch diameter disk has a
210161 1 95 psig 191 psig 382 psig 764 psig D 1
compressed spring applying 2,400 pounds of force to
In terms of liquid volume, approximately how many
210170 1
"Liters" equal one US "Gallon"?
1.75 2.75 3.75 4.75 C 1
In terms of linear measurement, approximately how

210170 2 29.4 39.4 49.4 59.4 B 1
many "inches" equal one "meter"?
When applying weight conversion factors,
210170 3 2.2 3.2 4.2 5.2 A 1
approximately how many US "pounds" equal one
In terms of metric pressure conversion, an absolute
210170 6 pressure of 1 "bar" would be approximately equal to 3.5 7.5 10.5 14.5 D 1
what value "psia"?
When converting metric pressure values, an absolute
210170 7 21 41 61 101 D 1
pressure of 7 "bars" would be approximately equal to
In terms of metric pressure conversion, approximately
210170 8 1.5 4.5 10.5 14.5 D 1
what value of "psi" equals one "bar"?
If the compressor assembly was operated as shown
in figure #5 of illustration GS-0159, which bearing GS-0159
210196 1 (a) (b) (c) (d) D 1
wear pattern would most likely develop for the motor GS-0174
pulley bearing shown in illustration GS-0174?
If the compressor assembly was operated as shown GS-0159
210196 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) A 1
in figure #3 of illustration GS-0159, which bearing GS-0174
As shown in the illustration, what would be the
recommended grease replenishment interval for a 5
210197 1
1⁄2 inch radial ball bearing operating under normal
2000 hours 3000 hours 6000 hours 8000 hours GS-0176 C 1
load at approximately 1000 rpm?
A machinery vibration monitoring program can be measuring output frequency spectrum pressure differential
210198 1 thermal radiography B 1
used to identify bearing defects by _______. torque analysis analysis
Machinery vibration sensing devices are commonly resistance frequency
210199 1
identified as _______.
transducers
temperature devices
accelerometers
synthesizers
C 1
Which of the listed methods of heat transfer takes
210200 1 Radiation Conduction Convection Each of the above B 1
place when two substances of different temperatures
By which of the listed methods may heat be

210200 2 Radiation Convection Conduction All of the above D 1
transferred from one body to another?
210200 3 Heat may be transferred by __________. conduction convection radiation all of the above D 1

The two objects The two objects There must be an There must be an
Which of the following conditions must exist for heat
210201 1
to flow from one object to another?
must be in physical must be the same existing temperature existing weight C 1
contact. size. differential. differential.
Which of the following statements is correct Heat is given off Heat transfer rate is Heat transfer rate is Heat transfer by
210201 2
concerning heat transfer? from a high affected most by the affected most by the radiation will occur
C 1
temperature
The rate of heat transfer from a hot region to a cold size of the heat total heat of the
210201 3 size of the heat sink difference between B 1
region is affected most by the __________. source system
the regions
The action of water circulating within a natural furnace flame water density
210202 3 tube wall conduction gas convection D 1
circulation boiler, is the direct result of ______. radiation differences
The transfer of heat within a solid, caused by the

210202 4 radiation conduction convection condo-radiation B 1
application of thermal energy, is called ___________.
Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as

210203 1 horsepower work heat velocity B 1
__________.
Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as

210203 2
__________.
enthalpy heat work velocity C 1
Which of the following modes of heat transfer does

210204 1 NOT require any physical contact between a warmer Radiation Conduction Natural convection All of the above A 1
and a cooler substance?
Which of the following modes of heat transfer does
210204 2 NOT require any physical contact between a warmer Radiation Conduction Lamination All of the above A 1
and a cooler substance?
amount of force distance through
amount of work
210205 1 Power is defined as the __________. rate of doing work needed to overcome which an object is A 1
accomplished
friction moved
The energy associated with molecules is known as

210207 1 kinetic energy potential energy mechanical energy thermal energy D 1
__________.
The energy associated with atoms forming molecules

210207 2 kinetic energy potential energy mechanical energy chemical energy D 1
is known as __________.
Thermal energy is commonly referred to as

210209 1 heat power horsepower foot-pound A 1
__________.

If 1 Horsepower equals 42.45 BTU's per minute, then

the energy required to lift a 1 pound (.454 kg) weight,
1 ounce (28.3 g) of 1 quart (.95 l) of 1 gallon (3.78 l) of 1 pound (.454 kg) of
210210 1 778 feet (.24 km), against the force of gravity, would D 1
water 1°F (.55°C) water 1°F (.55°C) water 1°F (.55°C) water 1°F (.55°C)
be the same as the number of BTU's required to raise
the temperature of __________.
The type of heat indicated in section "2" in the
210211 1 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II SG-0001 B 1
illustration is known as __________.
The type of heat indicated in section "4" in the
illustration is known as __________.
210211 2 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II SG-0001 C 1
I. latent heat of condensation II. latent heat of
The heat removed from a fluid as indicated by line "3"
210211 3 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II SG-0001 A 1
in the illustration is known as __________.
Elevation of heat
Machinery operating features are designed to help
Insulation of hot Lubrication of exchanger
210212 1 conserve energy. Which of the following results will Reduction of friction. D 1
surfaces. moving parts. overboard outlet
not contribute to energy conservation?
temperatures.
Which of the following terms is used to indicate that

210213 1 the addition of heat will result in a temperature Latent heat Sensible heat Sublimation heat Critical point heat B 1
change?
Which of the following terms is used to indicate that

210213 2
additional BTU's will result in a temperature change?
Critical point heat Sublimation heat Sensible heat Latent heat C 1
A vapor under pressure stays in contact with, and at

210214 1 equilibrium contact latent contact critical state superheated state A 1
the same temperature as the liquid from which it was
The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature specific heat
210215 1
of a unit mass of a substance 1° is known as
latent heat sensible heat
capacity
variable heat C 1
Which of the following terms would best describe the
Saturation Superheated
210216 1 temperature at which a liquid boils at a given Degree of saturation Degree of superheat B 1
temperature temperature
pressure?
The total quantity of
Energy can be
Which of the following statements concerning energy Energy may not be energy in the
210217 1
is correct?
created or
transformed. universe is always
None of the above. C 1
destroyed.
the same.
Which of the listed values represents the temperature
210218 1 of saturated vapor for water at a pressure of 14.7 198°F (92°C) 212°F (100°C) 335°F (168°C) 414°F (212°C) B 1
psia?
Which of the listed values represents the temperature
210218 2 198°F (92°C) 212°F (100°C) 335°F (168°C) 414°F (212°C) B 1
at which water will change to saturated vapor at a
The equation 'energy in = energy out' is a simple way conservation of conservation of conversion of matter conversion of energy
210219 1 A 1
of stating the principle of the __________. energy matter to energy to matter
A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed
container in which water has been heated to a both pressure and pressure alone will temperature alone only a change of
210221 1 A 1
temperature of 212°F. If additional thermal energy is temperature will rise rise will rise state will occur
imparted, what changes will occur to the pressure

Which of the following forms of energy is usually

210222 1 Chemical energy Kinetic energy Thermal energy Electrical energy B 1
associated with the motion of large bodies or objects?
Which of the following forms of energy concerns the

210224 2
forces which bind atoms together in a molecule?
Thermal energy Mechanical energy Chemical energy Kinetic energy C 1
The evaporation rate The flow of liquid to The vapor must be The operating
210225 1
must be increased. the unfired pressure removed from pressure must be
C 1
The definition of superheat refers to the amount of
heat a substance contains and applies to
210225 3 __________. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A 1
I. vapors II. Solids

Which of the following forms of energy is released
210226 2 Chemical energy Mechanical energy Potential energy Electrical energy A 1
through the process of fuel combustion?
Which of the following terms could be applied to the

210228 1 Electrical energy Thermal energy Potential energy Kinetic energy D 1
simple definition 'the energy of motion'?
The top, front, and right side views of three different
210301 1 objects are shown in the illustration. In which object #2 #16 #21 All of the above GS-0004 D 1
are all three views correct and complete?
The illustrated drawing shows a correct front "F" and
top "T" view of an object. Of the views labeled
210303 1 "1","2","3", and "4", the one that correctly represents 1 2 3 4 GS-0132 B 1
the right side view for a third angle projection is
__________.
Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the
210305 1 1 2 3 4 GS-0003 D 1
one that correctly represents the right side view of the
Which drawing view or projection is shown in the

210307 1 cross-sectional orthographic isometric oblique GS-0001 A 1
illustration?
Which of the figures shown in the illustrations depicts

210309 1 A B C D GS-0142 A 1
an orthographic projection?
What is the length of the stud used to secure the

210351 1 1 inch 1 1/4 inches 1 1/2 inches 2 1/2 inches GS-0012 D 1
packing gland shown in the illustration?
Which of the devices listed can be used to measure

210352 1 Vernier Protractor Planimeter Compass B 1
any angle on a blueprint or drawing?
A tool used for measuring, or laying out angles is

210352 2 trammel protractor micrometer caliper rule B 1
called a __________.

In the illustration shown, what is the distance

210353 1 1 1/2 inches 1 3/4 inches 1 7/8 inches 2 inches GS-0001 B 1
indicated by dimension "I"?
What is the distance between the center of the
210355 1 34 5/8 inches 35 inches 35 5/8 inches 36 inches GS-0011 D 1
discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustrated?
What is the distance between the center of the

discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustrated?
The physical feature indicated for each of the smooth surfaced threaded with
smoothed surfaced
210356 1 smallest diameter ends of the device illustrated is that threaded with opposing opposing machined GS-0008 A 1
only
they are __________. machined flats flats
The maximum diameter of the device illustrated is
210356 2
__________.
In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the

210357 1 distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom 45 1/4 inches 45 5/16 inches 53 5/8 inches 57 5/8 inches GS-0011 D 1
end of the motor shaft?
The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand
210358 1 1/8 inch 1/4 inch 3/8 inch 1/2 inch GS-0010 A 1
limit sensor assembly shown in the illustration is
In the illustration shown, the notation 1/8"R indicates recess on one end of rough finish on both 45°Chamfer on both radius on one end of
210361 1 GS-0016 D 1
a one-eighth inch __________. the tool ends of the tool ends of the tool the tool
As shown in the illustration, the maximum shaft

210363 1
diameter is __________.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding The areas The areas The maximum Both ends of the
210365 3 GS-0008 A 1
the device shown in the illustration? dimensioned 0.64 in dimensioned 0.64 in diameter of the shaft shaft have 1 inch
The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall
length of 42 inches in addition to the following
dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8
3/16" The tapered length "X" is __________.
The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 42
inches. If the diameter of "E" = 4.750" and "F" = 6",
210369 2 with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the taper 6.000 inches 7.812 inches 8.000 inches 10.00 inches GS-0133 A 1
per foot, "L" = 1.5"; then the tapered length "X" is
__________.
inches. If the diameter of "F" = 6" and "X" = 6", with
210369 3 an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and a taper per foot 4.750 inches 6.000 inches 6.333 inches 7.812 inches GS-0133 A 1
of "L" = 1.5"; then the small diameter "E" is
__________.
210369 4 1.125 TPF 1.250 TPF 1.500 TPF 1.875 TPF GS-0133 A 1
inches. If the diameter of "E" = 4.75" and "F" = 6",
inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.50" and "F" =
210369 5 3.750", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the 5.000 inches 6.000 inches 8.000 inches 10.00 inches GS-0133 B 1
taper per foot, "L" = 1.5"; then the tapered length "X"
is __________.


inches. If the diameter of "F" = 3.75" and "X" = 6",
with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and a taper per
foot, of "L" = 1.5"; then the small diameter "E" is
inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.5" and "F" = 6", with
210369 7
an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the length of
"X" = 8"; then the TPF (taper per foot) is __________.
inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.5" and "F" = 3.5",
210369 8 with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the length 0.750" 0.833" 1.250" 1.500" GS-0133 A 1
of the tapered section "X" is to be 5"; then the amount
of tailstock offset should be _____?
inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.5" and "F" = 3.5",
210369 9 0.1110" 0.5625" 0.6250" 1.1250" GS-0133 B 1
with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the length
of the tapered section "X" is to be 8"; then the amount
The included angle of the chamfer in the knurled
210403 1 portion of the tube sizing tool illustration is 5° 10° 20° 30° GS-0014 D 1
__________.
In the illustrated drawing, the feature indicated by the
210405 1 camber radius taper chamfer GS-0016 D 1
measurement 1/8" is an example of __________.
In the illustration, the portion of the work piece which
210405 2 is indicated as being 7/8" in length, is an example of a uniform diameter radius taper chamfer GS-0016 C 1
__________.
In the illustrated drawing, what is the largest
210405 3 0.559 inch 0.565 inch 0.622 inch 0.625 inch GS-0016 D 1
maximum allowable diameter of the work piece?
In the illustration shown, what is the proper

210457 1 Counter bored Countersunk Counter drilled Spot faced GS-0015 A 1
description of the hole represented by "C"?
Which of the listed types of machined 'hole' is

210459 1
represented by "B" as shown in the illustration?
Counter bore Countersink Counter drill Spot face GS-0015 C 1
The tolerance of the largest diameter of the tool plus or minus .006 plus or minus .003 plus .000 inch to
210500 1 plus .003 inch GS-0016 D 1
shown in the illustration is __________. inch maximum inch maximum minus .003 inch
Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the
210501 1
outside diameter of the bushing illustrated?
.060 inch .002 inch .0005 inch 1.6015 inches GS-0017 C 1
Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the

210501 2
What is the allowable tolerance indicated on the

210501 3

The sectional lines drawn within the flange sections, direction of machine flange surface finish type of flange
210553 1 fit up of flange parts GS-0018 D 1
shown in the illustration, indicate the __________. cutting roughness material
As shown in the illustration, the total number of

210553 2 one three four five GS-0018 D 1
materials indicated is __________.
The section of flange illustrated and indicated as "D"

210553 3 van stone flange socket weld flange expansion flange threaded flange GS-0018 B 1
is a __________.
The needle valve (piece #3) shown in the illustration, machine screw
210605 1
is held in the test valve body (piece #2) by a
press fit spring loaded clamp
thread
fillet weld GS-0020 C 1
Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to clearance of .005 tolerance of .005
210607 1 interference fit running fit GS-0019 A 1
indicate a/an __________. inch inch
To make the pieces shown as "A" in the illustration a the piece with the do nothing, this is a an interference is not hone the shaft until
210607 2
locational interference fit, what will be necessary? hole must be heated close sliding fit but possible unless you the roughness value
GS-0019 C 1
do nothing, with a heat the shaft until

turn down the shaft
drill the hole eleven large enough the nominal diameter
In the illustration, the best way to make the pieces a in figure "B", four to
210607 3 thousandths of an hammer this will be a is two hundred and GS-0019 A 1
locational interference fit is to __________. five thousandths of
inch larger locational fifty thousandths of
an inch
interference fit an inch
The drawing labeled "A" in the illustration represents

210607 4 interference fit running fit basic shaft fit force fit GS-0019 B 1
a/an __________.
In the illustration, the best way to make the pieces Do nothing, this is drill the hole 0.010 heat the shaft until
turn the shaft down
210607 5 labeled "B" a locational interference fit is to already a locational inches larger to .260
.004 to .005 inches
the nominal diameter GS-0019 C 1
__________. interference fit inches is .250 inches
In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is
good metal-to-metal sealant between the compressing the
210651 1 maintained between the suction cover and the volute
contact two parts
an asbestos gasket
packing rings
GS-0012 C 1
by __________.
How many cap screws are used to secure the motor Cannot be
210651 3
bracket to the volute shown in the illustration?
One Three Four
determined from the
GS-0012 C 1
Which of the speeds listed represents the
210652 1 synchronous speed rating of the lube oil pump motor 1,000 RPM 1,150 RPM 1,200 RPM 1,250 RPM GS-0011 C 1
shown in the illustration?
A dimension line, as used in a drawing or blueprint, is
210653 1
represented by which of the figures shown in the
A B C D GS-0031 C 1
dashed lines having dashed lines having

Hidden edges in objects are represented in blueprints
210654 1 a thin solid line a thick solid line alternating long and approximately equal D 1
by __________.
short dashes length dashes
A hidden line in a drawing, or blueprint is represented

210654 2 A B C D GS-0031 D 1
in the illustration by which of the labeled lines?

In a schematic drawing, when an edge of a

210654 3 A B C D GS-0031 D 1
component is indicated as being located inside an
The crosshatch design on the end of piece "3" in the the piece is screwed the piece is made of piece #3 is knurled in piece #3 is made of
210657 1
illustration shown indicates that __________. into piece #2 mild carbon steel that area stainless steel
GS-0020 C 1
The lines indicated The lines indicated

In the illustration shown, which of the lines are The line indicated by The line indicated by
210658 1 by the letters "B" and by the letters "A" and GS-0033 D 1
considered as 'visible lines' in blueprint reading? letter "A" only. letter "B" only.
"D". "D".
a mechanical
Line "C" as shown in the illustration represents the diameter of the connection between the center of the
210658 4 a hidden line GS-0033 D 1
__________. hole the two items items illustrated
illustrated
In the illustration shown, which pair of letters
210659 2 represent the same physical surface of the B and C A and D A and B B and D GS-0033 D 1
component?
A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is

210660 1 represented by which of the figures shown in the A E D C GS-0031 B 1
illustration?
210661 1 In the illustration, line "C" is a __________. dimension line leader line cutting plane line phantom line GS-0006 A 1
The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a rod with a tube with a broken pipe with a missing bar with a sawn out
210662 1 GS-0028 A 1
metal __________. conventional break out section center section section
Hidden edges are
dashed line having dashed lines having
Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are not represented
210700 4
represented in blueprints by __________.
a thick solid line alternating long and approximately equal
because they are
C 1
short dashes length dashes
'hidden'.
Which of the projections represents the left side view
210701 1 A B C D GS-0022 A 1
of the object "X" in the illustration?
How many hidden lines are shown in the right side

210703 1 None Two Four Six GS-0021 A 1
(end) view of the drawing illustrated?
In the illustration, the reference to 3/4"R indicates that hole has a 3/4" hole has a 3/4" hole has a 3/4" notch has a 3/4"
210704 1
the __________. depth diameter radius width
GS-0021 C 1
hole layed out for
In the illustration, a hole is shown in the block. The blind hole with a 3/4" 1.5 inch diameterboring, but not
210705 1
shape of the hole is indicated as a __________. depth
tapered hole
fully bored hole completed until
GS-0021 C 1
needed
The illustration shown is called an exploded drawing internal shape of all total number of parts parts aligned in the disassembled
210707 1
and is intended to show the __________. component parts in the assembled correct order of component in a one
GS-0025 C 1
The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is total number of parts parts aligned for the disassembled parts without using
210707 2 GS-0025 B 1
intended to show the __________. in the assembled correct order of component in a one hidden lines

disassembled
total number of parts parts aligned for the
The exploded view of the drawing shown in the component in a one parts without using
210707 3 in the assembled correct order of GS-0025 B 1
illustration is intended to show the __________. point perspective hidden lines
component reassembly
view
disassembled
total number of
The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is component parts components in a cross section view of
210707 4 hidden parts in the GS-0025 B 1
intended to show the __________. aligned for assembly orthographic the hidden parts
assembly
perspective
Dimension "X" indicated on the architects scale,

210751 1 5 feet 3/4 inch 5 feet 4 inches 83 feet 93 1/4 feet GS-0023 B 1
shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________.
The dimension indicated on the 1/2 inch architects

210751 2 scale, shown in the illustration, will be equal to 9 feet - 3.5 inches 5 feet - 3.5 inches 3 feet - 1.5 inches 2 feet - 3.5 inches GS-0023 C 1
__________.
The welding symbol as shown in the illustration uses

210801 1
a circle to indicate a/an __________.
plug weld field weld all around weld round fillet weld GS-0030 C 1
The type of material A dimension A reference note The surfaces to be

210802 1 What does "G" represent in the illustration? GS-0017 D 1
used for the piece. tabulated elsewhere. shown elsewhere. ground.
designate the
Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail designate the type of specify the size of specify the direction
210803 1 welding GS-0030 B 1
of the welding symbol will __________. weldment weldment of welding
specifications
A groove must be The thread form to The surface should

Which of the conditions listed does the blueprint All surfaces are to be
210805 1 machined at the be machined on the be finished with a GS-0028 A 1
symbol shown in the illustration represent? finish machined.
points designated. bolt. welded overlay.

In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a

210856 1 hidden line cutting plane line outline centerline GS-0006 B 1
_________?
210858 1 In the illustration, line "K" is a __________. dimension line leader line cutting plane line phantom line GS-0006 D 1
210858 2 In the illustration, line "D" is a __________. center line hidden line cutting plane line dimension line GS-0006 B 1
210859 1 In the illustration, line "F" is a/an __________. assembly line break line cutting plane line phantom line GS-0006 B 1
210860 1 In the illustration, line "B" is a/an __________. hidden line sectioning line outline phantom line GS-0006 C 1
210860 2 In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________. hidden line sectioning line outline phantom line GS-0006 A 1
The minimum length of dimension "C" shown in the

210870 1 27/32 inch 11/16 inch 21/32 inch 33/64 inch GS-0014 D 1
illustration is __________.
The minimum length of dimension "C" shown in the

illustration is __________.
210871 2 A "twenty pound" steel plate would be __________. 3/8" thick 1/2" thick 3/4" thick 1" thick B 1
The letters 'NPT' used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as

210901 1 thread series thread profile class of finish class of fit GS-0010 A 1
shown in the illustration, indicates the __________.
In the illustration shown, the letters "UNC" used in the

210902 1 thread profile thread series class of finish class of fit GS-0037 B 1
notation "1/4-20 UNC- 2" indicates the __________.
When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic

actual inside actual outside size for threaded
210903 1 system, the nominal pipe size of the piping always wall thickness D 1
diameter diameter connections
indicates the __________.
What class of screw thread is indicated with a

210904 1 2-Jan 13 NC 2 D 1
machine screw described as 1/2- 13 NC-2?
In the illustration shown, the last numeral in the

210904 2
notation 1/4-20 NC-2 indicates the __________.
thread is right hand thread is left hand class of thread fit class of thread finish GS-0036 C 1

can not be
national coarse
210905 1 The type of thread illustrated is a/an __________. acme thread square thread determined from GS-0038 B 1
thread
information provided
The thread machined on the device illustrated is a/an one-eighth inch right- one inch, right-hand one-eighth inch, left- one inch, left-hand
210906 1 GS-0038 D 1
__________. hand national coarse national coarse hand national coarse national coarse
In the thread notation shown in the illustration, the "1" the length of the
210907 1
preceding '8NC-LH' represents __________.
a single thread the thread pitch the outside diameter
threaded section
GS-0038 C 1
In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard

the use of internal
210908 1 blueprint symbols above the letters "A", "B", and "C" hole tolerance finished diameter interference fit GS-0036 A 1
threads
indicate __________.
A flat piece of sheet metal can be fastened to the flat head
210908 2 device illustrated and would require the use of which pop rivet countersunk carriage bolt cap screw GS-0036 D 1
listed type of fastener? machine screw
A flat piece of thin sheet metal fastened to the device

countersunk flat round head machine
210908 3 illustrated, would most likely require the use of which fitted or body bolt molly screw GS-0036 B 1
head, Phillip screw screw
listed type of fastener?
The lathe tool shown as figure "B" in the illustration is right hand roughing round nose turning
210950 1
called a __________. tool
cutting-off tool
tool
left hand facing tool GS-0009 C 1
The lathe tool shown in the illustration as figure "P" is

210950 2 round nose tool universal tool parting tool right hand facing tool GS-0090 A 1
a __________.
Which of the listed illustrated figures represents the

210950 3 Figure P Figure S Figure T Figure V GS-0090 A 1
use of a lathe finishing tool?
Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to

210950 4 A B C G GS-0009 B 1
turn down the stock in figure II?
In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for 60° thread cutting
210951 1 drill points screw threads screw thread pitch D 1
checking the angle of __________. tools
The tool shown in the illustration is called a

210951 2 center gage thread gage crotch center drill gage GS-0072 A 1
__________.

Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best

210952 1 be used on a work piece to perform a right hand P V Q R GS-0090 D 1
facing operation?
Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best
210952 2
be used on a work piece to perform a left hand facing
P V Q R GS-0090 C 1
The lathe tool shown as "Q" in the illustration is a left hand side facing right hand turning
210953 1 cutting-off tool universal turning tool GS-0090 B 1
__________. tool tool
The lathe tool shown as figure "Q" in the illustration is left-cut, side-facing right hand turning
210953 2 cutting-off tool universal turning tool GS-0090 B 1
commonly known as a/an __________. tool tool
The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is left cut side-facing right side end facing
210953 3 cutoff or parting tool universal turning tool GS-0090 A 1
The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is right-cut roughing left-cut side-facing right-cut threading
210953 4 left-cut roughing tool GS-0090 A 1
commonly known as a/an __________. tool tool tool
The lathe tool shown as figure "S" in the illustration is right-cut roughing right-cut side-facing
210953 5 left-cut threading tool left-cut roughing tool GS-0090 D 1
The lathe tool shown as figure "Q" in the illustration is right-cut roughing left-cut side-facing right-cut side-facing
210953 7 left-cut roughing tool GS-0090 B 1
The lathe tool shown as figure "Q" in the illustration is left hand rough side right hand rough machining a smooth
210953 8 cutting-off GS-0090 B 1
commonly used for __________. facing turning surface
The lathe tool shown as figure "O" in the illustration is
210953 9 cutting acme threads left hand side facing right hand turning grooving GS-0090 D 1
commonly used for __________.
The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration universal turning
210953 11 forming tools cutting-off tools parting tools GS-0090 A 1
are commonly known as ________. tools
The lathe tool shown as figure "L" in the illustration is external threading internal threading
210953 12
commonly known as a/an __________.
boring tool
tool tool
universal turning tool GS-0090 C 1
The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or

210953 13 checked surface on round stock in a lathe is called checkering crosshatching knurling swaging C 1
__________.
The tool shown in the illustration is called a

210954 1 center gage thread gage crotch center drill gage GS-0072 A 1
__________.
The main difference between a common lathe dog is more easily has a headless set has a spring loaded allows for misaligned
210956 1 B 1
and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________. centered screw catch center holes

A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw, is known

210956 2
as a __________.
clamp lathe dog standard lathe dog safety lathe dog common lathe dog C 1
Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of

210958 1
a right hand roughing tool?
Figure P Figure S Figure T Figure V GS-0090 C 1

210958 4
correct use of a lathe threading tool?
Figures L/P Figures L/U Figures V/L Figures V/P GS-0090 C 1
Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to

210958 6 A B D E GS-0009 D 1
produce figure V?
The lathe tool shown as figure "L" in the illustration is external threading internal threading
210958 25
boring tool
tool tool
universal turning tool GS-0090 C 1
The jaws on the The three-jaw chuck Since the three-jaw
Which of the following statements represents the The jaws on the four-
three-jaw chuck can will hold square, universal chuck is
210960 1 difference between a four-jaw independent chuck and jaw chuck can be B 1
be individually round, and irregular automatically self-
a three- jaw universal chuck? individually adjusted.
adjusted. shapes in either a centering, it is
must be removed by fits into the dead

A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name is dead centered on
210963 1 does not revolve clamping in the center of the work B 1
because it __________. the tailstock spindle
chuck piece
If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the

take a deeper cut in
210964 1 illustration are excessively increased, the tool will chatter take a shallow cut slip in the tool post GS-0085 A 1
the work
__________.
If you are machining work held between lathe
change the cutting run the lathe at a
210966 1 centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you lubricate the centers stop the lathe B 1
bit slower speed
should first __________.
For proper support when turning a long thin piece of
210968 1 work between lathe centers, you should use a faceplate steady rest draw-in collet chuck compound rest B 1
__________.
The lathe steady rest is normally used for supporting short heavy casting long work piece for short work piece tubular work piece
210968 2 B 1
one end of a __________. held in a three jaw facing, drilling, and being machined to being parted
When machining a long piece of work between make sure that the correct for expansion make sure that the make sure the
210968 3 B 1
centers, you must __________. lathe dog is securely of the work by work is only tailstock is tight
A follower rest should be used with a lathe to large diameter stock threads on long work mounted on the round stock to a
210969 1 B 1
machine __________. between centers slender shafts lathe carriage finished dimension

The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is left cut side-facing right side end facing
210971 1 cutting-off tool universal turning tool GS-0090 A 1
Which of the listed illustrated figures would not
210971 2 normally be used for rough or finish turning Figure T Figure S Figure P Figure U GS-0090 D 1
operations?
210972 1 A D F G GS-0009 A 1
produce a smooth finish cut for figure I?
The lathe tool shown as figure "A" in the illustration is round nose turning right hand turning
210972 2 left cut finishing tool right hand facing tool GS-0009 A 1
called a __________. tool tool
The lathe tool shown as figure "S" in the illustration is right-cut roughing left-cut side-facing right-cut side-facing
210972 3 left-cut roughing tool GS-0090 D 1
The lathe tool shown as figure "R" in the illustration perform a right-cut form a left-cut form a right-cut perform a left-cut
210973 1
would best be used to __________. rough turning groove square shoulder rough turning
GS-0090 C 1

210973 2
produce a rough cut for figure I?
B C F G GS-0009 C 1

210973 3 A B C F GS-0009 D 1
lathe tool used for facing figure VI?
210973 4 produce a rough cut to the left for the stock in figure C D E F GS-0009 D 1
IV?
The lathe tool shown as figure "R" in the illustration is right-cut roughing left-cut side-facing right-cut side-facing
210973 5
left-cut roughing tool GS-0090 C 1

210973 6 A B C F GS-0009 D 1
lathe tool used for facing figure VI?
210973 8 produce a rough cut to the left for the stock in figure C D E F GS-0009 D 1
IV?
Figure E toolbit
Figure G toolbit Figure F toolbit Figure A toolbit
Which of the following statements is true concerning would be used to
210973 9
the illustration shown? face off work piece
would be fed from would be fed from would be fed from GS-0009 C 1
right to left right to left left to right
labeled VI
The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is right-cut roughing left-cut side-facing right-cut side-facing
210974 1 left-cut knurling tool GS-0090 A 1
The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration curvature cutting universal turning
210975 1 form tools parting tools GS-0090 A 1
are commonly known as __________. tools tools

The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is

210976 1 hurling tool curling tool furling tool knurling tool GS-0090 D 1
The lathe tool shown as figure "O" in the illustration is

210977 1 cutting-off left hand side facing right hand turning grooving GS-0090 D 1
commonly used for __________.
Which of the illustrated lathe tools should be used to
210977 2 B D E G GS-0009 D 1
produce the groove in the stock in figure VII?
The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is

210978 1 working relief angle side relief angle side rake angle nose angle GS-0164 D 1
properly called the __________.
The angle "D" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is

210978 2 working relief angle side relief angle side rake angle nose angle GS-0164 A 1
The angle "B" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is
210978 3
working relief angle side relief angle side rake angle nose angle GS-0164 C 1
The angle "C" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is

210978 4 working relief angle side relief angle side rake angle nose angle GS-0164 B 1
Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe

210979 1 crotch center chuck lathe dog spindle B 1
centers is usually held in a __________.
The thread form shown in the illustration is called

210980 1 Buttress thread Whitworth thread Acme thread Sharp V-thread GS-0087 D 1
a/an __________.
The illustrated thread form would be used with a/an pump shaft coupling schedule 80 heavy 3/4-10 NC threaded
210981 1 lathe lead screw GS-0088 B 1
__________. nut iron pipe stock
The thread form shown in the illustration is called
210982 1
a/an __________.
Whitworth thread Square thread Acme thread Standard thread GS-0088 C 1
The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is

210983 1 guide (swivel) bar automatic cross feed tailstock off center compound rest angle A 1
determined by setting the __________.
To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work
210984 1 3/8 inch 1/2 inch 3/4 inch 7/8 inch A 1
piece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over

A piece of tapered round stock 36 inches long, 4

inches in diameter at the large end and 2 1/2 inches
210984 2 0.375 inch 0.750 inch 1.500 inch 2.500 inch B 1
in diameter at the small end. What tailstock set over
was used to machine the taper?
In order to convert taper per inch to taper per foot,
210984 3 subtract 12 add 12 divide by 12 multiply by 12 D 1
you should __________.
The best tool to use to measure the number of pair of outside
210985 1
threads per inch on a bolt is a __________.
micrometer tap screw pitch gauge
calipers
C 1
The best method of determining the number of

screw thread
210985 2 threads per inch of a bolt or screw would be through thread tool gage machinist's scale screw pitch gage
micrometer
C 1
the use of a __________.
The distance the tool The distance from The distance the The chip length that
Which of the following definitions accurately advances with each the bottom of the cut work piece will be removed from
210990 1 A 1
describes 'tool feed' when referring to lathe work? revolution of the to the uncut surface circumference the work in one
work. of the work piece. moves past the minute.
Extend or retract the
From the illustration shown, what would be the Rock the tool holder Remove the tool bit Use the Tailstock
210992 1 tool bit in the tool GS-0164 A 1
normal procedure to make adjustments to angle "E"? on its base. and regrind. Offset method.
holder.
Which of the listed numeric values represents the
211000 1 #0 #1 #60 #80 D 1
smallest size drill?
Which of the drill sizes listed represents the largest
211002 1
size drill?
A X Z XX C 1
A set of numbered A set of fractional A set of fractional
Which of the drill sets listed would commonly be A set of lettered size
211003 1
referred to as a 'Jobbers Set'?
size drills from 1 to
drills from A to Z.
size drills from 1/16'' size drills from 1/2'' C 1
60. to 1/2''. to 2''.
No two drills from differing drill sets are of the exact
211004 1 No. 1 drill "E" drill No. 80 drill "A" drill B 1
same size, with the exception of the drills measured
A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation have a severely have been placed in
211005 1 be bent all the above D 1
may __________. worn shank the chuck off center
If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will

211101 1
__________.
cut faster cut slower rapidly dull not cut C 1
Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the too much cutting not enough cutting too much clearance not enough margin
211101 2
cutting edges of a drill bit is the result of the drill speed speed angle width
C 1
Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the
insufficient feed not enough cutting too much clearance not enough margin
211101 3 cutting edges of a drill bit is the result of the drill
pressure speed angle width
C 1
having __________.
Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop use a tapered drill to the large drill to the small
211102 1
practice to follow is to __________. reamer diameter of the taper diameter of the taper
bore a straight hole C 1
To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the
211103 1 collet V-block clamp morse sleeve B 1
axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a
Failing to decrease the feed pressure on a drill as its break cleanly cut an elongated form a tapered hole jam in the work piece
211104 1 D 1
point begins to break through the bottom of the work through the bottom hole in the bottom of in the bottom of the and tend to whirl it
If a drill press is used to completely bore through a the drill bit from drilling undersized over speeding the
211104 2 overheating the drill A 1
metal plate, feed pressure on the drill bit should be jamming and holes spindle

When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press,

moving the working adjusting the spindle
211105 1 the proper method of stopping the progress of the drill using a depth stop gaging chuck motion B 1
table return spring
boring through the work is by __________.
move the drive belt move the drive belt change the terminal
One of the steps required to increase the drilling change to a larger
211106 1 to a smaller diameter to a smaller diameter connections of the B 1
speed of a drill press is to __________. diameter spindle
motor pulley spindle pulley drive motor
A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press
211107 1 taper punch drill drift vice grip leather mallet B 1
spindle with a __________.
When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a slightly larger than equal to at least 1/2 smaller than the small enough to
211109 1 A 1
smaller hole first is a good practice. This is called a the web thickness of the diameter of the dead center of chisel ensure the maximum
provide a path for allow the use of a
When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, a smaller ensure the maximum increase the cutting
211109 2 the dead center of drill with a lesser lip B 1
pilot hole should be drilled first to __________. cut by the large drill speed of the drill bit
the drill clearance angle
Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location

211113 1 marked with chalk center punched scribed blued B 1
of the hole center should be __________.
All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or

211114 1
held in a __________.
drill socket tapered sleeve drill chuck morse sleeve C 1
If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different hole will be hole will be drill will seize
211115 1 drill will not cut B 1
angles, the __________. oversized undersized immediately
If the drill point lips are ground at different angles, the overheat rapidly from cut an oversized jam in the hole and
211115 2 cut a continuous chip B 1
drill will __________. rubbing hole break
If the drill point lips are of unequal length, the drill will jam in the hole and cut an oversized overheat rapidly from
211115 3
wobble and __________.
cut a continuous chip
break hole rubbing
C 1
If the point angle of a drill is less than 59°, the hole will be drilled hole will take longer drill will not center drill will cut
211115 4 B 1
__________. too large to drill properly undersized
As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a the bit tip has not insufficient force has a continuous chip is
the bit is too large for
211115 5 squeaking sound from the tip of the bit indicates been properly been applied on the being taken by the B 1
the hole
__________. ground drill bit drill bit
Which of the following problems will cause a twist drill Improper lip Improper cutting Improper clearance
211115 6 All of the above D 1
to cut improperly? clearance angle angle

For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the

211116 2 29° 45° 90° 118° D 1
correct included angle of a drill point is __________.
Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a
211118 1
hole in metal, the harder the metal, the greater should
diameter lip clearance included point angle cutting speed C 1
Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled

211119 1 Steel Brass Monel Tungsten B 1
without lubrication?
When drilling holes in metal, which of the materials

211119 2 Tool steel Cast iron Mild steel Cast steel B 1
listed does not have to be lubricated?
For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the

211119 3 Lard oil Soluble oil Kerosene None of the above D 1
cutting lubricants is it necessary to use?
A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a
211120 1 center drill finish drill broach reamer D 1
__________.
Which of the following procedures is used to bring a
211120 2 Coring Boring Broaching Reaming D 1
hole to finished size with high accuracy?
The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge

211120 3
a slightly undersized hole, is called a __________.
round out round file reamer hole driller C 1
211121 1 Which material can be drilled at the highest speed? Aluminum Medium cast iron Copper High carbon steel A 1
The cutting surface

If you have to completely grind a new point on a high The 59° angle will be
The edges will be Cracks may appear will become
211122 1 speed drill, which of the following could happen if it is
dulled.
lost due to metal
in the metal. annealed by the cold
C 1
cooled in cold water immediately after grinding? contraction.
water.
When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size,

211123 1 margins flutes shank web A 1
you should measure across the drill __________.
A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drill's

211123 2 length diameter clearance angle web thickness B 1
__________.
The size of a drill is usually marked on the

211125 1 point shank taper flute B 1
__________.
211150 1 A grinding wheel is trued with a __________. lathe tool dressing tool garnet stone round file B 1

Which of the devices listed should be used to A wheel dressing

211150 2
reshape a grinding wheel?
A round nose tool An oil stone
tool
A sharp nose tool C 1
When using a wheel dressing tool to true up a lubricate the operate the grinder remove the tool rest wear goggles to
211150 3 D 1
grinding wheel, you should always __________. dressing tool in neutral from the grinder protect your eyes
Be certain that the Be properly trained

Which practices should be followed at all times when Wear goggles or Each of the above
211152 2 frame is properly in the use of this D 1
using an electric grinding machine? face shield. practices.
grounded. tool.
Replace grinding Keep the support

Which practices should be followed at all times when Wear goggles or wheels that are rest clearance
using an electric bench grinding machine? face shield. chipped or properly adjusted to
unbalanced. the wheel.
A work piece has been mounted between centers and
away from the
a test cut machined at each end to check alignment closer to the
away from you to toward you to correct headstock to
211200 1 of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end headstock to reduce A 1
correct alignment alignment decrease the
is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the the amount of offset
misalignment
tailstock
One mustofbe
method moved __________.
accurately checking the alignment of
away from the
lathe centers is by moving a dial indicator, securely closer to the
away from you to toward you to correct headstock to
211200 2 mounted on compound rest, between the two headstock to reduce GS-0141 A 1
correct alignment alignment decrease
positions indicated on the test bar. If the dial indicator offset
misalignment
reading on the tailstock end of the test bar shows a
To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe, you
211200 3
should use a __________.
center gage gage block dial indicator micrometer C 1
If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel work piece decrease the flow of reduce the cutting
reduce the tool feed decrease the cross
211201 1 in a lathe and see blue chips coming off that work lubricating oil to the tool height above
or depth of cut compound speed
C 1
piece, you should __________. tool center
mount the knurling
When knurling a piece of work on a lathe, it is operate the lathe at
211202 1 use plenty of oil tool securely in the all of the above D 1
important to __________. the slowest speed
tool post
When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a

211203 1 lathe, you should mount the drill chuck in the compound rest cross feed tailstock headstock C 1
__________.
To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil

211203 2 hole in a bushing, you would mount the crotch center compound rest headstock tailstock chuck C 1
in the __________.

Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop

the carriage is all locking devices the work piece is
211206 1 practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure
lubricated
the lathe is level
have been released secure in the lathe
C 1
__________.
Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is spindle clutch is carriage clamp carriage stop clamp thread dial indicator
211206 2 B 1
engaged, you must be certain the __________. disengaged screw is loosened is tightened is zeroed
When stock is being turned down on a lathe, the

one half the depth of twice the depth of
211207 1 outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to the depth of cut
cut cut
twice the rate of feed C 1
__________.
A depth of cut of 0.26 inch reduces the diameter on a

211207 2
work piece in a lathe by __________.
0.13 inch 0.26 inch 0.52 inch 0.63 inch C 1
To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you

211208 1 feed-change lever split or half-nut back gear lever thread-chasing dial B 1
should engage the __________.
To properly cut even numbered threads using the

lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, even numbered lines odd numbered lines any unnumbered half
211208 2 any line on the dial GS-0084 A 1
you should close the lathe split or half-nut on only only line
__________.
To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe

any numbered line odd numbered lines even numbered lines
211208 3 using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should any line on the dial GS-0084 B 1
on the dial only only
close the lathe feed half-nut on __________.
The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by

tailstock set over headstock set over
211209 1 lathe centers is most easily machined by the taper attachment compound rest B 1
method method
__________.

setting over the using the compound using the taper

211210 1 A taper may be turned on a lathe by __________. all of the above D 1
tailstock rest attachment
To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must disengage the engage the feed disengage the feed stop the lathe
211211 1 D 1
first __________. spindle clutch change lever reverse lever rotation
Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with Facing work held in Turning work held Threading internal Boring an angled
211213 1 A 1
the carriage locked in position? a chuck. between centers. threads. hole.
The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only

211214 1 after the end of the work piece has been counter bored tapered center drilled convexed C 1
__________.
Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the

211215 1
highest operating lathe speed?
Cast iron Mild steel Aluminum Soft brass C 1
The distance to tool The distance from The distance the

The chip length that
Which of the following statements best defines 'depth point advances with the bottom of the cut work piece
211216 1 will be removed from B 1
of cut' in lathe work? each revolution of to the uncut surface circumference
the work in 1 minute.
the work. of the work piece. moves past the
If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and increase the height stop the lathe and
increase the lathe stop the lathe and
211218 1 the work piece tends to climb over the top of the of the tool cutting lubricate the dead B 1
spindle speed tighten the chuck
cutoff tool, you should __________. edge center
a relatively light a relatively heavy a relatively light a relatively heavy
depth of cut only depth of cut deep depth of cut only depth of cut deep
When castings with surface scale are being turned in
deep enough to enough to get under deep enough to enough to get under
211219 1 an engine lathe, how is the first roughing cut taken in B 1
incrementally the scale should be incrementally the scale should be
terms of depth of cut and feed?
remove the scale in used along with a remove the scale in used along with a
several passes along relatively fine feed several passes along relatively coarse
To properly cut even numbered threads using the
lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, even numbered lines odd numbered lines any unnumbered half
211220 1 any line on the dial GS-0084 A 1
you should close the lathe split or half-nut on only only line
__________.

A roughened checkered surface is machined by a

211221 2 knurling tool checkering tool chamfering tool threading tool A 1
lathe on round stock using a __________.
To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe any numbered line odd numbered lines even numbered lines
211226 1 any line on the dial GS-0084 B 1
using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should on the dial only only
When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number

drive motor and lead screw and head lead screw and feed
211227 1 of threads per inch produced is determined by the
spindle
spindle and feed rod
stock spindle rod
C 1
speed relationship between the __________.
Two separate work pieces are to have a taper cut

with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock
length of the work diameter of the work angle of the cutting
211231 1 method. After the first piece is completed, the none of the above A 1
piece piece tool
tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change
in the __________.
A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a blade from

211250 1 heat of friction blade from bending cut from clogging B 1
power hacksaw to prevent the __________. overheating
The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed pointing either pointing away from pointing toward the pointing toward the
211251 1 D 1
with the teeth __________. toward or away from the motor end of the motor if using a 4 or motor end of the
added safety care should be taken you should stand on line voltage may be
When the insulation breaks down within a metal features are built into to insert the plug a grounded deck placed on the tool
211280 1 D 1
encased, portable, electric tool, __________. the receptacle to correctly when plate before casing making it
allow continued use energizing the tool energizing the tool dangerous to
Some of the hazards of working with electric power they are properly eye shields and loose clothing and
211280 2 all of the above D 1
tools may be avoided if the operator insures that grounded gloves are worn jewelry are not worn
When using a portable droplight, you should always the bulb is protected the extension cord is the bulb capacity
211280 3 all of the above A 1
insure that __________. by a shield or guard yellow and clearly does not exceed 75
extension cord is
When using a portable droplight, you should always bulb is protected by always yellow and bulb capacity does
insure that the __________. a shield or guard clearly marked 'FOR not exceed 75 watts
DROP LIGHT USE
bleed air pressure
Some of the hazards associated with air- operated inspect the hoses for
remove jewelry and from the lines before
211282 1 power tools may be avoided if the operator would cracks and other all of the above D 1
loose clothing breaking the
__________. defects
connections
burning out the
All portable electric tools should have a ground electric shock if the overloading the grounding the plastic
211284 1 motor from an A 1
connection to prevent __________. tool is shorted motor from a short case through a short
overload

A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a condensate pump generator crosshead diesel engine wrist
211300 1 main turbine bearing A 1
__________. ball bearing bearing pin bearing
A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination

211301 1 Square measuring tool should only be used to remove packing mark on metal punch gasket holes clean file teeth B 1
__________.
The metal scribe of a combination square should only

211301 2 remove packing mark on metal punch gasket holes clean file teeth B 1
be used to __________.
While reaming a hole, the reamer should not be turning in the wrong reverse rotation will
the cutting edges the shank will loosen
211302 1 turned backwards if the hole has not been fully direction will cause make the hole A 1
may be damaged in the tap wrench
reamed because __________. chatter oversize
Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a allow it to be used as prevent the shank permit striking with a allow turning with a
211350 1 D 1
square shank to __________. a pry bar from bending hammer wrench
tightening or
screws you cannot
tightening Allen head loosening 'offset driving self-tapping
211351 1 An offset screwdriver is best used for __________. reach with a straight D 1
screws only type' machine screws only
shaft screwdriver
screws
A screwdriver should never be used as a
211353 1 pry bar chisel punch all of the above D 1
__________.
Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with Standard Reed and Prince Both B and C are
211354 1 Phillips screwdriver D 1
a four way or cross type slot? screwdriver screwdriver correct
What is the distinguishing difference between the The diameter of the The angle of the tip The overall length of
211354 2 None of the above. B 1
Phillips and the Reed and Prince type screwdrivers? shanks. flukes. the screwdriver.
The Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes

211354 3
with an angle of __________.
10° 45° 30° 60° C 1
The Reed and Prince screwdriver has a sharp

211354 4 10° 30° 60° 45° D 1
pointed end with flukes that have an angle of
Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip
211354 6 Standard Phillips Allen Torx B 1
to fit screws with a four way or cross slot?
Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip
211354 7 Standard Reed and Prince Allen Torx B 1
to fit screws with a four way or cross slot?

A Reed and Prince screwdriver should be used only

211354 8
on a Reed and Prince screw, and a Phillips
I only II only both I and II neither I or II C 1
Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded
211355 1 by parallel fluted ridges resembling the ridges of a Phillips Standard Torx Reed and Prince C 1
splined socket wrench?
Which type of screwdriver listed would have a
211356 1 Torx Phillips Allen Standard D 1
'Keystone' type vertical cross- sectional tip?
Which of the following statements best describes a A straight shank that A four-way tip cut at A blade whose width A four way tip with
211356 2
'Keystone' shaped tip on a standard screwdriver? does not widen at right angles. is approximately that 30° flukes.
C 1
Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the

211358 1 Ratchet Jeweler's Allen head Square-shanked B 1
precision assembly of small parts?
Which of the screwdrivers listed is fastest and most

211359 1
convenient when tightening many screws?
Square shank Offset Ratchet Standard C 1
Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the

211360 1
shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled
Square shank Ratchet Flexible shaft Jeweler's C 1
Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have longer than normal larger than normal shorter than normal
211361 1 insulated handles D 1
__________. shanks shanks shanks
The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange

211450 1
gaskets to the correct size is __________.
a pair of tin snips a jack knife a gasket cutter a ball peen hammer C 1
To accurately cut the proper size gasket for

211450 2
installation in a pipeline, you should use __________.
tin snips a jack knife a gasket cutter a pair of nail clippers C 1
The best tool to use when attempting to widen the

211451 1 opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing gasket cutter spud wrench scraper flange spreader D 1
the gasket, is a __________.
The best gasket material to use in cargo fuel oil lines oil-resistant sheet unvulcanized
211458 1 sheet asbestos cork sheet packing B 1
is __________. packing packing
Which of the gasket types listed is typically used on Spiral wound Wire-impregnated High temperature Wire-impregnated
211459 2 A 1
high pressure steam flange joints? flexitallic sheet plastic neoprene rubber

make up the flanged

place the gasket
remove excess joint to make an cut grooves into the
over the flange and
To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, gasket material by impression of the flange with a chisel
211460 1 knock off the excess B 1
you should __________. trimming with flange surfaces to to ensure good
material with a lead
scissors or tin snips insure a pattern for gasket contact
mallet
proper alignment
Small leaks in gaskets of a flanged pipe joint should The leak may cause The leak need not be The leak will result in The leak will cause
211461 3 A 1
be stopped immediately after installation for what progressive damage repaired as it will progressively severe the pipeline to
When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in Each bolt should be Each bolt should be Install and tighten Install and tighten
211462 1 D 1
what order should the bolts be tightened? installed and installed and bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, bolts in pairs which
If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket turn the old gasket check the ship's leave the old gasket make up the joint
211463 1 B 1
material to install in a pipeline, you should over and install it plans or in and cover it with without a gasket until
To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of
211550 1
the listed tools must be used with inside calipers to
A Center gage Wire gage Micrometer None of the above C 1
A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an
211550 2 feeler gauge micrometer surface gauge angle gauge B 1
__________.
To get an accurate inside measurement of the
211550 3
diameter of a 1/2 inch hole, you should use a/an
depth micrometer inside micrometer small hole gauge inside spring caliper C 1
To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock,
211552 1
you should use a __________.
dial indicator wire gauge micrometer circular slide rule C 1
A micrometer would be used to measure
211552 2 microseconds round stock diameter electrical resistance low voltages B 1
__________.
To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock
211554 1 before using it to make a bearing shim, you should feeler gage micrometer machinist's rule depth gage B 1
use a __________.
Shim stock thickness is measured by a/an
211554 2
__________.
shim gage feeler gage outside micrometer inside micrometer C 1
The correct torque value for a micrometer torque the scale is read on the dial is read on an audible click is a dial lights on the
211556 1
wrench is reached when __________. the handle the handle heard and the handle
C 1
The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the

211557 1 anvil sleeve frame thimble D 1
__________.
If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 one ten thousandth ten one thousandths one millionth of an ten millionths of an
211558 1 A 1
inch, you would say the reading is __________. of an inch of an inch inch inch
211559 1 A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________. 40 threads per inch 50 threads per inch 75 threads per inch 100 threads per inch A 1
One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move

211560 1 0.025 inch 0.205 inch 0.250 inch 0.110 inch A 1
the spindle __________.
One complete turn of a micrometer screw will move
211560 2 0.001 inch 0.0025 inch 0.010 inch 0.025 inch D 1
If the thimble of a micrometer were turned through
211560 3
one complete revolution, the micrometer would open
.001 inch .010 inch .025 inch .100 inch C 1
One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move
211560 4 0.001 inch 0.025 inch 0.100 inch 0.250 inch B 1

The most accurate method of measuring the setting

211563 1 thread micrometer outside micrometer engineer's scale dial indicator B 1
of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.
For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a

five thousands of an ten thousands of an twenty five one fortieth of an
211564 1 vernier scale making it possible to read in increments B 1
inch inch thousands of an inch inch
of __________.
click at each prevent the user stop the spindle from
Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop eliminate ratchet
211565 1 increment of from closing the tool sliding out of the B 1
at the end of the thimble to __________. movement
measure with too much force barrel
The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure

"D" in the illustration is __________.

211566 2
"A" in the illustration is __________.
0.9180 inch 0.9500 inch 0.9680 inch 0.9910 inch GS-0081 C 1

211566 3
"B" in the illustration is __________.

"C" in the illustration is __________.
The reading indicated on the micrometer scale in the

211566 5 illustration is .4815 inches. Which illustration Figure A Figure B Figure C Figure D GS-0081 D 1
represents this reading?
The reading indicated on the micrometer scale shown

211566 6 in the illustration is .9680 inches. Which of the figures Figure A Figure B Figure C Figure D GS-0081 A 1
listed represents this reading?

211566 7 in the illustration is .3350 inches. Which of the figures Figure A Figure B Figure C Figure D GS-0081 C 1

211566 8 in the illustration is .680 inches. Which of the figures Figure A Figure B Figure C Figure D GS-0081 B 1


211566 9
"A" in the illustration is __________.

211566 10
"B" in the illustration is __________.


211566 12
"1" in the illustration is __________.

211566 13

211566 14 0.133 inch 0.178 inch 0.193 inch 0.250 inch GS-0094 B 1

211566 15
"I" in the illustration is __________.

"II" in the illustration is __________.

211566 17
"III" in the illustration is __________.

211566 19



211566 21
"H" in the illustration is __________.

"E" in the illustration is __________.

211566 23
"F" in the illustration is __________.

211566 25
"H" in the illustration is __________.

"I" in the illustration is __________.
A micrometer scale reading is indicated as 0.349

211566 27 inches and is represented in the illustration by Figure C Figure A Figure G Figure H GS-0013 A 1
__________.

211566 29 inches and is represented in the illustration by Figure A Figure B Figure C Figure G GS-0013 C 1
__________.

211566 31 inches and is represented in the illustration by Figure D Figure E Figure F Figure I GS-0013 B 1
__________.


211566 32 inches and is represented in the illustration by Figure D Figure E Figure F Figure I GS-0013 C 1
__________.

211566 34 inches and is represented in the illustration by Figure A Figure C Figure G Figure H GS-0013 D 1
__________.
211566 35 inches and is represented in the illustration by Figure C Figure D Figure F Figure I GS-0013 D 1
__________.

211566 36
The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in

figure "G" in the illustration is __________.
figure "A" in the illustration is __________.

figure "B" in the illustration is __________.

211567 4
figure "C" in the illustration is __________.

figure "D" in the illustration is __________.
figure "E" in the illustration is __________.

figure "F" in the illustration is __________.
The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as

211567 8 1.500 inches. Which of the figures shown in the Figure A Figure D Figure F Figure G GS-0082 A 1
illustration represents this reading?


211567 9 3.380 inches. Which of the figures shown in the Figure B Figure D Figure E Figure F GS-0082 A 1

211567 10 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the Figure B Figure C Figure D Figure E GS-0082 B 1

211567 11 1.820 inches. Which of the figures shown in the Figure A Figure D Figure F Figure G GS-0082 B 1

211567 12 3.360 inches. Which of the figures shown in the Figure B Figure C Figure E Figure F GS-0082 C 1

211567 13
2.505 inches. Which of the figures shown in the
Figure A Figure B Figure F Figure G GS-0082 C 1

211567 14 2.368 inches. Which of the figures shown in the Figure A Figure B Figure D Figure G GS-0082 D 1
What is the reading of the vernier caliper scale shown

211567 15 3.890 inch 3.915 inch 4.215 inch 4.890 inch GS-0092 A 1
in figure "A" in the illustration?

in figure "B" in the illustration?

in figure "C" in the illustration?
in figure "D" in the illustration?

in figure "E" in the illustration?

in figure "F" in the illustration?

What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper

scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "A" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "B" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "C" in the illustration?

211568 5
scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "E" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "F" in the illustration?
The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper

211568 8 scale is .2613 inches. Which of the figure in the Figure A Figure D Figure E Figure G GS-0083 A 1

211568 9 scale is .8046 inches. Which of the figure in the Figure A Figure B Figure F Figure G GS-0083 B 1

211568 10 scale is .4678 inches. Which of the figure in the Figure C Figure D Figure E Figure F GS-0083 A 1


211568 12 scale is .3101 inches. Which of the figure in the Figure C Figure D Figure E Figure G GS-0083 C 1

211568 13 scale is .6383 inches. Which of the figure in the Figure B Figure D Figure F Figure G GS-0083 C 1

211568 14 scale is .2470 inches. Which of the figures in the Figure A Figure E Figure F Figure G GS-0083 D 1

scale shown in figure "A" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "B" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "C" in the illustration?

211568 18
scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration?

scale shown in figure "E" in the illustration?
scale shown in figure "F" in the illustration?

211568 21 scale is .8388 inches. Which of the figures illustrated Figure A Figure C Figure D Figure F GS-0091 A 1
represents this reading?

211568 22 Figure B Figure C Figure E Figure F GS-0091 A 1
scale is .2928 inches. Which of the figures in the


211568 23 scale is .4715 inches. Which of the figures in the Figure A Figure C Figure E Figure F GS-0091 B 1

211568 24 scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the Figure A Figure C Figure D Figure G GS-0091 C 1

211568 25 scale is .3107 inches. Which of the figures in the Figure B Figure C Figure E Figure F GS-0091 C 1

211568 26 scale is .3128 inches. Which of the figures in the Figure B Figure C Figure E Figure F GS-0091 D 1
When using a one inch micrometer, a reading of .875

211569 1
is equal to __________.
1/2 inch 5/8 inch 7/8 inch 15/16 inch C 1
A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3

211570 2 2 5/8 inches 2 7/16 inches 3 1/8 inches 3 9/16 inches A 1
inch range would be equal to __________.
A reading of 0.250 on a micrometer with a1to2inch

211570 3
rangeisequalto __________.
1/4 inch 1/2 inch 1 1/4 inches 2 1/4 inches C 1
Which of the following types of files is generally used Only a double

211600 1 A double cut file A single cut file Any bastard cut file B 1
for finishing? bastard cut file
When using the draw file method, which of the listed

211600 2
types of files will produce a fine finish?
A double cut file A bastard file A single cut file A second cut file C 1
Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a Only a double
211600 3 A triple cut file. A single cut file. Any bastard cut file. B 1
tool? bastard cut file.

Double cut files are most effective when used for

211601 1 sharpening tools draw filing finish work rough work D 1
__________.
quick removal of
211601 2 Double cut files are used for __________. finish work rough work both A and C D 1
metal
Which of the listed types of files is the best for

211602 1 Mill Float Warding Second cut A 1
producing a fine finish on metal?
Which of the following files will produce the finest

211602 2 surface on a work piece being finished filed in a A mill file A double cut file Any bastard cut file All warding files A 1
lathe?
produce a very fine produce a coarse

211602 3 A mill file is used to __________. file lead file plastic A 1
finish by draw filing finish by push filing
Which of the following types of files will produce a

211602 4 Mill cut Bastard Double cut Second cut A 1
fine finish when draw filing?
The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such

211602 5
as brass, is the __________.
smooth cut file warding file mill file second cut file C 1
211602 6 Mill files are always __________. double cut single cut Swiss patterned second cut B 1
A metal file has become clogged with filings and

211603 1 scraper card oilstone dressing tool B 1
should be cleaned with a file __________.
The teeth of a file may 'clog up' with metal filings and
211603 2 scratch your work. This condition is known as binding pinning drawing jamming B 1
__________.

While filing, you can prevent pinning by keeping the

211603 3 file clean and rubbing the teeth of the file with light oil chalk talc graphite B 1
__________.
bearing too hard on

211603 4 Pinning is often caused by __________. dropping the file chalking the file cleaning the file D 1
the file
A fine wire bristled brush used for cleaning files is

211603 5 file brush file card pulling brush cleaning card B 1
called a __________.
211604 1 A file handle is fitted to the file's __________. tang point taper heel A 1
is opposite the
211604 2 The tang of a file is the part that __________. does the cutting fits into the handle has crosscut teeth B 1
handle
Using a file without a handle may result in your work becoming overheating of the
211604 3 injury to your hand pinning B 1
__________. rounded file
Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the

211605 1 tapered smooth rough rounded D 1
work surface to become __________.
A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a monel stock using brass stock using bronze stock using stainless steel stock
211606 1
piece of __________. heavy pressure heavy pressure light pressure using light pressure
C 1
Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and

211607 1
used to enlarge rectangular- shaped holes and slots?
Round Half round Square None of the above C 1
Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and

211607 2 Mill Round Square Triangular D 1
is used to file acute internal angles?

Which of the files listed is commonly referred to as a

211607 3 Small half round Small round Small triangular Small flat B 1
'rattail' file?
distance between
The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, coarseness of file both A and C are
211608 1 the parallel cuts of a size of the file D 1
smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________. teeth correct
file
Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced

211608 2
teeth?
Second cut Dead smooth cut Bastard cut Smooth cut C 1
Which of the files listed will have medium spaced

211608 3 Dead smooth Second cut Bastard cut Smooth cut B 1
teeth and is used for general work?
Which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth

211608 4 Smooth cut Bastard cut Second cut Rough cut A 1
for finishing to a smooth surface?
distance between
The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut,
211608 5
smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.
parts of the file shape of the file the parallel cuts on size of the file C 1
the file
The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, coarseness of the

211608 6 shape of the file size of the file cuts of the file B 1
smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________. file teeth
distance between distance between

overall length of the length of the tang
211610 1 File lengths are determined by the __________.
file
the face and the the point and the
only
C 1
edge of the file heel of the file
The length of a file is always measured exclusive of
211610 2 edge tang point heel B 1
the __________.
The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a
211611 1 smooth edge safe edge flat edge dead edge B 1
__________.
Which of the files listed is produced with two safe
211611 3 Mill Pillar Half round Knife B 1
edges?
cause the file to slide
cause dust and
A file coated with oil and stowed away will cause the file to across the work and both B and C are
211613 1 metal particles to D 1
__________. overheat prevent fast, clean correct
collect in the teeth
cutting

Oiling a file as a rust preventative may cause

211613 2 overheating pinning fast cutting binding B 1
__________.
Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under

211614 1 stroke filing cross filing draw filing standard form filing B 1
pressure, against the work, is called __________.
It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are

211615 1
filing is __________.
mild steel stainless steel aluminum monel C 1
It is not necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal

211615 2 steel copper lead aluminum A 1
being filed is __________.
In general, the The teeth should
In general, it is
harder the material point toward the
Which of the following is true concerning the proper generally required to
211650 3 to be cut, the greater handle when All of the above A 1
use of a machine shop hand hack saw? use a coolant when
the number of teeth installing new
cutting brass.
per inch on the blade blades.
To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand
211651 1 hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number 14 18 24 32 C 1
of teeth per inch?
For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the proper the teeth pointing the blade and teeth
211651 2 14 teeth per inch 32 teeth per inch D 1
hacksaw blade should have __________. towards the handle of 'all-hard' quality
When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades

211651 3 14 teeth per inch 18 teeth per inch 24 teeth per inch 32 teeth per inch D 1
listed would be the most suitable for cutting thin
For cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw

211651 4 14 teeth per inch 18 teeth per inch 24 teeth per inch 32 teeth per inch A 1
blade should have __________.
A hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch should be angle iron and heavy cast iron and soft thin tubing or sheet drill rod and tool
211651 5 B 1
used to cut __________. pipe steel metal steels
To cut drill rod, light angle iron, or tool steel with a

211651 6 hand hacksaw, it is best to use a blade with 14 teeth per inch 18 teeth per inch 24 teeth per inch 32 teeth per inch B 1
__________.

blade can be
teeth should point
To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw teeth should point blade should be kept installed in any
211653 1 away from the B 1
frame, the __________. toward the handle loose in the frame position for normal
handle
use
A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame maximum possible teeth pointing away blade tooth set teeth angled toward
211653 2 B 1
with the __________. tension on the blade from the handle adjusted for the saw handle
A hand hacksaw blade is normally installed in the saw the blade will always the blade will cutting pressure is
cutting fluid must
211653 3 frame with the teeth pointing away from the saw break if installed overheat if installed most easily put on D 1
flow down the teeth
handle, because __________. otherwise otherwise the forward stroke
Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when front of the hacksaw top of the hacksaw
211657 1 backward stroke forward stroke B 1
pressure is applied only on the __________. frame frame
When cutting with a handheld hacksaw, you should on the forward stroke only on the only when cutting only on the forward
211657 3 D 1
apply downward pressure on the hacksaw frame and backward stroke backward stroke non ferrous metals stroke
apply maximum coat the saw blade turn the saw blade at
A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you file a nick where the
211658 1 pressure at the start with soap before right angles to the D 1
__________. cut is to be started
of the cut starting the cut saw frame
apply maximum coat the saw blade turn the saw blade at
A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if file a nick where the
211658 2 pressure at the start with soap before right angles to the D 1
you __________. cut is to be started
of the cut starting the cut saw frame
When coming to the end of a cut using a hand stop applying the reduce cutting speed change to a finer cut increase cutting
211659 1 B 1
hacksaw, you should __________. cutting fluid and pressure blade speed and pressure
The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on

211660 1
a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.
set rake pitch thread gauge C 1
The term referring to the amount or degree the teeth

211660 2 of a hacksaw blade are pushed out or canted from set pitch choke blade cut A 1
the blade center is known as __________.
The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the

211660 3 teeth are continuously staggered with one to the left alternate double alternate raker wave A 1
and one to the right is known as __________.

The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two

adjoining teeth are staggered to the right, then two to
211660 4 Alternate Double alternate Racker Wave B 1
the left, and continue to alternate in this manner is
known as __________.
The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where
211660 5 every third tooth remains straight, while the other two Alternate Double alternate Raker Wave C 1
are alternately set is known as __________.
Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short

211660 6 Alternate Double alternate Rake Wave D 1
sections of teeth bent in opposite directions?
When using a hand held hacksaw the correct

10 to 20 strokes per 80 to 100 strokes per 40 to 50 strokes per 70 to 80 strokes per
211661 1 maximum rate of speed for cutting should be
minute minute minute minute
C 1
__________.
Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per
cause the blade to not change how the
211661 2 minute while using a hand held hacksaw will sharpen the blade
cut faster
dull the blade
blade cuts
C 1
generally __________.
When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your
211663 1 hand while using a hand held hacksaw, the sheet blocks of steel blocks of wood pieces of sand paper pieces of cloth B 1
metal should be placed between two __________.
Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for
cutting metal in tight quarters or flush to a surface
211664 1 Coping saw Stab saw Back saw Hole saw B 1
where a hand held hacksaw frame could not be
used?
A saw blade produced of bonded tungsten-carbide
211665 1 particles and mounted in a hacksaw frame is known wave set blade rod saw blade hardened blade flexible blade B 1
as a __________.
When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which

211665 2 of the blades listed could cut smoothly through a Wave set Hardened Rod Flexible C 1
metal file?
Which of the saw blades listed, when mounted in a

211665 3 hand held hacksaw frame, will cut on both the Rod Hardened Flexible None of the above A 1
forward and reverse strokes?
the rate of cutting is the blade becomes too much pressure is

211666 1 A hacksaw blade will break if __________. all the above D 1
too great loose in the frame applied to the blade

major diameter and

211700 1 Machine bolts are identified by their __________. type of head threads per inch all of the above D 1
length
What basic dimensions are used in describing Diameter and length Diameter and cross Diameter, length, Diameter, head size,
211700 2
machine bolts? only section only and number of and shoulder length
C 1
The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to measuring machinist's hand
211701 1
__________.
pipe fittings
instruments taps
drill press parts C 1
Hand taps are provided in sets of three, with each taper, plug, and short, medium, and taper, plug, and starting, through,
211701 2
being known as __________. finish long bottom and finishing
C 1
deepening the extent finishing the

starting threads in a producing tapered
211701 3 A taper tap is correctly used for __________. of existing threads in threading operation A 1
hole threads in a hole
a hole in a blind hole
To finish tapping a blind hole, it is best to use a

211701 4
__________.
taper tap finishing tap bottoming tap plug tap C 1
Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished

211701 5 short tap taper tap plug tap bottoming tap D 1
by using a __________.
number of threads angle of taper
angle formed by distance between
With regards to the American National Screw Thread divided by the length formed by the
211702 1
nomenclature, 'pitch' is the __________.
adjacent flanks of a
of the threaded
corresponding points
centerline of the
C 1
thread on adjacent threads
portion of the screw screw and
angle of the crests
taper
number of threads
angle formed by distance between formed by the
divided by the length
211702 2 The 'pitch' of a screw is the __________. adjacent flanks of a
of the threaded
corresponding points centerline of the C 1
thread on adjacent threads screw and the crests
portion of the screw
If you are cutting external threads by hand and you be out of round on be cut crooked on of the thread
be rough, weak, and straighten out after
211703 1 B 1
start the die at an angle, the threads will __________. the work the work easily broken the third revolution
to help start the die

Round split dies are usually adjustable to allow threading on control the tightness allow threading up to
211703 2 squarely on the B 1
__________. oversized stock of the thread fit a shoulder
round stock
machine bolt size

211704 1 The designation '1/4-20' describes __________. cutting torch tips size pipe thread die size steel plate thickness D 1
and threads per inch

machine bolt size steel plate gauge

211704 2 The term '5/16-24' describes __________. bearing puller size cutting torch tip size A 1
and threads per inch size and thickness
1/4 inch in diameter a total of 20 threads 1/20 of an inch long

1/2 inch long having
211704 3 A tap marked '1/4-20' will cut a thread __________. with a pitch of 20 with a pitch of 1/4 and 1/4 inch in A 1
a total of 20 threads
threads per inch inch diameter
The notation '10-24 tap' appears on a drawing. The number of holes number of threads
211704 4 size of hole tightness of fit B 1
number "24" indicates the __________. involved per inch
The number "8" in the notation of an '8- 32' tap,

211705 2 thread diameter size of the hole tap drill size clearance drill size A 1
indicates the __________.
the second cut when

With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug starting the threads reversing the threads chasing the threads
211705 3
tap is correctly used for __________. on a circular rod in a hole
threading a blind
on a circular rod
C 1
hole
The number of screw threads per inch for a Standard

211706 1 13 16 18 20 A 1
National Coarse 1/2 inch bolt is __________.
threaded with
The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is made of nickel- made of non- not clad with any
211707 1 national coarse D 1
__________. cadmium metal corrosive metal coating
threads
Which of the following is true when comparing the A class 4 fit always A class 1 fit always
A class 2 fit is looser A class 1 fit is tighter
211708 2 different "class of fit" for machine threads on bolts has more threads has fewer threads A 1
than a class 4 fit. than a class 2 fit.
and nuts? per inch. per inch.
Which of the following types of nuts would be best
211709 1 suited to use when it is important that a nut not work Square nut Wing nut Cap nut Castellated nut D 1
itself loose due to vibration?
If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should tap the holes without flood the tap with chamfer the edges of start tapping with a
211711 1 A 1
__________. cutting oil mineral oil the holes plug tap

The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into larger than the tap smaller than the tap the same size as the the same size as the
211711 2 B 1
a piece of stock should be __________. diameter diameter tap diameter bolt diameter
The locking plates shown in the illustration are used

211712 1 in many marine applications. Which figure indicates "A" "B" "C" "D" GS-0156 C 1
the improper method for using these devices?
The transit washers These abrasion The grounding
The locking plates
transmit the rotary resistors prevent straps help prevent
What is the primary function of the devices shown in are used to prevent
211713 1 motion of the cap damage to the electrolysis by GS-0156 D 1
the illustration? the fastening devices
screw to the surface around the improving the
from vibrating loose.
actuating assembly. bolt holes when conductivity between
Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock
211714 1 "A" "B" "C" and "D" "C" and "E" GS-0156 D 1
improperly used?
Flat locks are no When torque values Bellevue washers Replacement with
When should the nut lock shown in the illustration, be
longer used in the of 25 foot pounds or are the ideal another nut locking
211715 1 replaced with standard lock washers or other similar GS-0156 D 1
marine industry and greater are being substitute for these device is
devices used in the industry?
should be replaced used, replacement locking devices unnecessary.
Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST
211716 1 figure A figure F figure G figure L GS-0080 A 1
desirable for use as a set screw?
Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use
211717 1 figure C figure D figure G figure L GS-0080 B 1
as a hex head set screw?
Which of the figures illustrated would be the least
211717 2 figure F figure H figure G figure L GS-0080 B 1
desirable to use as a shaft collar lock screw?
Which of the figures illustrated is known as an Allen
211718 2
head set screw?
figure B figure C figure F figure G GS-0080 C 1
Which of the figures in illustration GS- 0080 would be

GS-0015
211719 2 used in conjunction with figure "C" in illustration GS- figure A figure D figure F figure K D 1
GS-0080
0015?
Which of the figures in illustration GS- 0080 would be GS-0080
211720 1
used in conjunction with figure "B" of the device
figure B figure C figure F figure G
GS-0124
C 1
Which of the figures shown in illustration GS-0080
211720 2
would be the most suitable to fasten the hub of a
figure B figure C figure F figure H GS-0080 C 1
If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, Tap the bolt with a Heat the bolt with an Drill a hole in the Use a tapered screw
211721 1
which of the listed actions would probably be the best starting punch oxyacetylene torch. center of the broken extractor only.
C 1
If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface Drill a small hole in Punch a cross notch
Hammer the top of
of a flange or block, which of the following procedures Melt the stud with an the center of the in the stud and use a
211721 2
would offer the best chance of success for its
the stud with a drift
oxyacetylene torch. broken stud and use Phillips head
C 1
pin
removal? a screw extractor. screwdriver.
The proper tool used for cutting new external threads
211722 1 chaser die broach tap B 1
is called a thread __________.

When internal threading for piping where the work

permits the tap to be run entirely through you can
211723 1 taper tap plug tap bottoming tap finishing tap A 1
begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a
__________.
211723 2 Internal pipe threads are cut with __________. dies reamers taps tap drills C 1
When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock,

211723 3 the threads can be dry cut or may be lubricated with graphite and oil white lead lard oil kerosene C 1
__________.
When pipe is properly screwed into a tapped hole, it the pipe cannot be all the threads are half of the threads all but two or three
211723 4 D 1
will give the correct fit when __________. turned covered are covered threads are covered
After a piece of pipe has been cut, a good shop make a taper for make the taper remove tool marks prevent the burr from
211723 5 practice to ream out the burr left in the pipe. This is starting the threading required for pipe which could interfere restricting flow in the D 1
done to __________. die threads with flow pipe
After using a pipe cutter to cut a piece of pipe, the deburred with a pipe cleaned with a pipe made square with a threaded for a
211723 7 A 1
inside edge of the pipe should be __________. reamer cleaner taper tool standard pipe fitting
Which of the tools listed should be used with the set Phillips head
211800 1 Spanner wrench Crescent wrench Allen wrench GS-0080 D 1
screw shown as figure "F" in the illustration? screwdriver
The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used bolt motor frames to assist in securing a fasten pump casing secure tapered pins
211800 3 GS-0080 B 1
to __________. bedplates coupling half to its flanges together in position
The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American
211801 2 National Standard hex head machine bolt is 3/4 inch 7/8 inch 1 1/4 inches 1 1/2 inches C 1
__________.
The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch

211801 3
American National hex head bolt is __________.
10/24 inch 3/4 inch 1 1/4 inches 1 1/2 inches C 1
Which drill size would you use to machine and tap a

211802 1
3/4 -10 National Coarse internal thread?
27/64 inches 31/64 inches 21/32 inches 25/32 inches C 1
strip insulation from grasp items cut recessed cotter tighten electrical wire
211803 1 Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________. B 1
electric wire or cable positioned in tight pins clamps

Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates

211804 1 Open end wrench Box end wrench Crescent wrench Monkey wrench B 1
the possibility of its slipping off while tightening a nut
Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a
211804 2 Open end wrench Box end wrench Crescent wrench Spanner wrench B 1
bolt head or nut?
A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or bolt
211804 3 adjustable wrench open end wrench tappet wrench box wrench D 1
head is a/an __________.
nonadjustable solid intended for gripping not suitable for used with a speeder
211805 1 Open end wrenches are __________. A 1
wrenches round objects tubing fittings handle
In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to
211806 1 hook spanner dial wrench offset box end torque wrench D 1
the exact tension specified by the engine
read on a scale read on a dial indicated by a
When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the indicated by an
211806 2 mounted on the mounted on the release or break of A 1
torque is __________. audible click
handle of the wrench handle of the wrench the handle
A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when the bite is taken the wrench jaws are a maximum pull is an extension is
211807 1 A 1
__________. midway up the jaw at the widest open exerted with one placed on the
A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on
211807 2 hexagonal objects round objects square objects flat objects B 1
__________.
Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a

211808 1 chain pipe wrench monkey wrench basin wrench strong back A 1
__________.
According to the illustration, what dimension would

211810 1 A B C H GS-0177 B 1
indicate the Pitch Diameter of the thread?
According to the illustration, what dimension would

211810 2 F K L D GS-0177 A 1
indicate the Helix Angle of the thread?
According to the illustration, what would be the value

of dimension "H" for a screw thread identified as 3/4-
According to the illustration, what would be the value
211810 4 20 degrees 30 degrees 45 degrees 60 degrees GS-0177 B 1
of the angle labeled "L" for an American Standard
be certain it is a non-
211850 1 When using a chisel, you should __________. wear gloves hold the tool lightly wear safety glasses D 1
sparking type
using a hand scraping paint with a using a hammer and
211850 2 Safety glasses should be worn when __________. all of the above D 1
portable grinder hand scraper chisel
The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is

211853 1 round nose chisel flat cold chisel diamond point chisel cape chisel D 1
the __________.
The proper use of a flat chisel is for cutting

211853 4 inside corners slots or keyways half-round grooves flat stock D 1
__________.
pieces may fly off the it must be held firmly
A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used the chisel cannot be the hammer head
211854 1 chisel and injure by the head to strike B 1
because __________. struck squarely may be chipped
your eyes it

grind it for long

The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel hold it next to a wet soak it in hot oil for grind the cutting
211855 1 periods of time with D 1
edge when you __________. grinding wheel lengthy periods angle too small
excessive pressure
What precautions should be followed when using a Remove the ragged Do not strike the Use only light Knock off the ragged
211856 1 A 1
chisel having a mushroomed head? edges by grinding. mushroomed hammer blows with edges with a
Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting

211857 1
oil grooves?
Diamond point Flat cold Round nose Square nose C 1
Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting oil grooves in V-grooves and inside holes through metal keyways having
211858 1 B 1
__________. bearings sharp angles plate square corners
Which of the listed punches can be properly used to
211860 1 Drift punch Aligning punch Center punch Prick punch A 1
free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?
line up
211861 2 An aligning punch is commonly used to __________. loosen jammed bolts tighten tapered pins remove snap rings A 1
corresponding holes
The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to measure wire measure insulation strip insulation from
211900 1 gage resistors GS-0079 B 1
__________. diameter thickness wire
Which of the devices shown in the illustration should

211901 1 A B C D GS-0073 A 1
be used with a bridge gage?
Which device shown in the illustration should be used

211901 2 to check valve clearances in a diesel engine fitted A B C D GS-0073 A 1
with solid lifters?
The center head of a combination square set is used check degrees of locate the center on check the angle of
211903 1
to __________. angle
find right angles
round stock thread cutting tools
C 1
To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch from the one inch from the zero end on on the narrow edge on the unmarked
211904 1 A 1
machinist's steel rule, you should measure graduation mark the scale of the rule edge of the rule
To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should
211905 1
use a __________.
micrometer scribing circle steel rule calipers C 1
positive readings scribed layout lines

211906 1 A dial indicator is used to measure __________. shaft eccentricity torque of a shaft A 1
only on vertical surfaces
Which of the devices shown in the illustration is

211907 2
designed for both inside and outside measurements?
A B C D GS-0073 C 1
To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you

211908 1 machinist's steel rule flexible steel rule hook rule folding rule B 1
should use a __________.

Which of the instruments listed is used to measure

211909 1 Gauge calibrator Wire gauge Inside micrometer Circular mil B 1
the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?
To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the and let cool slowly in cherry red and
211951 1
gasket __________.
and quench it in oil
the air quench in water
and carbonize it C 1
Copper sheet metal that is to be used as a gasket, is
dousing it in cold quenching it slowly drawing its temper
211951 2 usually annealed by heating it to a cherry red color, cooling it slowly in air A 1
water in oil quickly
and then __________.
The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is
211952 1
called its __________.
ductibility elasticity malleability fusibility C 1
Reheating a hardened component to a temperature
low temperature
211953 1 lower than the hardening temperature and then case hardening annealing tempering D 1
hardening
cooling it is known as __________.
When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process increase in increase in corrosion decrease in increase in
211954 1
known as tempering, what metallurgical properties hardening resistance brittleness brittleness
C 1
211954 2 When metal is tempered, it becomes __________. harder less tough less brittle more brittle C 1
211954 3 When metal is tempered, it becomes __________. harder less flexible less brittle more brittle C 1
The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the

211956 1 softer smoother harder tougher A 1
metal __________.
Improve machining
211957 1 What is the purpose of heat treating steel? Develop ductility Relieve stresses All of the above D 1
qualities
Ball peen hammers are sized according to their

212000 1 overall length head weight face diameter peen head size B 1
__________.
You should never watch the arc generated during slag and metal
serious flash burns arc blow will burn the fumes are highly
212046 2 electric arc welder with the naked eye because splatter will get in A 1
will result your face toxic
__________. your eyes
avoiding wet or
When arc welding, you can reduce the chance of a using insulated wearing dry welding damp areas while
dangerous electric shock by __________. electrode holders gloves using arc welding
equipment
Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be not safe for
212048 1 safe for personnel safe for hot work not safe for hot work B 1
certified or declared __________. personnel
Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be not safe for
212048 2 safe for personnel safe for hot work not safe for hot work B 1
certified or declared __________. personnel

checking the area for that a fire watch be checking for

212049 1 Safe welding practice requires __________. all of the above D 1
items that may catch posted explosive gases
In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached double fillet weld V-weld over a U-weld over a
212050 1
to the pipe by a __________. only
plug and slot weld
backing ring backing ring
GS-0078 C 1
The type of welded joint illustrated is referred to as

212050 3
a/an __________.
socket weld edge weld butt weld annulus weld GS-0078 C 1
tack weld flat iron stand the flange on
The best method in assisting the proper alignment insert a temporary slip a temporary
straps from the end vertically
212050 4 and welding of the flange and pipe shown in the sleeve into the pipe sleeve around the GS-0078 A 1
flange to the pipe to position the pipe on
illustration is to __________. for alignment pipe
complete the the flange, tack weld,
Setting up a welding job, where the work is the straight polarity inert-arc welding shielded-arc welding reverse polarity
212051 1 A 1
positive pole and the electrode is the negative pole welding circuit circuit circuit welding circuit
The welding process using an electric arc developed
flux cored arc resistance spot shielded metal arc submerged arc
212052 1 between a flux covered electrode and the metal being
welding welding welding welding
C 1
welded is known as __________.
When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc speed up your increase the
212053 1 use a lower current use larger electrodes D 1
electrode, and getting only shallow penetration, you electrode travel amperage
The welding symbol reference line using the inverted a "V" groove weld is the arrow side of the the opposite side of the first pass of the
212055 1 GS-0076 A 1
"V", indicates __________. to be made weld is to be surface the weld is to be weld is to be back
To ensure a good weld, post heating is required with a straight with a reverse to a cast component to a part of the ship's
212056 1
whenever an arc weld repair is made __________. polarity rod polarity rod (casting) main structure
C 1
The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an
arc welding electrode. Which of the listed letters
212057 1
and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position
E 70 2 A1 C 1
for which the electrode is recommended? the minimum tensile either insulated or
the electrode may be the electrode is to be
A welding electrode is marked E-6010, this strength of the weld uninsulated
212057 2 used in the flat used for shielded D 1
designation means that __________. metal will be 70,000 electrode holders
position only metal arc welding
psi may be used
Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel

212058 1 4A 3B 4B 6B GS-0077 B 1
groove weld?
Which of the following listed illustrated joint

212058 2
preparations correctly depicts a single "J" groove?
3A 4A 5A 6A GS-0077 C 1
Which of the listed welded joints represents the least

212058 3 1B 3A 3B 4A GS-0077 A 1
amount of preparation?
The weld type illustrated and indicated as '5B' is

212058 4 X K double bevel double J GS-0077 D 1
known as a/an __________.

Which of the listed welded joints represents the least

212058 5 1B 3A 3B 4A GS-0077 A 1
amount of preparation?
The high strength structural steel, such as Grade DH the properties of DH the properties of DH any electrical the welding of any
32, when used as part of the main deck plating, is 32 steel may 32 steel will affect equipment mountedDH 32 steel requires
212059 1 D 1
noted on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection. The interfere with the the ability to properly on DH 32 steel special welding
information is important because __________. operation of some ground electrical plating is required to
procedures
When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode reduce metal fatigue increase heat
212060 1
is used to __________.
control penetration
and warpage
reduce oxidation
transfer
C 1
Why is a chemical covering applied to a welding stick Protect the welder Shield the arc during Stabilize the electron
212060 2
electrode, rather than using a bare electrode? from electric shock.
Prevent arc blow.
the welding process emission rate and
C 1
Which of the following statements concerning braze Braze welding is an A braze welded joint Repairs to
212061 2 All of the above. A 1
welding is/are correct? acceptable method should be cooled containers used in
increase the
In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated reduce internal allow the use of eliminate the need
212062 1 temperature gradient A 1
before each pass to __________. stresses smaller welding rods for post heating
in the weld area
First, weld Each successive
Make a weld across
First, weld the joints attachments which welded part should
Which of the following statements is correct an unwelded plate
212063 1 that will tend to will restrain points of be restrained to lock A 1
concerning welding sequences? joint in adjoining
contract the most. maximum in stresses and avoid
members.
contraction. cracking.
Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of The strength of the The strength of the The type of metal The type of metal
212064 1 D 1
heat required for any given welding job? bond only. bond and the being joined only. being joined and the
A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join
212065 1 two surfaces at right angles to each other, and is seam weld plug weld tack weld fillet weld D 1
called a __________.
The root opening dimension shown in the illustration penetration depth of distance across the width across the maximum thickness
212066 1 GS-0076 B 1
is used to indicate the __________. the desired weld bottom of the "V" bottom of the of the completed
The root opening of the weld, shown in the
212066 2 not more than 1/8" a 60° minimum 0 to 1/16' not specified GS-0076 A 1
illustration, is indicated to be __________.
allowable space width across the maximum thickness
The root opening dimension shown in the illustration penetration depth of
212066 3 across the bottom of bottom of the of the completed GS-0076 B 1
is used to indicate the __________. the desired weld
the "V" groove weldment weld
While carrying out electric arc welding, there is developing burns to

212067 1 fire electric shock all of the above D 1
always the danger of __________. the retina of the eye
the effects of
A hazard associated with electric arc welding is
212067 2 radiation from the flying sparks electric shock all of the above D 1
__________.
arc
make fewer passes

use intermittent use restraining
with large electrodes
In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due to welds rather than forces such as
212069 2 as opposed to many all of the above D 1
shrinkage, you should __________. continuous welds clamps, jigs, and
passes with small
wherever possible fixtures
electrodes

With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high

212102 1 oxidizing flame neutral flame nitriding fusion carburizing flame D 1
carbon steels, hard- facing, and the welding of
determines the
In an oxygen acetylene welding outfit, the torch tip depends on the hose amount of acetylene can be varied by depends on the
212103 1 B 1
orifice size __________. length and oxygen fed to rotating the tip regulator flow rate
the flames
When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an hand valves on the cylinder valves and cylinder valves and
212104 1 cylinder valves only D 1
extended period, you should close the __________. torch only close torch valves close torch valves
When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, open the acetylene open the acetylene a leaking hose must a flashback of flame
212105 1 B 1
__________. valve until the hose cylinder valve only be repaired by into the hose is
When welding or burning with an oxyacetylene it is important to never allow more never allow more it is important to
212105 2 B 1
torch, __________. remember that the than 15 PSIG than 10 PSIG remember that the
In an oxy-acetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has
a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure
212106 1
gage indicates cylinder pressure and the other gage
tip pressure upstream pressure hose pressure arc pressure C 1
is used to indicate __________.
acetylene cylinders
Acetylene should never be used at pressures in have a maximum fusible plug will blow slightest shock could
212110 1 relief valve will lift D 1
excess of 15 psig because the __________. allowable pressure out cause an explosion
of 15 psig
An acetylene pressure regulator should never be the fusible plug will rapid depletion of this gas become
212110 2 the relief valve will lift D 1
adjusted to maintain pressures exceeding 15 psig blowout acetylene is extremely unstable
Which of the following listed pressures is the
212110 3 maximum acetylene gas pressure that can be safely 10 psi 15 psi 25 psi 35 psi B 1
used in gas welding?
When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working
212110 4 explosion torch backfire torch flameout acetone fire A 1
pressure must be kept below 15 psi to prevent a
When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working
212110 6 explosion torch backfire torch flameout acetone fire A 1
pressure must be kept below 15 psi (103.41 kPa) to
When welding or burning with an oxygen-acetylene
212110 7 torch, the acetylene hose working pressure must not 2 psi 5 psi 15 psi 25 psi C 1
exceed __________.
It chemically reacts
Which statement describes the function of the filler It reduces the It neutralizes the gas It is fire resistant and
212111 1 with acetone to A 1
material used in acetylene cylinders? danger of explosion. to render it harmless. reduces fire hazards.
produce acetylene.
keeping them away
stowing, to avoid keeping the valve
Careful handling of compressed gas bottles should from flame, high
212112 1 them from crashing protection caps in all of the above D 1
include __________. heat, and direct
into one another place
sunlight
Using oxygen as a Routinely greasing The storage of the Cracking the valve
Which of the following practices is considered to be
substitute for or lubricating the cylinders in a well on a hydrogen
212113 1 safe for the handling and use of compressed gas
compressed air for valves on oxygen ventilated cylinder to clear dust
C 1
cylinders?
pneumatic tools. cylinders. compartment. and dirt.

upright with the horizontal with the

Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be upright with the horizontal with the
212113 2 cylinder caps cylinder caps A 1
stored __________. cylinder caps off cylinder caps off
screwed on screwed on
Keep oxygen
Which of the precautions listed should to be observed Keep cylinders away Keep gas cylinders
Bottles should be regulators and
212113 3 when working with oxyacetylene welding from exposure to supported so that D 1
labeled air and gas. valves coated with a
equipment? cold temperatures. they can not tip over.
light film of oil.
Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene trousers with deep

212116 1 goggles cotton gloves wool jackets A 1
welding should include the use of __________. pockets
Protective equipment to be used while carrying out steel toe safety

212116 2 goggles ear plugs non-sparking tools A 1
oxyacetylene welding should always include shoes
Protective equipment to be used while carrying out
steel toe safety
212116 3 oxyacetylene welding should always include tinted goggles ear plugs non-sparking tools A 1
shoes
__________.
The oxygen The acetylene The torch oxygen The torch acetylene
Which of the following is true concerning the hose
regulator hose outlet regulator hose outlet inlet hose thread inlet hose thread
212117 1 threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators D 1
thread connection is thread connection is connection is "left connection is "left
and torches?
"left handed". "right handed". handed". handed".
The oxygen The acetylene The torch oxygen The torch acetylene
Which of the following is true concerning the hose
regulator hose outlet regulator hose outlet inlet hose thread inlet hose thread
212117 2 threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators
thread connection is thread connection is connection is "right connection is "right
C 1
and torches?
"left handed". "right handed". handed". handed".
Which of the following procedures would be correct Open the oxygen Open the acetylene Open the oxygen Open the acetylene
212118 1 D 1
when first lighting-off an oxy-acetylene torch? valve wide open and valve very slightly valve very slightly to valve very slightly to
fusing point much
melting point lower coating of Borax flux composition of lead
Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a higher than that of
212150 1 than that of the to raise the melting and tin if the solder B 1
__________. the metals being
metals being joined point is the 'hard' type
joined
prevent the tip from protect the tip from add extra weight to prevent tip oxidation
212151 1 Tinning a soldering iron will __________. D 1
overheating scratches the tip when heated
decrease the melting make the solder ensure proper
212152 1 Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________. clean the joint area D 1
point of the solder 'flow' tinning
Soldering flux aids the soldering process by
212152 2
__________.
softening the metals fusing the metals removing oxides hardening the metals C 1
decrease the melting decrease the surface ensure proper control the soldering
212152 3 Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________. B 1
point of the solder tension of the solder tinning iron temperature

beryllium and
212153 1 Solder is an alloy of __________. tin and lead copper and lead silicon and selenium A 1
antimony
Soft solders have relatively low melting points and

212153 2 silver base alloys lead base alloys copper base alloys nickel base alloys B 1
consist mainly of __________.
Bronze metal is an alloy composed mainly of

212153 3 copper and zinc copper and tin tin and lead iron and copper B 1
__________.
Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of

212153 4 copper and tin bronze and tin zinc and copper nickel and copper D 1
__________.
Brass metal is an alloy composed mainly of

212153 5
__________.
tin and zinc copper and tin copper and zinc silicon and lead C 1
Stainless steel is an alloy composed mainly of

212153 6 chromium and steel iron and steel copper and steel brass and steel A 1
__________.
Which of the nondestructive testing methods listed, is

212201 2
most often used to accurately detect external defects
Magnetic particle Ultrasonics Visible dye penetrant All of the above C 1
When using the circular magnetic particle method to current is flowing at magnetic field is magnetic field is at defect is located
212202 1
nondestructively test a weldment, the best results are right angles to the parallel to the right angles to the outside the parallel
C 1
In radiographic inspections, the standard test piece
included in every radiograph provides an effective
212203 1 penetrometer intensimeter lead filter gauge exposure screen A 1
check on the overall quality and bears a numerical
relation
Which oftothe
thefollowing
thicknessconditions
of the partis being tested. Thisa
true concerning A discontinuity in the Porosity, a As long as the plane
212204 1 All of the above. B 1
radiograph taken on a large welded piping repair? form of a crack discontinuity caused of a crack is not in
Which nondestructive testing method is suitable for
212205 1 Magnetic particle Radiography Ultrasonic Dye penetrant B 1
use in detecting and identifying a diameter
allowed working nominal inside nominal outside
212300 1 Tubing is sized by __________. cross-section area D 1
pressure diameter diameter
Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type Type L and M have
212301 1 Type K Type L Type M A 1
K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall identical wall
Insulation on deck steam piping must be installed loose insulation deck steam lines are steam driven loose insulation
212350 1 B 1
securely because __________. contributes to steam subject to vibration machinery cannot prevents normal pipe
maintain good
Steam supply piping to deck machinery is insulated in prevent superheating reduce heat loss contain small steam
212351 1
order to __________.
turbulent free steam
of the steam from the system leaks
C 1
flow through the pipe

A 3/4" pipe with a A 3/4" pipe with an A 3/4" pipe with a All have the same
212352 1 Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter? D 1
standard wall extra strong wall double extra strong outside diameter.
212353 1 Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used? 3/8 inch 1/2 inch 5/8 inch 3/4 inch C 1
Which of the listed materials have been used to

212354 2 manufacture piping available in standard weight, Plastic Copper Steel All of the above C 1
extra strong, and double extra strong wall thickness?
Piping cross-sections ranging from 1/8 inch to 12 nominal inside

212356 1 wall strength outside diameter threaded diameter B 1
inches in diameter, are sized by __________. diameter
Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are

212356 2
sized by the __________.
inside diameter wall thickness outside diameter threaded diameter C 1
average between
inside diameter from
212356 4 Piping is sized by its nominal __________. inside and outside outside diameter
1/8 inch to 12 inches
weight per linear foot C 1
diameters
The designation 'schedule 80 extra strong ' refers to tensile strength of tubing bursting
212358 1
__________.
weight of steel plate
bolts
piping wall thickness
strength
C 1
Allowances may be made for the expansion and

union bulkhead bends or loops in the
212400 1 contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or unions retractable flanges D 1
fittings line
__________.
The movement of steam piping, as a result of
212401 1 changes in temperature, is compensated for by the expansion joints flexitallic gaskets rigid brackets union rings A 1
use of __________.
The movement of steam piping, as a result of
212401 2 union joints expansion joints flexitallic gaskets rigid brackets B 1
changes in temperature, is best compensated for by
212452 1 Copper coil tubing is best cut with a __________. tubing cutter hand hacksaw pipe cutter flare cutter A 1
The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the

212453 2
installation of fittings is called a __________.
swaging tool stretcher flaring tool spreader C 1
The tool used to make up connection fittings for small adjustable belling
212453 3
diameter copper tubing is called a/an __________.
adjustable tube roller
tool
flaring tool tubing expander C 1
rough up the outside crimp the tube end in

After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should remove inside burrs flare the tube before
212455 1 surface of the tube order to slip on the A 1
__________. with a reamer removing the burrs
end with a file fitting

Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of

212456 1 belling stretching flaring swaging D 1
the same size will fit inside is termed __________.
turn the tap wrench turn the tap wrench

To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut tap the reamer out
clockwise, counterclockwise, work the reamer side
212500 2 reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, with a soft faced A 1
simultaneously simultaneously to side to dislodge it
you should __________. hammer
raising the reamer raising the reamer
212501 1 Pipe thread taps are __________. not hardened not fluted tapered straight C 1
Taps and dies used for threading pipe are

212501 2
__________.
not hardened not fluted tapered straight C 1
An American Standard Tapered pipe thread has a

212501 3
taper of __________.
1/4 inch per foot 1/2 inch per foot 3/4 inch per foot 1 inch per foot C 1
prevent over provide a leak proof permit easy joint produce a fine even
212501 4 Pipe threads are cut with a taper to __________. B 1
tightening the joint fit disassembly thread
The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is
212502 1 cutter stock and die threader ratchet cutter B 1
called a pipe __________.
The complete tool used for manually cutting threads
212502 2 tool and die stock and die tap chaser B 1
on pipe is called a pipe __________.
Which of the listed metals offers the best resistance
212508 2 nickel steel aluminum zinc A 1
to sea water corrosion?
How the type of What type of gasket What radius should
When assembling a run of liquid service piping, which
212512 1 fittings used will material should be be used for each All of the above. D 1
of the following factors should be considered?
affect the flow. used. bend in the run.
be certain that the cut grooves in theheat the pipeline to
Before making up a flanged joint, you should have a second spare
212513 1 flanges line up flange face with aexpand the bolt A 1
__________. gasket on hand
squarely chisel holes
the pipe will be
condensate
excessive strain on misalignment completely blocked
Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before accumulates rapidly
212513 2 the joints will result if permits excessive by even the slightest A 1
they are connected because __________. when flanges are not
they are misaligned expansion amount of
properly aligned
misalignment
Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should determine the size of hang a bucket under have a first aid kit on be sure no pressure
212514 1 D 1
__________. the gasket the joint hand exists in the line

Which of the illustrations depicts the correct

212515 1 A B C D GS-0046 B 1
procedure for applying pipe dope?
start the die at a continue turning until
tap the die with a
When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a slight angle with the the end of the pipe
212516 1
die, you should __________. work to create
hammer to break up
has gone through
never use a lubricant C 1
the chips
tapered threads the die and is flush
A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the
212520 1 peened reamed center drilled chamfered D 1
shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.
A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be restoring damaged enlarging existing cutting original straightening tapered
212521 1 A 1
used for __________. threads threads threads threads
Which of the flange types listed identifies the
construction of a pipe joint where a flange is slipped
Lap joint (van stone)
212525 2 over a length of pipe, the pipe end is heated, then Raised face flange Socket joint Walseal joint D 1
flange
setup (flanged) in a special machine, and then the
end of the pipe is machined to form the actual face of
The threaded pipe fitting called 'street elbows' have male and female interrupted threads
212550 1
__________.
male threads only female threads only
threads on each end
C 1
Which of the following descriptions should be Fully threaded, half Close, short, long, Standard, extra- Cast, wrought,
212551 1 B 1
included when identifying the length for pipe nipples? threaded, long, and and tank strong, double extra- stainless, and brass
less than 1/2 inch threaded along the shorter than the thread only on one
212551 2 A 'close nipple' is a piece of pipe that is __________. B 1
long entire length nipple outside end
Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called 'pipe

212552 1 caps ells tees closures A 1
_____________'.
To connect two lengths of pipe previously set in

212553 1 nipple union coupling tee B 1
place, you should use a pipe __________.
outside threads on outside threads on inside threads on

212554 1 A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________. a left-hand twist D 1
one end and inside both ends both ends
in either fully closed
A gate valve installed in a piping system should be only with the stem only for lube oil to throttle the flow of
212600 1 or fully opened A 1
used __________. facing down service liquid
positions
used in either the used to throttle or

A gate valve installed in a pipeline should be installed with the used for steam
212600 2 fully closed or fully regulate the flow of A 1
__________. stem down service only
opened position liquid

Which of the valves listed should be used either in

212600 3 a gate valve a globe valve any check valve any needle valve A 1
the fully opened or the fully closed position?
as either fully
The illustrated valve is recommended for use in allowing flow in in lube oil systems
212600 4 opened or fully in throttling fluid flow GS-0047 A 1
__________. one direction only exclusively
closed
If used for regulating fluid flow through a piping
212600 5 system, which of the valves listed could be Plug valve Globe valve Gate valve Needle valve C 1
damaged?
Gate valves should not be used for throttling as the pressure drop air binding will the installation of an wire drawing of the
212600 6 D 1
__________. will be excessive develop equalizing line will be disc will result
212601 1 What type of valve is shown in the illustration? Globe valve Gate valve Check valve Butterfly valve GS-0047 B 1
Globe valve - rising Gate valve - rising Globe valve - rising Gate valve - rising
212601 2 What type of valve is shown in the illustration? GS-0047 D 1
stem stem disk gate
Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves are more suitable for operate with little or are more easily cannot be used for
212602 1 B 1
__________. throttling no pressure drop repaired service requiring
When in the completely opened position, which of the
double-seat poppet
212602 2 listed types of valve will offer the least resistance to gate valve globe valve reed valve A 1
valve
flow?
An inverted gate valve (stem pointing downward) may the gland stud nuts the packing will not
the gate's full weight sediment collects in
212604 1 be subject to wear sooner than a similar valve
is upon the stem
are under more
the bonnet
properly adhere to C 1
installed in the upright position because __________. pressure the stem
the installation of an
Gate valves should not be used for throttling as the pressure drop air binding will wire drawing of the
212606 1 equalizing line will be D 1
__________. will be excessive develop disc will result
necessary
the installation of an
Gate valves should not be used for throttling as the pressure drop air binding will cutting of the disc
212606 2 equalizing line will be D 1
__________. will be excessive develop will result
necessary
Gate valves should not be used for throttling as the pressure drop air binding will the installation of an damage to the
212606 3 D 1
__________. will be excessive develop equalizing line will be seating surfaces will
Which of the following statements is true concerning The valve is a non- The valve is normally The valve only The valve seats
212607 1 GS-0047 A 1
the valve shown in the illustration. rising stem design. used to throttle the requires one turn of cannot be replaced
The valve shown in the illustration is designed to seal
a two piece rotating an external sealing adjustable packing
212609 1 against positive pressure leaks around the valve stem rubber "O" rings GS-0047 D 1
mechanical seal line gland
by the use of __________.
exact lift position of approximate number

On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the the tank valve disk, oxygen content of of turns the tank
212610 1
deck hand wheel indicator registers the __________. through 100% of its the tank valve has been
level of oil in the tank C 1
operation opened

On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the exact lift position of oxygen content of approximate number
212610 2
deck hand wheel indicator registers the __________. the tank valve disk, the tank of turns the tank
level of oil in the tank C 1
On vessels using reach rods to manually control the

tank valves, one turn of the hand wheel on deck will Three-fourths of a
212611 1 One-fourth of a turn One-half of a turn One turn D 1
produce how many turns of the valve stem at the turn
valve?
On tankers with manually operated tank valves, the

212612 1 type of valve most commonly used is the butterfly valve globe valve gate valve check valve C 1
__________.
On tankers with manually operated tank valves, the

212612 2 type of valve most commonly used is the butterfly valve globe valve gate valve check valve C 1
__________.
be completely be opened to the be opened by 1/2 of be opened as much

opened with the end of the last the total number of as needed,
212613 1 A non-rising stem gate valve should __________. hand wheel locked opening turn, then turns available from regardless of how B 1
hard at the end of rotate the hand full closed to full little the gate has
the last opening turn wheel in the closing open been moved from its
212650 1 The illustrated valve is known as a __________. lift gate valve swing check valve swing globe valve butterfly lift valve GS-0056 B 1
212650 2 The device shown in the illustration is a __________. ball check valve lift check valve swing check valve piston check valve GS-0056 C 1
A swing check valve is used in a pipeline to maintain a preset closely regulate the relieve excessive allow flow in one
212651 1 D 1
__________. pressure on the line amount of flow pressure on the line direction only
Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only
212651 2
one direction?
Gate valve Globe valve Check valve Plug cock C 1
If the valve disk is The plug, located in The cap determines The valve disk alone
Which of the following statements regarding the damaged, the entire the upper left portion the height of lift of can be removed for
212653 1 GS-0056 D 1
illustrated device is true? valve unit must be of the valve body the swinging valve replacement or
replaced. can be removed to disk.
can be opened reconditioning.
can only control the contains both a gate
A stop-check valve is a type of check valve that cannot be shut manually to allow
212654 2 amount of flow in valve disk and a B 1
________. remotely flow in both
one direction check valve disk
first loosening part directions
turning the hand first loosening part
turning the hand
You would open the illustrated valve "A" by #4, opening the wheel #8, then turning the
212700 1
__________.
wheel clockwise, as
valve then counterclockwise, as hand wheel
GS-0140 C 1
viewed from the top
retightening part #4 viewed from the top counterclockwise as
You would close the illustrated valve "A" by turning the hand first loosening part turning the hand first loosening part
212700 2 GS-0140 A 1
__________. wheel clockwise, as #4, closing the valve, wheel #8, then turning the
The illustrated valve, figure A, needs to be repaired turn the hand wheel first fully loosen part first fully loosen part
212700 3 tighten part #4 GS-0140 B 1
due to a leak across the valve disk. To disassemble clockwise as viewed #8, then turn the #8, then turn the

replace the entire remove the hand

disassemble the disassemble and
The illustrated valve "A" needs to be repaired due to valve bonnet and wheel, then remove
valve and renew the renew the
212700 4 a leak across the valve disk. To repair the valve you stem as a unit as part #4 and #5, then
replaceable valve replaceable valve
GS-0140 C 1
should __________. provided by the replace the item #6
disk seat body seat
manufacturer and reassemble in
The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow

212701 1 gate valve globe valve swing-check valve plug-cock valve B 1
through a pipeline is a __________.
The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in

212701 2 gate valve globe valve check valve plug cock B 1
a pipeline is the __________.
Which of the valves listed below is best suited for

212701 3 Plug Globe Gate Butterfly B 1
throttling service?
The use of a needle valve in a piping system is close regulation of

212702 1 high pressure drops no pressure drops no back flow B 1
recommended when requiring __________. flow
An 8-inch (203 mm), globe-type, stop- check valve the valve will never the valve will allow
the valve will remain the valve will prevent permit water flow
has been installed in the lube-oil cooler water outlet, the lube oil
212704 2
with the flow coming in from the top of the disk. Thiscompletely open back flow from the lube oil temperature to be
C 1
means that __________. cooler 10°F (5.5°C) cooler
Which of the following statements represents the Direction of flow Direction of flow Direction of flow Direction of flow
212705 1
proper relative direction of flow through a globe through the valve is through the valve should be from should be from
C 1
for cooling water for boiler water when inspecting
212707 3 "Prussian Blue" is commonly used __________.
treatment treatment valve seat contact
as a lube oil additive C 1
locate waterside check the fit of metal locate refrigeration provide corrosion
212707 4 Prussian blue is used to __________. B 1
heat exchanger mating surfaces system leaks protection for
To properly remove packing from a valve stuffing box, sharpened rod of
212708 1 packing puller chisel and hammer screw driver B 1
you should use a __________. silver solder
A manual process used to remove small irregularities
212709 1 by grinding the contact surfaces together of a valve, spotting-in honing lapping-in refacing C 1
is called __________.
Small irregularities on the seat and disk of a globe
212709 3 valve may be manually repaired with the valve in honing lapping counter-sinking knurling B 1
place by the process known as __________.
Which one of the following statements describes the The first third of the The first third of The first third of The first two-thirds of
212711 1
throttling characteristics of a typical globe valve? valve disk travel in valve disk travel in valve disk travel in valve disk travel in
C 1
require less force to
are less effective as produce a smaller
When comparing globe valves to gate valves, globe are less effective at open against large
212712 1 pressure regulating pressure decrease D 1
valves: throttling flow. differential
valves when fully opened.
pressures.

require more force to

produce a larger are more effective as
When comparing gate valves to globe valves, gate are more effective at open against large
212713 1 pressure decrease pressure regulating B 1
valves __________. throttling flow. differential
when fully open. valves.
pressures.
in the open direction to fully close the in the closed to open the valve
To "verify" the position of a fully opened manual valve
until the valve is valve, then open the direction, then open until it touches the
212714 1 in an operating system, the operator should operate
back seated one-half valve to the fully the valve to its backseat, then close
C 1
the valve hand wheel:
turn open position. previously open the valve to the
The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be
212851 1
constructed of __________.
Monel stellite a resilient material admiralty metal C 1
The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a

212852 1 gate valve check valve globe valve butterfly valve GS-0055 D 1
__________.
Which of the following statements concerning Special tools are It is impossible to To close the valve, it The butterfly valve
212854 1
butterfly valves is correct? required for lapping throttle flow with a is only necessary to should never be
C 1
Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully A rising stem gate
212854 2 A globe stop valve A check valve A butterfly valve D 1
open to fully closed when the handle is turned 90°? valve
operating lever is valve can have operating lever is
The valve illustrated is to be constructed so that the parallel to the pipe additional turns of parallel to the flow valve seat can be
212854 3
__________. center line when packing added when when open and relapped as needed
GS-0055 C 1
closed and there is pressure on perpendicular to the
opened or closed by required to be closed quickly opened by

quickly opened when
moving the control by moving the moving the control
212854 4 The illustrated valve is __________. the control lever is GS-0055 D 1
lever through one or control handle lever by one-quarter
rotated one full turn
more complete turns counter clockwise of a turn
When the illustrated device is in the process of disengaging of the

212901 1 torque switch limit switch manual stop only GS-0027 B 1
opening the associated valve, the motor will be splined dog clutch
When a non-butterfly valve is closed, the motor of the two-position, micro manual, push button
212903 1 torque switch limit switch GS-0027 A 1
device illustrated will be secured by a __________. switch only
The device shown in the illustration is used to open
and close a butterfly valve. The motor will be typically two-position, micro manual, push button
212904 1 torque switch limit switch GS-0027 B 1
secured during the closing phase by the use of the switch only
__________.
The device depicted in the illustration is used to jack over the main power an elevator remotely open piping
212905 1 power a centrifuge GS-0026 D 1
__________. engine car system valves
An electric motor driven (torque producing) remotely Alternately depress Manually engage the Secure power, tag Secure the breaker
controlled, valve actuator is installed on the high sea the 'close' and 'open' actuator hand wheel out system and to this device, then
212906 1 B 1
suction with the 'red' indicator light illuminated. When buttons to get the and 'break' the valve make repairs switch the motor
the 'open' push button is depressed, the 'green' valve open. disk from its seat, because the valve leads and push the
On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo
212909 1 tank valves, the type of power actuator most hydraulic electric steam diesel A 1
commonly used is __________.

Which of the listed types of steam traps operates on

212950 1 Ball float Thermostatic Bimetallic Impulse D 1
the principle that hot water flashes to steam when its
The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends thermal expansion of tendency of hot flow characteristics
212951 2 position of a float A 1
upon the __________. a fluid water to flash into of a liquid as it
The operation of a bellows type thermostatic steam changing position of expansion of two flashing of steam expansion and
212951 3 D 1
trap depends upon the __________. a float within a dissimilar bimetallic when its vapor contraction of a
Which of the following statements is correct Condensate will flow The bucket will not Condensate flow is The valve is opened
212952 1 GS-0048 D 1
concerning the operation of the bucket type steam from the valve open the valve until continuously by the sinking
The device illustrated is referred to as a/an

212952 2 inverted bucket trap upright bucket trap "P" type trap none of the above GS-0048 A 1
__________.
The function of the device illustrated is to control steam input control condensate provide on/off control provide air purging of
212952 3 GS-0048 B 1
__________. to a heat exchanger output from a heat of drain pump low pressure
limit the flow of limit the flow of
regulate the flow of
steam leaving a steam leaving a eliminate steam-pipe
212953 1 The basic function of a steam trap is to __________. steam leaving a B 1
heater until it has heater until it has water hammer
heater
given up its latent given up its latent
The basic function of a steam trap includes which of Regulate the flow of Regulate the flow of Regulate the flow of Regulate the flow of
212953 2 A 1
the following processes? condensate from a steam from a heater. steam to a heater. condensate to a
point of point of steam pressure set
efficiency of the heat
If "E" is moved closer to the top of "B" as shown in condensation will be condensation will be point will
212956 2 exchanger operation GS-0002 B 1
the illustration, the __________. moved closer to the moved closer to the automatically be
will be increased
steam
the dropinlet of the
in pressure condensate outlet of
the drop in pressure increased
the pressure in area
In the operation of the illustrated steam trap,
steam occupies the at "B" does not lower at "B" lowers the "H" is at least 85% of
212957 1 condensate will continue to pass through the outlet as GS-0002 B 1
area labeled "I" the pressure of the vapor pressure of the pressure in area
long as __________.
condensate below its the condensate "I"
The quantity of condensate passing through the amount of vapor amount of liquid amount of vapor vapor pressure of
212958 1
illustrated steam trap will be reduced as the contained in "A" contained in "A" contained in "A" the liquid contained
GS-0005 C 1
The quantity of condensate passing through the amount of vapor amount of liquid amount of vapor vapor pressure of
212958 2
illustrated steam trap will be reduced as the contained in "A" contained in "A" pressure contained the liquid contained
GS-0005 C 1
Steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet They should be A bypass around the
They should be They should remain
point of the heat exchanger in a horizontal run of installed unpainted trap is unnecessary
212959 1 installed with their uninsulated and D 1
pipe. Which of the following installation and wrapped in an if the steam input
main axis horizontal. unpainted.
considerations should also be maintained? insulation blanket. pressure never
horizontal run of
drain line from a high vacuum drag line
drain line from the
A suitable location for the installation of an impulse steam supply line to point in the main from the atmospheric
212959 2 lowest point at the A 1
type steam trap would be in the __________. a feed water heater steam line expansion drain tank to the
outlet of the heat
loop main condenser
exchanger
thermostatic bellows thermodynamic thermostatic bi- thermodynamic float
212961 1 The trap illustrated operates as a __________. GS-0005 A 1
type steam trap bellows type steam metallic bellows type type steam trap type
thermostatic bellows thermodynamic thermostatic bi- thermodynamic float
212961 2 The trap illustrated operates as a __________. GS-0005 A 1
type steam trap impulse type steam metallic bellows type type steam trap type
Leaking and The valve seat will
Which of the following conditions can develop if a The valve disk will The valve disk will
213300 1 premature failure of sustain damage due B 1
valve with a badly scored valve stem is repacked? crack. become eroded.
the packing. to fretting.

Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve opening a valve too jamming a valve in low pressure fluid
213300 2 a scored valve stem D 1
packing is a result of __________. quickly the closed position flow through the
An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by taking a light cut in a sandblasting with dressing the seat scraping with a
213301 1 A 1
__________. lathe light weight grit with crocus cloth bastard file
Which of the problems listed could happen if you Over compression of Bending of the valve Rapid corrosion of Cracking of gaskets
213400 1 B 1
attempted to force open a valve 'frozen' in position by the packing stem the valve disc upstream of the
Which of the problems listed could happen if you
Bending of the Bending of the valve Damage to the Distortion of the
213400 2 attempted to force open a valve 'frozen' in position by B 1
bonnet assembly stem pressure seal valve body
using a wrench on the hand wheel?
According to 46 CFR Part 56, carbon steel bolts
temperature does temperature does pressure does not pressure does not
213450 2 rather than alloy steel bolts may be used to make up
not exceed 550°F not exceed 750°F exceed 300 psi exceed 500 psi
C 1
a flange if the normal operating __________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) require
213451 1 450°F 650°F 825°F 925°F D 1
that screw joints shall not be used in piping systems
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) require all cycling all connected
being cross operating
power-operated valves, other than those opened valves from the initial
connected to an continuously for 60 closing all connected
213500 2 against spring force, to have an energy storage valve position to the B 1
alternate power minutes after a valves three times
system. That energy storage system shall be capable opposite position
supply power failure
of __________. and return
Which CFR provides information that pertains to sea

213501 2 46 CFR Part 52 46 CFR Part 54 46 CFR Part 56 46 CFR Part 61 D 1
valve inspections during a vessel dry-docking?
either at 0° or 90°
forty-five degrees to
parallel to the axis of but never at any parallel to the flow
the axis of flow when
213502 1 The handle of a butterfly valve must be __________. flow when the valve other angle when in the fully D 1
the valve is fully
is closed regardless of flow open position
open
rate
Valves used in the machinery space piping systems, direction of opening

right-hand opening left-hand closing right-hand closing
213503 1 and constructed with threaded valve stems, must be
(clockwise) (counterclockwise) (clockwise)
and closing is C 1
__________. unimportant
Which of the listed pumps, shown in the illustration, is General service

213550 1
fitted with a relief valve on its discharge side?
Bilge pump Ballast pump
pump
All of the above GS-0042 C 1

stop valves operated stop-check lift valves

All of the manifold valves shown in the illustration are stop-check or stop
213551 1 gate valves from above the operated from above GS-0042 B 1
__________. valves
bulkhead deck the bulkhead deck
The motor operated valve, shown in the illustration, is

213551 2 1 2 3 4 GS-0125 A 1
represented by item number __________.
gate valves operated swing check valves

The overboard discharge valves in the bilge system
213551 3 gate valves stop-check valves from above the operated from above GS-0042 B 1
illustrated are __________.
bulkhead deck the bulkhead deck
The bilge pump suction manifold, shown in the four stop-check three normally three normally
213551 4 four stop valves GS-0042 B 1
illustration, is provided with __________. valves opened valves and closed valves and
In the diagram illustrated, item "4" represents a

213552 1 check valve globe valve relief valve motor operated valve GS-0125 B 1
__________.
using a positive
stop-check valves installing a swing
Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through displacement installing eductors in
213553 2 installed in the bilge check before each A 1
the bilge system is prevented by __________. reciprocating bilge all bilge rose boxes
suction manifolds bilge valve
pump
The shaded portion of the diagram shown in the
213554 1 discharge manifold suction line bilge system vacuum branch line GS-0125 A 1
illustration represents a __________.
In the diagram illustrated, the direction of flow through dependent on

213555 1 from right to left from left to right in either direction GS-0125 B 1
the check valve is __________. discharge pressure
In the diagram, shown in the illustration, the swing-

213555 2 check valve is represented by the item numbered 1 2 3 4 GS-0125 C 1
__________.

In the diagram shown in the illustration, item "3"

213555 3 relief valve stop valve gate valve check valve GS-0125 D 1
represents a __________.
when the main

to inject cleaning condenser becomes to connect the rose if the bilges become
The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used additives when the fouled, in order to box to the flooded and they can
213556 1 D 1
__________. bilges are extremely provide additional independent bilge not be emptied by
dirty cooling water suction any other means
circulation
Which pump illustrated is fitted with a suction General service

213580 1 Bilge pump Ballast pump All of the above GS-0042 D 1
strainer? pump
Which of the listed pumps, shown in the illustration,

General service
213581 1 can be used to take suction on the forward, port, Bilge pump Ballast pump All of the above GS-0042 A 1
pump
engine room bilge?
In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank

cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the
213582 1 One Two Three Four GS-0042 B 1
illustration, how many suction side valves must be
open?
In order for all of the bilge pump discharge to pass
through the oily water separator, shown in the
213582 2 completely open completely closed only cracked open throttled GS-0042 B 1
illustration, the oily water separator bypass valve
must be __________.
The general service pump is to be used to remove
clean water from the No. 3 port double-bottom
213582 3 cofferdam and discharge it through the ballast Four Five Six Seven GS-0042 A 1
overboard discharge. What are the minimum number
of valves, shown in the illustration, that must be
The general service pump is to be used to remove
clean water from the No. 4 port aft cargo hold and
discharged through the ballast overboard. What are
213582 4
the minimum number of valves that must be opened
Four Five Six Seven GS-0042 C 1
on both the suction and discharge to accomplish this
task?

Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port

3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10
and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of 1, 2, 5 and 6 open;
213583 1
valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves
1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9
4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.
GS-0139 C 1
closed. closed. closed.
should be closed?
It is necessary to discharge salt water ballast into the
1, 3, 5, 6 and 9
#6 centerline tank. Which combination of listed valves 2, 3, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 open; 2, 5, 6 and 9 open;
213583 2 open; 2, 4, 7, 8, and GS-0139 B 1
illustrated, must be opened and which valves must be 4, 7, 8, and 9 closed 3, 5, 6 and 10 closed 1, 3, 6 and 10 closed
10 closed
closed?
In order for the vessel to discharge its cargo to a
shore facility from #6 centerline tank, with the #7
1, 2, 4 and 9 open 3, 1, 4, and 10 open 2 1, 2, 5 and 6 open 3 All valves are open
213583 3 main deck manifold valve open, which of the listed GS-0139 A 1
5, 6, 8 and 10 closed closed and 4 closed to gravitate
valve combinations, shown in the illustration, must be
opened and which of the valves must be closed?
One of the consequences in continuing to operate a motor overload will
213584 1
centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve open
relief valve will open pump will overheat motor will overheat C 1
first stage oil second stage oil
The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in outlet weir and outlet inlet weir and inlet
213585 1 separator and drip separator and drip GS-0153 B 1
the illustration, are known as the __________. baffle baffle
pan pan
What device shown in the illustration is used to An automatic valve, A rupture disc, item Internal tank This device is never
213586 1
prevent excessive internal pressures within the unit item #14 opens to #16 ruptures causing pressure overcomes exposed to
GS-0153 C 1
This device is never

Which of the items listed is used to prevent over exposed to
213586 2 Item "2" Item "14" Item '16' GS-0153 A 1
pressurization in the device shown in the illustration? excessive internal
pressures.
A valve is not
Which of the valves listed is connected to the suction required as the
213587 1 side of the pump used in conjunction with the device valve "4" valve "14" valve "5" pump is directly GS-0153 B 1
shown in the illustration? attached to the
bottom of the tank.
The water in the The water in the
The water in the
Which of the listed conditions will occur if valve "14" The water in the bilges will rise until bilges will continue
bilges will rise until
213587 2 of the unit shown in the illustration is secured while bilges will continue probe "6" causes the to rise if no other GS-0153 D 1
probe "6" activates
the unit is operating in the processing mode? to be discharged. automatically pump is operated
the separator.
operated valve "5" to because the pump
The valve labeled "4", for the device shown in the oily water inlet
213589 1
illustration, is the __________.
pump suction valve
regulating valve
oil discharge valve flow control valve GS-0153 C 1
The valve labeled "5", in the device shown in the overboard discharge
213589 2 pump suction valve oily water inlet valve flow control valve GS-0153 B 1
illustration is the __________. regulating valve
The valve labeled 'V-4', for the illustrated device, is processed water
213589 3
the __________.
pump suction valve oily water inlet valve
discharge valve
oil drain control valve GS-0113 C 1
The water level The water level The water level in
When the oily water separator, shown in the No water level is
should be located in should be located in the tank should be
213590 1 illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge maintained in the GS-0153 A 1
the upper section of the lower section of slightly above the
water, what should be the internal water level? tank.
the tank. the tank as upper coalescermay
The detergents bed
The detergent will The detergent will The detergent will
When operating the oily-water separator shown in the cause the oil and
agitate within the damage the special foam causing the
213598 1 illustration, why is it necessary to avoid detergents
separator and cause protective coating in
water to become an
main bilge pump to
GS-0153 C 1
mixing with the bilge water? emulsion which this
it to explode. the inside of the unit. become air bound.
unit is not capable of

You are observing the operation of the oily-water The unit has just The unit has just The unit is obviously The unit is operating
213602 1 GS-0153 B 1
separator shown in the illustration. Item "1" initially begun the oily-water begun the oil flooded and needs to incorrectly and must
The unit is operating The unit is operating The unit is operating The unit is operating
Regarding the oily water separator shown in the in the processing in the bilge water in the purge mode in the back flush
213602 2 illustration, what mode of operation is occurring if mode and is removal mode and is only removing mode causing any oil GS-0153 D 1
item "1" indicates a positive pressure? currently separating separating the oil air from the upper or air to be
emulsified bilge from the water as it level of
allow thethe
oiltank. discharged to the oil
direct the flow of the
accumulated to exit prevent separated oil
The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to oily-water mixture support the tank
213603 1 the device, while from mixing with the GS-0153 D 1
__________. against the access panel
remaining separated incoming bilge water
coalescer bed
from the liquid
The unit shown in the illustration is known as a/an bilge water oily-water
213605 1 sludge processor oily-water separator GS-0153 D 1
__________. conditioner conditioner
The device shown in the illustration is used to process sludge process sludge process oily-water condition reduction
213605 2
__________. found on motor found on steam mixtures present in gear lube oil by
GS-0153 C 1
bilge water oily-water

213605 3 The illustrated system is used as a/an __________. sludge processor oily-water separator GS-0113 D 1
conditioner conditioner
process sludge process sludge process oily-water condition reduction

213605 4 The illustrated system is used to __________. found on motor found on steam mixtures present in gear lube oil by GS-0113 C 1
vessels vessels the bilge water removing the water
The oily-water The oily-water The oily-water The oily-water
mixture enters mixture enters mixture enters mixture enters
What is the normal direction of flow through the
through valve "14" through the pressure through valve "4" through valve "5"
213607 1 device shown in the illustration while operating in the GS-0153 D 1
and exits with the control valve "2" and and exits as and exits the
processing mode?
processed liquid exits with the processed liquid separator through
through valve "4". processed liquid through valve "14". valve "14" as
It senses Both items of #6 are
It is used to maintain It is used to control
In the device shown in the illustration, what is the temperature for use anodes used to
213608 1 liquid level one inch the oil discharge GS-0153 D 1
function of item "6"? in the temperature provide the tank with
below item "8". mode.
control circuit. corrosion protection.
It senses Both sensing
It is used to maintain It is used to control
In the illustrated device, what is the function of the temperature for use elements are anodes
213608 2 liquid level one inch the oil discharge GS-0113 D 1
short sensing element attached to "S" in figure "A"? in the temperature used to provide the
below the weir plate. mode.
control circuit. tank with corrosion
sense discharge
determine when
The function of item "6", as shown in the illustration, terminate the oil initiate the oil temperature to
213608 3
is to __________. discharge mode
back flushing is
discharge mode control the operation
GS-0153 C 1
necessary
of the internal heater
The component labeled "A", as shown in the oil level sensing pressure tank relief oily water content
213609 1 water sensing probe GS-0175 A 1
illustration, would be identified as the ______. probe valve monitor

The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, clean water flushing
213610 1 oily bilge water inlet tank drain line oil discharge line GS-0175 A 1
would be identified as the ______. line
The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, clean water flushing
213611 1
would be identified as the ______.
processed oil outlet
line
oily bilge water inlet oily bilge water outlet GS-0175 C 1
The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, processed bilge clean water flushing
213612 1 separated oil outlet oily bilge water inlet GS-0175 A 1
would be identified as the ______. water outlet line
A lube oil purifier
A 100 PPM oily configured as a A 15 PPM oily water
Which of the components listed is required for the A magnetic duplex
213700 3
processing of bilge slops for overboard discharge?
water detector and separator and detector and
strainer.
C 1
separator. aligning it to the bilge separator.
overboard.
A lube oil purifier A 15 PPM oily water A 30 PPM oily water
What equipment is required when processing bilge A 100 PPM oily
213700 4
slops for overboard discharge? water separator.
operating as a separator and separator and C 1
separator. discharge monitor. discharge monitor.
Which of the valves listed for the device shown in valves "4", "5", and
213701 1
illustration will be open while the unit is operating in
valve "4" valves "4" and "5" valves "4" and "14"
"14"
GS-0153 C 1
As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are disks and seats bonnet flange stem packing should
periodically removed and examined. Prior to should be checked gaskets should be be renewed if the
stem packing should
be renewed if the
disks and seats bonnet, flange
During routine maintenance the bilge manifold valves packing has
should be checked gaskets should be
213800 2 are removed. Prior to reassembling the valve hardened, the glands all of the above D 1
and lapped if renewed if they were
bonnets, the valve __________. have bottomed out,
necessary cut or torn
or the glands cannot
change the trim of be tightened
place 20 gallons (
the ship to port in properly and safely
The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back 75.7 L) of fuel oil
order to pump out empty the well with a
213801 1 flushing has not been successful. The next practical
the bilges for the
tank wash into the
portable pump then
all of the above C 1
solution would be to __________. affected bilge well to
remainder of the manually muck it out
clear the blockage
The aft, starboard bilge-well can not be pumped out, voyage
List the ship to port Place 20 gals. (75.7 Take all necessary Change over and
and back flushing has not been successful. The next in order to pump out L) of fuel oil tank- steps to properly and use one of the two
213801 2
practical solution will be to carry out which of the the bilges for the wash into the safely pump out the remaining bilge
C 1
following
The bilge actions?
system is unable to pump out the aft remainder of the affected
Remove bilge well for
the effected affected bilge well, Transfer
pumps tohalfdewater
the
Send the wiper into Simultaneously
starboard engine room bilge-well due to the bilge-well bilge manifold valve contents of a drum of
213801 3 the bilge-well with a operate all available B 1
suction being fouled. With two feet of water over the and attempt to back degreaser into the
scoop and pail. bilge pumps.
top of the bilge-well, which of the following actions flush the line. bilge well and pump
Concerning the device shown in the illustration, which valves, items "4" and coalescer bed, item coalescer bed, item
213825 1 weir, item "7" GS-0153 D 1
of the listed components would be removed or "5" "9" "12"
In the illustration shown, which of the listed
Coalescer bed, item coalescer bed, item
213825 2 components would be removed or disconnected last Valve, item "5" Weir, item "7" GS-0153 D 1
"9" "12"
during cleaning and inspection of the tank internals?

bilge well connected bilge well aft

bilge system will lose
to that valve, plus connected to that
If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not vacuum and prevent
213850 1 the second bilge well valve will siphon its all of the above B 1
properly seat, the __________. the other bilges from
being pumped will be contents to the
being pumped out
completelyconnected
bilge-well emptied bilge system will lose forward
aftermost bilge wells
bilge-wells
If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from to that valve, plus vacuum, preventing connected to that
213850 2 all of the above B 1
seating, the __________. the second bilge-well other bilges from valve will siphon
being pumped will be being pumped out their contents to the
If an operating bilge pump is developing good The wearing rings The suction strainer The discharge valve
213851 1 The shaft is worn. B 1
vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which are excessively is clogged. is clogged.
If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is for leaks in the relief valve is not
213852 1 the circuit breaker the suction strainer A 1
unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would suction piping properly seated
If a bilge pump is able to develop some vacuum, but a clogged suction leaks in the suction a relief valve not
is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you strainer piping properly seated
Remove only the Attempt to pump out
Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST Remove each of the
Open the bilge pump suction manifold another bilge well to
213900 2 if a bilge well of a multiple suction bilge system is suction manifold D 1
for inspection. valve to the affected determine if the
unable to be pumped out? valves.
bilge well. exists as
No problem entire system is
If item "1" in the illustrated oily water separator Process water inlet Suction line inlet
Coalescer beds are a high vacuum
213901 1 indicates an abnormally high vacuum, which of the valve, item "5", is strainer is GS-0153 D 1
severely fouled. should be
following conditions is the most probable cause? open. obstructed.
maintained in the
If air is continuously allowed to enter the device the air will the accumulation of the air will present the unit will prevent
213903 1 GS-0153 B 1
shown in the illustration while operating in the accumulate in the air in the top of the no problem to the this as the
Regarding the device shown in the illustration, what An unusually high An unusually high This type of oily-
An unusually high
would be the most probable cause if item "1" vacuum is the result vacuum is the result water separator
vacuum indicates a
213903 2 indicated an unusually high vacuum while the oily of the flow control of the coalescer always operates with GS-0153 A 1
restriction in the inlet
water separator was operating in the processing valve '# 14' being beds being installed an unusually high
piping.
mode? excessively throttled. in reverse order. vacuum.
The unit shown in the illustration has just been
internally cleaned. An inspection was carried out and retighten all the cap reseat the relief close off control check the bilge water
213903 3 GS-0153 D 1
the unit found to be properly lined up, although item screws on the lid valve, item "2" valve, item "14" inlet strainer
"1" indicates
While an unusually
the illustrated highseparator
oily-water vacuum. Your next
is operating
The flow control There is minor air
in the processing mode, if item "1" indicates higher The bilge suction is The coalescer beads
213904 1
than normal absolute pressure, what is the probable completely flooded.
valve "14" is
are severely fouled.
leakage from the GS-0153 C 1
completely open. pump discharge.
cause?
If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound
in the oil discharge processing the bilge damaged and should
213906 1 gage indicating zero psig and the water level in the not turned on GS-0153 A 1
mode water not be used
bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________.
If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound

unit is fouled and unit is operating unit is in the oil compound gage
213906 2 gage indicating zero psig while processed water is GS-0153 D 1
should be cleaned correctly discharge mode needs to be replaced
known to be discharging overboard, the __________.
The compound gage shown in the illustration and operating correctly fouled and needs operating correctly, not operating
213906 3
labeled as item "1" indicates a slight vacuum while without the need for cleaning but requires the correctly and also
GS-0153 C 1
The flow control A decrease in the The throughput of The throughput of
What will cause the throughput of the oily-water
valve "14" is open processing ability the separator may the separator varies
213907 1 separator shown in the illustration to decrease when GS-0153 B 1
excessively wide and may be caused by a be reduced if the while in the
operating in the processing mode?
permitting an worn pump internals. inlet valve "4" processing mode as

The flow control The throughput of The throughput of

valve 'V-3' is open A decrease in the the separator may the separator varies
What will cause the throughput of the oily-water
excessively wide and processing ability be reduced if the while in the
213907 2 separator illustrated to decrease when operating in GS-0113 B 1
permitting an may be caused by inlet valve 'V-4' processing mode as
the processing mode?
excessive amount of worn pump internals. remains open during determined by the
bilge water to enter processing mode. quantity of oil in the
What will cause the throughput of the oily-water The flow control A decrease in the The throughput of The throughput of
213907 3 GS-0113 B 1
separator shown in the illustration to decrease when valve 'V-3' is open processing ability the separator may the separator varies
When the oily-water When there are When the oily-water
Without detergents
Under what conditions would the oily- water mixture is an small air leaks in the
separator is in the
the effectiveness of
213908 1 separator, shown in the illustration, fail to effectively emulsion the discharge piping, the
process mode it will GS-0153 A 1
the separator is
process a mixture of oily-water? effectiveness of the effectiveness of theeffectively handle
greatly reduced.
separator
When the is greatly
oily-water separator
When willare
there greatly
emulsions.
When the oily-water
mixture is an Without detergents small air leaks in the
Under what conditions would the oily- water separator separator is in the
emulsion the the effectiveness of discharge piping, the
213908 2 system illustrated fail to effectively process a mixture process mode it will GS-0113 A 1
effectiveness of the the separator is effectiveness of the
of oily- water? effectively handle
separator is greatly greatly reduced. separator will greatly
emulsions.
reduced.
Back flush water The separator reduced. The separator
The separator
If valve 'V2A' in the illustration does not open when would cause the oil operation would stall operation would
operation would stall
the oily-water separator shifts into the oil discharge accumulated in the as a result of oil continue as valve
213909 2 do to the presence of GS-0113 B 1
mode, which of the following statements describes upper section of the remaining on the 'V4' is only used
water at the shorter
what would occur? tank to be forced longer probe of item during the remote
probe of item "S".
back
It into the to
is required bilge
use "S".
It can use any pump manual
It is required to use mode. bilge
No emergency
Referring to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), what
the main circulating in the machinery the largest available
suction is required
213950 1 statement is true concerning an emergency bilge B 1
water pump or if not space other than that pump in the for cargo vessels
suction for a cargo vessel over 180 feet in length?
suitable, the largest required for the bilge machinery space over 180 feet in
be independent of be a part of the have a cross
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the have an independent
213950 2 the main bilge independent bilge connection to the A 1
emergency bilge system to __________. priming pump
system system ballast system
Bilge suction lines led through tanks, without using a fabricated of fitted with gate coated with coal tar fitted so as to not
213952 3 A 1
pipe tunnel, must be __________. schedule 80 pipe valves at the bilge epoxy, or similar allow for expansion
An emergency bilge suction is required for machinery space
214052 2
__________.
ballast tanks sludge tanks
bilges
cargo hold bilges C 1
Which of the following is the minimum internal
diameter of the main bilge suction piping permitted by
214053 1 1 1/2 inches. 2 1/2 inches. 3 1/2 inches. 4 1/2 inches. B 1
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) on a
vessel over 150 gross tons? The system must be
All bilge manifold Peak tanks, chain
capable of operation
suctions shall be lockers, and decks
Which of the following statements indicates under all practicable
capable of being over peak tanks may
214054 1 compliance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR conditions after a All of the above. D 1
locally controlled be drained by
Part 56) concerning a vessel's bilge system? casualty, whether the
from above the floor eductors, ejectors, or
vessel is upright or
plates. hand pumps.
listed.
the bilge pumping peak tanks and
all oil and water
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) for bilge system be operable chain lockers have
214054 2 tanks be connected all of the above B 1
and ballast piping require that __________. under all practicable separate electric
to the bilge system
conditions pumps

It is necessary to replace a branch suction section of

bilge system piping within the machinery space. The
2" (nominal size) 3" (nominal size) 4" (nominal size) 5" (nominal size)
214055 1 machinery space is 100' in length and 85' in breadth.
schedule 40 schedule 80 schedule 80 schedule 60
C 1
The molded depth of the bulkhead deck is 25'. Which
of the listed pipe sizes should be used?
In the diagram, items '2A and 2B' represent the Valve 2A must be Valve 2B must be
overboard discharge valves of the ballast system positive closing, in positive closing, in Both valves are
Only one automatic
illustrated. According to 46 CFR Part 56, which of theaddition to the addition to the correct as required
214056 2
following statements is correct if the length between indicated automatic indicated automatic
non-return valve
and indicated in the
GS-0125 C 1
feature is required.
perpendiculars of a vessel is 500 feet, and the non-return valve non-return valve illustration.
through hull opening is eleven feet above the summer feature. feature.
The inboard valve The outboard valve
Which of the following statements is correct if the Two valves are
only need be positive only need be positive
length of the vessel between perpendiculars is 500 required, and each
closing, in addition to closing, in addition to Only one shutoff
214056 3 feet, and the through hull opening is five feet above
being of the being of the valve is required.
must be of the GS-0125 C 1
the summer load line for the overboard discharge of automatic non-
automatic non-return automatic non-return
the system illustrated? return type.
valve type. valve type.
In the diagram, items '2A and 2B' represent the Valve 2A must be Valve 2B must be Both valves must be Only one valve is
overboard discharge valves of the ballast system positive closing, in positive closing, in positive closing, in required, but must
illustrated. According to 46 CFR Part 56, which of theaddition to the addition to the addition to the ability be positive closing
214056 4 GS-0125 D 1
following statements is correct if the vessels length indicated automatic indicated automatic to provide the and include the
between perpendiculars is 500 feet, and the through non-return valve non-return valve automatic non-return automatic non-return
hull opening is four feet above the summer load line? feature. feature. feature. feature.
The pump suction The pump housing
Which of the following statements correctly describes and discharge The pump and motor The pump impeller is and motor frame
214100 1 the construction of the close-coupled sanitary pump connections are have a common classified as double provide for radial GS-0070 B 1
shown in the illustration? made with screwed shaft. suction. adjustment of the
pipe fittings. shaft coupling.
provide a higher
reduce excessive prevent the sanitary
A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary pressure in the increase water flow
214150 1 cycling of the pump from losing A 1
system to __________. system then the through the system
sanitary pump suction
pump can deliver
back pressure
214170 1 The device shown in the illustration is a __________. relief valve flushometer valve hydro-kineter GS-0155 B 1
regulator
maintain proper provide pressure control flush water inject emergency

The device shown in the illustration is used to
214170 2
__________.
sanitary system relief in low pressure flow to toilets and feed water into high GS-0155 C 1
operating pressure systems urinals pressure vessels
The diaphragm orifice labeled "H", as shown in the

214172 1 pressure reducer check valve injector time delay GS-0155 D 1
illustration is used as a/an __________.
total force above "C"
Water flow is established through the unit shown in "E" is moved from "A" is tilted off of its is reduced below the
214173 1 all of the above GS-0155 D 1
the illustration when __________. the position shown seat value of the total
force acting beneath

"C" lifts due to the

Water flow occurs through the unit shown in the "A" is tilted off of its
decrease in pressure "E" is moved from
214173 3 all of the above GS-0155 D 1
illustration when __________. seat on top of the the position shown
diaphragm
The pressure in Continuing to hold Once "A" is
"D" will be physically
chamber "I" is down "E" will hold reseated, the total
Which of the following statements would apply to the and directly raised
greater than the "A" off of its seat, force developed in
214173 4 principle of operation of the device shown in the
pressure in chamber allowing water to chamber "I" will
by the movement of GS-0155 C 1
illustration? "E", forcing "C" to
"II", causing part "A" continuously flow gradually rise to
become unseated.
to close off, and from chamber "I" to exceed the total
According to the illustration, which of the following A vacuum is created Once "C" has lifted, A vacuum is created Releasing "E"
214174 1 GS-0155 B 1
statements represents the order of events required to in chamber "III" as "A" will reseat with in chamber "III" as a physically draws "C"
Traps in plumbing drains are designed to help drain noises in the drains clogging at air pockets in the escape of odors into
214200 1 D 1
prevent __________. living quarters the toilets sewer lines the living quarters
Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent

214200 2 system clogging escape of odors air pockets drain noises B 1
__________.
provide a cushion of provide a seal

reduce water velocity
The drains of lavatory sinks are fitted with P-type or S- create a strong water to reduce the against sewer gas
214200 3 and minimize D 1
type traps to __________. siphon effect effects of water rising into the
erosion
hammer compartment
preventing
The flame screens installed on tank vents that may absorbing any
allowing the escape dissipating the heat flammable vapors
214250 2 contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent flammable vapors in B 1
of flammable vapors of an external flame from entering the
explosions by __________. the vicinity
tank
preventing
The flame screens installed on tank vents that may absorbing any
allowing the escape dissipating the heat flammable vapors
214250 3 contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent flammable vapors in B 1
of flammable vapors of an external flame from entering the
explosions by __________. the vicinity
tank
The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the

214301 1 detention maceration bulking chlorinating B 1
size of sewage particles is known as __________.
In sewage treatment, the term 'maceration' refers to breaking up solid precipitating chemically adjusting eliminating
214301 2 A 1
the process of __________. matter into fine decomposed waste the sewage pH to bacterium coli from
The process of grinding or shredding sewage into

214301 3 detention communition bulking skimming B 1
smaller particles is known as __________.

If water continues to trickle into the toilet bowl after "E" being stuck or a problem with "H" "A" being cocked "C" having
214333 1 GS-0155 D 1
the device shown in the illustration has apparently held in a position that allows into a fully open developed a warp or
Coast Guard regulations concerning marine

214350 1 33 CFR Section 159 33 CFR Section 153 33 CFR Section 155 33 CFR Section 156 A 1
sanitation devices may be found in __________.
A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations holding all sewage treating sewage in pumping the sewage
regarding the discharge of sewage by __________. onboard an approved system ashore to an
Marine sanitation devices installed on vessels must American Bureau of Society of Naval Environmental
214352 1 U.S. Coast Guard A 1
be certified by the __________. Shipping Architects and Protection Agency
Sewage treatment systems aboard U.S. inspected Environmental American Bureau of Underwriter's
214352 2 U.S. Coast Guard B 1
vessels must be approved by the __________. Protection Agency Shipping Laboratories
Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is

214353 1 used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water Type I Type II Type III Type IV C 1
at ambient air pressure and temperature?
According to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR Part

159), which of the listed types of Marine Sanitation
214353 4 Devices (MSD) is designed to hold sewage on board Type I Type II Type III Type IV C 1
in special tanks to be pumped out at shore side
facilities when available.
Short cycling of the potable water system's pump is constant speed variable speed variable delivery a hydro pneumatic
214400 2 D 1
prevented by using __________. supply pumps supply pumps supply pumps pressure tank
Short cycling of the potable water pump is avoided by hydro-pneumatic hydro-pneumatic charge of air, at 20 charge of air, at
214400 3 D 1
the proper use of a __________. tank completely filled tank filled with water psi (137.9 kPa) system pressure,
A constant pressure range is maintained in the an air cushion in a a pressure regulator

constant speed variable speed
214401 2 potable water system of many vessels by using
supply pumps supply pumps
hydro-pneumatic in the pump suction C 1
__________. surge tank piping
The hydro-
Which of the following conditions is most likely to Loss of air in the A low water level in Operating both
pneumatic tank
214402 1 cause water hammer in the potable water system hydro-pneumatic the potable water pumps GS-0173 B 1
being half full of
shown in the illustration? tank. storage tank. simultaneously.
water
The hydro-
pneumatic The hydro-
According to the illustration, which of the following A low water level Pump "A" wearing
expansion tank is pneumatic tank is
214403 1 conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to short exists in the potable rings have excessive GS-0173 A 1
operating with an operating with a low
cycle? water storage tank. clearance.
insufficient air water level.
charge.

maintain flow rates return overflow from maintain the desired

maintain uniform
A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot which will eliminate the pressure tanks temperature range
214450 1 inlet conditions for D 1
water system to __________. fluid film formation in back to the potable throughout the
the pressure tanks
the piping water tanks system
Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely used to

214550 1 Hydrochloric acid Chlorine Sulfuric acid Zinc chromate B 1
maintain the hygienic quality of potable water?
When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to

loosen the vent the pump check the discharge
214650 1 another, if the fresh water pump loses suction you all of the above B 1
mechanical seal casing strainers
should___________.
The hydro-
A low water level in Rapid closing of a
Which of the following conditions is most likely to pneumatic tank The starting of the
214651 1 the potable water spring closed basin D 1
cause water hammer in the potable water system? being half full of potable water pump.
storage tank. faucet.
water
disinfected monthly cadmium lined to flushed each time

Potable water piping systems installed aboard ships independent of all
214750 1 with a chlorine prevent internal potable water is B 1
must be __________. other piping systems
compound corrosion taken onboard
may be temporarily are permanently may never be cross- may be connected if

Potable and non-potable water systems aboard ship
214750 2
__________.
connected with a connected through a connected by any they are used only C 1
removable spool double stop valve means for wash water
are permanently
may be temporarily may never be may be connected if
Potable and non-potable water systems aboard interconnected
214750 3
vessels __________.
interconnected with
through a double
interconnected by they are used only C 1
a removable spool any means for wash water
stop valve
vents are fitted with
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR),
vents are fitted with tanks have no ball float check tanks are fitted with
fresh water tank vents the may terminate below the
214751 1 suitable mechanical boundaries in valves or an suitable pressure- B 1
deep load water line in the machinery space under
closures common with the hull equivalent automatic vacuum relief valves
what condition?
closure device
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 in short lengths not
to withstand a
CFR Part 56), a nonmetallic flexible hose, used in a with a fiber or steel to exceed 60 inches
214752 3 hydrostatic test all of the above B 1
nonvital freshwater system, operating at 125 psi reinforcement for the purpose of
pressure of 188 psi
must be constructed __________. flexibility only
In addition to one safety pressure relief valve, Coast a temperature relief a temperature relief a temperature relief an audible high
214753 1
Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that a small valve set for not valve or a combined valve or a combined water temperature
C 1

According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) for they must prevent they are they open a they prevent the
214753 2 A 1
electric storage tank-type hot water heaters, what the water in the automatically reset secondary power water from attaining
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require small
214753 3 210°C 166°C 125°C 99°C D 1
electric storage tank-type hot water boilers, rated at
In a double-effect distilling unit, the brine in the distillate/vapor from flash chamber leak
215201 1
second-effect is additionally heated by __________.
auxiliary steam air ejector steam
the first effect off
C 1
From where does the air ejector take its suction on a First Effect vapor Second Effect
215202 1 Vapor separator Flash chamber B 1
Soloshell double effect distilling unit? feed heater distilling condenser
One function of the vapor feed heater in a double- condense part of the preheat distillate cool the incoming condense all the
215204 1 A 1
effect submerged tube distilling unit is to vapor given off in the circulating to the first-effect distillate in the
the capacity will the average salinity the average salinity
If a flash-type evaporator is operating in extremely the evaporator feed
remain the same of the distillate may of the distillate may
215220 2 cold seawater temperatures, the engineer may heater will require
regardless of the increase due to decrease due to
C 1
expect that __________. less steam
evaporator shell excessive
secure thevacuum excessive vacuum
While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging evaporator until the raise the tripping
the output to the distill tanks. If it becomes necessary continue the current dump the evaporator feed water point at the salinity
215221 1 A 1
to reduce the feed water temperature below 165°F, evaporator operation to the bilge temperature can be indicating panel for
you should __________. raised to 165°F or the three-way valve
more
secure the lower the feed water
While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging
evaporator until the trip point
the output to the boiler water reserve feed tanks. If it decrease the steam
dump the distillate to feed water temperature at the
215221 2 becomes necessary to reduce the evaporator feed pressure to the air D 1
the bilge temperature can be indicating panel for
water temperature to below 165°F, you should ejectors
raised to 165°F or the three-way dump
_______.
During the operation of a flash-type evaporator, the more valve
distillate flow meter indicates the output has A leak has Excessive L.P.
Feed water Distillate output
significantly decreased from the previous day. developed in the extraction steam is
215222 2 temperature is being temperature is being A 1
Although all shell pressures appear normal, which of distillate collection flowing to the feed
introduced at 170°F. discharged at 100°F.
the following could be the probable cause for the tray. water heater.
decrease in output?
If the evaporator feed temperature from a flash type the distillate may be the automatic three- the demisters will priming will occur in
215223 2 B 1
evaporator falls below 160°F __________. directed to the way solenoid dump become scaled the first-effect
directly to the directly overboard into the second
In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in into the second
215224 1
the first stage automatically passes __________.
second stage feed through the brine
stage flash chamber
stage vapor C 1
heater cooler condenser
Which of the listed conditions will cause the feed Difference in brine
Higher vacuum in Lower pressure in
215225 1 water, that has not flashed to vapor in the first-stage Gravity siphon effect density between first B 1
the second-stage first-stage
of a flash evaporator, to flow into the second- stage? and second stages
maintain the feed

When a flash evaporator is being operated in prevent cold water temperature increase the
avoid flooding the
215226 1 extremely cold water, you may need to throttle the shocking the above the required evaporator distilling B 1
evaporator shell
seawater supply to __________. evaporator minimum input rate
temperature

the absolute
thermal efficiency
A flash type evaporator is designed to operate in 75°F pressures will be absolute pressure in
the unit will operate will decrease, but
215227 1 sea water, if operated in 50°F sea water, slightly below the the evaporator A 1
at reduced capacity brine density will
__________. predicted design stages will be higher
increase
absolute pressures
In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are

saltwater heater second-stage second-stage flash
215228 1 vented through individual vent cocks to the
shell condenser
atmosphere
chamber
C 1
__________.
In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are

saltwater heater second-stage
215228 2 vented through individual vent cocks to the
shell condenser
atmosphere first stage condenser C 1
__________.
Which of the following statements is correct relative Distillation is the Evaporation is the Brine is the result of Distillate is the
215229 1 A 1
to distillation plant operation? process of boiling second part of the condensed sea product resulting
Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two- takes suction from
takes suction from takes suction from is normally idle and
stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes the second stage of
215230 1
suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and
the first stage of the
the evaporator as
the first stage ejector used mainly as a C 1
evaporator discharge standby unit
the second stage air ejector __________. well
A vacuum is initially established in the first and vacuum drag from a single non-
individual vacuum a two stage air
215230 2 second stages of a low pressure evaporator by the the auxiliary condensing air D 1
pumps ejector
use of __________. condensate system ejector
For optimum non-condensable gas removal from a the salt water feed anywhere on the the shell of the first the shell of the
215230 3 D 1
low pressure evaporator, the air ejector suction is heater shell second stage shell of stage distilling second stage
aid in establishing a transfer the distillate aid in establishing a aid in developing a
The function of the loop seal, as typically provided on vacuum in the first produced in the first vacuum in the vacuum in the shell
215231 1 B 1
a flash type evaporator, is to __________. stage via the second stage to the second second stage via the of the salt water feed
stage stage first stage heater
A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate

215232 1 circuit between any two stages of a multiple stage steam trap butterfly valve loop seal adjustable controller C 1
distilling plant by the use of a/an __________.
aid in maintaining
maintain the
allow vacuum to be allow vacuum to be the difference in
absolute pressure
While in operation, the function of the orifice in the drawn from the first drawn from the absolute pressure
215233 1 difference between A 1
flash evaporator loop seal is to __________. stage shell to the second stage shell to between the second
the first and second
second stage shell the first stage shell stage shell and the
stages
salt water feed
A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate
215233 2 circuit between any two stages of a multiple stage steam trap butterfly valve loop seal adjustable controller C 1
distilling plant by the use of a/an __________.

salt water feed

evaporator absolute evaporator absolute
distillate produced in heater absolute
If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator pressure would pressure could
the second stage pressure would
215233 3 were to become significantly enlarged through
would flow towards
eventually equalize eventually equalize
increase to that of
C 1
erosion, the __________. in both stages to that in both stages to that
the first stage the evaporator
of the first stage of the second stage
second stage
maintaining distillate
the vacuum the absolute the absolute flow between the first
The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash-type
differential pressure differential pressure developed and second stage in
215235 1 evaporator is important for maintaining the control of D 1
developed between developed between in the salt water feed order to avoid dry
__________.
both stages both stages heater shell seal operation of the
loop
In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the
Condenser Air ejector
pumps listed is vented to the shell of the second Feed water heater
215236 1
stage in order to remove vapor from the pump
circulating water
drain pump
Distillate pump condenser drain C 1
pump pump
suction?
In the operation of a two-stage flash- type distilling

Condenser Air ejector
plant, which of the pumps listed should be vented to Feed water heater
215236 2
the second stage shell in order to remove vapors
circulating water
drain pump
Distillate pump condenser drain C 1
pump pump
from the pump suction?
A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is

potable water tank potable water tank
installed in the discharge line between the distilling distillate salinity is distillate temperature
215250 1 has been filled with has become A 1
plant and the potable water tanks. This valve will trip excessive is excessive
raw water contaminated
and dump the distillate discharge if the __________.
only if the cell only if the cell
A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed selector switch is selector switch is regardless of the cell only if power to the
215250 2 on a flash-type evaporator unit, will divert impure positioned to monitor positioned to monitor selector switch salinity panel is C 1
distillate to the bilge __________. the first stage the final stage position interrupted
distillate outlet distillate outlet
allow the
prevent excessively
evaporator's first-
The purpose of a three-way, solenoid, dump valve on saline distillate from drain the evaporator drain the evaporator
215250 3 and second-effects A 1
an evaporator is to __________. entering the first-effect only second-effect only
to be drained with
freshwater system
one valve
excessively warm
A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed salty distillate from overfilling and contaminated water
distillate from
215250 4 in the discharge line between a distilling plant and the reaching the potable overflowing the from leaving the B 1
entering the potable
potable water tanks to prevent __________. tanks potable tanks potable tanks
tanks
In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on

be frozen in its last direct distillate to the dump distillate to the dump distillate to the
215251 1 a flash-type evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve
position fresh water tank bilge makeup feed tank
C 1
will __________.

The distillate produced by a flash evaporator has a

salinity of 0.21 grains per gallon, with a feed water recirculate distillate recirculate distillate
direct distillate to the direct distillate to the
215252 1 temperature entering the first-stage of the evaporator to the first-stage feed to the distiller B 1
bilge freshwater tanks
at 170°F. Under these conditions the three-way inlet saltwater heater
solenoid valve will __________.
If the distillate temperature is 150°F and the distillate
salinity is 0.35 grains per gallon, the three-way
215252 3 freshwater tanks reserve feed tank distilled water tank bilge D 1
solenoid trip valve should direct the distillate to the
__________.
In a submerged tube evaporator, the automatic

0.10 grains per 0.15 grains per 0.20 grains per 0.25 grains per
215252 4 solenoid dump valve will trip if the salinity exceeds D 1
gallon gallon gallon gallon
__________.
after passing through
after first passing after chemical a solenoid operated
Distilled water from an evaporator is normally through a detachable
215253 2 through an activated analysis shows it is dump valve D 1
discharged into a potable water tank __________. hose connection
charcoal filter fit for consumption energized by an
alarm monitor
Increasing the
High conductivity of Reducing the brine
absolute pressure of Mesh separators are
Which of the following statements is true concerning the distillate density will reduce
215257 1 the shell will used in evaporators A 1
low pressure distilling units? indicates distillate the heat lost
increase the to filter the distillate.
salinity is excessive. overboard.
distiller's capacity.
A salinity indicator is used to determine the cause of salt location of salt water chemical makeup of level of alkalinity in
215258 1 B 1
__________. contamination contamination feed water condensate
hydrogen ion
A salinity indicating system functions on the basic electrical inductance electrical specific gravity of
215259 1 concentration of B 1
principle of measuring the __________. of water conductivity of water water
water
Which of the following statements represents the Measures the Measures the Determines the Measures the
215259 2 basic principle of operation of an electrical salinity hydrogen ion electrical resistance conductivity of the voltage of the B 1
indicator? concentration. of the water. dissolved oxygen. chloride ions.
The instrument always used in conjunction with a

215260 1 pyrometer thermometer hygrometer hydrometer B 1
salinometer is a __________.

Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double- Distillate pump Tube nest drain Air ejector
effect distilling plant? discharge pump discharge condensate drain
In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell distillate outlet from distillate inlet to the condensate drains
would be installed in the __________. the distillate cooler distillate cooler from the distiller feed
The valve normally The valve is set to The valve will only
Which of the following statements describes the The valve will trip if
requires a manual trip if the sea water trip when the
215263 3 operation of a three-way solenoid trip/dump valve on the distillate salinity A 1
latch reset after feed temperature solenoid is
a two stage flash-type evaporator? is excessively low.
tripping. exceeds 180°F. energized.
pressure and
Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the increased heat levels decreased priming first effect scale
temperature
215270 1 steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure throughout the entire and lower distillate formation to be D 1
fluctuations in the
distilling plant will cause __________. unit salinity lessened
entire unit
a separate suction
Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the increasing the rate of
air operated air sea water operated connection to the
215271 1 process of maintaining vacuum in a distilling unit, the condensation in the B 1
ejectors air ejectors brine overboard
vacuum is usually attained by __________. distiller condensers
pump
Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure turbine extraction turbo-generator air ejector exhaust
215272 1 main steam line B 1
evaporators may be obtained directly from the line steam supply line line
The temperature of the steam supply to the saltwater pressure regulator sensor wired in with
thermally actuated attemporator in the
215273 1 feed heater, in a flash type evaporator can be within the supply
bypass valve steam supply piping
the three-way salinity C 1
manipulated by a/an __________. orifice dump valve
higher than the first lower than the first the same as the first not related to the
The second stage feed water temperature and shell stage feed water stage feed water stage feed water feed water
215274 1 absolute pressure in a multistage, flash type, distilling temperature and temperature and temperature and temperature and B 1
plant is __________. absolute shell absolute shell absolute shell absolute shell
pressure
equal to the second pressure
higher than the pressure
lower than the feed pressure
higher than the
The first stage feed water temperature and shell stage feed water second stage feed water temperature second stage feed
215274 2 absolute pressure in a multistage flash evaporator is temperature and water temperature and shell absolute water temperature B 1
__________. shell absolute and shell absolute pressure in the but at a lower shell
pressure pressure second stage absolute pressure
In a two stage flash evaporator, operating conditions higher temperature higher temperature lower temperature lower temperature
215274 3 in the second stage, as compared to the first stage, and higher absolute and lower absolute and higher absolute and lower absolute D 1
are __________. pressure pressure pressure pressure
decreasing the increasing the increasing the

The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be lowering brine
215277 1 absolute pressure of saltwater feed heater pressure at the spray B 1
increased by __________. discharge density
each stage temperature pipe
The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be lowering brine decreasing the increasing the brine increasing the
215277 2 B 1
increased by __________. discharge density absolute pressure of overboard discharge pressure at the spray

In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped first stage flash second stage flash first stage after second stage
215278 1 D 1
with air ejectors, the air and non-condensable gases chamber chamber condenser distilling condenser
A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling the flashing of the the condensation of air ejectors, condensation of the
215279 1
plant by __________. feed water the saltwater feed eductors, or a distillate
C 1
Steam carryover The amount of Feed water flow from
Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient Evaporator vacuum
215280 1 between stages is available flash steam the feed water B 1
when operated in cooler seawater temperatures? is increased.
reduced. is decreased. heater is increased.
Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to The colder seawater The amount of Fewer non- More seawater is
215280 2 A 1
operate more efficiently when operating in cold passing through the heated feed water condensable gases allowed to pass
Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control desuperheated
215282 1 superheated steam saturated steam poor quality steam B 1
orifice in the live steam supply line, the steam at the steam
What is the main reason that live auxiliary steam is To reduce the rate of To increase the brine To increase the To increase the
215283 2 A 1
normally attemporated before entering the feed scale formation on overboard density. pressure in the heat pressure in the first
Steam passing through the control orifice installed in attemporating adiabatic effervescent
215284 1
the live steam supply to a low pressure evaporator conditioning
ebullient conditioning
conditioning conditioning
C 1
The quantity of heating steam supplied to the feed
back pressure first-stage bypass
215285 1 water heater of a two-stage flash type distilling plant orifice plate attemporator A 1
regulator valve
is held relatively constant by a/an __________.
reduce pressure
A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live produce a low salt
fluctuations of the produce more useful guarantee that the
steam supply to a flash evaporator. One of the water feed heater
215286 1 steam supply in the desuperheated steam supply will A 1
functions of this orifice is to control the quantity of the shell absolute
salt water feed supply steam remain saturated
supplied steam. A second function is to __________. pressure
heater
be unable to be suitable for handle the operation

If the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line
maintain steam flow maintaining the satisfactorily as the
215288 1 were to be removed, the steam pressure reducing all of the above A 1
unless the proper required steam flow control orifice
valve located upstream would __________.
range spring were to under all load develops an
The condensers located in the various stages of a
215300 1 distillate seawater brine air B 1
flash evaporator are cooled by __________.
In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed

first-stage distilling second-stage salt water feed
215301 1 temperature is increased as it passes through the all of the above D 1
condenser distilling condenser heater
__________.
In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater)

215302 1 vapor feed heater air ejector condenser saltwater heater distillate cooler D 1
first absorbs heat in the __________.

vaporize, with the vaporize, with the vaporize, with the boil, allowing steam
The heated feed water entering any flash chamber of unflashed water unflashed water remaining water at a bubbles to rise
215304 1 B 1
a flash-type evaporator will __________. remaining at the equalizing to the temperature greater through the brine at
temperature at which saturation conditions than it entered the the bottom of the
The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the slightly less than theslightly more than slightly higher than slightly lower than
215305 2 A 1
salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators absolute pressure of the supplied live the second stage the first stage
a direct unimpeded
The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater connection between by an external line the fixed orifice
a separate air ejector
215306 1 shell of a flash-type evaporator is generally
unit
second stage and from the first stage provided in the C 1
accomplished by __________. salt water feed via a fixed orifice steam supply line
heater
Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a
separate shell-and- tube heat exchanger as the air salt water feed
215307 1 distilling condenser distillate cooler flash chamber B 1
ejector condenser. More recent models use a heater
combined air ejector condenser with the __________.
low pressure steam vaporization in the heat exchange in

The final heating of the feed water in a flash type heat exchange in the
215308 1 admitted to the feed first-stage flash each stage distiller A 1
distilling plant is carried out by __________. first-stage feedbox
water heater chamber condenser
Under normal operating conditions, the highest

brine pump salt water feed
215309 1 temperature and pressure conditions existing for flash-first stage second stage D 1
discharge heater
type evaporators will occur in the __________.
In the unit illustrated, the feed water temperature is
required to be increased to 165°F or greater and
215310 1 I III IV V GS-0053 D 1
must exist at this temperature when leaving
__________.
In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feed water is distiller feed water first and second first and second
215320 1
vaporized in the __________.
first effect tube nest
heater stage flash stage vapor
C 1
Sea water is heated
Sea water is passed Heated sea water is Sea water is forced
Which of the following descriptions best identifies the to boiling
215321 1
operating principal of a flash-type evaporator? temperature while
over heated plates in injected into a through a heated C 1
a thin film. vacuum chamber. eductor.
under a vacuum.
In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is increasing its increasing its decreasing its decreasing its
215321 2 D 1
converted into vapor by suddenly __________. temperature velocity density pressure
Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by steam through steam through heated water into a heated water into a
215321 3 D 1
introducing __________. heating coils cooling coils high pressure area low pressure area
Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will pressure being lower temperature being heat exchange orifices finely
215321 4 A 1
flash to vapor in the first-stage due to the flash than the saturation higher than the surfaces being atomizing the heated
A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a
high pressure evaporator as __________.
215321 5 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A 1
I. vaporization of the feed water occurs in a vacuum

flash chamber
temperature being heat exchange
pressure being lower orifices finely
higher than the surfaces being
Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will than the saturation atomizing the heated
215324 1 evaporation directly in the path of A 1
flash to vapor in the first-stage due to __________. pressure feed water entering
temperature of the the entering feed
corresponding to the the flash chamber
supplied feed water water
The flash chamber of a soloshell evaporator is feed water the open area above
combined as part of another term used to
typically an external chamber used for the combining the brine levels in combined as part of
215325 1 the salt water feed describe the vapor B 1
of the distillate produced at two different absolute the first and second the distillate cooler
heater feed heater
pressures. On a flash-type
On a multistage multistageevaporator,
flash-type evaporator,
the flash the combined as part of stages
the open area above combined as part of another term used to
215325 2 B 1
chamber is __________. the salt water feed the brine levels in the distillate cooler describe the vapor
If a hole were to form in the division plate between
stages of a flash type evaporator __________.
215326 4 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B 1
I. 2nd stage vacuum would increase II. vaporization
of the feed water would continue
vaporization of the all of the distillate
feed water would produced would be
215326 5 continue at second certain to be Both A and B Neither A nor B A 1
stage designed contaminated by salt
saturation conditions water carry over
1.0 pounds of salt 1.5 pounds of salt 2.0 pounds of salt 3.5 pounds of salt
The brine density in a submerged tube evaporator
215350 1 per 32 pounds of per 32 pounds of per 32 pounds of per 32 pounds of B 1
should be maintained at __________.
water water water water
In a double-effect submerged tube evaporator, the loss in capacity and
scale formation on corrosion in the carryover in the
215350 4 brine density should be prevented from falling below maintain plant B 1
the tube nests evaporator evaporator
1.5/32nds to minimize __________. efficiency
the second effect
chemical feed is brine overboard brine overboard
The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure shell pressure is
215351 2 continuously density approaches density approaches D 1
distilling plant will be greatly reduced if __________. lower than the first
introduced 1.5 / 32nds 1.0 / 32nds
effect
In which of the areas listed would you expect to find Distiller air ejector Saltwater heater First-stage internal Second-stage
215352 1 D 1
the highest salt concentration in a flash evaporator? cooling medium discharge feed box internal feed box
In which of the following types of evaporators is the Solo shell Submerged tube
215353 1 Flash evaporators Basket evaporators B 1
control of brine density least important? evaporators evaporators
prevent scale
The quantity and density of brine discharged from the maintain a constant ensure distillate prevent any salinity
accumulation in the
215354 1 last effect of a flash type evaporator should be kept at
first effect heat
distillate outlet quality and distilling in the distillate C 1
a constant value so as to __________. temperature plant efficiency produced
exchanger surfaces

The average density of brine discharged from the last

215355 1 stage of a fresh water evaporator should not exceed 1.0/32nds 1.5/32nds 2.0/32nds 3.0/32nds B 1
__________.
For efficient and proper operation, the brine density in 3.5 pounds of salt 1.5 pounds of salt 1 pound of salt per 1 pound of salt per
215358 1 B 1
a submerged tube evaporator should be maintained per 32 pounds of per 32 pounds of 32 pounds of water 32 pounds of water
Hot brine tends to Hot concentrated
Brine density at Hot brine tends to
Why is a self-sealing pump generally not satisfactory form scale on the brine tends to clog
215360 1
for service as a brine overboard pump? impeller peripheral
1.5/32 cannot by
the sealing lines and
clog the brine pump C 1
maintained. suction line strainer.
The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type edge. gland seal rings.
throughput of the
evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the steam flow rate to float controlled level capacity of the
215361 1 brine overboard D 1
rate of evaporation in both stages, and the the air ejectors of the feed heater distillate pump
pump
__________.
In a two stage flash type evaporator, the brine
saltwater heater first stage distilling second stage flash
215362 1 overboard pump is vented directly to the
shell condenser chamber
air ejector condenser C 1
__________.
Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually tubes of the salt tubes of the air tubes of the distiller
215370 1 flash chamber walls B 1
found in the __________. water feed heater ejector condenser condenser
The primary reason low pressure evaporators evaporation in a

evaporation is due to the higher due to the latent heat
produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale submerged medium
215371 1 accomplished in a temperature of the of evaporation A 1
formation, than high pressure evaporators is produces more
vacuum incoming feed principle
__________. distillate
Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator the distillate no boiling occurs on evaporation occurs the incoming feed is
215372 1 B 1
than in a submerged tube evaporator because produced has heat transfer at a higher rate at a higher
the fact that the first- the fact that no
In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling maintaining a
operating the unit at stage regulator boiling occurs on
215372 2 plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly reduced by relatively high feed D 1
its rated capacity keeps the heater heat transfer
__________. water temperature
shell at a constant surfaces anywhere
The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling operating the unit at maintaining a water flashing into operating the first-
215372 3
plant is greatly reduced by __________. its rated capacity relatively high feed vapor rather than stage regulator to
C 1
The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is

215373 1
most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________.
distillate cooler first stage condenser saltwater feed heater flash chamber C 1

high temperature
One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators, as distillate can be cold shocking is water purity is
scale formation is
215376 1 compared to most other evaporators, is that in a flash recirculated to more effective in greatly increased at B 1
not a severe problem
evaporator shell __________. induce additional removing scale high capacity
flashing
higher temperature
The advantages of flash type evaporators, as less internal less hard scale less feed water
evaporation for lower
215376 2 compared to submerged tube type evaporators, corrosion because of
salinity of the
formation in a flash required for a flash C 1
include __________. lower brine density evaporator evaporator
distillate produced
greater distillate
One advantage of a flash distilling plant when cold shocking for less internal less feed water is
purity through high
215376 3 compared to a submerged tube distiller is scale removal is not corrosion because of required for equal B 1
temperature
__________. required lower brine density plant capacity
evaporation
One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure
less internal greater evaporator
215390 1 submerged tube distilling plant over a double-effect better water purity less scale formation D 1
corrosion efficiency
unit is __________.
Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with
215391 1 psychrometer salinometer anemometer sphygmomanometer B 1
a/an __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a

unfired pressure
215392 1 fresh water evaporator is classified as a/an auxiliary boiler fired pressure vessel auxiliary condenser D 1
vessel
__________.
The process of boiling seawater in order to separate

215393 1 it into freshwater vapor and brine is usually defined dehydration condensation evaporation dissolution C 1
as __________.
In the production of freshwater from seawater through
215394 1 a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase evaporation distillation dehydration condensation D 1
of production is usually called __________.
Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor
215395 1 spray pipes demisters condensers splash baffles B 1
produced in a flash-type evaporator, are removed by
In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh- improve distillate vent non- recycle evaporator direct flash steam
215395 2 A 1
type vapor separators function to __________. purity condensable gases flash steam into the cooler
The demisters installed in a flash-type evaporator deaerate the first filter the condensed deaerate the first remove small water
215395 3 D 1
serve to __________. effect distillate flash vapors and second effect droplets entrained in
In a double-effect distilling plant, the brine particles

the vapor feed
215395 4 remaining entrained with the vapor produced in the a flash chamber baffles and vanes a brine pump B 1
heater
evaporator first effect, are separated by __________.
The mesh type steam separators located in a two- vent non- recycle evaporator reheat the flash improve distillate
215395 5 D 1
stage flash distilling plant, function to __________. condensable gases flash steam steam purity

The vapor separators installed in some distilling directing the vapor condensing water trapping water abruptly changing
215395 6 D 1
plants consist of several rows of vertical hooked through a fine droplets on the metal droplets in the the direction of vapor
In a double-effect distilling plant, liquid moisture
the second effect the vapor feed
215395 7 remaining entrained in the first- effect vapor, is baffles and vanes a flash chamber A 1
separator heater
removed by __________.
In order to prevent salt water contamination of the
saltwater heater steam supply orifice
215396 1 distillate in a flash- type evaporator, it is important to spray caps demisters B 1
vents plate
provide a positive seal around the __________.
Early models of the flash-type evaporators required a first stage flash second stage flash
215397 2 DC heater brine overboard line A 1
pump to drain the steam condensate from the salt chamber chamber
When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate all of the above
215400 1
cooler shell of a flash type evaporator, liquid appears
reroll the tube seal weld the tube plug the tube
would be considered
C 1
When securing a flash-type evaporator for an fill the unit with fill the unit with completely drain the tightly seal the unit to
215401 1
extended period of time, you should __________. saltwater descaling compound unit exclude air
C 1
When a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an

completely filled with filled with descaling tightly closed to vented to the
215401 2 extended period of time, the entire unit should be D 1
saltwater compound exclude air atmosphere
drained, cleaned, and __________.
The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to prepare for a stress relieve the break loose scale test for leaks in the
215402 1
__________. hydrostatic test tubes deposits formed on tubes
C 1
The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used
215420 1
for saltwater service should be descaled with
a needle gun soap and water a wire brush a chipping hammer C 1
The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used

215420 2 for saltwater service should be descaled with a wire brush a needle gun a chipping hammer soap and water A 1
__________.
The steam coils in a high pressure contaminated a wire brush and
215420 3 a needle gun a chipping hammer soap and water A 1
evaporator used in a steam plant should be descaled wooden mallet
circulated cold fresh phosphorescent
When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure fresh water at or air and a soap
water, while hydrazine bisodium
215430 1 evaporator to determine the source of suspected air above the ambient solution to test all A 1
maintaining all solution visible under
leaks you should use __________. temperature joints
normal unit operating a black light source
Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur

215431 1 gasketed joints valve stems gage glass packing all of the above D 1
through __________.
Salinity cells are strategically installed in distilling

units to indicate the __________.
I. location of a saltwater leak II. size of the leak

Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type

distilling units to indicate the __________.
215432 3 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D 1
I. presence of leaks in the flash chambers
II. quantity of the distillate produced
Irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply erratic water flow a clogged vent line excessive pressure a dirty strainer in the
215440 1 D 1
to a flash evaporator may be attributed to through the air from the air eductor in the seawater feed saltwater feed pump
High salinity distillate being discharged from a flash- maintaining the carrying the brine leaks in the demister venting of the
215450 1
type distilling plant may be the result of __________. proper distilling plant level below normal baffles saltwater heater
C 1
Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash loss of second stage contamination of the lower feed inlet contamination of the
215451 1 B 1
evaporator will result in __________. vacuum distillate temperature second stage
A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop chill shocking is leakage at the faulty operation of carryover in the first-
215452 1 D 1
seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator necessary to remove second-stage the brine overboard stage
A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled faulty cells at each carryover in first
215452 2 a leak in item "I" erosion of item "2" GS-0053 D 1
"Y", "Q", and "6" shown in the illustration. This would location effect shell
a tube leak in item
A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells 'IV', which a faulty cell at erosion of item "3" or
215452 3 labeled "W" and "6" shown in the illustration. This contributes to a location "6" and a the valve opened too carryover from "III" GS-0053 B 1
would be the probable result of __________. surging absolute tube leak in item 'IV' wide if used
pressure in "III"
A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cell a minor tube leak in a faulty cell at this the compensating
215455 1 All of the above GS-0053 B 1
labeled "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the distillate location temperature is set
If a higher than normal water level is observed a clogged
a leak in the feed a malfunctioning
215480 1 through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you
water heater
improper vacuum
brine pump
desuperheater water C 1
should suspect __________. strainer
An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator excessive brine an excessive brine failure of the brine excessive distillate
215480 2
can be caused by __________. pump motor speed blow down rate pump pump speed
C 1
faulty operation of
Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a a pressure drop high distillate low distillate
215481 1 the brine overboard A 1
result of __________. through the loop seal conductivity conductivity
pump
In a flash type distilling plant, a screen is fitted over the pump from excessively large scale from passing electrolysis from
215483 1
the suction connection to the brine overboard pump cavitating salt crystals from into the brine pump occurring in the
C 1
Rapid fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a erratic air ejector air leaks in the tube rapid scaling in all
215485 2 priming in that effect D 1
submerged tube evaporator can cause __________. operation nest effects
Rapid fluctuations of absolute pressure in the last scale formation with priming with improved operating
slight foaming at the
215485 3 effect of a multi-effect submerged tube distilling plant increased heat increased salinity of conditions at the B 1
distillate feed pump
will tend to cause __________. transfer distillate brine pump
In the illustrated 8,000 GPD evaporator the salt water contribute to
feed pump and pump "N" are identically constructed. produce the chamber "II" and "III" produce a higher
increase the purity of
215487 1 If the vapor pressure in chamber "II" is 2.1 psia, with designed quantity of operating at the than normal brine GS-0053 B 1
the distillate
a feed temperature of 170°F; operating pump "N" with distillate same absolute concentrate
the discharge valve 100% open will __________. pressure

Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air high water level in malfunctioning check
fluctuating vacuum in flooded seawater
215510 1 ejector unit of a flash distilling plant could result in a the air ejector after valve in the air A 1
the flash chamber feed heater shell
__________. condenser ejector discharge
A multistage flash evaporator will be unable to tubes of the

distillate cooler is
215511 1 produce consistently pure distillate if the saltwater feed heater distillate meter stops vacuum is fluctuating D 1
dirty
__________. are flooded internally
Which of the listed problems could produce a high production of high seawater feed a leak in the first a cracked distillate
215512 1 D 1
absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator? salinity distillate temperature below stage demister pump vent line
If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is
loss of the distillate an air leak through a
higher than normal, while the second stage absolute priming in the failure of the brine
215513 1 loop seal between vacuum gage line in D 1
pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is second stage pump
the stages the first stage
due to __________.
inadequate steam
An unsteady vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator air leaks in the tube improper venting of high water level in
215517 1
may be caused by __________. nests the tube nests
quality to the air
the shell
C 1
ejector nozzles
pinhole leaks in the rapid scaling on the
A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator wet steam entering high water levels in
215517 2 evaporator tube evaporator tube A 1
may be caused by __________. the air ejector nozzle the last effect
nests nests
Evaporator priming can be caused by high water fluctuating shell a brine overflow weir
215518 1 low brine density low feed temperature A 1
level, fluctuating steam pressure, or __________. vacuum set too low
eliminate most of the
Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in a low increase the heat increase the automatically cold
215519 3
pressure fresh water evaporator will __________.
scale formation in
level in all effects probability of priming shock the evaporator
C 1
the first effect
When any low pressure distilling plant is operated
scale formation
215520 1 with less than the designed vacuum, the heat level rises heat level drops capacity increases A 1
decreases
__________.
cause the potential cause the existing

cause the level of
If 'wet' steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low level of kinetic level of thermal
improve overall thermal energy to be
215521 1 pressure evaporator, the passage of the mixture energy to be partially energy to be totally B 1
vacuum converted to
through the nozzles will __________. converted to thermal converted to kinetic
potential energy
energy energy
Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange increases brine increases distillate reduces metal reduces heat
215541 1 D 1
surfaces __________. density salinity corrosion transfer
Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces immediate loss of increased distillate immediate tube reduced evaporator
215541 2 D 1
will cause __________. vacuum quality failure capacity

Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type

Heat transfer Shell vapor pressure
high pressure evaporator constantly requires an The brine density is Impure distillate is
215543 1 surfaces are being is constantly B 1
increase in the coil steam pressure in order to improper. being produced.
layered with scale. decreasing.
maintain capacity?
If the rated distillate production of a submerged tube
type evaporator cannot be maintained with the chemical feed must has a serious brine temperature switch heating surfaces are
215543 2 D 1
supplied maximum steam flow rate, the evaporator be increased leak is defective scaled
__________.
Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may reduced evaporator low brine improper vacuum
215545 1 poor distillate quality D 1
result from __________. capacity concentration regulation
When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at the corresponding the distillate the rate of scale the distillate purity
215545 2
less than the designed vacuum (higher absolute saturation production capacity formation increases increases
C 1
On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash Feed water heater Internal distillate Flash chamber Distilling condenser
215547 1 A 1
type evaporator would you be more likely to find soft internal tube cooler tubes. vertical surfaces. tubes.
In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than
second stage feed second stage vapor
215548 1 normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the saltwater feed heater distillate cooler B 1
heater separator
__________.
While the illustrated system is operated at sea the a significant pump "K" becoming the temperature nothing unusual for
215561 1 GS-0053 D 1
strainer in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in reduction in distillate vapor bound regulated by "L" the area of operation
nothing unusual for
While the illustrated system is operated using the the temperature the type of operation
a reduction in pump "K" becoming
215561 2 steam supply through "F" the strainer in line "4" regulated by "L" indicated as this line GS-0053 A 1
distillate production vapor bound
becomes fouled, this will result in __________. difficult to maintain was unnecessary in
While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, Insufficient vacuum Excessive amount of the installation
Insufficient brine
Excessive and
designed to operate in sea water of 70°F, the current developed as a feed water being density being
215570 1 violent flashing in A 1
seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water result of the sea supplied to the first maintained in the
each stage.
feed temperature is maintained at 170°F. The three- temperature. stage. second stage.
keep heat transfer prevent rapid provide a protective reduce electrolytic
Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side
215590 1 surfaces shiny and accumulation of coating on heat action on heat D 1
of heat exchangers to __________.
clean marine growth exchanger surfaces exchanger metals
Zinc anodes are installed in a marine sea water heat

215590 2 inhibit oxidation control electrolysis prevent scaling eliminate corrosion B 1
exchanger cooling system to ________.
Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in

215610 1 heat exchangers and possesses a high resistance to Red brass Manganese bronze Copper beryllium Cupro-nickel D 1
corrosion?
Which non-ferrous alloy is most commonly used for
215610 2 heat exchanger tubes and possesses a high Red brass Nautical bronze Aircraft aluminum Copper nickel D 1
resistance to corrosion?
Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell- and-tube packing and lantern floating end tube directional
215611 2 shell foundation bolts B 1
type cooler may be provided for by the __________. rings sheet transverse baffles
prevent oxidation prevent erosive tube
allow the water to allow the oil to make
Regarding the oil cooler shown in the illustration, the and coking of the failure due to high-
215612 1 make four passes four passes over the GS-0122 B 1
purpose of the internal shell baffles is to __________. lube oil as it passes velocity flow in the
over the tubes tubes
through the cooler core

Which of the listed figures represents the

215613 1 A B C D GS-0122 D 1
configuration and alignment of the inlet/outlet head,
heat, or cool one reduce the engine
The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to eliminate hot air from maintain steady
215614 1
__________. the condenser pressure in a system
fluid by means of room temperature in C 1
another fluid tropical climates
The temperature differential occurring between the
inlet temperature of the fluid to be cooled and the
215615 1
outlet temperature of the cooling medium in a shell-
Cross Counter Parallel Circular C 1
and-tube heat exchanger is greatest in which of the
The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold remain constant be greatest in a remain constant vary from section to
215616 1 fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat along the tube's single pass counter throughout the heat section throughout D 1
exchanger will __________. length flow heat exchanger exchanger the heat exchanger
The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold remain constant remain constant vary from section to
vary according to the
215616 2 fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat along the tube's throughout the heat section throughout D 1
fluid pressures
exchanger will __________. length exchanger the heat exchanger
Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against metallic packing on fiber bushings in the zinc pencils on the plastic tube end
215617 1 D 1
erosion and abrasion by the use of __________. the inlet end ferrules waterside protectors
Water temperature Water temperature Water temperature Water temperature
Assuming oil and water flow rates remain the same,
outlet temperature outlet temperature outlet temperature outlet temperature
what would be the effect of scale formation occurring
215618 1 will decrease and the will decrease and the will increase and the will increase and the B 1
on the inside of the cooling water tubes of a lube oil
lube oil temperature lube oil temperature lube oil temperature lube oil temperature
heat exchanger?
will decrease. will increase. will decrease. will increase.
cooling fluid outlet thermal conductivity flow through the heat

Tube scaling in heat exchangers causes the heat surface area of the
215619 1
transfer rate to decrease because the ________. tube decreases
temperature of the scale is very exchanger becomes C 1
decreases low more turbulent
In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should waterside deposit water hammer
215630 1 erosive tube failure tube sheet bowing A 1
be avoided to prevent __________. buildup damage
When a heat exchanger is used as a cooler, waterside deposit water hammer

215630 2 erosive tube failure tube sheet bowing A 1
excessive cooling water flow should be avoided to buildup damage
Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result excessive cooling
215630 3
from __________.
high temperature waterside fouling
water velocity
poor heat transfer C 1
In heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be eliminate scaling reduce erosion of ease the load on the prevent
215631 1 D 1
maintained lower than freshwater pressure to problems on the heat exchanger saltwater service contamination

Which of the following statements is true concerning Raw water is the Water cooled The surge tank must Air flow provided by
215633 1 D 1
a radiator type heat exchanger? cooling medium. exhaust elbows be located a a fan is used as the
The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side

clogged lube oil seawater leaking into decreasing lube oil gradually increasing
215670 1 of a lube oil cooler is usually indicated by D 1
strainers the lube oil system pressure lube oil temperature
__________.
In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most

loose tube bundle failure of the baffle rupture of the tube fouling on the
215670 2 common cause of decreased performance is D 1
baffle plates plate bundle seawater side
__________.
The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side

clogged lube oil seawater leaking into increasing lube oil gradually increasing
215670 3 of a lube oil cooler is usually indicated by D 1
strainers the lube oil system pressure lube oil temperature
__________.
The volatility of any oil may be indicated by the autogenous
215700 1 the flash point the fire point All of the above. D 1
__________. ignition point
The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication
215700 2
of its __________.
viscosity pour point volatility lower explosive limit C 1
The flash point of most lube oils used in a main
215701 1 lubricating system should be approximately 80°F to 100°F 140°F to 160°F 250°F to 300°F 350°F to 450°F D 1
__________.
Although lube oils used in the main lubricating service
come in contact with are reduced in
systems should have a relatively high flash point to are exposed to a become extremely
215702 1 extremely hot temperature to just B 1
avoid ignition, they can create smoke and fire vacuum agitated or aerated
surfaces above the pour point
hazards when they __________. lowest temperature lowest temperature temperature the fuel
temperature at which
The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the at which the fuel oil at which the fuel oil oil must be heated to
215703 1 the fuel oil will burn A 1
__________. will give off enough will give off enough for proper
in a boiler furnace
vapor to momentarily vapor to continue to atomization
The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off
215703 2 burning temperature ignition temperature fire point flash point D 1
sufficient vapor to momentarily flash into flame when
The tendency of a flammable liquid to vaporize is
215703 3
indicated by its __________.
fire point pour point flash point boiling point C 1
The temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit, at which a
215703 4 liquid gives off a flammable vapor when heated in an fire point flash point flame point ignition point B 1
open cup tester is called the __________.
The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature at which a liquid will at which a liquid will at which a liquid will that a liquid must
215703 5 A 1
__________. give off inflammable burn steadily explode reach before it will
at which a liquid will that a liquid must
The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature at which a liquid will at which a liquid will
215703 6 give off inflammable reach before it will A 1
__________. burn steadily explode
vapors flow readily

The tendency of a flammable liquid to vaporize is

215703 7 ignition temperature flash point flammable range convection index B 1
temperature at which lowest temperature ability of a fuel to

temperature at which paraffin wax begins at which it vaporizes ignite upon injection
215703 8 The flash point of a liquid is the __________.
it burns freely to crystallize out of enough to form an into a diesel engine
C 1
the solution explosive air/vapor cylinder
It is the temperature It is the temperature
It is the temperature
at which a at which the
Which of the following statements is correct It is lower than the at which a substance
215704 1 substance, when released vapors will A 1
concerning the 'flash point' of a liquid? ignition temperature. will spontaneously
ignited, will continue fall within the
ignite.
to burn. explosive range.
The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a
flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained auto ignition vaporization
215710 1 flash point fire point D 1
combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the temperature temperature
__________.
The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion

215710 3 becomes self-sustaining in the presence of a source auto ignition point flash point burning temperature fire point D 1
of ignition, is defined as the __________.
The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off

auto ignition
215710 4 sufficient vapor to burn continuously when ignited is burning temperature flash point fire point D 1
temperature
defined as the __________.
The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a

flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained auto ignition vaporization
215710 5 flash point fire point D 1
combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the temperature temperature
__________.
The lowest temperature required to cause self-

combustion
215720 1 sustained combustion of a substance independent of explosive range flash point ignition temperature
temperature
C 1
any outside source of ignition is called __________.
Which of the following statements describes the Both are higher than The ignition
The flash point is They are not
215720 2 relationship between flash point and ignition normal burning
always higher.
temperature is
necessarily related.
C 1
temperature? temperatures. always higher.
The dimension of the thinnest hydrodynamic film pour point of the fluidity of the dielectric strength of interfacial tension of
215730 1 B 1
developed within a full journal bearing, when all other lubricant lubricant the lubricant the lubricant

Oils are usually graded by their service classification neutralization

215731 1 fire point flash point viscosity D 1
and __________. number
Viscosity will Viscosity is a Viscosity will

Viscosity is not
Which of the following statements is correct increase as measure of a fluid's decrease as
215732 1 dependent on B 1
concerning the viscosity of lubricating oil? temperature internal resistance to temperature
temperature.
increases. flow. decreases.
The viscosity of an oil is a measure of its

215732 2 weight internal friction demulsibility S.A.E. number B 1
__________.
The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent

215732 3 in a mineral lubricating oil is reflected as a measure specific gravity viscosity S.E. number hydrolytic stability B 1
of its __________.
Which of the listed characteristics of lube oil are the Pour point, flash Auto ignition point,
Ash content, carbon Viscosity, acidity, and
215734 1 most important to the engineer from an operational point, and viscosity index, and B 1
residue, and gravity demulsibility
standpoint? precipitation number film strength
Liquids with different Viscosity and

Liquids with different
viscosities will Viscosity and specific gravity are
Which of the following statements describes the viscosities will never
215735 1 always have the specific gravity are not related in that D 1
relationship between viscosity and specific gravity? have the same
same specific directly proportional. one does not define
specific gravity.
gravity. or limit the other.
With regards to the viscosity of lube oil in an just prior to entering at the lube oil cooler at the main lube oil at the narrowest
215736 1 D 1
operating system under normal load, the highest the lube oil cooler outlet pump discharge point of the
The device shown in the illustration is used to lubricating qualities
215737 1
determine the __________.
flash point of oil pour point of oil viscosity of oil
and film strength of
GS-0069 C 1
The device shown in the illustration is known as a/an Reid vapor pressure
215737 2 viscosimeter flow meter Pensky-Martens cup GS-0069 A 1
__________. analyzer
force a uniformly allow a uniformly measure the volatility

determine the
heated sample of oil heated 60 c.c. of an oil sample, by
temperature at which
by applied pressure, sample of oil to determining the
215737 3 The illustrated device is used to __________. vapors are GS-0069 B 1
through the bottom gravitate through the resulting pressure as
produced, ignited,
orifice with in a bottom orifice, using the volume of vapor
and extinguished
specified time the time as a is continually

The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high

high neutralization low demulsibility
215760 1 temperatures and thicken at low temperatures will be low viscosity index high viscosity index A 1
number quality
characterized by a __________.
The degree to which the viscosity of an oil will change
thermal change
215760 2 with a change in temperature is indicated by the weight designation viscosity index pour point B 1
value
__________.
During operating temperature changes, the ability of
viscosity index seconds Saybolt seconds Saybolt
215761 1 a lubricating oil to resist viscosity changes is API number B 1
number Furol number Universal number
indicated by a/an __________.
The ability of lubricating oils to resist viscosity American Petroleum viscosity index Seconds Saybolt Seconds Saybolt
215761 2 B 1
changes during temperature changes is indicated by Institute number number Furol number Universal number
A large change of No change in Very little change in The viscosity of the
Which of the following statements is correct regarding viscosity occurs with viscosity occurs with viscosity occurs with oil increases with an
215763 1
an oil with a high viscosity index? a minor change in any change in a significant change increase in
C 1
temperature. temperature. in temperature. temperature.
A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is in only very high as an additive to as an additive to where a wide
215763 2 D 1
most effectively used __________. temperature depress pour point slow oxidation variation range in
Pipe friction during oil transfer will be the greatest

215764 1 during the transfer of a lubricating oil at 130°F with a 65 80 90 100 D 1
viscosity index of __________.
The pour point of lubricating oils is affected the most Extensive

215820 1 Wax content Water content Acid content B 1
by which of the following? centrifuging
The term 'pour point' is defined as the lowest through a standard

at a rate of 60cc per
215821 1 temperature at which lubricating oils will flow rapidly by gravity orifice at a specified B 1
second
__________. temperature
Which of the additives listed will maintain the

215850 1
suspension of fine residue particles in lube oil?
Floc point Suppressant Dispersant All of the above. C 1
Which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour

215851 1
point of a lubricating oil?
Emulsifiers Suppressants Depressants Extreme pressure C 1
Which of the additives listed is used to reduce the

215852 1 Emulsifiers Suppressants Depressants Extreme pressure B 1
foaming tendency of lube oil?
An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to extreme pressure

215853 1
reduce friction is known as a/an __________.
suppressant additive dispersant additive
additive
PH alkaline additive C 1
An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to

extreme pressure viscosity improver
215853 2 reduce friction in hypoid gear applications is known suppressant additive dispersant additive
additive additive
C 1
as a/an __________.

Additives commonly found in turbine lubricating oil extreme pressure

215854 1 antifoaming agents oxidation inhibitors all of the above D 1
include __________. additives
If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken

viscosity has demulsibility has tendency to foam is
215880 1 from the main propulsion machinery indicates an acidity has increased A 1
decreased improved guaranteed to occur
increased neutralization number the __________.
A good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery, capable of

215881 1 acid free a rapid oxidizer additive free A 1
should be __________. emulsifying
Which of the following conditions should be used to
A decrease in the An increase in the A change in the A change in the floc
215882 1 support the need to change the lube oil when there B 1
viscosity of the oil viscosity of the oil cloud point point
has been an increase in the neutralization number?
A decision has been made to change out 1,000 The neutralization The sole use of the In addition to the A small rise in the
215883 1
gallons of lube oil in a vessel's main propulsion unit. number has increase in the increase in the neutralization
C 1
The neutralization number of lube oil used in the renew the entire oil operate the
215883 2
machinery has exceeded its permissible range,
centrifuge the oil add makeup oil
supply machinery at
C 1
A decision has been made to change out the lube oil The viscosity of the The neutralization
The amount of
in a vessel's main propulsion unit ahead of the oil has increased in The alkalinity of the number has
215883 3 detergent additives B 1
scheduled maintenance period. Which of the addition to a decided oil has decreased. decreased below
has decreased.
following statements is true concerning the reason for the amount of rise in the of
the number what type of acid minimum
how muchlevels.
sulfuric
The neutralization number obtained from a test
mineral and metallic milligrams of contaminants are acid the oil has
215884 1 sample of lubricating oil will tell you precisely B 1
solids that will not potassium hydroxide present in a absorbed during
__________.
burn
is an indication of the used to neutralize a measured sample operations
indicates the quantity is useful for reflects the overall
amount of
The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the of energy released determining proper thermal efficiency of
215887 1 noncombustible A 1
operating engineer because it __________. by burning a unit atomization the fuel oil service
material present in
amount of the fuel temperatures system
the oil
The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the indicates the quantity is useful for reflects the overall is an indication of the
215887 2 D 1
operating engineer because it __________. of energy released determining proper thermal efficiency of amount of
It forms a corrosive
It causes excessive It doesn't readily
It clogs fuel oil acid when mixed
215890 1 What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel? smoking and soot at burn when combined D 1
strainers more often. with water or water
low firing rates. with oxygen.
vapor.
The percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil testing in a burning in a testing in a closed
215891 1 settling in a fuel tank B 1
sample is determined by __________. laboratory centrifuge calorimeter cup
Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks installation of baffles sufficient capacity to cooling coils made of insuring the bottom
215895 1 A 1
include __________. to prevent excessive contain all the lube welded seamless of the sump is
sufficient capacity to the bottom of the
installation of baffles cooling coils made of
Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks contain all the lube sump should be
215895 2 to prevent excessive welded seamless A 1
will include __________. oil in the system integral with the shell
sloshing of oil steel pipe
except for the plating
The main lube oil sump of a main propulsion engine coated steel plating nonferrous metal
215896 1
should be constructed of __________. to reduce corrosion plating to prevent
clean steel plating pinchback plating C 1
fine mesh screening baffles installed a suction inlet a 10 inch (254 mm)
Solid contaminants are prevented from entering the
placed around the without limber or located dome installed just
215897 1 main lube oil system by way of the main engine
pump suction line in lightening holes to approximately 10 below the suction
C 1
sump, through the use of __________.
the sump trap the particles inches (254 mm) inlet and provided

create a dam effect allow more time for maintain a constant

Baffles are provided in the main lube oil sump tank of remove all water
to concentrate particulate matter to viscosity source of
215898 1 the pressurized lube oil system, shown in the entrained in the SE-0011 B 1
heavily contaminated settle out of the oil oil at the pump
illustration, to __________. returning oil stream
oil in one area before being
retain the lube oil as provide drain/return suction
be provided with only
The construction of the main propulsion engine lube have no plating joints long as possible lines that are no
215899 1 a perfectly horizontal B 1
oil sump should __________. of 90° before it recirculates greater than 24
bottom
Main propulsion engine lube oil sumps should be so as to never be through the system inches
only of from the
nonferrous, with drain/return
215900 1 with a sloped bottom B 1
constructed
Dirt should not__________.
be allowed to contaminate a grease integral with the
dirt will cause bearings will leak oil noncorrosive metals
dirt is very abrasive lines
grease terminating just
will become
216000 1
lubricant because the __________. corrosion of bearing excessively when mixed with inflammable
C 1
dirt is very abrasive

Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a grease bearings will leak oil dirt will cause grease will become
216000 2 when mixed with D 1
lubricant because the __________. excessively corrosion of bearing inflammable
grease
resistant to
A good quality oil used in main propulsion engine free from all quickly chemically readily saponified
216010 1
lubrication systems should be __________. chemical additives oxidized
permanent
with water
C 1
emulsification
A characteristic of lubricating oil which causes

low oil neutralization
216011 2 additional centrifuging requirements for proper high TBN value low oil floc point low oil demulsibility
number
C 1
purification is __________.
the temperature at a measure of the

the ability of oil to an emulsion of
216012 1 Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as __________. which oil flows water in a lube oil A 1
separate from water different grades of oil
rapidly system
The ability of an oil to separate cleanly from an oil neutralization

216012 2 precipitation number pour point demulsibility D 1
and water mixture is referred to as its __________. number
the temperature at a measure of the an emulsion of the ability of oil to

216012 3 Demulsibility of lube oil is defined as __________. D 1
which oil flows water in a lube oil grades of oil separate from an oil
decrease sludge improve the displace lubricating
Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to cause water to
216020 1 formation in lubricating oil oil required in areas D 1
__________. separate from the oil
lubricating oil viscosity of friction
Temperature below
Which of the following statements best describes the Temperature at
Texture of the grease Type of soap used in which the grease will
216030 2 term 'base' in reference to the classification of
under load.
which the grease
its production. be ineffective as a
C 1
lubricating grease? softens or melts.
lubricant.
Which of the listed types of soap grease offers the
maximum chemical stability and resistance to
216031 2 Lime soap grease Calcium soap grease Sodium soap grease Lithium soap grease D 1
separation at temperatures between 250°F (121.1°C)
and 300°F (148.8°C)?

reducing the saponifying a metal reducing tallow 50°F saponifying an

temperature of an oil base, to which oil is below its pour point aluminum base, to
216032 1 Greases are generally produced by __________. B 1
below its cloud point then added and then mixing a base which tallow and oil
to create the mixed under metal, such as are mixed into
fills only 10% of all has a high grease is thinned with a
A grease lubricated ball bearing or roller bearing will is heated prior to
216033 1 void spaces within penetration number suitable lubricating B 1
run cooler if the grease __________. packing the bearing
the bearing (is hard) oil
Which indicator is used to determine the hardness of Stability-consistency

216034 1
a grease?
Pour point Drop point Penetration number
number
C 1
the temperature at
the depth to which a
how many seconds the temperature at which the grease
cone would
When referring to greases, penetration number is was required for a which a cone would would become
216034 2 penetrate a sample D 1
__________. cone to penetrate begin to penetrate sufficiently fluid to fill
of grease in 5
the sample the sample the voids of a
seconds
standard ball bearing
the length of time a
how far a standard how uniform and
50 gram sphere will
metal cone will thick the spread of
the temperature that be held in place from
penetrate into the an ounce of grease
216036 1 A grease drop point is __________.
sample in five is when dropped
a sample of grease the underside of a C 1
begins to liquefy surface coated with
seconds when from a height of five
25 millimeters of the
dropped feet
allowing a dropping a one allowing a sample of grease sample
determining the
suspended cone to ounce grease grease to drop into a temperature at which
A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by
216036 2 drop into a sample of sample from one cup at ambient a grease sample D 1
__________.
grease for five meter, and observing temperature and liquefies when
seconds and the resulting spread determining the time heated and drops
machinery bearings antifriction bearings
An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite, is bearings subject to
216090 1 subjected to high on general service line shaft bearings A 1
suitable as an oil additive when used in __________. fluctuating loads
temperatures pumps
A graphite additive type grease is best suited for
__________.
I. low temperature applications
II. high temperature applications
A graphite filler commonly mixed with grease, acts to smooth surface to lower the friction
216092 1 as a mild abrasive all of the above D 1
__________. irregularities coefficient
The graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of low temperature filler to smooth coolant to carry
216092 2
graphite grease, acts as a __________. sealer
moisture barrier
surface irregularities away heat
C 1
maintain a constant
reduce friction provide even reduce the
oil temperature
216151 1 The function of lubricating oil is to __________. between contact distribution of accumulation of A 1
output at each
surfaces in motion bearing wear harmful detergents
bearing

maintain a
maintain even
maintain a constant pressurized fluid film remove entrained
216151 2 The function of lubricating oil is to __________. distribution of
oil temperature between moving water
C 1
bearing wear
surfaces
Which of the figures illustrated correctly identifies the
216152 1 position the journal will assume in its bearing after it A B C D GS-0121 D 1
has attained operating speed?
A journal rotating in its bearing relies on
hydrodynamic principles for lubrication. Under steady at bearing bottom concentric in the eccentric in the
216152 2 at bearing top center D 1
load conditions, the journal rotating in the bearing will center bearing bearing
assume a position __________.
The relative position of the journal and bearing at
216152 3 A B C D GS-0121 D 1
operating speed is illustrated by figure __________.

216152 4 A B C D GS-0121 A 1
position of the journal while it is stopped?
216152 5 A B C D GS-0121 B 1
position of the journal shortly after it has begun to
Figure "C" shown in the illustration correctly identifies just at the moment just beginning to increasing its speed operating at its
216152 6 GS-0121 B 1
the position of the journal when the shaft is prior to being rotate to required operating normal operating
The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a the same as the less than the greater than the highest at the oil
216153 1
rotating journal is __________. pressure in the pressure in the pressure in the groove location
C 1
Which of the following statements is true concerning The wedge-shaped The load carrying Pressures The load carrying
216154 1 A 1
the hydrodynamic wedge developed by lubricating oil film's load capacity is inversely throughout the oil capacity is directly
All of the above
Which of the following surfaces will not develop a
Flat nonparallel Flat inflexible parallel surfaces will sustain
216155 1 hydrodynamic film where motion is accompanied by Curved surfaces
surfaces surfaces a hydrodynamic film
C 1
any appreciable loading?
while in motion
high detergent oil a minimum of 15 psi
The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing adequate quantity at constant viscosity
216250 1 with pressure to all parts of the A 1
depends upon a system that produces __________. sufficient pressure lubrication
additives system
The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing high detergent oil constant viscosity a minimum of 15 psi adequate quantity at
216250 3 D 1
depends upon a system that produces __________. with pressure lubrication to all parts of the sufficient pressure
With oil bath lubrication of ball bearings in a cargo never be higher than cover the bottom of cover the top ball in be kept at the top of
216280 1 A 1
pump, the oil level should __________. the center of the the pump shaft the bearing housing the oil reservoir
An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for high speed ball low and moderate heavily loaded pinion
216282 1 gear shaft bearings B 1
__________. bearings speed ball bearings gear bearings
If a continuous and steady flow of lube oil is provided,

216291 1 1 psig 5 psig 10 psig 15 psig A 1
which of the listed pressures represents the lowest
A lube oil filter can be used to remove most
216291 2 acid diesel oil sediment water B 1
contaminants from lube oil. A contaminant which will

The part labeled "A" of the illustrated bearing is called

216310 1
the __________.
thrust ring outer race inner race cage MO-0001 C 1
The part labeled "B" of the illustrated bearing is called

216310 2 thrust ring outer race inner race cage MO-0001 B 1
the __________.
The part labeled "C" of the illustrated bearing is called
216310 3 thrust ring outer race inner race cage MO-0001 D 1
the __________.
The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified inner race cone manufacturer's
216330 1
by the __________.
rolling member size
width numerical code
outer ring width C 1
They are not capable Their lubrication is

Which of the following statements describes the They have a They are well
of maintaining complicated and
216331 1 characteristics of precision manufactured roller
alignment over long
relatively high power adapted to variable
requires constant
C 1
bearings? loss due to friction. speed operation.
periods of time. attention.
Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of
216332 1
a half bearing?
Piston pin bushing Thrust bearing Spring bearing All of the above. C 1
An example of an anti-friction bearing is a rubber cutlass strut line shaft or spring Kingsbury thrust
216333 1 ball bearing D 1
__________. bearing bearing bearing
Which letter represents the gear tooth working depth
216350 1 A B C D GS-0111 A 1
of the gear set illustrated?
The working depth of the gear illustrated is
216350 2 A B C I GS-0111 A 1
represented by __________.
The term, whole depth of the gear, shown in the
216352 1 A+D B+D C +A C +D GS-0111 D 1
illustration, is equal to __________.
The backlash of the gear illustrated is represented by

216353 2 G M N O GS-0111 A 1
__________.
The letter "H" of the illustrated gear, represents the
216353 3 tooth profile tooth fillet bottom land top land GS-0111 B 1
__________.
The gear clearance of the illustrated gear is

216353 4 B D G M GS-0111 A 1
The pitch radius of the gear illustrated is represented

216353 5 D E L P GS-0111 B 1
by __________.
The base radius of the gear illustrated is represented

216353 6 D E L P GS-0111 D 1
by __________.

The chordal addendum of the illustrated gear is

216353 7 A C D L GS-0111 D 1
The tooth profile of the illustrated gear is represented
216353 8 F H I J GS-0111 A 1
by __________.
Which bearing will carry the load on two small points
216390 1 Needle Tapered roller Roller Ball D 1
diametrically opposite to each other?
Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities They are installed They are subject to They have a greater They have a greater
216391 1 D 1
than ball bearings? with tighter less pitting and metal tolerance for high contact area.
If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating
216404 3
pump making 140 strokes/minute with a 3" diameter
28 gpm 38 gpm 48 gpm 58 gpm C 1
close the bearing
run the machine with remove the grease
housing drain and save the used
After adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld the bearing housing fitting and leave
216420 1 add a little extra grease for chemical A 1
grease gun, you should __________. drain plug open for a open to allow excess
grease to analysis
short while grease to escape
Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled compensate for air
the bearing does not dirt and grit are all air pockets are all excess grease is
with grease should have the relief plug temporarily
216420 3 shift position on the flushed from the vented from the expelled from the D 1
removed while grease is being added. This plug
shaft bearing housing grease housing
should remain
Machinery without
balluntil the machinery
bearings designedhas been
to be filled
with grease should have the relief plug temporarily
a path for expansion the grease is contaminated grease
removed while grease is being added. This plug
216420 4 is provided for the properly distributed is flushed from the all of the above D 1
should remain out until the machinery has been
grease within the bearing bearing housing
operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that
__________.
allow the winch to
The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of add grease through replace the bearing apply a light oil to the
216421 1
the sealed type that is running hot is to __________. the zerk fitting
run at slower speeds
with a new one bearing housing
C 1
only
When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force
216422 1 of the puller should be applied to the bearing outer race raceway inner race retainer plate C 1
__________.
apply pressure
When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor tap the outer race apply even pressure apply even force to evenly to both the
216422 2
shaft, you should __________. with a mallet to the outer race the inner race inner and outer
C 1
races
In a compression type automatic grease cup, the
216423 1 gravity flow spring force a pressure gun a zerk fitting B 1
lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________.
The inner race The outer race Alignment is not a They are usually
Which of the following statements concerning
216424 1 should be free to should be free to critical factor in their pressed on to their D 1
antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true?
turn on the shaft. turn its housing. installation. shafts.
The inner race The outer race Alignment is not a They are usually
Which of the following statements is correct
216424 2 should be free to should be free to critical factor in their pressed onto their D 1
concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?
turn on the shaft. turn in its housing. installation. shafts.

Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged

split washer or
216425 1 from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller ring gage split die
backup ring
jack screw C 1
with a________.
Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a A steel drift pin and An acetylene torch A tapered 'come-a-
216425 2 An arbor press A 1
tapered roller bearing from a shaft? hammer and hammer long'
The tool used to remove a ball bearing from the shaft

216425 3 slugging wrench gear puller drift pin come along B 1
of a motor is called a __________.
To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high

10-25% of the 25-50% of the 50-75% of the 75-95% of the
operating temperature, the recommended amount of
216426 2 original void space in original void space in original void space in original void space in B 1
grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is
the bearing the bearing the bearing the bearing
approximately __________.
What percent of a roller bearing should normally be

216426 3 Less than 25% 25% - 50% 50% - 75% 75% -100% B 1
filled with grease?
utilize exotic and

Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam are only effective at can adsorb no more
expensive filtering remove additives
216435 1 turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems because temperatures below than five times their D 1
media making them from the lube oil
they __________. 100°F weight in water
too costly for use
attract or have liquid

soak up liquid do not create
The greatest difference between absorbent and will remove additives contaminants stick to
216436 1 contaminants directly pressure drops in the B 1
adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________. from the lube oil the surface of the
into the filter media lube oil system
filter media
A 200 wire mesh A 100 wire mesh A 200 wire mesh
screen will prevent A 200 mesh screen screen will prevent screen and a 100
Which of the following statements best describes the
216437 1 passage of smaller has larger wires than passage of smaller wire mesh screen A 1
filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer?
particles than a 100 a 100 mesh screen. particles than 200 both prevent
wire mesh screen. wire mesh screen. passage of the same

Foamed
Cotton waste packed Cylindrical elements polyurethane of the
Which of the following lube oil filters would be Chemically treated
in perforated metal containing fullers impingement type
216438 1 considered acceptable for use with today's high paper and waste in A 1
containers or earth combined with supported on
detergent additive type oils? cartridges.
cylindrical cartridges. cellulose. perforated metal
rings.
Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in Extended area
216438 2 Cloth bag extractor Absorbent filter Adsorbent filter D 1
lubricating oil? membrane filter
216438 3 Abundant filter Adsorbent filter Cloth bag extractor B 1
216438 4 Adsorbent filter Cloth bag extractor Fine wire mesh A 1
216438 5
lubricating oil?
Fine copper screen
membrane filter
Adsorbent filter Cloth bag extractor C 1
Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to

216439 1 clean the element while leaving the system on the Simplex Duplex Canister Bypass B 1
line?
excessive high temperatures to

Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing emulsification of the
216450 1 channeling of the develop as result of gelling of the base oil B 1
will cause __________. thickener additive
grease churning
adding more reducing the quantity

maintaining a
As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing lubricant until the ball of lubricant until only
continuous fluid level installing oil rings on
216453 2 increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates bearings are a mist of oil is B 1
over half of the outer the ball bearings
heat. This condition may be avoided by __________. completely covered present on the ball
race
with a layer of oil bearings
vibration while the
A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be abrasives in the
216454 1 water in the bearing dirt in the bearing bearing is not in D 1
caused by __________. lubricant
operation
If a ball bearing installed on a pump is completely smoother pump reduced corrosion in increased pump
216455 1 bearing failure A 1
packed full of grease, this can result in __________. operation the bearing capacity

filled with grease to

completely packed 65% of the total operated at designed
216455 2 A ball bearing will overheat if __________. in use for a long time A 1
full of grease open spaces within high speed
the bearing
In most pumps and pump motors, over packing the moisture insufficient proper grease sliding friction
216455 3 B 1
ball bearings full of grease will result in __________. emulsification of the circulation and circulation to cool the between balls and
If a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely the bearing may heat grease may flow out early failure may
packed with grease, __________. up of the seals result
Ball bearings may become overheated if they are packed with too mounted on a
216455 5 not lubricated all of the above D 1
__________. much grease misaligned shaft
Over greasing of ball bearings installed on pumps will smoother pump overheating of the reduced corrosion in increased pump
216455 6 B 1
result in __________. operation bearing the bearing capacity
Antifriction bearings should not be the bearings will dirt will accumulate excess lubrication the bearing will
216455 7 D 1
excessivelylubricated because __________. require immediate inside the bearings will result in slippage overheat
Which of the following terms is used to identify the
216500 1 Suction head Pump head Discharge head Total head A 1
pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?
If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the

apparent net positive
216501 1 indicated pressure at the pump suction, the pump head total suction head discharge head D 1
suction head
remainder is the __________.
Inches of mercury for Feet of water for

Which units of measurement are commonly used to Inches of mercury for Feet of water for
positive head and positive head and
216502 2 express pump suction head values when calculating both positive and both positive and D 1
feet of water for inches of mercury for
pump capacities and hydraulic horsepower? negative heads negative heads
negative head negative head
The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be net positive suction
216503 1 total head discharge head suction head B 1
referred to as the __________. head
The total static head of a system resisting the discharge liquid level discharge liquid level suction liquid level suction
216504 1 A 1
operation of a centrifugal pump is the difference in and the suction liquid and the pump and the pump submergence level
Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must maintain hydraulic
prevent overheating maintain the net
have a minimum flow through them under all differential in the keep the shaft
216505 1 and vapor bound positive suction head A 1
operating conditions. This flow serves to pump impeller glands cool
conditions of the pump
__________.
Which of the following statements is true concerning They are particularly They operate best passages
A flow is developed They operate more
216507 2
centrifugal pumps? well suited for under negative by imparting kinetic efficiently when
C 1

The pump should The pump should A priming pump is The pump should
Which of the listed statements is true concerning the
always be started always be started always required to always be started
216508 2 start-up of a main propulsion boiler centrifugal feed A 1
with the discharge with the suction flood the impeller with the sealing line
pump?
valve closed. valve closed. suction. valves closed.
A centrifugal pump operating against a closed internal slippage of shut off horsepower
216509 1 capacity of 100% efficiency of 0% B 1
discharge valve has a/an __________. 0% rating of 100%
centerline of the centerline of the
pump and the level pump and the centerline of the
liquid levels of the
The static suction lift of a pump is the difference in of the liquid in the suction liquid level pump and the level
216511 1 suction and A 1
elevation between the __________. suction well when when the source of of the discharge
discharge
the source of liquid is liquid is above the liquid
below the pump pump
amount in inches of
distance of the distance the suction force necessary to
mercury the total
The static positive suction head of a pump is the suction liquid level liquid level is below overcome frictional
216511 2 suction head is A 1
__________. above the center line the center line of the losses in the pump
below atmospheric
of the pump pump and piping
pressure
suction
The static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal discharge liquid level discharge liquid level suction liquid level
submergence level
216511 3 pump, is the difference in elevation between the and the suction liquid and the pump and the pump
and the pump
C 1
__________. level centerline centerline
discharge
imparts energy to a creates a vacuum to
is to develop a
216514 1 A pump is defined as a device that __________. produces pressure fluid to move it from move a liquid in all B 1
pressure differential
point "A" to point "B" installations
A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting
mechanical energy mechanical energy potential energy to kinetic energy to
discharge head by energy conversion. It is typical for
216515 1 to kinetic energy to to potential energy to mechanical energy mechanical energy A 1
the energy conversion to follow the order of
potential energy kinetic energy to kinetic energy to potential energy
__________.
A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. As
its pressure its pressure the potential energy the kinetic energy
216516 1 the liquid passes through the volute, its velocity A 1
increases decreases decreases increases
decreases and __________.
It requires 151 HP to operate a centrifugal pump
the same as it was
having a 14.75 inch impeller at 1800 RPM, at a
216516 2 129 HP 136 HP 143 HP prior to the pump A 1
capacity of 2250 GPM with a 218 foot head. If during
being overhauled
an overhaul of the pump, the impeller diameter is
impeller efficiency for
The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump change in the square of the cube of the impeller
216517 1 large changes in its A 1
will vary directly as the __________. impeller diameter impeller radius diameter
size
square of the impeller efficiency for
The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary diameter of the cube of the diameter
216517 2
directly as the __________. impeller
diameter of the
of the impeller
large changes in the C 1
impeller size of the impeller


the same as it was
216517 3
1924 GPM 2027 GPM 2136 GPM prior to the pump C 1
being overhauled
reduced to 14 inches, the capacity of the pump
operating at the same RPM would be __________.
impeller efficiency for

The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary change in impeller square of the cube of the impeller
216518 1 large changes in the B 1
directly with the __________. diameter impeller diameter diameter
size of the impeller

the same as it was
216518 2 206 feet 196 feet 186 feet prior to the pump B 1
being overhauled
Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result diameter of the diameter of the
in an increase in its capacity. Another means of discharge piping, suction piping, with width of the impeller diameter of the
216519 1 D 1
increasing the capacity of a centrifugal pump is to with all other factors all other factors only impeller
increase the __________. remaining the same remaining the same
The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased increase the size of reduce wearing ring change the pump to
216519 2 increase speed A 1
by the installation of a larger diameter impeller. the cardent clearances a 'close coupled'
Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result diameter of the diameter of the
in an increase in the pump capacity. Another means discharge piping, suction piping, with diameter of the
216519 3 width of the impeller D 1
of increasing the total head pressure of a centrifugal with all other factors all other factors impeller
pump is to increase the __________. remaining the same remaining the same
A dual integral
Assume identical impeller diameter, width and speed. A single stage A dual impeller with
A single stage impeller unit
216530 1 Which of the following impellers will produce the straight vane multiple stepped B 1
curved vane impeller operating at 10%
greatest liquid velocity? impeller curved vanes
lower speed
The impeller shown in the illustration is best single suction closed double suction mixed
216531 1
described as a/an __________.
axial flow impeller semi-open impeller
impeller flow closed impeller
GS-0012 C 1
The impeller shown in the illustration is an example of positive high pressure

216531 2
a/an __________.
axial piston impeller
displacement
centrifugal impeller
impeller
GS-0130 C 1
directly increase the directly increase the convert the potential
The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is separate air from the
216533 1 pressure of the liquid velocity of the liquid energy of the liquid B 1
to __________. liquid being pumped
being pumped being pumped to kinetic energy

have side walls

allow liquid to enter
Closed impellers differ from open impellers in that which extend from have small impeller are not vented above
216534 1 the eye from one B 1
closed impellers __________. the eye to the outer eyes the impeller eye
direction only
edge of the vane tips
The centrifugal pump component responsible for

216535 1
converting the mechanical energy of the liquid being
electric motor volute impeller diffusion nozzle C 1
an unbalanced force
unequal or non- flexible shaft design
Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic exerted from the excessive sealing
uniform flow to the which causes rapid
216536 1 axial balance. In actuality this balance is rarely direction of the water flow to the B 1
suction eyes of the wear of the outboard
achieved due to __________. impeller nearest the stuffing box
impeller housing shaft bearing
driving motor
To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation
216561 2 and abrasives in the liquid, a centrifugal pump is lantern rings bearings casing volutes wearing rings D 1
usually fitted with __________.
The purpose of the wearing ring used in the support the suction provide an provide a provide a
216561 4 GS-0012 D 1
illustrated pump is to __________. end of the impeller interference fit for replaceable wear replaceable wear
maintain radial allow for economical
prevent water
One of the main functions of wearing rings, as used alignment between absorb all impeller replacement of worn
216561 5 leakage to the D 1
in a centrifugal pumps, is to __________. the pump impeller shaft end thrust internal pump
atmosphere
and casing
prevent an internal enable a visual insure the proper components
permit internalduring
The purpose of wearing rings as found in large explosion in the inspection of the alignment of the components that are
216561 6 D 1
centrifugal pumps is to __________. pump when it is pump while it is pump coupling to the subjected to high
overheated running driver erosion conditions,
Absorb erosion of Isolate the discharge Dampen the
What is a function of the wearing rings used in most Seal pump shaft
216562 1
centrifugal pumps?
high velocity
against entry of air.
side from the suction turbulent discharge C 1
discharge stream. side. flow.
Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need Close radial Low rotational speed Removable end Replaceable impeller
216562 2 D 1
for renewing worn impellers and pump casings? clearance between of impeller plate and casing wearing
using wear rings with using one dowel pin using an extended
In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, a larger than normal pressed into the side lip formed on one
swelling the wearing
216563 1 wearing rings are prevented from rotating by outside diameter and of the ring, then half of the ring and D 1
rings into the casing
__________. having the casing fitting the pin into a using the upper
'crush' them in place hole drilled into the casing half to trap
To maintain the design discharge pressure of a impeller and casing packing box and gland seal and
impeller and lantern
216564 1 centrifugal pump, the clearance between the wearing rings is packing gland is packing gland is B 1
ring is critical
__________. critical critical critical
To maintain design discharge pressure from a motor and pump casing and impeller lantern ring and
216564 2
centrifugal pump, the design clearance must be
shaft and impeller
shaft wearing rings impeller
C 1
Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best high temperature use where alignment superheated steam
216580 1 low temperature use A 1
suited for __________. use is critical applications
Which of the following statements represents the Packed stuffing box Packed stuffing box If packing fails, the The sealing surface
216581 1
main difference between a stuffing box gland and a glands are subject to glands must be pump can be kept of a mechanical seal
C 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding They may be used in They are not suitable They are normally Once placed into
216583 1
mechanical seals? lieu of conventional for use on fuel oil lubricated and service, leakage
C 1

On many modern tankers, which of the following

216584 1 devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the Flinger rings Mechanical seals Shaft sleeves Clipper seals B 1
pump room bilge?
On modern tankers with separate pump rooms, which
216584 2 Slinger rings Mechanical seals Shaft sleeves Stuffing box glands B 1
of the following is used to minimize cargo pump shaft
On many modern tankers, which of the following
216584 3 Flinger rings Mechanical seals Shaft sleeves Clipper seals B 1
devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the
On modern tankers with separate pump rooms, which
216584 4 Slinger rings Mechanical seals Shaft sleeves Stuffing box glands B 1
of the following is used to minimize cargo pump shaft
the bottom ring in a the oil slinger on a used to distribute the lifting ring on
216585 1 A lantern ring is __________.
set of piston rings spring bearing seal water each running light
C 1
Lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to allow illuminated provide a passage adjust leakage at the allow for distortion of
216585 2 B 1
__________. inspection of shaft for the stuffing box shaft gland the wearing rings
The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed seal air from entering distribute the sealing
216585 3 cool the shaft lubricate the packing D 1
in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to along the shaft liquid within the
Which pump installation would require an external Main jacket water Salt water service Centrifugal bilge
216587 1 Auxiliary fire pump D 1
source of sealing water? cooling pump pump pump
The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed seal air from entering distribute the sealing
216588 1 cool the shaft lubricate the packing D 1
in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to along the shaft liquid within the
Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing to prevent seawater in place of in place of lantern
216590 1 to cool the shaft B 1
box of a centrifugal pump __________. from passing out the mechanical seals rings
Some centrifugal pumps have water lines connected prevent seawater assist the pump in provide a decrease prevent the pump
216590 2 B 1
to the stuffing box glands to __________. from passing out the maintaining a in impeller thrust from over speeding
to prevent the fluid
being pumped from to prevent air from
Centrifugal pumps are designed with sealing lines pouring out of the in place of in place of slinger entering the pump
216592 1 D 1
__________. stuffing box when a mechanical seals rings casing along the
high suction head is shaft
available
Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box lantern rings
a compressed the stuffing box
216592 2 packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by
packing gland
between the packing a liquid seal
gland
C 1
__________. rings
to limit the outflow of
Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing to help lubricate the seawater from the in place of sealing in place of
216592 3 A 1
box of a centrifugal pump __________. shaft packing stuffing box of a gages mechanical seals
pump provided with
The proper design of a centrifugal pump must include takes suction from a
takes suction from a is handling a liquid at has a high positive
216593 1 a seal cage and sealing line when the pump low temperature B 1
hot well less than 150°F suction head
__________. pressurized tank
A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a

a semi-mechanical helical grooved self adjusting
216593 2 temperature of 250°F or greater must be provided a liquid seal line D 1
seal wearing rings packing
with __________.
suction head is high,

A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid is handling a liquid suction lift exceeds
and is handling a discharge is less
216594 1 sealing line and seal cages installed if the pump
cool, debris free
with a temperature of 10 inches Hg
than 25 psi
C 1
__________. less than 150°F vacuum
liquid

The seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side

216596 2 packing gland wearing ring stuffing lantern ring D 1
of the pump and directs the liquid to the __________.
In a centrifugal pump, the purpose of the sealing line

216596 3 is to provide liquid from the discharge side of the slinger ring wearing ring pump coupling ring lantern ring D 1
pump directly to the __________.
The factors that determine the service life of packing

216597 1 in a pump will include which of the following type of pump condition of the shaft length of time in use all of the above D 1
conditions?
The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is gravity and feed oil hand during leakage through the
216598 1 grease cups D 1
normally lubricated by __________. cups installation stuffing box
In the illustration, the item labeled as '31' is

__________.
216599 1 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II GS-0012 B 1
I. used to vent off air from the stuffing box
II. used to supply sealing water to the stuffing box
n the illustration, the item labeled as '27' is
__________.
216599 2 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II GS-0012 A 1
I. used to vent off air from the casing II. to supply
sealing water to the stuffing box
3
In the illustration, the item labeled as '30' is
216599 3 __________. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II GS-0012 A 1
I. used to prime the pump at start-up II. to supply

Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively Conventional stuffing External mechanical Double mechanical Rubber bellows
216600 1
for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids box seal seal mechanical seal
C 1
Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps
require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize
Water under Water under positive Oil under positive Oil under negative
216601 1 deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which B 1
negative pressure. pressure. pressure. pressure.
of the following pressures and lubricants are
required?
Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug
216602 1 interface between the rotating and stationary seal notch and keyway spring bellows seal retaining ring GS-0071 B 1
members shown in the illustration?

Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to

a hardened sprayed internally flooded
216621 1 erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is wearing rings renewable sleeves B 1
metal coating lantern rings
usually prevented by __________.
toward the oil away from the oil away from the
Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with toward the bearing
216622 1 pressure being pressure being bearing housing GS-0152 A 1
the tail or lip of the seal facing __________. preload washer
sealed sealed recess
They can be
They can be
They make it easier removed when it is
Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal economically They increase the
216623 1 to replace the pump necessary to lighten B 1
pump shafts? replaced as they strength of the shaft.
shaft packing. the weight of the
wear out.
pump.
Which of the following centrifugal pump components
216640 1 converts the liquid kinetic energy of velocity to the Impeller Electric motor Volute Eye C 1
potential energy of pressure?
The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to develop a high convert velocity to limit hydraulic end
216640 2 initiate flow B 1
__________. velocity liquid pressure thrust
The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to develop a high convert velocity to limit hydraulic end
216642 1 initiate flow B 1
__________. velocity liquid pressure thrust
double the liquid
velocity through the
The function of a centrifugal pump double volute reduce radial thrust reduce hydraulic end provide the effect of
216643 1 pump when A 1
casing is to __________. on the impeller thrust multi-staging
compared to a single
volute
be less susceptible be more susceptible
to shaft deflection to shaft deflection develop excessive develop excessive
A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing
than a similar pump than a similar pump radial thrust and radial thrust and
216643 2 operated at greater than design capacity, will A 1
with a single volute with a single volute resultant shaft resultant impeller
__________.
casing operated casing operated deflection deflection
under the same under the same
imparts kinetic
alleviates the need
The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure eliminates axial energy to the water eliminates radial
216644 1 for a double suction D 1
centrifugal pumps, such as feed pumps, __________. thrust passing through the thrust to the impeller
impeller
pump
Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal a single diffusion a modified Kingsbury
216644 2
pumps can be eliminated by the use of __________.
single volutes
nozzle
a diffusion ring
thrust bearing
C 1

Most pump manufacturers recommend that the one size smaller one size larger than installed with a short
the same size as the
216660 1 suction piping dimension for centrifugal pumps be than the pump
pump suction nozzle
the pump suction radius elbow at the C 1
__________. suction nozzle nozzle pump
Most pump manufacturers recommended that the one size larger than the same size as the one size smaller installed with a short
216661 1 A 1
discharge piping for centrifugal pumps be the pump discharge pump discharge than the pump radius elbow at the
Most pump manufacturers recommend that the
reduce the frictional
discharge piping for centrifugal pumps be one size reduce the pump increase the pump allow rapid venting of
216661 2 losses due to fluid B 1
larger than the pump discharge nozzle to discharge pressure discharge pressure entrained air
flow
__________.
Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same The straight vane The straight vane The curved vane The curved vane
216663 2
diameter, width, and rotating speed are to be impeller always impeller always has impeller is less likely impeller will be
C 1
The prime mover is

The impeller is Special priming
Which of the following statements concerning deep A pump room is not connected at the
216664 1 located at the upper provisions are A 1
well cargo pumps is correct? necessary. lower portion of the
end of the shaft. necessary.
shaft.
The prime mover is

The impeller is Special priming
Which of the following statements concerning deep A pump room is not connected at the
216664 2 located at the upper provisions are A 1
well cargo pumps is correct? necessary. lower portion of the
end of the shaft. necessary.
shaft.
An eccentric reducer, used as a transition piece
reduce vapor
between a centrifugal pump suction flange and the prevent the
allow sediment to pressure of the water slope the suction line
216665 1 suction piping flange, must be installed with the formation of air GS-0089 A 1
settle on the bottom entering the pump upward at the pump
eccentric portion below the suction pipe centerline to pockets
suction
__________.
As shown in the illustration, the eccentric reducer, large diameter flange reducer arranged to eccentric portion eccentric portion at
216665 2 GS-0089 B 1
used as a transition piece between a centrifugal connected to the prevent the above the pump right angles to the
To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal bonnet above centerline above the stem pointing stem horizontal or
216666 1 pump suction line installed angled from normal, any suction pipe suction pipe upward at right pointing downward D 1
gate valve should be installed with the __________. centerline centerline angles to the pipe below the pipe
A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST two or more a single stepped a large radial an increase in the
216680 1 A 1
described as having __________. impellers housed impeller mounted in clearance between discharge velocity of
Which of the following descriptions identifies the Single inlet and dual Single inlet and one Double inlet and dual Double inlet and one
216681 1 GS-0130 B 1
centrifugal pump shown in the illustration? direction of rotation direction of rotation direction of rotation direction of rotation

multistage pump with single stage pump single stage pump single stage pump
The pump shown in the illustration can best be
216681 2 a single suction with a single suction with a double suction with a single suction GS-0012 B 1
described as a centrifugal __________.
closed impeller closed impeller closed impeller open impeller
reciprocating pump
216681 3 The pump shown in the illustration is a __________. piston pump diaphragm pump centrifugal pump with piston valve GS-0012 C 1
gear
For classification The impeller wearing

The casing is of a
Which of the following is/are true concerning the purposes the pump ring would be
216682 1 double volute All of the above. GS-0143 D 1
pump shown in the illustration? would be termed end identified by piece
design.
suction. #8.
The shaft sleeve for the pump illustrated is identified

216682 2 14 17 27 68 GS-0143 A 1
by the item numbered as __________.
Items #68 and #78 as shown in the pump illustration bearing retainers or
216682 3
are identified as the __________.
shaft keyways wearing rings
spacers
journal bearings GS-0143 C 1
With respect to centrifugal pump design, which of the

216683 1 Multistage Axial flow Dual coupled Parallel flow A 1
following descriptions best represents a pump
The discharge side of the pump illustrated is
216684 1
identified by the letter '_____.'
A B C D GS-0129 C 1
The suction side of the illustrated pump is identified

216684 2 A B C D GS-0129 D 1
by the letter '_____.'
maintain the two

The stud and nut pictured just below "B" is used to prevent the shaft hold the impeller shaft sections hold the packing
216684 3 GS-0129 D 1
__________. sleeve from sliding onto the shaft together during gland in place
rotation
a small self-
The bearings for the illustrated pump are lubricated contained forced oil feed rings rotating
216684 4
by __________. feed pressurized oil
packed grease
through an oil bath
a drip feed oiler cup GS-0129 C 1
system

216684 5 Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________. packing gland stuffing box shaft sleeve wearing ring GS-0129 A 1
will need to be piped will need to be piped

should be replaced to a fitting installed in to a fitting installed in is provided to vent
by a grease fitting for place of the plug (in place of the plug (in the pump of
216684 6 Item "J" in the pump illustration __________. GS-0129 B 1
semi-annual area "C") when the area "C") when the collected non-
lubrication pump is used for hot pump is used for condensable gases
water circulation cool potable water
The suction nozzle classification of the pump shown
216685 1 in the illustration can best be described as end suction side suction bottom suction top suction GS-0012 A 1
__________.
Which of the devices listed is common to all types of A power end and A propeller and
216686 1 A volute and impeller A turbine and piston A 1
pumps? fluid end educator
One of the main differences between a propeller volute in the velocity nozzle in the reciprocating piston
volute in the
216687 1 pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a centrifugal type centrifugal type in the centrifugal B 1
propeller type pump
__________. pump pump type pump
positive
216688 1 In the illustration, item "5" represents a __________. diaphragm pump rotating vane pump centrifugal pump GS-0125 D 1
displacement pump
Which of the listed pumps is NOT a positive
216689 1 Centrifugal Reciprocating Gear Rotary A 1
displacement pump?
Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be High pitch rotary
216690 1
installed in a main drainage or evacuation system?
Reciprocating pump Centrifugal pump
vane pump
Eductor pump C 1
under a pressure
under a vacuum and and fluid may tend to
When a centrifugal pump is operating with a positive sealed by a vacuum sealed by the seal
air tends to leak into leak out from the
216700 1 suction head, the inner end of the stuffing box is and no leakage will cage or pump B 1
the pump through pump along the shaft
__________. occur lantern ring
the shaft stuffing box through the stuffing
establish a back box prevent the pump
equalize pressure on
A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a pressure at the from overheating decrease the net
216701 1
centrifugal pump in order to __________. labyrinth seal to
both sides of the
when operating at positive suction head
C 1
suction valve disc
eliminate leakage shutoff head
Which of the following statements is correct with Oil is discharged Gravity causes the The self-priming The discharge
216702 1 D 1
regards to the operation of a centrifugal cargo pump? from the center of oil to flow toward the feature of the capacity varies
To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a pump must be volute must impart a suction side stuffing box should
216703 2 A 1
horizontally mounted centrifugal pump, the continuously primed radial and rotary connection must not be allowed any
Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a
positive suction head must be primed before they will rotating liquid piston
216704 1 regenerative pump jet pump turbine pump B 1
move liquid on their own. The priming is usually pump
accomplished with a __________.

If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound,

216705 1
the pump should be vented at the __________.
suction line discharge flange top of the volute bottom of the casing C 1
If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction

216705 2 head becomes air bound, your FIRST response vent the casing close the discharge tighten the packing re-prime the pump A 1
should be to __________.
A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against internal slippage of shut off horsepower
216706 1 capacity of 0% efficiency of 100% A 1
a closed discharge valve has a/an __________. 0% rating of 100%
If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated motor overload relief valve would pump would motor would
216707 1
with the discharge valve closed the __________. would open open overheat overheat
C 1
relief valve would

If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with motor controller pump would motor would
216707 2 continuously cycle B 1
the discharge valve closed, the __________. overload would open eventually overheat overheat
open
When operating with a negative suction head, which

216708 1 Reciprocating Centrifugal Rotary Gear B 1
of the following types of pumps will require priming?
due to the inability of to initially unload the in order to overcome

A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming primarily to lubricate this type of pump to pump by having its the potential energy
216708 2 B 1
__________. the shaft seals lift water to cover the head pressure equal of water in the
suction (eye) of the to discharge discharge line
To operate a centrifugal fire pump at reduced readjust the relief throttle the suction throttle the discharge
216709 1
capacity, you should __________. valve line valve
open the priming line C 1
How is water traveling along the shaft of a centrifugal

216711 1 Shaft seal Water flinger Drain hole Lantern ring B 1
pump prevented from entering the shaft bearing?
Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept

216711 2 away from the bearing housing by the use of shaft sleeves lantern rings water flingers water seals C 1
__________.

If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent

electric motors, operating at unequal speeds are
over speed the
216712 1 discharging an inflammable liquid through a common stop turn backward overheat
driving end
C 1
discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the
slower pump to __________.
Both pumps Each pump Both pumps Each pump
Which of the following conditions would be hazardous operating at the operating at a operating at the operating at a
216712 2 if you were using two centrifugal pumps to discharge same speed and different speed and same speed taking different speed and B 1
a flammable liquid? discharging into a discharging into a suction from a taking suction from a
common line. common line. common line. common line.
Both pumps Each pump Both pumps Each pump
Which of the following conditions would be hazardous operating at the operating at a operating at the operating at a
216712 3 if you were using two centrifugal pumps to discharge same speed and different speed and same speed taking different speed and B 1
a flammable liquid? discharging into a discharging into a suction from a taking suction from a
common line. common line. common line. common line.
If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent
electric motors, operating at unequal speeds are
over speed the
216712 4 discharging an inflammable liquid through a common stop turn backward overheat
driving end
C 1
discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the
slower pump to __________.
give the pump motor,

provide a means of enable the pump and afford the pumping
As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps or driver, positive
supplying sealing its suction line to system protection
216714 1 operating with a high suction lift, foot valves are protection when
fluid for the impeller remain primed prior against water
C 1
primarily designed to __________. operating in a shutoff
shaft stuffing box to starting the pump hammer and surging
condition
give a pump motor provide a means of enable a pump and afford the pumping
or driver positive supplying sealing its suction line to system protection
216714 2 Foot valves are primarily designed to __________.
protection when fluid for the impeller remain primed prior against water
C 1
operating in a shutoff shaft stuffing box to starting the pump hammer and surging
In order to properly remove air from the casing of a vent valve attached
negative suction
216715 1 centrifugal pump when starting, the pump should positive head mechanical seal to the casing at the D 1
head
have a __________. top of the volute
If the valve "A" on the pump illustrated is closed, the packing will tend to pump may loose shaft sleeve may
216716 1 All of the above. GS-0070 D 1
__________. wear rapidly suction if the suction become excessively
provide a sensing
The petcock "B" installed on the illustrated pump is vent the casing at supply sealing water provide recirculation
216719 1 signal to control the GS-0070 A 1
used to __________. start-up to the stuffing box at low flow
pump discharge rate
The pump discharge Operating the pump The pump capacity
head when operating at maximum would be
Which of the following statements is true concerning at maximum efficiency would approximately 1480
216720 1 All of the above GS-0138 D 1
the pump characteristics shown in the illustration? efficiency is require GPM when operating
approximately 132 approximately 58 at maximum
feet horsepower efficiency

Maximum efficiency
Operating the pump When operating at a
is achieved when the
at a capacity of 1600 160 foot discharge
Which of the following statements is true concerning pump is operating at
216720 2 GPM would require head, the pump is All of the above GS-0138 B 1
the pump characteristics shown in the illustration? a capacity of
approximately 60 running at maximum
approximately 900
horsepower. efficiency.
GPM.
Maximum pump Maximum pump Maximum efficiency
horsepower is dynamic discharge occurs when the
Which of the following statements is true concerning
216721 1
the pump characteristics shown in the illustration?
developed between pressure is pump is operating All of the above GS-0138 C 1
1600 and 1800 approximately 160 between a 120 foot
GPM. PSI. and 140 foot head.
From the characteristics shown in the illustration,
216725 1 what would be the approximate shut-off head 58 psi 71 psi 130 psi 360 psi GS-0138 B 1
pressure of the centrifugal salt water pump?
Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to

216780 1 entrain another fluid and thereby move it from one mixed flow pumps jet pumps volute pumps centrifugal pumps B 1
place to another are called __________.
A reciprocating A rapidly moving

Centrifugal force A propeller drawing a
Which of the following methods applies to how a plunger directly stream of fluid
216780 2
vacuum is created by a jet pump or an eductor?
converted into
applying force to a passing through a
fluid through a C 1
potential energy. Venturi nozzle.
fluid. nozzle.
The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle,

216782 1
the suction chamber, and the __________.
injector compressor diffuser siphon C 1
A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when discharge end being ease at which the
216783 1
compared to other pumps, is the __________. smaller than the
small size of impeller lack of moving parts
wearing rings may
C 1
Which of the following is NOT an identifiable

216800 1 Direct-acting Diffuser High-pressure Vertical B 1
characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?
A 12" X 8" X 8" simplex double-acting pump makes

216801 1 100 strokes per minute. If the slip is 6%, the 62.54 gpm 81.81 gpm 163.63 gpm 245.44 gpm C 1
discharge rate is __________.
The nameplate of a reciprocating pump lists the

216802 1 following numerals as indicated 7" X 6" X 4". The 4 inches 6 inches 7 inches 8 inches C 1
diameter of the steam cylinder is __________.

If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating

pump making 100 strokes/minute with 6" diameter
216802 4 61 gpm 121 gpm 242 gpm 407 gpm A 1
cylinder, and an 11" stroke with 90% volumetric
efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?

216802 5 49 gpm 98 gpm 196 gpm 272 gpm A 1
cylinder, and a 10" stroke at an 80% volumetric
efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?

216802 6 cylinder, a 5" stroke, and operating with a 93% 61 gpm 38 gpm 30 gpm 24 gpm D 1
volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this
pump?
216802 7 cylinder, a 4" stroke, and operating with a 93% 11 gpm 23 gpm 40 gpm 46 gpm A 1
pump?
If you have a duplex single acting reciprocating pump
making 100 strokes/minute, with a 7" diameter
216802 22 cylinder, a 13" stroke and operating with 90% 672 gpm 97 gpm 390 gpm 195 gpm D 1
pump?
pump making 150 strokes/minute, with a 4" diameter
216802 28 cylinder, a 6" stroke and operating with 81% 19.8 gpm 39.7 gpm 59.5 gpm 79.4 gpm A 1
pump?
216802 39 cylinder, a 4" stroke and operating with 90% 44 gpm 22 gpm 20 gpm 88 gpm A 1
pump?
216802 41 cylinder, a 9" stroke and operating with 90% 67 gpm 223 gpm 135 gpm 270 gpm C 1
pump?
216802 48 cylinder, a 6" stroke and operating with 91% 25 gpm 48 gpm 76 gpm 101 gpm B 1
pump?


pump?
If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating
pump?
pump?
A simplex pump making 60 pumping strokes per

minute has a 10 inch stroke and a 6 inch diameter
216802 100 4208 GPH 6610 GPH 1339 GPH 3303 GPH D 1
water cylinder, which is 75% full for each stroke. How
many gallons of water are discharged per hour?

216803 0 33 gpm 49 gpm 49 gpm 98 gpm B 1
216803 1
cylinder, a 8" stroke and operating with 91%
152 gpm 67 gpm 133 gpm 267 gpm C 1
volumetric
If you haveefficiency, what isacting
a duplex single the capacity of thispump
reciprocating
216803 2
49 gpm 75 gpm 110 gpm 150 gpm C 1
216803 3 319 gpm 159 gpm 345 gpm 80 gpm A 1
216803 4 172 gpm 343 gpm 400 gpm 86 gpm B 1
volumetric
a duplex double the capacity of this
reciprocating
pump?
216803 6 80 gpm 27 gpm 107 gpm 53 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216803 8 72 gpm 52 gpm 26 gpm 103 gpm B 1


pump?
216804 0 249 gpm 113 gpm 57 gpm 226 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216804 1
216804 2 347 gpm 67 gpm 267 gpm 134 gpm D 1
pump?
pump?
216804 5
237 gpm 39 gpm 79 gpm 158 gpm C 1

pump?
216804 7 37 gpm 123 gpm 18 gpm 74 gpm A 1
volumetric
If you haveefficiency,
a simplex what
singleisacting
the capacity of this
reciprocating
pump?
pump?
216804 10 104 gpm 52 gpm 91 gpm 26 gpm D 1


216804 11 40 gpm 160 gpm 80 gpm 96 gpm A 1
pump?
216804 13
79 gpm 237 gpm 158 gpm 39 gpm C 1
216804 14 59 gpm 24 gpm 94 gpm 47 gpm D 1
216804 15 21 gpm 28 gpm 11 gpm 43 gpm A 1
216804 16 121 gpm 104 gpm 52 gpm 207 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216804 17 140 gpm 70 gpm 35 gpm 20 gpm B 1
making 150 strokes/minute, with a 6 inch diameter
216804 18 211 gpm 130 gpm 118 gpm 60 gpm D 1
216804 19 140 gpm 186 gpm 70 gpm 279 gpm A 1
pump?

pump?

216804 22 207 gpm 483 gpm 104 gpm 414 gpm D 1
216804 23 267 gpm 134 gpm 347 gpm 67 gpm A 1
216804 24 99 gpm 66 gpm 33 gpm 132 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216804 25


216804 27 54 gpm 65 gpm 274 gpm 109 gpm A 1
pump?
216804 29
pump?
216804 82
93 gpm 302 gpm 186 gpm 47 gpm C 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump?
216804 91 27 gpm 54 gpm 65 gpm 109 gpm D 1
216805 0 72 gpm 157 gpm 217 gpm 285 gpm A 1
216805 1 142 gpm 570 gpm 285 gpm 488 gpm B 1
216805 2
33 gpm 131 gpm 65 gpm 163 gpm C 1
216805 3 56.6 gpm 59.6 gpm 68.5 gpm 119.2 gpm B 1
216805 4 53.7 gpm 59.6 gpm 62.6 gpm 119.2 gpm B 1
216805 5 4.5 gpm 9.0 gpm 13.5 gpm 18 gpm B 1
216805 6 18.2 gpm 19.2 gpm 20.2 gpm 21.2 gpm D 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
pump?
216805 8 47 gpm 188 gpm 94 gpm 78 gpm A 1
216805 9 40.6 gpm 43.7 gpm 49.8 gpm 53.2 gpm D 1


216805 10 cylinder, a 9" stroke and operating with 95% 26.7 gpm 53.4 gpm 80.1 gpm 106.8 gpm D 1
pump?
216805 11 12 gpm 16 gpm 20 gpm 24 gpm D 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216805 12 57 gpm 114 gpm 118 gpm 236gpm B 1
216805 13 146 gpm 154 gpm 162 gpm 170 gpm B 1
216805 14 61 gpm 122 gpm 128 gpm 244 gpm B 1
216805 15 cylinder, a 13" stroke and operating with 95% 107.7 gpm 113.4 gpm 215.4 gpm 226.8 gpm B 1
pump?
216805 16 33.3 gpm 44.4 gpm 51.1 gpm 66.6 gpm B 1
216805 17 cylinder, a 11" stroke and operating with 95% 20.0 gpm 22.0 gpm 24.0 gpm 48.0 gpm C 1
pump?
pump?

pump?

pump?


216805 21 113 gpm 227 gpm 453 gpm 491 gpm B 1
pump?
pump?
216805 24 19 gpm 38 gpm 66 gpm 76 gpm A 1
pump?
216805 26
216805 28
44 gpm 98 gpm 196 gpm 266 gpm C 1
216805 29 30 gpm 9 gpm 36 gpm 18 gpm D 1
216805 30 42 gpm 34 gpm 21 gpm 85 gpm A 1

pump?

216805 32
84 gpm 50 gpm 101 gpm 202 gpm C 1
216805 33 47 gpm 35 gpm 140 gpm 70 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
making 170 strokes/minute, with a 8 inch diameter
216805 34 cylinder, a 8 inch stroke and operating with 89% 263 gpm 132 gpm 66 gpm 33 gpm A 1
pump?
216805 35 275 gpm 214 gpm 107 gpm 427 gpm B 1


pump?
pump?
216805 85 90 gpm 108 gpm 54 gpm 216 gpm B 1
216805 86
216805 87 124 gpm 31 gpm 129 gpm 62 gpm D 1
216805 88 150 gpm 225 gpm 75 gpm 300 gpm A 1
216805 91
301 gpm 560 gpm 603 gpm 151 gpm C 1
216805 92 79 gpm 23 gpm 91 gpm 45 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump?
216805 97 50 gpm 202 gpm 101 gpm 84 gpm A 1
216806 1 34 gpm 57 gpm 17 gpm 68 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump?
216806 3 76 gpm 95 gpm 104 gpm 183 gpm B 1
216806 4
91 gpm 128 gpm 183 pm 46 gpm C 1
216806 5 108 gpm 90 gpm 54 pm 216 gpm D 1
216806 6 cylinder, a 5" stroke and operating with 88% 205 gpm 102 gpm 85 pm 51 gpm A 1
pump?


216806 7 cylinder, a 4" stroke and operating with 95% 70 gpm 140 gpm 47 pm 35 gpm B 1
pump?

216806 8
263 gpm 363 gpm 527 gpm 132 gpm C 1
216806 9 47 gpm 141 gpm 24 gpm 94 gpm D 1
216806 10 682 gpm 341 gpm 469 gpm 170 gpm A 1
216806 11 94 gpm 188 gpm 282 gpm 47 gpm B 1
216806 12
150 gpm 225 gpm 300 gpm 75 gpm C 1
pump?
216806 14 80 gpm 104 gpm 134 gpm 225 gpm A 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 15 48 gpm 95 gpm 104 gpm 225 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 17 54 gpm 81 gpm 27 gpm 108 gpm D 1
216806 18 83 gpm 146 gpm 42 gpm 167 gpm A 1
216806 19 63 gpm 126 gpm 251 gpm 31 gpm B 1
216806 20
216806 21 105 gpm 314 gpm 52 gpm 209 gpm D 1

pump?


pump?

pump?

pump?
216806 26 45 gpm 181 gpm 91 gpm 249 gpm A 1
216806 27 119 gpm 30 gpm 60 gpm 104 gpm B 1
216806 28
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 29 196 gpm 98 gpm 137 gpm 49 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump.
pump?
pump?
pump?
pump making 190 strokes/minute, with a 5 inch
216806 34 73 gpm 291 gpm 145 gpm 349 gpm A 1
diameter cylinder, a 12 inch stroke and operating with
75% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this


pump?
216806 36
327 gpm 163 gpm 82 gpm 425 gpm C 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 37 91 gpm 45 gpm 167 gpm 23 gpm D 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 38 15 gpm 62 gpm 31 gpm 52 gpm A 1
pump?
216806 40
210 gpm 105 gpm 52 gpm 147 gpm C 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 41 161 gpm 81 gpm 54 gpm 40 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 42 31 gpm 52 gpm 15 gpm 62 gpm A 1
216806 43 137 gpm 98 gpm 49 gpm 196 gpm B 1
216806 44
163 gpm 425 gpm 327 gpm 82 gpm C 1
216806 45 426 gpm 271 gpm 136 gpm 542 gpm B 1
216806 46
695 gpm 214 gpm 428 gpm 856 gpm C 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 47 216 gpm 108 gpm 352 gpm 54 gpm D 1
216806 48 25 gpm 98 gpm 49 gpm 181 gpm A 1
216806 49 78 gpm 39 gpm 52 gpm 19 gpm D 1


pump?

pump?
pump?
216806 53 147 gpm 105 gpm 52 gpm 210 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 54
108 gpm 352 gpm 216 gpm 54 gpm C 1
216806 55 39 gpm 52 gpm 19 gpm 78 gpm D 1
216806 56 206 gpm 378 gpm 103 gpm 412 gpm A 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 57 388 gpm 149 gpm 75 gpm 298 gpm B 1
216806 58
113 gpm 57 gpm 28 gpm 246 gpm C 1
216806 59 281 gpm 141 gpm 281 gpm 70 gpm D 1
216806 60 34 gpm 137 gpm 68 gpm 120 gpm A 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump?
pump?


pump?
216806 65 57 gpm 113 gpm 246 gpm 28 gpm B 1
216806 66
106 gpm 170 gpm 213 gpm 53 gpm C 1
pump?
216806 68 103 gpm 336 gpm 52 gpm 207 gpm A 1
216806 69 519 gpm 130 gpm 259 gpm 605 gpm B 1
216806 70
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 71 150 gpm 75 gpm 132 gpm 38 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump?
pump?
pump?
pump?
216806 76 519 gpm 259 gpm 605 gpm 130 gpm A 1


216806 77 62 gpm 124 gpm 170 gpm 31 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 78
251 gpm 31 gpm 63 gpm 126 gpm C 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 79 314 gpm 52 gpm 209 gpm 105 gpm D 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 80 134 gpm 537 gpm 268 gpm 626 gpm A 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 81 176 gpm 44 gpm 88 gpm 157 gpm B 1
volumetric
a simplex what
singleisacting
reciprocating
216806 82
167 gpm 83 gpm 42 gpm 146 gpm C 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 83 75 gpm 50 gpm 38 gpm 150 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 84 78 gpm 39 gpm 52 gpm 19 gpm A 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 85 98 gpm 196 gpm 272 gpm 49 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 86
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 87 268 gpm 626 gpm 134 gpm 537 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump?
pump?
216806 90
cylinder, a 12" stroke and operation with 75%
349 gpm 73 gpm 145 gpm 291 gpm C 1
216806 91 521 gpm 260 gpm 608 gpm 130 gpm D 1


216806 92 136 gpm 542 gpm 271 gpm 426 gpm A 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216806 93 91 gpm 181 gpm 249 gpm 45 gpm B 1
216806 95 68 gpm 120 gpm 34 gpm 137 gpm D 1
216807 1 108 gpm 352 gpm 54 gpm 216 gpm A 1
216807 2 249 gpm 91 gpm 45 gpm 181 gpm B 1
216807 3
856 gpm 428 gpm 214 gpm 695 gpm C 1
216807 4 412 gpm 206 gpm 378 gpm 103 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216807 5 91 gpm 45 gpm 167 gpm 23 gpm A 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216807 6 75 gpm 150 gpm 50 gpm 37 gpm B 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216807 7
75 gpm 132 gpm 150 gpm 38 gpm C 1
216807 8 67 gpm 33 gpm 50 gpm 17 gpm D 1
216807 9
216807 10 428 gpm 856 gpm 695 gpm 214 gpm B 1
pump?
216807 12 246 gpm 28 gpm 113 gpm 57 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
pump?


pump?
pump?
216807 16 49 gpm 181 gpm 25 gpm 98 gpm D 1
216807 17 164 gpm 82 gpm 55 gpm 41 gpm A 1
216807 18 83 gpm 167 gpm 146 gpm 42 gpm B 1
cylinder, and a 7" stroke with 81% volumetric
efficiency,
If you havewhat is thesingle
a duplex capacity of this
acting pump? pump
reciprocating
216807 19
204 gpm 57 gpm 113 gpm 226 gpm C 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216807 20 149 gpm 388 gpm 75 gpm 298 gpm D 1
volumetric
reciprocating
216807 21 259 gpm 605 gpm 130 gpm 519 gpm A 1
pump?
216807 23
207 gpm 103 gpm 52 gpm 336 gpm C 1
216807 24 188 gpm 94 gpm 282 gpm 47 gpm D 1
Which of the following valve arrangements permits Two sets of valves,
One set of valves in
the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction Two sets of suction one set each for Two relief valves,
the water chest and
216820 1 from the suction chamber, and simultaneously and discharge valves suction and one on each of the B 1
another set in the
discharge through the discharge chamber during the in the liquid cylinder. discharge located in liquid cylinder.
liquid cylinder.
up and down strokes? the water chest.

The suction-force principle of operation is a typical

216825 1 centrifugal pumps jet pumps propeller pumps reciprocating pumps D 1
characteristic of __________.
The steam supplied to operate a steam driven desuperheated

main steam line via a contaminated steam
216840 1 reciprocating pump is usually obtained from the steam line via a auxiliary exhaust line A 1
reducing station generator
__________. reducing station
Which of the listed devices is used to control the

Valve operating Pilot valve and
216842 1 admission of steam to the steam cylinder of a Crosshead arm Pump rod D 1
differential operating rod
reciprocating pump?
In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve main steam piston piston in the steam governor valve
216843 1 cushioning valve B 1
is controlled by the position of the __________. valve cylinder spindle
Movement of the
Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control Adjusting of the
216843 2 Moving tappets Stay rods main piston through D 1
the position of the pilot slide valve? tappet collars
the steam cylinder
The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam increasing or variations in the twisting the stayrod changing the setting
216844 1 D 1
pump can be adjusted by __________. decreasing the throttle adjustment in a clockwise of the tappet collars
If you determine that a steam reciprocating pump is completely open the install a smaller nut adjust the valve gear install a shorter
216845 1
operating with too long of a stroke, causing the piston steam cushioning on the piston rod to manufacturer's piston rod
C 1
When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum almost completely
216845 2 wide opened half opened 3/4 opened D 1
speed, the cushioning valves should be __________. closed
The output volume of a positive fixed displacement changing the angle changing the speed moving the slide moving the shaft
216861 1 B 1
pump can be changed only by __________. of the tilting plate of the pump block and rotor trunnion block
Before starting a reciprocating, steam- driven pump
open the steam line drain the steam close the steam open the liquid
216862 1 that has been idle for a period of time, you should B 1
root valve cylinder cylinder drains cylinder drains
__________.
When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of Steam cylinder drain Water cylinder drain
216862 2
the valves listed should remain open?
Steam supply valve Steam exhaust valve
valve valve
C 1
Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a Oil mixed with
216864 1
reciprocating pump rod?
Engine oil.
kerosene.
Graphite and oil. Vegetable oil. C 1
Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod Reinforced rubber Wire impregnated Low pressure High pressure
216870 1 D 1
packing should be used in a steam reciprocating packing high temperature braided asbestos graphite packing

Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary Replaceable gib Casing gear thrust Replaceable liner
216880 1 Spur gear adjusters A 1
pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges? inserts bearings plates
Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a overlapping spaces the use of shaft end
216881 1
helical gear pump by __________. between gear teeth
a roller bearing a stuffing box
caps
C 1
Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well stuffing boxes helical gear pumps closely maintained helical gear pumps
216882 1 B 1
suited for pumping oil because __________. eliminate the are essentially self- design clearances in are designed with
stuffing boxes
eliminate the it is not necessary to they are essentially
these pumps are
Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well leakage problems closely maintain self-priming and
216882 2
suited for pumping oil because __________. usually associated design clearances capable of a high
designed with C 1
extreme tooth angles
with other gear with this pump suction lift
pumpsliquid to be
cause
trapped in between maintain tolerances prevent flow
The purpose of the crescent found in the illustrated
216884 1 the gear spaces as between the drive remove entrained air pulsations on the GS-0127 A 1
internal gear pump is to __________.
the gear passes the and internal gears discharge side
crescent
216884 6 Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________. packing gland stuffing box shaft sleeve wearing ring GS-0129 A 1
An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple delivering liquids producing a

maintaining a operating for longer
216885 1 gear pump is that the helical gear pump is capable of over greater smoother discharge D 1
steadier speed periods of time
__________. distances flow
When the axis of the pinion gear is parallel to the
center of the bevel gear, similar to right angle drive straight-tooth bevel
216886 1 hypoid type spiral bevel type zerol type GS-0128 B 1
gear shown in the illustration the drive is identified as type
__________.
When the axis of the pinion gear is parallel to the
center of the bevel gear, similar to right angle drive straight-tooth bevel
216886 3 hypoid type spiral bevel type zerol type GS-0128 B 1
gear shown in the illustration, the drive would be type
identified as a __________.
Which of the listed conditions will occur if the
Internal liquid
discharge pressure of a rotary pump is increased The pump capacity The pump capacity Pump efficiency will
216887 1 slippage will be A 1
from the designed 50 psi to 300 psi, while maintaining will be decreased. will be increased. be increased.
reduced.
the same RPM?
If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains

capacity will suction pressure will suction pressure will
216887 2 constant as the discharge pressure increases, the capacity will increase B 1
decrease increase decrease
rotary pump __________.
The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant

decreased suction increased suction
216887 3 viscosity fluid, will decrease when the discharge reduced slippage increased slippage D 1
pressure pressure
pressure is increased, due to __________.

The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when

216889 1 operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an discharge volume suction pressure torque rating rotor clearances D 1
increase in the pump __________.
A spur gear pump should be operated with the

216890 1
discharge valves __________.
slightly opened throttled fully opened halfway opened C 1
The viscosity of the The pump cannot

The pump can only
How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect fluid is relatively The pump can only handle fluids more
216891 1 be used for fluids of A 1
the operation of a spur gear pump? unimportant in the be used for light oils. viscous than
high viscosity.
pump operation. The gear teeth are One discharge lubricating oil.
The herringbone
Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear Clearance between
smaller than those ofphase begins before gear pump has four
216893 1 pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a the gear teeth and
the simple spur gear the previous spur gears instead of
C 1
simple spur gear pump? casing is smaller.
be of the same pump. discharge
be the nextphase
size has two.
be at least one size
When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping diameter as the smaller than the be sloped to the
216894 1 larger than the pump B 1
should __________. pump suction pump suction pump
suction connection
connection connection
Which of the following statements is/are true Variable volumes A radial piston pump The amount of fluid
regarding hydraulic pumps in general? can be obtained with houses sliding displaced per
The discharge side
Theoretically, there should be protected
Which of the following statements is true regarding a Theoretically it is self
216896 1 is no limit to shut off against excessive All of the above. D 1
positive displacement rotary pump? priming.
head pressure. pressure build up via
a relief valve.
What type of material is used to construct the rotor of

216910 1 Monel Brass sheet Bearing bronze Steel GS-0144 D 1
the pump illustrated?
One of the main differences between the various direction of rotation

216911 1
types of screw pumps is in the __________.
stuffing box diameter
of the screws
pitch of the screws type of driving gears C 1
Double screw rotary Triple screw rotary Double screw rotary Triple screw rotary
216912 1 What type of pump is shown in the illustration? GS-0144 D 1
pump with suction at pump with suction at pump with end pump with end
Correct the cause of
Which of the following actions should be taken if, Reassemble the unit Check for parallel Reassemble the unit
the scoring and
during a routine maintenance inspection of a and provide more alignment of the and adjust the
216930 1 repair the sleeve or A 1
centrifugal pump, localized scoring on a pump shaft water leak off for sleeve radial faces to governor to obtain a
replace with a new
sleeve is detected? proper lubrication. the sleeve bores. slower speed.
one.
What should be done if localized scoring is Reassemble the Check for parallel Reassemble the Correct the cause of
216930 2 D 1
discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine pump and provide alignment of the pump and set the scoring and install a
When adding packing to a pump shaft seal, you must excessive friction in excessive wear of deterioration of the
be careful to prevent __________. the joint the pump shaft packing due to

The pump packing gland has been repeatedly Replace all of theReplace with larger Replace the soft Continue to add
216932 1 D 1
tightened by small increments until the gland has packing. cross-sectional turns packing with packing more turns of
Tighten the packing
Lubricate the lantern Tightening the gland Operating the pump
To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after
in small increments
ring with cylinder oil in all the way and slowly and applying
216933 1 repacking the stuffing box, which of the following A 1
while the pump is before installing new then backing it off oil freely to the shaft
procedures should be carried out?
operating. turns of packing. slightly. until the packing is
If a centrifugal pump develops insufficient discharge Throttle in on the Always replace the Throttle in on the
216936 1 Replace the rings. A 1
pressure as a result of worn wearing rings, which of discharge valve. wearing rings and suction valve.
A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient Replace the wearing Throttle in on the Replace the lantern Throttle in on the
216936 2 A 1
discharge pressure. What corrective action is rings. discharge valve. rings. suction valve.
check the shaft and
After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by
dynamically balance visually inspect the
impeller assembly on
216937 1 pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is the shaft and rings after about an all of the above B 1
centers to see if the
advisable to __________. impeller hour of service
ring surfaces
ensure are
that the make sure the seal
When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal always turn down the lantern ring is check the stuffing cage is always
216938 1 pump equipped with an external liquid sealing supply, shaft in a lathe to aligned with the box for irregularities positioned at the B 1
you should __________. ensure a snug fit sealing supply with a dial indicator base of the stuffing
opening tightened an box
When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump loosened until the loosened, and then
additional 10% to
216940 1 stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the left in that position gland clears the retightened until they D 1
compress the
packing gland nuts should be __________. stuffing box are only finger tight
packing
tightened an loosened, and then

When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump loosened until the
additional 10% to retightened with the
216940 2 stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the left in that position gland clears the D 1
compress the pump running under
packing gland nuts should be __________. stuffing box
packing normal conditions
During the inspection of a low pressure pump, the leave the existing
replace the worn install a new machine the worn
216941 1 wearing ring is determined to have a clearance of wearing rings in D 1
wearing ring oversized casing ring wearing ring and refit
0.011" - 0.013", you should __________. place
A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally repaired by a straightened by reconditioned by replaced with a
216942 1 D 1
be __________. suitable welding applying heat and metalizing and satisfactory spare
The shaft coupling for the pump illustrated is

216943 1 prevented from rotating on the shaft by a lacing wire key set screw lock washer GS-0143 B 1
__________.
The type of shaft coupling used on the pump

216943 2 flexible grid coupling solid coupling gear coupling jaw coupling GS-0143 B 1
illustrated is best described as a __________.

The shaft coupling for the illustrated pump is rotated interlocking flexible special bolts and
216943 3 wire serpentine grid internal gear ring GS-0143 D 1
by the motor coupling using a/an __________. claws flexible
measure rubber
the present
ensure the balance place the steam
The first step when resetting the slide valves on a position the steam port openings to
216949 1
duplex reciprocating pump is to __________. pistons on 3/4 stroke
piston is on the down pistons in the mid
ensure reassembly
C 1
stroke stroke position
will be the same
When replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of
216950 1 square beveled step-designed diagonal A 1
reciprocating pump piston rods, the ends of the rings
When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than
216950 2 45° apart 90° apart 120° apart 180° apart B 1
four rings of packing, the packing is cut square,
do nothing, as this open the steam

To safely remove the piston rod packing from the open the throttle
type of pump utilizes chest and pry the
216952 1 steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should use a packing hook valve and 'blow' the A 1
O-rings in lieu of packing loose with a
__________. old packing out
packing scraper
Why should the use of metallic or semi- metallic

Heat transfer is Valve seat will be Bonnet corrosion
216954 1 packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or Scoring may result. B 1
restricted. damaged. may result.
brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
seal failure usually
it requires periodic it is unsuitable for requires the it is unsuitable for
One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal
216955 1
instead of mechanical packing is that __________.
disassembly and high temperature immediate removal high pressure C 1
adjustment applications of the pump from applications
service
make the final spring ensure that correct polish the seating
run the pump "dry"
When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it collar adjustments spring pressure is faces with emery
216956 1 for initial break-in of B 1
is important to ______. with the pump applied to the cloth prior to
the shaft seal
running seating faces assembly
What would be the probable cause if a pump were
unable to maintain necessary discharge pressure to a
216971 1
system?
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C 1
What would be the probable cause if a pump were

unable to maintain necessary discharge pressure to a
Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and
216980 1 cavitation water hammer fluid friction steam knock A 1
noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump is a result
Vapor pockets
Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitations Rough casing volute Partial restriction in
216980 2 formed in the suction Worn wearing rings. A 1
in a centrifugal pump? surfaces. the discharge valve.
flow stream.
Gases or vapors
Which of the following conditions will prevent a Friction losses as a
Leaks developed in released in the liquid
216982 1 shipboard pump from achieving its maximum suction result of improperly All of the above. D 1
the suction piping. as a result of greater
lift? sized pipe.
than normal
Which of the following conditions will indicate a need
216983 1 Roughness Deep ridges Corrugations All of the above D 1
for a finishing cut to be taken on the pump shaft?

The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a

centrifugal salt water service pump. The packing the shaft sleeve "O" suction head the sealing water only two sections of
216984 1 gland is now drawn tightly up against the casing. ring seals were not pressure has flow to the stuffing the lantern ring were A 1
Despite the use of standard procedures to tighten the installed become excessive box is blocked installed
packing
While ongland,
watch,water continues
you notice that to pour out along
a significant the
amount make no further take up evenly on back off on the nuts shut off the sealing
of water is flowing out of the packing box from a adjustments and the packing gland by the same amount line valves to
216984 2
centrifugal salt water pump which had been recently continue to make a nuts another 2 or 3 to prevent scoring of diminish the outflow
C 1
overhauled.
While You you
on watch, tighten the that
notice packing gland evenly
a significant by
amount round of the engine full turns the shaft sleeve and of water from the
make no further
of water is flowing out of the packing box from a take up evenly on shut off the seal line change over to the
adjustments and
centrifugal salt water pump which had been recently the packing gland valves to diminish stand-by pump and
216984 3 continue to make a D 1
overhauled. You tighten the packing gland evenly by nuts another 2 or 3 the outflow of water inform the next
round of the engine
nearly a half inch, yet the amount of water output full turns from the packing box watch
room
from the packing
A centrifugal pump box does not
vibrates diminish. during
excessively You should drill holes through
weld counterweights remove metal from acid wash and
operation. Upon disassembling the pump it is found the heavy side of the
216985 1
that the impeller is out of balance. Without an impeller until it
to the light side of the heavy side by scrape the heavy C 1
the impeller machining in a lathe side until it balances
available spare, you should __________. balances
If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed excessive pump excessive suction gross pump
216986 2
electric motor and produces a discharge pressure speed head
worn wearing rings
misalignment
C 1
If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases

216986 3 gradually over a long period of time, you should packing gland mechanical seals lantern rings wearing rings D 1
replace the __________.
If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed suction absolute excessive suction pump packing gland
216986 4 worn wearing rings D 1
prime mover and produces a flow rate less than the pressure greatly head pressure misalignment
Operating a water service centrifugal pump with an noisy pump excessive pump a decrease in excessive stuffing
216986 5
excessive amount of wearing ring clearance would operation vibration discharge head box leakage
C 1
If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when worn gland sealing reversed pump
216990 1
operating, the cause could be __________. shaft
worn wearing rings a bent shaft
coupling
C 1
A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first water seal pipe is seal ring is
216991 1 pump is not primed impeller is flooded B 1
started if the __________. plugged improperly located
If a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted The pump may lose The pump gland may Pump may tend to
while operating under a negative suction head suction. overheat. cavitate.
If a centrifugal boiler feed pump operating with a excessive suction air leakage into
216994 2 worn wearing rings insufficient flow D 1
positive suction head vibrates, or becomes noisy, the pressure suction line
A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been operate with discharge through
have a greater head require more power
216996 1 installed in the reverse direction, and will increased impeller the suction side of D 1
capacity to turn the shaft
__________. efficiency the pump casing
It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal
head capacity to discharge to be efficiency to
216997 1 pump impeller with the vanes facing in the wrong
improve reversed decrease
slippage to decrease C 1
direction. This would cause the pump __________.
The result of mounting an impeller of a double suction
head capacity to discharge to be efficiency to
216997 2 centrifugal pump impeller with the vanes facing the
improve reversed decrease
slippage to decrease C 1
wrong direction, would cause the pumps ________.

Heavy wear in a particular area of the inner

a loose stuffing box
216998 1 circumference of a packing ring may be caused by a high suction head rotating rings badly worn bearings
gland
C 1
__________.
If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires
worn mechanical a flooded pump wrong direction of
216999 1 replacement more frequently than normal, a possible worn bearings A 1
seals suction pump rotation
cause may be __________.
If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the salt water

a plugged water seal
217000 2 bearings of the condensate pump, the trouble could misalignment contamination of the worn wearing rings A 1
line
be the result of __________. condensate
Frequent bearing replacement in a centrifugal pump, leakage through the

high net positive long periods of
217000 3 due to rapid bearing wear, can be a result of pump stuffing box misalignment D 1
suction head cavitation
__________. gland
What would probably occur if excessive misalignment
pump cavitation willpower consumption flashing may occur shaft bearings will
217000 4 existed between a centrifugal pump and its power D 1
increase will be reduced at the impeller eye overheat
source?
Pump efficiency is The pump packing Pump capacity is
Which of the following problems will occur when the The pump will
reduced and will fail causing reduced and overall
217001 3 suction valve is throttled on a centrifugal pump not immediately B 1
cavitation will be irreparable damage efficiency will be
designed to operate in this manner? overheat and seize.
induced. to the pump shaft. increased.
What would be the result of throttling the suction
valve to the point where the flow was less than that
The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal crackling noise and an increase in an increase in lifting of the relief
217002 1 A 1
pump is __________. vibration discharge pressure suction pressure valve
Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and
noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results
217002 2 vapor pockets water hammer action fluid friction steam knock A 1
from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation
describes the formation of
If you heard a 'crackling' noise in a centrifugal pump,
excess discharge excessive net
217002 3 the most probable cause of the problem would be insufficient speed cavitation B 1
pressure positive suction head
__________.
A crackling noise coming from a centrifugal pump an oversized lantern reversed pump
217002 4
casing is an indication of __________.
insufficient packing
ring
excessive suction lift
rotation
C 1
If you heard a 'crackling' sound occurring within a

217002 5 shaft sleeves discharge volutes wearing rings pump suction D 1
centrifugal pump, the most probable source of the
Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump
217005 1 cavitation electrolysis abrasion corrosion A 1
bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.
One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal air entrained in the packing rings some packing rings improper adjustment
217008 1 D 1
pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the fluid pumped rotating in the being cut too short of the gland nuts

One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal

insufficient packing rings over tightening the
pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the some rings being cut
217008 2
rings nearest the packing gland. If the rings nearest
lubrication of the rotating in the packing in one
too short
C 1
lantern ring stuffing box adjustment
the impeller remain in good condition during the same
Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the failure to insert and
failure to tighten the cutting the rings
pump packing gland, while the rings nearest the individually seat the insufficient tightening
217008 3 packing gland in a nearest the gland too A 1
impeller remain in good condition, is caused by rings, one ring at a of the packing gland
single adjustment short
__________. time
Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the insufficient
under tightening the failure to seat the
217009 1 packing rings in a centrifugal pump, is caused by
packing packing rings
lubrication of the packing ring rotation C 1
__________. packing
Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve cause new packing cause severe pump damage the packing damage the pump
217010 1 A 1
will __________. to be torn and vibration at operating gland stuffing box casing interstage
cause severe cause excessive allow interstage
Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve cause damage in the
217010 2 vibration when the leakage past the leakage in the pump B 1
will __________. stuffing box
pump is operating packing gland casing glands
If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the running at low speed excessive defective casing
217011 1 worn bearings D 1
packing on the main condensate pump, the trouble for a long time condensate gasket
One of three available centrifugal salt water service start a second pump after starting the after starting the
only need to start a
pumps is in operation with a sea water temperature of and place it on line, second pump open second pump secure
217012 1 second pump and B 1
50°F. The cooling temperature of all systems supplied close the discharge the casing vent valve the first pump and do
operate it in parallel
by this pump appear to be high. Therefore, you valve on the original of the first pump, nothing else with the
The simplest method to use for determining if a closely observe the close off the momentarily close use a clamp on
217012 2 B 1
centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to pump discharge discharge valve, and off the suction valve, ammeter and
If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed

water pressure will water pressure will
to be stopped by closing the discharge valve while liquid may overheat
217012 3 relief valve will open lower continually to tend to rise D 1
the pump continues to run for an indefinite period, the and vaporize
shut off head continuously
__________.
You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump discharge valve is discharge valve is suction valve is suction valve is
217012 4 A 1
on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge closed off and there 80% closed and the closed off, and the closed off, yet the
If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed
The wearing rings The water pressure The water pressure
to be stopped by closing the discharge valve while liquid in the pump
217012 5 will become will decrease to shut will rise above shut D 1
the pump continues to run for an extended period, will overheat
excessively worn. off head off head
which of the following will occur? air entering the
a leak in a gasket on the suction valve in the pump being
Pump efficiency may be lost as a result of pump through a pin
217013 1 the suction side of the wide open installed too close to B 1
__________. hole leak in the
the pump position the suction tank
discharge
The pump manifold
delivers The pump packing The motor over
Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a Pounding noises can
full capacity when gland overheats after current protective
217014 1 centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the be heard at the A 1
started, but gradually short operating device continually
following operational problems? pump suction chest.
slackens off to an periods. shuts the pump no longer continue to
If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam speed up by 5% until internally convert the
217015 1 turbine and the discharge valve is closed off, the slow down run cooler the discharge valve resultant energy D 1
pump will __________. is reopened imparted to the
pump

An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is defective intake clogged suction scarred cylinder
217020 1 clogged drain valves B 1
most often caused by __________. valves strainers walls
A leaking snifter
Which of the following conditions would prevent a Air trapped in the
valve allowing air to
217021 1 steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated Excessive suction lift discharge expansion All of the above A 1
enter the suction
capacity? chamber
side of the pump
When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a

clogged suction misalignment of the
217022 1 reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be a loose tappet collar an open snifter valve D 1
strainers crosshead guide
__________.
A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam lower than normal lower than normal improper adjustment loss of air charge in
217023 1 reciprocating general service pump could be caused supply steam supply steam of steam cushion the pump discharge C 1
by __________. temperature pressure valves plenum chamber
pump to short stroke
Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a
continuously at both pistons to stop in mid-pump to operate cushioning valves to
217024 1 duplex reciprocating pump will cause the
ends of the stroke for stroke sluggishly wear
C 1
__________.
both cylinders
An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will increase discharge decrease pump decrease pump decrease reaction
217040 1 B 1
__________. pressure capacity cavitation ring clearance
decreased decreased slippage

Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of air binding in the erosion and
217042 1 clearances between to the suction side of D 1
design requirements could cause __________. discharge ports excessive wear
rotating parts the pump
Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated

Increased Decreased
217042 2 speed will result in which of the following conditions Loss of suction Decreased slippage B 1
clearances clearances
to occur?
If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor
217044 1 is stopped, which of the following types of pumps will Centrifugal Gear Propeller Turbine B 1
most likely be damaged?

at the extreme upper even throughout the

Inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitation
along the inlet side along the discharge and lower entire periphery of
217045 1 will usually be indicated by a wear pattern A 1
of the housing side of the housing peripheries of the the housing when
__________.
housing matched machined
Which of the following changes in pump operating Steadily increasing Steadily increasing Steadily increasing
Steadily decreasing
217046 1 parameters will lead to pump cavitation in a pump suction pump discharge pump inlet D 1
pump speed
centrifugal pump that is operating in an open system? pressure pressure temperature
Which type of pump would normally be used to

217060 2 transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low propeller type reciprocating type gear type screw type A 1
pressures?
Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard Fluid power Main circulating Steering gear Fuel oil service
217061 1 B 1
ship will most likely use a propeller type pump? transmission system system system booster system
When securing a distillate pump on a low pressure Close the sealing

Close the pressure Trip the three-way
217062 1 fresh water evaporator, which of the listed steps Stop the pump.
gage valves. solenoid dump valve.
line valves to the C 1
should be carried out FIRST? pump.
Close the pressure Secure the stuffing

When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, Secure the casing Trip the three way
217062 2 gage isolation box sealing water D 1
which of the listed steps should be carried out first? vapor vent line. dump valve.
valves. line.
The high discharge Rotary pumps

pressure of the Rotary pumps are eliminate discharge
Rotary pumps
Which of the following statements represents the rotary pumps permits capable of pumping slippage of the
occupy only one-half
217063 1 advantage of rotary pumps as compared to a larger volume of more fluid than pumped liquid, while B 1
the space of
reciprocating pumps? fluid per unit time reciprocating pumps this does not hold
reciprocating pumps.
than the of the same weight. true for a
reciprocating pump. reciprocating pump.
When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for
dewatering the engine room bilges, you would
__________.
217065 1
I. use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain a
I only II only Either I or II Neither I nor II C 1
prime
II. partially open the sea suction valve, then gradually
switch over to the required engine room bilge suction

The correct rotation

The unit does not The unit is designed
Which of the following characteristics is true of the impeller is The unit is designed
217066 2 require sealing to pump high GS-0075 D 1
concerning the device shown in the illustration? counter-clockwise as to pump gases.
liquid. viscosity oil.
shown.
The illustrated device is in operation when the output at "B" is the output at "B" is suction of the suction of the
217070 2
__________. providing negative providing positive transferred liquid transferred liquid
GS-0061 C 1
It can only operate The pump discharge It is a positive The pump suction is
Which of the following statements is true of the
217070 3
illustrated pump?
with positive suction is from the outlet displacement air through the inlet GS-0061 C 1
pressure. marked "G". operated pump. marked "C".
The pump is most
The unit is primarily The unit is designed The unit will operate
Which of the following characteristics is true suited for high
217071 2 designed to pump to efficiently pump more efficiently at GS-0075 B 1
concerning the pump shown in the illustration? pressure hydraulic
vapor only high viscosity liquids. reduced RPM's
applications.
The device shown in the illustration would normally Bilge pump priming Lube oil transfer Fuel oil transfer Hydraulic steering
217072 1 GS-0075 A 1
be associated with what engine room system? system. system. system. system.
passage for sealing

The function of the section labeled "C" in the device passage for gas to bearing surface for area for pump
217074 1 liquid to enter the GS-0075 B 1
illustrated is to provide a/an __________. be discharged the rotor shaft packing
pump
Which of the following figures is INCORRECT

217075 1 A B C D GS-0179 B 1
regarding the direction of flow and shaft rotation for
Which of the following systems, according to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR) must have an Fuel oil service Main circulating/bilge
217080 1 Main fire pump All of the above B 1
emergency stop, protected with a glass enclosure, pump injection valve
and located outside of the machinery space?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require remote accessible to
located at the control provided with a protected against
217081 1 controls for stopping fuel oil service pumps. These authorized personnel D 1
platform locked cover accidental operation
controls shall be __________. only
Machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service
within the space outside the space
217082 1 pumps must be fitted with a remote means of the throttle station within the fireroom B 1
concerned concerned
stopping the machinery from __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), readily accessible compressed air shall a pressure gauge or the glands are to be
217083 1 A 1
where cargo pump shafts on tankers pierce gastight glands shall be used as the manometer shall be kept under
a pressure gauge or
the glands are to be
compressed air shall manometer shall be
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), readily accessible kept under
be used as the installed on the
217083 2 where cargo pump shafts on tankers pierce gastight glands shall continuous suction A 1
primary means to bulkhead to ensure
bulkheads __________. be provided with power
discharge cargo the gastight seal is
ventilation
maintained

How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank Prior to each cargo At least once each At each biennial
217084 1
vessels to be tested? discharge operation. voyage.
At least once a year.
inspection.
C 1
At which of the following intervals must the cargo Prior to each fuel At least once each At each biennial
217084 2
pump relief valves on tank vessels be tested? discharge operation. voyage.
At least once a year.
inspection.
C 1
If a vessel is not provided with duplicate service
217085 1 systems, which of the systems listed will satisfy the Main condensate Fuel oil service Lube oil service All of the above D 1
regulations if serviced by two pumps? (46 CFR)
If auxiliary machinery vital to the main propulsion
system is not provided with independent duplicate
217085 2 Main condensate Lube oil service Fuel oil service All of the above D 1
systems, which of the systems listed would satisfy
regulations if serviced by two pumps? (46 CFR)
An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler inject water vapor prevent overheating increase compressor reduce the
217120 1 C 2
and an aftercooler to __________. into the compressed of first stage valves efficiency and compressed air
operated in an
To obtain maximum efficiency, two stage air never fitted with fitted with
217120 2 horizontally mounted unloaded condition C 2
compressors are usually __________. intake filters intercoolers
at all times
An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to

__________.
217120 3 I. increase the efficiency of the compressor I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A 2
II. reduce the low pressure cylinder designed
operating temperature
If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor

total capacity will be volumetric efficiency discharge pressure normal running time
217120 4 becomes fouled either internally or externally, the B 2
reduced will be decreased will decrease will be decreased
__________.
Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides condensing part of reducing the

increasing the
217120 5 the advantages of reducing the work of compression the original water maximum piston all of the above D 2
volumetric efficiency
on the succeeding stages, and __________. vapor content loads
reduce the dampen pressure ensure complete

Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to decrease the density
217121 1 temperature of pulses in the expansion of the A 2
__________. of compressed air
compressed air discharge air compressed air
The heat of compression is partially removed from compressor water

217121 2 intercoolers after coolers all of the above D 2
compressed air by __________. jackets
The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure

217122 1 water oil air CO2 C 2
air compressors are cooled by __________.
The air charge leaving an intercooler, or aftercooler of
at or below the dew
217126 1 an air compressor can be expected to be superheated super cooled all of the above C 2
point
__________.

the cooling effect of a danger of water contamination the volumetric

Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and
the condensate explosion exists causes erratic capacity of the first
217127 1 aftercoolers of an air compressor because C 2
reduces the whenever water is operation of stage is reduced if
__________.
compressor's present in a pneumatic water the
allow remains
For any given volume of compressed air produced by increase the power decrease the power allow isothermal
compressed air
217128 1 a multistage air compressor, interstage cooling will required for required for compression of the B 2
volume to remain
__________. compression compression air charge
constant
The device shown in the illustration is used to unload the cylinders reduce the pressure grind sewage prior to maintain correct
217129 1 GS-0029 A 2
__________. of an air compressor in the ship's service entering the sewage tension on the drive
Prevents lubricating Protects against the
Provides a positive
Which of the following statements describes the Protects against oil contamination of damaging effects of
217140 1 pressure on the air D 2
function of an air compressor intake filter? suction valve float. the compressed air airborne solid
inlet valves.
supply. particles.
Moisture and impurities can be removed from desiccated suction multi-orifice suction blow down valves
217141 1 air intake heaters D 2
pneumatic systems by using __________. strainers valves and filters
An important point of consideration when replacing a use the same install a smaller size install only a filter select the proper
217142 1 D 2
dry type intake filter on an air compressor is to wetting oil on the filter to allow for consisting of a size filter so that air
Separators are installed ahead of air line lubricators the heat of air supply pressure moisture in the air turbulence in the air
217143 1 C 2
for the primary purpose of removing __________. compression pulses supply supply
Which of the listed devices would be installed at a
217144 1 Moisture separator Vacuum breaker Lubricator Nonreturn valve A 2
control system air pressure reducing station?
Which of the listed components would normally be
217144 2 installed with a Control Air System pressure Moisture separator Vacuum breaker Lubricator Nonreturn valve A 2
regulator?
tools and equipment
Air line lubricators are used in compressed air the suction and air line reducing
217145 1 served by all of the above B 2
systems to lubricate __________. discharge valves valves
compressed air
fitting depressors
When air compressors are arranged for automatic step unloading the
bypassing the which hold the
217160 1 operation, the cylinders can be unloaded during cylinders in a multi- all of the above D 2
discharge to suction suction valve plates
starting by __________. cylinder machine
on their
fitting seats
depressors
When air compressors are arranged for automatic
bypassing the which hold the applying reduced
217160 2 operation, the cylinders can be unloaded during all of the above B 2
discharge valves suction valve plates voltage to the motor
starting by __________.
open allow the motor to
increase compressor increase compressor reduce the
The unloading system on an air compressor will turn the compressor
217161 1 discharge pressure operating speed as compressor frictional C 2
__________. opposed only by
on demand necessary load when starting
vary their speed friction
start and come up to change speed
Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the according to reduce compressed
217161 2 speed before air according to B 2
compressor to __________. temperature and air charge density
compression begins overload demands
load
remove all but the
The function of an unloader on a two- cylinder, two- prevent water
friction load on the reduce motor vary compressor
217161 3 stage medium pressure, air compressor is to accumulation in air A 2
compressor motor starting voltage speed
__________. lines
when starting

removing all but the relieving intercoolers

providing high seating valve plates
Air compressors are equipped with unloading
217161 4 frictional load during of high temperaturestarting torque in the during compressor A 2
systems for the purpose of __________.
starting buildups drive motor shutdown
An unloader is installed on an air compressor to bypass the high prevent excessive control compressor remove all but the
217161 5 D 2
__________. pressure stage to the interstage pressuredischarge pressure frictional load during
delay the
The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is drain water from the drain water from the compression check pump
217161 6 C 2
to __________. air receiver cylinders process until the alignment
motor is up to speed
An unloader is installed on an air compressor to bypass the high prevent excessive control compressor remove the
217161 7 D 2
__________. pressure stage to the interstage pressure discharge pressure compression load as
fail to work, and the fail to function as
Still function
If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship drive motor will trip designed, but the
still function normally normally, but the
217163 1 service air receiver, the compressor mechanical the circuit breaker as compressor having B 2
at start-up safety interlock will
unloading system will __________. the compressor will no load will start with
stop the drive motor
be overloaded little or no difficulty
The usual method of unloading a low pressure air holding the the use of a temporarily
holding the suction
217164 1 compressor at start-up is accomplished by discharge valve precharged discharging to the air C 2
valve open
__________. open accumulator receiver
temporarily
Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air holding the L.P. the use of a using a permanently
discharging back to
217165 1 compressor at start- up can be accomplished by discharge valve precharged enlarged clearance D 2
the compressor
__________. open accumulator expansion volume
intake
using an enlarged,
holding the relieving the
An air compressor can be unloaded at start-up by permanently opened a precharged
217166 1 discharge valve intercooler pressure B 2
__________. clearance expansion accumulator
open to the atmosphere
space
The unloading of an air compressor may be provided
by __________.
217167 2 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C 2
I. holding the intake valve off of its seat
II. temporarily relieving the the intercooler to the intensify the open the discharge remove all but the precharge the
The primary function of the device illustrated is to pressure developed valves during the frictional load of an cylinders of an air
217167 3 GS-0029 C 2
__________. by an air compressor compressors air compressor at compressor prior to
during its normal operation to supply start up the start-up of the
Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler after cooler relief intercooler relief
217170 1 last-stage unloader first-stage unloader B 2
is prevented by the __________. valve valve
The function of the illustrated device is to relieve compressed relieve compressed provide variable direct compressed
217170 2 GS-0034 A 2
__________. air from the air directly from the discharge air flow to air from the air
The actuator closing A relief valve Relief valves are The blow down of a
Which one of the following is a difference between a spring on a relief gradually opens as capable of being relief valve is greater
217171 1 B 2
typical relief valve and a typical safety valve? valve is in a pressure increases gagged whereas than the blow down
compressed state above set point safety valves are of a safety valve.

dry the air minimize the receive exhaust air

One function of the air receiver in a compressed air remove all traces of
217180 1 discharged from the system's line from pneumatic B 2
system is to __________. oil from the air
intercooler pulsations accessories
Which of the following describes the function of the Provides

Condenses Acts as an
217181 1 air receiver in the compressed air system on a overpressure Purifies the air. D 2
moisture. accumulator.
MODU? protection.
In addition to a pressure gage and a relief valve, an sight glass and thermometer and thermometer and
217183 1 drain connection D 2
air receiver should be fitted with a __________. manhole sight glass manhole
When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line

frequently drained of fitted with a moisture fitted with a sight
217184 1 with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, fitted with a manhole B 2
condensed water trap at the inlet glass
the reservoir must be __________.
Air compressor receivers should be 'blown down' at

217184 2 yearly quarterly monthly daily D 2
least __________.
Which of the following frequent maintenance A close watch on the Constant cleaning to Constant testing of Frequent draining of
217184 3 D 2
procedures is required of compressed air receivers? temperature. remove oil and dirt. the relief valves. water.
Condensate must be drained periodically from the air second stage oil sump faulty operation of corrosion of air
217185 1 C 2
compressor receivers to prevent __________. cylinder lockup contamination pneumatic valves receiver baffles
Which of the listed valve types is typically used for

217200 1 suction and discharge valves on modern low Poppet Rotary Reed Sliding C 2
pressure air compressors?
The function of the springs used with channel or plate- open the valves
provide positive reduce compressor reduce air intake and
217201 1 type valves for reciprocating air compressors is to during downward B 2
closing of the valves discharge pulsations exhaust pulsations
__________. strokes
Compared to poppet and other mechanically
They improve
operated valves, which of the following advantages is They operate with a They are simple and
217202 1 compression All of the above. D 2
gained by using a thin plate (feather) low lift type minimum of noise. easy to replace.
efficiency.
valve in an low pressure air compressor?

one valve seats the reed valves used the suction valve the discharge valve
The major difference between the discharge and
upwards, while the on the discharge are springs exert a springs exert a
217203 1 suction valves installed in most low pressure, A 2
other seats made substantially greater tension than greater tension than
reciprocating air compressors is that __________.
downwards thicker and heavier the discharge valve the suction valve
Which of the following statements regarding low A relatively large Mechanical Only the suction Due to the physical
217204 2 D 2
pressure, reciprocating, air compressor valves is cylinder clearance operating valve gear valve requires a construction of the
Intake valves installed on most reciprocating low of the air on the of the push rod and sensed by the sensed by the
217205 1 A 2
pressure air compressors are actuated by the external side of the rocker arm assembly receiver low intercooler
In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide
217220 1 Differential Trunk Barrel Valve-in-head B 2
area of the cylinder walls and liners, which of the
a means of a variable
a means of more than one stage
Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air distributing side compression ratio
217221 1 unloading during of compression by C 2
compressors, serve to provide __________. pressures over a enabling the output
start-up each piston
During the operation of the device shown in the wider area of"B"
Component each
is Component "D" is Component "F" will to be varied "E"
Component to suit
is
illustration, the required compressed air output has closed and will open open and will close force "E" to be driven modulated
217242 1 GS-0120 D 2
stabilized within a pressure range of 100-110 psi. when output when output to the full open proportionally in
Which of the following statements of operating pressure had pressure rises above position. response to the
During the normal operation (air supply 50-100 psi) of
217243 1 the device shown in the illustration, which of the B D G H GS-0120 A 2
components listed below will be open?
The device shown in the illustration is commonly

217243 2 compress air pump heavy liquids pump refrigerant generate electricity GS-0120 A 2
used to __________?
circulate refrigerant
separate large
The device shown in the illustration is used to pump cargo oil or through the ships
217244 1 compress air quantities of oil- GS-0119 C 2
__________. bilges service refrigeration
water emulsions
system
The device shown in the illustration is commonly hydraulic steering multistage ballast rotary lobe type air control air
217244 2 GS-0119 C 2
referred to as a __________. gear pump pump compressor dehydrator
Lubricating oil is added to the device shown in the

217245 1 D F M R GS-0119 B 2
illustration by using the component labeled '______.'
provide storage for

One of the functions of the component labeled "E", act solely as a heat act as a lube oil act as a cyclonic oil
217245 2 compressed GS-0119 B 2
shown in the illustration, is to __________. exchanger sump separator
cryogenic gases
separate oil from the provide for

One of the functions of the component labeled "E" act as a hydraulic act as a oily water
217245 4 compressed air expansion of GS-0119 B 2
shown in the illustration is to __________. accumulator separator
supply refrigeration gases
air pressure forcing splash-type
The device shown in the illustration is lubricated by a small spur gear gravity feed provided
217246 1 lube oil to areas of lubrication provided GS-0119 A 2
__________. pump by component "A"
friction in the compressor

provide storage for act as a cyclonic

One of the functions of the component labeled "E", act solely as a heat act as a lube oil
217247 1 compressed pneumatic GS-0119 B 2
shown in the illustration, is to __________. exchanger sump
cryogenic gases dehydrator
temporarily holding open the throttling a butterfly
the use of an
The running unloader of the device shown in the discharging the high pressure stage valve located in the
217249 2 intercooler relief GS-0119 C 2
illustration operates by __________. compressed air to reed-type suction compressor suction
device
the atmosphere valves line
a constant pressure
The air compressor shown in the illustration, when
a constant capacity a diesel engine air unit while operating
217250 1 used aboard a vessel is typically operated as an on-off cycle unit GS-0119 B 2
unit start unit only under all load
__________.
conditions
complete shut down change in control
the modulation of the
As demand on the device shown in the illustration until the lower pressure to modulate proportional
opening of a butterfly
217251 2 fluctuates in the pressure range of 100 to 110 psi, the pressure limit is the discharge of modulation of the GS-0119 B 2
valve located in the
output of the unit is controlled by __________. reached causing it to compressed air to compressor speed
air intake
restart the atmosphere
Which of the components listed will be open during

217253 1 the start-up mode (air supply 0-50 psi) of the device B C D E GS-0120 D 2
shown in the illustration?
The piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air

217264 1 compressor can be modified by changing the piston speed compressor capacity volumetric efficiency total pressure A 2
__________.
In order to assure an output near the end of its
compression stroke, the pressure developed in the the same as the line below the line constant throughout above the line
217265 1 D 2
high pressure cylinder of a reciprocating air discharge pressure discharge pressure the discharge period discharge pressure
compressor is __________.
internal cooling
On small, low pressure, air compressors, the mechanical force detached sump passages in the
217268 1 splash method A 2
cylinders are usually lubricated by the __________. feed lubricators method crankshafts and
connecting rods
The low pressure
The low pressure The high pressure cylinder will be
Which of the following statements is correct when The high and low
cylinder will be cylinder will be smaller than the high
217269 1 comparing the cylinder diameters of a two-stage pressure cylinders B 2
smaller than the high smaller than the low pressure cylinder but
reciprocating air compressor? will be of equal size.
pressure cylinder. pressure cylinder. the piston stroke will
be greater.
Which of the listed operating conditions would have The density of the air The temperature of The designed
A leaking head
217272 1 the greatest effect on the volumetric efficiency of an entering the the air entering the rotating speed of the D 2
gasket.
operating reciprocating air compressor? compressor. compressor compressor.

air indicated actual amount of air

adiabatic work of work of isothermal
horsepower from discharged by the
The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compression to the compression to the
217272 2 indicator cards to the compressor, to the D 2
compressor, is the ratio of the __________. indicated brake horsepower of
brake horsepower theoretical volume
horsepower the motor
top of the piston and piston and head, input of the piston
bottom swept
top by the
of the piston and
The clearance volume for a single stage compressor
bottom side of head, including the space and bottom side of bottom side of the
217275 1 is defined as the space created between the B 2
with the piston at around the piston to the head at TDC, head at TDC as
__________.
BDC the top of the upper regardless of upper compared to that
If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to
the combustion control system and other pneumatic forced draft air ships service air
217276 1 control air system supply air system A 2
controllers, the entire system is known as the system system
__________.
If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air
combustion control ship's service air low pressure deck
217276 2 to outlets throughout the engine room and on deck of supply air system C 2
air system system air system
a vessel, the system is known as the __________.
Intercooler, L.P. Air cleaner, L.P.

Which of the following statements represents the path L.P. cylinder, air Air cleaner, L.P.
cylinder, H.P. cylinder, H.P.
217277 1 of air flow passing through a typical two stage, low cleaner, intercooler, cylinder, intercooler, D 2
cylinder, and air cylinder, and
pressure, reciprocating, air compressor? and H.P. cylinder and H.P. cylinder
cleaner intercooler
If the drive belts on an air compressor were spraying oil on the

217280 1 tightening the belts loosening the belts installing wider belts B 2
squealing, you should fix them by __________. belts
check for a receiver

check for a defective
If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing check the operation outlet valve which
217280 2 check the air filter high pressure cut-out A 2
during startup, you should __________. of the unloaders may be partially
switch
closed
If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be replace all of the

217281 1 replace that belt only dress the worn belt adjust belt tension B 2
worn you should __________. belts
The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor allow for crank web allow for longitudinal prevent longitudinal reduce torsional
217282 1 B 2
are tapered roller bearings. When mounted, these deflection expansion of the thrust in the vibration in the
If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air
The drive belts will The unloaders will The compressor will The intercooler will
217283 1 compressor are loose, which of the conditions below C 2
squeal jam shut vibrate leak
will occur?
After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon

217284 1 deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge ammonia diesel oil gasoline naphtha B 2
valves is to use __________.

Belts generally
Excessively tight
Which of the following statements is true concerning stretch slightly during Belts are generally
217285 2 belts will overload All of the above. D 2
V-belt drives for reciprocating air compressors? the first few months replaced as a set.
the bearings.
of use.
Why should a person who is performing maintenance To prevent the To protect the To protect the Each of the above is
217286 1 D 2
on an air compressor, wire and tag the system valves unexpected. equipment. operator performing correct.
A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face retard the opening have no effect on
prevent the valve provide quieter valve
217300 1 and seat of a low pressure reciprocating air and closing of the compressor B 2
from wire drawing operation
compressor will __________. valve operation
A squealing sound occurring from within an operating
tight compressor badly leaking
217301 2 reciprocating air compressor is an indication of compressor overload motor overload C 2
bearings unloaders
__________.
A squealing sound generated by a reciprocating air compressor abnormally tight
217301 3 badly leaking valves defective unloader B 2
compressor upon starting may indicate __________. interstage leakage drive belts
Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an carbon deposits on excessive wear on excessive
217303 1 a clogged air intake B 2
air filter will cause __________. valves and pistons valves and cylinder compressor
Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an immediate piston immediate clogging possible explosion in deposit of carbon on
217303 2 C 2
air intake filter can result in a/an __________. damage of the intake the compressor the valves
If the electric motor driving an air compressor fails to tripped circuit

217304 1 leaking unloader control line leak defective pop valve B 2
start, the cause may be a __________. breaker
If an electric motor driven air compressor fails to start, leaking discharge jammed suction tripped overload broken discharge
217304 2 C 2
it may be due to a __________. valve valve relay unloader
Excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocating air leakage in the after leakage in the worn or broken defects in the high
217305 1 C 2
compressor is an indication of __________. cooler intercooler piston rings pressure unloader
Excessive lube oil consumption by a reciprocating air increasing the using oil having an intercooler or after carrying the oil level
217305 2 D 2
compressor can be caused by __________. operating pressure excessive viscosity cooler leaks higher than normal
damage to the an increase in an excessive
A dirty intercooler on an air compressor will cause high pressure in the
217307 1 unloader operating current flow to the consumption of B 2
__________. receiver
diaphragm motor crankcase oil
A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor decreased higher than normal water in the
217307 2 unloader malfunction B 2
will result in __________. compression ratio power consumption lubricating oil
Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of

reduce the discharge
an air compressor are caused by oil deterioration increase the use a high viscosity increase the oil
217308 1 temperatures with A 2
under high pressure. The first step in reducing these compression ratio oil volatility
intercoolers
deposits would be to __________.

A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air damaged intake excessively tight insufficient cylinder
217309 1 a loose piston D 2
compressor is probably caused by __________. valves mounting bolts lubrication
a defective or broken
A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating
217310 1 high pressure a loose valve plate excessive overload no compression B 2
air compressor indicates __________.
unloader
If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock insufficient cylinder

217311 2 worn main bearings defective drive belts all of the above A 2
occurring in frequency with its operating RPM, the lubrication
Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may a misaligned over tightened drive contaminated sump
result from __________. crankshaft belts oil
If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor leaking compressor
217313 1 a clogged air filter worn cylinder liners all of the above D 2
gradually drops off, the cause could be __________. valves
A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air overheating of the loss of moisture in frequent lifting of the an abnormally low
217314 1 D 2
compressor is unable to completely retract. This will discharge valve the air charge in the intercooler relief intercooler pressure
compressor would air receiver pressure

If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the circuit breaker may compressor would
217315 1 dangerously over would be excessively C 2
__________. open on starting pump lube oil
speed low
Which of the following is the probable cause for a Defective pressure Leaking suction Compressor starting Compressor starting
217315 2 C 2
motor driven, low pressure, reciprocating air switch unloader against full load without any load
Which of the following is the probable cause for a
motor driven, low pressure, reciprocating air Defective pressure Leaking suction Failure of the Compressor starting
217315 3 C 2
compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon switch valve unloader system without load
starting?
Excessively low air pressure occurring in the leaky discharge leaky discharge insufficient low ambient air
217316 1 A 2
intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is valves on the LP valves on the HP intercooler cooling pressure
Which of the following problems could cause air to Excessive An improperly
A broken intake A dirty inlet filter
217317 1 blow out through the inlet air filter of a running compression in the adjusted discharge B 2
valve element
compressor? cylinder valve
Air blowing from the intake air filter of an operating air broken discharge pulsations in the air overloading of the air
217317 2 broken inlet valves A 2
compressor indicates __________. valves distribution system distribution system
running with an air excessive operating
One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air filter element hours without the compressor excessive discharge
217319 1 B 2
compressor may be attributed to __________. different from that carrying out running too fast pressure
required by the preventive
excessive operating the
Leaking valves in a low pressure, reciprocating, air uneven piston stroke abrasion by dust and
217319 2 compressor compressor at D 2
compressor can result from __________. in the compressor dirt
discharge pressure excessive speed
Leaking valves in an air compressor can be a result excessive discharge abrasion, dust, and excessive irregular
217319 3 B 2
of __________. pressure dirt compressor speed compression strokes

A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two second stage first stage discharge pressure in the after compressor final
217321 1 B 2
stage, high pressure, air compressor can cause discharge pressure pressure cooler discharge
leakage through the
If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air leaking high
a defective pressure a leak in the low pressure
217322 1 compressor is operating under load, you should pressure discharge D 2
switch or pilot valve intercooler piping unloader control
check for __________. valves
diaphragm
Compressor
Which of the following problems would be the
Carbon build up in Faulty operation of a operation in an area Lifting of intercooler
217323 1 probable cause for the faulty operation of a B 2
the piston ring belt. cylinder unloader. of high relative relief valve.
reciprocating air compressor suction valve?
humidity.
A reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and compressor is foundation bolts are
217324 1 motor is overloaded belts are too tight C 2
vibrating excessively, indicating that the __________. overloaded loose
If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a

broken compressor worn piston rings or excessive a defective pressure
217326 1 reciprocating air compressor, you should check for A 2
valves cylinder liners compressor speed switch
__________.
air receiver pressure

If a ship service air compressor failed to unload the compressor would belts could slip when compressor would
217327 1 would be excessively C 2
__________. run continuously starting pump lube oil
low
Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor high air receiver
217327 2 low lube oil viscosity fouled intercoolers a failed unloader C 2
is a probable symptom of __________. pressure
compressor would
If a ship service air compressor operating in compressor would air receiver indicated
compressor would require more than
217329 1 intermittent service were failing to unload, the stop abruptly when pressure would be A 2
run continuously the normal amount
__________. power was secured excessively low
of lubrication
Which of the following problems can result in below Leaking intake Leaking discharge
Defective pressure Defective receiver
217332 1 normal pressure in the intercooler of an operating low valves on the high valves on the low D 2
pilot valve relief valve
pressure air compressor? pressure cylinder pressure cylinder
no immediate loss of
Broken valve strips in an operating low pressure air an immediate oil contamination in a decrease in
217334 1 the compressed air C 2
compressor will cause __________. crankcase explosion the compressed air compressor capacity
capacity

flywheel excessive moisture

Cylinder inlet valve failure in a low pressure air mechanical failure in insufficient rocker
217335 3 misalignment with buildup in the B 2
compressor can be caused by __________. the unloader arm clearance
the driving motor receiver
constant
In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of adiabatic
heating of the air inaccurate valve enlargement of the
217336 1 volumetric efficiency normally results from compression in the B 2
leaving the cylinders timing clearance expansion
__________. intercooler
volume
trip the breaker when result in a constant
The compressor in figure 4, if permitted to operate as lose its volumetric damage the bearings being restarted for enlargement of the
217337 1 GS-0159 B 2
illustrated will __________. efficiency of the motor the first time after clearance expansion
replacing the belts volume
result in a constant
cause the
The compressor in figure 4, if permitted to operate as damage the bearings damage the bearings enlargement of the
217337 3 compressor to use GS-0159 B 2
illustrated will __________. of the compressor of the driving motor clearance expansion
more oil
volume
an increase in the a decrease in the
premature damage premature damage
Operating the compressor and motor as shown in axial thrust on the axial thrust on the
217337 4 to the bearings of the to the bearings of the GS-0159 A 2
figure 4 of the illustration, will result in _________. compressor compressor
driving motor compressor
crankshaft crankshaft
severely damaging a decrease in the a decrease in the a decrease in the
Operating the compressor and motor as shown in
217338 1 the V-grooves of the axial load on the axial load on the normal life of the GS-0159 D 2
figure 5 of the illustration, will result in ________.
pulley crankshaft motor shaft drive belts
A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust
and grease on the surfaces of an intercooler would
217338 2 result in __________. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A 2
I. a
A high consumption
compressor of with
operating lube an
oil accumulation of dust
and grease on the surfaces of an intercooler would
217338 5 result in __________. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C 2
I. the motor to run warmer than usual II. the second

Which of the pressure vessels listed is required under Air receivers with no Bulk storage tanks
Tubular heat Hydraulic
217350 1 Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be manholes or other for refrigerated C 2
exchangers accumulators
hydrostatically tested once every three year period? inspection openings liquefied CO2
hydrostatically tested
pneumatically tested
According to Coast Guard Regulations, if a pressure hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal pneumatically tested
at a pressure equal
vessel, such as a ships service air tank, has defects at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the at a pressure equal
217351 1 to 1 1/2 times the B 2
which may impair its safety, the tank shall be to the design maximum allowable to the working
design pressure of
__________. pressure of the tank working pressure of pressure of the tank
the tank
the tank

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require safety

and relief valves for air service to be provided with a 50% of that at which 75% of that at which 110% of that at 125% of that at
217352 1 substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disk the valve is set to the valve is set to which the valve is which the valve is B 2
from its seat when the pressure in the vessel is blow blow set to blow set to blow
__________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) prohibit air a space within three a space in which an enclosed space
compressors from being located in __________. meters of a cargo cargo hose is stowed containing cargo
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a inspected and tested completed and then made only with the
made with a backing
welded repair to be made to a ships service air by the chief engineer tested at least twice prior approval of the
217354 1 strip to ensure full D 2
receiver, other than an emergency repair at sea, must before it may be prior to notifying the local Officer in
penetration
be __________. returned to service Coast Guard to ask Charge, Marine
The difference between the setpoint and the

217371 1 measured parameter in an automatic flow controller is gain bias error feedback C 2
called:
The range of values around a setpoint of a measured

217372 1 variable where "no action" occurs in an automatic deviation error dead band bias C 2
flow controller is called:
In an automatic flow controller, the factor by which the
magnitude of the flow error signal has been increased
217373 1 bias gain feedback offset B 2
to drive the final valve controller is referred to as
_________.
In a proportional controller, the term "offset" refers to control point and set control point and dead band and set dead band and
217374 1 A 2
the difference between the________________. point proportional band point proportional band
The return signal from a valve as sensed by an
217375 1 automatic flow controller that is proportional to the gain bias feedback error C 2
actual valve position is referred to as:
The difference between the set point in an automatic
217376 1 controller and the steady- state value of the offset gain dead band feedback A 2
measured parameter is called ___________.
The purpose of the vertical 'grooves' machined on the
compensate for
main valve "G", in the spring loaded temperature provide downstream provide for quieter
217420 1 upstream pressure increase sensitivity GS-0045 B 2
regulating valve shown in the illustration, is to turbulence valve operation
surges
__________.
With regards to process control, the operation of the
proportional control proportional plus
217421 1 device shown in the illustration can be characterized reset control only on-off control only GS-0045 B 2
only reset control
by the term __________.
temperature control temperature control steam flow to the
The illustrated control valve would be more suitable steam flow control to
217422 1 of a fluid being of a fluid being turbine driving a GS-0043 B 2
for __________. the air ejectors
heated cooled pump
The valve shown in the illustration is typically used for Change out parts "B" Remove parts "D" Exchange part "L" Exchange part "G"
217422 2 GS-0043 C 2
temperature control of a liquid being heated. Which of and 'J'. and 'I'. for one that is for a heavier force.
act as an
lift the valve disk as lower the valve disk balance the steam
With regards to the device shown in the illustration, accumulator for the
the controlled as the controlled supply pressure and
217423 1 the parts labeled "D" and "I" function together to steam if a sudden GS-0043 D 2
temperature temperature cancel its affect on
__________. increase in steam
increases decreases the valve disk
supply is required

An automatic temperature controller, with a net output

217425 1 pressure of 15 psi and a full scale range of 15°F, 1.0 psi/°F 3.9 psi/°F 10.0 psi/°F 12.25 psi/°F A 2
would have a sensitivity ratio of __________.
With regards to the steam regulating valve shown in

the illustration, the maximum amount of steam the adjusting screw maximum pressure position of the maximum
217426 2 GS-0045 A 2
pressure at the valve outlet is primarily determined by "L" in element "M" diaphragm "A" temperature of "M"
the __________.
In order for the reducing valve, shown in the the underside of the underside of
the inlet side and the the top of piston "H"
217530 1 illustration, to properly function, a control port is diaphragm "E" and diaphragm "E" and GS-0044 A 2
outlet side and the outlet
utilized between __________. the outlet the inlet
adjusting spring is
With regards to the diaphragm controlled, internally outlet pressure outlet pressure
diaphragm ruptures, compressed further,
217532 1 piloted, steam pressure reducing valve illustrated, as drops, the valve drops, the valve GS-0054 A 2
the valve will close outlet pressure will
the __________. stem will move down stem will move up
decrease
If you turn the adjusting screw clockwise of a spring- compress the release spring increase steam decrease spring
217533 1 A 2
loaded, internal pilot, pressure reducing valve, you adjusting spring tension from the pressure to the tension in the main
compress the
If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring- release spring increase steam decrease spring
adjusting spring
217533 2 loaded, internal pilot, reducing valve, you will tension from the pressure to the tension in the main GS-0044 A 2
against the
__________. diaphragm reducing valve valve
diaphragm
Regarding the reducing valve shown in the reduced pressure
steam pressure on
illustration, the spring force generated as a result of small spring beneath signal from an acting on the
217534 2 the inlet side of the GS-0054 D 2
compression from turning the hand wheel, is the controlling valve external pilot valve underside of the
valve
balanced by the __________. diaphragm
The cut out valve at Reducing valves
Reducing station Reducing valves are
Which of the following statements concerning the the outlet of the should be warmed-
relief valves must be absolutely reliable
217535 1 operation of steam pressure reducing valves is reducing valve up and drained C 2
lifted by hand at and require no
correct? should be throttled before they are
least once a watch. routine maintenance.
when in operation. adjusted.
In the spring-loaded, steam pressure, reducing valve

spring "A" will be diaphragm "E" will
217536 1 shown in the illustration, if the downstream pressure valve "D" will open all of the above GS-0044 D 2
compressed deflect downward
falls below a preset value __________.
In the spring-loaded, steam pressure, reducing valve acts to close the acts to open the acts directly on the bleeds pressure off
217538 1 GS-0044 A 2
shown in the illustration, the high pressure steam main valve "K" auxiliary valve "D" lower part of the the controlling

provide sensing of provide a supply

equalize pressure equalize pressure
In the illustrated steam pressure reducing valve, the downstream conduit of actuating
217539 1 above and below the above and below the GS-0044 D 2
purpose of the item labeled "C" is to __________. pressure to the steam for the power
power piston pilot valve
control diaphragm piston
control action to be
control action to be complete closing of
accomplished by a free movement of
In the illustration shown, the operating piston "H" in accomplished with a the main valve when
relatively small the auxiliary valve
217540 1 the valve has a larger surface area than the main relatively small pressure GS-0044 A 2
amount of "B" during a change
valve disc to allow __________. amount of high adjustments are
downstream low in operating pressure
pressure steam made
pressure steam
bleed off allow downstream
The valve shown in the illustration uses port "J" to open the auxiliary downstream pressure to be
217541 1 open the main valve GS-0044 D 2
__________. valve pressure beneath sensed by
the operating piston diaphragm "E"
downward force of adjusting screw "G" amount of high equalizing pressures
The position of the controlling diaphragm "E", shown the adjusting spring force exerted on the pressure steam exerted on auxiliary
217541 2 in the illustration of the spring-loaded reducing valve, "F" and the upward adjusting spring "F" admitted beneath the valve "D" by high GS-0044 A 2
is determined by the __________. force of the reduced and the auxiliary diaphragm "E" by the pressure steam and
steam pressure valve "D" only auxiliary valve "D" reduced pressure
In the spring-loaded pressure reducing valve
217542 1 illustrated, the auxiliary valve "D" is closed by diaphragm "E" mechanical linkage a spring high pressure steam GS-0044 C 2
__________.
In the spring-loaded pressure reducing valve A decrease in the

A decrease in the Raising adjusting
217542 2 illustrated, what would cause the auxiliary valve "D" valve outlet All of the above. GS-0044 C 2
valve inlet pressure. screw "G".
to close? pressure.
refrigeration system pressure reducing high pressure diesel

217543 1 The device illustrated is used as a __________. quick closing valve GS-0054 C 2
packless valve valve engine air start valve
Every automated machinery plant must have an

general alarm power
217551 1 'engineer's assistance' alarm. Power for this alarm main bus emergency bus standby generator D 2
supply
should be taken from the __________.
Which of the listed systems related to an engineer's Port or starboard No. 1 diesel
Deaerating tank low Shaft alley bilge high
217552 1 signal alarm panel is required to be indicated by a steering gear motor generator low lube C 2
level level
continuously illuminated light while in operation? running oil pressure
Provisions are made
Which of the following statements is true concerning All alarm circuits
Nonvital alarms are through simulation or
the instrumentation or alarms provided at the main should be in
217553 1 separated from vital actual condition for All of the above. D 2
control station for an automated main propulsion operation when the
alarms. testing all audible
plant? system is on the line.
Manual valve control and
Valvevisual alarms
position will no The position of the The valve can only
Why must an operator pay particular attention to an
is not as stable as longer change in valve can only be be operated locally
217554 1 auto/manual valve controller when it is placed in B 2
automatic valve response to changes determined locally during manual
manual mode?
control. in system during manual control.

proportional action fuel oil heater

As shown in the illustration, the pneumatic force water level alarm feed water regulating
217560 1 steam pressure temperature GS-0145 A 2
balance unit could be used for a __________. actuator value positioner
transmitter regulator
Main engine room control console alarms are usually
cause a backup
designed to be of the self monitoring type, meaning cause an alarm secure power to the automatically reclose
217561 1 power supply to A 2
that an open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will condition indicator within 10 seconds
energize
__________. An alarm condition An alarm condition An alarm condition An alarm condition
causes a light and causes a flashing gives an audible and causes a flashing
Which of the following statements describes the
siren to come on light to illuminate visual alarm signal, light to come on,
217562 1 function of an alarm annunciator on an engine room B 2
which remain on until indicating the both of which are followed by an
alarm panel?
the machinery is malfunction, followed secured when the audible alarm. When
secured. by an audible alarm. alarm acknowledge the alarm
If the signal input to 'P4' is 48psi, and the supply

217563 1 pressure is 50 psi, the output pressure at 'P1', as 0 psi 10 psi 25 psi 50 psi GS-0145 A 1
shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________.
If the input signal at 'P4' is 51 psi, and the supply

217563 2 pressure is 50 psi, then the output pressure at 'P1', 0 psi 25 psi 40 psi 50 psi GS-0145 D 1
shown in the illustration will be __________.
The outlet steam pressure operating range of the

217590 1 regulator shown in the illustration is manually L B D G GS-0045 A 1
adjusted by the part labeled '________.'
A two-position single-point action controller has been

constant load intermittent load wide temperature
217592 1 adjusted to minimize cycling and would only be rate action only A 1
conditions conditions fluctuations
suitable for __________.
With regards to pilot controlled pneumatic regulating maintain the value of maintain the output the operating range
maintain the required
217593 1 valves, the spring force of the regulating valve should the manipulated steam pressure of of the pilot output GS-0051 D 1
system set point
be adjusted to __________. variable the system loading pressure
The two most common gases used in pneumatic compressed air and oxygen and oxygen and
217594 1 helium and nitrogen A 1
systems are __________. nitrogen hydrogen acetylene
variable output
Referring to the device shown in the illustration, the a constant control air pressure line to a a feedback signal a atmospheric vent
217596 2 GS-0050 B 1
port labeled "F" would be connected to __________. supply pressure regulating valve pressure line
diaphragm

the offsetting of the

Referring to the device shown in the illustration, if a the offsetting of the the sensing or the exchange of the
power head or
reversed output were desired from a comparable unit power head, or feedback connection pilot valve with one
217597 1 motor, and the use of GS-0050 A 1
as the system pressure increased, the necessary motor, and the use of made from below the that would be
a reversing
physical changes to the unit would be __________. a reversing lever power head or motor downward seating
diaphragm
The device shown in the illustration is typically
designed to operate in conjunction with a relatively constant flow rates as a constant pump-head
217598 1 steam flow rates GS-0052 A 1
pneumatically controlled valve in order to maintain liquid tank levels square root extractor pressures
__________. to maintain a level in to maintain a tank as a square root to maintain a
Referring to the device shown in the illustration, the a tank vented to the level where there extractor when constant flow
217598 2 coiled sensing lines "A" and "B", are used atmosphere, exists a variable variable ratios are differential across a GS-0052 B 1
simultaneously when the pilot is used __________. pressurized, or vapor pressure present in the turbine- driven,
operating under a atmosphere processing system centrifugal pump
The response line installed in a pneumatic monitor the accuracy provide a feedback regulate the air readjust the total
217601 1 B 1
proportional action controller functions to of the measuring signal for accurate supply in the line to spring force in the air
If the controlled system temperature downstream of
Stem "C" moves Power piston "H" Spring "F" is
217610 1 the valve shown in the illustration, decreases below
down. moves up. compressed.
Valve "D" closes. GS-0045 C 1
the set point, which of the listed actions will occur?
In order to adjust the temperature set point of the
217611 1 A B M L GS-0045 B 1
temperature regulating valve illustrated, you should
In order to adjust the temperature set point of the
217611 2 temperature regulating valve illustrated, you should A B M L GS-0045 B 1
adjust the device indicated by the letter __________.
The dual pressure-temperature regulator, shown in a higher outlet a lower outlet a higher outlet
the illustration, is adjusted by turning the stem "L" pressure, with a pressure, with a pressure with a
217612 1 no change GS-0045 A 1
clockwise (as viewed from the top) and the adjusting higher controlled corresponding lower fluid outlet
ring "B" counterclockwise (as viewed from the top). fluid outlet decrease in the temperature
In order to increase the set point of the control valve "K" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "K" must be rotated
217614 1 GS-0043 B 1
as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature clockwise counterclockwise clockwise counterclockwise
In order to increase the set point of the control valve

as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature "K" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "K" must be rotated
217614 4
of a refrigeration condenser, the part labeled clockwise counterclockwise clockwise counterclockwise
GS-0043 C 1
__________.
In order to decrease the set point of the control valve

"K" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "K" must be rotated
217614 5 as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature GS-0043 B 1
clockwise counterclockwise clockwise counterclockwise
of a lube oil cooler, the part labeled __________.
In order to decrease the set point of the control valve
as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature "K" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "K" must be rotated
217614 6 GS-0043 B 2
of a refrigeration condenser, the part labeled clockwise counterclockwise clockwise counterclockwise
__________.
In order to increase the set point of the control valve "K" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "A" must be rotated "K" must be rotated
217614 7 B 2
illustrated to regulate the controlled temperature at clockwise counterclockwise clockwise counterclockwise
In order to change the set point of the system using rotate part "I" change the rotate part "E" until rotate part "D" in the
217615 1 GS-0050 D 2
the illustrated device, you must __________. counterclockwise compression of the the operating direction necessary

With regards to a direct acting air pilot relay shown in supply air pressure pilot valve stem to operating air operating air
217616 2 GS-0050 C 2
the illustration, an increase in pressure at "B" will at "G" to increase move upward pressure at "F" to pressure at "F" to
Replacing the spring
Increasing the
Which of the following adjustments will cause the with one that has a Screwing up on Reducing the spring
217617 2 compression on GS-0051 D 2
illustrated valve, to close at a lower loading pressure? higher compression sleeve No. 12 tension of item No. 6
spring No. 6
value
Double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating high pressure enters they employ a the feedback control the special
217618 1 A 2
valves exhibit good balancing characteristics between the seats specially fabricated signals balance the diaphragm motor
The power necessary to close the diaphragm control
valve positioning controlled fluid operating or loading valve diaphragm
217619 2 valve, as used in a pneumatic control system, is GS-0051 C 2
plunger pressure pressure tension
supplied by the __________.
In a spring opposed, diaphragm-type, pneumatic area of the internal number of spring area of the tension rating of the
217620 1 GS-0051 C 2
power unit shown in the illustration, the force exerted plate coils diaphragm spring
Which illustrated device would be best suited for
217621 2 Figure A Figure D Figure E All of the above GS-0126 D 2
measuring the flow rate of wet gases using a primary,
Maximum and Maximum and
When replacing a steam pressure reducing valve, Reduced pressure or
217630 1 minimum inlet minimum continuous All of the above D 2
what information is required for the selection? pressure range
pressures flow rates (lbs./hr.)
are subjected to a continuously throttle
Automatic pressure control valves for steam service receive high
are subjected to highwide range of steam which results
217631 1 require periodic maintenance inspections because pressure air from the C 2
compressive stress temperatures and in wire drawing and
they __________. pilot valve
pressures erosion of the valve
increase the reduce the accelerate
Any restriction in the instrument air piping of a delay transmission of
217650 1 transmitted air signal transmitted air signal transmission of the A 2
pneumatic control system will __________. the air signal
intensity value air signal
Restrictions occurring in the small orifices of moisture in the excessive dryness in
pressure surging in insufficient
217651 1 pneumatic control system components can be compressed air the compressed air
the compressed air lubrication of the A 2
caused by __________. supply supply receiver system components
The valve will open The valve will close
The valve will open The valve will close
If a leak occurs between the areas labeled "B" and with a decrease in with a decrease in
with an increase in with an increase in
217670 1 "J" of the control valve shown in the illustration, which temperature below temperature below
temperature above temperature above GS-0043 C 2
of the following problems is most likely to occur? the set point of the the set point of the
the set point of the the set point of the
liquid being heated. liquid being cooled.
liquid being heated. liquid being cooled.
reduced steam
Failure of the steam pressure reducing valve to frictional losses low pressure in the high pressure steam
pressure acting on
217671 1 deliver proper steam pressure could be caused by downstream of the steam supply to the acting upon the GS-0044 B 2
the underside of the
__________. valve valve auxiliary valve
valve diaphragm
If port "C" became If port "J" became
If auxiliary valve "D"
obstructed or obstructed or developed a
According to the illustration shown, which of the
217671 2 plugged, the outlet plugged, the outlet
considerable leak, all of the above GS-0044 D 2
following statements is/are true?
pressure would tend pressure would tend
the outlet pressure
to decrease. to increase. would tend to
If auxiliary valve "D"
If port "C" became If port "J" became
developed a
obstructed or obstructed or
According to the illustration shown, which of the considerable leak,
217671 3 plugged, the outlet plugged, the outlet all of the above GS-0044 A 2
following statements is/are true? the outlet pressure
pressure would tend pressure would tend
would tend to
to decrease. to decrease.
decrease.

The opening of the

If the high pressure port became plugged in the The main valve Spring "F" would
auxiliary valve "D" Main valve "B" would
spring-loaded, internal pilot, self-operated, steam would open wide and open valve "D"
217672 1 would have no effect be opened by spring GS-0044 B 2
pressure reducing valve illustrated, which of the deliver high pressure causing spring "A" to
on the positioning of 'A.'
following problems would probably occur? steam. compress.
the piston 'H.'
The auxiliary valve The main valve "B" Downstream

Which of the problems listed will occur if diaphragm
will open wider due will open wider pressure will be
217673 1 "E", in the illustration shown, develops a significantly All of the above. GS-0044 D 2
to the action of compressing the greater than the
large hole?
spring 'F'. main valve spring 'A'. desired setting.
maintenance of fuel maintenance of fuel

maintenance of
maintenance of delivery temperature delivery pressure to
Automatic thermostatic control valves are used in steam temperature
double bottom heavy to boiler or diesel boiler or diesel
217674 1 steam-heated heavy fuel oil service systems for what supplying steam B 2
fuel oil storage tank engine supply engine fuel oil supply
purpose? tracing lines for
temperature header as header as
heavy fuel oil
appropriate appropriate
As a watchstander you should know that some
auxiliaries are not designed to handle steam at boiler A steam pressure A constant quantity
217675 1 An orifice A nozzle valve B 2
pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted reducing valve regulating valve
in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct
Over tightening of the valve stem packing to a
reduced controlled overheating of the
217690 1 pneumatically controlled final control element, shown valve stem breakage erratic operation GS-0051 B 2
offset diaphragm
in the illustration, will cause __________.
The probable cause of erratic operation of a an incorrect loading
the range spring has a defective air pilot insufficient steam
217692 2 pneumatically controlled steam pressure reducing pressure supplied to C 2
become weakened valve supply pressure
valve is __________. the power unit
continued control
With regards to fluid flow control, an advantage of practically no limit to
no transmission through temporary
217700 1 pneumatic control systems over electrical control the power available low energy input D 2
losses electrical power
systems is __________. for a given system
losses
evaluate only the monitor off limit
secure the machine
Information from a data-logger can be helpful in latest logged data as evaluate a series of conditions only when
under relatively
217701 1 determining the long term probability of machinery this is the best readings to obtain announced by an B 2
steady state
failure if you __________. indication of plant operating trends audible and visual
conditions
status
The manipulated signal In order for a system
The controlled
variables are to fall under the
Another term variable must always
adjusted only from category of closed
In an automated control system, which of the commonly used in deviate from its set
the input demand loop control, there
217710 1 following statements would apply to any type of conjunction with this point before any C 2
signals without should be no
closed loop system? type of system is corrective action is
monitoring the outlet adjustments required
'feed forward'. initiated by the
conditions or to be made manually
controller.
variables. by the operator.

The device shown in the illustration is an example of

217711 1 Proportional control Integral control Derivative control On-off control GS-0146 A 2
which of the listed modes of control?
In a pneumatic automation system, a unit producing a

217711 2 reset action proportional action two position action rate action B 2
signal to govern the position of the controller of the
The control mode where the position of the final
217711 3 two position control proportion control reset control rate control B 2
control element has a linear relationship with the
A controller with floating action has a controlled
217712 1 neutral zone set point control point offset A 2
variable where the range of values produces no
The range of values through which the input can be

217712 2 varied without initiating an output response is known deviation offset sensitivity dead band D 2
as __________.
desired
When a controller is provided with reset rate desired value of the floating rate of the value representing
prepositioned value
217712 3 adjustment, a change in this adjustment results in a proportionally proportional-speed the readjusted B 2
of the controlled
change of the __________. controlled variable floating component controlled variable
medium
Which of the following control actions, when
combined with proportional- position action, will
217712 4 eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for Neutral band Floating action Reciprocal action Rate action B 2
each load change to produce an automatic reset
action?
Reset control is considered to be the same as

__________.
I. proportional speed floating control II. integral
control
The reset process control mode is also considered to

be the same as __________.
I. proportional speed floating control II. derivative
control
The process control mode shown in the illustration is
217713 1 Proportional control Integral control Derivative control On-off control GS-0147 B 2
an example of which of the listed modes of control?

A mode of control, whereby the speed of motion of

the final control element is linearly proportional to the
217713 2 rate control derivative control two position control integral control D 2
deviation of the controlled variable from set point, is
called __________.
A control action which produces a corrective signal
relative to the length of time the controlled variable
217713 3 integral action proportional action rate action derivative action A 2
has been away from the set point, is known as
__________.
Two position
Which of the listed modes of controls will identify the Proportional-plus- Single speed floating
217714 1 differential gap Derivative control GS-0148 A 2
device shown in the illustration? reset control control
control
repeats the
Increasing the 'reset rate' of a proportional-plus-reset narrows the widens the increase the stability
217714 2 proportional action C 2
controller __________. proportional band proportional band of the controller
more frequently
The action measures The action gives The action combines The action is very
Which of the following statements expresses the the rate of time of control without offset proportional-position unstable for anything
217714 3 B 2
function of proportional- plus-reset action? the final control under all load action and rate but constant load
element. conditions. action. conditions.
In the operation of a proportional-plus- reset
controller,
controller,
the proportional action __________.
controller,
The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in
single speed floating
217715 1 the ship service refrigeration system, is an example two position control proportional control reset control A 2
control
of __________.
The mode of control employed by a typical bilge single speed floating proportional speed
217715 2 two position control reset control A 2
alarm circuit is a __________. control floating control

The control mode in which the final control element is

217715 3 moved from one of two fixed positions to the other is dead band action neutral zone action range on-off action D 2
known as __________.
The cylinder unloading mechanism used on low

217715 4 pressure air compressors is an example of which Two position Derivative Integral Single speed floating A 2
mode of control?
The controller set point of an automatic control
system is 150°F (65.5°C). The valve closes when the
one-position single- two-position single- one-position two-position
217715 6 output temperature reaches 160°F (71.1°C), and D 2
point point differential-gap differential-gap
reopens when the temperature falls below 140°F
(60°C).The type of positioning action in this controller
A mechanical and/or hydraulic action preventing the
217716 1 over- correction of the fuel supply, while producing stability hunting compensation sensitivity C 2
transient speed droop is called __________.
The steady state difference between the control point
and the value of the controlled variable,
217717 1 dead band control point deviation offset D 2
corresponding with the set point, is known as
__________.
The period of time in The periodic change The variable The constant
Which of the following definitions can be used to
which the set point between the set difference between difference between
217717 2 define the term 'offset' as a characteristic of controller D 2
and the control point point and the control the set point and the the set point and the
action?
coincide. point. control point. control point.
'Offset' is an inherent characteristic of which of the

217717 3 Two position Proportional Reset Rate B 2
following types of control modes?
exact correction can

corrective action is the corrective action
One disadvantage of proportional- position action is be made only when the controlled
217717 4 only proportional to is only proportional D 2
that __________. there is no change in variable is stabilized
offset to the deviation
load
The characteristic of 'offset' is inherent with which
mode of control?
I. proportional control
II. reset control
The quantity or condition which is measured and
217718 1 controlled variable manipulated variable set point control point A 2
controlled is known as the __________.

A control action which produces a corrective signal

217719 1 relative to the speed at which the controlled variable reset action integral action derivative action proportional action C 2
is changing is known as __________.
Which of the following control modes is generally not

217719 2 Two position action Proportional action Integral action Derivative action D 2
used by itself?
two position
The control mode that is generally not used by itself
217719 3 reset control integral control derivative control differential gap C 2
is __________.
control
A mode of control, whereby the position of the final

control element is linearly proportional to the rate of
217719 4 reset control integral control two position control derivative control D 2
change of the controlled variable, is called
__________.
The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual

positioning, or automatic indexing, is known as a engine order fuel/air ratio control
217720 1 rheostat valve hand wheel B 2
detent. An example of a detent used aboard ship can telegraph knob
be found in a/an __________.
The amount of change of a controlled variable that is differential gap range of valve proportional band form of the controlled
217722 1 C 2
necessary to cause a specific change in the position adjustment opening adjustment of the medium
217723 1 A pure transducer utilizes __________. integral action rate action proportional action derivative action C 2
the ratio of the

output to the input
the form of the input the form of the input the action must be
A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that must always be
217723 2 and output energies and output energies either integral or A 2
__________. greater than the
must be the same must be different derivative
numerical value of
'one'
Which of the following proportional band values most
217723 3 -10% 2% 100% 500% B 2
closely approaches 'ON-OFF' control?

The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure

amplifier is the __________.
217723 4 I. form of the input and output energy must be the I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A 2
same
II. ratio of the output change to input change must be
a value greater than 1 (one)
and reset action are
opposes the reset
aids the reset action aids the reset action completely
When 'reset' action is added to proportional action, action during
217724 1 during decreasing during increasing independent of one B 2
the proportional action __________. increasing error
error transients error transients another in the
transients
controller operation
the proportional the proportional the proportional the proportional
action opposes the action opposes the action assists the action and the reset
When 'reset' action is added to proportional action
217724 2 reset action during reset action during reset action during action are A 2
__________.
decreasing error increasing error decreasing error completely
transients transients transients independent of one
proportional speed
217724 3 Reset control is also referred to as __________. derivative control rate control proportional control A 2
floating control
217724 4 Reset control is also referred to as __________. derivative control integral control rate control proportional control B 2
The effect of 'reset', when added to a proportional make the controller accelerate the make the corrective repeat the
217724 5 D 2
controller is to __________. correction corrective action so action of the proportional action
In an automation system, increasing or decreasing
217725 1 the loading pressure by a set amount is known as positioning proportioning biasing controlling C 2
__________.
Biasing, in a pneumatic automated combustion
217725 2 control system, refers to a set amount of increase or control pressure loading pressure supply pressure rate relay pressure B 2
decrease in the __________.
The value of the controlled variable, which under any
217726 1 set point control point deviation offset B 2
fixed
Whenset of conditions
a controller withthe automaticposition
proportional controller
action is
used to control a process, a load change will cause
217726 2 the controlled variable to stabilize at some value offset deviation control point load point C 2
other than the set point value. The new point at which
the controlled variable stabilizes is called
The ratio of output response to a specified change in
217727 1 primary feedback deviation sensitivity dead band C 2
the input is known as __________.
The ratio of the The steady state The variation of the The time difference
Which of the following definitions best describes output in response to difference between manipulated variable between the input
217727 2 A 2
sensitivity as a characteristic of controller action? a specified change the control point and produced by the change and the
to the input which the value of the mode of control. output change of the
The vessel's steering gear is a classic example of a
217728 1 system differential proportional band error command input C 2
positioner type automation system. The variable input
When the vessel's steering wheel on the navigation
bridge is turned, the difference existing between the
217728 2 proportional band the error signal the reset signal feedback B 2
position of the wheel and that of the rudder is known
as __________.

In an automation system, the effect of a control action

217730 1 command input set point signal output feedback D 2
sensed by a controller is known as __________.
The type of gage most commonly used to measure resistance-

217790 1 bimetallic type diaphragm type bourdon tube type C 2
pressure is the __________. temperature type
The gage most commonly used aboard ship to diaphragm actuated- resistance-
217790 2 volatile liquid-type Bourdon tube-type C 2
measure high pressures is the __________. type temperature-type
The type of gage most commonly used to measure resistance-
217790 3 bimetallic type diaphragm type bourdon tube type C 2
pressure is the __________. temperature type
A compound gage is typically installed on the suction side of a exhaust manifold of discharge line from chemical feed tank
217791 1 A 2
__________. bilge pump an auxiliary diesel an air compressor of an evaporator
A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of

217792 1 humidity vacuum temperature density B 2
measuring pressure and __________.
temperature and humidity and pressure and pressure and

217792 2 A compound gage is used to measure __________. C 2
pressure temperature vacuum humidity
A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gage is temperature and wet bulb and dry humidity and pressure and
217792 3 D 2
capable of measuring __________. pressure bulb temperatures temperature vacuum
At which of the following locations would a duplex Fuel oil service
217794 1 Fuel oil strainer Fuel oil heater Fuel oil flow meter B 2
pressure gage most likely be located? pump discharge
Which of the gage types listed is shown in the Duplex Bourdon tube Simplex Bourdon Duplex differential Duplex compound
217795 1 GS-0114 B 2
illustration? type tube type pressure type type
The device shown in the illustration is an example of

217796 1 Bourdon tube gauge U-tube manometer bridge gauge hydrometer GS-0115 B 2
a simple __________.
exposed,
A Bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the leather or neoprene spring loaded
uninsulated coil in impulse-type steam
217797 1 effects of the steam entering the pressure element by diaphragm in the bellows in the gage A 2
the line leading to trap in the gage line
a/an __________. gage line line
the gage

Pigtails, or siphons, are used to protect Bourdon tube- changing the

rapidly reducing the creating a bleeding off a portion
217797 2 type gages from the direct exposure to steam by direction of the C 2
steam velocity condensate seal of the steam
__________. steam flow
A Bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted

217797 3 with a siphon loop to prevent damage from the direct pressure shock uneven expansion entering condensate entering steam D 2
effects of __________.
A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted
extreme thermal the admission of differential
217797 4 with a siphon loop to prevent damage from pressure shock A 2
stress condensate expansion rates
__________.
When pressure is applied to a Bourdon tube-type pressure is the pressure is the
force is the greatest force is the greatest
217798 1 pressure gage, it will begin to unbend. The reason for greatest on the arc greatest on the arc GS-0114 C 2
on the arc AB on the arc DC
this action is that the __________. AB DC
applied pressure applied pressure
The Bourdon tube-type pressure gage will begin to total force being the total force being the
being the greatest on being the greatest on
217798 2 straighten out when pressure is applied due to the greatest on the inner greatest on the outer GS-0114 D 2
the outer the inner
__________. circumference circumference
circumference circumference
The working components of a Bourdon tube pressure
curl towards the uncurl from the expand only in a contract along its
217798 4 gage are shown in the illustration. When pressure is GS-0114 B 2
center center linear direction linear axis
applied, the tube element will __________.
In order to accurately measure very low positive
217800 1 Compound gage Bourdon tube Manometer Deadweight gage C 2
pressures, which of the instruments listed should be
Which of the following elements is common to all

217801 1 An electrical input A bourdon tube A reset button A calibrated scale D 2
indicating instruments?
When the pressure applied to a Bourdon tube-type

pressure gage is reduced to atmospheric pressure,
the tube will begin to 'bend' towards the center of arc. homiostatious
217802 1 hysteresis compression gas eddys A 2
Small variations develop preventing the tube from deformation
returning to its exact original shape due to the
process known as __________.
Devices, such as a pressure gage, that are subject to allows a material to permits a resilient allows a resilient is directly related to
217802 2 B 2
continuous expansion and contraction are affected by return to its exact material to return to material to resist a material's elastic
The pressure indicated by the U-tube manometer
217803 1 -2 inches of water +2 inches of water -4 inches of water +4 inches of water GS-0115 D 2
shown in the illustration is equal to __________.
When the pressure on a compound gage is released,
compound
217804 1 the gage pointer is returned to zero psig by action of Bourdon tube spring return arm compensating spring A 2
diaphragm
the __________.

gage pointer will connecting link

When pressure is applied to the Bourdon tube gage sector and pinion will gage tube expands
217805 1 move in a clockwise changes the set GS-0114 A 2
shown in the illustration, the __________. remain stationary and grows longer
direction point of the pointer
Differential pressures can be measured with the use

217806 1 diaphragm type gage pressure transducer manometer all of the above D 2
of a __________.
As shown in the illustration, the gage labeled "C"

contains mercury and both devices "B" and "D"
B = 2.1 psig, D = B = 40.9 psig, D = B = 1.5 psig, D = B = 2.1 psig, D = 42"
217807 1 indicate 'zero' units when exposed to atmospheric GS-0154 C 2
450" H2O, h = 3" 450" H2O, h = 3" 41.59" H2O, h = 3" H2O, h = 6"
pressure. If the pressure indicated on "A" is 16.2 psia,
the corresponding readings of the gages "B", and "D",
The pressure applied to the instruments via port "A", B = 1.3 psig D = 36 B = 16 psig D = 63 B = 17.4 psig D = 42 B = 14.7 psig D = 32
217807 2 GS-0154 A 2
as shown in the illustration, is 16 psia. What will be inches of H2O inches of H2O inches of H2O inches of H2O
If "A" were open to the atmosphere, as shown in the D = 407.6 inches of D = 0.0 inches of D = 14.76 inches of D = 27.73 inches of
217808 1 GS-0154 B 2
illustration, the pressure gage would read zero and water water water water
The differential height of the left hand side of the tube
217809 1 4.32 psia 4.32 psig 29.92 psia 2.16 psig GS-0154 B 2
from the zero mark to the open end for device "C" is
A pressure gage, similar to device "D" shown in the The gage reads The draft gage is The existing draft The mechanical draft
illustration, is installed on the vessel's ventilation slightly lower, but the correct when gage indicates a gage is indicating an
217810 1 system. The gage is indicating 30 inches of water inaccuracy is too acknowledging the pressure equal to error incorrect by 55 GS-0154 D 2
(7.465 kPa), but the accuracy of the gage is in insignificant to be effects of absolute atmospheric percent of the true
doubt.Using a piece of clear hose, you construct a concerned. pressure on the pressure. measured value.
When pressure is released from a Bourdon tube-type

pressure on the arc pressure on the arc indicated spring resiliency of the tube
217811 1 pressure gage, it will begin to recoil. The reason for GS-0114 D 2
AB DC tension material
this action is due to the __________.
piston uncovering a rotating vane

A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid movable float riding movable orifice plate
port whose opening transmitting nutating
217840 1 flow in distilling plants, is essentially an area meter on a rod centered in venturi tube and high A 2
is directly motion to a counter
consisting of a __________. a tapered tube pressure tap
proportional to fluid mechanism
A primary element used with flow measurement
217841 1 devices highly suitable for liquids containing solids in concentric orifice convergent nozzle venturi tube pilot tube C 2
suspension, is a __________.
Which of the following instruments can be used to

217842 1 Thermometer Anemometer Psychrometer Aerometer B 2
measure the rate of air flow?

The data charts are The variable being

The time graduations Strip charts are more
Which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip more easily stored measured is drawn
217870 1 fan out from the difficult to read than C 2
chart graphic recorder? than the circular on rectangular
center. circular charts.
charts. coordinates.
What common practice is used to reduce the Fill the well with Fill the well with Drill small holes in Pack the space
217880 2 D 2
response time for a bearing thermometer using a nitrogen. water. the well. around the bulb with
require a longer time
To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a for the element to
cause consistently cause consistently increase the
thermometer bulb is often protected by a 'well' or reach thermal
217881 1 higher than actual lower than actual sensitivity of the C 2
casing. In addition to protecting the element, the 'well' equilibrium with the
readings readings element
will also __________. system being
measured
A pyrometer is generally used to measure grains of moisture salinity concentration level of a fluid in a
217882 1 stack temperature C 2
__________. per cubic foot of air of condensate tank
A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by light striking a photo heating a junction of squeezing crystals of
217883 1 chemical reaction C 2
__________. sensitive substance two dissimilar metals certain substances
meter current
the driving voltage of the pyrometer total running through the
Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for the reactance of the
the meter batteries resistance can pyrometer will
217884 1 continuity with a multimeter, you should disconnect pyrometer will give a A 2
can damage the damage the permanently
the pyrometer because __________. false meter reading
circuit meter ohmmeter magnetize the
pyrometer's pointer
The adapter for the tachometer shown in the

at any point along its to the impulse
217890 1 illustration is designed for reading shaft RPM as long at one end to the impeller GS-0117 A 2
length transmitter
as the shaft is accessible __________.
assist in
The function of the device illustrated is to measure the speed test for condensate measure brine
217890 2 synchronizing GS-0117 B 2
__________. of a rotating shaft conductivity density
generators
On tank vessels using an automatic tape well for adjust the tape lower the thieving
217910 1 roll up the tape calibrate the tank C 2
gaging tanks, the hand clutch is used to __________. weight rod
On tank vessels using an automatic tape wells, free
removing the side operating the hand comparing with a
217910 2 movement of the tape is normally checked by using litmus paste B 2
plate clutch hand tape
__________.

A pneumercator is used to indicate fuel oil

217912 1 pressure level temperature flow B 2
__________.
217912 2 A pneumercator is useful in measuring __________. relative humidity air pressure liquid levels in tanks fluid pneumercations C 2
air pressure in the

A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate phosphates in boiler micro ohms in
217912 3 diesel engine tank fluid level C 2
__________. water condensate
starting circuit
The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in

217912 4 fluid meter calorimeter viscosimeter pneumercator D 2
a tank is called a __________.
The illustrated device is normally used to control the flow rate control the flow rate regulate the provide a remote
217912 5 GS-0066 D 2
__________. of liquid being of liquid being pressure of the liquid reading of the liquid
a Bourdon tube an electronic sensing

217914 1 A pneumercator tank gage utilizes __________. a balance chamber all of the above B 2
indicator line
equal to the pressure

directly equal to the directly proportional equal to the fluid
The illustrated device operates on the principle that of the square root of
217914 2 height of the liquid in to the pressure pressure supplied at GS-0066 B 2
the height of the column is __________. the height of liquid H,
the tank developed at D B
times .833
equal to the fluid

pressure supplied at proportional to the
directly equal to the
The illustrated device operates on the principle that proportional to the D after a small pressure of the cube
217914 3 height of the liquid in GS-0066 B 2
the height of the liquid in gage "C" is __________. height of the liquid, H portion of the fluid root of the height of
the tank
from the tank forced liquid H, times .491
into column C
A pneumercator measures the liquid level in a tank by
sensing __________.
217914 5 I only II only both I and II neither I nor II A 2
I. head pressure II. liquid density insure that the
purge the balance take the reading with make certain the
To ensure an accurate tank level pneumercator balance chamber is
217914 6 chamber to remove the operating cock in tank vents are A 2
reading, you should __________. completely full of
any liquid the vent position completely closed
liquid

adjusting the
adjusting the pointer adjusting the pointer
effective moment flattening the cross
The zero set point adjustment of a bourdon tube position relative to position by bending
217930 1 arm length between section of the B 2
pressure gage is accomplished by __________. the shaft on which it the free end of the
the bourdon tube bourdon tube
is mounted pointer
and the quadrant
While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage, all

decreasing the
readings are found to be 10 pounds higher increasing the sector resetting the pointer increase the set
217930 2 sector to pivot point B 2
throughout its entire range. An adjustment should be to pivot point length on its shaft screw length
length
made by __________.
adjusting the
effective moment adjusting the pointer
A proportional band, or range adjustment of a flattening the cross-
arm length between position relative to changing out the
217931 1 bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by section of the A 2
the bourdon tube the shaft on which it pointer pinion
__________. bourdon tube
and the quadrant is mounted
gear fulcrum
When a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and pointer does not proportional amount readings are correct
reading is correct
found to be inaccurate, adjustment must be made to travel the correct of pointer travel for only at the minimum
217931 2 only at the working A 2
obtain the correct readings. The distance between distance as test each weight added is and maximum ends
pressure
the pointer
A set spindle andto
point adjustment the
a link connection
bourdon to the
tube pressure weight is added correct, but the total of the scale
gage is accomplished by __________.
I. adjusting
A theband
proportional effective moment
or range arm length
adjustment to abetween
bourdon
tube pressure gage is accomplished by __________.
I.
Theadjusting theresults
following effective moment
were armwhen
obtained length
anbetween
uncalibrated bourdon tube pressure gage was
compared to a test pressure gage. Which
adjustment(s) is/are necessary?
blow out the gage remove the gage
If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an tap the gage body replace the gage or
217936 2 line with compressed bezel and slightly D 2
inaccurate reading, you should __________. with a wrench have it calibrated
air move the needle
A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate pneumercator is pneumercator pressure in the operating cock is
217970 1 B 2
reading if the __________. recharged with the balance chamber system is allowed to placed in the 'vent'
While attempting to read a tank level indicator, the
a leak in the gage free surface effect in an improperly excess air in the
217970 2 mercury column drops rapidly. This may indicate A 2
line the tank calibrated gage balance chamber
__________.
In checking the level of a tank, three pneumercator insufficient charging the tubing between
excessive charging the relief valve is
217970 3 readings have been taken. If each reading is higher air has been the tank and the B 2
air was supplied sticking
than the last, this indicates that __________. supplied gauge has a leak

repeating the sounding the tank a gauge reading of a gauge reading

When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a
process and getting with a tape coated zero when the equal to supply air
217970 4 pneumercator, the initial reading obtained can be A 2
the same reading with a fuel indicating control handle is in pressure when the
quickly verified by __________.
again paste the purge position control
store handle is in
potential
The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system collect any dirt in the collect fluid from any preheat the fluid energy in the form of
218000 1 D 2
is to __________. system small leak during cold weather hydraulic fluid under
pressure
act as theinsingular
the
provide the only
A hydraulic accumulator, used in a hydraulic system store fluid under act as the main fluid source of fluid
218000 2 means of A 2
aboard a MODU, is designed to __________. pressure reservoir replenishment to a
overpressure relief
system
The component used in a hydraulic system to store
218000 3 potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under ram accumulator piping pump B 2
pressure, is the __________.
Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating

218000 4 accumulator actuator ram reservoir A 2
hydraulic system is stored in the __________.
The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a

218001 1 hydraulic accumulator should only be filled with pure water pure oxygen dry nitrogen dry hydrogen C 2
__________.
Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system Pressure
218005 1 Modulator Accumulator Sump actuator C 2
would enable the pump to be temporarily shutdown, compensator valve
provide an area to
provide an area absorb shocks
One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is separate solid act as an oil and
218006 1 where air can occurring in the D 2
to __________. contaminants from water separator
separate from the oil system
the oil
provide an area to absorb sudden
provide an area
One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is separate solid act as an oil and changes in hydraulic
218006 2 where air can D 2
to __________. contaminants from water separator fluid flow occurring in
separate from the oil
the oil the system
Which of the following statements describes the Separate air from the
218020 1 Dissipate heat Trap foreign matter All of the above D 2
functions of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system? oil
store fluid until provide a place for provide a place for

A reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to
218020 2 required by the air to separate out of contaminants to all of the above D 2
__________.
system the fluid settle out

A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard act as a base or

act as a shock maintain the stored eliminate pressure
218024 1 ship, is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is foundation for the C 2
absorber oil under pressure surges in the system
to __________. power unit
be taken directly off be arranged to be arranged to be provided with

In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant
the reservoir bottom develop a maximum develop the three to five 1/2 inch
218024 2 flow system to maintain adequate flow, the pump B 2
without regard to vacuum of theoretically holes in the vertical,
suction should __________.
filters or strainers approximately 10" of maximum attainable suction line to
Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system
prevent moisture prevent vacuum accommodate
218025 1 reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid prevent foaming A 2
accumulation formation thermal expansion
surface level to __________.
provide a "P" or "S" connect the return
end the return line as
end the return line as trap in the return line lines directly to the
Return lines to hydraulic systems reservoirs far as practicable
218025 3 close to the pump as close to the cleanout and A 2
should________. from the pump
suction as possible reservoir as possible inspection plates to
suction
to trap sediment limit the number of
In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to the
218025 4 I only II only Both I and II Neither I and II B 2
reservoir are __________.
In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to the
reservoir are terminated below the normal oil level to
218025 5 I only II only Both I and II Neither I and II A 2
prevent __________.
In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in
the reservoir to __________.
218027 3 I only II only Both I and II Neither I and II C 2
I. insure proper lubrication of the hydraulic pump
II. a
In assist in the
typical removal
hydraulic of solid
system, contaminants
a baffle is installed in
the reservoir to __________.
218027 4 I only II only Both I and II Neither I and II B 2
I. provide a critical reduction in free surface effect of
be increased in have the horizontal
In order for the hydraulic system to operate with be increased in
height with all other have additional submerged section
218027 5 fewer contaminants from the system's operating fluid, length and have the GS-0118 B 2
dimensions baffles installed of the suction line
the illustrated device may __________. width narrowed
remaining the same lengthened
In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the

218028 1 A B C D GS-0118 A 2
high pressure return is provided by __________.
Hydraulic system reservoirs should be maintained at condensation on heat retention of frequency of fluid
recommended normal levels to reduce __________. inside walls working fluid changeover
As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a two to three times ten times the flow
the flow rate through
218028 3 hydraulic system should have a capacity, when at the the normal flow rate rate through the the pump gpm A 2
the system
normal level, approximately equal to __________. through the system system

removing "D" and removing the cap

removing "G" and
The approximate quantity of hydraulic oil available to observing the color measuring the height from "A" and
218028 4 measuring the level GS-0118 B 2
the system can be determined by __________. change of "J" of the remaining measuring the height
in the sump
liquid of the hydraulic oil
removing "D" and
removing "G" and observing the color removing the cap
measuring the height
The approximate quantity of hydraulic oil available to measuring the level change of the from "A" and
218029 1 of the remaining GS-0118 B 2
the system can be determined by __________. in the sump with a column in "J" and its measuring the height
liquid with a float
'dip stick' comparative height of the hydraulic oil
stick
An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic
contamination of the spongy actuator
218030 1 system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility aeration of the oil pump cavitation C 2
oil movements
of __________.
The component which is used to thoroughly separate
218031 1 small, fine, dust- like particulate contamination from accumulator filter separator strainer B 2
hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.
Modern trends show that full flow filters used in multi- between the control
on the reservoir on the relief valve on the reservoir fill
218032 2 operation hydraulic systems would most likely be valves and the A 2
return line discharge line line
located __________. actuators
reduce or stop the cause leaking of the
An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic rupture the pump
218033 1 output action of the flexible line all of the above A 2
system can __________. discharge piping
actuator connections
diverting the flow automatically
Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are diverting the pump
automatically to the bypassing the fluid automatically
218034 1 designed to cope with increasing pressure discharge directly B 2
standby filter of the via an internal valve securing the system
differentials by __________. back to the suction
duplex unit arrangement
protect the pump prevent solid protect the
Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to prevent air from
218035 2 from fine soluble particles from directional control B 2
__________. entering the pump
contaminants entering the pump valves
Which of the following is the most common type of

Elongated ball or Restricted orifice
218042 1 valving element used in hydraulic system directional Nutating disk Sliding spool B 2
cone poppet
control valves?
restrict movement of
regulate the fluid allow free movement allows only a
An orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is hydraulic fluid in one
218043 2 flow in either of hydraulic fluid in restricted fluid flow in B 2
used to __________. direction, but allow
direction both directions one direction
free movement in the
Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a Spring-centered
218044 1 Sequencing valve Two-position valve Three-position valve A 2
hydraulic system directional control valve? valve
Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a Spring-centered

218044 2 Unloading valve Three-position valve Two-position valve B 2

Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a Detented-position Counterbalance

218044 3 Two-position valve Three-position valve D 2
hydraulic system directional control valve? valve valve
A valve installed in a hydraulic system to control the directional control

218044 4 relief valve reservoir valve power valve C 2
reversal of fluid flow is called a __________. valve
A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate directional control

218044 5 relief valve reservoir valve regenerative valve C 2
the reversal of fluid flow, is called a __________. valve
Which of the devices listed would be considered a counterbalance

218044 6 three-position valve sequencing valve unloading valve A 2
Which of the devices listed would be considered a Counterbalance Offset, two position
218044 7 Sequencing valve Unloading valve B 2
Which of the devices listed is considered to be a Counterbalance Detented position

218044 8 Unloading valve Sequencing valve C 2
pump capacity
The dashed line to the illustrated pump is the pump relief valve system replenishing
218045 1 control feedback casing drain GS-0049 C 2
__________. outlet to the sump line
loop
allow an alternate prevent either main prevent both units
main pump to start in pump from being from operating
Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change
the fully loaded hydraulically simultaneously
218049 1 over valves, utilized in a two ram hydraulic steering all of the above B 2
condition thus motored when idle which could result in
gear, serve to __________.
developing by cross pressure doubling the flow of
immediate full torque flow
allow an alternate oil and pressure
prevent main pumps
prevent the idle main
main pump to start in from operating
Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change pump from being
the fully loaded simultaneously
218049 2 over valves, utilized in a two ram hydraulic steering hydraulically all of the above. B 2
condition thus which could result in
gear, serve to ________. motored by cross
developing the over
pressure flow.
immediate full pressurization of the

The fixed delivery

Assuming valve "A" is correctly aligned in the no-flow pump would be Valve "B" would be Valve "D" would
Valve "C" would be
218050 1 position as shown with the system in operation, which stopped open before valve normally open before GS-0049 D 2
closed.
of the following statements is true? automatically by a "D". valve "B".
pressure switch.
Valve "D" indicated in the illustration is referred to as counter balance

218050 2 relief valve sequence valve unloading valve GS-0049 C 2
a/an __________. valve
Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be
used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert counterbalance compound, pressure-
218050 3 unloading valve sequence valve B 2
some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional valve relief valve
flow was required?
Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most main supply line variable flow control two position flow check and choke
218051 1 C 2
suitable for use as __________. throttle valves valves control valves valves
218052 1 Most solenoid valves are actuated by __________. a spring an electromagnet the force of gravity refrigerant pressure B 2
Directional control valves used in hydraulic systems

218052 2 manually mechanically electrically all of the above D 2
may be positioned __________.
three-position spring centered

The device shown in the illustration is known as a/an offset directional
218053 1 pressure reducing directional control throttle valve GS-0032 C 2
__________. control valve
valve valve
drift to an extreme
drift to an extreme return to its centered return to its centered
If the operator releases the handle of the illustrated position and the
position and the position and the position and the
218053 2 device while the system output is in motion, the valve output speed will GS-0032 D 2
output speed will output will increase output speed will
will __________. increase to
drop to zero to maximum drop to zero
maximum
A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the
218054 1 metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit GS-0107 D 2
illustration, and is known as a __________.
The oil pressure will The load on the A pressure Oil pressure to both
Which of the statements is true concerning the equalize at both actuator may cause differential will exist sides of the actuator
218054 2 illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional ends of the actuator a difference in between the two will be equal as the GS-0105 B 2
control valve is centered? and the pump will pressure to exist ends of the actuator, pump discharge flow
discharge through between the rod and with pump discharge is directed across

A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control

linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump
218054 3 metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit B 2
operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a
__________.
A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear
actuator speed during extension, with the pump
218054 4 metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-off circuit bleed-in circuit A 2
operating at system pressure, is known as a
__________.
A hydraulic system flow-control circuit is shown in the
218054 5 metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit GS-0106 B 2
illustration and is known as a __________.
A hydraulic system flow-control circuit is shown in the

218054 6 metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-off circuit bleed-in circuit GS-0105 A 2
illustration and is known as a __________.
A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear
actuator speed, with the pump operating below
218054 7 metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit D 2
maximum operating pressure is known as the
__________.
control the speed of
prevent the hydraulic restrict the oil supply
The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a prevent oil backflow the hatch cover
218057 1 pump from to the hatch covers C 2
hydraulic hatch cover system, is to __________. to the actuators movement while
overheating not in use
closing
A device incorporating a variable orifice placed in allow free movement allow throttled fluid restrict hydraulic fluid
allow fluid flow in
218058 1 series with a check valve in a hydraulic system, is of hydraulic fluid in flow in one direction flow in both C 2
one direction only
used to __________. both directions only directions
allow for changes in
compensate for
Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves maintain the original pressure and assure constant fluid
218059 1 major leaks in the C 2
are used in hydraulic systems to __________. fluid viscosity temperature within temperature
system
the system
three-position, variable-position, infinite-position,
The device shown in the illustration is typically called offset, directional
218063 1 directional control directional control directional control GS-0024 A 2
a/an __________. control valve
valve valve valve
three-position, variable-position, infinite-position, two-position,
The device shown in the illustration is typically called
218063 2 directional control directional control directional control directional control GS-0024 D 2
a/an __________.
valve valve valve valve
be able to be varied
have an infinite usually be shifted have an offset,
A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with through out the
218065 1 number of valve into three specific directional control B 2
'detent' will __________. travel of the valve
positions positions only
spool
three-position, four-position, spring- offset solenoid,
The device shown in the illustrated is known as a/an rotary, directional
218065 2 detented, directional centered, directional directional control GS-0035 A 2
__________. control valve
control valve control valve valve
valve will remain in valve will remain in valve will drift to the valve will drift to the
Regarding the device shown in the illustration, if the
position with the position with the center position opposite position
218065 3 operator releases the handle while the system output GS-0035 A 2
output remaining system output stopping any further changing the
is in motion, the __________.
unchanged steadily decreasing output of the system direction of output

Which of the listed pressure control valves would be

Pressure-reducing Counterbalance
218070 1 used to establish the maximum operating pressure of Unloading valve Pressure-relief valve D 2
valve valve
a hydraulic system?
Which of the listed pressure control valves would be

used to permit the completion of one action of a Pressure-reducing
218071 2 Replenishing valve Unloading valve Sequence valve C 2
hydraulic system before a second action would be valve
permitted?
Which of the listed pressure-control valves is used in

Pressure reducing Counterbalance
218072 1 a hydraulic system to prevent the stray movements of Unloading valve Sequence valve B 2
valve valve
a vertical load until required?
Which component in a hydraulic system is commonly
Pressure reducing Counterbalance
218072 2 used to prevent the stray movements of a vertical Unloading valve Sequence valve B 2
valve valve
load until required?
pump should
If solenoid "A" illustrated is energized, the pump should reverse cylinder should cylinder should
218075 1 discharge directly to GS-0041 B 2
__________. the direction of flow extend retract
the reservoir
pump should
If solenoid "B" illustrated is energized, the pump should reverse cylinder should cylinder should
218075 2 discharge directly to GS-0041 D 2
__________. the direction of flow extend retract
the reservoir
extend with rate of retract with rate of
If solenoid "A" of the valve illustrated is energized, the extend with rate of retract with rate of
218075 3 movement movement GS-0041 C 2
cylinder will __________. movement controlled movement controlled
uncontrolled uncontrolled
extend with rate of retract with rate of
If solenoid "B" of the valve illustrated is energized, the extend with rate of retract with rate of
218075 4 movement movement GS-0041 B 2
cylinder will __________. movement controlled movement controlled
uncontrolled uncontrolled
The device shown in the illustration is commonly
218091 1 quad seal soft-packing seal spring seal mechanical seal GS-0071 D 2
known as a/an __________.
Which of the labeled parts would be considered as
218092 1 the 'dynamic seal ring' portion of the illustrated A B E G GS-0071 C 2
device?
In application, which of the listed sealing devices is

218093 1 V-ring Cup seal U-ring Quad ring D 2
most similar to an O- ring?

In which of the listed hydraulic system components

High pressure pump Low pressure pump Linear actuator
218094 1 could an O-ring seal be satisfactorily used in Relief valve spool D 2
shaft casing shaft casing without nylon insert
providing a seal?
The component of the illustrated compression fitting,

218130 1 figure "C", used to seal and eliminate leaks between I II III IV GS-0100 A 2
the tubing and the fitting is part __________.
The components used to 'lock' the hydraulic tubing in

218131 1 place when assembling the illustrated compression I and III I and II II and III III and IV GS-0100 C 2
fitting "C" are items __________.
different than NPT as different than NPT as

Dry seal threads, typically used for tubing to pipe the crest of a the flanks of the
the same as National the same as National
218133 1 connectors, and threaded piping in hydraulic systems matching thread is in matching threads are B 2
Pipe threads Fine threads
are __________. contact with the in contact with the
trough of the opposing threads
withstands heavy
Copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines has good resistance has high resistance resists hardening
218134 1 vibration under B 2
because it __________. to high temperatures to corrosion under stress
heavy system loads
For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness

used in a hydraulic system, the inside diameter can
1.5 times the wall 2 times the wall 2.5 times the wall
218135 1 be determined if it is remembered that the inside the wall thickness C 2
thickness thickness thickness
diameter equals the outside diameter less
__________.
expansion and tube fitting leaks tube flexing at right

Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored every excessive pump
218136 1 contraction of the from vibration and angles to the applied C 2
three or four feet to prevent __________. cavitation
tubing pressure surges fluid pressure

the numerical
The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is the outside diameter a color code on the the thickness of the
218137 2 designation found on B 2
indicated by __________. of the hose armor tube wall
the 'skin' of the hose
If the numerical designation indicated on the outside

of a hydraulic hose is BXP-10, the "dash size" 10
218137 3 5/8 inch 3/4 inch 7/8 inch 1 inch A 2
indicates that the inside diameter of the hose is
_______.
The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its braided inner

218138 1 inner tube outer cover outer armor B 2
overall strength, is the __________. layer(s)
The determining factor for the strength of a flexible synthetic rubber
218138 2 external cover braided layer Teflon sleeve C 2
rubber hydraulic hose is the __________. inner tube
The basic function of the servo control shown in the establish minimum establish minimum provide a constant position the tilt box of
218150 2 GS-0039 D 2
illustration, as used in some hydraulic systems, is to operating pressures operating flow rates output discharge a variable
will move to the left,
will move to the right,
If the device shown in the illustration is being used to and "C" will move to
and "C" will move to will move to the right, will move to the left,
218151 1 control the output of an axial piston pump, when part the right, but will lag GS-0039 B 2
the left, but lagging as will "C" as will "C"
"A" is moved to the right, then part "B" __________. behind the
behind "B"
movement of "A"
If the device shown in the illustration is used to Pump discharge will Once the pump The pump would The system
control the output of a variable displacement pump, be 100% until the achieved a develop a 50% unloading valve will
218152 1 GS-0039 C 2
and part "A" is displaced 50% from 'zero' stroke, effects of lost motion corresponding output discharge rate and open to guarantee a
which of the following statements will be correct? in the associated of 50%, the pump remain at that pump discharge of
Which of the following statements will be true if the Although oil will leak Regardless of the Regardless of the Although the control
218152 2 GS-0039 A 2
position of the manual control lever, shown in the past part 'B,' the control handle control handle handle position was
If the device shown in the illustration is used to Pump discharge will Once the pump The pump would The system
218152 3 GS-0039 C 2
control the output of a variable displacement pump, be 100% until the achieved a develop a 50% unloading valve will
counterclockwise counterclockwise
In the device illustrated, if part "D" rotates clockwise clockwise and act clockwise and act
218154 1 and act upon part and act upon part GS-0040 C 2
then part "E" will rotate __________. upon part "H" upon part "G"
"H" "G"
A variable displacement pump is fitted with the Part "H" will move to When part "D" As high side The increase in high
illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will be block the rotates pressure increases side pressure will
218155 1 GS-0040 A 2
reduced as described by which of the following replenishing pump counterclockwise, part "A", "B", and "C" gradually increase
statements?
An axial piston hydraulic motor is caused to rotate by oil flow across part part "E" will rotate will work together to the tilting box angle
fluid flow from a comparably designed variable
218156 1 A E I J GS-0040 C 2
displacement pump fitted with the illustrated device. If
the motor stalls, due to excess load, the pump tilting
the main system
One function of a replenishing pump installed in many
a servo control position a manually accumulators under
218157 1 pressure-closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid the reservoir B 2
circuit controlled valve all operating
flow to __________.
conditions

The component shown in the illustration is a graphic two-stage hydraulic bi-directional flow single stage constant
218170 2 double pump unit GS-0096 A 2
representation of a ________. pump unit pump flow pump
The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used series-flow pump

218171 1 two-stage pump unit double pump unit combined pump unit GS-0097 C 2
to depict a/an __________. unit
Which of the following components listed is shown in Variable

218172 1 Heat exchanger Filter All of the above GS-0041 C 2
the illustration? displacement pump
The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used

218173 1 parallel, pump unit two-stage, pump unit duplex, pump unit combined, pump unit GS-0098 D 2
to depict a __________.
An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic

symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the is pressure can be adjusted or allows flow in one
218174 1 is pilot controlled GS-0068 C 2
illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the compensated varied direction only
component __________.
In hydraulics, the graphic symbol illustrated in Fig. A

218174 2 variable resistor expansion joint spring flexible mount GS-0068 C 2
is used to represent a/an __________.
variable output,
The hydraulic graphic symbol illustrated as Fig. C is bi-directional rotating unidirectional bi-directional flow
218174 3 single direction flow GS-0068 C 2
used to depict a/an __________. motor rotating motor pump
pump
The hydraulic graphic symbol illustrated in Fig. B is

218174 4 variable orifice piloted choke belle ville spring check valve GS-0068 A 2
used to represent a/an __________.
constant flow pump

In the hydraulic schematic illustrated, the pump constant flow gear constant flow screw bi-directional rotating
218178 1 of indefinite GS-0041 B 2
symbol indicates the use of a __________. type pump type pump constant flow pump
construction
Which of the following is true concerning the The piston rod will The piston rod will If neither solenoid is
218179 2 All of the above. GS-0041 B 2
hydraulic system illustrated? extend if solenoid extend at a faster energized, the pump

Which of the following is true concerning the The piston rod will
The piston rod will If neither solenoid is
218179 3 All of the above. GS-0041 D 2
hydraulic system illustrated? extend if solenoidextend at a faster energized, the pump
Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is act as a power act as a power shut down the shut down the
218180 1 GS-0103 C 2
used to __________. source to operate source to operate remotely operated operation of pump
the manually
one of two motor operated pump motor driven pump the manually
driven remotely located in a common used to close the operated pump used
Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the
218182 1 operated pumps to passage way to water tight door from to open or close the GS-0103 B 2
hydraulic circuit as __________.
open and close the close the water tight the navigation bridge water tight door from
water tight door door in an in an emergency the engine room side
emergency
drain off any assist the complete prevent damage due
vent off any
A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent accumulated water removal of hydraulic to agitation and
218190 1 accumulated air from D 2
axis variable stroke pumps to __________. from the pump oil from the system overheating of oil
the system
A bent axis, variable stroke, axial piston pump casing prior to its prior to opening for accumulated in the
discharge/return line
produces a greater capacity than a comparable tilting piston diameters are length of stroke is
218191 2 RPM is doubled diameter are B 2
box-type axial piston pump, because the smaller greater
arranged differently
__________.
The device illustrated would be best used as a variable capacity variable or constant power take-off driven hydraulic hatch
218192 1 GS-0058 B 2
__________. pump speed motor lube oil pump supply pump
If it becomes necessary to start an axial piston

no load until the
hydraulic motor under conditions where the hydraulic minimum speed until neutral stroke until
normal operating maximum torque to
218194 2 fluid is colder than the lowest temperature the normal operating all of the air has C 2
temperature is attain rapid warm-up
recommended for proper operation, you should pressure is reached been vented
reached
operate the system at __________.
increased by adding decreased by adding increased by adding
The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic fixed by the pump
218195 1 a longer cylinder a longer cylinder a shorter cylinder GS-0058 A 2
pump, shown in the illustration, is __________. housing angle
block block block
When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston

The pistons The "B" end cylinder Power is transmitted
218196 1 pump is perpendicular to the pump shaft, which of the There is no fluid flow. C 2
reciprocate. barrel rotates. hydraulically.
following conditions will exist?
The torque rating of a fluid power motor is expressed RPMs under a given inch-pounds at a foot-pounds per foot-pounds at a
218197 2 B 2
in __________. load condition given RPM piston stroke given viscosity
regulating the ratio

directing the motor maintaining a
In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor, between torque and controlling the input
218198 1 output flow through a constant flow and D 2
the speed is varied by __________. speed via the torque flow rate
bypass line pressure input
limiter at the motor

amount of cylinder fluid flow rate length of the motor pintle discharge rate
The speed of a radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is
218198 2 block offset with discharged to the piston stroke on the to the suction side of B 2
controlled by varying the __________.
respect to the rotor motor power cycle the pump
With regards to axial piston hydraulic pump/motor The designers of the A comparable pump Reduction gears
A tilting box hydraulic
power units, motor speed is a function of fluid flow equipment have tilting box if used in a would be required if
motor could never
218199 1 rate generated by the pump. Which of the following never considered the hydraulic motor, a hydraulic motor B 2
produce more than
statements describes why the motor is NOT use of the tilting box would eliminate the were designed with a
one horsepower.
manipulated as is the pump? with a hydraulic hydraulic lock to the tilting box.
The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a

218200 1 3 or 5 5 or 7 7 or 9 9 or 11 C 2
variable stroke axial- piston pump is __________.
An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston parallel to each other at an angle to each
radially from the parallel to each other
218201 1 pump as the pistons of an axial piston pump are but at a right angle to other and to the B 2
shaft and to the shaft
positioned __________. the shaft shaft
The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is

218202 1 tilting box slide block pintle reaction ring A 2
controlled by varying the position of the __________.
The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston

218202 2 hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of slide block tilting box pintle reaction ring B 2
the __________.
The delivery rate of an axial-piston hydraulic pump is tilting box or swash

218202 3 sliding block pintle reaction ring D 2
controlled by varying the position of the __________. plate
variable
In the hydraulic transmission shown in the illustration, low pressure constant speed fixed displacement
218203 1 displacement GS-0057 D 2
the "B" end is a __________. hydraulic pump hydraulic motor hydraulic motor
hydraulic pump
Regarding the hydraulic transmission illustrated, the fixed displacement fixed displacement
218203 2 variable stroke motor variable stroke pump GS-0057 C 2
"A" end is a __________. pump motor

If the "B" end were driven by an electric motor and

the "A" end were disconnected from the line terminals variable output fixed output hydraulic crane
218203 3 mooring winch GS-0057 B 2
of the motor controller, the unit illustrated could then alternator alternator power supply
be used as a __________.
Control over speed, Maximum speed Maximum torque, Maximum speed in
Which of the following statements describes the direction, and when rotated in the when rotated in the either direction of
218204 1 actions of an axial piston motor with a full deflection stopping would be 'hauling in' direction 'pay out' direction rotation would be D 2
variable position tilting box? better than having would be obtained would be obtained achieved just beyond
the pump equipped with the tilting box with the tilting box of neutral stroke,
Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering

218205 1 lobe type screw type axial piston type volute type C 2
systems are of the __________.
Which of the following types of hydraulic pumps

218205 2 Lobe Screw Radial piston Volute C 2
would be used in a steering system?
Pressurized fluid Roller vanes would Nothing could be

The device illustrated is considered to be a pump. The diameter of the
would have to be have to be done to convert this
218209 1 Which of the following statements is true if it is to be rotor would have to GS-0074 A 2
supplied to the exchanged for device to a hydraulic
used as a hydraulic motor? be increased.
existing indicted sliding vanes. motor.
An axial piston, variable stroke pump is used in a cause loss of result in extreme cause damage to the result in the system
218210 2 C 2
vessel's hydraulic steering gear. Under pressure, the hydraulic oil from the damage to the pump pump if not low side pressure to
Theoretically, if the "B" end of the hydraulic speed output of the available speed output of the available
218211 1 GS-0057 D 2
transmission illustrated were provided with a variable "B" end would horsepower at the "B" would increase in horsepower at the
If the "B" end of the hydraulic transmission illustrated, speed output of the available speed output of the available
were provided with a variable position tilting box, and "B" end would horsepower at the "B" end would horsepower at the
218211 2 GS-0057 A 2
the 'A: end displacement were to be constant, the increase in "B" end would increase in "B" end would
__________. if the "B" end of the hydraulic
Theoretically, proportion
speed outputas of
thethe increase
available in proportion to
available torque at increase in of the
speed output
transmission illustrated were provided with a variable "B" end would horsepower at the the "B" end would "B" would increase in
218211 3 GS-0057 C 2
position tilting box, and the "A" end displacement decrease in "B" end would increase in proportion to
were to be constant, the __________. proportion
speed would as the increase in
speed would proportion to the increasing the "B"
horsepower, torque, horsepower, torque,
If the flow rate and pressure from a variable capacity increase, decrease,
and speed would and speed would
218212 2 pump was increased while supplying the device horsepower and horsepower and GS-0058 C 2
increase decrease
illustrated, the __________. torque would torque would
proportionally proportionally
decrease increase
The pressure side of the radial piston hydraulic motor
218221 1 as shown in the illustration, is aligned to piston 1 2 3 2 and 3 GS-0059 A 2
number __________.
In the radial piston pump shown in the illustration, oil

218221 2 will enter the cylinder as the piston travels from 1 to position 2 2 to position 3 3 to position 4 4 to position 1 GS-0060 A 2
position __________.

Oil is returned to the illustrated radial piston hydraulic

218221 3 1 2 3 2 and 3 GS-0059 A 2
pump piston(s) numbered as __________.
In the illustration, control over the direction and changing the moving the cylinder varying the direction varying the prime
218223 1 GS-0059 A 2
quantity of fluid flow is attained by __________. eccentricity between block off center from of rotation and speed mover direction of
varying the direction
Regarding the pump shown in the illustration, the varying the direction of rotation of the moving the cylinder moving the reaction
218223 2 quantity and direction of fluid flow is controlled by of rotation and size prime mover and block off center from ring off center from GS-0059 D 2
__________. of the pintle valve throttling the pump the reaction ring the cylinder block
output
Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a pump shaft and pump shaft and floating ring and floating ring and
218223 3 D 2
variable displacement radial piston pump are central valve horizontal ports pump shaft cylinder body
In a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid
218225 2 central valve radial plunger floating ring cylinder body C 2
flow are accomplished by moving the __________.
Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is only by the pump as by resistance to the by the thermal input solely by the charge
218250 1 B 2
developed __________. its primary function fluid flow through the to the system's fluid applied by the
The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as
internal resistance to resistance of the the load applied to
218251 1 indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid all of the above D 2
flow internal components the system
flow overcoming __________.
In the system illustrated, which of the following
readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if 800 psi (56.31 8,000 psi (563.1 80,000 psi (5631
218253 1 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2) GS-0062 B 2
the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
(y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be
218253 2 800 psi 8,000 psi 80,000 psi 80 psi GS-0062 A 2
indicated on the gauge if the load (x) is 8000 lbs and
indicated on the gauge if the load (x) is 8000 lbs 800 psi (56.31 8,000 psi (563.1 80,000 psi (5631.0
218253 12 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2) GS-0062 A 2
(3632 kg) and the piston area is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
cm)?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be 640 psi (44.99 1,000 psi (70.3 64,000 psi (449.2 125 psi (8.79
218253 13 GS-0062 B 2
indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg/cm2) kg.cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 10,000 lbs 10,000 psi (703 80,000 psi (5,624 1,250 psi (87.88 156.25 psi (10.89
218253 14 GS-0062 C 2
(4540 kg) and the piston area (y) is 8 sq. in (51.6 sq. kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
cm)?
In the illustrated system, what pressure will be 785 psi (55.19 353 psi (24.82 629 psi (44.22 283 psi (19.89
218253 15 GS-0062 C 2
indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 702.68 lbs kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 10,000 lb 10,000 psi (703 100,000 psi (7,030 100 psi (7.03 1,000 psi (70.30
218253 16 GS-0062 D 2
(4,450 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
cm.)?
indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 9984 lbs 291 psi (20.46 832 psi (58.49 628 psi (44.15 220 psi (15.47
218253 17 GS-0062 B 2
(4532.7 kg) and the piston area is 12 sq. in (77.4 sq. kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
cm)?


indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 2,530 lbs 66.66 psi (4.69 8000 psi (562.4 55.55 psi (3.91 96000 psi (6,748.8
218253 18 GS-0062 A 2
(1,148.48 kg) and the area of the piston (y) is 38 sq. kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
in (244.8 sq. cm)?
255 psi (17.93 565 psi (39.72 942 psi (66.22 424 psi (29.81
218253 19 indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 632 lb (286.9 GS-0062 D 2
kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2) kg/cm2)
kg) and the piston area (y) is 1.5 sq. in (9.6 sq. cm)?
611 psi (42.95 471 psi (33.11 942 psi (66.22 306 psi (921.51
218253 21 indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 758.7 lbs (344 GS-0062 A 2
kg) and the piston area (y) is 1.25 sq. in (8.0 sq. cm)?

318 psi (22.63 796 psi (55.96 1,263.49 psi (88.8 785 psi (55.19
218253 22 indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 500 lbs (227 GS-0062 B 2
kg) and the piston area (y) is 0.63 sq. in. (4 sq. cm.]
setting of the
The amount of the cushioning effect developed within position of the adjustment of the
design shape of the cushioning
218260 1 a hydraulic cylinder is determined by the directional port in the cushion cavity check D 2
cylinder ends adjustment needle
__________. cushion cavity valve
valve
To allow the pump to
To slow the action of
temporarily operate
To regulate actuator the piston preventing
Why is a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a at a pressure 10%
218260 3 speed through the shock and damage All of the above. B 2
cushioning device? above the relief
entire stroke length. due to hammering
valve setting without
effects.
lifting the relief valve.
pump discharge
If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by halfpressure will be speed of the actuator speed of the actuator the actuator will
218262 1 B 2
of the original amount, the __________. reduced by a will be reduced will be increased move erratically
proportional amount
When a linear actuator (cylinder) is being retracted inversely inversely increased as the
218264 1 zero D 2
without an applied load, the pressure on the oil proportional to the proportional to the speed of retraction
Hydraulic force is The single-acting
The single-acting Hydraulic force
applied ram is both extended
Which of the following statements concerning the ram is not retracted applied to a single-
218265 1 simultaneously in and retracted by C 2
operation of a single- acting hydraulic ram is correct? by means of acting ram results in
two directions means of hydraulic
hydraulic force. a pulling motion.
against the ram by force.
the flow rate of both
In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the
the temperature of the cooling water the temperature of
218280 1 amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to all of the above D 2
the hydraulic fluid and the hydraulic the cooling water
the cooling water depends upon __________.
fluid
Constant tension Internal combustion
In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the Watertight door
218282 1 mooring winch Hatch cover system engine hydraulic A 2
installation of an oil cooler be necessary? system
system starter system
Hydraulic systems typically operated for intermittent constant tension internal combustion
watertight door
218283 1 service do not require the use of oil coolers and mooring winch hatch cover systems engine hydraulic A 2
system
would include all of the following except _________? system starter system

The hose should be

There should be
When installing a hydraulic hose, which of the The hose should not protected with a
218290 1 some slack in the All of the above. D 2
following precautions should be taken? be twisted. sleeve if it is
hose.
subjected to rubbing.
expand under
The striped flexible hose installation shown is flex and rupture at expand in diameter pull out of the fittings
pressure and split
218290 2 incorrect and will probably fail under pressure the twist indicated by and rupture in the as the hose GS-0064 D 2
along the axis of the
because the hose will __________. the stripe twisted area contracts in length
stripe
Which of the listed illustrations correctly represents
218290 3 A B C D GS-0063 A 2
the installation of a hydraulic hose?
Which of the listed illustrations shows the
218290 4 A B C D GS-0065 D 2
INCORRECT method for installing hydraulic tubing?
right hand fitting
Figure "D" in the illustration is an improperly installed sharp bend formed
218290 5 being smaller than severe bend in loop indicated radial twist GS-0063 C 2
hose with a restriction developed at the __________. at the left
required
Figure "C" in the illustration, is an improperly installed right hand fitting

sharp bend formed 90° bend as required
218290 6 hose, with the restriction developed at the being small than center of the hose GS-0063 B 2
at the left of the installation
__________. required
at the right hand

at the left hand end,
Figure "B" in the illustration is improperly installed. A ahead of the trailing the direction
218290 7 end, regardless of
regardless of the GS-0063 D 2
restriction will develop in this hose __________. direction of flow of flow
the direction of flow
direction of flow
Regarding the hydraulic hose installation illustrated, will expand under
will expand under can pull away from
218290 8 is properly installed GS-0064 A 2
the hose __________. pressure to the left of
pressure to the right the right hand pipe
Flexible hose under pressure in a hydraulic system tend to twist about its
expand in length and contract in length flex at right angles to
218291 1 C 2
will __________. long axis in
Thediameter
components and expand in the applied pressure
If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to The hydraulic unit The hydraulic fluid
The hose may pull
connected by the
218291 2 leave sufficient room for expansion, which of the will fail to acquire will overheat and A 2
loose from its fittings.
hose will be
following problems will develop? any power. breakdown.
damaged.
If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic failure of the excessive flow friction in other areas overheating of the
218291 3 A 2
system, the hose must be long enough to allow for hydraulic hose through the line of the hydraulic hydraulic fluid
will contract in cannot flex at right
The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" and its fittings cannot will stretch and
diameter and expand angles to the
218297 1 is INCORRECT and will probably leak when in be properly installed overstress the male GS-0065 B 2
in length under pressure applied by
operation because the tubing __________. and tightened threads on the fitting
pressure the fluid because it is
has no provision to
will contract in
The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure D in compensate for will stretch and cannot properly twist
diameter and expand
218297 3 the illustration will probably leak when operating strain due to overstress the male when pressure is GS-0065 B 2
in length under
because the tubing __________. expansion and threads on the fitting applied
pressure
contraction

using Teflon
Flanged joints in high pressure hydraulic system seal welding the incorporating the use using street elbows
218298 2 threaded B 2
piping are commonly made leak proof by ________. flange circumference of neoprene O-rings whenever possible
connections
If the hydraulic compression type tubing fitting, shown apply more thread
apply thread seal
218299 1 replace part "III" replace part "I" GS-0100 D 2
as figure "C" in the illustration begins to leak, you seal and retighten
tape around the
If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with be successful every
find that the pressure cause the system to dislodge any scale in
218301 1 B 2
pressure on the system, you will __________. time will prevent the vibrate the tubing, and it will
completely charge pump the hydraulic
Before doing any work on a hydraulic system drain the bleed off all stored
the accumulators to fluid into the
218310 1 equipped with accumulators, you should accumulators and energy from the B 2
prevent system accumulators to
__________. purge with oxygen accumulators
energy loss prevent fluid loss
Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic pressurize the bleed off all pressure operate the machine disconnect the pump
218310 2 B 2
system storing energy in an accumulator, you should system to test for within the system until it reaches pressure control
remove all hydraulic remove all hydraulic increase the allow the
To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator system pressure and system pressure and pneumatic pressure accumulator to
218313 1 A 2
__________. bring the pneumatic bring the pneumatic until the hydraulic completely fill with
pressure to the pressure to the system reaches its gas charge at
When changing to a fire resistant hydraulic fluid in a

218330 1 system, it is important to check the compatibility of seals metals and plating paint all of the above D 2
the new fluid with the system's __________.
When fire safe or fire resistant fluid is to be used in a the resultant the fluid does not the fluid be separate lube oil
218330 2 C 2
hydraulic system, it is important that __________. pressure, due to the dissipate too much compatible with all supply be furnished
Deterioration of Fluid viscosity Decreased wear
Which of the following precautions should be Only chemically
paints, seals, metals, always increases as rates of components
218330 3 observed concerning the introduction of a fire active filters may be A 2
and electrical a normal result of its is an advantage of
resistant fluid into a hydraulic system? used.
insulation may occur. use. its use.
When normal operating pressure is applied to the

viscosity will pour point will be
218331 2 hydraulic oil used in a high-pressure system, the oil volume will increase volume will decrease C 2
decrease reduced
__________.
not be compressed, reduce in volume by increase in volume reduce in volume by

As a rule of thumb, when pressure is applied to
218331 4 as liquids are not 1% for every 100 psi by 1% for every 1/2% for every 1,000 D 2
hydraulic oil, the oil will __________.
compressible increment 1,000 psi increment psi increment
How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid Clean the fittings Place drip pans Seal any cracks in Coat all threads with
218332 1 A 2
be decreased when working on hydraulic systems? before they are under leaky fittings. lines with Permatex. graphite oil.

can clog filters and

Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic can cause rusting of breaks down solidifies and causes
218333 1 promote component C 2
systems because the lint __________. internal parts hydraulic fluid cracked lines
leakage
With an increase in temperature, the volume of remains constant if
218334 1 contracts remains the same increases D 2
hydraulic fluid __________. pressure decreases
When normal operating pressure is applied to the viscosity will viscosity will floc point will
218335 1 volume will increase A 2
hydraulic oil in a high- pressure system, the oil increase decrease increase
The system should
After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, The relief valves in The filters and All system pressure be drained and
218340 1 what special attention should be given to the the system should strainers should be should be renewed with a fluid B 2
hydraulic system? be readjusted. checked frequently. readjusted. of different operating
characteristics.
The system should
After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, The relief valves in The filters and System return
be drained and
218340 2 what special attention should be given to the the system should strainers should be pressure should be B 2
renewed with a fluid
hydraulic system? be readjusted. checked frequently. readjusted.
of different operating
adding small the system has been the system has been
Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary the system has been
218341 1 amounts of oil to the drained and then idle for a long period C 2
when __________. overheated
system filled with new oil of time
When new piping sections have been fabricated for cleaned using a hydrostatically tested
descaled by using a
218342 1 installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation, water-based to 100% of maximum all of the above B 2
pickling solution
the piping should be __________. detergent working pressure
New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic
a water-based a special petroleum
218344 1 system can be safely degreased by using alcohol carbon tetrachloride D 2
detergent solvent
__________.
Which of the following problems may be encountered External seal Hunting due to fast Hydraulic oil film Increased power
218350 1 D 2
by using an oil having a viscosity higher than that leakage. response. breakdown. consumption.
reservoir level being
Sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators excessively high oil relief-valve pressure
218350 3 insufficient load maintained two B 2
may be a result of __________. viscosity setting too high
inches above normal
Which of the following problems occurring in a

Condensation and Increased wear of Increase in internal
218350 5 hydraulic system can be caused by using an oil Seal deterioration. C 2
rust formation. moving parts. fluid friction.
having a viscosity lower than specified?
The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and
218351 1 20 40 60 80 A 2
thick when cold would have a viscosity index of
Which characteristic or condition will have the
218353 1 greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's Pour point Cloud point Vacuum Pressure D 2
viscosity?
Increased internal leakage, in addition to poor excessively worn broken directional

pump bearings in low hydraulic oil
218354 1 hydraulic system response, and inadequate actuator-piston control valve D 2
poor condition viscosity
lubrication, is the result of __________. packing centering springs

changing pump
continued slow
Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of discharge pressure incorrect fluid
218360 1 a high oil level recirculation of the C 2
__________. in response to viscosity
oil
normal load
Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy excessive discharge clogged suction

high fluid level in the hydraulic fluid low
218364 1 pump operation and can be caused by a/an pressure from the strainer in the D 2
reservoir floc point
__________. pump reservoir
Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro- low fluid viscosity

overload of the pump low oil level in the high oil level in the
218364 3 hydraulic anchor windlass, may indicate pump existing only around B 2
motor reservoir sump
cavitation caused by __________. the shaft seal
Operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating the hydraulic fluid to the fluid motor to the relief valve to a decrease in pump
218364 4 A 2
condition can cause __________. become overheated become overloaded hum RPM
the compression and caused by pitting of caused by pitting of
collapse of vapor the pump internals the pump internals a result of a clogged
218364 5 Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is ________. A 2
bubbles in the pump due to galvanic due to operation with discharge filter
internal components action acidic oil
If a hydraulic pump sounds like it is pumping rocks
218365 5 when in operation, the problem is most likely cavitation galvanic action slippage None of the above A 2
________.
a constantly
Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system the steering pumps a jammed open relief excessive ram
218366 1 occurring improper C 2
may be indicated by __________. over speeding valve pressure
rudder response
Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actuator may be erratic or jerky a pump discharge consistently faster over speeding of the
218366 2 A 2
indicated by __________. motion of the pressure that is response or pump
the trapped air being
the trapped air being air providing better
air being capable of
Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an compressed to a compressed to lubrication of internal
moving loads more
218366 3 actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky pressure above the operating system components, found B 2
effectively than a
motion. This action is a result of __________. maximum pump pressure, then in Hydraulic
liquid
discharge
the trappedpressure,
dropping in pressure
air being Systems, than
air providing better
the cyclic expansion air being capable of
Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an compressed to a lubrication of internal
and contraction of air moving loads more
218366 4 actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky pressure above the components, found B 2
due to the motion of effectively than a
motion. This action is a result of __________. maximum pump in Hydraulic
the actuator liquid
discharge pressure,an increase in the Systems,
fluctuatingthan
pump
continuous leakage
Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be number of the insufficient external discharge pressure
218367 1 through the pressure A 2
caused by __________. hydraulic fluid film pump slippage in response to
relief valve
layers normal load
low discharge excessive fluid level operation of the
If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be excessive internal
218368 1 pressure and fluid in the hydraulic pump at 100% A 2
__________. slippage in the pump
flow reservoir efficiency
Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused component
218380 1 fluid friction fluid turbulence pressure surges C 2
by contamination of the hydraulic fluid and misalignment

Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused hydraulic fluid excessive fluid
218381 1 turbulent fluid flow fluid pressure surges A 2
by misalignment of the system components and by contamination friction
The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water removed by cellulose gums, varnishes, always neutralized harmless and have
218383 1 B 2
contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally type filters and acids by oil additives no effect on system
The major source of chemical contaminants in microscopic steel anti-oxidant oxidation by-
218383 2 abrasive waste D 2
hydraulic fluid is __________. shavings compounds products
Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system

gums, acids, and removed by cellulose neutralized by oil not removed by
218383 3 oil will cause an oxidation process producing by- A 2
varnishes type filters additives absorbent filters
products which are normally __________.
In a six month period, the illustrated device has Increase the
Increase the contact Increase the contact
needed to be replaced twice due to excessive Use a softer material thickness of the
218390 1 surface area of part surface area of part GS-0071 D 2
grinding of part "E". Which of the listed aids might for part "D". cover gasket at point
"F". "E".
assist in reducing this problem? "H".
The device shown in the illustration has displayed a
Apply an adhesive Apply an adhesive Apply an adhesive
continuing tendency to leak, despite using extreme Apply an adhesive to
218390 2 between the shaft between parts "D" between part "F" and GS-0071 C 2
care in its installation during numerous repair efforts. part "G".
and part "D". and "E". the shaft.
Which of the following conditions might be used to
An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak
compression set or
218392 1 when it has lost its interference fit due to low fluid pressure high fluid flow low fluid temperature A 2
wear
__________.
Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a permanent loss of high level in the oil
218393 1 worn shaft seals low motor RPM B 2
hydraulic motor may be caused by __________. pump suction sump
A simple hydraulic system is made up of a pump,
relief- valve, manual-control valve, and a linear slower actuator faster actuator faster actuator
218400 1 all of the above GS-0107 A 2
actuator. If the piping connected to the actuator 'cap retraction speed retraction speed extension speed
end' is accidentally crushed to one half of its
Which of the following problems will occur if the
The reservoir would The valve would be The spring loaded The buffering
internal drain at either end of a hydraulic, two-way,
218410 1 become vapor placed in hydraulic relief ports would chambers would be B 2
spool-type directional control valve cylinder were to
bound. lock. open. unable to function.
become plugged?
Back pressure on The valve sealing The spool does not Close fitting spools
Which of the following statements represents a
the outlet line must surface is often have hydro cushion occasionally stick
218411 1 disadvantage associated with a spool-type, solenoid D 2
be steady to drain damaged through capabilities to handle due to the
direct operating, directional control valves?
A solenoid direct-acting three-position spring- the
A loweratspool
spring one spool excessive throttling shock.
The pump coupling accumulation of
The 'extend' solenoid Any one of the
centered directional control valve is used in a end has broken and is damaged and
218412 1 coil has developed above will cause the D 2
hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. When jammed, preventing pump is unable to
an open. actuator to not move.
the remote push
A solenoid, button isthree-position,
direct-acting, depressed to extend
spring- the the
A spool from
centering spring One of the two turn
The at
pumpits required
coupling The detent
centered, directional control valve is used in a has broken and solenoids has has been damaged mechanism has
218412 2 A 2
hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. Midway jammed the spool sustained an open in preventing the pump failed, preventing the
through
A extension,
solenoid, the push
direct-acting, button is released,
three-position, spring- but movement
One or both of the its respective coil. from developing
The pump its
coupling valve from coupling
The pump operating.
One or both of the
centered, directional control valve is used in a centering springs is damaged and the has sheared and the
218412 3 solenoid coils has C 2
hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. With the has broken and the pump is unable to motor is over
sustained an open.
actuator under load there is no movement. However, spool has jammed in attain its rated speed speeding.

Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a accelerated action of

overheating of the over speeding of the
218420 1 hydraulic system lower than the required operating the system extended system life B 2
system hydraulic pump
pressure will result in __________. components
a blockage in the line

If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic a low load on the a clogged pump the hydraulic motor
218420 2 between the pump C 2
pump lifts, the cause could be __________. unit suction strainer turning too fast
and hydraulic motor
During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief The pump discharge The solenoid
The fluid viscosity The movement of
valve, used in a hydraulic system, the set point was pressure will remain controlled, three-
218420 3 will increase during any system actuator D 2
reduced by 100 psi. Which of the following at the same pressure position, spring
operation. will now be slower.
statements describes the result of the set point being prior to the relief centered control Opening the
Which of the conditions listed will cause the hydraulic Bleeding the gas Reducing the relief Removing the
restrictor valve
218420 4 pump relief valve to remain open during the operation charge from the valve spring restrictor valve check- GS-0106 B 2
variable orifice by
of the system? accumulator. compression. valve spring.
one third of a turn.
If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low
internal system fluid air passing through strained hydraulic excess internal
218440 1 rumbling noise while in operation, this is a probable B 2
leakage the pump fluid slippage
indication of __________.
A gradual decrease in the discharge pressure of an the bleeder valve a clogged air vent
the four-way control
218441 1 operating hydraulic pump can be caused by sticking in the open cold hydraulic fluid filter on the oil D 2
valve failing to shift
__________. position reservoir
If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated obstructed suctions
218442 1 contaminated fluid pitted thrust rings worn pintle bearings D 2
fluid volume, the cause can be __________. passage
Obstructed suction passages in the casing or pintle of pump return and
pump back pressure pumped fluid volume pump discharge flow
218442 2 a radial piston hydraulic pump will cause the discharge pressures C 2
to decrease to decrease to drop to zero
__________. to equalize
an air leak in the due to the wrong
If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when pump suction line low viscosity in the an oil leak across the direction of rotation
218445 1 A 2
in operation, the cause may be __________. above the oil level in hydraulic fluid pump shaft packing of the hydraulic
the reservoir motor
All the seals in the The lifting capacity of The internal parts of
If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a The sheathing on the
hydraulic lines will the crane will be the pump and
218446 1 hydraulic deck crane, which of the following problems hydraulic lines will D 2
immediately blow immediately reduced hydraulic motor will
will occur? fracture.
out. by 70%. wear excessively.
If the boom shown in the illustration can be raised, linear actuator counterbalance
counterbalance
218447 1 but not lowered, the problem is most likely with the hydraulic pump controlling boom valve, ball check , GS-0161 C 2
valve
"Topping Circuit" ________. angle failed to close
If the operating pressure is determined to be normal
an obstruction in the double check valve relief valve (12) set
in the system shown in the illustration, yet the crane oil cooler partially
218448 1 brake release (14) ball jammed to to open at too high a GS-0161 A 2
does not swing (slew) in either direction when the obstructed
cylinder line (2) the left pressure
directional control valve is operated, the problem

aligns the pump's

helps prevent slung regulates the amount prevents over-travel
The counter balance valve (5) in the winch circuit discharge to the
218449 1 loads from dropping of oil to the brake of the winch when GS-0161 A 2
shown in the illustration ________. winch's hydraulic
prematurely release cylinder retrieving
motor
You press start button on the hydraulic power unit pump discharge
suction strainer controller contactor controller circuit
218450 1 shown in the illustration, and the motor does not start. relief valve setting is GS-0161 D 2
condition operating coil breaker
The first thing you should check is the ________. too low
three-position, spring three-position, spring three-position, three-position,
The directional control valves as shown in the
218451 1 loaded, and closed loaded, and open detented, and closed detented, and open GS-0161 B 2
illustration are ________.
centered centered centered centered
Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a reservoir will be flow through the
reservoir will become actuator response
218460 1 combined filler/breather cap. If the breather element subjected to a partial return lines will be B 2
pressurized time will be halved
becomes fouled, the __________. vacuum stopped
A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a Abnormal Operating oil
A partial restriction in A vacuum condition
reservoir frequently indicates signs of excessive pressurization is temperature is
218461 1 the return line has has developed in the C 2
pitting after two months of service. Which of the occurring in the determined to be
developed. reservoir.
following
A hydraulicwould most
system likely
gear contribute
pump to this
being fed from a reservoir. dust
Excessive Abnormal below normal.
Operating oil
A partial restriction in
reservoir indicates signs of excessive pitting after two conditions have pressurization is temperature is
218461 2 the return line has A 2
months of service. Which of the following would most clogged the reservoir occurring in the determined to be
developed.
likely contribute to this condition? breather cap. reservoir. below normal.
Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are reservoir expansion hydraulic piping
218470 1 atmosphere as heat fluid as friction C 2
ultimately absorbed by the __________. chamber flexibility
In the design of hydraulic piping and equipment

molecular fluid wide pressure mechanical damage
218471 1 consideration is given to minimize turbulence in the energy losses B 2
vibration variations to control valves
hydraulic fluid, as this will cause __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations, flexible hoses the working pressure
the working pressure an inner tube a designed bursting
218480 1 D 2
used asofsupply
Which andpressure
the listed return lines to hydraulic
vessels system
is normally of the system of the system constructed of pressure of at least
exempt from hydrostatic testing at the regular Coast Fire tube auxiliary
A hydraulic Air receiver repaired
218481 2 The main boilers B 2
Guard inspection for certification occurring four years boiler accumulator by a certified welder.
after the initial inspection? The system pressure
The vessel must be should be prevented The system should
All necessary repairs
It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a dry-docked and the from exceeding the be tested at a
must approved by
218482 1 controllable pitch propeller. According to 46 CFR what propeller removed maximum allowable pressure of 1 1/2 C 2
the Chief Engineer of
should be done? when performing this operating pressure times the maximum
the vessel.
test. set forth by the allowable pressure.
manufacturer.

What is the lowest permissible flashpoint of the oil

218483 2 200°F (93°C) 212°F (100°C) 300°F (149°C) 315°F (157°C) A 2
used in a hydraulic valve actuating system that
What is the lowest permissible flashpoint of the oil

218483 3 used in a hydraulic valve actuating system that 200°F 212°F 300°F 315°F A 2
operates at 145 psi? (46 CFR)
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) an device in which bilge unfired pressure industry accepted test procedure in
218484 1 B 2
accumulator is a/an __________. water may be stored vessel in which term for the which the relieving
Which of the following devices is not considered to be Low pressure Deaerating feed Hydraulic fluid power
218485 1 Fuel oil heater C 2
a pressure vessel? (46 CFR) evaporator heater cylinder
According to regulations (46 CFR Part 58), a boiler a pressure not less a pressure not less the maximum the normal operating
218486 2 C 2
combustion control system may be tested at than 1.25 times the than 1.5 times the allowable working pressure of the
According to 46 CFR, a cargo hatch fluid-power continuous operation a safety interlock the guaranteed safe a slow and controlled
218487 2 D 2
operating system is considered to be fail-safe if a of the system producing a and efficient release of the
that proper to maintain a back such that the
A fluid power system shall be so designed functioning of any pressure throughout operation of any unit none of the above
218488 1 A 2
__________. unit shall not be the power cylinders in the system will are correct
affected
providedby the back
proper operating range
but shall not be provide
providedfor sufficient
the entire
Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by 46 CFR to prevent the
releasing subjected to length of the device
218489 1 to be installed between two points of relative motion formation of loading B 2
mechanisms are torsional deflection is visible to the
__________. stresses
available to enable under any conditions operator at all times
oil scraper ring
The device shown in the illustration is a/an diesel engine motor vane type steering mechanical shaft
218500 1 stuffing box for a GS-0116 B 2
__________. mount gear seal
crosshead engine
"O" will be
hydraulically locked "U" will rotate
"O" will rotate
in place even though "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as
counter-clockwise as
If oil under pressure is supplied to the space between oil is returned to the clockwise as oil is oil is returned from
218503 1 oil is returned from GS-0116 B 2
"N" and "I" in the illustration __________. main pump from the returned from the left the area between
the area between
left side of "N" and side of vane "N" "N" and the vane
"N"
the area to the right located at "P"
of "P" considered by designed to be of
The steering gear shown in the illustration, when
less likely to sustain inspection societies lesser weight and all of the above are
218504 1 compared to the more conventional linear actuator GS-0116 C 2
oil leaks to be more size when compared correct
ram units is/are __________.
through flexible dependable than the with conventional
through high
hydraulic hoses via pressure piping at via hydraulic hoses
Oil is supplied to the illustrated steering gear via the connections
218505 1 the connection ports "A" and then internal connected to the GS-0116 C 2
__________. indicated as "J"
located in the top ports provided in the orifices in "B"
When the helm angle position is changed, the series surface of "O" housing assembly
of corresponding events of the steering gear will
include __________.
I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be
proportional to amount of helm angle input
II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be

When the helm angle position is changed in the

wheel house, a series of corresponding events of the
steering gear will occur and include the following:
Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the rudder angle Rapson slide
218510 1 follow-up gear telemotor position A 2
__________. indicator indicator
In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due oil flowing through

218520 1 buffer springs relief valves dashpots B 2
to rudder shock is prevented by __________. the pumps
In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder shock a hydraulic
218520 2 a differential gear return springs relief valves D 2
is limited by __________. accumulator
protect the piping
relieve excess whip
Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief function when the assembly from relieve excessive
218520 3 pressure from the C 2
valves which __________. rudder is amidships external rudder telemotor pressure
hydraulic oil system
shock
On an electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the
Rudder angle Rudder angle limit
218830 1 listed devices will keep the rudder from over traveling Follow-up gear Electric transmitter B 2
indicator switch
the bridge signal?
Which of the devices listed, when used on an electro-
The rudder angle The synchronous A rudder angle limit
218830 2 hydraulic steering gear, keeps the movement of the The follow-up gear A 2
indicator electric transmitter switch
rudder closely in step with the steering wheel?
Rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the

218830 3 return springs six-way valve follow-up gear differential gear C 2
movement of the steering wheel by the __________.
takes the pump off allows for rudder

returns the rudder to
The follow-up gear on an electro- hydraulic steering relieves excessive stroke when the movement faster
218830 4 amidships when the B 2
gear __________. fluid pressure. desired rudder angle than the movement
wheel is released.
is attained. of the ship's wheel.
takes the pump off
synchronizes wheel returns the rudder to
The follow-up gear on an electro- hydraulic steering relieves excessive stroke when the
218830 5 position with the midposition when the B 2
gear __________. fluid pressure desired rudder angle
rudder position wheel is released
is attained
In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder
218830 6 trick wheel follow-up control six-way valve Rapson slide B 2
movement is maintained in close synchronization with
In a typical hydraulic steering gear system, as the The follow-up The follow-up The follow-up The follow-up
218835 3 D 2
designated rudder angle is approaching the helm mechanism will be mechanism will be mechanism will send mechanism will be
A command signal input to the steering gear has be in motion with a not be in motion with be in motion be in motion
218835 4 GS-0123 C 2
initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The null input a null input providing an input to providing an input to
take the pump off redirect hydraulic ensure positive
parallel rudder
The purpose of the six-way valve used in an electro- stroke when desired fluid flow when contact between the
218850 1 motion to the C 2
hydraulic steering system is to __________. rudder angle is changing over Rapson slide and the
steering wheel
attained pumps rudder post
In the illustration, component "C" is used to replace the rudder position the necessity for the hydraulic the mechanical
218850 3 GS-0123 B 2
__________. follow up gear manual repositioning telemotor receiver method for
In the illustrated schematic, the device used to
218851 2 "A" "B" "F" "H" GS-0123 A 2
replace the six-way valve, as found on many older

check valves an automatic

The necessity of the six-way valve, as used on many
a simpler two-way installed in the spare telemotor hydraulic method
218851 3 older steering gears, has been replaced by GS-0123 D 2
valve discharge/return system when changing over
__________.
lines of the steering steering gear pumps
If one hydraulic pump of an electro- hydraulic steering
218860 1 unit fails, the vessel's steering can be maintained by trick wheel accumulator standby pump telemotor C 2
using the __________.
In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units

218860 2 trick wheel rapson slide follow-up gear receiver unit A 2
can be directly controlled by the __________.
When the helm demands a 20° right rudder The cylinder relief
The steering service The follow-up gear
movement from an electro- hydraulic steering gear, The six-way valve valves bypass oil to
218862 1 pump motor is takes the pump off C 2
which of the listed actions will be the FIRST action to opens. the suction side of
stopped. stroke.
happen when this rudder position is attained? the pump.
steering pump
When the desired rudder angle is attained by a ram relief valves six-way valve shifts follow-up gear takes
electric motor is de-
218862 2 typical double ram electro- hydraulic steering gear, bypass oil to stop to the neutral flow the hydraulic pump D 2
energized by the
the __________. rudder movement position off stroke
transfer switch
Which of the following actions will occur with the Only hose "J" will be
The rudder stock "G"
steering system shown in the illustration when placed under The starboard ram The six-way valve
218862 3 turns GS-0137 C 2
responding to a left rudder command from pressure during this will extend aft. "N" will be opened.
counterclockwise.
amidships?
While responding to a right full rudder command from maneuver.
the amidships position, which of the cylinders
218862 4 "B" "C" "E" "A" GS-0104 C 2
illustrated will be fully pressurized on the face of the
pistons?
When responding to a 'right rudder' command from
the amidships position, which parts of the steering
218862 6 "C" and "F" "E" and "B" "F" and "E" "B" and "C" GS-0137 B 2
gear system illustrated will be subjected to the
highest pressure?
The steering gear unit shown in the illustration, which
of the conditions listed will occur as 'left rudder' is Cylinder end "H" is Cylinder end "A" is Cylinder end "E" is Cylinder end "F" is
218862 7 GS-0104 A 2
being obtained and only the 'No. 1' steering gear under pressure. relieving. under pressure. relieving.
pump is running?
In the steering gear system shown in the illustration, if
the maximum working pressure is applied to the face
218862 8 209,230 lbs. 836,920 lbs. 836,920 in. lbs. 24,000,000 in. lbs. GS-0104 A 2
of the ram, the total force on one piston will be
__________.
In the steering gear unit shown in the illustration, Ram cylinder "A" is Ram cylinder "H" is Ram cylinder "D" is
218862 9 All of the above. GS-0104 A 2
which of the actions listed will occur as 'left rudder' is under hydraulic relieving hydraulic under hydraulic
a corresponding
In an electro-hydraulic steering gear, any change in
the pump going to closing of the six- driving the rams up slowing or increasing
218862 10 relative position between the synchronous receiver D 2
full stroke way valve against the stops of the pumped flow
and the follow-up gear will result in __________.
rate

When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, The synchronous

The six-way valve Both port and
which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response The pumps go to full receiver turns,
218862 11 aligns itself with the starboard cables are D 2
in the steering room on a ship equipped with an stroke. duplicating the helm
running pump. energized.
electro-hydraulic steering gear? motion.
Which of the valve arrangements listed can be used

Close valves 'C3', Close valves 'C2', Close valves 'C1', Close valves 'C1',
to modify the four ram hydraulic steering gear
218862 12 'C4', and open 'C4', and open 'C3', and open 'C2', and open GS-0067 B 2
system, shown in the illustration, to a working two
valves 'B1', 'B2' valves 'B2', 'B4' valves 'B1', 'B2', 'B3' valves 'B3', 'B4'
ram system?
moving the receiving varying the

modulating the oil moving the
When the steering wheel is turned, oil is directed to telemotor which eccentricity of a
218862 13 flow with the six-way automatic pressure D 2
the steering gear rams by __________. regulates the two- floating ring or angle
valve differential valve
way valve of a tilting box
The function of the hydraulic telemotor transmitter transmit the rudder

prevent the control automatically purge send hydraulic
218862 14 D 2
used in an electro-hydraulic steering gear system is angle to the bridge
linkage from striking all entrained air from signals to the
If it were possible to simultaneously operate both The indicated valve
Pump "I" would The starboard Pump "G" would
218862 15 GS-0123 C 2
main pumps shown in the steering gear illustration, spool in "C" wouldsupply replenishing distributor valve "A" supply servo control
shaft "K" will rotate shaft "L" will cause
When the steering gear receives a command signal shaft "K" will rotate, shaft "L" will rotate,
causing "M" to rotate shaft "K" to rotate via
218862 16 for a 15° right rudder, during the initial period of but its output to "M" but its output to "M" GS-0123 A 2
reducing linkage the planetary
movement of the rudder __________. will be nullified will be nullified
length differential gear
The output from shaft "K", shown in the illustration, 'F4' is hydraulically 'F2' and 'F3' are 'F1' and 'F2' are
218862 17 'F4' is rotating GS-0123 B 2
becomes an actual control factor when component(s) locked energized energized
remains centered to shifts, blocking the shifts to block the
shifts to direct port
When the port power unit is started, as shown in the allow the servo replenishing pump servo pump
218862 19 replenishing flow to GS-0123 C 2
illustration, the unloading valve "C" __________. pump discharge to flow to the service discharge from the
the service tank
build pilot pressure tank, thus building starboard unit when
When responding to a 'left rudder' command from the
amidships position, which parts of the steering gear
218862 20 "C" and "F" "E" and "B" "F" and "E" "B" and "C" GS-0137 A 2
system illustrated will be subjected to the highest
pressure?
prevent the control

The function of the hydraulic telemotor transmitter transmit the rudder automatically purge send hydraulic
linkage from striking
218862 21 used in an electro-hydraulic steering gear system is angle to the bridge all entrained air from signals to the D 2
the stops when hard
to __________. indicator the system receiving unit
over
moving the follow up varying the angle of
Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation regulating the oil flow moving the
indicator which a tilting box or
218863 1 bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the with the six-way automatic differential D 2
regulates the six-way eccentricity of a
steering gear rams by __________. valve valve
valve floating ring
When there is no movement of the rams on an set for maximum on the purge and in the neutral
218864 1 rotating backwards C 2
electro-hydraulic steering gear, the tilting box of the torque vent stroke position

When there is no movement of the rams of an electro- operating at in the recirculation in the neutral
218864 2 rotating backwards C 2
hydraulic steering gear system, the tilting box of the maximum torque mode position
The figures shown in the illustration shows two Changing from Position I is changed Changing from Changing from
218866 1 GS-0102 C 2
different positions of the same steering gear hydraulic position I to position to position II by the position I to position position I to position
The action necessary to use the steering gear room align the trick wheel set the six-way open the power always place the
218868 1 A 2
trick wheel, when transferring the steering control to the rudder angle control valve in the transfer switch rudder in the midship
Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate with both pumps on with one pump on with the follow-up only when the rudder
218869 1 B 2
__________. line at the same time standby gear disconnected is moved amidships
The rudder torque capacity of the four ram steering

gear illustrated, is rated at 44,210,000 inch-pounds
with one power unit in operation. If the four ram 11,052,500 inch 22,105,000 inch 44,210,000 inch 88,420,000 inch
218876 1 GS-0067 B 2
system was able to be operated as a two ram system pounds pounds pounds pounds
with both power units on line, what would be the
available torque?
the manual trick a rudder order is an electric power

Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is the variable stroke
218880 1 wheel is engaged for given by the control system failure occurs C 2
hydraulically locked unless __________. pump is off stroke
steering system at the steering gear
In an electro-hydraulic steering gear system, when When the helm is at When the six-way When the ram relief When the rudder
218881 1 D 2
will the variable displacement pump be placed on any angle other than valve is opened. valves lift. angle is different
In order to change over the main pumps shown in the
Motor controller on-
218885 1 illustrated steering gear, which of the components "A" "C" Six-way valve GS-0123 D 2
off switches
listed must be manually actuated?
The follow-up mechanism for the steering gear shown return the main
maintain a constant gradually increase gradually decrease
functions to assure the correct rudder position for pump stroke to
pump stroke for all main pump stroke as pump stroke as
218889 2 each corresponding position of the helm. When neutral when rudder GS-0123 D 2
rudder command rudder attains rudder is achieving
operating properly, the follow-up mechanism should error angle is less
angles command angle command angle
__________. than 10 degrees
aligning the servo placing a hydraulic
a means for aligning the main
The distributor valves, labeled "A" in the illustration, pump "I" discharge lock on the rams if
recirculating oil flow variable stroke pump
218891 1 provide several of the following functions, with the for replenishing oil there is a failure of GS-0123 B 2
from the main discharge/return with
EXCEPTION of __________. lost from the main the hydraulic power
variable stroke pump the main rams
system unit
check for excessive drain water from
When the steering gear is in operation, you should check hydraulic oil check the rams for
218910 1 oil leakage from telemotor cylinders C 2
__________. levels every hour overheating
rams each watch
accuracy of the
While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should any leaks in the movement of the position of the six-
218910 2 rudder angle A 2
check for __________. system trick wheel way valve
indicator

over travel in the

While inspecting the steering system at sea, you air bubbles in the any leaks in the lost motion in the
218910 3 rudder angle B 2
should check for __________. sight glass system rams
indicator
over travel in the proper rotation of the

While inspecting the steering system at sea, you air bubbles in the any leaks in the
218910 4 rudder angle hydraulic steering B 2
should check for __________. sight glass system
indicator pump
the rudder angle
changing over to
The purging of air from an electro- hydraulic steering engaging the trick the system has been indicator does not
218911 1 hand pump C 2
gear unit is necessary when __________. wheel filled with new oil match the helm
operation
While at normal sea speed the rudder movement position
shaft "K" has
stops, but is restored after changing over power units. either solenoid coil that pump "G" can
only the solenoid coil developed a fault in
218920 2 At the earliest opportunity the faulty power unit is 'F1' or 'F3' has not develop GS-0123 B 2
'F2' has burned out the mechanical
restarted with the following results: the rudder can be burned out adequate discharge
linkage
remotely swung in only one direction, however using
If a severe leak develops in the electro- hydraulic
Loss of vessel Overheating of the Jamming of the six- Jamming of the
218920 4 steering gear, which of the listed conditions could A 2
steering gyrocompass way valve follow-up device
result?
Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system the pump over an improper rudder bubbles in the sight ram relief valves
218924 1 B 2
should be indicated by __________. speeding response glass lifting
hammering noises in
Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system an improper rudder popping or sputtering
218924 2 the equipment or all the above D 2
would be indicated by __________. response noises
transmission lines
When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a rudder will respond hydraulic rams will sight glass will show ram relief valves will
218924 3 A 2
steering system, the __________. sluggishly over speed bubbles lift
An electric power failure occurring in a electro- jam against the

automatically swing remain locked in its automatically shift to
218927 1 hydraulic steering gear would cause the rudder to rudder emergency B 2
35° right or left last position the midship position
__________. stops
a positive
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require hydraulic a suitable a suitable buffer arrangements
arrangement for
steering gear systems to be equipped with a means arrangement of stop arrangement of block to relieve the gear
218950 1 stopping the rudder A 2
of steadying the rudder in an emergency. This may be valves in the main and tackle powered from shocks to the
before the rudder
accomplished with __________. piping by winches rudder
stops are reached
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part

58), a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a
218951 1 vessel capable of a 12 knot service speed, must be 6 knots 7 knots 9 knots 12 knots B 2
able to meet the rudder movement requirements at
which of the minimum vessel speeds listed below?

An electric driven steering gear power unit is required

by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be capable
218951 3 7 knots 10 knots 15 knots 20 knots B 2
of putting the rudder over from 15° on one side to 15°
on the other
According to side
Coastin Guard
not more than 60 seconds
Regulations under
(46 CFR), a
power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel
218951 4 7 knots 10 knots 15 knots 20 knots B 2
capable of a 20 knot service speed, must be capable
of producing a specific range of rudder movement at
Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of
more than 48 hours duration. Coast Guard
218952 1 0600 hours 0900 hours 1200 hours 1500 hours A 2
Regulations (46 CFR) require that the steering gear
be examined and tested no earlier than __________.
According to Title 46 CFR, of the equipment listed All external vessel
218952 2 Steering gear Shaft generator All of the above A 2
below, which equipment must be tested NOT more control
Before setting out on a three day voyage, Coast

Guard Regulations require that the steering gear,
218952 3 whistle, and communications system between the 1 hour 4 hours 8 hours 12 hours D 2
bridge and engine room must be tested within how
many hours prior to departure?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that any means of watertight door to the emergency lighting
218952 4 fire pump relief valve A 2
tankship making a voyage 'of over a 48 hour duration' communication shaft alley system
by a required from 15 degrees on
from 35 degrees on
auxiliary steering one side to 15
Coast Guard Regulations require that OSV's under by design at one-half one side to 30
system under degrees to the other
218952 5 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable astern speed without degrees on the other C 2
emergency side in 30 seconds at
of moving the rudder __________. damage. side in no more than
conditions when 7 knots or one-half
28 seconds
duplicated main the maximum
Storage batteries to Run emergency
provide all power for Emergency astern generator, driven by
All vessel internal
Coast Guard Regulations require that vessels of 500 the vessel and operations, an internal
218952 6 control system D 2
GT or less, what equipment must be tested weekly? operated under load regardless of vessel combustion engine,
alarms.
for emergency location under load for at
lighting. least 2 hours.
According to Title 33 CFR, of the equipment listed

All internal vessel
below, which equipment must be tested NOT more
Emergency control
218952 7 than 12 hours prior to getting underway from a U.S. Steering gear All of the above D 2
generator communications
port when the voyage is to be of 48 hours or greater
systems
duration?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that any
means of
tankship making a voyage 'of over a 48 hour duration'
communication watertight door to the emergency lighting
218952 8 must have certain tests conducted not more than 12 fire pump relief valve A 2
between the bridge shaft alley system
hours prior to leaving port. Meeting this requirement
and engine room
includes the testing of the __________.

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that served by two provided with a protected by a circuit served by a single
218954 1 A 2
electric and electro- hydraulic steering gear motors electric power feeder motor running over breaker and a two conductor cable
protected by a circuit provided with a
Electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors
breaker set at 125% running motor over served by a single served by two feeder
218954 2 are required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to D 2
and a thermal current protection two conductor cable circuits
be __________.
overload device device
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), make certain
requirements regarding over current protection. a circuit breaker with motor running over a nonrenewable link a renewable link
218954 3 A 2
Steering gear feeder circuits shall be protected only instantaneous trip current protection cartridge fuse cartridge fuse
by __________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require that an
indicating light, located at the propulsion control forced draft blower condensate pump
218954 4 fuel pump motor steering gear motor C 2
station, be illuminated if there is an overload that motor motor
would cause overheating of the __________. On hydraulic type A separate auxiliary
Hydraulic structural steering gears, a means of steering is
which of the following statements is correct regarding
218956 1 rudder stops are suitable arrangement not required where All of the above. C 2
the steering apparatus requirements for a vessel over
mandatory. of check valves in the main gear is of
250 feet in length?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require an the main piping the dual power
30 seconds for 16 seconds for 10 seconds for
audible and visible alarm to be actuated in the
ordered rudder ordered rudder ordered rudder
218959 1 pilothouse when the actual position of the rudder all of the above A 2
position changes of position changes of position changes of
differs from the position ordered by the follow-up
70 degrees 5 degrees 2.5 degrees
control
Accordingsystem
to 46by 5 degrees°
CFR Part 113,orwhat
morewould
for more than
be the
maximum time delay period allowed for a ships
218959 2 steering system to reach a 15 degree right rudder 5 seconds 10 seconds 15 seconds 20 seconds B 2
helm order from midships, before an alarm condition
will be indicated?
In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid
out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and number 1 and 2 number 2 and 3 number 3 and 4
wrapped with wire. A red painted detachable line shots of chain shots of chain shots of chain
would be found between the __________.
three turns of wire three turns of wire one turn of wire

three turns of wire wrapped around the wrapped around the wrapped around the
out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and
218970 2 wrapped around the stud of the third link stud of the link on stud of the third link B 2
wrapped with wire. The third shot of chain should
detachable link on each side of the each side of the on each side of the
have __________.
detachable link detachable link detachable link

red for two links on white for two links on
out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and white on the red on the
218970 3 either side of the either side of the C 2
wrapped with wire. The second shot of the chain is detachable link detachable link
detachable link detachable link
painted
In order __________.
to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid white on the white on the red on the red on the
out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and detachable link and detachable link and detachable link and detachable link and
218970 4 D 2
wrapped with wire. The first shot of chain is painted red on each link to white on each link to red on each link to white on each link to
__________. either side of the either side of the either side of the either side of the

absorb the brake hold the anchor lock the intermediate

The principal purpose of an anchor windlass chain tie off the warping
218971 1 thrust of the anchor chain while riding at clutch shaft to the C 2
stopper is to __________. head lines
windlass anchor wildcat
The part of the anchor windlass that engages the

218973 1 warping head fairlead wildcat capstan C 2
anchor chain for lifting is called the __________.
half the breaking the full breaking the maximum 50% over the
A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical
218974 1 strength of the strength of the expected tension of working tension of B 2
brakes capable of holding __________.
mooring line mooring line the mooring line the mooring line
218976 1 A shot of anchor chain has a length of __________. 6 fathoms 12 fathoms 15 fathoms 45 fathoms C 2
one - 90 foot one - 15 foot

218977 1 A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________. one chain link 90 fathoms B 2
segment segment
fixed end of the

end of the chain end of the anchor
looped end of a mooring cable
218978 1 The bitter end is the __________. shackled to the chain fastened to the D 2
mooring cable fastened to the
anchor vessel
mooring winch drum
All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of

218979 1 yellow white red orange A 2
chain are painted __________.
All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are

218980 1 yellow white red orange C 2
painted __________.
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated,

218981 1 pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided D E L M GS-0160 C 2
by __________.

In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated,

218982 1 A F J K GS-0160 A 2
pressurized fluid flow to provide rotation of the wildcat
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, provide fluid flow for engage the spring shift valve "L" to line move stored oil
218983 1 GS-0160 A 2
pressurized fluid flow is provided to the main system the horsepower brake up the fluid motor across the indicated
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, release the spring provide actuating shift valve "L" to line move stored oil
218983 2 GS-0160 B 2
replenishment pump fluid flow is provided to the main brake fluid flow to the up the fluid motor across the indicated
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, provide actuating
provide actuating shift valve "L" to line
release the spring
replenishment pump fluid flow is provided to the main fluid flow to the
218983 3 fluid flow to the main up the fluid motor GS-0160 B 2
system for automatic replenishment and to brake winch motor tilt box
pump tilt box control relief valve
__________. engaged by spring released by spring control
opened hydraulically
When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is engaged by spring
action and only action and and held open by
218985 2 placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set action plus hydraulic A 2
released by hydraulically locks spring action
brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________. pressure
hydraulic allows
warm-up pressure
the the winch when the wheneverallows
warm-up the the
warm-up allows the hydraulic strainers
Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before hydraulic system to hydraulic fluid to
219000 1 relief valves to be operate only during D 2
being operated because __________. become charged reach proper
properly tested the warm-up period
with oil viscosity
The direction and rate of rotation for the cab in the

variable stroke pump main pump (item control valve (item manual control valve
219001 1 hydraulic crane circuit shown, is controlled by the GS-0161 D 2
(item #3) #13) #1) (item #10)
__________.
slightly shifting the

the installation of a
The wire rope drum used in the illustrated hydraulic hoist valve into the use of a spring
braking valve in line components labeled
219004 1 crane circuit is prevented from accidentally paying out position "I" to hold set, electric solenoid GS-0161 D 2
"K" to the hydraulic 4 and 5
by __________. the load in a steady released brake
motor
position
Which component in the illustrated hydraulic crane

219004 3 circuit acts to prevent the wire rope drum from #1 and #3 #2 and #3 #4 and #5 #15 and #18 GS-0161 C 2
accidentally paying out?
Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical

219005 1 More fuel efficient. More flexible. Lighter. Less maintenance. B 2
power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs?
The safety feature which assists the hydraulic crane
219006 1 18 1 6 5 GS-0161 A 2
circuit illustrated to maintain the required boom angle
Proper internal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor performing a check checking the

testing the hydraulic cleaning strainers at
219010 1 windlass left idle for extended periods can be run on the unit at reservoir for proper A 2
fluid for proper pH regular intervals
accomplished by __________. regular intervals level
A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during prevent chemical remove prevent the anchor renew the internal
219010 2 D 2
long periods of inactivity should be carried out to breakdown of condensation from from seizing in the coating of lubrication
If an anchor windlass has been idle for some time, repack all valve lubricate it prior to replace the balance the warping
219010 3 B 2
you should __________. stems use foundation bolts heads

The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled prevent the gear box prevent the oil from make sure it has not make sure the motor
219010 4 C 2
periodically to __________. from leaking becoming become bearings are
If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a add fluid that is the add turbine oil add any oil that has check the winch
219014 1 mooring winch, and are not certain as to the type of same color as the because it is always the same viscosity manufacturer's D 2
fluid to use, you should __________. fluid in the reservoir a good substitute as the hydraulic fluid instruction book
Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment overheating of the over speeding of the wear on the braking
219016 1 damage to the teeth D 2
to prevent __________. lube oil motor system
The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the "A" is allowed to "H" were to be
219017 1 "D" is not kept clean "B" is over tightened GS-0118 A 2
unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if remain open removed and the
Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of The driving engine The anchor will The clutch will The brake's
219030 1 D 2
a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn? will over speed. immediately drop. overheat. effectiveness will be
If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the remove unnecessary adjust the centrifugal adjust the davit engage the motor
219031 1 B 2
water at an excessive speed, you should weight from the boat brake mechanism mounted limit friction clutch bands
The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been the fluid level in the air trapped in the clogged suction line abrasive matter
219040 1 B 2
drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An reservoir is too high system fluid filters circulating in the oil
Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro- overload on the low fluid level in the low fluid viscosity high oil level in the
219050 1 B 2
hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an pump motor reservoir around the shaft seal sump
If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is excessive drive excessive pump too low of a tilting insufficient drive
219051 1 B 2
overheating, the cause may be __________. motor speed discharge pressure box angle motor speed
If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is over- increased pump excessive pump too low of a tilting
219051 2 low pump speed B 2
heating, the cause may be __________. speed discharge pressure box angle
While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you Make certain that the Inspect the disc Check the electric Check for full voltage
219060 1 A 2
observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in hydraulic reservoir is brake on the electric motor for an open supply to the electric
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if relief valve controlled manual transfer pressure from the
replenishing pump
the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat by the pilot operated valve is in the wrong brake release
219061 1 "K" drive coupling is GS-0160 B 2
turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being directional control position for the main cylinder "E" has
broken
applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on valve "L" is not pump being failed to bleed off
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if replenishing pump relief valve is not manual transfer spring set point for
219062 1 GS-0160 B 2
the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat coupling is broken closing valve is in the wrong "I" is too low
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if replenishing pump relief valve is not manual transfer spring set point for
219063 1 GS-0160 C 2
the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat coupling is broken opening valve is in the wrong "I" is too high
In the hydraulic crane circuit illustrated, which would activate directional activate directional activate directional activate directional
219065 4 be the correct hydraulic configuration required to valve 9 and shift valve 9 and shift valve 8 and shift valve 8 and shift GS-0161 B 2
raise the boom? spool valve to area 3 spool valve to area 1 spool valve to area 3 spool valve to area 1
relief valve control manual transfer
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, replenishing pump
shuttle has shifted to valve is in the wrong spring set point "I" is
the main pressure relief valve opens as the load discharge check
219066 1 the wrong position position for the main set too high for GS-0160 C 2
increases its strain on the system. The probable valves are
during windlass pump being normal loads
cause is the __________. continuously open
operation operated
In the hydraulic crane circuit illustrated, what is the Provide additional Provide additional Control the lowering Provide a pressure
219067 1 GS-0161 A 2
function of the component labeled #18? control when control when speed of the winch relief if the boom
The method of framing shown in the illustration
219100 1 transverse web Isherwood longitudinal GS-0086 A 2
utilizes the type of construction termed __________.
In ship construction, structural hull members installed
219100 2 deck beams stringers girders breasthooks A 2
athwart ship are __________.
In merchant ship construction, the term 'scantlings' factor of safety hull girder strength in designed size of the ICE strength
219100 3 C 2
refers to the __________. involved with the hog terms of the beams, stiffeners, classification of the

The structural members of the hull extending in a fore

219100 4 frames joiners longitudinals knees C 2
and aft direction are called __________.
In a longitudinally framed ship, the longitudinal

219100 5 frames are held in place and supported by athwart stringers web frames pillars brackets B 2
ship members called __________.
In ship construction, the hull frame members

219100 6 deck frames stringer frames longitudinal frames transverse frames D 2
extending athwart ship are called __________.
Vertical support members used to strengthen

219101 2 stiffeners panels stanchions brackets A 2
bulkheads are called __________.
Ship's bulkheads are reinforced against bending and

219101 3 stanchions girders stiffeners rabbits C 2
bulging with the addition of ________.
reduce liquid
minimize the effect restrict flooding separate cargoes in
219102 2 The purpose of swash bulkheads is to __________. movement and D 2
of a listing condition within a tank a common tank
surging within a tank
provide a secondary
The bleeder plug, or docking plug located on a motor indicate when the vent air from the tank empty the tank when
219104 1 means of tank D 2
vessel double bottom tank is used to __________. tank is pressed up when bunkering in dry-dock
sounding
Fill the tank with
Pressurize the tank
water via the ballast Fill the tank via the
with 10 psig air, soap Hose test the
The gasket and the broken studs have been replaced pump until the ballast pump until
the repaired area, repaired area with a
219105 1 on a tank manhole cover. Which of the following innage reading water flows from the C 2
watch for visible minimum of 100 psig
methods is satisfactory for testing the repair? corresponds to the vent line opening on
signs of leakage or water pressure.
maximum depth of deck.
bubbles.
the tank.
On the bottom of a
Under the counter
Where should you expect to find striking plates on In the bow of the fuel or ballast tank On the cofferdam
219106 1 above the propeller B 2
liquid storage tanks? ship at the waterline. under the sounding manhole.
blade tips.
tube.
The depth of fuel oil in a double bottom tank is

219106 2 vent line depth gage manhole cover sounding tube D 2
measured through the __________.
A lightening hole, shown in the illustration, is

219107 1 A H J all of the above GS-0086 C 2
identified by the letter '____.'

Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom

219107 3 pillars floors ceilings stanchions B 2
are known as __________.
empty space
empty space separating
cement baffle in a tank for storing
219108 1 A cofferdam is a/an __________. between tank tops compartments to D 2
fresh water tank chemicals
and bilges prevent the contents
of one compartment
doubler plating watertight boundary compartment
plating forming the
219108 2 The inner bottom of a ship is the __________. installed over the flat formed by the skin of between the tank top A 2
engine room tank top
keel plate the ship and skin of the ship
The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised plating forming the doubler plating a watertight compartments
219108 3 D 2
of __________. engine room tank top installed over the flat boundary formed by between the inner
The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of
219114 1 rider plate outer plate margin plate stealer plate C 2
the ship is called the __________.
In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in
strakes and assigned letter designations. If the at the turn of the
219114 2 the keel strake the drop strake the sheer strake D 2
strakes were lettered "A" through "K", the "K" strake bilge
will be __________.
The welded joint located between two plates in the
219114 3 bracket scarf lap butt D 2
same strake of hull plating is called a __________.
The garboard strake shown in the illustration is

219114 4 B D E F GS-0086 D 2
identified by the letter '____.'
at the very bottom just under the sheer at each side of the at the turn of the
219114 5 The garboard strake is located __________. C 2
center line keel bilge
In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in
strakes, with four of the strakes being specifically
219114 6 keel strake garboard strake bilge strake sheer strake B 2
identified by name. The strake next to the keel is
identified as the __________.
lower the center of reduce the amplitude
219114 7 The purpose of bilge keels is to __________. reduce pitching reduce yawing B 2
gravity of the ship of roll
In ship construction, the strakes are given letter turn of the bilge
219114 8 deck edge strake keel sheer strake B 2
designations beginning with the letter 'A.' The "A" strake

Pillar cross-sections of "I", "H", or circular are used in not pose any
most likely
ship construction in locations where there are large problem, provided
not be critical until loose practically all experience shear
expanses, void of intermediate decks and bulkheads, there are no cracked
219120 1 the vertical angle of its strength as a stress failure if not B 2
such as in cargo holds and engine rooms. A welds connecting it
approaches 15° support reinforced
supporting pillar which becomes bent out of vertical to any adjoining
immediately
will __________. strength members
In ship construction, which of the listed strengthening

219120 2 Pillars Girders Bulkheads All of the above D 2
members act to support the decks?
Vertical structural members used to support and

219120 3 transmit downward forces of a load are called pillars stanchions columns all of the above D 2
__________.
Structural members used to support and transmit the

219120 4 downward force of the load and distribute that force stringers gussets stanchions all of the above C 2
over a large area, are called __________.
The end joint formed by adjoining plates in a hull

219123 1 bracket scarph butt seam C 2
plating strake is properly identified as a __________.
The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily

219150 1 girders stanchions frames beams D 2
by deck longitudinals and deck __________.
The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse

219150 2 trusses deck longitudinals deck beams web frames C 2
members called __________.
In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders deckhouse

219150 3 bulkheads decks vertical frames C 2
which provide support to __________. structures
Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at

219150 4 longitudinally vertically transversely intermittently C 2
equal intervals and run __________.
Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU frames and beam
219151 1 bulkheads stringers deck longitudinals C 2
from being carried by the __________. brackets
In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular

219151 2 bulkhead frame stanchion deck longitudinal B 2
plates joining the deck beam to a __________.

Between the side frames of a MODU, support for the

219151 3 stanchions brackets web frames deck stringers A 2
deck beams is provided by __________.
The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through

219151 4 frames hull stringers plates A 2
the deck beams to the __________.
Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by

219151 5 beams girders frames bulkheads C 2
transverse __________.
A MODU having continuous closely spaced

219151 6 longitudinally framed transversely framed cellular framed web framed B 2
transverse strength members is __________.
Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a

219151 7 side longitudinals intercostals stiffeners brackets C 2
MODU are called __________.
When the longitudinal strength members of a MODU

219151 8 are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is transversely framed longitudinally framed intermittently framed web framed B 2
__________.
Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU

219151 9 stringers side frames side stiffeners intercostals A 2
side plating are called __________.
219152 1 Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________. compartmentation watertight integrity structural support tank boundaries A 2
Vertical partitions providing strength and

219152 2 compartmentation on a MODU are called decks bulkheads joiner work walls B 2
__________.

Regarding MODU construction, bulkheads in the

219152 3 structural watertight non-structural continuous C 2
quarters are generally __________.
Bulkheads forming part of the tanks on a MODU are deck loads from dynamic forces while
219154 1 hydrostatic pressure over pressurization C 2
stiffened to withstand __________. above afloat
increased capacity to decreased capacity

In MODU construction, a large number of watertight reduced greater deck load
219156 1 set flooding to set flooding A 2
bulkheads results in __________. compartmentation capacity
boundaries boundaries
A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU may
219156 2 structural bulkhead exterior bulkhead centerline bulkhead joiner bulkhead A 2
also be a/an __________.
Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually
219156 3 continuous watertight transverse non-watertight B 2
__________.
On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member

219162 1 Transverse Diagonal Longitudinal Vertical C 2
of the lower hull form and is laid in which direction?
Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior more corrosion

219162 2 stronger thinner a lower grade steel A 2
hull plating on a MODU is usually __________. resistant
Where is thicker plating usually found in the On the outside of the At the bottom of the At the top of the At the center of the
219162 3 B 2
construction of integral tanks on a MODU? tank. tank. tank. tank.
The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a

219169 1 stiffener beam stringer doubler C 2
MODU is called the deck __________.
On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboard most

219169 2 plating beam stiffener stanchion A 2
deck __________.
Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at

219170 1 longitudinally vertically transversely intermittently C 2
equal intervals and run __________.
The lines of new
When renewing only a portion of an entire hull plate The insert plate welding should, The corners of the The insert plate
219180 1 with an insert plate, which of the listed guidelines should cover at least where possible, lie in insert plate should should be at least A 2
should be followed? one full frame space. existing lines of be square. 9/16 thick.
welding.

The insert plate The lines of new

When renewing a portion of damaged hull plating with should cover at least welding should, The corners of the The insert plate
219180 2 a new insert plate, which of the listed guidelines one full frame space where possible, lie in insert plate should should be at least A 2
should be followed? and have rounded existing lines of be square. 9/16 thick.
corners. welding.
Cracks may be prevented from developing at the plug welding the slot welding the
219181 6 squaring the corners rounding the corners B 2
corners of welded plating inserts by __________. corners corners
The clearances
The clearances The clearances
between the stern
Which of the following clearance readings should be between the between the The rudder bearing
219182 1 tube packing gland C 2
taken and recorded in dry-dock? propeller blade tips propeller hub and clearances.
and the retaining
and the hull. the fair water cone.
ring.
When a new section of shell plating is being installed, minimize shrinkage ensure that all ensure all horizontal
provide the greatest
219183 1 the proper weld sequence must be followed to stresses and harmful weldments are down weldments are A 2
restraint in the weld
__________. distortion hand completed first
The location of a vessel's frame stations may be

219185 1 Profile Base line Cross section Buttock A 2
obtained from which of the listed drawings?
Cracks may be prevented from developing at the plug welding the slot welding the
219187 1 squaring the corners rounding the corners B 2
corners of welded plate inserts by __________. corners corners
A vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower

end and having a yoke, quadrant, or tiller fitted to its
219190 1 rudder frame rudder post rudder stock stern post C 2
upper portion by which it may be turned, is the
__________.
The rudder shown in the illustration is correctly semi-balanced

219192 1 balanced rudder unbalanced rudder contra-guided rudder GS-0131 C 2
termed a/an __________. rudder
The illustrated rudder shown is commonly referred to semi-balanced

219193 2 spade rudder unbalanced rudder full balanced rudder GS-0131 C 2
as a ________. rudder

With regards to the illustrated rudder, the pivot point

219194 1 and connection to the vessel is provided by rudder stock stern post clevis post gudgeon and pintle GS-0131 D 2
__________.
a large percentage a large percentage a large percentage
219200 1 Ferrous metals are metals containing __________. no iron C 2
of copper of iron of aluminum
The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed corrosion resisting

219201 1 wrought iron high alloy steel mild steel C 2
today are fabricated from __________. steel
With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the vapor cloud which toxicity at
capability of causing highly corrosive
219202 1 most significant characteristic of a cryogenic liquid is reacts violently with atmospheric A 2
brittle fractures action on mild steel
its __________. saltwater pressure
In modern ship construction, high tensile steel (HTS)

219204 1 the sheer strake the keel strake the margin strake all of the above D 2
may be permitted in __________.
The construction portfolio may be included as part of builders

219220 1 general plans operating manual Coast Guard file B 2
the MODU __________. documentation
The requirements for special welding procedures to

Certificate of
219220 2 be used on a MODU must be contained in the vessel plans Coast Guard file construction portfolio C 2
Inspection
__________.
For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the detailed construction chemical and approved welding loading conditions
219220 3 C 2
construction portfolio must contain __________. plans physical properties procedures and and limitations
A simplified construction plan may be included in the areas where special location of type and strength of
219220 4 hazardous areas A 2
MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately materials are used emergency
the ASTM orrepair
ABS materials used
In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which chemical and name of the
specification the manufacturer or
219220 5 do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must physical properties alternative standard A 2
material origin of the material
also include the __________. of the material or specification
approximates
A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals
219220 6 used in the construction of a MODU would be welding plan ASTM specifications construction portfolio Coast Guard file C 2
recorded in the __________.
A record of the types and strengths of steels used on builder's Certificate of
219220 7 general plans construction portfolio D 2
a MODU must be included in the __________. documentation Inspection
The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is
219226 1 required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating red and white yellow and white yellow and blue yellow and red C 2
colors of __________.
Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel landing area and
219226 2 storage tanks must have the tanks installed as far as sources of vapor main deck engine room drill floor A 2
practicable from the __________. ignition

What class of bulkhead is required around the galley

219228 1 Class A Class B Class C Class D A 2
on a MODU?
On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of

219228 2 each accommodation space must be located above the operating draft the survival draft the transit draft the deepest load line D 2
__________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning shall be arranged for must be made of must be power may be made of cast
219230 1 D 2
shutoff valves located inside fuel oil tanks, state that local control steel operated iron
According to 46 CFR Part 58, when installing a new The tank must be Iron or steel tanks The fuel tank shall
independent fuel tank for the emergency lighting located on an open shall be galvanized be insulated from the
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) define several

automatically permanently
acceptable means of closure for ballast and fuel oil manually operated corrosion resistant
219232 1 operated hinged installed canvas B 2
tank vents. One of the acceptable means is by the ball check valve wire screen
closure hood
use of a/an __________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) define several

automatically permanently
acceptable means of closure for ballast and fuel oil manually operated corrosion resistant
219232 2 operated hinged installed canvas B 2
tank vents. One of the acceptable means is by the ball check valve wire screen
closure hood
use of a/an __________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that tank

219233 1 sounding pipes terminating below the freeboard deck globe valve stop-check valve check valve gate valve D 2
of a cargo vessel must be fitted with a __________.

Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) require the upper

self-closing gate
219233 2 ends of sounding tubes, terminating at the weather quick-closing valve screwed cap globe valve B 2
valve
deck, to be closed by a __________.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require tank

219233 3 sounding tubes terminating above the weather deck globe valve stop-check valve gate valve screw cap or plug D 2
of a cargo vessel to be fitted with a __________.
Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil

tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by Coast Guard
219233 4 Washrooms Laundries crew lounge none of the above D 2
Regulations (46 CFR) to be located in which of the
listed spaces?

tanks on MODUs are permitted by Coast Guard
tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by Coast Guard
Regulations (46 CFR) to be located in which of the
listed spaces?
Provides a surface
Provides landing
for the application of
Which of the following describes the purpose of a surface for the Absorbs machinery Prevents valve stem
219234 1 force, or the B 2
striker or doubler plate? sounding bob of a vibration. over travel.
installation of
tank sounding tape.
machinery.
be so arranged to
suitably insulated be constructed of not be located at the
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) lamp, prevent excessive
from any woodwork steel or shall be end of a corridor in
219236 1 paint and oil lockers, and similar compartments shall movement of its B 2
or other combustible wholly lined with excess of forty feet
__________. contents during
matter metal in length
periods of foul
According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR

made of nylon or
Part 32), when reach rods to tank valves pass grounded with
219240 1 water tight gas tight other nonmetallic C 2
through the deck, the stuffing box at this joint must be bonding straps
material
__________.

provide convenient
enclose all pipes segregate a pipe
grouping of all piping
insulate piping from leading to a single from the
The purpose in constructing a pipe tunnel aboard a leading fore and aft
219241 1 ambient forward compartment D 2
vessel is to __________. from the machinery
temperatures compartment in their through which it
space for easy
own enclosure passes
access and control
internal combustion
Aboard tankers, the term Category "A" Machinery
internal combustion one or more oil fired machinery used for
Space, as defined by Coast Guard Regulations (46
219242 1 machinery used for boilers or oil fuel purposes other than all of the above D 2
CFR) means any space including trunks and ducts to
main propulsion units main propulsion
that space containing __________.
where the total
Two, both of which Two, both of which
According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Two, at least one of
Two, both of which are located as close must be vertical
Part 92), how many means of escape must be which shall be
219243 1 must be through together as possible ladders terminating C 2
provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered independent of
watertight doors. to centralize escape in locked watertight
or employed? watertight doors.
routes. scuttles.
between the as the first watertight

at the stern of the
219244 1 The collision bulkhead is located __________. on the bridge deck passenger and cargo bulkhead aft of the D 2
ship
areas bow in the ship
electrically controlled hydraulically tested at each tested within 12

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require watertight
219245 1 from a remote powered only for inspection for hours after leaving C 2
doors in cargo vessels to be __________.
location closing certification port
within 12 hours prior

Watertight doors on cargo vessels must be examined at each inspection at each cargo gear to any international at all fire and boat
219246 1 A 2
and tested by a Coast Guard inspector __________. for certification inspection voyage of 48 hours drills
or more
that if subjected to
of approved that if subjected to
with approved the standard fire test,
incombustible the standard fire test,
incombustible they would be
According to Coast Guard regulation (46 CFR), an materials, but need they would be
materials and made capable of
219247 1 "A" class division, bulkhead or deck shall be meet no capable of D 2
intact from deck to preventing the
constructed __________. requirements relative preventing the
deck and to shell or passage of flame
to the passage of passage of flame for
other boundaries and smoke for one
flame one half hour
hour
that if subjected to
of steel or equivalent of approved that if subjected to a
the standard fire test,
metal construction, incombustible standard fire test,
they would be
suitably stiffened and materials, but need they would be
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), a capable of
219247 2 made intact from meet no capable of C 2
"B" class bulkhead shall be constructed __________. preventing the
deck to deck and to requirements relative preventing the
passage of flame
shell or other to the passage of passage of flame for
and smoke for one
boundaries flame one half hour
hour

with approved of approved that if subjected to that if subjected to

According to Coast Guard regulation (46 CFR), a "C"
incombustible incombustible the standard fire test, the standards fire
219247 3 class division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed B 2
materials and made materials, but need they would be test, they would be
__________.
Which of the following statements is correct intact shall
They from be
deck to
kept meet no
All exhausts and capable of
The general capable of
This protection shall
concerning the regulations (46 CFR) regarding clear of and suitably uptakes shall run as construction of the be such as to be
219248 1 A 2
internal combustion engine exhausts, boiler and insulated from any close as possible to vessel shall be such capable of
galley uptakes, and similar sources of ignition? woodwork or other the horizontal and as to minimize noise preventing an
of many initial which develops a in which all
which is used to
operating tests series of time emergency
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR Part determine the flash
219249 1 performed on newly temperature firefighting and C 2
92), a standard fire test is one __________. point of various
commissioned relationships in a test related safety
marine fuels
boilers furnace equipment are tested
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) specifically
219251 1 cast iron bronze brass stainless steel A 2
prohibit seats or disks in pressure vessel relief valves
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), all
pressure vessels other than unfired steam boilers
shall be protected by pressure-relieving devices that
219251 2 5 percent 10 percent 15 percent 20 percent B 2
prevent the pressure from rising more than
__________ above the maximum allowable working
pressure.
Which of the following machinery remote control

Fuel oil transfer
219252 1 shutdowns is required to be tested during each Forced draft fan Induced draft fan All of the above D 2
pump
regular inspection for certification?
Which of the following intervals do Coast Guard

At each fire and boat At each inspection
219252 2 Regulations (46 CFR) require the remote cutout for Prior to each sailing Once each month D 2
drill for certification
the fuel oil service pumps to be tested?
According to 46 CFR Part 61, which of the following
machinery remote control shutdowns is/are required Fuel oil transfer
219252 3 Forced draft fan Induced draft fan All of the above D 2
to be tested during each regular inspection for pump
certification? Liquids should never If sea valves have Before refloating, all
be transferred been disassembled, sea chest strainers
Which of the following precautions should always be
219260 1 between tanks all bonnets must be should be verified as All of the above. D 2
carried out in dry- dock?
without consulting checked for leakage having been
the dock master. when the ship is replaced.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a
single steel hull cargo vessel operating exclusively in
219262 1 1 year 2 years 3 years 5 years D 2
freshwater, shall be drydocked, or hauled out, at
intervals not to exceed __________.
Authorized Official
Officer in Charge,
According to regulations (46 CFR), who may grant an Commandant CG Representative of Representative of
219266 1 Marine Inspection B 2
extension of the tailshaft examination interval? 543 the American Bureau the Naval Pollution
office
of Shipping Control Office
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit the Vessel Operator's Commandant (G- U.S. Maritime
219266 2 Senior ABS surveyor C 2
interval required for drawing certain tailshafts to be senior Port Engineer MOC) Administration

Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or

219268 1 the bow the stern the port side the starboard side B 2
left hand. A right hand propeller turns clockwise when
When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, controllable pitch suction back
219269 1 built up propeller solid propeller B 2
the propeller is called a __________. propeller propeller
more efficiently uses operates at a lower produces the same develops its rated
Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable
219269 2 available engine efficiency at a fixed torque at lower power at a lower A 2
pitch propeller __________.
power speed engine power speed
The conical steel or composition cone installed on a

Protect against
219270 1 propeller, known as a fairwater cone, provides which Reduce turbulence Help with lubrication All of the above A 2
electrolytic corrosion
of the following benefits?
The purpose of the propeller fairwater cone is to lock the propeller nut minimize water
219270 2 eliminate axial thrust eliminate cavitation B 2
__________. in position turbulence
The conical steel or composition cone installed on a
Helps with
219270 3 propeller, known as a fairwater cone, provides which Reduces turbidness Protects the nut All of the above C 2
lubrication
of the following benefits?
It receives its oil No shaft liner is The system pressure For precise
Which of the following statements best describes an supply from a branch needed in the area must be lowered regulation of the
219280 1 B 2
oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation? line of the main lube of the babbitted when maneuvering bearing temperature,
oil system. bearing surface. in port to prevent the system is
The system pressure Oil lubricated stern
It receives its oil No shaft liner is must be lowered tube bearings
Which of the following statements best describes an supply from a branch needed in the area when maneuvering operate partially
219280 2 B 2
oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation? line of the main lube of the babbitted in port to prevent submerged in oil at
oil system. bearing surface. blowing the outer oil low propeller
seal. speeds.
Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or

219281 1 rubber composition materials are lubricated with saltwater graphite light lubricating oil heavy lubricating oil A 2
__________.
Neoprene and
Which of the following statements represents an The bearing requires The bearing is Cathodic protection
rubber bearings
219281 3 operating characteristic of neoprene or rubber stern occasional normally lubricated for the propeller is B 2
require oil
tube bearings? adjustments. by seawater. not required.
lubrication.
The splash guard The face, seat, and
The entire assembly
Which of the following statements is true concerning remains stationary in sealing strip may be
219282 1 is of the split-type All of the above. GS-0135 D 2
the shaft seal shown in the illustration? relation to the repaired or replaced
construction.
rotating shaft. in an emergency
Which of the following statements describes the It eliminates the It is fully automatic in It allows for the Each of the above is
219282 2 D 2
advantage of the mechanical shaft sealing system repairing or renewing operation. removal and correct.

To allow repair or To eliminate leakage

Which of the following statements describes the To serve as a seal To provide a ready
replacement of the via the propeller
219282 3 purpose of the split inflatable seal installed aft of the when adding packing means for the entry B 2
primary seal shaft when the shaft
primary seal assembly for the propeller shaft? to the stuffing box. of cooling water.
elements when the is not rotating.
Shown in the illustration is a mechanical shaft seal
219282 4 drive alignment bolts adapter plate bellows inflatable seal GS-0135 C 2
providing constant surface contact, regardless of hull
The device used to retain the packing, that keeps
219283 1 packing nut hawsepipe stuffing box seal cage C 2
water from entering the ship through the opening
An excessive amount of water is prevented from
219283 2 propeller hub lignum vitae shaft packing labyrinth seal C 2
entering a vessel using a water lubricated stern tube
Stern tube packing

Which of the devices listed prevents water from Deflector ring and
219283 3 or mechanical shaft Spring bearings Oiler rings A 2
entering a ship's hull via the propulsion shaft? drain
seal
The tail shaft of an ocean going vessel is usually

219290 1 spring bearings tail bearings stern tube bearings propeller bearings C 2
supported by the __________.
Which combination of the main shaft segments listed

below, that are located furthest from the main engine, Line shaft and thrust Line shaft and stern- Thrust shaft and Stern-tube shaft and
219292 2 B 2
are connected by the inboard stern tube shaft shaft tube shaft stern-tube shaft tail shaft
coupling?
By which of the following means is force efficiently

219300 1 provided to vary the pitch of the blades on a modern Hydraulic Mechanical Pneumatic Electrical A 2
controllable pitch propeller?
The propeller blade pitch angle change is caused by The internal ring
219302 1 The crosshead. The sliding block. The crankpin ring. GS-0172 A 2
axial movement of what component in the hub body gear.
The propeller is
The hub purge valve serves to relieve pressure in the The propeller is During periods of
stroked beyond its During periods thrust
219304 1 forward chamber of the servomotor cylinder in a CPP stroked beyond its high-pressure oil GS-0172 B 2
full ahead pitch loading.
system when what situation occurs? full astern limits. surge.
limits. prevent seawater provide static head provide dynamic
provide extra oil for
The function of the head tank on a CPP system is to from entering the pressure for head pressure for
219305 1 maintaining the B 2
_________. hydraulic system maintaining proper maintaining proper
normal sump level
when it is secured control oil pressure high-pressure oil
The direction in which the control oil servo valve
219306 1 signal timing input signal polarity input feedback timing. feedback polarity GS-0170 B 2
opens and directs control oil to the oil distribution
If your ship is experiencing slow, erratic, or no pitch high pressure air electro hydraulic feedback
219307 2 pneumatic clutch GS-0170 C 2
response to normal CPP system commands, you supply servo potentiometer

When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural

vibrating frequency become synchronized at a
219310 2 breakaway speed critical speed synchronous speed sympathetic speed B 2
particular speed, that speed is known as the
__________.
When a rotating engine shaft frequency and the

natural harmonic vibration frequency become
219310 3 synchronous speed sympathetic speed critical speed breakaway speed C 2
synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is
known as the ________.
If water were a semisolid, the linear distance a

blade thickness
219320 1 propeller would advance in one revolution is the mean width ratio pitch skew back factor C 2
fraction
__________.
Propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by

219320 2 apparent slip true slip pitch propulsive efficiency A 2
the propeller pitch speed is termed __________.
A ship travels 234.02 nautical miles in 24 hours at an

average propeller speed of 60 RPM. If the propeller
219320 3 17.95% 20.46% 22.10% 26.20% A 2
pitch is 20.07 feet, what is the propeller slip during
this passage?
flush all dirt and grit

In a water cooled stern tube, a slight leakage of water flush all dirt and grit keep the gland keep the stern tube
219330 1 from the bearing C 2
across the packing gland is provided to __________. from the gland packing cool fair water cool
staves
flush out silt and

When a vessel is underway, a small amount of water ensure positive prevent seizing of
mud which can prevent overheating
219330 2 is allowed to leak through the water lubricated stern coolant flow through the rubber strips in B 2
accumulate from of the packing
tube stuffing box in order to __________. the strut bearings the bearing bushing
shallow water
the gland is properly cooling water is the gland nuts must

In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the adjusted to permit a stave-type rubber supplied from the be tightly taken up to
219330 3 A 2
stern tube stuffing box, __________. slight leakage of sea seals are used fresh water cooling prevent any water
water system leakage
Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricated closed, and no closed, and only open, and no open, and only slight
219330 4 B 2
stern tube. When at sea, operating under normal leakage permitted slight leakage leakage permitted leakage permitted
Water leaking through the stern tube stuffing box is
219330 5 Cooling Lubrication Flushing All of the above D 2
used to accomplish which of the following actions?
provide a positive
assist in flushing out flush out brackish serve as the only
flow of water through
The stern tube flushing connection can be used to all packing strips water resulting from source of supply of
219330 6 the stern tube for B 2
_________, when renewing extended in port water for the stern
lubricating, cooling,
packing underway operation tube bearing
and flushing when

a layer of oxidation
The exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is a covering of plastic,
a corrosion-resistant formed when the
219360 1 protected against seawater corrosion by a heavy lubricant rubber, or shrunk-on B 2
paint metal of the shaft is
__________. composition sleeve
exposed to seawater
Which of the following nondestructive testing

219361 1 methods can be used to detect a suspected Dye penetrant Magnetic particle Ultrasonic All of the above C 2
subsurface defect in a tail shaft liner?
Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater
The packing is
lubricated stern tube stuffing boxes, is usually The stuffing box is The drain connection The stuffing box
219371 1 adjusted for greater C 2
observed when the ship is expected to be in port for continually flushed. is left opened. gland is tightened.
cooling or replaced.
an extended period?
The lignum vitae in a stern tube bearing is normally
219380 1 grease oil water tallow C 2
lubricated with __________.
Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of operating at low high water pressure operating in deep
219390 1 cavitation C 2
__________. speed under the hull river channels
A piece missing from one blade of a four-bladed accelerated stern excessive shaft
219390 2 unusual noises all of the above D 2
propeller could result in __________. bearing wear vibrations
Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller

219390 3 clutch slippage overheated bearings high engine speeds propeller unbalance D 2
shafting can be an indication of __________.
excessive engine slight overheating of

Unusual hull, or propeller shaft vibrations can be slop in a hydraulic high engine speed in
219390 4 speed in shallow the line shaft spring A 2
caused by __________. clutch deep water
water bearings
The result of a blow delivered by a heavy sea causing

219391 1 pounding pitching hogging sagging A 2
rapid vibrations of the elastic portions of the ships hull
examine the install new docking

When a vessel is in dry-dock, the vessel's engineers chip and paint all hull inspect the hull for
219401 1 condition of the plugs in all A 2
should __________. protection zincs hogging or sagging
propeller cofferdams
Which of the following alarms and instrumentation is

219402 1 not required for a vessel incorporating a controllable Pitch indicator Low oil temperature High oil pressure Low oil pressure B 2
pitch propeller in its main propulsion system?

Independent remote After installation in The arrangement of

A pitch indicator is to control of pitch is to the vessel, the piping is to be such
be fitted on the be provided at or complete piping that a single failure
Which of the statements listed accurately applies to
219403 1 navigation bridge for near the oil system is to be in one part of the D 2
controllable pitch propeller systems?
vessels 400 gross distribution box. subjected to a piping or pump unit
tons and above. Tests of its operation hydrostatic test will not impair the
A propeller may not are to be
When performed
steel equalexposed
The to 1.25 steel
timesof integrity
Ultrasonicof the
be changed with one propellers are used, the shaft is to be examinations of the
219404 1 of a different pitch zinc anodes are to protected from the propeller may be C 2
concerning requirements for propellers?
unless stress be fitted on the action of the water performed in lieu of
One of the determining factors regulating the time evaluations are aftermost
Stress strut
relief grooves by filling is
Keyway alltospaces
be cut required dry-docking
interval for drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon Sprocketed keyway at the forward end of so as to give a sharp
219410 2 All of the above. B 2
the design to reduce stress concentrations. Which of and slotted key. the propeller and aft rise from the bottom
the following factors, in part, would be considered to end of the liner. of the keyway to the
According to 46 CFR, the tailshafts of a twin screw

each time the vessel at least twice every at every annual at least once every
219410 3 ocean going vessel must be examined and inspected D 2
is dry-docked five years inspection five years
in the presence of a marine inspector ______.
According to 46 CFR, the tailshafts of a twin screw

each time the vessel at least twice every at every annual at least once every
219410 4 ocean going vessel must be examined and inspected D 2
is dry-docked five years inspection five years
in the presence of a marine inspector ______.
The propeller hub

The stern bearing The shaft liner
When the tail shaft is drawn from a vessel in dry- taper and shaft The interior of the
alignment with the should be removed
219411 1 dock, which of the following inspections is required to keyway should be stern tube should be A 2
stern frame should and inspected for
be carried out? inspected for cracks inspected for leaks.
be checked. cracks.
or corrosion.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require a single
tail shaft with water lubricated tail shaft bearings,
219412 2 2 years 3 years 5 years 8 years C 2
stress- relieved keyway, and fabricated from materials
resistant
Accordingtotocorrosion
46 CFR by sea water,
Subpart 61.20toregarding
be drawnthe
and
periodic tests of machinery and equipment, what is
the maximum tail shaft to stern tube bearing
clearance (at the after end of the stern tube) that
219414 1 0.25 0.3125 0.374 0.4375 B 2
would require rebushing for a vessel in ocean
service, with an aft propulsion machinery space, a
14" diameter tail shaft, and a water lubricated stern
tube vessel
The bearinghas
constructed of material
its propulsion otherlocated
machinery than
amidships, using a water lubricated stern tube Pull tail shaft and Pull tail shaft and Pull tail shaft and Nothing, as the
219414 3 bearing, to carry a tail shaft of a 15 inch (38.1 cm) replace the bronze replace the lignum buildup the bronze reading is within the D 2
diameter. During the inspection the wear between the liner. vitae. liner. allowable limits.
stern tube and the bearing surface was measured as

According to 46 CFR Part 61, what is the maximum

allowable permitted wear on a stern tube bushing for
219414 5 1/4 inch 5/16 inch 3/8 inch 1/2 inch B 2
a vessel that has its propelling machinery located
amidships, with
Following the a water lubricated
withdrawal of the tail stern
shaft,tube bearing
which non-
destructive test could be used to locate cracks?
I. liquid penetrant dye the place in the
the port where the
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 same marine
vessel is where one or more
219450 1 CFR), the hailing port marked on the stern of a vessel inspection zone all of the above A 2
permanently of the owners reside
indicates __________. where the vessel
documented
was built
An international and coastwise load line assignment
and certificate has been issued to a vessel by the
219451 1 American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of 1 year 2 years 4 years 5 years D 2
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), for a period of
__________.
Who is responsible for completing the Muster List

219452 1 ("Station Bill") or muster list and posting it in a visible Chief Engineer Master U. S. Coast Guard None of the above B 2
area aboard the vessel?
Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is

219453 1 assigned to close the watertight doors in an Coast Guard Master of the vessel Chief Engineer Chief Mate B 2
emergency?
The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the
check if any of the
Certificate of Inspection reads as follows: 3 call the port captain sail because your request a waiver
firemen have enough
219454 1 firemen/watertenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to and request another crew requirements from the Coast B 2
time for an oiler's
depart on a foreign voyage, and has in the crew: 3 oiler are filled Guard
endorsement
firemen/watertenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose
The minimum number of crew members permitted by
Muster List ("Station Certificate of
219470 1 law to operate your vessel can be determined by A. B. S. Certificate Master's crew list D 2
Bill") Inspection
checking the __________.
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 all of the above,

a specific period of
CFR), a steam propelled cargo vessel over 25 gross a time period not depending upon the
219474 1 one voyage only time to cover a D 2
tons may have a Certificate of Inspection issued for exceeding 2 years pertinent
described situation
__________. circumstances
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 all of the above,

a specific period of
CFR), a steam propelled cargo vessel over 25 gross a time period not depending upon the
219474 2 one voyage only time to cover a D 2
tons may have a Certificate of Inspection issued for exceeding 5 years pertinent
described situation
__________. circumstances

where possible, be be undertaken only

The annual reinspection of a tank vessel, holding a
made between the be preceded by when all cargo tanks
two year Certificate of Inspection endorsed,
tenth and fourteenth written application by
are empty, gas free,
219475 1 'Inspected and Approved for the Carriage of all of the above A 2
month of the period the master, owner, or
and made accessible
Flammable or Combustible Liquids of Grade A' must
for which the agent of the vessel
for internal
__________.
certificate is valid examination
The annual reinspection of a tank vessel, holding a where possible, be be undertaken only
be preceded by
two year Certificate of Inspection endorsed, made between the when all cargo tanks
written application by
219475 2 'Inspected and Approved for the Carriage of tenth and fourteenth are empty, gas free, all of the above A 2
the master, owner, or
Flammable or Combustible Liquids of Grade A', must month of the period and made accessible
agent of the vessel
__________. for which the for internal
Minerals
permanent
Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore Operations Manual Management classification society
219476 2 Certificate of D 2
drilling units are effective until the __________. is approved Service approval is approval is issued
Inspection is issued
issued
when the immediate until all minor to cover an expired
According to 46 CFR Part 91, a temporary Certificate
issuance of a deficiencies (CG- permanent under all of the
219476 3 of Inspection, Form CG-854, may be issued to a self A 2
Certificate of 835's) found by the Certificate of above situations
propelled cargo vessel __________.
Inspection is not CG inspector during Inspection provided
According to 46 CFR Part 91, which of the following Application may be To prevent any A reinspection of a
219477 2 All of the above. D 2
statements concerning a vessel's Coast Guard made for inspection delay, a temporary vessel holding a
The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was Inform the nearest Defer informing the Inform the Coast Replace the pump,
issued in January. In March of the same year you Officer in Charge, Coast Guard of the Guard if the as the Coast Guard
219478 1 need to replace a cooling water pump for the Marine Inspection of pump's replacement replacement will need not be D 2
refrigeration system. What action would be the pump until the mid-period involve welding or informed of the
appropriate? replacement. inspection. burning. pump replacement.
The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained U.S.C.G. Firefighting U.S.C.G. Equipment vessel's Certificate of vessel's current
219479 1 C 2
onboard a tank vessel, can be determined from the Manual for Tank List Inspection articles
The vessel's firefighting equipment is listed on the Muster List ("Station Certificate of
219479 2 official ship's paper hull certificate D 2
__________. Bill") Inspection
Where would you find a list of the firefighting Certificate of Muster List ("Station
219479 3 Official logbook In the captain's desk A 2
equipment required on your vessel? Inspection Bill")
Prior to the burning or welding of a fuel tank on a

the Officer in the Master or person the National Fire
MODU, regulations require that an inspection be
219517 1 a marine chemist Charge, Marine in charge of the Protection C 2
made. An entry in the unofficial logbook is required if
Inspection MODU Association
this inspection is made by __________.

The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting the name of the
the weight of the recommendations for
219518 1 equipment on board a MODU must include person conducting all of the above A 2
charge the next test
__________. the test
How long must the records of tests and inspections of Until the next
219518 2 fire fighting equipment for a MODU be retained on Six months One year Three years inspection for C 2
board? certification
The condition of all
fire fighting The name of each
What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the equipment, The location of the crew member who
219520 2 master or person in charge of a mobile offshore watertight door unit at the time each participated in the All of the above. A 2
drilling unit after conducting a fire drill? mechanisms, and drill is conducted. drill and their
valves used during responsibilities.
each drill.
the names of crew the length of time
the length of time the
After conducting a boat drill, the master or person in members who that each motor the time it took to
219520 3 lifeboat was in the B 2
charge of MODU shall log __________. participated in the propelled lifeboat lower the boat
water
drill was operated in the
After conducting a boat drill on a mobile offshore The condition of the The name of the life The location of the
The time it took to
219520 4 drilling unit, which of the following is the master or equipment used boatman in charge of vessel at the time of A 2
lower the boat.
person in charge required to enter into the logbook? during the drill. each lifeboat. the drill.
With regard to the opening and closing of watertight The name of the
The reason for The fact that the hull
appliances not fitted with a remote operating control The time required to person performing
219524 1 opening or closing indicators functioned B 2
or alarm system, which of the following is the master close the appliances. the opening and
each appliance. or not.
or person in charge of a MODU required to enter in closing
The date ofof
such
Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be
The time required to The time required to inspection and
219526 1 inspected and an entry made in the logbook. What All of the above. C 2
lower a lifeboat. raise a lifeboat. condition of the
should this entry include?
winch.
To determine the number of industrial personnel Muster List ("Station Safety of Life at Sea Certificate of
219527 1 operations manual C 2
allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should Bill") Certificate Inspection
To determine the number of inflatable liferafts
Certificate of
219527 2 required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should load line certificate operations manual Stability letter D 2
Inspection
check the __________.
only casualties which

The master or person in charge of a MODU is the date and hour of the names of all every event
219527 3 occur while A 2
required to log __________. each fire drill persons on board occurring on board
underway
According to the regulations for mobile offshore
drilling units, 'industrial personnel' are considered to the crew required by
the operator's the designated
219527 4 be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole the Certificate of the galley personnel B 2
representative person in charge
purpose of carrying out the industrial business of the Inspection
unit, except for __________.
Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are
219529 1 24 months 36 months 48 months 60 months D 2
issued for a period of __________.

A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended failure to attend having your wages being responsible for conviction of any
219540 1 C 2
or revoked for __________. safety meetings garnished an oil spill ashore misdemeanor ashore
entitles you to be
can be suspended or
master of
revoked upon must be renewed serves in lieu of a U.
219540 2 Your Coast Guard engineer's license __________. uninspected motor A 2
satisfactory proof of every 2 years S. Passport
vessels under 100
negligence
tons
the violation of
A Coast Guard issued engineer's license may be the violation of a the commission of
219540 3 federal water all of the above D 2
suspended or revoked for __________. narcotic drug law an act of misconduct
pollution law
How often must a U.S. Coast Guard engineering

219540 4 Annually Every 3 years Every 5 years Every 10 years C 2
license be renewed?
preparing a list of taking a complete determining if any obtaining a valid

The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of engine department personal inventory of vital engine room Certification of
219542 1 C 2
the department include __________. personnel for the all engine room equipment is Inspection from the
Master's signature spare parts inoperative Coast Guard
Compressed, Mixed with nitrogen
A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off
condensed, and Vented to the Burned in the and recirculated
219560 1 during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off C 2
return to the cargo atmosphere. boilers. through the primary
normally handled?
tanks. barrier.
Compressed, Mixed with nitrogen
A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off
condensed, and Vented to the Burned in the and recirculated
219560 3 during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off C 2
return to the cargo atmosphere. boilers. through the primary
normally handled?
tanks.
The permit can only barrier.
No freight or The permit can only
be issued if the
Which of the following is true concerning the issuance passengers are be issued upon
vessel currently has
219562 1 and use of Coast Guard form 948 'Permit to Proceed allowed to be carried written application by All of the above. C 2
a valid unexpired
to Another Port for Repairs'? when the vessel is the master, owner, or
Coast Guard
issued the permit. agent of the vessel.
Certificate of Vessel to undergo an
Which of the following conditions require the Coast Replacement in kind
Breaking of a safety unscheduled dry-
219563 1 Guard Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection be of ship's service 265 All of the above. D 2
valve seal. docking solely for the
notified? psi air receiver.
The renewal of a A vessel being purpose
A of painting
hydrostatic proof
superheater safety placed in dry-dock test at design
Which of the following would require the Officer in
219563 2 valve with one of the for the purpose of pressure, conducted All of the above. D 2
Charge, Marine Inspection be notified?
same kind that was repainting the by the ship's force, in
A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the certified by a Coast underwater portion which the safety
engine room causing $(USA)30,000 damage to the insurance
219564 2 engine manufacturer owner or his agent U.S. Coast Guard C 2
machinery. By law, this must be reported to the underwriter
__________. principal surveyor of
Oil sprays on to a hot piece of machinery, catches fire Officer in Charge, U.S. Salvage
nearest Coast Guard the American Bureau
219564 3 and causes $35,000 damage to your vessel. By law Marine Inspection at Association Survey B 2
unit of Shipping at the
this must be reported to the __________. the first port of arrival at the next U.S. port
next U.S. port

If hot oil comes in contact with a diesel engine U.S.C.G. Officer in

turbocharger, catches fire, and causes in excess of American Bureau of Charge, Marine
219564 4 engine manufacturer vessel underwriters C 2
$(USA)25,000 damage to your ship, by law this must Shipping Inspection at the
be reported to the __________. next port
A saltwater leak shorts out your switchboard causing
a fire which does $(USA)27,500 damage to the insurance
219564 6 U.S. Coast Guard harbormaster port engineer B 2
electrical equipment. This must be reported to the underwriter
__________.
An air tank rusts out, explodes and causes $(USA) the owner or his the insurance the U.S. Coast
219564 7 no one C 2
24,000 damage to the engine room. By law, this agent underwriter Guard
damage to the the vessel was a crewmember was
According to 46 CFRs, the master of a commercial
vessel due to a intentionally placed on light duty
vessel is required to submit a marine casualty report
219564 8 collision is estimated grounded because for two days due to a all of the above B 2
form CG 2692 to the nearest Coast Guard Marine
between $15,000 the bilge pumps sprained wrist and
Safety Office if ______.
and $20,000 were unable to was required to wear
An air tank rusts out, explodes, and causes in excess
of $(USA)25,000 damage to the engine room. By law insurance
219564 9 owner or his agent air tank underwriter U.S. Coast Guard D 2
according to 46 CFR Part 4, this accident must be underwriter
reported to the __________.
A chief engineer's responsibilities include making flash point (closed
logbook entries whenever fuel oil is received. In name of the oil cup method) of the
219565 1 name of the vendor all of the above D 2
accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), producer fuel oil certified by
this log entry must include the __________. the producer
Ensuring that the Seeing that all Obtaining a sample
emergency lighting lifeboat winch control of all fuel oil received
In accordance with the Coast Guard Regulations (46 and power systems apparatus including on board to be used
CFR), which of the following situations requires an are operated and motor controllers, as fuel along with
219566 1 All of the above. C 2
official logbook entry and is considered the inspected at least limit switches, etc. ascertaining all
responsibility of the chief engineer? once in each week are examined at particulars such as
the vessel is least once in each 3 vendor, producer,
navigated. months. flash point, etc.
it can be sent ashore return to the first
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 to the proper oil U.S. port where
CFR), it is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire company personnel upon it must be sent
the voyage is that particular supply
219568 1 and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel for testing and the ashore for chemical B 2
completed of oil is exhausted
oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved results entered in the analysis and the
until __________. Oil Record Book, CG- findings submitted to
480 the nearest Officer in
A 'Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death', Coast
the death of a yard the incapacitation of
Guard form 2692, must be filed with the Officer in the incapacitation of
219569 3 or harbor worker in a yard worker due to All of the above. D 2
Charge, Marine Inspection when a shipboard an injured crewman
the engine room a boiler flareback
casualty results in __________.

According to 46 CFR, when estimating the cost of

collision damage to a tank vessel after a marine Cost to off-load the Cost to gas-free the Cost to dry-dock the
accident, which of the following should NOT be current cargo cargo tanks vessel
included in the repair cost estimate?
According to 46 CFRs, when estimating the cost of
collision damage to a tank vessel after a marine Cost to off-load the Cost to gas-free the Cost to dry-dock the
accident, which of the following should NOT be current cargo cargo tanks vessel
included in the repair cost estimate? saltwater a total of fresh water a total of saltwater a total of
Coast Guard regulations for small passenger vessels
more than 9 months more than 9 months more than 6 months saltwater
of less than 100 gross tons require drydocking or
219580 1 in the 18 month in the 18 month in the 18 month continuously for 18 A 2
hauling out at intervals not to exceed 18 months if
period since it was period since it was period since it was months
operated in __________.
Small passenger vessel of less than 100 gross tons last dry-docked or last dry-docked or last dry-docked or 6 months or less in
more than 9 months less than 9 months 30 months in the last
shall be drydocked or hauled out at intervals not to each 12 month
219580 2 in the last 18 month in each of the last 12 36 months since dry- D 2
exceed 36 months if it is operated in saltwater a total period since it was
period months docking or haul out
of___________. last dry-docked
in saltwater 6 or
in saltwater a total of
Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons 6 months in fresh months or less within
exclusively in fresh 9 months in the 18
219580 3 shall be drydocked or hauled out at intervals not to water and 6 months each 12 months B 2
water months since last dry-
exceed 60 months if it operates __________. in salt water period since dry-
dock period
docking
be permissible
be made at anytime
not be made without without the be made only when
Major repairs or alterations affecting the safety of convenient to the
the knowledge and knowledge and Coast Guard
219581 1 small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons vessel operator A 2
approval of the approval of the Administrative Form
shall __________. without prior
OCMI Officer in Charge of 2892 is submitted
approval
Marine Inspection
During the inspection for certification of small
passenger vessel of less than 100 gross tons, a
tubular heat hydraulic refrigeration service
219582 1 hydrostatic test of 1- 1/4 times the maximum oil fired boilers D 2
exchangers accumulators heat exchangers
allowable working pressure shall be made to
__________. require to be marked
On small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross required to be on both sides in
not required to be
219583 1 tons, watertight doors and watertight hatches are marked, but on only clearly legible letters none of the above C 2
marked
__________. one side at least 25
millimeters ( 1 inch)

of at least 1-inch,
not to exceed 1-inch
'watertight door-
All watertight doors and watertight hatches on small 'watertight door- of at least 1-inch, not to exceed 1-inch,
close in an
219583 2 passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons are close in emergency' 'emergency exit, 'emergency exit, A 2
emergency' or
required to be marked in letters __________. or 'watertight hatch- keep clear' keep clear'
'watertight hatch-
close in emergency'
close in emergency'
According to the Regulations, all escape hatches and exterior side, in less
exterior side only, in both sides, in at least both sides, in at least
other emergency exits on small passenger vessels of than 2-inch letters at least 2-inch letters 2-inch letters 2-inch letters
219584 1 D 2
less than 100 gross tons shall be marked on 'watertight opening-'emergency exit- 'watertight door- 'emergency exit-
__________. keep clear' keep clear' close in emergency' keep clear'
portable battery
illuminated
operated and have
Emergency lighting on small passenger vessels of illuminated at all automatically and
sufficient capacity for
219585 1 less than 100 gross tons for lounge areas below the times while vessel is actuated upon failure both "A" and "C" B 2
8 hours of
main deck shall be __________. underway of the main lighting
continuous
system
provided between separated from operations separated from
each of these accommodation accommodations
On small passenger vessels, separation of machinery not considered as
219586 1 spaces by watertight spaces by watertight spaces by non- B 2
and fuel tank spaces shall be __________. essential
and/or vapor tight and/or vapor tight continuous
bulkheads bulkheads bulkheads
Deck rails on passenger decks of vessels engaged in
219587 1 30 inches high 36 inches high 39 1/2 inches high 42 inches high D 2
a ferry or excursion type operation shall be at least
at least one
a continuous watertight bulkhead
Each vessel designed to carry more than 49 a minimum of four
219588 1 longitudinal a collision bulkhead to prevent fire B 2
passengers must have __________. watertight bulkheads
watertight bulkhead advancement for 2
only be placed in be provided with non- hours
Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in incorporate be kept as high and
transverse watertight packed slip joints for
219589 1 a vessel of less than 100 gross tons must approved sluice as far inboard as D 2
bulkheads that expansion to permit
__________. valves practicable
extendantoacceptable
using the passage of piping or metallic shut off
the rigid non-metallic two non-remotely
The penetration of watertight bulkheads and
metallic fitting, plastic pipe is at valves are welded to operated metallic
219590 1 watertight decks by rigid nonmetallic piping is A 2
welded or otherwise least of schedule nonmetallic hull valves are installed
prohibited except when __________.
is attached to the 160 and a metallic materials on either
after theyside
haveof the
A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be immediately after after they have
before they have received training and
219600 1 assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. they have received observed the skill D 2
received training personally practiced
Ideally you should assess their skill __________. training demonstrated once
If a specifically trained and qualified person is NOT the skill
any licensed officer
on board a vessel to assess a new officer trainees any rating forming
219601 2 the vessel owner at the management All of the above C 2
practical demonstration or skills, the demonstration part of the watch
level
can be conducted, when provided with guidance, and

determine the
establish if the
One important objective of a practical skill institute busy work subjectively prevent degree of
trainee can perform
219602 2 demonstration for mariner certification is to for both the trainee trainee's from being competence of the D 2
certain tasks at a
__________. and assessor licensed or certified trainee during the
later time
assessment
create a unique set refer to a checklist evaluate according sign off the
In order to assess each trainee in the performance of
of subjective that represents the to their discretion, remaining half of all
219603 1 a practical demonstration, the assessor should B 2
questions for each skill process as simply by their ability skills to be
__________.
trainee required on board to "tell" when a demonstrated based
ability to perform the ability to perform the
When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful practical specific task not only knowledge of how to
219604 1 completion of one or more practical demonstrations, demonstration only overall competency at the time of perform the task and A 2
they are attesting to the trainee's____________. at the time the skill demonstration, but nothing more
was assessed also for the future
at any time of the only when the within the last six
The assessment of a trainee's practical within the normal
day, particularly trainee first arrives hours that the
219605 1 demonstration of skills should be conducted routine of vessel's A 2
outside normal on board, and trainee will be on
__________. operation
operations preferably within the the
board the practical
entire vessel
another license the majority of any demonstration has
A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's the pre-brief with the
officer has witnessed portion of the skill been successfully
219606 1 performance of a practical demonstration should sign trainee has been D 2
the performance of has been completed and
off when __________. completed
the demonstration demonstrated personally observed
repeatability in a consistent a methodology by by the licensed
One function of the model checklists provided for the
observing the standard in the which elements of
219607 1 conduct of a practical demonstration is to promote all of the above D 2
assessment of the assessment of the the missed practical
__________.
task to be task
modifyto be
the checklist demonstration can
totally disregard the
When a training program provides a company and/or use each specific to reflect the
model checklist and
its vessels the model checklists by which a trainee checklist as it was specifics of the
219608 1 develop their own all of the above B 2
will be deemed proficient, the ship's officers should presented and equipment, systems,
based on their own
__________. without deviation and operating
vessel standards
parameters for the
219608 2 test test test test test A 2
In terms of the running of a refrigeration compressor, frequently grounding frequently starting

222000 1 running too fast running too slow B 2
what is meant by the term "short-cycling"? out and stopping
If a compressor starts and stops very frequently, what

222000 2 long-timing short-timing long-cycling short-cycling D 2
term is used to describe this behavior?

When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration

222001 1 system through the suction line, what is this condition flooding back superheating overflowing recycling A 2
called?
The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the latent heat of specific heat of
222050 1 sensible heat refrigerating effect C 2
evaporator is known as what? vaporization vaporization
lower the reduce the possibility

What is the function of a heat interchanger used in a temperature of liquid of liquid refrigerant minimize sweating of
222051 1 All of the above. D 2
refrigeration system? refrigerant before from flooding back to the suction line
entering the the compressor
Refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or maintain adequate prevent flashing in reduce refrigerant reduce compressor
222052 3 B 2
air conditioning system condenser for what purpose? coil back pressure the liquid line volume in the system discharge line
minimize the
increase the allow the refrigerant increase the temperature drop of
What is the principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerating effect by to enter the throttling refrigerating effect by the liquid as it
222052 4 A 2
refrigerant prior to its entering the expansion valve? decreasing the device in a saturated increasing the passes through the
amount of flash gas condition amount of flash gas solenoid valve to the
outlet side
Subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature
condensing compression
222052 5 of the liquid refrigerant below what temperature or freezing point floc point C 2
point?
increasing the installing the

The presence of gas in the liquid line of a
distance between using a larger evaporator at a
222052 6 refrigeration system is undesirable and can be sub cooling the liquid C 2
the evaporator and expansion valve higher level than the
eliminated by what action?
condenser condenser
reduce the
reduce the possibility
reduce the possibility temperature of liquid
An economizer, or heat interchanger, is installed in a of liquid refrigerant
222053 1 of sweating of the refrigerant prior to all of the above D 2
refrigeration system for what purpose? flooding back to the
suction line entering the
compressor
expansion valve
reduce the possibility raise the refrigerant

A liquid line to suction line heat interchanger in a raise the cool the suction
of liquid refrigerant saturation
222053 2 refrigeration system using a reciprocating compressor temperature of liquid vapor returning to A 2
slugging the temperature in the
serves what function? refrigerant the compressor
compressor evaporator

A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration the solenoid valve to the compressor to flash gas to form in the expansion valve
222059 1 C 2
system may cause what condition? seize hunt the liquid line to freeze open
A pressure drop through the refrigerant liquid line solenoid valve to formation of flash expansion valve to
222059 2 compressor to hunt C 2
may cause what to occur? seize gas in the liquid line freeze open
In a refrigeration system, the heat normally producing the hot gas bypass the portion of liquid exposure to the high exposure to the high
222060 1 the flash gas at the thermostatic expansion valve, is connection at the refrigerant which ambient temperature ambient temperature B 2
obtained by what means? three-way valve does not flash within the coil of the cooled space
'Respiratory heat' is a term applied primarily to which

222061 2 Fresh vegetables Fresh meat Frozen vegetables Frozen meat A 2
of the following cargoes?
In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would
222061 3 expect to see the greatest temperature drop across evaporator receiver compressor condenser D 2
what system component?
In a small refrigeration appliance using HFC-134a
thermal expansion
222061 4 you would expect to see the greatest temperature evaporator compressor receiver B 2
valve
drop across which system component?
The amount of heat The amount of heat The amount of heat The amount of heat
required to change required to change required to change required to change
Which of the listed statements describes specific
222062 1 the temperature of one pound of a solid one pound of a liquid one pound of solid A 2
heat?
one pound of a material to a liquid or material to a vapor material to a vapor
material, one degree vice versa. or vice versa. or vice versa.
In consulting the R-134a pressure- temperature chart
222063 3 2.0 psig 22.1 psig 30.7 psig 45.5 psig GS-RA-11 B 2
shown in the illustration, what would be the most
222063 4 likely normal running suction pressure for a reach-in 2.0 psig 6.5 psig 15.0 psig 27.8 psig GS-RA-11 A 2
freezer, assuming the box temperature is within
normal range?
222063 5 likely normal running suction pressure for an air 18.5 psig 35.1 psig 45.5 psig 75.0 psig GS-RA-11 B 2
conditioner, assuming the space temperature is within
normal range?
for every pressure,
for every pressure, for every pressure, for every pressure,
there is a
In consulting the refrigerant pressure- enthalpy there is a there is a there is a
corresponding
diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is corresponding corresponding corresponding
222063 6 temperature GS-RA-20 B 2
true concerning the pressure/temperature temperature as long temperature as long temperature as long
regardless of the
relationship? as the refrigerant is as the refrigerant is as the refrigerant is
condition of the
sub cooled saturated superheated
refrigerant

it is the line it is the line it is the line it is the line

In consulting the refrigerant pressure- enthalpy corresponding to the corresponding to the corresponding to the corresponding to the
222063 7 diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is 0% quality line, 100% quality line, 0% quality line, 100% quality line, GS-RA-20 A 2
true concerning the saturated liquid line? representing 0% representing 0% representing 0% representing 0%
vapor and 100% vapor and 100% liquid and 100% liquid and 100%
it is the line it is the line it is the line it is the line
corresponding to the corresponding to the corresponding to the corresponding to the
In consulting the refrigerant pressure- enthalpy
0% quality line, 100% quality line, 0% quality line, 100% quality line,
222063 8 diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is GS-RA-20 D 2
representing 0% representing 0% representing 0% representing 0%
true concerning the saturated vapor line?
vapor and 100% vapor and 100% liquid and 100% liquid and 100%
liquid liquid vapor vapor
In consulting the refrigerant pressure- enthalpy and

mechanical refrigeration system diagrams shown in
the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow,
222063 9 A to B B to E E to F F to A GS-RA-21 A 2
what letters in the pressure- enthalpy diagram
correspond to points 5 and 6 on the refrigeration
cycle diagram?
222063 10 the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow, A to B B to D E to F H to I GS-RA-21 B 2
the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow,
222063 11 A to B B to E E to F F to A GS-RA-21 C 2
cycle diagram?
222063 12 the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow, A to B B to E E to F G to J GS-RA-21 D 2
If air at 95°F dry bulb temperature and 50% relative
humidity is conditioned to 75°F dry bulb temperature cooling and cooling and
222120 1 cooling only adiabatic cooling C 2
and 50% relative humidity, this is an example of what humidifying dehumidifying
type of process (or processes)?
The amount of moisture in a given sample of air,
when compared with the amount of moisture the air
222120 2 absolute humidity specific humidity effective humidity relative humidity D 2
could hold if totally saturated at the existing
temperature of the sample, is called what?
The process of removing moisture from air is known
222120 3 humidification dehumidification vaporization evaporation B 2
as what?

In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the

222120 4 superheated saturated condensed convected B 2
maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a specific
When air at a given temperature contains the
222120 5 superheated saturated condensing evaporating B 2
maximum amount of moisture for that temperature,
The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb
twice the dry bulb 10°F above the dry 5°F above the dry equal to the dry bulb
222120 6 temperature is what compared to the dry bulb D 2
temperature bulb temperature bulb temperature temperature
temperature?
The temperature at which water vapor in the dew point condensation psychometric absolute humidity
222120 7 A 2
atmosphere begins to condense is called what? temperature temperature temperature temperature
The dew point is reached when the wet bulb

equal to the dry bulb twice the dry bulb 100°F less than the 50°F above the dry
222120 8 temperature relates to the dry bulb temperature in A 2
temperature temperature dry bulb temperature bulb temperature
what manner?
When air is at its dew point and there is no change in
it has a low absolute it has the lowest it cannot give up its it will gain no
222120 9 either the temperature or pressure, what is true about D 2
humidity relative humidity moisture additional moisture
the air?
Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is

222123 1 moisturizing dehumidification dampening humidification D 2
known as what?
When using a sling psychrometer to determine

partial saturation
222124 1 relative humidity, the indicated difference between the relative humidity dew point wet bulb 'depression' C 2
temperature
dry bulb and the wet bulb reading is known as what?
The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can
222124 2 hair copper plastic steel A 2
be made of what substance?
Relative humidity can be determined by using a compound

222124 3 hydrometer sling psychrometer aneroid barometer B 2
psychometric chart and what device? barometer
The effective temperature of air is dependent upon
what factor or factors?
I. relative humidity II. air velocity
If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,
there is a significant possibility that which of the
following conditions could occur?
If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,
there is a significant possibility for which of the
Any air mixture whose dew point remains constant
222128 1 will also have another unchanging property. Which of dry bulb temperature wet bulb temperature specific humidity specific volume C 2
the following properties will remain unchanged?
The latent heat content of water vapor in air is
222129 1 dry bulb temperature wet bulb temperature dew point dry point C 2
dependent upon which of the listed temperatures or

The sensible heat of air is dependent upon what saturation water vapor
222129 2 dry bulb temperature wet bulb temperature A 2
quality of air? temperature superheat
The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a
222131 1 absolute humidity relative humidity specific humidity total humidity B 2
given volume of air, to the weight of moisture that the
If condensation collects and drips off an evaporator
it is at a maximum of it is above 32°F, but it is at 21°F but, it is below 32°F and
222134 1 coil, what best describes the operating temperature of B 2
21°F below the dew point above the dew point below the dew point
the coil?
be above the dry
In air has 100% relative humidity, how would the wet be above the dry be below the dry be the same as the bulb temperature,
222137 1 C 2
bulb temperature relate to the dry bulb temperature? bulb temperature bulb temperature dry bulb temperature but below the
saturation
As the amount of moisture in the air increases, what
be greatest at dew
222137 2 will happen to the difference between the dry bulb increase decrease remain unchanged B 2
point
and wet bulb temperatures?
it is between the wet
When air contains some moisture, but is not it is equal to the total it is higher than the it is lower than the
222137 3 and dry bulb D 2
saturated, what is true concerning the dew point? heat of air wet bulb temperature dry bulb temperature
temperatures
the air is at its the air is at its
In terms of humidity, when air is at its dew point, the air is at its lowest the air is at its lowest
222137 4 highest absolute highest relative D 2
which of the following is true? absolute humidity relative humidity
humidity humidity
A cargo hold has been determined to have a relative
humidity of 80% and a dry bulb temperature of 85°F.
222138 1 decrease increase decrease to zero remain unchanged B 2
When the hold is closed up by closing the cargo hold
hatch and the dry bulb temperature decreases, what
If the air temperature increases while the atmospheric have a greater absorb less free become
give up moisture as
222139 1 pressure remains constant, what will happen to the capacity to absorb atmospheric supersaturated at A 2
condensation
air? moisture moisture high relative humidity
Under standard atmospheric conditions, if air is the capability of the the air is capable of the air will become the air is capable of
222139 3 B 2
raised to a higher temperature, which of the following air to absorb free absorbing more free supersaturated at absorbing less free
they reduce the they reduce the
they prevent Freon
they hold water possibility of possibility of
Vapor barrier seals used in the insulation on vapor from
222140 1 vapor on the cold moisture laden warm moisture laden cold C 2
refrigerated space boundaries serve what function? saturating the
side of the insulation air from outside the air from inside the
insulation
refrigerated space refrigerated space
Cold air can hold Heating a sample of

Under standard atmospheric conditions, which of the Dry air is heavier Dry air is lighter than
222141 1 more moisture than air will increase its A 2
following is true concerning the characteristics of air? than moist air. moist air.
warm air. relative humidity.
The pressure difference between the system cut-in opposing operational

222150 1 pressure distribution differential range C 2
and cut-out pressures of a refrigeration unit low drag
The pressure is The pressure is The pressure is The pressure is
directly read on the directly read on the directly read on the directly read on the
When taking readings at the suction service valve of compound gauge compound gauge compound gauge compound gauge
222151 1 an operating refrigeration compressor to determine pressure scale and pressure scale and pressure scale and pressure scale and C 2
pressure and temperature, what statement is true? the temperature is the temperature is the temperature is the temperature is
directly read on the directly read on a directly read on a directly read on the
compound gauge separate separate compound gauge

222160 1 Which chemical symbol represents ammonia? AM3 AMn3 NM3 NH3 D 2
Considering systems with equal capacities for heat Dichlorodifluorometh Monochlorodifluorom

222163 1 Ammonia Carbon Dioxide A 2
removal, which refrigeration system can employ the ane ethane
iron, steel, and

Pure anhydrous ammonia is considered noncorrosive copper-bearing
222165 1 iron and steel only steel only copper-bearing C 2
to what metal or metals? metals only
metals
When used as a refrigerant, ammonia containing

222165 2 moisture will act as a corrosive mixture to what metal steel only brass and bronze iron only iron and steel B 2
or metals?
Which piping material is recommended to be used in
222166 1 extra heavy duty sizes in ammonia refrigeration Steel Monel Bronze Copper A 2
system construction?
the concentration the concentration the concentration the concentration
If ammonia vapor is lighter than air, what statement
would be lower near would be dependent would of minimum would be lower near
222167 1 concerning the concentration of ammonia would be D 2
the overhead of an upon available free importance during the deck of an
true should a leak occur?
enclosed space hydrogen ions venting procedures enclosed space
If the temperature of the ammonia gas in the
the process of
discharge piping and the condenser of a refrigeration the refrigeration the unit will begin to the vapor will cease
222168 1 sublimation will C 2
system remains above the critical tempeature of effect increases sub cool to condense
begin
266°F, which of the following is true?
Which of the following refrigerants will normally All of the above are
222169 1 R-134 Ammonia R-22 B 2
require a compressor that is water cooled? correct.
Under normal conditions ammonia refrigerant should liquid line service suction service discharge service expansion valve side
222170 1 A 2
be charged into which of the following connections of connection connection connection port connection
Which of the listed valves should be closed when
222170 2 Master valve Suction service Discharge service King valve D 2
charging ammonia into a refrigeration system?
apply an
If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia contact physicians flush the affected remove all
222171 1 antibacterial C 2
refrigerant, what should be your immediate reaction? health care area with water necessary clothing
ointment
One of the primary steps in assisting someone who

provide the victim rinse the affected give the patient
222171 2 has been overcome by ammonia vapors is to do loosen all clothing D 2
with smelling salts area with water plenty of fresh air
what?

Using a sulphur candle for leak detection for

222172 1 pink white yellow blue B 2
anhydrous ammonia, in the presence of an ammonia
Which of the following devices is the safest to use All of the above are
222172 2 Litmus paper Sulphur candle Halide torch A 2
when locating ammonia leaks? recommended.
An ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus

222172 3 orange red purple blue D 2
paper to what color?
Which refrigeration system will absolutely require the

222174 1 use of an oil separator located in the discharge line R-401A R-717 (ammonia) R-134a R-22 B 2
due to a lack of refrigerant-oil miscibility?
In a refrigeration system, at what component does
222200 1 compressor condenser receiver evaporator D 2
the refrigerant absorb the latent heat of vaporization?
The component of a refrigerating system in which the
222200 2 condenser vapor generator accumulator evaporator D 2
refrigerant vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as
The liquid receiver A thermostatic Refrigerant Dehydrators must be
functions to collect expansion valve is temperature in an used continuously in
222201 1 concerning a typical shipboard multi-coil refrigeration C 2
and remove non- used to control evaporator is directly a refrigeration
system?
condensable gases. refrigerated space related to refrigerant system.
Under normal conditions, the refrigerant enters the
222250 1 compressor in an operating refrigeration system in liquid dry saturated gas wet saturated gas superheated vapor D 2
what condition and/or state?
What condition listed would be associated with an increased capacity of more efficient decreased capacity loss of receiver
222251 1 C 2
excessively high suction temperature as a result of the compressor operation of the of the compressor capacity
In which of the listed refrigeration system
222252 1 components does superheating of the refrigerant take Expansion valve Evaporator Drier Receiver B 2
place?
Double trunk pistons are used in some refrigeration increasing producing higher minimizing free eliminating the need
222252 2 C 2
compressors to reduce oil foaming in the crankcase compressor compression contact between for a shaft seal
The low-pressure refrigerant leaves the evaporator of high temperature

222252 3 sub cooled liquid oil saturated liquid superheated vapor D 2
a refrigeration system in what condition? liquid
Which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors

222253 1 can be designed with very short, very large diameter Reciprocating Rotary Screw Centrifugal D 2
suction lines?

In a mechanical refrigeration system, in addition to

the degree of the degree of the degree of the degree of
the high and low side pressure differential, what is the
222255 1 opening of the king opening of the water opening of the box opening of the D 2
amount of refrigerant admitted to the evaporator
solenoid valve regulating valve solenoid valve expansion valve
directly related to?
The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor
222256 1 superheated saturated dense flooded A 2
should be in what condition?
Which of the listed refrigeration system components

222258 1 Expansion valve Condenser Evaporator Compressor D 2
keeps the refrigerant circulating through the system?
Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration

222258 2 compressor condenser expansion valve evaporator A 2
system by the action of what component?
In the order of the direction of flow, the low pressure
expansion valve to receiver to the expansion valve to condenser to the
222300 1 side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist A 2
the compressor expansion coil the evaporator expansion valve
between what two components?
The low pressure side of the illustrated multi-
evaporator refrigeration system associated with the
222301 2 common and freeze box circuit, shown in the 37 and F 23 and A 37 and B 37 and A GS-RA-12 D 2
illustration, is located between what two
components?
The low pressure side of the refrigeration system, as
222301 3 shown in the illustration, in the order of flow, is "5" and "10" "1" and "5" "11" and "7" "7" and "11" GS-RA-02 D 2
located between what two components?
The high pressure side of the refrigeration system, as
222301 4 shown in the illustration, in the order of flow, is "5" and "10" "1" and "5" "11" and "7" "7" and "11" GS-RA-02 C 2
located between what two components?
Which of the following components is the refrigeration

222301 5 "3" "4" "7" "8" GS-RA-02 D 2
system evaporator?
Which of the following components is the refrigeration

222301 6 "3" "4" "7" "8" GS-RA-02 A 2
system condenser?
Through which of the components shown in the

thermostatic
222301 7 illustration is flash gas formation a normal evaporator coil condenser coil receiver tank GS-RA-25 A 2
expansion valve
occurrence?
The temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator refrigerant pressure cooling water heat load in the solenoid valve in the
222302 1 A 2
coil depends mostly upon what factor? in the evaporator temperature to the refrigerator liquid line

the compressor the compressor increased ice excessive short

An increase in the heat load subjected to a
222303 1 suction pressure to suction pressure to formation on the cycling of the B 2
refrigeration system will cause what to happen?
decrease increase evaporator coil compressor
In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, the

222304 1 temperature of the liquid refrigerant experiences its evaporator compressor expansion valve condenser C 2
greatest decrease flowing through what component?
During the operation of a large multi- box refrigeration high side pressure amount of sub
low side pressure low side pressure
system, using a fixed capacity compressor, only two would drop by 25 psi cooling via the
222305 1 would temporarily would temporarily C 2
of the five boxes are in the process of actively being at the beginning of condenser would
increase decrease
cooled.the
During If two additional
operation of aboxes were
five box to be brought
refrigeration the cooling period increase by
increase, while
remain the same, remain the same increase, with an
system, using a fixed capacity compressor, two maintaining the
222305 2 with a decrease in with an increase in increase in suction D 2
additional boxes came on line with the two boxes previous suction
suction pressure suction pressure pressure
already
As in the to
compared active cooling process.
the temperature At the period
maintenance pressure
increase, while
when the box temperatures are within normal remain the same, remain the same increase, with an
maintaining the
222305 3 operating range, the beginning of a temperature pull- with a decrease in with an increase in increase in suction D 2
normal suction
down period after loading stores of a multibox suction pressure suction pressure pressure
pressure
refrigeration system, the operating conditions of the
As flowing through the valves labeled "26" and "34" in
222350 2 low pressure gas low pressure liquid high pressure gas high pressure liquid GS-RA-12 D 2
the illustrated refrigeration plant schematic diagram,
In the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration system
associated with the common and chill box circuit,
222351 2 B and 29 B and 23 A and 29 B and 37 GS-RA-12 A 2
refrigerant exists as a subcooled liquid between what
twothe
In components?
illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration system
associated with the common and freeze box circuit,
222351 3 B and 29 B and 23 A and 29 B and 37 GS-RA-12 D 2
refrigerant exists as a subcooled liquid between what
two components?
In the order of the direction of flow, which of the listed
components is considered to separate the high The condenser and The king valve and The compressor and The condenser and
222352 1 C 2
pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from the low the expansion valve the solenoid valve the expansion valve the solenoid valve
pressure side of the cycle?
In a typical refrigeration system, refrigerant leaving
back pressure
222354 2 the receiver will then flow to what system evaporator coils liquid line strainer condenser B 2
regulator
component?
If R-502, which is a mixture comprised of 48.8% R-22

and 51.2% R-115, is recovered from a refrigeration
222388 1 either R-22 or R-115 R-22 only R-115 only R-502 only D 2
system, it must be placed in a recovery tank
containing which refrigrant?

HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration

it may be recycled it may be reclaimed it must be destroyed,
system prior to and in preparation for condenser it may returned to
222391 2 into a system that as a low pressure as it can no longer C 2
replacement. What is true concerning the recovered the system for re-use
had used HCFC-11 system refrigerant be re-used
refrigerant?
higher boiling lower boiling

boiling pressure
In terms of the conditions associated with the boiling temperature for a temperature for a boiling point will not
equal to that of a
222400 1 process, what impact does oil in solution mixed with given pressure than given pressure than be affected by A 2
pure refrigerant at a
the liquid refrigerant have? does a pure does a pure entrained oil
given pressure
refrigerant refrigerant
In a typical refrigeration system, where is the at the compressor at the compressor in the expansion
222401 2 in the receiver A 2
temperature of the refrigerant gas at the highest? discharge suction valve
As shown in the illustrated multi- evaporator
222401 3 "9" "16" "18" "20" GS-RA-12 B 2
refrigeration system, through what labeled valve
As shown in the illustrated multi- evaporator

222401 4 refrigeration system, through what labeled valve 16 18 20 32 GS-RA-12 D 2
would the refrigerant temperature be the lowest?
minimum chill box minimum freeze box
chill box space freeze box space
If the valve labeled "23" in the illustration is set for a evaporator coil evaporator coil
222403 2 temperature will temperature will GS-RA-12 C 2
higher pressure, what will be the direct result? temperature will temperature will
increase increase
According to the data provided in the illustrated table, increase increase
The compression
if the low side saturation temperature is maintained at ratio cannot be
222405 2 4.68 to 1 10.65 to 1 17.2 to 1 GS-RA-23 A 2
5°F and the high side saturation temperature is calculated from this
maintained at 86°F, what is the compression ratio of data
According to the data provided in the illustrated table, The compression
222405 3 8.81 to 1 9.43 to 1 123.6 to 1 GS-RA-23 B 2
if the low side ratio cannot be
Refrigerants that experience fractionation when azeotropic mixture of single component zeotropic blend of single component
222410 2 C 2
changing state are characterized as what? refrigerants organic refrigerants refrigerants inorganic refrigerants
Which of the following terms represents the form of Latent heat of
222450 1 Heat of compression Superheat All of the above D 2
heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of vaporization
The heat removed from the refrigerant in the latent heat of sensible heat of
222450 2 heat of compression all of the above C 2
condenser of a refrigeration plant is known as what? expansion condensation
Which of the following forms of heat is removed from Latent heat of
222450 3 Heat of compression Superheat All of the above D 2
the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration vaporization
passing the gaseous
The only means of removing the latent heat of condensing maintaining a high
passing it through refrigerant through
222452 1 condensation from a refrigerant in the normal refrigerant in the pressure on the B 2
the expansion valve the heat
refrigeration cycle is by performing what process? system condenser system's receiver
interchanger on the

222453 1 Refrigerant enters the condenser in what condition? high pressure liquid low pressure vapor high pressure vapor low pressure liquid C 2
purge non-
A purge-recovery unit is used in a centrifugal air recover water
purge lube oil from separate foul gases condensable gases
222454 1 conditioning or refrigeration system for what purged from the D 2
the liquid refrigerant from the receiver while minimizing the
purpose? system
loss of refrigerant
The EPA allows a large low pressure system to be

adding excess adding heat with
222456 1 brought to atmopsheric pressure during non-major adding nitrogen adding CFC-22 C 2
refrigerant controlled hot water
repairs by what means?
The high pressure cut-out switch used on
refrigeration units for low pressure systems is set to
222457 1 1 psig 5 psig 10 psig 15 psig C 2
shut off the compressor at which of the following
pressures?
The high pressure cut-out switch used on centrifugal
low pressure refrigeration units using R-123 would be
222457 2 1 psig 10 psig 50 psig 100 psig B 2
set to shut off the compressor at approximately what
pressure?
The inlet of the purge-recovery units used with some
222458 1 compressors in low pressure refrigeration systems is economizer condenser compressor evaporator B 2
connected to the top of what system component?
The rupture disc used on low pressure refrigerant

222459 1 1 psig 5 psig 10 psig 15 psig D 2
storage containers is set for what pressure?
The mixture will The mixture boils at The mixture will The mixture boils at
condense at a a temperature equal condense at a a temperature
Some newly developed compound refrigerants, used
temperature lower to the boiling point of temperature equal to independent of any
222462 1 to reduce stratospheric ozone depletion, are referred D 2
than the boiling point the component with the highest individual
to as azeotropic mixtures. What does this mean?
of the component the lowest boiling condensation point components in the
with the lowest point of the component mixture
Which of the following represents the chemical
222470 1 O O2 O3 Oz C 2
formula for ozone?
Large quantities of halogenated chlorofluorocarbons

when released from refrigeration systems, will
222471 1 bathosphere ionosphere stratosphere troposphere C 2
contribute to ozone depletion in which region of the
atmopshere?
Industrial process and commercial CFC type

refrigeration equipment with annual leak rates of 35%
222475 1 or more, require leak repair of the system if it 15 pounds (6.8 kg) 25 pounds (11.4 kg) 40 pounds (18.1 kg) 50 pounds (22.6 kg) D 2
contains a refrigerant charge of more than what
quantity?

Most Freon refrigerants are originated primarily from ammonia and carbon methane and sulfur
222476 1 ammonia and ethane ethane and methane D 2
which of the following base molecules? dioxide dioxide
Which chemical, when released into the atmosphere,

222477 2 has been found to eventually reach the stratosphere fluorine chlorine nitrogen carbon B 2
and react unfavorably with the earths ozone layer?
The refrigerants referred to as CFC's are considered partially

222478 1 fully halogenated partially halogenated fully hydrogenated A 2
to be what? hydrogenated
Which refrigerant listed is considered to have the

222478 2 R-12 R-134A R-123 R-22 A 2
highest ozone depletion potential?
CFC refrigerants exposed to high temperature or

222498 1 direct flame, will decompose and may produce what methyl chloride ammonia hydrofluoric acid ozone C 2
chemical substance?
HCFC-123 presents health threats to service

flammability as a freezing in the being caustic and
222499 1 technicians, which may include which of the toxic threat C 2
liquid compressor strong offensive odor
following?
If a stateroom has a 6" by 12" opening through which

222500 1 air travels at 100 feet per minute, what is the volume 36 cu ft/min 50 cu ft/min 72 cu ft/min 100 cu ft/min B 2
of air being supplied to the stateroom?
If a stateroom has a 5 inch by 12 inch opening
through which the air travels at 100 feet per minute,
222500 2 41.6 cu. ft/min 51.6 cu. ft/min 61.6 cu. ft/min 81.6 cu. ft/min A 2
what is the volume of air being supplied to the
stateroom?
It forces 2,000 lbs. of It has the cooling It has the cooling
It forces 2,000 lbs. of
A one ton air conditioning system has which of the refrigerant through capacity equivalent capacity equivalent
222550 2 air per hour across C 2
listed operating characteristics? the evaporator coil to melting 2,000 lbs. to melting 2,000 lbs.
the evaporator coils.
per day. of ice per day. of ice per hour.

A 25 ton refrigeration A thermostatic

Dehydrators must be The liquid receiver
system has the expansion valve is
Which of the listed statements is correct concerning used continuously in functions to collect
222551 1 same cooling effect used to control B 2
refrigeration systems? a refrigeration and remove non-
as melting 25 tons of refrigerated space
system. condensable gases.
ice in 24 hours. temperature.
One refrigeration ton is equal to which of the following

222552 1 180 BTU/hr 2,000 BTU/hr 12,000 BTU/hr 2,880,000 BTU/day C 2
heat removal rates?
How much heat per hour can a 5 ton refrigeration unit

222552 2 60,000 BTU/hr 80,000 BTU/hr 100,000 BTU/hr 120,000 BTU/hr A 2
remove from a refrigerated space?
What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration

222554 1 2.5 3 4 5 C 2
system rated at 48,000 BTU per hour?
If an air conditioning system were rated at 24,000

222554 2 BTU, what would be the equivalent tonnage of the 1 ton 2 tons 3 tons 4 tons B 2
unit?
If a refrigerated space has associated with it a heat

222554 3 load of 60,000 BTU/hour, what size refrigeration unit 3 ton 4 ton 4.5 ton 5 ton D 2
would be required?
If a refrigeration system extracted 48,000 BTU per

222554 4 hour from the refriogerated space, what would be the 2 tons 4 tons 6 tons 8 tons B 2
equivalent tonnage of the unit?
An air conditioning system, required to remove from

222554 5 33,000 to 35,000 BTU per hour, should have a 1.5 tons 2.0 tons 2.5 tons 3.0 tons D 2
minimum capacity of what tonnage?
What is the theoretical time necessary to reduce the
temperature of 40,000 pounds of onions (placed in a
refrigerated container) from 75°F to a set point
222555 1 6 hours 5 minutes 13 hours 16 minutes 26 hours 48 minutes 52 hours 12 minutes C 2
temperature of 46°F? [The specific heat of onions is
0.90 BTU/LB/°F. The trailer heat gain is 6,500 BTU/hr,
with a properly operating refrigeration cooling
Your vessel has received a refrigeration container of Saturday at 0012 Saturday at 0724 Saturday at 1242 Saturday at 2242
222555 2 D 2
16 long tons of cabbage, loaded at 1700 hours on hours. hours. hours. hours.

A refrigerated container filled with 10,000 lbs. of

strawberries has been loaded on your ship. The set
Do nothing as the The compressor is Add Freon to the unit
point of the box is 35°F and the interior box Replace the liquid
222555 3 system is operating worn out and should to increase the A 2
temperature is 90°F, and after 7 hrs. 37 minutes the line strainer.
correctly. be replaced. refrigeration effect.
box is lowered to 60°F. Based on the following
information,
The vessel haswhich of the a
received listed steps should
refrigerated be
container
loaded with 9 long tons of ice cream. The current box
temperature is 31°F but has a normal set point of
minus 10°F. Under ideal conditions how long will it
222555 4 take to pull the box temperature down to set point, if 6 hours 48 minutes 7 hours 58 minutes 8 hours 57 minutes 9 hours 38 minutes C 2
the equipment is operating properly? [Specific heat of
the cargo equals 0.39 BTU/LB/°F, with a container
heat gain of 6,000 BTU/hr, and a refrigeration system
capacity of 3.5 tons]
Which of the listed statements is correct concerning One refrigeration ton One refrigeration ton One refrigeration ton One refrigeration ton
222558 1 D 2
refrigeration system heat removal capacity is true? is equivalent to the is equivalent to the is equivalent to the is equivalent to the
A thermostatic
Dehydrators must be One refrigeration ton The liquid receiver
expansion valve is
Which of the listed statements is correct concerning used continuously in is equivalent to the functions to collect
222559 2 used to control B 2
refrigeration systems? a refrigeration removal of 288,000 and remove non-
refrigerated space
system. btu per day condensable gases.
temperature.
In a simple saturated cycle, an R-134a refrigeration
222570 3 55.41 BTU/lb 70.39 BTU/lb 90.77 BTU/lb 105.75 BTU/lb GS-RA-23 A 2
system has a high side pressure of 123.58 psig and a
In a simple saturated cycle, an R-134a refrigeration
system has a high side pressure of 96.626 psig and a
low side pressure of 9.0751 psig. Using this
222570 4 62.33 BTU/lb 73.44 BTU/lb 88.29 BTU/lb 99.41 BTU/lb GS-RA-23 A 2
information and the data shown in the illustration,
determine the refrigeration effect per pound of
refrigerant
A reheater circulated, neglecting system
in an air conditioning any subcooling
performsor controls the inlet air controls the inlet air maintains the restores the
222600 1 D 2
what function? temperature volume relative humidity at conditioned air
A reheater, as used in an air conditioning system, is chilled water dew point primary air dry bulb room
222600 2 D 2
designed to control what temperature? temperature temperature temperature temperature
In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the

222650 1 exhaust chamber plenum chamber intake chamber vapor chamber B 2
chamber where the duct-work originates?
Which of the fluids listed is normally used to

Seawater or Fresh Calcium Sulfate
222700 2 condense the primary refrigerant in an indirect Engine jacket water Sodium Nitrate brine. B 2
water. brine.
shipboard central air conditioning system?
Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a
222703 1 R-22 R-123 R-134a R-227 B 2
suitable and limited ozone producing alternative for R-
Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a
222703 2 R-22 R-123 R-134a R-227 B 2
suitable replacement for R-11?
Which of the following refrigerants is an interim
222703 4 R-500 R-134a R-12 R-123 D 2
retrofit replacement for R-11?
Which of the following represents a low- pressure
222703 5 R-12 R-22 R-502 R-123 D 2
refrigerant as defined by EPA regulation?

Which group of three refrigerants are considered low CFC-11, CFC-113 CFC-11, CFC-113 CFC-11, R-502 and CFC-11, CFC-114
222703 8 B 2
pressure refrigerants under the Clean Air act rules? and R-502 and HCFC-123 HCFC-123 and R-502
A common secondary refrigerant used in air

222750 1 R-123 water nitrogen hydrogen B 2
conditioning systems aboard ship is what substance?
controlling the hot

controlling the controlling the gas bypass flow
In the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal controlling the chilled
condenser water compressor gas flow directly from the
222750 2 chiller refrigerant flow circuit, by what means is the water flow through GS-RA-26 B 2
flow through the via the inlet guide compressor
heat removal capacity of the system regulated? the cooler
condenser vanes discharge to the
cooler
In the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal
chiller refrigerant flow circuit, what is the functional
purpose of the turbine?
222750 3 I only II only Both I and I Neither I nor II GS-RA-26 C 2
I. functions as a metering/expansion device
maintaining a pressure differential between the high
and low pressure sides of the system
In the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal
222750 4 I only II only Both I and I Neither I nor II GS-RA-26 C 2
chiller refrigerant flow circuit, what is the functional
A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard
222751 1 methyl chloride treated water carbon dioxide trichloroethylene B 2
air conditioning systems is what substance?
the eductor uses oil the eductor uses gas the eductor uses oil the eductor uses gas
As showin the illustrated R-134a high pressure
from the lube oil from the compressor from the lube oil from the compressor
222751 2 centrifugal chiller lubricating oil circuit, what is GS-RA-27 B 2
pump discharge as a discharge as a pump discharge as a discharge as a
statement is true concerning the eductor?
working fluid, pulling working fluid, pulling working fluid, pulling working fluid, pulling
As shown the illustrated R-134a high pressure with a lube oil cooler with a lube oil cooler with a lube oil cooler the lubricating oil GS-RA-26
222751 3 C 2
centrifugal chiller refrigerant flow and lubricating oil using condensing using cooler using liquid temperature is GS-RA-27
As shown the illustrated water-cooled rotary chiller suction gas discharge gas chilled water inlet chilled water outlet
222751 4 GS-RA-29 B 2
refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, which of thermistor thermistor thermistor thermistor
As shown the illustrated water-cooled rotary chiller
refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, which of suction gas discharge gas chilled water inlet chilled water outlet
222751 5 GS-RA-29 D 2
the listed thermistors is used as a sensor for the thermistor thermistor thermistor thermistor
capacity control system loader solenoid valves?

refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, which of discharge pressure oil pressure and oil pressure and discharge pressure
222751 6 the listed transducers are used as a sensors for and suction pressure economizer pressure suction pressure and oil pressure GS-RA-29 B 2
determining pressure differential in controlling the transducers transducers transducers transducers
operation of the oil pump?


refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, what is the
functional purpose of the economizer?
222751 7 I. Provide a cooling medium for the hermetic motor I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II GS-RA-29 C 2
windings
II. Improve the overall efficiency of the plant

What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air more temperature increased moisture reduced slime and increased density of
222752 1 C 2
circulation in an air conditioned cargo space? differential content mold the air
In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion

the same refrigerant
222800 2 valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system distilled water bees wax mercuric sulfate B 2
as the system
is usually charged with what substance?
In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the

222801 1 liquid refrigerant passes through the condenser evaporator chiller economizer expansion valve C 2
directly to what component?
pressure difference
Flash gas formed in the liquid line of a direct pressure at
expansion valve pins expansion valve across the
222802 1 reciprocating air conditioning system may cause what expansion valve inlet B 2
and seats to erode capacity to increase expansion valve to
condition? to increase
To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air admit only enough increase
reduce the air lower the operate the purge
conditioning system while maintaining the designed fresh outside air to
222850 1 reheating system compressor head recovery unit A 2
dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air provide proper
load pressure continuously
conditioning system, what should be done? ventilation
In order to achieve greater dehumidification with an
air conditioning system, you should perform which of
the following?
I. reduce the cooling coil temperature
II. increase the reheater temperature
In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you
would adjust the air conditioning system by which of
the listed means?
I. reducing the chill water flow through the cooling
coil
II. increasing the preheater temperature

In what room condition would a lower thermostatic where low relative where triple banded where high relative
where air circulation
222900 1 temperature setting will be necessary to provide a humidity is squirrel cage fans humidity is D 2
is a maximum
comfort level? maintained are used maintained
A lower thermostatic temperature setting will

lower relative higher relative
222900 2 generally tend to cause what to happen in an air lower air circulation higher air circulation D 2
humidity humidity
conditioned space?
A fan speed Control dampers A regulating valve A regulating valve
Which of the following methods is normally used to controller regulates varying the number changes the inlet controls the quantity
222901 3 control the circulated air temperature of an air the amount of air of passes the air temperature of the of chilled water D 2
conditioning system using chilled water circulation? flowing across the makes across the water in the cooling flowing in the cooling
coils. cooling coils. coils. coils.
For the proper control of the air temperature in an air
Compressor
conditioning system using chilled water circulation, Chilled water system Chilled water system Compressor suction
222902 1 discharge A 2
which of the listed conditions should remain constant supply temperature. return temperature. pressure.
temperature.
regardless of load changes?
Heating the air to a Cooling the air to a Heating the air and
Which of the processes listed would be the most Cooling the air to a
point at which point below dew then cooling it to a
222903 1 satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of temperature just C 2
moisture will boil off, point, then reheating point below dew
the air being circulated by an air conditioning system? above dew point.
then recooling it. it. point.
A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the raising the cooling raising both the lowering both the lowering the cooling
humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, coil temperature and cooling coil cooling coil coil temperature and
222904 1 D 2
while the actual process is accomplished by what lowering the reheater temperature and the temperature and the raising the reheater
means? temperature reheater temperature reheater temperature temperature
In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed
222905 1 filters separators ducted traps cooling coils D 2
from the air by what means?
The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning
system is 90°F with a relative humidity of 60%. The
222910 2 20 grains 30 grains 40 grains 50 grains GS-RA-22 C 2
air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative
humidity of 80%. of
The introduction Using the air
outside psychrometric chart,
to the air conditioning
air has been conditioned to 75°F with a relative
222910 3 humidity of 90%. Using the psychrometric chart, 30 grains 40 grains 50 grains 60 grains GS-RA-22 D 2
shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of
moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned
air.
The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning
222910 4 30 grains 60 grains 90 grains 120 grains GS-RA-22 C 2
If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative
222911 2 64 degrees F 67 degrees F 70 degrees F 73 degrees F GS-RA-22 C 2
humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew

What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb

222911 3 temperature of the air is 90 degrees and the relative 62 degrees F 63 degrees F 77 degrees F 80 degrees F GS-RA-22 D 2
humidity is 65%?
The dry bulb room

It is not possible for temperature is
The preheater steam both the cooling coil controlled by a
Which of the following is true concerning the class "A" The reheater is not
flow is controlled by and the steam steam heated
222914 2 air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used when in the GS-RA-09 D 2
the space heated reheater to reheater and its
used to condition the air of large public spaces? cooling mode.
thermostat. be used associated
simultaneously. pneumatic control
valve.
The steam heated preheater and its associated
pneumatic control valve are controlled by what device
222914 3 in the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the room thermostat duct thermostat diverting relay humidistat GS-RA-09 B 2
illustration as used condition the air of large public
spaces?
Which of the following is true concerning the class The preheater steam In the summer The supply air duct The dry bulb room
222914 4 GS-RA-42 D 2
"D" terminal reheat air conditioning system shown in flow is controlled by mode, the duct temperature is temperature is
The dry bulb room
temperature is
Which of the following is true concerning the class The dry bulb room The hot air duct controlled by a
The reheat coil is
"G" dual duct air conditioning system shown in the temperature is temperature is steam heated
222914 5 placed in parallel GS-RA-43 A 2
illustration as used to condition the air of individual controlled by a dual controlled by a dual reheater and its
with the cooling coil.
staterooms? duct air mixing unit. duct air mixing unit. associated
pneumatic control
valve.
System cooling is The room thermostat The duct thermostat The heat load will
Which of the following is true concerning the class the direct result of controls the wet bulb determines the increase by
222915 2 "D" air conditioning system shown in the following the Freon circuit of a temperature of the amount of water flow increasing the GS-RA-42 C 2
illustration? direct type air air conditioned circulating through amount of
conditioning unit. space. the cooling coil. recirculated air.
Which of the following is true concerning the class System cooling is The room thermostat The sub master The heat load will
222915 3 GS-RA-43 B 2
"G" air conditioning system shown in the following the direct result of controls the degree thermostat controls increase by
To add small amounts of refrigerant to the low side of
an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be
suction service valve suction service valve discharge service discharge service
222920 1 introduced through a particular valve and in a A 2
as a vapor as a liquid valve as a vapor valve as a liquid
particular state. What valve and state combination is
correct?
To add refrigerant to the high side of an air
conditioning system, you should close the king valve discharge service suction service valve charging valve as a condenser purge
222921 2 C 2
and introduce the refrigerant through what valve in valve as a vapor as a liquid liquid valve as a vapor
what state?

Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room

recharging the changing renewing container
222922 1 hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should changing the air filter A 2
system compressor lubricant vacuum
include what service procedure?
When pumping down an air conditioning system to
test the low pressure cutout switch, assuming that the secure the stop the circulating
222923 1 stop the compressor close the 'king' valve C 2
compressor is running, what should be done to condenser pump
initiate the test?
To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, what is use your service
look at the unit name ask the Chief look on the top of the
222925 1 the easiest way to determine the type of refrigerant gage set and B 2
plate Engineer TXV
that the unit is charged with? refrigeration card
When recovering the remaining R-134a refrigerant
from the centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration as
valves "2", "5", "7", valves "3", "4", "7", valves "3", "4", and valves "3", "5", and
a vapor using the recovery unit's compressor, in
"8", and "10" open; "6" and "10" open; "6" open; valves "2", "6" open; valves "2",
222926 1 addition to opening valves "1a", "1b", and the GS-RA-28 C 2
valves "3", "4", and valves "2", "5", and "5", "7", "8", and "10" "4", "7", "8", and "10"
compressor suction and discharge isolation valves,
"6" closed "8" closed closed closed
which of the following would be the correct valve
lineup?recovering the R-134a refrigerant from the
When valves "2", "5", "6", valves "3", "4", "7", valves "3", "4", and valves "3", "5", and
centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration initially as a "7", and "10" open; "6" and "10" open; "8" open; valves "2", "6" open; valves "2",
222926 2 GS-RA-28 A 2
liquid using the recovery unit's compressor set up in valves "3", "4", and valves "2", "5", and "5", "6", "7", and "10" "4", "7", "8", and "10"
push/pull configuration, in addition to opening valves "8" closed "8" closed closed closed
The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air low pressure in the low pressure in the low pressure in the low pressure in the
223000 2 conditioning compressor is a result of what condenser at high evaporator at low condenser at low evaporator at high B 2
conditions? load load load load
In an air conditioning system, low discharge head insufficient cooling air in the evaporator
223001 2 leaky suction valves air in the condenser A 2
pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor water to the coils
If the people in an air conditioned room complain of preheater has failed relative humidity and dry bulb temperature
223002 2 air velocity is too low D 2
being too cool, what is most likely to be the trouble? to cutout dry bulb is high is too low
The air temperature associated with a direct

reciprocating air conditioning plant is found to be too A liquid line solenoid The low pressure Cooling water flow to
A liquid line solenoid
223003 2 warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service valve has failed control contacts are the condenser is C 2
valve is stuck open.
check determines the compressor suction pressure to closed. stuck open. excessive.
be above
The the normal
compressor usedcut-in point, with a normal
in a water-cooled air head reduction in
loosely fitted back seated
conditioning system is short cycling. A service check front seated liquid condenser water
223004 1 compressor drive discharge service C 2
determines that the suction pressure remains above line service valve flow (scaled
belt valve
the normal cut-in point during cycling and that the condenser)
Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air excessive foaming of overheating and lowered compressor
reducing the cloud or
223005 1 conditioning compressor as a result of what the oil in the carbonization of the operating B 2
floc point of the oil
condition? crankcase oil in the crankcase temperatures

Sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a carbonization of the

refrigerant bubbles in refrigerant reducing reducing the floc or
223005 2 reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result lube oil from C 2
the lube oil the lube oil viscosity cloud point of the oil
of what condition? overheating
Sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a low Freon contamination by
refrigerant bubbles in refrigerant reducing
223005 4 reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result temperature in the dust, scale, or B 2
the lube oil the lube oil viscosity
of what condition? suction line moisture
In the refrigeration system shown in the illustration,
223050 1 "23" "27" "28" "29" GS-RA-12 D 2
what component is the chill box thermal expansion
In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in chill box solenoid chill box evaporator chill box thermostatic freeze box
223050 2 GS-RA-12 C 2
the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve valve pressure regulating expansion valve thermostatic
In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in freeze box freeze box
freeze box solenoid chill box thermostatic
223050 3 the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve evaporator pressure thermostatic GS-RA-12 D 2
valve expansion valve
labeled "37"? regulating valve expansion valve
internal needle valve

Rather than design an infinite variety of thermostatic an externally
a flexible diaphragm orifices of various internal equalizers to
expansion valve sizes to accommodate different adjustable superheat
to accommodate sizes to accommodate
223051 1 capacities for heat removal, some manufacturers use to accommodate C 2
different heat accommodate different heat
a few standard valve body sizes in conjunction with different heat
removal capacities different heat removal capacities
what other feature? removal capacities
removal capacities
What parameter is the thermostatic expansion valve evaporator

223052 1 refrigerant flow box temperature evaporator pressure C 2
designed to maintain constant? superheat
Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator
low pressure cutout thermal expansion
223052 2 coil outlet of a refrigeration system or unit by the solenoid valve king valve D 2
switch valve
action of what device?
In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat
the low pressure cut- the thermal
223052 3 absorbed by the refrigerant flowing through the the box solenoid the box thermostat D 2
out expansion valve
evaporator coil is adjusted at what device?
they control the they regulate the they control the
What is he primary purpose of the thermostatic they regulate the
individual amount of refrigerant refrigerant
223052 4 expansion valves in a typical multi-box shipboard compressor suction C 2
refrigerated space superheat leaving temperature entering
refrigeration system? pressure
temperatures the individual the individual
superheat of the gas degree of superheat
What does the thermal expansion valve used in a back pressure in the temperature in the
223052 5 leaving the of the gas leaving D 2
refrigeration system regulate? evaporator refrigerated space
compressor the evaporator
ensure that liquid maintain constant
maintain a constant
refrigerant returning evaporator coil
What is the primary purpose of the thermostatic regulate the box degree of superheat
223052 6 to the compressor pressure C 2
expansion valve as used in most refrigeration plants? temperature at the evaporator coil
has the proper independent of
outlet
superheat suction pressure

What will remain constant during operation when a

compressor
properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve condenser sub liquid line sub evaporator outlet
223052 8 discharge gas C 2
exhibits stable operation without any appreciable cooling cooling superheat
superheat
hunting of the valve?
maintain a constant control the quantity
regulate refrigerant control the operation
What is the main purpose of the valves shown in the degree of superheat of liquid refrigerant
223052 10 condensation rate in of the box solenoid GS-RA-06 A 2
illustration? in the gas leaving leaving the
the condenser coil valve
the evaporator
Turning the coil evaporator coil
adjustment screw "I"
The temperature of Refrigerant pressure
counterclockwise, as
the refrigerant acting through the
Which of the following statements best describes the viewed facing the The sensor bulb "C"
passing through the external equalizer
223052 11 operation of the refrigeration valve shown in the adjusting screw, detects changes in GS-RA-07 D 2
device is colder at connection "K" is
illustration? results in an box temperature.
the inlet "A" than at always acting to
increase in the
the outlet "B". close the valve.
evaporator
superheat setting.
Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal liquid refrigerant
temperature of the pressure drop across temperature of the
223053 1 expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what pressure at the D 2
space being cooled the evaporator coils evaporator coil outlet
parameter? solenoid valve
The net force of the The net force of the The net force of the
The actual position of the needle valve in the device The force of the
combined forces of combined forces of combined forces of
223055 2 shown in the illustration is dependent upon which of superheat adjusting GS-RA-07 B 2
the bulb pressure the evaporator the bulb pressure
the following conditions? spring only.
and the evaporator pressure and the and the superheat
Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is

223055 3 designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure A B C D GS-RA-24 C 2
rather than a constant evaporator superheat?
Which of the following illustrated expansion valves

223055 4 senses evaporator superheat by the use of thermistor A B C D GS-RA-24 A 2
probes?
Which of the following illustrated expansion valves

223055 5 would be most suitable for use in variable capacity A B C D GS-RA-24 B 2
systems rated at 50 tons of refrigeration and over?
The refrigeration system valve shown in the the evaporator coil the 'on-off' cycling of the evaporator
223056 2 the box temperature GS-RA-07 D 2
illustration is used to directly control what? pressure the compressor superheat
Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion

valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator
223056 3 coil with a 2 psi pressure drop, where externally A B C D GS-RA-06 B 2
adjustable superheat and a replaceable power
element are both desired?

Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion

valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator
223056 4 coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally A B C D GS-RA-06 D 2
adjustable superheat and a replaceable power
element are both desired?
Which of the methods listed is most frequently used Direct expansion Indirect expansion
High side float
223057 1 to control evaporator refrigerant flow rate in a through a TXV with with constant Low side float control A 2
control
shipboard refrigeration system? constant superheat superheat
act as a pilot regulate the amount regulate the water

What is one function of the thermal expansion valve turn the compressor
223057 2 controlling the box of refrigerant flow to flow to the water- B 2
used in a refrigeration system? off and on
solenoid valve the evaporator coil cooled condenser
it will remain open if it will close if the

it will attempt to
the compressor is compressor is
When a refrigeration compressor is in the 'off' cycle, control superheat as
223058 2 controlled by a low controlled by a all the above D 2
how will the thermal expansion valve respond? if the system was still
pressure cutout and thermostat and
in operation
itevaporator
will alwayspump
open it will always evaporator
it will alwayspump
remain it will continue to
wide regardless of completely close in the same position function as a result
When a refrigeration compressor is in the 'off' cycle,
223058 3 whether or not the regardless of just prior to the of the net balance of D 2
the thermal expansion valve will react in what way?
system employs a whether or not the cycling off of the forces acting on the
pump down cycle system employs a compressor diaphragm
In the normal operation of a refrigeration system, respond according to
immediately open immediately close to a preset
223058 4 when the refrigeration compressor cycles "off", the operating forces D 2
wide completely close minimum opening
thermal expansion valve will react in what manner? acting on the valve
In a refrigeration system, the pressure within the heat transferred from

temperature in the temperature of the compressor suction
223059 2 power element of a thermostatic expansion valve the saturated liquid B 2
box evaporator coil outlet pressure
depends directly upon what factor? in the evaporator
In multi-box refrigeration systems, the sensing bulb of

before the back after the back
the thermostatic expansion valves used on the in the diffuser fan in the diffuser fan
223060 1 pressure regulating pressure regulating C 2
refrigerated boxes with elevated temperatures should inlet air stream outlet air stream
valve valve
be located where?

at the beginning of
In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal in the middle of the at the evaporator coil at the evaporator coil
223060 2 the bottom row of the B 2
expansion valve is always located where? evaporator coils outlet inlet
evaporator coils
A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to refrigerated space compressor suction liquid line evaporator
223060 3 D 2
respond directly to changes in which of the following temperature pressure temperature superheat
the bulb should be the bulb should be the bulb should be the bulb should be
Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb
attached so that the attached so that the attached so that the attached with no
of a thermal expansion valve that is attached to the
223061 1 pinched off tubing pinched off tubing pinched off tubing regard to the A 2
evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, what
should be oriented should be oriented should be oriented to orientation of the
statement is true?
down and the up and the capillary one side and the pinched off tubing or
In a refrigeration system, the thermal expansion valve
near the evaporator near the evaporator on the liquid line at the solenoid valve
223063 2 sensing bulb is properly secured and insulated at A 2
coil outlet coil inlet strainer outlet
what location?
The control bulb is The external
Which of the statements listed is applicable to the It regulates the It regulates the
located on the equalizing pipe is
223063 3 thermostatic expansion valve shown in the amount of superheat temperature of the GS-RA-07 C 2
evaporator coil connected to the
illustration? at the solenoid valve. refrigerated space.
outlet. liquid receiver.
When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion
valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge
223064 1 blended charged straight charged mixed charged cross charged D 2
used in the system, what name of the charge is
associated with the power element? At the designed The liquid refrigerant The sensing bulb is The sensing bulb is
Which of the listed statements is a characteristic of
operating tends to collect at empty of liquid never emptied of
223065 1 the liquid charged power element used with D 2
temperature, the the bellows or refrigerant charge at liquid refrigerant
thermostatic expansion valves?
A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration To liquid refrigerant
open diaphragm
or close the To open theand
back- the designed
To direct evaporator under normal
To transmit the bulb
system operates with one compressor and solenoid valve when pressure regulating outlet pressure to the pressure
223066 2 D 2
condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line the box temperature valve when lower part of the (proportional to the
connected
During to the cooling
the initial thermaldown
bulb at
of the evaporator
a box coil increases or
temperature evaporator coil solenoid bellows. coil temperature) to
in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed Crankcase pressure
223067 1 High pressure cutout Solenoid valve Low pressure cutout A 2
is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the regulator
compressor suction for the purpose of prevention of when the evaporator
just before the when the low side
has just begun when the low side
Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion evaporator stops pressure and the
223068 1 feeding at relatively and high side A 2
valve is greatest under what conditions? feeding at relatively bulb pressure are
high box pressures are equal
low box temperature equal
temperature
In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the

223069 1 refrigerant temperature decreases the most when evaporator condenser receiver compressor expansion valve D 2
passing through which system component?
determined to have a pressure drop exceeding 5

psig. How can this be compensated for in maintaining
10 degrees of evaporator superheat as the system
223070 1 requires and avoid starvation of the evaporator? I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B 2
I. adjusting the TXV spring compression and raising

the super heat value

the opening force is the opening force is the opening forces the opening forces
What are the opening and closing forces acting on a evaporator pressure bulb pressure and are evaporator are bulb pressure
223072 2 B 2
thermostatic expansion valve? and the closing the closing forces pressure and and superheat spring
forces are bulb are evaporator superheat spring compression and the
The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration

a decrease in an increase in increasing the
system further opens when the diaphragm flexes an increase in the
223072 3 sensing bulb sensing bulb superheat setting of C 2
downward. With all other conditions being the same, evaporator pressure
temperature temperature the valve
what single condition causes this?
Which of the listed conditions would cause the a rise in the a drop in the a drop in the
a drop in the box
223072 4 thermal expansion valve to further open in a temperature at the condenser cooling temperature at the A 2
temperature
refrigeration system? evaporator outlet water temperature evaporator outlet
In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the the individual the individual box the individual back
223073 1 the king valve B 2
metering of refrigerant to each refrigerated space thermal expansion solenoid valves pressure regulating
Where would you find the greatest amount of
the compressor
223074 2 refrigerant superheat in an operating refrigeration the evaporator outlet the condenser outlet the receiver outlet D 2
outlet
system?
In a refrigeration system, what component is installed

223076 1 evaporator coil receiver compressor box solenoid valve A 2
directly downstream of the thermal expansion valve?
Refrigeration system isolation valves are specially permit repacking the allow for removal
allow for operation allow for operation
designed with a back-seat, as well as a front-seat. valve stem under and replacement of
223100 1 as a suction or as a liquid or vapor B 2
For what purpose are these valves designed in this pressure without the valve without
discharge valve valve
way? shutting down shutting down
Which lettered component, shown in the illustration,

223101 2 A B C F GS-RA-12 C 2
indicates the location of the receiver?
stores liquid allows refrigerant prevents compressor

serves as a
refrigerant and acts sub cooling since surging by
collection point and
The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs as a surge tank to without a receiver preventing an
223102 1 release vent point for A 2
what function? compensate for the refrigerant excessive pressure
air and non-
changes in system cannot be sub difference across the
condensable gases
load cooled compressor
In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of cool the refrigerant superheat the store the refrigerant condense the
223102 2 C 2
the receiver? gas refrigerant liquid charge refrigerant

a 25 ton air
a self-contained walk- a 200 ton low
a hermetically sealed conditioning system
What would be an example of a small appliance as in freezer with a 60 pressure centrifugal
223103 1 water cooler with a 2 set up as a split plant A 2
defined in the EPA Clean Air Act rules? lbs. refrigerant chiller for cargo hold
lb. refrigerant charge with the condensing
charge air conditioning
the actual the saturation unit absolute
the on deck the metric pressure
In addition to the indicated gauge pressure, what
temperature of the temperature of the pressure of the equivalent of the
223117 2 other information is presented on the compound GS-RA-16 B 2
refrigerant at the refrigerant that refrigerant at the refrigerant at the
gauge for the hypothetical refrigerant illustrated?
point
holds ofthe entire corresponds to the point of point of liquid
prevents
The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs refrigerant charge collects air and non- allows the refrigerant refrigerant from
223118 1 A 2
what essential function? after system pump condensable gases to be superheated flooding back to the
down compressor
For most multi-box refrigeration systems, the before the after the condenser
after the compressor after the receiver in
223119 2 refrigerant sight glass would be located where in the compressor in the in the drain line to D 2
in the discharge line the liquid line
system? suction line the receiver
protect the protect the start and stop the start the compressor
What is the purpose of the refrigeration system low
223200 1 compressor from compressor from low compressor upon after a drop in the C 2
pressure cutout switch?
liquid flood back discharge pressure system demand evaporator pressure
What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out maintain a preset maintain a preset start and stop the
control the capacity
223200 2 switch as used as a primary controller for a low- side pressure suction pressure to compressor as C 2
of the compressor
refrigeration system or unit? for the system the compressor needed
When all the individual box solenoid valves in a multi-
box refrigeration plant are closed by collective the low water cutout low pressure cutout high pressure cutout low temperature
223200 3 B 2
action of all the individual box thermostats, by what switch switch switch cutout switch
means will the compressor normally be stopped?
If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open in a
multiple-box refrigeration plant, the refrigeration
compressor will eventually be stopped shortly after it chill box thermostatic low water cutout low pressure cutout high pressure cutout
223200 4 C 2
closes once the minimum desired chill box temperature switch switch switch switch
temperature is reached. What device actually directly
stops the compressor?
The sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch at the inlet side of at the outlet side of at the suction side of at the discharge side
223203 1 C 2
for a refrigeration system is typically connected at the receiver the receiver the compressor of the compressor
changes in a sensing bulb at the changes in
The refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch is changes in suction
223204 1 condenser shell tail coil of the condenser water C 2
actuated by which of the following? line pressure
pressure evaporator supply pressure
Which of the listed operations will cause an

Closing of the Closing of the An increase in the Decreasing the
223204 2 automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to C 2
solenoid valve expansion valve suction pressure suction pressure
restart if the system features a pump-down cycle?

compressor
The operating principle of a low pressure cut-out compressor suction
compressor suction compressor discharge
switch used as a primary controller in controlling the temperature acting
223204 3 pressure acting on a discharge pressure temperature acting A 2
refrigeration compressor start/stop operation is based on a bimetallic
bellows acting on a bellows on a bimetallic
on which of the following actions? element
element
A refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch
has an adjustment advisory that states that the cut- the differential the differential
the range adjustment the range adjustment
out is the cut-in minus the differential. Currently the adjustment must be adjustment must be
223206 1 must be adjusted must be adjusted B 2
compressor starts a few moments after the adjusted to lower the adjusted to raise the
upward downward
thermostatically controlled box solenoid re-opens and cut-out cut-out
begins feeding the evaporator meaning the cut-in the compressor the compressor
the compressor the compressor
The normal operation of a refrigeration compressor cycles on in cycles on in
cycles on and off in cycles on and off in
should be to cycle on and off by the action of the response to the low response to the high
223206 2 response to the low response to the high C 2
primary controller. If the compressor cycles off as a pressure cutout pressure cutout
pressure cutout pressure cutout
result of system pumpdown, what is true? switch and off in switch and off in
switch switch
The low pressure cutout switch settings vary with the response to the high response to the low
refrigerant used and the temperature application. If
the low pressure cutout switch for a particular
223206 3 5" Hg 0 psig 2.5 psig 12.5 psig A 2
application is set with a cut-in pressure of 5 psig,
what would be the cut-out pressure if the differential
is 7.5 psig? differential pressure
The low pressure cutout switch will cause the expansion valve expansion valve refrigerant has too
between the cut-in
223206 4 compressor in a refrigeration system to short cycle thermal bulb loses its freezes in the closed much oil in B 2
pressure and cutout
under what condition? charge position circulation
pressure is too small
In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration thermostatic low pressure cutout
223206 5 high pressure cutout king solenoid valve D 2
system, the compressor is set up to cycle on and off expansion valve switch
A relief valve is designed to protect the physical
integrity of a refrigeration system as a result of over- low pressure cutout back pressure cutout high pressure cutout
223207 4 oil-failure switch C 2
pressurization. What device is designed to stop a switch switch switch
running compressor before the relief valve lifts?
the relief valve the relief valve the high pressure the relief valve
If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration
should lift open should lift open and cutout switch should should lift open and
compressor is steadily building and becomes
223207 5 before the high allow the excess shut down the allow the excess C 2
excessive, for protection purposes, what should
pressure cutout refrigerant to flow to compressor before refrigerant to relieve
occur?
stops the the receiver the relief valve lifts to the atmosphere
If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the compressor condenser tubes system relief valve high pressure cutout
223207 6 D 2
refrigeration compressor, the refrigerant pressure will discharge valves would rupture would open switch would stop
The safety device which normally stops a running low pressure cutout back pressure cutout high pressure cutout
223207 7 relief valve bypass C 2
refrigeration compressor before the relief valve starts switch switch switch
Which of the lettered components shown in the
223207 8 W X Y Z GS-RA-12 B 2
illustration indicates the high pressure cutout?
Which of the listed components shown in the

223207 9 W X Y Z GS-RA-12 D 2
illustration is the oil failure switch?

Which of the listed components shown in the

223207 10 W X Y Z GS-RA-12 C 2
illustration is the low pressure cutout?
Which of the listed components, shown in the
223207 11 "6" "11" "13" "19" GS-RA-05 D 2
illustration is designed to close when the refrigerant
The safety heads of most large reciprocating discharge pressure tack welding on the
223250 1 large Teflon gaskets heavy coil springs C 2
compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in in the relief valve sides
copper is inherently copper is corrosion copper is compatible

Hard drawn copper tubing is used in commercial hard drawn copper
stronger and can resistant and easier with anhydrous
223272 1 refrigeration systems rather than steel for what tubing is easily bent, B 2
withstand higher to work with than ammonia, whereas
reason? whereas steel is not
pressures than steel steel steel is not
Hard drawn copper Hard drawn copper

Hard drawn copper Hard drawn copper
tubing is easily tubing is not easily
Hard drawn copper tubing is commonly used in larger tubing is easily tubing is easily bent,
swaged, so reducing flared, bent, or
223272 2 refrigeration systems. What statement concerning its flared, so flare so elbow fittings are D 2
fittings are rarely swaged, so brazed
use is true? fittings are rarely used in
used in changing line fittings are
commonly used. changing direction.
size. commonly used.
Hard drawn copper tubing connections for
223274 1 refrigeration systems may be made by which of the flaring brazing electric arc welding threading B 2
following means?
It is not compatible
What characteristic can be applied to Refrigerant It is visible as a blue It has a distinctive
223275 1 It is corrosive. with mineral based B 2
134a when compared to R- 12? fog. taste.
lubricants.
At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure,

223275 2 corrosive liquid sub cooled gas odorless gas superheated liquid C 2
what is the status of R-134a?
R-22 has been a suitable refrigerant for use in high reciprocating centrifugal
223276 1 rotary compressors all of the above D 2
temperature (air conditioning) applications with which compressors compressors
Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been
223276 2 more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal R-12 R-11 Ammonia Carbon dioxide B 2
refrigeration compressor?
A refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration
223276 3 High boiling point High freezing point Low specific heat Low boiling point D 2
system should have which of the following
Which of the refrigerants listed is considered ideal for
223276 4 Carbon dioxide Ammonia R-22 Sulfur dioxide C 2
most marine applications?

How is the amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder

223277 1 pressure volume weight temperature C 2
measured?
For safe storage, the maximum allowable

223277 2 100°F 125°F 150°F 175°F B 2
temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be
Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent of
flash gas present in the liquid line is accomplished by
The presence of flash gas in the high pressure liquid
lines of a refrigeration system is undesirable due to
which of the following reasons?
A partially fouled liquid line strainer in the refrigeration
system will cause which of the following conditions?
I. a loss of refrigeration effect
A partially fouled liquid line strainer in the refrigeration
system will cause which of the follwing changes in the
Regarding heat transfer principles, which of the Heat transfer always Heat transfer always Steel pipe can A gas can transfer
223279 1 A 2
following is true? flows from hot flows from cold transfer heat more heat more efficiently
Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a
223280 1 Methyl alcohol Brine Carbon dioxide Cuprous chloride B 2
secondary refrigerant?
Refrigerant leaving the metering device in a sub-cooled liquid superheated vapor saturated superheated
223281 1 C 2
refrigeration system is in which of the following only only liquid/vapor mixture liquid/vapor mixture
If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container 'Binks' gun with high pressure water copper wire rotary
refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires weak acid solvent wash brush
Dehydrators are Dehydrators are Dehydrators are
Which of the following statements is true concerning Dehydrators must be
223300 1 usually installed in used when pumping used when purging B 2
the use of dehydrators in refrigeration systems? used continuously.
the liquid line. down the system. the system.
reduce compressor prevent liquid

Why are dehydrators usually located in the liquid line remove oil from the prevent icing of the
223300 2 discharge line slugging in the B 2
of refrigeration systems? refrigerant expansion valve
sweating suction line
to remove non- to separate
What is the purpose of a dehydrator installed in a to separate oil from to remove moisture
223300 3 condensable gases refrigerant from the D 2
refrigeration system? the refrigerant from the system
and vapors oil
What is the name of the device used to remove

223300 4 humidifier aerator dehydrator trap C 2
moisture from a refrigeration system?

In addition to removing water from a refrigerant and

dichlorodifluorometh
223300 5 neutralizing acids, most dehydrators also effectively solid impurities air desiccant A 2
ane
remove what other substance?
Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or

not a refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to Liquid line moisture
223301 1 Dryer sensing bulb McLeod gage Particulate test D 2
be capable of removing moisture from the circulating indicating sight glass
refrigerant?
In addition to moisture, a suction line dehydrator

non-condensable
223302 1 installed in a system after a burnout has occurred is damaged refrigerant acids refrigerant oil B 2
gases
designed to remove what additional substance?
dehydrator or
In a refrigeration system, silica gel is found in what moisture indicating compressor suction
223302 2 condenser/receiver combination B 2
component? liquid line sight glass scale trap
filter/drier
Which of the listed substances is used as an
223302 5 adsorbing agent in the shipboard dehydration of Ethylene glycol Sodium bromide Silica gel Methyl glycol C 2
refrigeration systems?
The dessicant material used as a dehydrating agent
223302 6 slaked lime sodium chloride activated alumina calcium chloride C 2
within refrigeration system filter/driers and
Which of the locations listed would be considered as between the between the thermal between the between the receiver
223307 1 D 2
the most common place to find a dehydrator or compressor and the expansion valve and evaporator and the and the thermal
so that the liquid so that the liquid
enters at the top and enters at the bottom
Cylindrical, replaceable silica gel core dehydrators horizontally if a liquid horizontally if the
leaves at the bottom and leaves at the top
223307 2 installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems are drying agent is also drying agent is B 2
when located when located
typically arranged in what way? used calcium oxide
vertically in the liquid vertically in the liquid
line line
The device shown in the illustration which is used for

223307 3 removing moisture from the liquid refrigerant in the B C D E GS-RA-12 D 2
system is labeled with what letter?
If a liquid drying agent is used in a it will release the it will solidify the
it will react violently it will cause toxic
refrigerationsystem alreadyequipped with a solid moisture already refrigerant oil in the
223311 1 with the solid drying gases to form in the A 2
drying agent, the liquid drying agent will cause what trapped in the solid compressor
agent refrigerated space
type of reaction? drying agent crankcase

Which of the devices listed is used to limit frosting of

evaporator pressure low or high side float
223312 1 chill box evaporator coils on multiple box installations capillary tube box solenoid valve A 2
regulating valve valve
served by one compressor?
An evaporator pressure regulating valve (back maintain at least a

prevent compressor control liquid regulate refrigerant
223312 2 pressure regulator) is installed in the evaporator coils minimum evaporator B 2
overload refrigerant pressure outlet superheat
of some refrigeration systems for what purpose? pressure
The two-temperature evaporator pressure regulating it limits the minimum it limits the minimum it limits the maximum it limits the maximum
valves used in a multi-temperature, multi-box pressure in the pressure in the pressure in the pressure in the
223312 4 B 2
refrigeration system served by one compressor colder evaporators to warmer evaporators warmer evaporators colder evaporators to
perform what function? a preset value to a preset value to a preset value a preset value
limit the minimum limit the maximum maintain equal
maintain a constant
evaporator coil evaporator coil evaporator
What is the primary function of the evaporator compressor suction
pressure on those so pressure on those so pressures among all
223312 7 pressure regulator valves installed in a multi-box pressure regardless A 2
fitted to prevent fitted to prevent system evaporators
refrigeration system? of changes in system
excessively low excessively high despite differences
demand
evaporator evaporator in box temperatures
The valve shown in the illustration is commonly thermal expansion evaporator pressure water regulating
223312 9 king valve GS-RA-67 B 2
identified as what type? valve regulating valve valve
"Q" refers to an "A" refers to the
"P" refers to an "P" refers to an
Concerning the evaporator pressure regulator external pilot adjusting stem used
internal pilot internal pilot
223312 10 drawing shown in the bottom of the illustration, what connection used to set the maximum GS-RA-65 A 2
passage sensing passage sensing
statement is true? simultaneously with allowable evaporator
evaporator pressure suction line pressure
the internal pilot pressure
Which of the following items shown in the illustration
223312 11 "3" "10" "17" "18" GS-RA-05 D 2
is a replaceable core suction line dehydrator?

223312 12 "2" "10" "17" "18" GS-RA-05 B 2
is a liquid line filter/drier?

223312 13 "8" "13" "16" "20" GS-RA-05 C 2
is an evaporator pressure regulator?

223312 14 "3" "9" "17" "18" GS-RA-05 C 2
is an accumulator?


223312 15 "2" "3" "9" "17" GS-RA-05 B 2
is an oil separator?

223312 16 "2" "3" "9" "10" GS-RA-05 A 2
is a discharge muffler?
draining refrigerant opening a drain condensing the

Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by cutting in the
223317 1 from the bottom of petcock on the oil water in the heat D 2
what action? dehydrator
the condenser separator exchanger
When two refrigerated spaces in a refrigeration

it maintains a higher it maintains a higher
it maintains a lower it maintains equal
system are served by a single compressor and
pressure in the pressure in the pressure in the pressures in the
223318 1 condenser, yet are maintained at different B 2
evaporator coil of the evaporator coil of the
evaporator coil of the evaporator coils of
temperatures, what is true concerning an installed
colder box warmer box warmer box both boxes
back pressure regulating valve?
In a refrigeration system, where multiple evaporators thermostatic
thermostatic evaporator pressure
are operating at different temperatures, and serviced expansion valve box thermostat
223318 2 expansion valve regulating valve B 2
by a single compressor and condenser, the control of maximum pressure temperature setting
superheat setting pressure setting
individual evaporator
When multiple coil temperature
refrigeration minimums
evaporators are served setting
it is higher than the it is the same as any it is lower than the it is controlled by
by the same compressor and operate at different
223318 3 pressure in warmest other evaporator in pressure in the adjusting the thermal C 2
temperatures, what is true concerning the pressure of
evaporator the system warmest evaporator expansion valve
the coldest evaporator?
In addition to adjusting the box thermostat, for a

controlling the feed throttling the bypassing the back
direct expansion multiple-evaporator refrigeration bypassing the box
223319 1 with the hand compressor suction pressure regulating D 2
system, a chill box may be converted to a freeze box solenoid valve
expansion valve isolation valve valve
by performing what action?
A multiple evaporator system is equipped with a

evaporator back pressure regulating valve on the
warmer of the two boxes. This valve must be
223320 1 rupture open close chatter C 2
bypassed when pumping down the system for repairs
because reduction of suction pressure would cause
the valve to do what?
Standard filter/driers used in many cmmercial type activated alumina or
alcohol based liquid all of the above may
223321 1 refrigeration units may contain what type of activated charcoal silica gel desiccant C 2
drying agents be used
substance? beads

with the axis of the upright, controlled by upright, controlled by upright, controlled by
solenoid horizontal, a thermostat sensing a thermostat sensing a thermostat sensing
A box solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system controlled by a the temperature of the temperature of evaporator
223330 1 B 2
should be installed in what manner? thermostat sensing the box, and the box, and superheat, and
the temperature of upstream of the downstream of the upstream of the
the box, and thermal expansion thermal expansion thermal expansion
In a large refrigeration system having more than one between the before the back
before the
223331 1 evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be installed just after the receiver condenser and pressure regulating A 2
condenser
in what location? receiver valve
In a vapor compression refrigeration system with
immediately before in the liquid line in the vapor line
freeze, produce, and dairy boxes, along with a thaw on the inlet side of
223332 1 each expansion bypassing the bypassing the oil A 2
room, a solenoid valve should be found to be the receiver
valve expansion valve separator
installed where in the system?
In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid

each expansion
223332 2 valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what the receiver the condenser the oil separator B 2
valve
device?
the outlet of the the outlet of the

freeze box freeze box
evaporator would evaporator would
the outlet of both
Which of the listed components for a refrigeration the outlet of both have an evaporator have a check valve
evaporators would
system is required to be installed on the outlet of the evaporators would pressure regulator installed and the
223333 1 have evaporator D 2
freeze box evaporator and the outlet of the chill box have check valves installed and the outlet of the chill box
pressure regulators
evaporator of a two evaporator refrigeration system? installed outlet of the chill box evaporator would
installed
evaporator would have an evaporator
have a check valve pressure regulator
installed installed
sensing the sensing the
A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to throttling the fully opening or
223333 2 superheat in the tail temperature in the B 2
the evaporator by what means? refrigerant closing
coil liquid line
In a multiple-box refrigeration plant, when the

The thermal The automatic
temperature in a walk-in box rises above the cut-in The compressor will The box solenoid
223334 1 expansion valve will defrost timer will C 2
point of the box thermostat, which of the listed actions start. valve will open.
close. activate.
should occur FIRST?
The thermostat controlling the operation of the compressor

evaporator coil inlet evaporator coil outlet the refrigerated box
223334 2 solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator discharge D 2
temperature temperature temperature
senses what temperature? temperature

When multiple refrigerated boxes are maintaining

unloading and opening and closing
individual temperatures and supplied by a single throttling of thermal changing
223334 3 loading of the of box solenoid B 2
refrigeration compressor, the individual box expansion valves compressor speed
compressor valves
temperatures are controlled by what action?
The liquid line, thermostatically controlled, box compressor

superheat in the tail temperature of the compressor suction
223334 4 solenoid valve is operated in response to changes in discharge B 2
coil box temperature
what? temperature
operation of that
When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box operation of that operation of that operation of that
compartment's
system served by one compressor reaches the compartment's compartment's back compartment's low
223334 5 thermostatically C 2
correct temperature, temperature control in that one thermal expansion pressure regulating pressure cutout
controlled box
compartment is achieved by what means? valve valve switch
solenoid
The thermostat controlling a refrigerated walk-in box evaporator coil inlet the refrigerated evaporator coil outlet degree of evaporator
223334 6 B 2
solenoid valve typically senses what parameter? temperature space temperature temperature superheat
When a refrigerated space reaches the minimum
The low pressure The high pressure
desired temperature in a multi- box refrigeration The box solenoid The expansion valve
223335 1 cutout switch will cutout switch will A 2
system, which of the listed actions will occur FIRST valve will close. will open.
stop the compressor. stop the compressor.
after
In opening of the
a refrigeration box thermostat?
system featuring low- side
pumpdown prior to the automatic shut down of the
thermostatic liquid line box low pressure cutout
223335 2 compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated suction line solenoid C 2
expansion valve solenoid switch
space is controlled by the action of a thermostat
wired to what device?
The individual box temperatures of a multibox thermostatically
thermostatic back-pressure regulation of the
223335 3 refrigeration system are directly controlled by what controlled solenoid B 2
expansion valves valves cooling water
means? valves
control the stop the compressor
What is the primary purpose of a thermostatically bypass refrigerant
refrigerated maintain the proper when the evaporator
223336 1 controlled box solenoid valve used in a multi-box flow to the A 2
compartment refrigerant superheat reaches the proper
refrigeration system? evaporator
Valve "14" is the king Valve "14" is the king
Valve "14" is the king
Valve "14" is the king solenoid, valve "36" solenoid, valve "28"
solenoid, valves "28"
solenoid, valves "28" is the chill box is the chill box
223336 3 Which of the following statements is true? and "36" are both GS-RA-12 D 2
and "36" are both solenoid, and valve solenoid, and valve
freeze box
chill box solenoids. "28" is the freeze "36" is the freeze
solenoids.
box solenoid. box solenoid.

Which of the following valves remains open during

normal cycling of the compressor on and off by the
223336 4 "14" "17" "28" "36" GS-RA-12 A 2
action of the low pressure cut-out and but closes in
the event of any compressor safety shutdown?
Which of the components shown in the illustration

223336 5 "8" "11" "13" "16" GS-RA-05 B 2
indicates a liquid line solenoid valve?
The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in thermal expansion compressor and oil condenser and evaporator coil
223337 4 A 2
a refrigeration system is to prevent dirt and scale valves separator receiver piping
A box solenoid valve used in a mult-box rerigeration suction pressure evaporator outlet discharge pressure
box temperature
223338 1 system is operated by electro-magnetic action by actuated pressure temperature actuated pressure B 2
actuated thermostat
what control device? switch actuated thermostat switch
the TEV sensing

A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration the box solenoid the compressor the receiver level
223339 1 bulb mounted on the C 2
system is controlled by the action of what device? valve operating coil unloader mechanism controller
evaporator tail coil
How do modulating valves, found in some container A conventional A modulating valve is A conventional A modulating valve is
223340 1 A 2
refrigeration systems, differ in operation from solenoid valve is either open or solenoid valve is either open or
A liquid line solenoid Solenoid valves are
valve is either only used in low Both valves operate
completely opened voltage refrigeration in exactly the same
A solenoid valve can
How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a or closed, whereas a control systems, manner, only the
223340 2 only be installed in B 2
modulating valve? modulation valve is while modulation manufacturer's
liquid lines.
infinitely positioned valves are used in terminology is the
according to the high voltage differentiating factor.
strength of the applications.
On a modern refrigerated container unit employing
the valve will further the valve will further the valve will further the valve will further
suction modulation for the purposes of capacity
open, lowering open, raising close, raising close, lowering
control and capacity limitation, what happens when
223341 5 evaporator pressure evaporator pressure evaporator pressure evaporator pressure C 2
the applied voltage and current draw associated with
and raising suction and lowering suction and lowering suction and raising suction
the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve
pressure pressure pressure pressure
located in the suction line both increase?
Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system in seawater cooled
223350 2 liquid line strainer liquid line receiver evaporator tail coil C 2
what location? condenser heads
Zinc plates commonly found in refrigeration systems saltwater side of the refrigerant side of cooling water suction
223350 3 evaporator coils A 2
and used as sacrificial anodes are located where? condenser the condenser strainer
Seawater or low temperature central fresh water is
cool the expansion prevent refrigerant condense the prevent motor
223352 1 typically provided to a ship's stores refrigeration plant C 2
valve superheating refrigerant gas overheating
for what purpose?

Heat is removed from the refrigerant circulating

223355 3 through the refrigeration system, shown in the A B J K GS-RA-12 B 2
illustration, by which component?
feed discharge
A flapper valve, also known as a beam valve, is prevent compressor equalize system
pressure to the aid in hot gas
223409 1 frequently used in refrigeration compressor discharge damage by passing pressure for easier C 2
suction line for defrosting
valves, and is used for what purpose? any liquid slugs compressor startup
capacity control
In the illustrated refrigeration system, what is the

223410 2 accumulator compressor filter drier condenser GS-RA-12 B 2
proper name for the component labeled "A"?
What is the purpose of running a refrigeration allow refrigerant prevent liquid let the refrigerated determine actual
223411 1 B 2
compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling vapor cycling time slugging or compartment cool compressor oil level
A device used to hold open the refrigeration
discharge line
223412 1 compressor suction valve during starting to reduce cylinder unloader suction line bypass relief valve B 2
bypass
the compression load is called what?
To prevent motor overload during start- up of a closed until the opened until the closed until the opened until the
hermetically sealed centrifugal refrigeration system, motor is connected motor is connected motor is connected motor is connected
223413 1 C 2
what is true concerning the compressor suction gas across the line at full across the line at full across the line at full across the line at full
variable inlet guide vanes? voltage and current voltage and current voltage and current voltage and current
When starting a reciprocating refrigeration
223414 1 compressor that has been shutdown for a period of sea water valve king valve suction valve expansion valve C 2
time, you should manually throttle which valve?
The carbon seal ring of a refrigeration compressor
223421 1 crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against spring snap ring woodruff key thrust washer A 2
the stationary ring face by using what device?
If the valve labeled "D" in the illustration is a suction to the line connected to the line connected
to the inlet of the to the outlet of the
223455 7 service valve, what will the port labeled "7" be to the evaporator to the evaporator GS-RA-08 B 2
compressor compressor
connected to? inlet outlet
If the valve labeled "D" in the illustration is a to the line connected to the line connected
to the inlet of the to the outlet of the
223455 8 discharge service valve, what will the port labeled "7" to the condenser to the condenser GS-RA-08 A 2
compressor compressor
be connected to? inlet outlet
Among the illustrated service valves, which service

223455 9 A B C D GS-RA-08 A 2
valve is represented as fully front-seated?
Among the illustrated service valves, which service

223455 10 A B C D GS-RA-08 B 2
valve is represented as fully back-seated?

If a refrigeration unit is fitted with suction and The valves are fully The valves are fully The valves are The valves are
discharge services valves constructed similarly to the back-seated, with front-seated, with the cracked off their cracked off their front-
223455 11 valve labeled "D" in the illustration, what statement is the packing packing tightened, back-seats, with the seats, with the GS-RA-08 A 2
true concerning the valve status when servicing is tightened, and the and the seal cap in packing tightened, packing tightened,
complete and the gauge manifold set is removed, seal should
you cap in place.
turn place. and should
you the sealreplace
cap in and the seal cap in
When opening or closing compressor service and line you must first you should never
valves slowly to the gasket each time
223456 1 isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that remove the stem loosen or tighten the B 2
avoid thermal the valve position is
is fitted with packed valves, what must you do? seal cap packing gland
stresses due to low changed
What is the most important consideration in selecting have a low viscosity have a high wax have a high freezing have a low pour
223500 1 D 2
a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor? index content point point
Properties of a good refrigeration compresor

223501 1 low wax content high pour point high viscosity all of the above A 2
lubricating oil include which of the following?
reduce the reduce the

What is the purpose of heating the oil in the prevent the
absorption of prevent acidic pitting absorption of
223502 1 crankcase of a refrigeration compressor during the off formation of wax and A 2
refrigerant by the of compressor parts moisture by the
cycle? gum
lubricating oil lubricating oil
The lubrication oil in the crankcase of a refrigeration

reduce absorption of prevent refrigerant remove entrained remove wax and
223502 2 compressor that is shut down is heated. For what A 2
refrigerant by the oil vaporization water gum
purpose is this done?
return oil entrained in return oil entrained in
remove oil entrained
Oil separators installed in large refrigeration systems remove excess oil the discharge gas the suction gas back
223503 1 in high pressure C 2
serve what function? from the system back to the to the evaporator
liquid lines
compressor inlet
An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from warm high pressure
223503 2 hot suction gas hot discharge gas cold discharge gas C 2
which of the following? liquid
The oil separator (trap) used in a large shipboard the compressor and the condenser and the receiver and the the receiver and the
223503 3 A 2
refrigeration system would be located between what the condenser the receiver king valve expansion valve
after being shutdown several minutes after
When checking the oil level in a refrigeration
immediately after immediately after for 3 hours with the shutdown following a
223505 1 compressor, under what conditions would the most D 2
start-up adding oil crankcase heater prolonged period of
accurate reading be obtained?
secured
lube oil to foam due operation
The sudden reduction of pressure occurring within sudden evaporation sudden evaporation release of dissolved
to the release of
223506 2 the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor during of wax crystals in the of entrapped air in lubricant from the C 2
dissolved refrigerant
starting causes what condition? lubricant the lubricant refrigerant
in the lubricating oil
If it becomes absolutely necessary to operate two discharge pressure suction pressure oil pump discharge oil levels in both
223507 1 D 2
compressors in parallel in order to maintain the box gauges of both gauges of both pressures of both compressor
Unless the system is designed for such operation, operation of two condenser pressure lubricating oil may be the evaporators
223507 2 C 2
two compressors should not be operated in parallel in compressors will will be too high transferred from one would fail due to
In which of the following lines is an oil separator most
223508 2 suction line discharge line hot gas bypass line liquid line B 2
likely to be?

An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water direction of the

223601 1 closed position open position direction of the flow D 2
regulating valve indicates which of the following? plunger slide
A water regulating valve controls the refrigeration cooling water inlet liquid refrigerant condenser head condenser shell
223602 1 D 2
condenser cooling water flow in response to what temperature outlet temperature water pressure refrigerant pressure
to maintain a
In a refrigeration system fitted with a water-cooled to maintain a to maintain a to maintain a
constant condenser
223602 2 condenser, what is the purpose of the water constant head constant suction constant discharge B 2
cooling water
regulating valve? pressure pressure gas temperature
pressure
Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water

compressor
flow through the water cooled refrigeration compressor condenser discharge
223602 4 compressor speed discharge C 2
condensers in response to changes in what discharge pressure temperature
temperature
parameter?
The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration compressor

compressor compressor suction compressor suction
223602 5 system featuring a water- cooled condenser is discharge B 2
discharge pressure temperature pressure
designed to control what parameter? temperature
In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water temperature of the

temperature of the compressor amount of refrigerant
223602 6 regulating valve is directly controlled by changes in refrigerant after B 2
inlet cooling water discharge pressure in the system
what parameter or condition? expansion
"2" should be turned
If it is necessary to increase the operating head "2" should be turned "4" should be rotated "4" should be rotated
to relax the
223602 12 pressure of the refrigeration system using the device to further compress to compress the to relax the enclosed GS-RA-14 A 2
compression of the
shown in the illustration, what should be done? the spring enclosed bellows bellows
spring
The purpose of the water failure switch in a water-
cooled refrigeration system is to react to a loss of
closing the high opening the high
cooling water pressure and function to protect the stopping the bypassing refrigerant
223603 1 pressure cutout pressure cutout A 2
system from high pressure. When a loss of cooling compressor to the receiver
switch switch
water pressure causes the water failure switch to
open, what is the result?

the compressor will

In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a the box temperature
the expansion valve shutdown by the
water failure switch, if the cooling water to the solenoid valve will the king valve will
223603 2 will close due to high action of the high C 2
condenser fails, what will be the result for protective close initiating a open
superheat pressure cutout
purposes? pump down
switch
In a refrigeration system, the valve shown in the thermostatic evaporator pressure head pressure suction pressure
223609 1 GS-RA-14 C 2
illustration is used for what purpose? expansion valve regulating valve regulating valve regulating valve
The set point adjustment of the device shown in the

223610 3 "1" "2" "3" "4" GS-RA-14 B 2
illustration is made by rotating what component?
The device in figure "A" of the illustration is used to
compressor
control the flow of water through a water cooled condenser shell gas condenser water condenser water
223610 5 crankcase gas GS-RA-15 B 2
condenser of a refrigeration unit. Where would the connection inlet connection outlet connection
connection
pressure
The connection
device be of
in figure "B" made leading to the
the illustration control
is used to
condenser condenser
control the flow of water through a water cooled condenser water condenser water
223610 6 refrigerant inlet gas refrigerant outlet GS-RA-15 D 2
condenser of a refrigeration unit. Where would the inlet stream outlet stream
stream liquid stream
thermal bulb sensing well be located?
varying the position varying the position

Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration varying the speed of
223650 2 of the suction inlet of the hot gas all of the above D 2
compressor can be accomplished by what means? the compressor
damper vanes bypass valve
refrigeration air conditioning combined box

multi-box back
The device shown in the illustration is used for what compressor capacity proportional-plus- temperature
223652 2 pressure regulator GS-RA-13 A 2
purpose? control unloading reset, humidity/ thermostat and
with surge chamber
mechanism temperature ratio thermal expansion
discharge of a
The fluid used as a source of actuating power against
discharge of the secondary hydraulic
the underside of the unloader power element piston high side liquid gas discharge from
223654 2 compressor lube oil pump specifically GS-RA-13 C 2
of the refrigeration compressor capacity control receiver the compressor
pump installed for this
mechanism illustrated is obtained from where?
operation
The fluid used to act against the range adjusting
compressor lube oil
spring and to directly control the position of the high side liquid gas discharge from
223654 4 pump discharge crankcase pressure GS-RA-13 D 2
capacity control valve of the refrigeration compressor receiver the compressor
pressure
capacity control system illustrated, is obtained from
The fluid used to act against hydraulic relay piston to
compressor lube oil
control how many cylinders are unloaded in the gas discharge from
223654 5 control oil pressure pump discharge crankcase pressure GS-RA-13 A 2
refrigeration compressor capacity control system the compressor
pressure
illustrated, is obtained from where?
During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration of no consequence
system using a capacity controlled compressor, when as the lube oil is not
223655 4 the lowest at its mid-range the highest GS-RA-13 C 2
all of the evaporators of a four box plant are actively used in the operation
being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil of the unloader

During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration

system using a capacity controlled compressor, when of no consequence
half of the evaporators of a four box plant are actively as the lube oil is not
223655 5 the lowest at its mid-range the highest GS-RA-13 B 2
being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil used in the operation
pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at of the unloader
what value?
During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration

system using a capacity controlled compressor, when of no consequence
only one of the evporators of a four box plant are as the lube oil is not
223655 6 the lowest at its mid-range the highest GS-RA-13 A 2
actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil used in the operation
pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at of the unloader
what value?
A compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration
system has 4 of its 6 cylinders controlled for variable
223656 4 83.30% 66.70% 50% 33.30% GS-RA-13 A 2
loads. Assuming that the controlled cylinders are
unloaded
A singly
compressor in incremental
used steps,
in a multi-box if four of five
refrigeration
223656 7 83.30% 66.70% 50% 33.30% GS-RA-13 B 2
unloaded singly in incremental steps, if three of five
boxes are currently feeding, what will be compressor
capacity at step 2 of incremental unloading?
223656 8
unloaded singly in incremental steps, if two of five
83.30% 66.70% 50% 33.30% GS-RA-13 C 1
boxes are currently feeding, what will be compressor
capacity at step 3 of incremental unloading?
223656 9 loads. Assuming that the controlled cylinders are 83.30% 66.70% 50% 33.30% GS-RA-13 D 1
unloaded singly in incremental steps, if only one of
five boxes is currently feeding, what will be
Fitting "7" to the Fitting "7" to the Fitting "7" to the Fitting "7" to the
discharge service liquid line service suction service valve suction valve service
valve service port; valve service port; service port; fitting valve service port;
What would be the proper hose connections for the fitting "8" to fitting "8" to "8" to refrigerant fitting "8" to
illustrated service gauge manifold set shown in figure refrigerant bottle refrigerant bottle bottle vapor valve refrigerant bottle
223683 1 "A" of the illustration if the service procedure to be vapor valve port; liquid valve port; port; fitting "9" to liquid valve port; GS-RA-30 A 1
performed is a dehydration evacuation followed by fitting "9" to vacuum fitting "9" to vacuum vacuum pump fitting "9" to vacuum
refrigerant charging as a vapor? pump suction port; pump suction port; suction port; fitting pump suction port;
fitting "10" to the fitting "10" to the "10" to the discharge fitting "10" to the
suction service valve suction service valve service valve service liquid line service
service port service port port valve service port

Which of the illustrated service gauge manifold sets

would require switching hoses when transitioning
223683 2 A B C D GS-RA-30 B 1
from a dehydration evacuation to refrigerant
charging?
When charging refrigerant into the system as a vapor valve "18" closed; valve "18" closed; valve "18" open; valve "18" open;
223683 3 GS-RA-30 D 1
with the compressor running using the service gauge valve "21" open; valve "21" closed; valve "21" open; valve "21" closed;
Items "B" and "D" are shown installed on the service
gauge manifold set shown in figure "C", but are not
analog to digital quick-coupler hose
223683 4 present on the service gauge manifold set in figure
converters
piercing valves
adapters
reducers GS-RA-31 C 1
"A" even though it is equipped to receive them. What
are the devices "B" and "D"?
Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation the air is circulated the air is circulated the air is circulated the air is circulated
evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid rapidly over a small rapidly over a small slowly over a large slowly over a large
223700 1 C 2
dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the evaporator with a evaporator with a evaporator with a evaporator with a
following will minimize this dehydration? maximum minimum minimum maximum
In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration the coils are covered the coils are coated the coils are the coils are
223701 1 evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator on the outside with on the inside with surrounded on the surrounded on the C 2
coils? insulation insulation outside by air outside by refrigerant
When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration
refrigerant inlet of inlet side of the suction side of the
223755 1 compressor discharge line, it discharges high liquid strainer D 2
the condenser evaporator compressor
pressure refrigerant vapor to what location?
According to 46 CFR Part 58, for protection
pressure relief
223756 1 purposes, what is required of all refrigeration high pressure cut-out refrigerant receiver low pressure cut-out C 2
device
systems?
The rupture disc on a low pressure centrifugal at the top of the on top of the at the discharge of on top of chiller
223757 3 D 2
refrigeration unit is used as an over pressure upper chamber of condenser shell the compressor evaporator shell
When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system
evaporator coil, where the hot gas flow direction is in
223900 1 the same direction that liquid flows during normal sub cooler liquid extractor re-evaporator drain lines C 2
cooling, liquid flood back to the compressor is a real
danger. One way to overcome the possibility of a to prevent chill
Some 'hot gas' defrost systems reheat the refrigerant to increase the to improve the to prevent the
shocking the
223900 2 just prior to its returning to the compressor for what circulation of liquid efficiency of the damaging effects of D 2
compressor suction
purpose? refrigerant expansion valve liquid slugging
valves
relieve excessive reduce flooding of
Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to produce flash gas at defrost the
223901 1 compressor head the receiver at low D 2
produce what effect? the expansion valve evaporator coils
pressure loads
the frost can be the frost can be the frost can be
What is true concerning frost build-up on the the frost will increase
quickly removed by removed by passing removed by passing
223901 2 evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion the refrigeration C 2
simply shutting down hot gas through the hot gas through the
refrigeration system? effect
the compressor coils or energizing coils or energizing
the frost will increase the frost can be the frost can be
Concerning frost appearing on one set of evaporator the frost will assist in
the value of removed by passing quickly removed by
223903 1 coils of a multi-box, direct expansion type increasing the C 2
superheat to the fluid hot vapors through simply shutting off
refrigeration system, what is true? refrigeration effect
leaving the coils the coils fluid flow to the coils

paint and insulate file the plates to

When checking zinc plates, or pencil zincs in the renew the plates at replace the zincs if
223930 1 the plates to prevent change the negative C 2
refrigerating system condenser, what should you do? each inspection deteriorated by 50%
corrosion value
pump down the low pump down the low isolate the
recover the entire
Prior to making non-major repairs (such as replacing side and liquid line to side and liquid line to dehydrator then
refrigerant charge to
a main liquid line dehydrator dessicant cartridge) of a the deepest 0 psig by closing the release the
223951 1 a suitable recovery C 2
large, multi-box refrigeration system, what should be achievable vacuum king valve, then remaining refrigerant
cylinder, then isolate
done before opening the system? by closing the king isolate the in the dehydrator to
the dehydrator
valve, then isolate dehydrator the atmosphere
Which of the precautions listed should be taken Bring the part of the Bring the part of the Set the high Use the hot gas
223951 2 A 2
before opening any part of a refrigeration system for system to be opened system to be opened pressure cutout on defrost line to
The pressure, in a low pressure refrigeration system 25 mm of Hg
223952 1 10 to 12 psig 4 to 7 psig 0 to 1 psig D 2
about to be opened for a major repair, should be absolute
The pressure or vacuum in a small appliance
223952 2 15 inches Hg 14.7 psig 1 to 2 psig 4 inches Hg vacuum D 2
refrigeration system about to be opened for repair
The pressure in the part of a high pressure

223952 3 refrigeration system about to be opened for a non- 1 to 2 psig 4 to 7 psig 11 to 12 psig 0 psig D 2
major repair should be brought to what value?
vapor pressure of
Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely discharge pressure hydrostatic pressure discharge pressure
the refrigerant at
223953 1 dangerous because of the high pressures generated. of the recovery of the expanding from the recovery C 2
saturation
The generation of pressure is the result of what? compressor liquid cylinder
temperature
The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration place a crow bar in inform all persons in
secure and tag the make a log book
223955 1 unit will not start while undergoing repairs is to do the flywheel of the the area not to start A 2
electrical circuit entry
what? unit the unit
What must be done, at a minimum, before a system

can legally be opened up for repairs while adhering to recovery of the reclamation of the recycling of the destruction of the
223992 1 A 2
the prohibition against the venting of halogenated refrigerant refrigerant refrigerant refrigerant
fluoro-carbon
Which recoveryrefrigerants
proceduretoshould
the atmosphere?
be used to
minimize the loss of oil from the system during the
223993 2 vapor recovery liquid recovery initial recovery vapor-liquid recovery A 2
recovery of refrigerant from small appliances such as
a water cooler?
In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive
faulty purge system system leaks on the system leaks on the
223994 1 running of the purge recovery unit generally indicates overcharged system C 2
vent valve low side high side
which probable condition?

Minor repairs may be performed on low pressure charge the system open the system
refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant pressurize the until it is completely vent to the
223995 1 heat the refrigerant A 2
charge if the pressure in the system is raised to system with nitrogen filled with liquid atmosphere and
atmospheric. How may this be accomplished? Those purge units Those purge units refrigerant allow
Thosethe pressure
purge units to
Those purge units
In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by which discharge the which discharge very which need the least
223997 1 which draw very little B 2
the term 'high efficiency purge unit?' highest percentage little refrigerant with amount of on-going
electrical power.
of refrigerant with the the air being maintenance.
Excessive moisture being collected in the purge unit
leaking condenser or low efficiency purge dryer core needs improper charging of
223998 1 of a low pressure refrigeration system could indicate A 2
chiller tubes unit replacement refrigerant
which probable condition?
During normal operation, traditionally, how has most through water-side through the purge through a leaking through the
223999 1 B 2
of the refrigerant released to the atmosphere from system leaks unit vent rupture disk compressor shaft
the bottom of the the top of the
In a refrigeration system, from what location would air expansion valve compressor oil fill
224000 2 receiver drain condenser purge D 2
and non-condensible gases be removed? equalizer connection connection
connection connection
performing a performing an
A refrigeration plant has been prepared for opening
dehydration evacuation on that
up the system for non-major repairs by performing a purging that part of introduce the system
evacuation on that part of the system
system pumpdown and bringing the part of the the system which charge into that part
224000 3 part of the system which was open with A 2
system to be opened to 0 psig. At the completion of was open with dry of the system which
which was open with a self-contained
the repairs and after re- closing the system what is nitrogen was open
a deep vacuum refrigerant recovery
the recommended procedure?
pump unit
A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of

free tubes of charge the system remove non- ensure positive air
224000 4 a water cooled condenser at the top of the condenser C 2
accumulated scale with refrigerant condensable gases circulation
shell is used for what purpose?
eliminate moisture separate refrigerant remove non- decrease the total
224000 5 Purging is the process used to do what? C 2
from the refrigeration from oil condensable gases amount of refrigerant
In the refrigeration system shown in the illustration,
224000 6 which of the valves indicated should be used to purge "5" "6" "11" "17" GS-RA-12 B 2
the system of air and non-condensable gases?
purging through the cracking the purge purging through the
Loss of refrigerant during the process of purging of air
purging through a discharge service valve briefly and top of the receiver
224002 4 and non-condensible gases can be kept to a C 2
dehydrator valve rather than the allowing the rather than the top of
minimum by what action?
top of the condenser refrigerant to re- the condenser
When handling contaminated oil from a hermetically store the oil in a remove the oil with a
wear goggles and circulate the oil
224003 1 sealed refrigeration compressor unit that has suffered clean refrigerant portable charging B 2
rubber gloves through a filter drier
from a motor burnout, what should be done? drum cylinder
Personnel servicing refrigeration systems and subject an all purpose gas
224003 2 goggles and gloves a respirator rubber soled shoes A 2
to the exposure to commonly used refrigerants mask
Such a chiller can Evacuation of the air
Low pressure chillers
operate at a from a low pressure Low pressure chillers
are routinely opened
Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low pressure below chiller prior to use extremely low
224005 1 for maintenance thus A 2
pressure centrifugal chillers? atmospheric charging with boiling point
introducing air at
pressure on the low refrigerant is not refrigerants.
each opening.
side thus drawing in possible.

Immediately before the actual process of adding oil to the hose should be the hose should be the hose should be the hose should be
224007 1 A 2
a compresssor cranckase is started, the oil charging purged with purged with nitrogen cleaned with an baked in an oven
Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick they should be they should be they should be
they should be
224007 2 disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging flushed with clean purged with cleaned with carbon B 2
warmed in an oven
hoses should be prepared in what way? refrigerant oil refrigerant tetrachloride
all air is purged from all refrigerant vapor all refrigerant vapor
When adding oil to a refrigeration system using a oil all air is purged from
the pump and hoses is purged from the is purged from the
224007 3 charging hand pump, what precaution must be the pump and hoses A 2
using clean compressor compressor
taken? using dry nitrogen
refrigeration oil or all air must purged crankcase using dry
the high pressure crankcase using
When adding oil to compressor crankcase of a the compressor the condenser must
from the pump and cutout switch must
224007 4 refrigeration system with a hand pump, what crankcase pressure be completely B 2
charging hose using be held open to
precaution must be taken? must not be too high isolated first
clean oil or prevent accidental
When adding oil to a refrigeration system, what the compressor all air is purged from the high pressure the compressor must
224007 10 B 2
precautions must be taken? suction pressure the pump and cutout switch is held be running
The process of removing refrigerant from a system
and storing it without testing or processing it in any
224008 1 reclaiming recouping recycling recovering D 2
way is known as what under the EPA Clean Air Act
rule definitions?
Which of the hand valve configurations for the gauge

224009 2 manifold set is the correct set up for charging A B C D GS-RA-03 B 2
refrigerant into the low side of the system as a vapor?

224009 3 manifold set is the correct set up for monitoring both A B C D GS-RA-03 D 2
the low and high system pressures?

manifold set is the correct set up for removing the
224009 4 remaining refrigerant from the gauge manifold set A B C D GS-RA-03 C 2
with the discharge service valve back- seated in
preparation for removing the gauge manifold set?
The safest and quickest method of adding refrigerant as a vapor using the as a liquid using the as a liquid using the as a vapor using the
224010 1 to a refrigeration system is to add the refrigerant discharge service suction service valve liquid line charging liquid line charging C 2
through which valve and in what state? valve service port service port valve port valve port
when charging as a
Concerning the charging of refrigerant into a vapor when charging as a when charging as a when charging as a
vapor it should be
224010 2 compression refrigerating system, which of the liquid it should be to liquid it should be to liquid it may be to C 2
directly to the
following is true? the low side only the high side only the low or high side
receiver only

warming the service

Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system warming the service inverting the service inclining the service
224011 1 cylinder with warm B 2
may be speeded up by what process? cylinder with a torch cylinder cylinder
water
the refrigerant the refrigerant
When a refrigeration system is being topped off with the suction service the discharge
should be charged charging cylinder
224011 2 a small amount of refrigerant through the low side valve must be back service valve must A 2
into the system as a should be turned
with the compressor running, what should be done? seated be front seated
vapor upside down
Which of the valves listed is normally closed when
Dehydrator inlet Thermal expansion
224012 1 charging the refrigeration system through the high Liquid line king valve Suction line valve B 2
valve valve
side?
Within the territorial limits of the United States,
violations of the Clean Air Act of 1990, that includes
224013 1 the intentional release of R-11, R-12, R-22 and other $5,000 $10,000 $25,000 $50,000 C 2
related class I or class II substances may result in
fines for each violation per day of what amount?
Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cSt synthetic refrigerant oil is
224015 1 miscible and suitable to use with which of the R-22 R-32 R-134a R-143a A 2
following refrigerants?
intentionally venting working on a
With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after class I or II refrigeration system mixing R-12 and R- producing a class I
224016 2 A 2
July 1, 1992, what action became illegal? refrigerants to the without permission of 22 refrigerant
atmosphere the Officer in Charge
If you mistakenly change from a lower pour point compressor
oil will not leave the compressor valves oil may congeal in
224017 1 lubricant to a higher pour point lubricant in a lubrication will be D 2
crankcase will be damaged the evaporator
refrigeration system, what will be the result? improved
the crankcase heater
oil has had time to oil in migration has
The best time to check the oil level in the compressor is secured when the
mix properly with the had sufficient time to the oil separator has
in a typical refrigeration system is when shortly after compressor is
224018 1 refrigerant and return back to the had sufficient time to B 2
the compressor has stopped after a long period of shutdown; thereby,
migrate throughout crankcase via the fill
running. Why is this so? ensuring that a false
the system suction line
level is not read
With a service gauge manifold set connected to a Valves "2" and "5"
Valves "2" and "5" Valves "2" and "5"
refrigerant compressor as shown in the illustration, Valves "2" and "5" both closed, along
both closed, along both open, along
which arrangement of the gauge manifold set valves both open, along with valves "1" and
224019 5 with valves "1" and with valves "1" and GS-RA-03 B 2
and compressor service valves would allow for with valves "1" and "6" both cracked
"6" both back- "6" both open in the
simultaneous reading of the compressor suction and "6" both front-seated. open off their back-
seated. midposition.
discharge pressures? seats.
All shipboard personnel responsible for the before they can before performing
maintenance and repair of air conditioning systems pump down the before they can set maintenance, before performing
using refrigerants covered under the EPA Clean Air system in the operating service or repair that any maintenance or
224020 1 C 2
Act venting prohibition, must be certified through an preparation for controls of the could reasonably be repair regardless of
approved Enviromental Protection Agency (EPA) shifting over to the system expected to release the actual procedure
program to do which of the following? standby condensing Class 1 or Class 2

the recovery
Under the definitions under the EPA Clean Air Act the recovery the recovery the recovery
equipment recovers
rules, how can refrigerant recovery equipment that is equipment must equipment can only equipment can only
224021 1 refrigerant with the B 2
considered as being system dependent best be have its own power recover vapor recover liquid
aid of components in
described? source refrigerant refrigerant
the system
In addition to the main outermost scale on the low saturation pressure saturation
actual pressure actual temperature
side compound gage fitted to the portable service scales for varying temperature scales
224022 1 scales for different scales for different D 2
manifold, there are often one or more other scales on ambient for different
refrigerants refrigerants
the face of the gage. What are these other scales? temperatures refrigerants
In addition to pressure, most compound and standard superheated sub cooled
saturated refrigerant
224022 2 pressure gauges used for refrigeration service are refrigerant refrigerant absolute pressure A 2
temperature
also provided with a scale indicating what parameter? temperature temperature
In a water-cooled ship's stores refrigeration plant
condenser cooling
using a high pressure refigerant as defined under the compressor suction compressor lube oil pump
224022 3 water supply A 2
EPA Clean Air Act rules, which of the following pressure discharge pressure discharge pressure
pressure
applications would be appropriate for a permanently
Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration
224023 1 system should be in which of the following High pressure liquid High pressure vapor Low pressure vapor Low pressure liquid C 2
conditions?
In a refigeration system, once the gage manifold both manifold hand both manifold hand both manifold hand both manifold hand
hoses are attached to the compressor service valve valves should be valves should be valves should be valves should be
224024 1 C 2
connections and properly purged, what should be the open and the open and the closed and the open and the
status of the manifold valves and the service valves compressor service compressor service compressor service compressor service
When purging a refrigeration gage manifold using the high pressure the high pressure the low pressure the low pressure
system pressure as the source of refrigerant for hose fitting at the hose fitting at the hose fitting at the hose fitting at the
224025 1 C 2
purging, which of the fittings listed is normally discharge service gage manifold high suction service valve gage manifold low
tightened LAST? valve service port pressure connection service port pressure connection
What is the correct color coding of refrigerant

gray top and yellow gray top and light light blue top and yellow top and gray
224030 1 recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant D 2
lower body blue lower body yellow lower body body
contained within?
when testing a
EPA Clean Air Act rules permit refrigerant to be when release is
system for leaks when adding oil to a during replacement
224031 1 released to the atmosphere under which of the considered 'de B 2
using R-12 and compressor of a compressor
following conditions? minims'
nitrogen

Inhalation of high concentrations of

224032 1 chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants (CFCs) may have drowsiness loss of concentration cardiac arrhythmias all of the above D 2
which of the following effects?
the recovered the recovered

the recovered the recovered
What is true concerning the recovery of refrigerant refrigerant must be refrigerant must be
refrigerant must be refrigerant must
224033 1 from small appliances as defined in the EPA Clean Air sent to a designated conveyed to a B 2
destroyed as recycled locally for
Act rules? reclaim facility for refillable recovery
unusable processing
processing device
The recovered The recovered The recovered The recovered
What is true concerning highly contaminated refrigerant should be refrigerant may be refrigerant must be refrigerant may be
224033 2 refrigerant recovered from burned out small sent to a designated blended with new destroyed by the used to clean out A 2
appliances? reclamation facility refrigerant for refrigeration systems that have
for processing. eventual re-use. technician. suffered from a burn-
When recovering R-12 from a small appliance with a
working compressor, using a recovery device
224034 1 manufactured after November 15, 1993, what 75% 80% 90% 99% C 2
percentage of the remaining charge must be removed
from the system?
Refillable tanks used to ship CFC and HCFC the United States
the United States the Underwriters the Environmental
224035 1 refrigerants or used to recover these refrigerants Department of B 2
Coast Guard Laboratories Protection Agency
must meet the standards of what entity? Transportation
When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system,

temperature
224036 1 the nitrogen cylinder should always be equipped with blue top level indicator pressure regulator D 2
indicator
what device or feature?
Consultation should be made prior to beginning the
the Environmental the system's the United States the owner of the
224037 1 conversion of an existing CFC-12 system to HFC- B 2
Protection Agency manufacturer Coast Guard system
134a with what entity?
Persons recovering refrigerant from small appliances
Type I or Universal
224038 1 must be certified as what type of technician under the Type II technician Type III technician All of the above C 2
technician
EPA Clean Air Act rules?
According to the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is true The leaks must be The leaks must be Legally, the leaks are
The leaks must be
concerning refrigerant leaks in a small hermetically repaired if the annual repaired if the annual not required to be
224039 1 repaired within 30 D 2
sealed shipboard water cooler with a 20 ounce leak rate exceeds leak rate exceeds repaired, but morally
days.
charge weight? 35% of the total 15% of the total it is advisable to
initially liquid
How should small appliances with less than three either vapor or liquid charged and then
224042 1 liquid charged vapor charged B 2
pounds of refrigerant be charged with refrigerant? charged topped with a vapor
charge

The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is saturation

224043 1 saturation pressure volume weight C 2
measured by what means? temperature
Moisture is removed from recovered refrigerant using purging non- opening a drain condensing the circulating the
224044 1 D 2
a recycling machine by what means? condensables off the petcock on the oil moisture in the refrigerant through a
An untagged refrigerant cylinder is found in your
224047 1 storage area. Since it is color coded light (sky) blue, CFC-12 CFC-11 HCFC-22 HFC-134a D 2
what refrigerant is contained within?
The most cost-effective method of recovering recovery using a liquid recovery using vapor recovery using
refrigerant from a low pressure chiller with more than recovering using a vacuum pump based a liquid pump, a vacuum pump
224050 1 C 2
500 lbs of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements liquid pump only vapor recovery followed by vapor based recovery unit
is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol? machine only recovery using a followed by liquid
In reclaiming recovered refrigerant, which type of
224053 1 contamination will the reclamation process be unable mixed refrigerants acid moisture air A 2
to separate?
What is the maximum volume to which refillable

224054 1 60% full 70% full 80% full 90% full C 2
refrigeration cylinders should be filled?
In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can should never be

224056 1 be used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what both liquid and vapor liquid only vapor only used with low A 2
state? pressure systems
When removing the primary refrigerant from a system Insure that the water Insure that the water Insure that the water Leave some
using water as a secondary refrigerant, it is important doesn't become and refrigerant is drained or refrigerant in the
224057 1 C 2
to follow which procedure(s) to safeguard the contaminated with oil separator is continually system to prevent
equipment? in the direct contact functioning properly. circulating to avoid the water from
Charging liquid HCFC-123 into a system under a
the purge unit to system secondary air and moisture to rupture disk to
224060 1 deep vacuum could cause what to happen unless B 2
operate refrigerant to freeze enter the receiver rupture
necessary precautions are taken?
self-contained self-contained the system
What differentiates 'system-dependent' and 'self- recovery devices can recovery devices compressor must be there is no difference
224061 1 B 2
contained' recovery devices in refrigeration systems? only be used on usually contain a working to use between the devices
If when observing the troublehsooting indicators of a large CFC and compressor, system- system dependent
mechanical refrigeration system, you ascertain that recover the look for traces of oil
224064 1 charge the system evacuate the system C 2
the system has a significant leak resulting in a loss of refrigerant to pinpoint the leak
refrigerant, what should be your FIRST action?
If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted recovery from the recovery from the recovery from both by venting to
224066 1 C 2
with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non- high side only low side only the high and low atmosphere, cannot

In preparation for repairing a leaking refrigeration

recover the recover the
system normally containing 50 lbs.of a class II recover the do not attempt to
refrigerant first as a refrigerant first as a
224067 2 refrigerant, it has been determined that the system refrigerant as a recover any D 2
vapor, then as a liquid, then as a
pressure is presently 0 psig. In terms of refrigerant vapor only refrigerant
liquid vapor
recovery, which of the following statements is true? do not attempt to
If you find the pressure of a refrigeration system
only recover the recover liquid and recover the
containing a Class I or Class II refrigerant to be only recover the
224067 3 liquid refrigerant in vapor refrigerant and refrigerant and repair D 2
opened for the accomplishment of repairs is 0 psig, vapor refrigerant
the system have it reclaimed the leak before
what must be done?
Prior to making repairs on a refrigeration system repressurize the pulling non
isolate a vacuum on
leaking
only recover the only recover the
containing a refrigerant covered under the EPA Clean system with components and
224067 4 refrigerant vapor liquid refrigerant D 2
Air Act rules, if system leaks prevent reaching the refrigerant to locate evacuate to
from the system from the system
required levels of evacuation for recovery of the leak mandated levels
do not need to
Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances either active or
224069 1 passive only active only recover the C 2
can employ what type of recovery equipment? passive
refrigerant
the compressor
the compressor may the high pressure cut-
suction isolation the reed valves
If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration continue to operate out should be
224070 2 valve should be should be replaced B 2
compressor are leaking badly, what should be done? at minimum readjusted to
throttled to as necessary
efficiency compensate
compensate
If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration the reed valves the low side the high pressure cut-
the reed valves
224070 3 compressor are leaking badly, what statement is should be reground pressure will indicate out setting should be B 2
should be replaced
true? and relapped below normal lowered
In addition to the drive belt itself, a V- belt that is motor shaft and
the shaft of the prime the compressor drive the prime mover
224100 1 tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what compressor main C 2
mover pulley drive pulley
other drive component? bearings
a new belt would be a new belt would be by adjusting the for reasons of
longer than the old shorter than the old pulley, it is possiblemaintenance
When one drive belt of a drive belt set breaks, what is
224101 1 belts and would not belts and would be to even the belt economy it is B 2
the criterion for replacement?
be subjected to any subjected to the tensions even if only recommended to
appreciable load, entire
ensureload, therefore
the seasoned one belt is replaced replace only the
ensure the proper
When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires belts are reinstalled season the new belt replace the entire
224101 2 belt dressing is D 2
replacing, what will be required? in their proper prior to installation belt set
applied
any lubricant from sequence
dirt and foreign any lubricant from
the spring from being
When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a contacting the particles from contacting the
damaged by the
224102 1 refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken carbon surface that coming in contact stationary seal face B 2
corrosive effects of
to prevent what from happening? would cause the with the highly that would cause
excessive handling
expulsion of
refrigerant the be
must polished sealing
all refrigerant must etching
time must be allowed all of the must
refrigerant face
When a change in superheat setting adjustment to a
bled off the sensing be pumped into the for conditions to be routed through
224150 1 thermostatic expansion valve is performed, which of C 2
line before receiver before stabilize in the the dehydrator while
the following is true?
A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling adjustments are adjustments are evaporator before changing the
the evaporator the expansion valve
evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the evaporator feed the expansion valve
224150 2 pressure will diaphragm will B 2
the evaporator superheat setting will result in which of will increase will further close
decrease rupture
the following?

Thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for suction pressure evaporator suction pressure and
224150 3 head pressure only C 2
which of the following? only superheat only box temperature
with steel wool or an carefully coat the
apply a heavy
When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve apply a light film of abrasive cloth device with silicone
coating of grease to
224151 1 power element, what is true concerning the thermal oil to increase heat remove oxidation on sealant to reduce the B 2
function as a heat
bulb? transfer the bulb and suction effects of convective
sink
line cooling
If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a on the bottom of the
container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" line to enable the as close as possible directly below the
on the upper surface
224152 2 (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), the bulb to absorb the to the expansion point of maximum D 2
of the line
thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be maximum amount of valve heat transfer
attached where on the return line? heat
Ensuring that the
Cleaning of in-line Checking that the
Expansion valve maintenance should include which thermal bulb is in
224153 1 strainers as thermal bulb is in the All of the above. D 2
of the following procedures? good contact with
necessary. proper location.
The procedure the suction line and
No special tools are This procedure is An accurate
requires a
required as long as done at the factory thermometer and
Which statement about calibrating a newly installed refrigeration wrench
224154 1 the solid state circuit with tools not suction pressure D 2
thermostatic expansion valve is correct? and a digital
control panels are available to a gage are essential to
thermometer to
functioning properly. mariner. this process.
measure box
Clean off oxidation Remove excess Heat shrink
Attach the thermal from the surface of lengths of the insulating material
Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for
bulb to the suctionthe suction line and sensing bulb around the device
224155 1 the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion B 2
line using plastic sensing bulb with capillary tube from once the bulb has
valve?
ties. fine abrasive cloth or the device to been properly
steel wool. increase sensitivity. secured.
Note the low side Note the low side Note the low side Subtract the
Which of the listed statements describes the method
pressure, determine pressure, determine pressure, determine temperature
224156 2 used to determine the amount of superheat present in GS-RA-16 A 2
the corresponding the corresponding the corresponding measured at the
the suction gas leaving the evaporator coil?
Which of the problems listed would cause the saturation saturation saturation thermostatic
Suction gas heat
discharge pressure and temperature of an R-134a air- Thermal expansion Condenser clogged High pressure cutout
224200 1 exchanger C 2
cooled refrigeration unit to increase above normal for valve frozen open. or fouled. switch inoperative.
bypassed.
existing conditions?
insufficient cooling the expansion valve excessive

One cause of high head pressure occurring in a a low refrigerant
224200 2 water flow to the 'stuck' in too open a evaporator A 2
refrigeration system can be which of the following? charge in the system
condenser position superheat
The compressor in the ship service refrigeration condenser is getting

discharge valves are discharge valves are system is low on
224200 3 system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout insufficient cooling C 2
leaking excessively leaking slightly refrigerant
switch. What is a probable reason for this? water flow
The refrigeration system compressor is short cycling check for sufficient purge non- reset the completely purge the
224200 4 A 2
on high head pressure. When checked, the sea water cooling water flow condensable gases thermostatic high pressure side of

purge the condenser check for proper increase the high

If a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high reduce the cooling
224200 5 if the waterside is water flow through pressure cutout B 2
head pressure, what should you do? water flow
dirty the condenser setting
Which of the following problems could cause the high Excessive frost build- Excessive Insufficient
A shortage of
224200 6 pressure cutout switch to shut down the compressor up on the condenser cooling condenser cooling D 2
refrigerant charge.
in a refrigeration system? evaporator. water flow. water flow.
High suction pressure accomapnied by low suction the expansion valve

the expansion valve the king valve is a clogged liquid-line
224202 1 temperature to a refrigeration system compressor is is insufficiently B 2
being open too wide insufficiently open strainer
caused by which of the following? opened
Which of the conditions listed could cause

Insufficient flow of The box solenoid The high pressure
excessively low refrigerant pressure at the The system is low on
224203 1 condenser cooling valve 'stuck' in the cutout switch is B 2
compressor suction of a TXV controlled refrigeration refrigerant.
water. open position. inoperative.
system?
When a refrigeration compressor has developed a

increase the amount decrease the amount raise the high remove some
high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant
224204 2 of cooling water to of cooling water to pressure cut-out refrigerant from the D 2
overcharge, what should be done to compensate for
the condenser the condenser opening pressure system
or to correct this situation?
leaky compressor
A low compressor discharge pressure for a warm food in the wasted zinc plates in faulty door gaskets
224205 1 discharge valve C 2
refrigerator can be caused by which of the following? refrigerator the condenser on the refrigerator
plates
insufficient
Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration excessive condenser air in the excessive refrigerant
224205 2 condenser cooling B 2
system can be caused by which of the following? cooling water flow refrigeration system in the system
water flow
If the discharge valve plates on a refrigeration

have high discharge short cycle on the
224205 3 compressor are leaking badly, in terms of the run continuously not start A 2
pressure high pressure switch
compresssor, what would be the operating symptom?

In a refrigeration system equipped with a

high suction high suction low suction pressure low suction pressure
reciprocating compressor and a water cooled
224205 4 pressure and high pressure and low and low discharge and high discharge B 2
condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge
discharge pressure discharge pressure pressure pressure
valves will result in what operating condition?
Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge overfeeding of the damage to the constant running of flooding of the
224205 5 C 2
valves will cause which of the following to happen? expansion valve condenser the compressor receiver
If any of the discharge valves on a refrigeration
short cycle on the short cycle on the
compressor are leaking slightly, the compressor will
224205 6 run continuously not start low pressure cut-out high pressure cut-out A 2
have a tendency to exhibit which of the following
switch switch
behaviors?
If the refrigeration compressor was developing higher air or non- leaking discharge leaking suction liquid refrigerant
224207 1 A 2
than normal discharge pressure, this could be a result condensable gases valves valves flooding back to the
An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration restriction in flooding back of
air and non-
system, without any corresponding change in the refrigerant piping water in the liquid refrigerant to
224207 2 condensable gases B 2
cooling water inlet temperature, would probably be associated with the refrigerant the compressor from
in the condenser
caused by which of the following? liquid line the evaporator
Air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is frosting of the liquid higher than normal abnormally cold
224207 3 a clear sight glass B 2
indicated by what operating symptom? line head pressure reefer boxes
unusually high head unusually lower than
Air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water- higher than normal higher than normal
pressure when normal discharge
224207 4 cooled condenser is usually indicated by what liquid level in the liquid refrigerant A 2
compared to the pressure when
operating symptom? receiver temperature
existing
a minor temperature compared to the
If a refrigeration compressor had a higher than a slightly higher than
accumulation of air a constant loss of leaking compressor
224209 1 normal suction pressure, the problem could be a normal liquid level in C 2
or non-condensable refrigerant suction valves
result of which of the following? the receiver
gases in the system
If a refrigeration compressor had developed a slightly a minor liquid refrigerant
224209 2 a leaking king valve a clogged sub cooler D 2
high suction pressure accompanied with an accumulation of air flooding back from
reaches the
'Flooding back' is a condition where the liquid vaporizes in the flashes in the liquid condenses in the
224209 3 compressor through B 2
refrigerant does what in a refrigeration system? condenser line receiver
the suction line
In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration
system, both low discharge and high suction overcharge of improper superheat discharge relief valve
fouled shell-and-tube
224211 1 pressures are being simultaneouslyexperienced. The refrigerant in the adjustment on the leaking back to the D 2
condenser
probable cause for this condition is which of the system low side suction side
following?
If the running suction pressure for an operating
insufficient
refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled an excess of liquid the expansion valve a fouled compressor
224212 1 condensing medium C 2
refrigeration system is below normal, the cause may refrigerant overfeeding suction strainer
flow
be which of the following?
If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration
compressor of a TXV controlled air-cooled refrigerant overfeeding by the a restricted liquid-
224212 2 a dirty condenser C 2
refrigeration system is below normal, which of the overcharge expansion valve line strainer
following can be a cause?

Which of the conditions listed is one indication of an Prolonged Short-cycling of the Unusually high oil
224214 1 excessive amount of refrigerant in a TXV controlled Relief valve lifting compressor running compressor on the level in the C 2
refrigeration system? periods high pressure cutout crankcase
An excessive charge of refrigerant in a

thermostaticallycontrolled, air-cooled, refrigeration oil foaming in the lower than normal higher than normal the compressor to
224214 2 C 2
system using a TXV as an expansion device can compressor box temperature discharge pressure run continuously
cause which of the following?
the system will

the compressor will the compressor will
Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration unit will automatically change
224214 3 the relief valve will lift tend to run short-cycle on the D 2
result in which of the following? over to the hot gas
continuously high pressure cut-out
defrost cycle
If a refrigeration system is overcharged with higher than normal increased system short cycling on the
224214 4 low suction pressure B 2
refrigerant, what would be the result? compressor head operating efficiency low pressure cutout
The refrigeration compressor in a water cooled system is low on high pressure cutout discharge valves are discharge valves are
224214 5 B 2
refrigeration system is short cycling on the high refrigerant switch is improperly leaking slightly leaking excessively
The compressor of an air-cooled condensing unit of a
system is
refrigeration system is short cycling on the high system is low on discharge valves are discharge valves are
224214 6 overcharged with A 2
pressure cutout switch. What is a probable reason for refrigerant leaking excessively leaking slightly
refrigerant
this?
Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of Sweating of the

Colder than normal Frosting of the Weeping of the
224215 1 an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through compressor A 2
solenoid valve evaporator purge valve
the system? crankcase
If the oil level is not This condition is the This phenomenon is
Which of the listed statements describes the reason initially high, this result of the sudden This will occur only if inherent only in
224216 1 why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration condition is the result low pressure created crankcase heaters hermetically sealed B 2
compressor? of agitation created in the crankcase at are used. units and is always
A refrigeration system is equipped with a by the movement of start up causing the provisional.
the expansion valve a leaking an incorrectly
reciprocating compressor and a water cooled refrigerant flooding
224219 1 overfeeding the compressor suction adjusted high D 2
condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, the the condenser
evaporator valve pressure cutout
resulting high head pressure will be caused by what
lower than normal
Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor higher than normal lower than normal noticeable increase
224220 1 evaporator A 2
are indicated by which of the following? suction pressure suction pressure in compressor noise
temperature
A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be
tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the rising and falling with increasing with each decreasing with each decreasing to a
224223 1 A 2
compressor, turning the discharge service valve all each stroke stroke stroke vacuum
the way in, and then turning the compressor over by
Which of the conditions listed will cause a Shortage of Slight shortage of Excessive Faulty expansion
224228 1 B 2
refrigeration compressor to run constantly without refrigerant oil. refrigerant. condenser cooling valve.
If a refrigeration compressor using a thermostat as a
primary controller is running continuously without a shortage of warm food in the excessive condenser a shortage of
224228 2 D 2
significantly lowering the temperature in the compressor oil refrigerator cooling water refrigerant
refrigerated space, which of the following is most

If a refrigeration compressor in a multi- box system the high pressure cut- the system is the system has a one of the TXV
224228 3 runs continuously, which of the following might be a out switch is 'stuck' overcharged with shortage of power elements has C 2
cause? in the closed position refrigerant refrigerant lost its charge
If a refrigeration system were moderately short of short cycling of the
continuous running high suction high discharge
224228 4 refrigerant charge, the condition would result in what compressor on the A 2
of the compressor pressure pressure
operating symptom? high pressure cutout
During tests to discover why a refrigeration high cooling water a shortage of
224229 1 leaking door gaskets air in the system A 2
compressor is running continuously, it is determined temperature refrigerant
Unusal noise coming from a refrigeration compressor worn bearings and slugging due to too much oil in
can be caused by which of the following conditions? piston pins flooding back circulation
If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, short cycling of the

continuous running high suction high discharge
224231 1 besides an elevated box temperature, what would be compressor on the A 2
of the compressor pressure pressure
an observable symptom? water failure switch
What is the color of the flame produced by a halide

224250 1 torch when there is no halogenated refrigerant orange blue purple green B 2
present at the location of the exploring tube?
stored at
Some chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants may charged into a
temperatures below allowed to mix with exposed to an open
224251 1 decompose into a toxic irritating gas under what system having D 2
60 degrees compressor oil flame or hot surface
condtions? copper fittings
Fahrenheit
R-22 is generally considered to be a safe, nontoxic,
superheated outside in contact with an heated to the boiling
224252 1 nonflammable, and nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, all of the above B 2
the system open flame point
however, become highly toxic under what conditions?
In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces,

224252 2 chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decomposes petroleum crystals phosgene gas water vapor carbon monoxide B 2
and form what chemical substance?
When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or
an electric heating element, which of the listed
224252 3 CO2 Methyl chloride R-22 Sulphur dioxide C 2
refrigerants will break down and produce phosgene
gas?
Monochlorodifluoromethane (R-22) when vaporized
trichlorodifluorometh
224252 4 in the presence of an open flame, will form what carbon dioxide gas phosgene gas sulphur dioxide B 2
ane
chemical substance?
Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable

because of its high efficiency, due to its high latent
224253 1 heat of vaporization value. It is, however, a toxic flammable explosive all of the above D 2
hazardous substance. Which of the following
properties is associated with ammonia?

People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems in a low will dissolve in

224253 2 become accustomed to its odor and may forget that concentration can perspiration and will burn or explode all of the above D 2
the vapors have which of the following properties? cause death cause caustic burns
Which of the following leak detectors would be

224256 2 appropriate for use in detecting leaks on a system A B C D GS-RA-04 D 2
currently in a vacuum?
Which of the following leak detectors would be

224256 3 appropriate for use in detecting leaks on a system A B C D GS-RA-04 D 2
currently pressurized with nitrogen?
Which of the following leak detectors requires the
224256 4 A B C D GS-RA-04 B 2
introduction of a fluorescent additive to the system?
Which of the following leak detectors has a sensitivity

224256 5 adjustment to compensate for the presence of A B C D GS-RA-04 C 2
background refrigerant in the vicinity?
Which of the following leak detectors is fitted with a

224256 6 A B C D GS-RA-04 A 2
copper reaction plate?
To gain sensitivity,
Which of the following statements is correct The flame of a halide Halide torches are
the largest possible Halide torches are
concerning the testing of an R- 22 refrigeration torch will turn blue in useful in locating
224258 1 flame should be not suitable for C 2
system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a the presence of R- very small R-22
used with the halide detecting R-22 leaks.
halide torch? 22. leaks.
torch.
use an electronic
To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from an apply a soap solution
perform a standing leak detector to perform a hydrostatic
224259 1 R-22 refrigeration system in an enclosed area, how to fittings seen to B 2
vacuum test check all fittings for test with water
should this be done? have oil residue
leaks
What is a quick method used to test a water cooled check the drains on
test the cooling test the receiver for test the condenser
224260 1 condenser for the presence of a refrigerant leak the condenser heads C 2
water for proper pH water content tubes hydrostatically
without actually pinpointing the actual location? with a halide torch
If you find a refrigerant leak while using a halide it will change from it will change from it will change from
224261 1 it will stay blue C 2
torch, what will happen to the flame as the exploring blue to orange green to blue blue to green
Which of the following statements is correct The probe should be The torch is effective The flame will turn A refrigerant gas
224262 1 C 2
concerning a halide torch leak detector? moved rapidly over in locating large green in the mask must be worn

When you find a small refrigerant leak in a system

fitted with a halogenated refrigerant with a halide
224262 2 orange blue white green D 2
torch, the color of the torch flame will change to what
color?
Excessive, prolonged oil foaming in the crankcase of compressor damage formation of sludge increased viscosity carbon deposit on
224267 1 A 2
a refrigeration compressor at start up can cause what from a lack of proper in the crankcase in the lubricant the compressor
release of dissolved release of miscible sudden evaporation
sudden evaporation
The term 'oil foaming' in refrigeration practice, is used lubricant from the refrigerant from the of entrapped
224267 2 of entrapped air from B 2
to describe what event? refrigerant in the lubricant in the moisture from the
the refrigerant liquid
crankcase crankcase crankcase lubricant
What must be done to use standard leak detection lower the pressure in raise the pressure in add nitrogen to the
224268 1 cool the refrigerant B 2
methods on a low pressure refrigeration system the system below the system above system
Excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the carbon deposits on poor evaporator heat
rapid corrosion of the no operating
224300 1 B 2
refrigerant in a refrigeration system will cause what the compressor transfer thermal expansion problems
An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air cooled short cycle on low
short cycle on high
224302 1 run continuously fail to start B 2
refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a pressure cutout pressure cutout
excessive amount of
If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration partially blocked
an evaporator coil in a low level of Freon non-condensable
224303 2 condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure, the thermal expansion D 2
need of defrosting in the receiver gases trapped in the
probable cause may be due to what condition? valve
condenser
If an abnormally large difference is maintained the compressor will the evaporator coil the compressor will the box temperature
224304 2 B 2
between the evaporator refrigerant temperature and tend to trip out on will tend to tend to overheat due will be pulled down
What is true concerning the accumulation of air and cause a loss of the create a vapor lock collect in the cause foaming of the
224305 1 C 2
other noncondensable gases in a refrigeration liquid seal in the liquid receiver condenser oil in the crankcase
Which of the conditions listed represents the greatest Keeps the Reduces the
Increases the load Has no effect on the
224307 2 effect of excess frost accumulation on evaporator refrigerated space efficiency of the B 2
on the compressor. system.
coils in a refrigeration system? cooler. plant.
Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, high relative humidity the refrigerant
a liquid line proper cooling taking
224309 1 frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually surrounding the contaminated with B 2
restriction place
indicative of what condition? liquid line moisture
If one box in a multiple box, direct expansion type

liquid refrigerant
refrigeration system was experiencing an excessively excessive frost on a leaking hand an oversized
224350 1 returning to the C 2
low temperature, this could be a result of which of the the cooling coils expansion valve expansion valve
compressor
following?
In an operating refrigeration system low on
224352 1 refrigerant, what will be the indication as viewed in it will be clear it will be blue it will be light green it will show bubbles D 2
the liquid line sight glass?
A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is the system is fully there is air leaking in ice crystals are the system contains
224352 2 D 2
examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with charged from the condenser forming in the less than a full
the compressor short
In the refrigeration system, a shortage of refrigerant is cycling on high high suction bubbles in the sight
224352 3 high head pressure D 2
indicated by which of the following? pressure cut out pressure glass
switch

If a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system less than a full

too much refrigerant oil entrained in the ice crystals forming
224352 4 shows gas bubbles in motion passing inside of the charge of refrigerant C 2
in the system refrigerant in the refrigerant
glass, what does this indicate? in the system
The presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system promote refrigerant be absorbed in the cause low erosion of the TXV
224353 1 D 2
liquid line may produce what effect? dehydration receiver condensing pressure needle and seat
If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is add refrigerant to the check the evaporator add oil to the open the hand
224353 2 B 2
exhibiting an unusual degree of sweating or frosting system superheat crankcase expansion valve
An unusual degree of refrigeration system insufficient lube oil excessive circulation insufficient
an overworked
224353 3 compressor crankcase sweating is an indication of circulating through of lube oil through refrigerant in the B 2
compressor
what possible condition? the system the system system
Shortage of Condenser cooling
Which of the listed reasons could cause frost to form Expansion valve is Liquid line service
224353 4 refrigerant in the water temperature is B 2
on the suction line of a refrigeration compressor? stuck open. valve is closed.
system. too high.
If the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is incorrectly
increase the heat increase the deliver more decrease the heat
placed at the center of the evaporator coil instead of
224353 5 removal capacity of superheat present at refrigerant to the removal capacity of D 2
the end (tail coil), it will have which of the following
the evaporator coil the bulb location evaporator coil the evaporator coil
effects?
If a refrigeration system compressor were short the system was
the system was low the suction valves the relief valve was
224354 1 cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what might overcharged with B 2
on refrigerant were leaking slightly leaking slightly
be the cause? refrigerant
If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the system was the high pressure
the expansion valve the suction valves
224354 2 the low pressure cutout switch, what is the most overcharged with switch was C 2
strainers were fouled were leaking slightly
probable cause? refrigerant improperly adjusted
the flow of 100%

A constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion proper refrigerant a faulty refrigerant liquid refrigerant
224354 3 a lack of refrigerant C 2
valve will always indicates what condition? control control valve passing to the
evaporator
If a refrigeration compressor will not start even the pressure an excessive lack of
badly leaking
224354 4 though the box temperature is high, which of the regulating valve is refrigerant in the worn piston rings B 2
discharge valves
following would be a probable reason for this? not closing system

If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the system was

the crankcase was the suction valves the system was low
224354 5 the low pressure cutout switch, what might be the overcharged with D 2
low on oil were leaking slightly on refrigerant
cause? refrigerant
low differential blown fuse or tripped

When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, loose expansion faulty suction
224356 1 setting on the H.P. circuit breaker in the C 2
the FIRST thing that should be checked for is what? valve control bulb pressure regulator
cutout motor circuit
Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture
add a predetermined
indicators installed in conjunction with the sight glass automatically cut in secure the
224357 1 change color amount of liquid B 2
in the liquid line. If excess moisture is present in the the driers compressor
drying agent
system, how will a typical moisture indicator respond?
A refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when during hot gas during starting
224359 1 under heavy loads lack of refrigerant C 2
operating under what conditions? defrost conditions
Moisture in the
Variable spring
Which of the problems listed represents the major system or foreign
Lube oil passing tension caused by Frost on the liquid
224360 1 difficulty encountered with thermal expansion valve matter collecting at B 2
through the system. the changing line.
operation? the valve inlet valve
temperature.
screen..
cause sweating and
Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will be removed by the freeze in the
224360 2 boil in the condenser frost on the D 2
most likely produce what effect? liquid line strainers expansion valve
evaporator coils
freeze within the emulsify the oil in the freeze in the king
224360 3 Moisture in the refrigerant may produce what effect? clog the oil separator A 2
expansion valve condenser valve
ice formation internal

A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture acid formation sludge formation in
224360 4 to the expansion all of the above D 2
can lead to what condition? leading to corrosion the crankcase
valve
A warmer than normal compressor suction line might insufficient insufficient excessive opening of
224361 1 excess refrigerant B 2
be caused by what condition? lubrication refrigerant the expansion valve
The valve will begin The valve will fail The valve will fail
Which of the following conditions will occur if the The valve will fail
to close, but the open as designed to open and the cooling
224363 2 power element of the thermostatic expansion valve closed, providing no GS-RA-07 A 2
external equalizing provide continuous capacity will be
shown in the illustration loses its charge? cooling capacity.
line will assist
Remove in
the power cooling.
Chill the bulb in ice increased.
Place the sensing
Heat the bulb by
head from the unit, water while bulb in ice water and
Which of the following statements describes the using a halide torch
heat the bulb with a observing the then warm by hand.
224364 1 accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion or similar device and D 2
torch while using a compressor for an Observe flood-
valve? observe the valve
scale to measure the increase in suction through and
stem movement.
distance the pressure. temperature change

the box temperature the refrigeration

will decrease effect will increase
If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too the efficiency of the liquid may flood back
224365 1 causing an contributing to B 2
low a superheat setting, what will be the result? unit will be increased to the compressor
expansion of the uncontrolled box
the suction line will the suction line will volume
the box of air
temperature temperatures
the receiver level will
If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion
be abnormally cold be abnormally warm will be pulled way be abnormally high
224365 2 valve is set too low, what would be the result, A 2
and liquid may flood due to a reduced down below the due to a reduced
assuming that the system has a single evaporator?
If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too back
all to the
of the system amount of refrigerant
an insufficient normal temperature amount
only the of refrigerant
required
an excessive amount
high a superheat value in a TXV controlled single liquid will flow to and amount of liquid will amount of refrigerant
224367 1 of liquid will be fed to B 2
evaporator refrigeration system what will be the flood the evaporator be fed to the will enter the
the evaporator
result? coil
the heat removal evaporator evaporator
the evaporator will the suction line of the suction line of
If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion capacity of the
224367 2 be overfed with liquid the compressor will the compressor will C 2
valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result? evaporator will
refrigerant be abnormally warm be abnormally cold
increase
A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion Lower than normal Higher than normal Expansion valves Ice is the sole cause
224373 1 A 2
valve inlet will result in which of the following suction pressure. discharge pressure. are designed to pass of this and will soon
An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by a higher than normal frosting at the a decrease in the frosting at the
224374 1 B 2
an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other discharge pressure evaporator inlet amount of frosting suction side of the
The proportional
What maintenance may be carried out on a The thermal bulb The rate action may The inlet screen may
224375 1 action may be D 2
thermostatic expansion valve? may be recharged. be increased. be cleaned.
varied.
the insulation the insulation the insulation
When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a the insulation
prevents air stream prevents oil protects the clamp
224376 1 refrigerated container unit, the sensing bulb almost prevents the bulb A 2
temperatures from entrained in the and screws from
always requires insulation. Why is this so? from vibrating loose
If the needle and seat assembly is excessively influencing
The the bulb
evaporator suction
The expansion valve gas fromvalve
The expansion corrosion
The evaporator
eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In would be starved would function would hunt would be overfed
224378 3 GS-RA-07 C 2
replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at producing normally, with the
excessively, producing
1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement consistently presentation of no
alternately starving consistently
If the needle and seat assembly is excessively The evaporator The expansion valve
The expansion valve The evaporator
224378 4 GS-RA-07 A 2
eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In would be starved would function would hunt would be overfed
Which of the following statements represents the last Adjust the TXV for Reset the
Shorten the capillary Insulate the sensing
224378 5 step to be followed when replacing the power proper evaporator compressor cut-in GS-RA-07 C 2
tubing. bulb.
element of the device shown in the illustration? superheat. setting.
It is necessary to replace the defective thermal
expansion valve in a refrigeration system. If the valve
224379 2 I only II only Either I or II Neither I nor II C 2
is improperly sized, what could be the result?
when the refrigerant when the air when the refrigerant when the air
In a direct expansion type refrigeration system, an pressure drop pressure drop across pressure drop pressure drop across
224379 4 externally equalized thermal expansion valve in through the the evaporator is through the the evaporator C 2
installed in which of the following situations? evaporator coil is less than 4" of water evaporator coil exceeds 4" of water
The coil temperature measured at the expansion less than 4 psig column exceeds
The 4 psig valve
expansion column
The filter drier needs The evaporator coils The liquid line
valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. should not be
to be changed to need to be steam strainer is obviously
224379 5 The low side pressure with the compressor running adjusted, as the GS-RA-16 C 2
increase the suction cleaned or high fouled and needs to
as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. degree of superheat
pressure. pressure washed. be cleaned.
What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made is within the
If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping air being introduced foaming of the
224400 1 worn piston rings faulty bearings D 2
down the low side for repairs, but otherwise the to the system crankcase oil

Which of the following dehydrators or combination

224401 2 A B C D GS-RA-10 B 2
filter/driers is most likely to be used in the suction line
224401 3 filter/driers features a core that can be replaced when A B C D GS-RA-10 A 2
the dessicant becomes saturated with moisture?

224401 4 filter/driers is most likely to be used in a refrigeration A B C D GS-RA-10 D 2
sytem using a capillary tube as a metering device?
the moisture the moisture the moisture
If the liquid line filter/drier pictured in figure "C" of the the item would be
indicating liquid line indicating liquid line indicating liquid line
224401 5 illustration becomes saturated with moisture, what warm on the inlet, GS-RA-10 B 2
sight glass sight glass sight glass
would be the indication? but cold on the outlet
downstream would downstream would downstream would
If the liquid line filter/drier pictured in figure "C" of the the moisture the moisture the item would be the moisture
224401 6 GS-RA-10 C 2
illustration becomes mechanically restricted with solid indicating liquid line indicating liquid line warm on the inlet, indicating liquid line
To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back

re-adjust the clean the expansion adjust the expansion
224402 1 in a refrigeration system, it may be necessary to add refrigerant D 2
discharge pressure valve screen valve
perform which of the following?
While troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low
determine if the
suction temperature and excessive suction line remove refrigerant purge air from the add oil to the
224402 2 evaporator coil is in A 2
frosting, liquid refrigerant flooding backto the from the system condenser crankcase
need of defrosting
compressor from the evaporator is determined to be
A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is a shortage of an accumulation of
a shortage of oil in
224405 1 sweating, frosting or unusually cold. This is a possible refrigerant in the air in the system liquid refrigerant in C 2
the crankcase
indication of what condition? system the crankcase.
If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating a shortage of the compressor liquid refrigerant the compressor short
224405 2 C 2
or frosting and is operating with an unusual noise, refrigerant running continuously returning to the cycling on the high
Which of the problems listed could be indicated if a
Proper refrigerant Faulty expansion Insufficient Solenoid valve stuck
224405 3 sight glass in the refrigerant liquid line is full of C 2
charge valve refrigerant open
bubbles?
too much oil in
A possible cause of excessive crankcase sweating or
a stuck open box a shortage of circulation resulting
224405 4 frosting of a refrigeration system compressor may be too much superheat C 2
solenoid valve refrigerant in an oil-logged
caused by which of the following conditions?
evaporator
Unusually heavy frosting or sweating of the suction
minor amounts of oil ice formation internal
line of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor liquid flood back to insufficient
224405 6 circulating with the to the expansion B 2
indicates a condition which could result in severe the compressor refrigerant charge
refrigerant valve
damage due to what condition?
If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or

excessive the expansion valve
frosting and this is accompanied by unsusual noises a minor amount of normal oil circulation
224405 7 evaporator being stuck in the D 2
coming from the compressor, what is most likely the air in the system with the refrigerant
superheat open position
cause?

If the suction line between the evaporator and

thermal bulb coming internal ice formation
compressor is heavily frosting up and the trouble is the needle valve is the power element
224405 10 loose from the within the expansion A 2
attributed to the thermal expansion valve, what would stuck closed has lost its charge
suction line valve
most likely be the cause?
Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a

has run continuously suction pressure is oil level is below starts after a long
224407 1 refrigeration compressor is most likely to occur under D 2
for a long period below normal normal idle period
what compressor operating condition?
Excessive, pronlonged oil foaming in the crankcase carbon deposits on wax crystals forming
overheated excessively high
224407 2 of a refrigeration compressor can result in what the compressor in the thermal A 2
compressor bearings lube oil viscosity
condition? piston rings expansion valve
In a refrigeration system, prolonged foaming of the the expansion valve the compressor to the water regulating the crankcase drains
224407 3 B 2
crankcase oil may cause what condition to occur? to overfeed knock valve to fail to plug
refrigerant boiling out refrigerant vapor lube oil viscosity compressor suction
Foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor
224407 4 of solution from the condensing in the being increased by pressure suddenly A 2
crankcase is caused by what condition?
lube oil crankcase refrigerant dilution increasing
freezing the
Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of corrosion of system hermetic motor
224411 1 expansion valve all of the above D 2
the following conditons? piping burnout
closed
A sight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate condition of the
condition of the moisture in the condenser
224412 1 the condition of the refrigerant charge and may also compressor suction B 2
expansion valve system temperature
indicate what else? valves
A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining

high pressure liquid low pressure liquid high pressure vapor low pressure vapor
224412 2 whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently A 2
line line line line
charged. Where is it generally located in the system?
Overcharging the Faulty compressor

Which of the problems listed could cause erosion of Failure of the high Flash gas formation
224413 1 system with suction valve D 2
the expansion valve needle and seat? pressure cutout in the liquid line
refrigerant operation
Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the
thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system
224414 2 TXV overheating TXV hunting TXV freezing shut TXV freezing open B 2
may cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle
and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?
If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass Secure the system, Close the king valve, Purge the entire Using a vacuum
indicates an accumulation of moisture within the disassemble and de- pump down the system to the pump, draw the
224420 1 B 2
system, which of the listed procedures would be the ice the thermostatic system, isolate the atmosphere, replace entire system down
most practical to follow? itexpansion
prevents valve.
the head drier, remove
it prevents thethe
head the drier cartridge,
it prevents the head ittoprevents
1,270 microns for
the head
What is the purpose of the discharge pressure pressure from pressure from pressure from pressure from
224421 2 GS-RA-17 B 2
regulating valve as shown in the illustration? becoming too high becoming too low becoming too low becoming too high
itduring
senseshigh ambient during low ambient
it senses during
it senseshigh ambient itduring low ambient
senses
What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as compressor compressor compressor suction compressor suction
224421 3 GS-RA-17 D 2
shown in the illustration? discharge pressure discharge pressure pressure and pressure and
and controls the and controls the controls the suction controls the quench

it injects suction gas it injects liquid into it injects suction gas it injects liquid into
What is the purpose of the quench valve as shown in into the liquid line the suction line into the liquid line the suction line
224421 4 GS-RA-17 B 2
the illustration? during low load during low load during high load during high load
conditions
the host and remote conditions
the host and remote
What statement is true concerning the host and evaporators are evaporators are evaporators are evaporators are
224421 5 remote evaporators of the illustrated refrigerated mounted on opposite associated with a piped in series for mounted high and GS-RA-17 B 2
container unit piping diagram? ends of the divided container the purposes of low on the front wall
Pertaining to the illustrated refrigerated container unit refrigerated unit with two boxes being able to pull a of the refrigerated
economizer solenoid economizer solenoid economizer solenoid economizer solenoid
piping diagram, if the current box temperature is
valve: open valve: open valve: closed valve: closed
224421 6 considerably above set point, to achieve a quicker GS-RA-18 A 2
unloading solenoid unloading solenoid unloading solenoid unloading solenoid
pulldown in box temperature, what would be the
valve: closed valve: open valve: open valve: closed
status of the economizer and unloading solenoid
Pertaining to the illustrated refrigerated container unit
piping diagram, if the current box temperature is economizer solenoid economizer solenoid economizer solenoid economizer solenoid
above, but fairly close to set point and the ambient valve: open valve: open valve: closed valve: closed
224421 7 GS-RA-18 D 2
temperature is relatively high, what would be the unloading solenoid unloading solenoid unloading solenoid unloading solenoid
status of the economizer and unloading solenoid valve: closed valve: open valve: open valve: closed
valves?
Pertaining to the illustrated refrigerated container unit economizer solenoid economizer solenoid economizer solenoid economizer solenoid
224421 8 GS-RA-18 C 2
piping diagram, if the current box temperature is valve: open valve: open valve: closed valve: closed
The color of the refrigeration oil can indicate various
copper plating carbonization
operating conditions of the compressor/refrigeration bearing wear or
224422 1 caused by moisture resulting from air in gasket breakdown C 2
system in which it is used. Black oil can be an piston scoring
in the system the system
indication of what condition?
The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating carbonization copper plating
bearing wear or head gasket
224422 2 refrigeration compressor appears to be brownish in caused by air in the caused by moisture D 2
piston scoring breakdown
color. What is this an indication of? system in the system
clear, because the
The color and/or condition of the oil observed in the
heavier particles
sight glass of an operating refrigeration compressor
224422 3 gray or metallic black would gravitate to as a light blue-green A 2
experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring would be
the bottom of the
which of the following?
Swaging tools are Swaging tools are sump
Swaging tools are no Swaging tools can
When repairing a refrigeration system, a swaging tool
used to remove any used during the longer used with be used to expand
224423 1 set would be used to carry out which of the following D 2
sweated edges breaking-in of repairing an end of one tube
operations?
formed on the tubing
Noticeable refrigeration refrigeration systems to fit onto a tube of
Which of the following conditions would indicate that
temperature drop
the liquid line strainer in a refrigeration system has Frosting at the outlet Frosting at the inlet Excessively high
224425 2 between the strainer A 2
become excessively restricted and requires cleaning of the receiver. of the compressor. suction pressure.
inlet and the outlet
or replacement?
tubing.
Which of the following electrically operated
224439 1 refrigeration system valves would be most A B C D GS-RA-19 A 2
appropriate for use as a liquid line solenoid valve?
refrigeration system valves would be most
224439 2 A B C D GS-RA-19 B 2
appropriate for use as a 2 position diverting hot gas
bypass solenoid valve?


refrigeration system valves would be most
224439 3 A B C D GS-RA-19 C 2
appropriate for use as a reverse-cycle solenoid
valve?

224439 4 refrigeration system valves would be most A B C D GS-RA-19 D 2
appropriate for use as an electronic expansion valve?
The gauge labeled The gauge labeled

The gauge labeled The gauge labeled
Which of the following statements is true concerning "A" is a standard "A" is a standard
"A" is a compound "A" is a compound
224446 2 the gauge labeled "A" of the illustrated gauge pressure gauge and pressure gauge and GS-RA-01 B 2
gauge and is usually gauge and is usually
manifold set? is usually color- is usually color-
color-coded red. color-coded blue.
coded blue. coded red.
The gauge labeled The gauge labeled The gauge labeled The gauge labeled
Which of the following statements is true concerning
"B" is a compound "B" is a compound "B" is a standard "B" is a standard
224446 3 the gauge labeled "B" of the illustrated gauge GS-RA-01 D 2
gauge and is usually gauge and is usually pressure gauge and pressure gauge and
manifold set?
color-coded red. "K"
The hose labeled color-coded blue. "K"
The hose labeled is
Theusually
hose color-
labeled "H" is
Theusually
hose color-
labeled "H"
Using the device shown in the illustration, which of
should be connected should be connected should be connected should be connected
the following statements is true when adding
224447 3 to the suction service to the suction service to the suction service to the suction service GS-RA-01 D 2
refrigerant as a vapor to the low side of the
valve service port, valve service port, valve service port, valve service port,
refrigeration system.
the hose
The hoselabeled
labeled"J"
"K" the hose
The hoselabeled
labeled"J"
"K" the hose
The hoselabeled
labeled"J"
"H" the hose
The hoselabeled
labeled"J"
"H"
Using the device shown in the illustration, which of should be connected should be connected should be connected should be connected
the following statements is true when monitoring both to the suction service to the suction service to the suction service to the suction service
224447 4 GS-RA-01 C 2
the high and low side pressures of the refrigeration valve service port, valve service port, valve service port, valve service port,
system. the hose labeled "H" the hose labeled "H" the hose labeled "K" the hose labeled "K"
should be connected
The valves labeled should
Closingbe theconnected
valve should
Closingbetheconnected
valve should
Opening befully
connected
and
Which of the following statements is true concerning "G" and "C" must labeled "G" isolates labeled "G" isolates back seating the
224448 2 GS-RA-01 B 2
the illustrated gauge manifold set? both be open to read the hose labeled "H" the hose labeled "H" valve labeled "G"
The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration system
shut downpressures
the on from
pumpthethehose
system from
closethe
thegauge
suction isolatesthe
tighten theshaft
gauge
seal
compressor has blown the shaft seal, with the compressor at once down and then valve, pump the packing to reduce
224500 1 A 2
noticeable presence of oil leaking. In this situation, and then close the isolate the leak by compressor down, leakage, slow the
what should be done? suction
prematureandwear of closing the suction
normal wear of the then shut down
premature wear the
of compressor,
premature wear andof
the pulley end motor pulley end motor both motor shaft both the pulley end
Excessively tight drive belts installed between a shaft bearing, but shaft bearing, but bearings and both motor shaft bearing
224501 1 motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may normal wear of the premature wear of compressor and the pulley end D 2
cause what condition? pulley end the pulley end crankshaft main compressor
compressor compressor bearings due to belt crankshaft main
crankshaft main crankshaft main slippage bearing due to
If a refrigeration system, equipped with high superheat in the noisy compressor refrigerant slugs in
224550 1 low suction pressure C 2
a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid- line solenoid outlet coil operation upon the receiver

The relief valve The rupture disk

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require a method The relief valve from
settings shall be 1 A rupture disk may shall burst at a
for the relieving pressure of an over pressurized the receiver must
225001 1 1/4 times the be fitted in series pressure not higher C 2
refrigeration system. Which of the following relieve to the
maximum allowable with the relief valve. than 10% above the
statements complies with these regulations? condenser first.
working pressure. relief valve setting.
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require
refrigerated spaces that can be locked from the
the chief steward's
225002 1 outside and that cannot be opened from the inside to the galley the wheelhouse a manned location D 2
berthing quarters
have an audible alarm. Where is the audible alarm
required to be?
According to USCG regulations pertaining to cargo a self-contained a self-contained a gas mask must be a gas mask must be
and miscellaneous vessels, on all vessels equipped breathing apparatus breathing apparatus provided for use as provided for use as
225003 2 with ammonia refrigeration units to refrigerate cargo must be provided for must be provided for protection against protection against A 2
spaces, for protection against refrigerants, what is use as protection use as protection gas leaking from the gas leaking from the
required? against gas leaking against gas leaking refrigeration unit if refrigeration unit if
What is the maximum steam pressure allowed by
225004 1 Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided in 30 psig 45 psig 60 psig 75 psig B 2
the steam heating system of the living spaces?
protected by a relief
stored in an upright protected by a relief
valve set to relieve at
subject to annual position in addition to valve set to relieve at
a pressure not
According to 46 CFR Part 58, each pressure vessel, hydrostatic tests to being secured so as a pressure not
exceeding 110
225005 1 which is capable of isolation, containing a refrigerant, be performed in the to prevent accidental exceeding the D 2
percent of the
must be protected by what means? presence of a marine release of the maximum allowable
maximum allowable
inspector refrigerant within a working pressure of
working pressure of
confined space the vessel
the vessel
The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a
protective shield that helps to protect the environment
225010 1 radon oxygen ozone nitrogen C 2
from the harmful effects ultraviolet radiation is called
what?
What is the chemical in CFC refrigerant that destroys
225011 1 fluorine carbon hydrogen chlorine D 2
stratospheric ozone?
Stratospheric ozone gas found in the atmosphere is a
225012 1 one oxygen atom two oxygen atoms three oxygen atoms four oxygen atoms C 2
oxygen molecule of what composition?
What is the physical state and pressure condition of

225013 1 refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a typical low pressure liquid high pressure vapor low pressure vapor high pressure liquid B 2
refrigeration system.
What is the physical state and pressure condition of

225014 1 high pressure liquid low pressure liquid high pressure vapor low pressure vapor A 2
refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical
R-134a is often the replacement for which older type

225015 1 R-12 R-22 R-11 R-123 A 2
of refrigerant?

the weight of a the maximum weight

The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder the total weight of a the weight of an
225016 1 cylinder AND its of the refrigerant D 2
refers to what weight? fully charged cylinder empty cylinder
current contents allowed
Which of the following substances is normally

225017 1 R-12 R-123 R-22 R-134A B 2
classified as a low pressure refrigerant?
What is the color coding for a storage container of R-

225018 1 green grey purple light blue D 2
134a refrigerant?
Which of the following refrigerants is chlorine free and

225019 1 R-134a R-12 R-22 R-11 A 2
safe regarding atmospheric ozone depletion?
If there is a "large" release of R-134a refrigerant gas safety goggles and a self-contained an explosive dust or particle
225020 1 B 2
in a confined area, which of the following statements lined butyl gloves breathing apparatus atmosphere would masks would be
having a high affinity
losing its lubrication decreasing in for moisture which
A "hygroscopic" lubricant used in refrigeration
225021 1 qualities at higher being highly toxic viscosity at low requires it to be kept D 2
compressors would have what characteristic?
temperatures temperatures in a sealed
container.
What is the pressure and physical state of the
225022 1 refrigerant leaving the condenser of a R-22 low pressure liquid low pressure vapor high pressure vapor high pressure liquid D 2
refrigeration system?
What is the pressure and condition of the refrigerant superheated low superheated high sub cooled low sub cooled high
225022 2 D 2
entering the receiver of a refrigeration system? pressure vapor pressure vapor pressure liquid pressure liquid
Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a Refrigerants are Refrigerants
Refrigerants contain Refrigerants lighter
225023 1 confined space or in limited surroundings cause heavier than air and obnoxious odor B 2
an acidic substance. than air will rise.
suffocation ? displace oxygen. prevents breathing.
They normally
They draw in air
Why do low pressure refrigerant chillers usually operate below
225024 1 through gaskets and Either A or B Neither A nor B C 2
require purge-recovery units ? atmospheric
seals.
pressure.
The purge-recovery unit of a low pressure the suction of the the top of the the top of the
225025 1 the rupture disk D 2
refrigeration chiller draws gas from what location? compressor evaporator condenser

What is the short term replacement for R-11

225026 1 refrigerant, as used in low pressure centrifugal R-22 R-123 R-500 R-134a B 2
chillers?
Why would one use refrigerant vapor rather than to prevent any water
to prevent a safety to keep pressure at a to protect the rupture
225027 1 liquid, to initially charge an evacuated low pressure within tubes from B 2
shut down minimum disc from rupturing
air conditioning chiller unit? freezing
The recovery of refrigerant from refrigerant absorbed flushing out the oil
225028 1 draining out the oil heating the oil cooling the oil B 2
in oil can be maximized by what practice? with solvent
What condition may cause excessive superheat to

Low refrigerant
225029 1 occur at the evaporator outlet of an air conditioning High head pressure A dirty condenser Insufficient air flow D 2
charge
system?
Most of the liquid refrigerant to be removed from a

225030 1 pumped down system during a refrigerant recovery condenser receiver hoses and lines evaporator B 2
procedure would be found in what location?
systems
refrigerators, any appliance any appliance
manufactured and
Which best defines a "Type I" small refrigeration freezers, room air charged with less charged with less
hermetically sealed
225031 1 appliance according to the EPA regulations Section conditioners and than ten pounds than two pounds A 2
having a capacity of
608? central air (4.54 kg) of (0.91 kg) of
five pounds (2.27 kg)
conditioners refrigerant refrigerant
or less of refrigerant
high pressure vapor high pressure liquid low pressure vapor low pressure liquid
What would the pressure and physical state of the
225032 1 on top of high on top of high on top of low on top of low A 2
refrigerant residing in the system receiver?
pressure liquid pressure vapor pressure liquid pressure vapor
Any noncondensable gases in a TXV controlled

refrigeration system will eventually accumulate in the decrease in the low increase in the high decrease in the high increase in the low
225033 1 B 2
top of the system condenser. What condition does side pressure side pressure side pressure side pressure
this cause?

Which of the following will speed up the recovery

chilling the recovery heating the
225034 1 process when performing maintenance on a both A and B neither A and B C 2
vessel appliance
refrigeration system?
The process of recovering refrigerant from an air recovering the liquid recovering the vapor
recovering vapor first heating the
225035 1 conditioning or refrigeration system may be first and then the and liquid at the A 2
before the liquid recovery cylinder
accelerated by what action? vapor same time
Which of the following factors should be considered Number of

Quantity of fresh air
226001 2 when calculating the air conditioning requirements for Solar gain occupants in the All of the above D 2
supply
a vessels accommodation spaces? space
The convector shown in the illustration, should have a

226050 2 minimal circulation air space from the bulkhead of 1/2 inch 2 inches 5 inches 10 inches GS-0150 A 2
approximately __________.
In the illustrated heating system, what is the
226051 1 5" 6" 12" 24" GS-0150 C 2
maximum height the heater should be mounted
The converter pneumatic control bypass valve,
hot water return hot water circulating
226052 1 shown in the illustration, receives its high pressure converter hot water supply line GS-0151 D 2
manifold pump discharge line
signal from the __________.
In the illustration, the temperature of the hot-water

heating system is controlled by the temperature of the
226053 1 central station room being heated hot water return outside air GS-0151 D 2
hot water supply and the temperature of the
__________.
The converter pneumatic control bypass valve,

hot water return hot water circulating
226053 2 shown in the illustration, receives it low pressure converter hot water supply line GS-0151 A 2
manifold pump discharge line
signal from the __________.
Expansion tanks when used in a ships hot water

226055 1 180°F to 212°F 220°F to 240°F 260°F to 280°F 320°F to 360°F B 2
heating system, may be of the open or closed type. In
Hot water system heat exchangers are selected for increase capacity
increased thermal heat loss due to
226056 3 the heating load required plus about 50% excess start-up during times of peak C 2
efficiency insufficient insulation
capacity to allow for __________. demand

The average Below normal water

In a shipboard potable water system, which of the The hot water return The water faucets
temperature of the temperature would
226057 1 following symptoms would indicate that the hot water manifold would be would operate at a D 2
hot water heater be discharged for a
circulating pump had failed? warmer than normal. lower pressure.
would be above long period before
Which type of space heating systems is shown in the Circulated hot water Electric element Forced hot air
226100 1 Steam heating GS-0150 A 2
illustration? heating heater heating
A major controlling factor in the location of the the requirement for a the requirement for the requirement to
condensate return piping from a heating system gravity return short laterals run minimize conflict with
Which of the following guidelines is considered to Provide orifice-type Provide a dirt pocket Provide all units with Wherever possible
226102 2 B 2
reflect good design practices for shipboard steam bypasses for all and strainer ahead a dirt trap and gate install vertical runs
Provide either a
Provide constant
Which of the following guidelines is considered to common or Run all piping so it
steam service for
226103 1 reflect good design practices of shipboard steam individual reducing may be drained by All of the above. D 2
equipment operating
heating systems? station for each gravity.
throughout the year.
group of units
A leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a scale returning from steam pressure in water in the heating
226300 1 drain tank steaming A 2
heating system is indicated by excessive the convectors the convectors system
high velocity slugs of
Admitting steam to an improperly drained heating cutting valve seating damage due to water
226301 1 water in motion in all of the above D 2
system could result in __________. surfaces hammer
the system
draining a soot
Water hammer in a steam heating system can be filling the auxiliary steam admitted to a filling the auxiliary blower line before
226301 2 B 2
caused by __________. boiler with cold water cold pipe boiler with hot water cracking the steam
supply valve
fresh water sprinkler

The component labeled "B" in the illustration is the
227250 1 suction line vent fill line for fluidizing of GS-0163 C 2
__________.
pulverized material
The component labeled "F" in the illustration is a

227251 1 differential valve fill connection pneumercator support stanchion GS-0163 A 2
__________.
maintain a minimum
determine the level bleed excess air
The purpose of the component labeled "F" in the prevent damage to of 15 psia difference
227251 2 of remaining from the top of the GS-0163 B 2
illustration is to___________. the slope sheets between the aeration
pulverized material tank
unit and the top head
differential safety line

with a pressure fresh water inlet to
The component labeled "E" in the illustration is a high level equalization line with
227252 1 regulating valve set fluidize the GS-0163 B 2
__________. alarm/shutdown filter
for approximately pulverized material
10.5 psig

equalize the
relieve pressure if pressure between equalize pressure on
determine the level
The purpose of the component labeled "E" in the the compressed air the top of the tank either side of the
227252 2 of pulverized GS-0163 D 2
illustration is to __________. flow rate exceeds and the aeration slope sheet when
material
600 CFM device when filling tank
discharging material
The valve in the line, labeled "C" in the illustrated when discharging after the tank is full when the tank is
227253 1 when filling the tank GS-0163 A 2
system, should be opened __________. the pulverized to check the level of empty to prevent
A valve connected to the vent line labeled "C" in the when flushing the by a pressure relief at all times, except when filling the tank
227253 2 GS-0163 D 2
illustration should be opened __________. pressure tank with valve when the when the tank is or to insure that the
as a gravity to precharge the
to back flush the to drain moisture and
A valve attached to line "H" in the illustration, should discharge for the bottom of the
227253 3 pressure vessel with dirt from the bottom GS-0163 C 2
be opened __________. fluidized material if pressure vessel with
jet air of the tank
the discharge line a pneumatically dry nitrogen prior to
a pressurized vessel a tank which is used
A 'P-tank', as used aboard oilfield supply boats is operated tank used
227260 1 designed to carry dry to store compressed All of the above A 2
__________. to transport liquid
pulverized materials air at 100 psi
drill mud
is capable of
is designed to
A P-tank system, as used on oilfield supply boats must be kept free of pumping chunks of answers B and C
227260 2 transfer viscous A 2
__________. moisture and water cement that find their above
liquids
way into the system
is designed to
is designed to pump must be kept free of answers B and C
227260 3 A P-tank system __________. transfer thick viscous C 2
chunks of cement foreign objects above
liquids
a pneumatically a pneumatically
a pressure vessel
A 'P-tank' as used aboard oilfield supply boats is operated tank used operated tank used
227260 4 designed to transport All of the above C 2
__________. transfer liquid drill to transfer dry,
liquid drill mud
mud pulverized drilling
Operating pressure range for an oilfield supply boat
227261 2 5-15 psi 15-40 psi 50-100 psi 100-150 psi B 2
'P-tank' generally varies from __________.
Supply air pressure to an oilfield supply boat 'P-tank'
227261 3 15 psi 50 psi 100 psi 150 psi B 2
system should generally not be above __________.
moving the dry barite using nozzles to

The operation of a P-tank depends upon
227262 1 with a liquid mud recalculate the dry aerating the barite All of the above C 2
__________.
pump bulk material

directing the bulk

providing a central
The operation of a P-tank depends upon liquefying the dry material to a central
227262 3 suction point to the All of the above B 2
__________. bulk material discharge point
liquid mud pump
within the pressure
blast bulk material
fluidize dry material
The purpose of the jet air line in a P- tank system is out of the fill line by
227262 4 in the material fill the P-tank pressure the P-tank B 2
to __________. using high air
discharge line
pressure
The proper operation of a P-tank as found on oil heating the cargo to the correct
the correct air
227262 5 industry supply vessels, depends primarily upon the correct circulating salt water All of the above A 2
pressure supply
__________. temperature pressure
To keep the end of To prevent injury
Why is a short, weighted hose attached and secured
the hose from lifting To keep down the when pressurized air
227266 1 to the end of the fixed discharge line from a supply All of the above C 2
off the deck of the discharge flow rate. discharges from the
boat P- tank?
supply boat. open end of the hose
keep the end of the keep the end of the
A short, weighted hose is attached to the end of the P-
hose under water maintain a low fixed discharge line
227266 2 tank fixed discharge line on board a supply boat to All of the above A 2
and prevent dust discharge flow rate from excessively
__________.
from blowing on the vibrating
A short weighted hose is attached to the end of the P- prevent accidental maintain a non- prevent dry material
227266 3 tank fixed discharge line on board a supply boat to back flow of dry bulk vibrating delivery from being All of the above C 2
__________. material rate discharged on deck
the hatch or manway
227267 2 P-tanks are filled through the __________. discharge line pressurized fill line fill line by gravity B 2
in the top of the tank
P-tanks on board a supply boat are filled through the

227267 3 jet air or purge line discharge line fill line by gravity pressurized fill line D 2
__________.
after admitting before admitting

P-tank dry bulk material discharge hoses must be after opening the jet before the P-tank is
227279 1 compressed air to compressed air to B 2
connected __________. air loaded
the P-tank the P-tank
the same pressure
a constantly slightly below the
Operating pressure on a P-tank system should be required for slightly below the
227341 2 maintained range of pilot unloading valve C 2
__________. repressurization and safety valve setting
15 to 18 psi setting
cleaning the system
A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box

refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight
cylinders able to be controlled for variable load
233656 3 100% 50% 25% 0% A 2
conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently
feeding, what percentage of the total number of
compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?

values for properties specific fuel

steam generating mechanical
of water and steam consumption under
250035 1 Steam tables can be used to obtain the __________. capacity of a efficiency of the main A 2
vapor at various steady steaming
vessel's boilers unit
conditions conditions
The size of the discharge ring used for the efficient
rated capacity of that viscosity of the oil maximum design specific gravity of the
267804 1 operation of a disk type purifier is dependent upon D 2
purifier being purified speed of that purifier oil being purified
the __________.
Which of the following problems will occur if a Contamination of the The lube oil will not Lube oil will
manually cleaned disk-type centrifugal lube oil purifier
lube oil by be subjected to the The lube oil will discharge from the
268400 1 D 2
contains insufficient sealing water prior to admitting
emulsification will proper centrifugal overheat and flash. heavy phase
oil flow to the bowl? result.
the purifier driving force.
all dirt and sludge discharge port
sealing water must deterioration ofto the
the
gears are lubricated are automatically never be supplied bowl ring gasket will
268401 1 In a disk-type lubricating oil purifier, __________. D 2
by the reclaimed oil discharged with the until after oil is fed to cause the purifier to
as it leaves the bowl cooling water the unit lose its water seal
In order to maximize the performance of an operating
centrifuge, you can adjust the fuel oil __________.
The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur in the midships at the main deck
290001 3 at the vent header in the pump room D 2
on a tanker would be __________. house manifold
On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid cargo in the midships at the main deck
290001 4 at the vent header in the pump room D 2
fire to occur would be __________. house manifold
The chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard oil soaked rags or

290051 11 JP4 cargo gasoline cargo kerosene cargo D 2
tankers is __________. rubbish
According to CFRs, how many emergency outfits are

One emergency Two emergency Three emergency Four emergency
290702 3 required to be carried onboard all tankships over B 2
outfit outfits outfits outfits
1,000 gross tons?
A tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate

291408 3 aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can 200 gallons 420 gallons 667 gallons 986 gallons C 2
be produced from this supply?
In a common vent In a cargo tank In a cargo tank
Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a In the overflow line
297103 7 header during tank during during inerting B 2
tanker? while topping off.
ballasting. "Butterworthing". operations.
To prevent over pressurization when loading liquid
pressure-vacuum over pressurization
297201 2 petroleum products, cargo tanks must be fitted with ullage opening equalizing line A 2
valve valve
a/an __________.
Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, the detector sensor the detector is a flammable vapor
are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% is sampling a space an explosion is about sampling a space in concentration exists
297202 2 D 2
of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarms where the cargo to take place which 30 percent of at the sample point,
sounds, this means __________. vapor concentration the atmosphere is but it is too lean to

Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas inert the barrier calibrate the gas detect leaks in cargo
297204 2 odorize the cargo B 2
carriers to __________. spaces leak detectors piping
Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo

escape of explosive contamination from damage to tank
297250 3 tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent oil spillage on deck D 2
vapors other tanks boundaries
__________.
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33

297254 2 CFR), you are required to test cargo discharge piping 6 months 12 months 18 months 24 months B 2
every __________.

steam or air actuated
297307 2 pump room ventilation on a U.S. flag tanker may be power blowers natural ventilators all of the above D 2
gas ejectors
accomplished by __________.
"Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed at cargo lines at the product during the
product before the product after the final
297308 2 an oil terminal facility, when there is a change of terminal before final phase of C 2
start of loading discharge
__________. loading loading
the bunker facility vessel and bunker vessel and bunker
the vessel is must be inspected facility must be facility must be
To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of
responsible to by the designated independently inspected by a
297310 4 Inspection are met for oil transfer operations prior to C 2
provide an inspectedperson-in-charge of inspected by the representative of the
bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.
oil hose the vessel and vice designated persons- Coast Guard Captain
versa for the vessel in-charge
the loading of new of the Port
calculating the ratio
The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil calculating the ullage loading ballast by cargo into a
297313 2 of cargo expansion C 2
carriers, is to provide a method for __________. in the cargo tanks gravity decanted slop tank
in a cargo tank
any special the location, size, as
theaemergency
procedure to
The "oil transfer procedures", required by the Coast
procedures inherent and barrel capacity cleanup and
297319 3 Guard Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), All of the above A 2
to that particular of each tank that is containment
must include __________.
vessel for topping off capable of carrying procedures to be
If you are loading a petroleum cargo which is below

there is room for vapor baffles are
297320 2 average ambient temperatures, you must insure that the vents are sealed all of the above A 2
expansion installed
__________.

A signal is not
A red flag (day), red A yellow flag (day), A green flag (day), required for
297330 3 when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, A 2
light (night) red light (night) green light (night) discharging oil, only
which of the following signals must be displayed?
gasoline
In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil opened to the
297334 4 gas free inerted full of cargo C 2
wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be atmosphere for
Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be
automatic closing
297336 2 isolated from the crude oil washing system by spade blanks face blanks non-return valves A 2
valves
__________.
To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to to the bottom of the to within 1% to 3% of to within 1 to 3 1 to 3 inches from
297400 3 B 2
expansion, you should top off __________. expansion trunk its capacity inches of its capacity top of the vent pipe
Each inert gas system must be designed to supply

297505 3 5% or less 10% or less 15% or less 20% or less A 2
the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases, that
the temperature of
The blowers of an inert gas generation system normal water supply the inert gas being the cooling water
297507 3 aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if at the water seal is delivered to the supply to the all of the above D 2
__________. lost cargo tanks is more scrubbers is lost
than 150°F
The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas shore side loading maximum cargo boiler forced draft size of the largest
297508 4 B 2
system is related to the __________. rate pump discharge rate fan rate cargo tank
What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert 125% of forced draft 125% of shore side 125% of cargo pump
297508 5 125% of fan capacity C 2
gas system? rate loading rate capacity
On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined
capacity of the inert gas generating system as
297508 6 50% 75% 100% 125% D 2
compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps
which can be operated simultaneously?
reducing the oxygen
eliminating sparks removing all
An inert gas system is designed to reduce the blanketing cargo concentration below
297511 4 and fire in the vicinity hydrocarbon gases D 2
possibility of tank explosions by __________. tanks with inert foam levels necessary for
of cargo tanks from the cargo tanks
combustion
Inert gas dilutes the
Maintains a positive Inert gas filters out
flammable vapor and
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to De-energizes the pressure on the vent the flammable
297511 5 air concentrations to D 2
prevent explosions in cargo tanks? "charged mist" effect. header to cool the vapors from the
keep them below the
flammable vapors. cargo tank spaces.
lower explosive limit.
prevent the dilute tank prevent fires in the
blow out cargo lines
An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to generation of atmospheres to keep pump room by
297511 6 to prevent gas C 2
__________. flammable or gas concentrations continually
concentrations
combustible gas in below the lower displacing flammable

Which of the following methods is used to supply inert Exhaust gas

297512 2 High capacity fan Inert gas compressor Natural aspiration B 2
gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks? pressure
undesirable and it likely to over likely to over heat
297517 2 Excessive recirculation of inert gas is _________. highly recommended B 2
may lead to high pressurize the cargo the deck water seal
Which of the following conditions will result in an Oxygen content of Low temperature High temperature High temperature
297518 2 automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas the gas falls below water leaving the gas entering the gas discharge from D 2
system? 5%. scrubber seal. scrubber. inert gas blowers.
continue at a slower
When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to continue only under
rate until these be shut down monitored more
297525 3 maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content "Emergency C 2
requirements are immediately frequently
less than 8%, cargo operations should _________. Procedures"
met
Immediately start up
the inert gas system
If the inert gas system was not in operation while Continue loading Continue loading, as
Immediately stop and admit gas to the
297525 4 loading crude oil on a tank vessel, what action would under "Emergency this is a normal C 2
loading. deck main when
you take? Procedures". procedure.
oxygen content is
below 8%.
a second scrubber,
particles of rust in
Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" are known as an alkaline
the tanks reaching a a lighter grade of
faced with additional problems for their safe additional time for scrubber, to be
297530 2 high temperature crude being needed C 2
operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric tank cleaning. added in series to
during "gas free" for tank washing.
oxidation" and results in ________. the "normal"
operations.
scrubber.
be stopped until the
When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the
be completely oil can settle out, be completed only
loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil be terminated
297531 2 discharged in order then resumed at a after "load on top" B 2
monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the automatically
to load slower discharge has been completed
deballasting must _________.
rate
While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs It is solely the chief The repair work Prior to any hot Repairs should
are to be carried out on a section of heating coil engineer's cannot be done at work, an inspection proceed as
297661 2 located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" responsibility to this time due to the must be made by the scheduled since a C 2
product. Which of the following procedures should be ensure all safety lack of the chemist's senior officer chemist's certificate
followed when a certified marine chemist is not precautions are certificate. present, and an is not required for
Where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are
involved, power-driven or manually-operated spark the compartment all cargo tanks are all cargo tanks have
297662 4 the vessel is gas free A 2
producing devices shall not be used in the cargo itself is gas free empty been inerted
pump room unless __________.
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention

Regulations (33 CFR), what is the minimum number
298000 4 2 bolts 4 bolts 6 bolts 8 bolts B 2
of bolts required in a temporarily connected standard
ANSI coupling?

To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when open sea suction start the cargo open block valves, open sluice valves,
298006 2 ballasting through the cargo piping system, you valves, then start the pump, then open sea then start the cargo then start the cargo B 2
should FIRST __________. cargo pump suction valves pump pump
The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the tank that is fuel settling tank for oily water separator isolated tank for
298009 5 A 2
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) as ballast completely segregation from for segregation analysis because of
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that
when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each sea sealed or lashed fitted with a blank fitted with an anti- lined up for
298010 3 A 2
suction valve connected to the vessel's oil transfer, closed flange siphon device immediate use
ballast, or cargo tank systems must be __________.
the terminal foreman the hose leak is a drip pan is placed
298011 8 CFR), if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its fabric, the hose is replaced B 2
is notified securely wrapped under the leak
you may transfer oil after __________.
routine discharge of
The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution oil during ballasting loading and due solely to
298014 4 due to collisions C 2
occurring during tanker operations is __________. and tank crude oil discharging groundings
washing
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 more than the sum at least four times more than the
CFR), the maximum allowable working pressure at least 600 psi (4.14 of the pressure of the sum for the maximum pump
298018 6 B 2
(MAWP) for each hose assembly used for transferring MPa) the relief valve pressure of the relief pressure when a
oil must beto__________.
According Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 setting valve setting relief valve is not
CFR Part 154), the pump being used for cargo
298018 7 55 psi 65 psi 75 psi 98 psi C 2
transfer has a relief valve setting of 65 psi and a
static head of 10 feet. The vessel's cargo hose used
at least four times at least more than
CFR), the pump being used for cargo transfer has a
the sum for the the sum of the
relief valve setting of 65 psi and a static head of 10
298018 8 55 psi 98 psi pressure of the relief pressure of the relief D 2
feet. The vessel's cargo hose used for the transfer
valve setting plus valve setting plus the
must have a maximum allowable working pressure of
static head pressure static head pressure
at least __________.
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 A small cut in the An slight oil seepage
Evidence of internal
CFR Part 156), which of the following conditions hose cover which between the hose
298024 3 or external All of the above. D 2
would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable just pierces the and flange
deterioration.
for use in transferring oil? reinforcement. connection.
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 A cut in the cover
A blown gasket when Evidence of internal
CFR), which of the following conditions would which makes the
298024 4 hydrostatic test or external All of the above. C 2
disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for reinforcement
pressure is applied. deterioration.
use in transferring oil? visible.
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 Twice the distance One and one half Not over 300 feet Sufficient for
298026 2 D 2
CFR), how much hose should you use in transferring between ship and times the distance (91.4 m) of hose. maximum vessel
The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33
298031 2 Port Authority U.S. Coast Guard Corps of Engineers State Pollution Board B 2
CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the

According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 foreign vessels not in U.S. Vessels 26 feet Foreign vessels U.S. vessels less
298033 3 B 2
CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is U.S. navigable or more in length when engaged in than 26 feet in length
While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water
Search the vessel for Notify terminal Notify the Coast
298036 2 near the barge. Which of the following actions should Stop loading C 2
leaks superintendent Guard
you carry out FIRST?
Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from United States Navy A vessel engaged in A passenger vessel A crude oil tanker
298046 2 B 2
mandatory requirements on ballast water frigate. the foreign export of equipped with a engaged in the
To comply with the Pollution Prevention Regulations 5 U.S. gallon 2 barrel capacity one-half barrel
298101 4 3 barrel capacity D 2
(33 CFR Part 155), regarding fuel oil discharge capacity which may be bolted capacity
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention They may be fixed or The containment All containment Containment drains
298104 2 A 2
Regulations (33 CFR Part 155), which of the following portable, depending drains must have drains must lead to a are prohibited from
According the Pollution Prevention Regulations, a
298105 4 126 gallons 168 gallons 252 gallons 491 gallons A 2
tank vessel with a total capacity of over 250,000 all necessary all unnecessary the transfer system the transfer system
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)
components of the parts of the transfer is connected to a is connected to an
298106 2 requires that no person may transfer oil to or from a A 2
transfer system are system are open and flexible overflow fuel automatic back
vessel unless __________.
lined up before the drained hose pressure shutoff
A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000 cargo oil service inside transfer hose number of cargo oil
barrels is required by regulations to have a fixed pressure diameter or loading tank vents, overflows
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention each part of the the discharge each scupper or
Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to transfer system not containment is in drain in a discharge
298208 5 local port authority Corps of Engineers U.S. Coast Guard state pollution board C 2
require that all oil spills in United States waters be
usual operating emergency operating
requires an emergency means of stopping the flow of
298300 4 station of the person- bridge engine room station of the person- A 2
oil during oil transfer operations. The emergency
in-charge in-charge
means must be operable from the __________.
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 shuts off the stops the flow of oil
shuts off the main secures electrical
298300 6 CFR), tank vessels are required to have a means of firefighting foam to shore facility or C 2
propulsion plant power to all motors
emergency shutdown. This device __________. systems other vessel
self-closing emergency pump automatic pressure-
requires an emergency means of stopping the flow of manually-operated
298300 7 automatic disconnect control on the cargo sensitive oil flow C 2
oil during oil transfer operations. That emergency quick-closing valve
fitting deck regulator
means may be a/an __________.
The emergency shutdown requirements of Pollution cargo transfer
298303 2 condensate pumps air compressors induced draft fans D 2
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155) apply to systems
Which of the following represents an emergency
Self-closing Pressure-sensitive
procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank Quick-acting power Manually-operated
298305 2 emergency oil pressure A 2
vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by actuated valve quick-closing valve
disconnect fitting controller
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)?
determine whether
When you notice oil on the water near your vessel notify the senior notify the terminal
298306 7 stop loading your vessel is the A 2
while taking on fuel, you should FIRST __________. deck officer superintendent
source
For all loading operations, the terminal must supply via an electronic
the vessel with a means in which the vessel's communications
pneumatically or
298307 2 designated person-in- charge may stop the flow of oil electrically device in continuous All of the above. D 2
mechanically
to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the operation, and
event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of monitored

While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams unplug the deck run out the vessel's order the shore call the chief
298309 2 C 2
open. You should FIRST __________. scuppers fire hose facility to shut down engineer
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,
298400 3 33 CFR 150 33 CFR 151 33 CFR 156 33 CFR 159 B 2
any ship operating under the authority of the United
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,

any discharge of oil, or oily mixture into the sea from
any oil tanker, or from any ship of 400 gross tons and
298400 4 33 CFR 151 33 CFR 153 33 CFR 156 33 CFR 159 A 2
above, other than an oil tanker, is prohibited while in
a "special" area. These "special areas" are
designated in __________.
The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention liquefied petroleum petroleum oil of any
298500 3 fuel oil only crude oil only D 2
Regulations (33 CFR), means __________. gas kind
Leakage of oil to the Spilling oil on the

According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 Pumping oil
water by an main deck and
298502 4 CFR), which of the following qualifies as a discharge overboard through a All of the above. D 2
improperly blanked having it flow over
of oil? fixed piping system.
transfer hose. the side.
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP)

100 gross registered 150 gross registered 300 gross registered 400 gross registered
298556 2 Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at or B 2
tons tons tons tons
above __________.
persons on duty
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require soundings shall be valves used during
hoses shall be blown during oil transfer
298600 2 that on the completion of oil transfer operations all entered in the oil transfer shall be C 2
down with air shall be accounted
__________. record book closed
each hose is each part of the each oil transfer for
supported in a transfer system hose has no loose
298601 5 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel All of the above. D 2
manner that necessary to allow covers, kinks,
unless __________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no prevents strain on its the flow of oil is lined bulges, or soft spots,
officer-in-charge of
vessel can come alongside or remain alongside a USCG captain of the
298601 6 the vessel which is terminal manager tank ship owner A 2
tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo port
loading
without having
According the permission
to Pollution of the
Prevention __________.
Regulations (33 the designated
that person holds a that person holds a that person holds a
CFR), no person may connect or disconnect an oil person-in-charge
298603 3 tankerman assistant license as master, valid port security A 2
transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil supervises that
endorsement mate, or engineer card
transfer
Accordingoperation on aPrevention
to Pollution tank vesselRegulations
unless (33 procedure
the designated
that person holds a that person holds a that person holds a
CFR), no person may connect or disconnect an oil person-in-charge
298603 4 tankerman assistant license as master, valid port security A 2
transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil supervises that
endorsement mate, or engineer card
transfer
Accordingoperation on aPrevention
to Pollution tank vesselRegulations
unless (33 procedure
When authorized by When licensed as a Whenever the vessel
CFR), when may a person serve as the person-in- Whenever the facility
298604 2 the Captain of the certified refueling is short of A 2
charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil is unmanned.
Port. officer. manpower.
transfer operations?

Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), oil residue has been the maximum the maximum a representative
298605 3 C 2
state that no person may transfer oil to or from a drained from all amount of oil to be transfer rate and sample has been
the maximum
the maximum a representative
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), oil residue has been amount of oil to be
transfer rate and sample has been
298605 4 state that no person may transfer oil to or from a drained from all transferred has been C 2
pressure has been taken from the oil
vessel unless __________. hoses recorded on the
established being received
declaration of
all parts of the a representative
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), oil residue has been an oil containment
transfer system have sample has been
298605 5 state that no person may transfer oil to or from a drained from all boom is available for C 2
been properly lined taken from the oil
vessel unless __________. hoses immediate use
up being received
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state
that a person may not transfer oil or hazardous valve inspection Declaration of
298607 5 machinery log oil record book D 2
materials to or from a vessel unless each person-in- record Inspection
charge hastosigned
According the __________.
the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33
CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel certificate of valve inspection declaration of
298607 6 oil record book D 2
unless each person in charge has signed the inspection record inspection
__________. paper issued by the application you must document signed by annual report
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33
Coast Guard marine complete and submit vessel and shore submitted by vessel
298607 7 CFR), the declaration of inspection is the C 2
inspector which to the Coast Guard facility persons-in- personnel to the
__________.
allows you to to have anthe
describes inspector charge
must bedeclaring
signed bythat Coast Guard
requires the
procedure for both the person-in-
Prior to transfer of fuel, the Declaration of Inspection is the same as the "Discharge of Oil
draining the sumps charge of the
298607 8 required by Coast Guard Regulation (33 CFR) Certificate of Prohibited" placard C 2
of oil lubricated pumping and the
__________. Inspection to be posted at the
machinery into the person-in-charge of
gangway
bilges of U.S. receiving
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33
The senior deck The designated The captain of the Any local Coast
298608 2 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil B 2
officer present person-in-charge port Guard representative
transfer may begin?
person-in-charge of
the oil transfer
The Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations master and chief
master of the vessel terminal supervisor, operations on the
(33 CFR) require a meeting before starting any oil engineer of the
298609 2 and the terminal Master of the vessel vessel and the D 2
transfer operation. That meeting must be between the vessel and the
superintendent and the Coast Guard person-in-charge of
__________. terminal supervisor
the oil transfer
operations at the
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 whether or not the
the identity of the the size of the slop
CFR), the person-in- charge of transfer operations, the status of the oily transferring ship is a
298611 2 product to be tank required under A 2
both ashore and on the vessel, must agree on water separator "Public Vessel of the
transferred 155.330
__________. United States"

During oil transfer operations, who would be

The designated The senior able
298618 2 responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer The tankerman The oiler A 2
person in charge seaman
procedures are being followed?
Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention oil and hazmat large oil transfer pumping equipment
298619 2 cargo vessel design A 2
Regulations concerns __________. transfer operations shore side facilities design
To serve as the person in charge of oil cargo transfer
have a letter from
operations onboard a self- propelled tank vessel, an be a certified
298622 2 be licensed only be 30 years old the company stating A 2
individual tankerman (PIC)
his qualification
must __________.
The discharge
Which of the following operations aboard a tanker Any internal transfer overboard in port or The loading or
298710 4 must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to- of oil cargo during a at sea of any bilge unloading of any or All of the above. D 2
tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? voyage. water accumulated all oil cargo.
in machinery spaces.
Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not discharging at an is within "Special
more than 12
discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo instantaneous rate of Areas" defined in
298723 2 nautical miles from at anchor or stopped B 2
tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless the oil content not Regulation 1 (10) of
the nearest land
vessel is ________.
According to 33 CFR Part 151, all tankships of 150 exceeding 30 liters Annex I to MARPOL
shipboard oil
GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and synthetic plastic vapor recovery
298900 4 oil discharge plan pollution emergency C 2
above, are required to prepare and maintain a USCG discharge plan procedures plan
plan
approved __________. any barge or other
an oil tanker of 400
all vessels, ship which is an oil tanker of 150
gross tons and
A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required regardless of size constructed or gross tons or above,
298905 3 above, or other ships C 2
of __________. and commercial operated in such a or other ship of 400
of 150 gross tons
application manner that no oil in gross tons or above
and above
any form can be
In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast

Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through
298910 1 grades A or B grades D or E grade E LFG C 2
machinery spaces, provided that the only cargo
carried through such piping is(are) __________.
An enclosed space
Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) A cargo handling A space in which
298911 1 containing cargo All of the above D 2
on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo? room cargo hose is stored
piping

On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines The OCMI who Smoking is not
The certificated
298912 1 where smoking may be permitted during a loading issued the Certificate The vessel owner permitted during a B 2
tankerman on duty
operation? of Inspection loading operation.
According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the

tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo,
298913 1 shall be equipped with power ventilation of the 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes C 2
exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a
complete change of air in not more than __________.
On a vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes,

tanks used to carry
enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are
liquids having a flash
298914 1 normally present shall NOT be segregated from cargo cofferdams galleys pump rooms B 2
point of 150°F or
tanks by __________. (vessel constructed after
above
1970)
Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations,

298916 1 sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is 100°C 212°F 500°F 1200°F C 2
at least __________.
Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to
298917 1 75 psi 100 psi 120 psi 150 psi D 2
withstand a pressure of at least __________.
Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating
298919 1 Dry chemicals CO2 Foam All the above D 2
an isoprene fire?
According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo

298920 1 may be carried in tanks that are vented only with B only B or C C or D D or E D 2
gooseneck vents and flame screens?
Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents

298920 2 and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade A and below B and below C and below D and E only D 2
of cargo?
Regulations require that cargo tanks carrying grades gooseneck vents pressure-vacuum branch vent lines
298921 1 forced draft blowers A 2
D or E liquids on tank barges be vented with and flame screens relief valves and a vent header
Regulations require that access to a cargo pumproom away from galleys, only from areas isolated from
298922 1 in a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo, shall living quarters, or equipped with power from the open deck sources of vapor C 2
be __________. navigation spaces ventilation systems ignition

Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling

grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted
298924 1 1 2 3 4 B 2
with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the
weather deck?
Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels

passageways or general cargo
298925 1 carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from cofferdams gastight bulkheads B 2
living quarters spaces
sources of vapor ignition by __________.
Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D

298926 1 65°F 87°F 155°F 160°F B 2
combustible liquid?
Grade D liquids are those having flash points of greater than 80°F 150°F or greater but
298926 2 80°F or less 212°F or greater B 2
__________. and less than 150°F less than 212°F
aviation gas grade
298927 1 An example of a grade D product is __________. heavy fuel oil kerosene commercial gasoline C 2
115/145
If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to above the "explosive within the "explosive below the "explosive
298928 1 None of the above C 2
explode, then it must be __________. range" range" range"
A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between
298929 1 8 - 12 months 10 - 12 months 10 - 14 months 12 - 14 months C 2
which of the following months while the Certificate of
How many portable fire extinguishers are required in
the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge
298930 1 One Two Three None A 2
during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo
pumps of her own?
How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are
298930 2 required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer One B-II Two B-II One B-V Two A-II A 2
operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?
Gooseneck vents
What type of vent is required on a barge transporting
298931 1 fitted with flame Pressure-vacuum Branch vent line Vent header A 2
No. 6 fuel oil?
screens
If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12
months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it 12 months since last 18 months since last 24 months since last 36 months since last
298932 1 D 2
was last dry- docked, when is it required to be hauled dry-docking dry-docking dry-docking dry-docking
out again?
Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to
298933 1 be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with B only B or C C or D D or E D 2
gooseneck vents and flame screens?
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed Report any leakage Make sure the rake Ascertain that the Be on the lookout for
298934 1 B 2
during the loading of LFG? of cargo. ends of the barge hoses to be used are work being
The primary concern(s) for safely transporting and a system of cargo cargo tanks and cargo tanks and
handling LFG is(are) __________. tanks and piping free piping strong enough piping located or

When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, suspension of

298936 1 unconsciousness slow and weak pulse cold and moist skin A 2
the MOST important symptom to check for is breathing
Name one major advantage of transporting gas under It increases its It reduces its It has less product
298937 1 None of the above B 2
refrigeration. volume. volume. per volume.
Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo LPG is compatible LPG's high oxygen Cargo tanks are The cargo tanks are
298938 1 D 2
tanks? with all cargos. content makes it inspected less used for one type of
LFG tank and pipeline maintenance should include exclusion of all sand cleaning with clean examination for
__________. and solid matter fresh or sea water fractures and pitting
filling to the
loading to within 10
The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given checking the loading loading to within 1 maximum level
298940 1 percent of the safety D 2
tank is determined by __________. sheet percent of outage indicated on the
relief valve setting
liquid level gauging
Which spaces are required to be segregated from Enclosed deck
298942 1 Pump rooms Cofferdams Navigation spaces D 2
cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes? spaces
The vent must

A vent header must The diameter of the
extend to a
What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a Each cargo tank be fitted with a vent must be greater
298943 1 reasonable height C 2
tank barge carrying grade A liquids? must have a vent. pressure-vacuum than 4 inches in
above the weather
valve. diameter.
deck.
Access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel at least 13.1 feet only from areas isolated from any
298944 1 from the open deck B 2
carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes shall be away from the equipped with power part of the vessel
easier to clean up
more harmful to sea less harmful to sea not a real threat to
298945 1 Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________. than lighter refined C 2
life than lighter oils life than lighter oils marine life
oils
According to the regulations, what fire safety control Electrical cut off A water spray
298946 1 A fusible link Manual cut off switch B 2
feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves? switch actuator
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are
298947 1 1 2 3 4 B 2
required in how many location(s)?
there are no
According to the regulations, normally, manholes in in the ends of each in the expansion above the weather
298948 1 requirements in the C 2
LFG tanks are located __________. tank trunk of each tank deck
regulation
According to the regulations, what type of gauging is
298950 1 Open Restricted Closed None B 2
required for a cargo of butadiene?

Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges

shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical
298951 1 6 feet 8 feet 10 feet 12 feet C 2
height above the weather deck to a minimum of
__________.
The carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table

Commandant (G- American Bureau of Officer in Charge,
298952 1 4 of 46 CFR Part 154 must be approved by the vessel owner B 2
MTH) Shipping Marine Inspection
__________.
The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as

298953 1 variable the same lighter heavier D 2
compared to air is __________.
Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable

298954 1 gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how 14 30 40 50 C 2
many pounds?
The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and

298956 1 pressure toxicity temperature flammability D 2
liquefied natural gas is __________.
The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and

298956 2 temperature flammability toxicity pressure B 2
liquefied natural gas is __________.
concentrated nitric
298957 1 Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________. alkalis saltwater organic acids B 2
acid
as it warms up it its low temperature

One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied the way it reacts with the strong odor it
298958 1 becomes heavier causes frostbite or D 2
petroleum gas is __________. sea water produces
than air freezing

Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire sweep flames away use a chemical foam call the local fire
298959 1 shut off the leak B 2
caused by escaping gas is to __________. with water spray fire extinguisher department
utilizing carbon
utilizing soda and
Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished dioxide or dry blowing the flames letting it burn itself
298960 1 acid fire D 2
by __________. chemical fire out out
extinguishers
extinguishers
Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades
Pressure vacuum
298961 1 B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which Gooseneck vents Flame screens Forced draft blowers C 2
relief valves
of the following?
Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade
areas equipped with
298962 1 B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated cofferdams empty cargo spaces gas tight bulkheads C 2
power ventilation
from all sources of vapor ignition by __________.
According to regulations, how many B-II hand
portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo
298964 1 One Two Three None B 2
tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped
tank barge engaged in transferring grade B
The scope of the

The reinspection will The inspector shall The inspector shall reinspection shall be
What is NOT a requirement of the reinspection for a
be made between examine all examine the vessel's the same as for the
298965 1 tank barge with a certificate of inspection valid for two A 2
the fourteenth and accessible parts of machinery as well inspection for
years?
sixteenth months. the vessel's hull. as equipment. certification, but in
less detail.
The tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize is

298966 1 flash point convection index flammable range ignition temperature A 2
only from enclosed

According to regulations, access to a cargo from areas equipped
areas free from from within the
298967 1 pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D with power from the open deck C 2
sources of vapor vessel
liquid cargo shall be __________. ventilation
ignition
Regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels

at least two ducts
carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces gooseneck vents a vent header
298968 1 power ventilation extending to the A 2
below the freeboard deck be ventilated with and flame screens system
weather deck
__________.
Reid vapor pressure Reid vapor pressure Reid vapor pressure Reid vapor pressure
What would be classified as grade "C" petroleum
298969 1 of 14 psia, flash of 7 psia, flash point of 5 psia, flash point above 8 1/2 psia but C 2
product?
point of 60°F. of 85°F. of 70°F. less than 14 psia.

The flammable limits for motor gasoline are 5.3% to 7% mixture 0.9% to 5.9% 1.4% to 7.6% 2.5% to 12.8%
298970 1 C 2
__________. in air mixture in air mixture in air mixture in air
an above deck
298971 1 Ullages are measured from __________. the tank ceiling the tank top bushing the thieving mark D 2
datum
an above-deck the tank ceiling a thievage mark

298971 2 Ullages on tankers are measured from __________. datum such as the aboard transversely the tank top below the edge of A 2
top of the ullage pipe framed vessels the deck
an above-deck
Ullage measurements are taken from the top of the the base of the the base of the a line scribed within
298971 3 datum, usually the D 2
liquid to __________. expansion trunk ullage port the ullage port
top of the ullage hole
Determining the
Siphoning off a few Adjusting the cargo Reducing the gross
amount of water (if
298972 1 What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? barrels of petroleum figures to coincide cargo calculations to B 2
any) in each cargo
for shipboard use with the draft net amounts
tank
Determining the
Adjusting the cargo Reducing the gross Siphoning off a few
amount of water (if
298972 2 What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? figures to coincide cargo calculations to barrels of petroleum B 2
any) in each cargo
with the draft net amounts for shipboard use
tank
The standard unit of liquid volume used in the

298974 1 petroleum industry, as well as the tanker industry, is a barrel drum gallon liter A 2
__________.
A "barrel" is a unit of liquid measure equivalent to 40 U.S. gallons at 42 U.S. gallons at 43 U.S. gallons at 45 U.S. gallons at
298974 2 B 2
__________. 50°F 60°F 65°F 75°F
A standard net barrel of petroleum products is

298974 3 42 gallons at 60°F 48 gallons at 70°F 50 gallons at 50°F 60 gallons at 100°F A 2
__________.
What is the standard net barrel for petroleum 42 gallons at 48 gallons at 50 gallons at 60 gallons at
298974 4 A 2
products? 60°Fahrenheit 70°Fahrenheit 50°Celsius 100°Saybolt

The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off

298975 1 sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air fire point flash point lower explosive limit threshold limit value B 2
is known as the __________.
The minimum temperature required to ignite gas or

auto ignition
298975 2 vapor without a spark or flame being present is called flash point fire point lower explosive limit C 2
temperature
__________.
The explosive range of a fuel lies between the lower

298975 3 flash point ignition temperature upper explosive limit fire point C 2
explosive limit and the __________.
The (auto) ignition temperature is that temperature at no spark or flame is a fuel begins to give a fuel if ignited will a 1% mixture of the
298975 4 A 2
which __________. required to ignite gas off explosive vapors continue to burn fuel with air will
Opening in the deck
Tube fitted to an Area the product is Void or empty space
298976 1 What is a cofferdam? used for cleaning a C 2
ullage hole loaded into separating two tanks
tank
The distance between the surface of the liquid and

298977 1 thievage innage ullage tankage C 2
the tank top in a cargo tank is called __________.
What refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a

298978 1 Innage Outage Thievage Ullage A 2
tank?
Which refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a

298978 2 Outage Ullage Thievage Innage D 2
tank?
keep flames and

contain flammable protect firefighters prevent flames from sparks from getting
298979 1 Flame screens are used to __________. C 2
fumes from flames entering tanks out of an engine's
exhaust system
Functions aboard a tanker or tank barge such as the person
any certificated the Master of the the officer of the
298980 1 connecting, disconnecting, and topping off must be designated as D 2
tankerman vessel watch
supervised by __________. "person in charge"

a tug comes a large, fresh oil spill

alongside while the is discovered there is a fire on the
Cargo transfer operations on a tank vessel need NOT there is an electrical
298981 1 tanker is loading immediately adjacent dock or on a nearby A 2
be stopped when __________. storm in the vicinity
grade D and E to the side of the vessel
cargoes tanker
When planning the loading or discharging of a VLCC Limits of the bending

298982 1 Draft and trim Rate of discharging Rate of loading B 2
(100,000 DWT+) what is the most important moments
insulating flange or
When hooking up a cargo hose to your vessel's international shore self-contained
298983 1 single length of non- oxygen analyzer B 2
manifold, you should use a(n) _________. connection breathing apparatus
conducting hose
They should be Switching off a The measured After the insulating
Which statement is TRUE concerning insulating inspected and tested cathodic protection resistance value flange is installed,
298983 2 A 2
flanges? periodically to system may be after installation hot work may be
ensure that the substituted for using should be less than performed on deck.
Insulating flanges minimize the dangers arising from accumulations of tank over-
298983 3 smoking on deck loading asphalt C 2
__________. electrostatic charges pressurization
Litmus paste is used in order to determine the tank's datum

298984 1 innage thievage ullage B 2
__________. point
Oil product samples should be taken from the

298985 1 dock riser ship's cargo tanks shore tank discharge All of the above D 2
__________.
there are two the vessel is discharge
certificated equipped with containment
298986 1 Oil may NOT be transferred unless __________. All of the above C 2
tankerman on each constant-tension equipment (i.e. drip
vessel winches pans) are in place
Identity of the Details of Emergency
Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the Estimated time of
298987 1 product to be transferring and shutdown D 2
pre-transfer conference? finishing cargo
transferred receiving systems procedures
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST Call the owner, Run out the vessel's
Trip the pump relief Order the dock man
298988 1 action you should take if a cargo valve jammed operator, or terminal or terminal's fire B 2
valve. to shut down.
open? supervisor. hose.
Call the owner, Run out the vessel's
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the first action Unplug the deck Order the dock man
298988 2 operator, or terminal or terminal's fire C 2
you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? scuppers. to shut down.
supervisor. hose.

the increased
viscosity of the
a subsequent air pockets may the tank valve may
Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at product requires
temperature rise will cause the cargo to be stiff and a spill will
298989 1 deck level when loading on a cold day because higher loading A 2
cause the cargo to bubble out of the occur before the
__________. pressure which
overflow ullage hole valve can be closed
increases the
chances of a spill
remains constant if
With an increase in temperature the volume of
298989 2 expands contracts remains constant pressure remains A 2
flammable and combustible liquids __________.
constant
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and

load more cargo
298990 1 you find that she has too much trim by the stern. To add ballast forward shift bunkers forward All of the above C 2
forward
adjust the trim you may __________.
Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she
298990 2 is down slightly by the head. To adjust the trim, you add ballast aft load more cargo aft shift cargo aft All of the above C 2
may __________.
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and

load more cargo
298990 3 you find that she has too much trim by the stern. To add ballast forward shift bunkers forward All of the above C 2
forward
adjust the trim, you may __________.
Which factor must be considered when determining

Contamination of the Reid vapor
298991 1 the order of loading of dissimilar products through the Flash points Specific gravities A 2
cargo pressures
same piping system aboard a tanker?
Notify the engine

Maintain Give the operation
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping Reduce the loading
298992 1 room of the communications with your undivided B 2
off? rate.
procedure. the dock man. attention.
close valves by
keep the seamen on
load only one tank at keep a strain on the closing them down,
298993 1 When loading a tanker, you should __________. watch on standby in D 2
a time loading hoses reopening one or two
the mess room
turns, and re-closing
Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak place a large drip
develops in the hose. You order the pumping notify the terminal pan under the leak repair the hose with
298994 1 replace the hose D 2
stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should superintendent and plug the a patch
__________. scuppers

A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a

manhole at the mid-length of the tank. In order to fill Down by either the
298995 1 Down by the bow Down by the stern In level trim D 2
the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the bow or stern
vessel have?
In order to reduce the accumulation of static use the overall
start to load at increase the air flow
298996 1 electricity while loading petroleum products, you start to load slowly method of loading B 2
maximum pressure into the tank
should __________. only
The terminal indicates to you that they are going to

booster pump
use a booster pump to assist the discharging booster pump being
coming on the line booster pump failing ship's pump
298997 1 operation. You start the discharge, and in a few lined up in the wrong A 2
and discharging to start speeding up
minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a direction
properly
result of the __________.
The terminal indicates to you that they are going to

booster pump
use a booster pump to assist the discharging booster pump being
coming on the line booster pump failing ship's pump
298997 2 operation. You start the discharge and in a few lined up in the wrong A 2
and discharging to start speeding up
minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a direction
properly
result of the __________.
When stripping a tank, excessive air in the suction an over pressurized

298998 1 back pressure loss of suction increase of suction C 2
line may cause __________. line
using a center tank using wing tanks

using the after peak
While discharging a tanker, list can be controlled by near the bow, near the longitudinal
298999 1 shore side personnel tank, loading as C 2
__________. discharging as center, discharging
necessary
necessary as necessary
While discharging a cargo, the stripping of the tanks main pumps are main pumps are stripping line is cross-
stripping pump is not
299900 1 falls behind schedule. This would indicate the working at a high leaving too much oil connected to the B 2
primed
__________. discharge pressure in the tanks main line
When discharging an oil cargo, the first consideration discharge from the discharge from the discharge from
299901 1 get the bow up A 2
is to __________. wings first centerline tanks first amidships first
Empty the forward Start discharging Start pumping from Start pumping from
Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest tanks and start with most of the forward, midships, midships and then
299901 2 B 2
and most efficient? working aft, discharge coming and aft with the work forward and aft
emptying each tank from forward, but discharge distributed simultaneously as

stripped out and

stripped out and
pumped directly gravitated to the
stripped to one tank
pumped directly
You are on a tankship discharging oil. When all of the ashore into the centers from the
and then pumped ashore after all the
299902 1 oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped mainline as the wings and pumped B 2
out with the main tanks have been
out of a tank, the remainder is __________. remaining cargo out with the main
pumps emptied by the main
tanks are pumped pumps
pumps
out with the main Use portable
Decant one meter
Strip all tanks and Use an inert gas washing machines to
What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective from the source tank
299903 1 remove the bottom system while reach areas C 2
use of a crude oil washing system? for the tank cleaning
residue. washing tanks. obscured by
machines.
structural members
The source tank The inert gas system
The oil in the source
You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. At least one meter must have been must lower the
tank must be
299903 2 What precaution must be taken with the source tank must be decanted crude oil washed at oxygen content in A 2
sampled for
for the washing machines? from the source tank. least once in the the source tank to a
compatibility.
past 150 days. maximum of 12%.
The portable The fixed machines
machines must be The source tank for The inert gas system must be operated
You are planning to use the crude oil washing system
set at the proper the tank cleaning must reduce the simultaneously with
on your tankship.
299903 3 drop for the first machines must have oxygen content in the portable B 2
What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in
wash before the least one meter the tanks to a machines to equalize
the tanks?
fixed machines are decanted from it. maximum of 18%. the electrostatic
The complete details of a crude oil washing system used. potential.
Crude Oil Washing
Crude Oil Washing
aboard your vessel, including the operating Oil Transfer Code of Federal addendum to the
299904 1 Operations and B 2
sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a Procedures Manual Regulations Certificate of
Equipment Manual
description of the system, and required personnel will Inspection
Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen
immediately above one meter from the
299904 2 content in the tank must be measured at a position at the top of the tank in the vent riser D 2
the level of the oil deck
__________.
Open a COW nozzle Close off all valves in

You have completed a crude oil wash. What action forward and one aft Blow the line out the system and
Pull a suction using
299905 1 should be taken with the oil in the lines running to the and drain the line using compressed leave the oil in the A 2
the supply line pump
washing machines? into the after tank by air line primed for the
gravity next crude oil wash
In controlling pollution, which action should be taken

The slops should be Chemicals should be
after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop The clean tanks The dirty ballast tank
299906 1 allowed time to added to emulsify B 2
tank and prior to discharge through the oily water should be ballasted. is crude oil washed.
settle. the oil.
separator?
flash point range and
pour point, color, and
The designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo degrees of quality of Reid vapor pressure
299907 1 grades of crude oil viscosity index of B 2
refer to the __________. petroleum products index of petroleum
petroleum products
products

299908 1 Most crude oils are classified as grade __________. A or B B C or D E C 2
You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of

cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the
299909 1 vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. 1510, 5 November 1104, 6 November 1242, 6 November 0735, 7 November C 2
At 1200 you find that you have loaded 218,000
barrels.
You are Ifinyou
the continue loading
process of at 465,000
loading the samebarrels
rate, you
of
cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the
299909 2 vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. 1510, 5 November 0140, 6 November 1104, 6 November 0735, 7 November C 2
At 1200, you find that you have loaded 219,000
barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you
You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945
on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000
299909 3 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 1322, 13 April 1920, 13 April 1120, 14 April 1305, 14 April D 2
223,000 barrels. If you continue at the same rate, you
will finish at __________.
The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off

299910 1 sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air fire point flash point lower explosive limit threshold limit value B 2
is known as the __________.
Determining the
Siphoning off a few Adjusting the cargo Reducing the gross
amount of water (if
299911 1 What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? barrels of petroleum figures to coincide cargo calculations to B 2
any) in each cargo
for shipboard use. with the draft. net amounts.
one meter from the tank.
one half the ullage of one half the ullage of at three meter
When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo
tank bottom and one the tank and one the tank and one intervals from the
299912 1 tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor B 2
meter below the tank meter below the tank meter above the tank tank top to the
recovery, check it __________.
top top bottom bottom
Provides for the

Allows two or more Permits the return of
What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo Provides for the emergency
299913 1 tanks to be filled at cargo to the suction D 2
pump? removal of vapors shutdown of the
the same time side of the pump
pump
sustain combustion
give off flammable have a Reid vapor give off flammable
For the purpose of regulating tank vessels, flammable at a temperature at
299914 1 vapors at or below pressure of 18 vapors only above A 2
liquids are liquids which will __________. or below 100°F
80°F (27°C) pounds or more 80°F (27°C)
(38°C)

The pipe used to connect two separate piping

299915 1 crossover transfer connection junction A 2
systems on a tank vessel is known as a __________.
A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How

299916 1 many tons of liquid of specific gravity 0.9300 will it 326.6 343.2 377.6 390.2 A 2
hold when filled to 90% capacity?
You have water washed your cargo tanks using the Ventilate the tank to Attach the water Insure that the tanks Ground the fixed
299917 1 A 2
fixed machines. What should you do before using eliminate any electro- supply hose to the are not stripped until machines to
Carbon disulfide may Pyridine and Carbon disulfide A tank of pyridine
You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide,
be carried in NOS. 1 diisopropylamine must be separated may be used to
299918 1 diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product D 2
and 2 center tanks may be carried in from pyridine by two separate a tank of
tankship. Which statement is TRUE?
and tanks having a barriers (cofferdams, carbon disulfide from
Protective clothing must be worn while sampling a face mask or chemical resistant
299919 1 a hood or hard hat boots B 2
hazardous cargo on a tankship, and as a minimum goggles gloves
oil and hazardous lifesaving and

33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning vessel construction operation of nautical
299920 1 material transfer firefighting A 2
__________. and design school ships
operations equipment
They are smaller for

What is NOT an advantage of centrifugal pumps over They pump more They are less They require priming
299921 1 equivalent pumping D 2
reciprocating pumps? cargo in less time. expensive. for stripping.
ability.
Opening the
Decreasing the
discharge valve
What is a characteristic of all centrifugal cargo They are self- speed of rotation will
299921 2 wider will increase All of the above B 2
pumps? priming. decrease the
the discharge
discharge pressure.
pressure.
They are more They require

Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps They are used for
299921 3 They are gravity-fed. expensive than extensive A 2
aboard tankers? stripping pumps.
reciprocating pumps. maintenance

They are more

Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps They are used for They are used for
299922 1 They are gravity-fed. expensive than A 2
aboard tankers? stripping pumps. stripping pumps.
reciprocating pumps.
The valve on the discharge side of a cargo pump on

299923 1 butterfly valve spectacle valve check valve globe valve C 2
a tank vessel will usually be a __________.
The valve on the discharge side of a cargo pump on

299923 2 gate valve butterfly valve globe valve check valve D 2
a tank vessel will usually be a __________.
They are calibrated

One sample of air is They do not work
Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible They will detect a to read the
299924 1 adequate to test a properly where there B 2
gas indicators? lack of oxygen. percentage chance
tank. is a lack of oxygen.
of explosion.
Scrubber high water Deck seal low water

299925 1 Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system? Low oxygen alarm Low pressure alarm A 2
level alarm alarm
Washing the tank Removal of

Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing Application of
299926 1 interior with sea corrosion products Fresh air ventilation B 2
a tank? degreasing solvents
water and sludge
You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is
Open the pressure Open the tank
in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank Cut in another IG fan Reduce the pumping
299927 1 control valve until the isolation valve to the D 2
being discharged starts to drop below the allowable to increase gas flow. rate.
pressure increases. fully open position.
limit. What action should you take?
In order for combustion to occur inside a piping

299928 1 system such as a vapor collection header in a marine fuel oxygen ignition All of the above D 2
emission control system, there must be __________.
In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set

in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible
299929 1 and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain 70% 80% 90% 95% C 2
level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief
valve setting at which the alarm must sound?
cooling the gas

A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best cutting off the supply stopping the flow of interrupting the chain
299930 1 below the ignition C 2
extinguished by __________. of oxygen gas reaction
point

5 times the 5 times the minimum

According to regulations, a cargo hose used for one half the 4 times the pressure
maximum working working pressure on
299931 1 transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting designed working of the cargo pump A 2
pressure on the hose the hose during
pressure of __________. pressure used for transferring
during cargo transfer cargo transfer
The final inspection responsibility for seeing that a

charterer through the
tank barge is provided with the required equipment tankerman or person
299933 1 terminal operator owner of the barge Master of the towing C 2
and fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to in charge of loading
vessel
loading cargo rests with the __________.
The sign used to caution persons approaching the "Warning, No

"Warning, Keep Off, "Danger, Do Not "Dangerous Cargo
299934 1 gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer reads Smoking, No Open C 2
Stay Clear" Board" Being Transferred"
__________. Lights, No Visitors"
close the valve on close the valve on

open all valves on
When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a the discharge side of the suction side of
299935 1 the discharge side to shut down one pump D 2
single tank start cavitating, you should __________. the pump to re- the ballast pump to
permit improved flow
acquire suction re-prime the pump
The person in charge on the vessel and the person in The person in The person in Both persons in The person in
299936 1 C 2
charge at the facility must hold a meeting before charge on the vessel charge at the facility charge charge of either
The transfer procedures required to be followed on a list of each port of a line diagram of the the duties by name
299937 1 a current crew list B 2
tankships shall contain __________. discharge vessel's transfer of each person in
decreases as may increase or

increases with the is not affected by
299938 1 The vapor pressure of a substance __________. temperature decrease as the A 2
increases temperature rises
The temperature at which water vapor in an

299939 1 atmosphere condenses to a liquid is known as the bubble point equilibrium the flash point the dew point D 2
__________.
the temperature to
the amount of fuel the amount of heat
The heat value of a fuel is best described as which a fuel must be the cost per BTU of
299940 1 added to a fuel to released when a fuel B 2
__________. raised to cause a fuel
cause it to burn is burned
ignition
either the master or the instruction
An LNG vessel's contaiment system must be cooled the knowledgeable
chief engineer manual provided by
299941 1 down prior to loading cargo. The cool-down the port engineer shore side loading D 2
probably knows this the manufacturer of
parameters and rates are obtained from __________. terminal personnel
information the containment

A dedicated A representative
Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before A shore side gas
299942 1 The chief officer. company from the vessel's A 2
entering the shipyard? chemist.
representative. class society.
One important aspect of LNG concerning its safety is
299943 1 cold corrosive caustic carcegenic A 2
that it is very __________.
When discharging cargo, the onboard liquid level
using the ship's
drops. This causes a lowering of onboard cargo tank taking gas from
299944 1 vaporizer to produce either of the above neither of the above C 2
pressure. This pressure is brought back to normal by ashore
the needed gas
__________.
circulate gas when
Gas compressors on an LNG vessel provide the deliver gas ashore deliver boil-off gas to
299945 1 warming up the all of the above D 2
motive force to __________. when loading the engine room
tanks
If you were exposed to a 100% methane atmosphere break out in a become quite ill due
299946 1 suffocate be severely burned B 2
for more than 15 minutes, you would probably cryogenic rash to the toxic nature of
All of the following are acceptable means to measure a capacitance level a sounding tape
a nitrogen bubbler
299947 1 a liquid level in a cyrogenic cargo tank except measurement gage using blue a radar gage B 2
system
__________. system chalk
299948 1 LNG is carried at approximately what temperature? -160 degrees F -160 degrees K -160 degrees C -160 degrees R C 2
In order to raise the temperature of water from 60

299949 1 degrees F to 180 degrees F, you must add latent heat sensible heat crucial heat super heat B 2
___________.
spraying LNG heel aggressive gas

During the ballast voyage, the tanks are kept cold by managing the tank venting gas to the
299950 1 through spray compressor B 2
__________. pressure atmosphere
nozzles in the tanks operation
What gas detection device is used to determine when

299951 1 Oxygen meter Methane detector Dew point meter CO2 meter A 2
gassing up is complete?
Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation

299951 2 1 percent 3 percent 5 percent 10 percent D 2
must be accurate to within __________.
A chemical additive to LPG give it a characteristic

299960 1 color pressure density odor D 2
__________.

absorbs loads protects the hull increases the dew

LNG containment insulation performs all of the limits the heat leak to
299961 1 imposed by the against low point of the hold D 2
following functions, except __________. the cargo
cargo temperature space atmosphere
To insure an inert
The name of a
atmosphere during
gaseous state when To calibrate a gas
the span of time
To find the zero point the temperature of analyzer to ensure it
299962 1 Span gas is used for what process? when a system is D 2
on a gas analyzer. the vapor is the indicates correct gas
being brought to a
same as that of the concentrations.
dry air condition from
liquid.
a flammable
What device will be activated while loading a LNG Remote shutdown Emergency No shutdown
299963 1 Overflow shutdown. B 2
tank and the HI-HI liquid level set point is reached? valve control. shutdown. required.
speed (LPG/LNG
The LNG cargo pumps capacity depends upon
299964 1 back pressure density of cargo pumps are constant All of the above D 2
__________.
speed)
check the send someone into immediately
While underway with full LNG cargo tanks, an alarm commence purging
temperature and the hold space with commence lining up
299965 1 indicates liquid in hold space #3. The first action hold #3 with inert A 2
pressure indicators SCBA and cyrogenic the system to educt
taken should be to __________. gas
in the hold space immersion suit, to LNG from the cargo
improper caloric an inadequate
299966 1 Asphyxia is the condition arising from __________. too much oxygen sleep deprivation D 2
intake supply of oxygen
In case of a LNG leak from a liquid header flanged Tighten the flange Stop cargo transfer
Flood the area under
299967 1 connection, what is the first precautionary action to Call the Coast Guard bolts until the leak until the cause of the C 2
the leak with water.
take? stops. leak is corrected.
At what maximum gas concentration must the fixed

30% by lower 20% of the lower
299968 1 gas detection system on a LNG ship activate an 30% by volume. 20% by volume. C 2
flammable limit flammable limit.
audible and visual alarm?
The heat given to or given up by a substance in

299969 1 condensation latent heat evaporation vaporization B 2
changing state is called __________.
299970 1 The term used for evaporated LNG is __________. boil-off vapor GNG All of the above D 2

While discharging cargo, the cargo tank pressures Ask the terminal to
Slow the discharge Stop the discharge
299971 1 are falling too low. What can the Cargo Officer do to send more vapor to All of the above. D 2
rate. rate.
correct the problem? the ship.
Where is a permanently installed system of gas Cargo compressor

299972 1 Cargo pump rooms. Air locks. All of the above. D 2
detection required? rooms.
If a repair team is to enter a confined space for repair

299973 1 work, what minimum level of oxygen should be 18% 19% 20% 21% D 2
present?
An enclosure which will withstand ignition of a
flammable gas and which will prevent the
299974 1 transmission of any flame able to ignite a flammable a flame proof screen explosion proof gas-safe enclosure primary gas barrier B 2
gas which may be present in the surrounding
atmosphere is called __________.
At its critical At a pressure in
299975 1 In what condition is LNG transported? At its boiling point. All of the above. A 2
temperature. excess of 15.4 PSIA.
Shut off the source

Apply "Purple K" dry Apply mechanical
299976 1 What is the preferable way to extinguish an LNG fire? Apply water fog. of the gas feeding B 2
chemical. foam.
the fire.
when two or more

vapor pockets
stratified layers of
LNG cargo "rollover" is a term used to describe custody transfer at forming at the moving LNG from
299977 1 different density LNG C 2
__________. the terminal bottom of a half-filled one tank to another
in the same tank
tank
an electrical circuit in suddenly mix
which a spark is an electrical circuit
Intrinsically safe equipment can be described as incapable of causing electrical circuits electrical circuits normally limited to
299978 1 A 2
__________. the ignition of a under 12 volts under 2 amperes instrumentation in
given explosive hazardous areas
mixture keep cargo at a
reliquify cargo vapor temperature and
cool down cargo
Reliquification plants are provided to perform which of generated during pressure within the
299979 1 tanks and pipes prior All of the above D 2
the following functions __________. loading and return it design limit of the
to loading
to the cargo tanks cargo system during
transport
What is the most commonly used material for valve
299980 1 5% nickel alloy steel. Aluminum. Stainless steel. 9% nickel alloy steel. C 2
construction in LNG cargo piping?

Warm the area Compress the

Cryogenic burns can result in "Frostbite". What is the quickly by placing it Massage the Apply ice to the area affected area with
299981 1 A 2
proper immediate treatment? in water at 108°F affected area. and gradually warm. cryogenic burn heat
until it has thawed. wrap.
nitrogen and dry air inert gas and dry air
The Inert gas plant on an LNG vessel is designed to warm GNG for
299982 1 with a dew point of at with a minimum dew inert gas only B 2
produce __________. purging
least -20°F point of -40°F
On a LNG ship at anchor with cargo onboard, how is Excess vapor is The vapor is All boil-off vapor is Excess vapor is
299983 1 C 2
the vapor pressure in the cargo tanks controlled? vented to the compressed by the normally burned in controlled by the
steam produced in steam is vented to
LNG boil-off is used as fuel in the dual fuel system to
boil-off is not the boiler, due to the the atmosphere to
produce steam in the boilers to run the turbines. boil-off is vented to
299984 1 permitted to be used dual fuel system, is prevent excess build- C 2
Under slow maneuvering speeds, due to excessive the atmosphere
as a fuel dumped to the main up of pressure in the
steam being generated the __________.
condenser
the lowest boiler
a measurement of
exerted by liquid exerted by liquid
temperature and the amount of
299985 1 Reid Vapor Pressure is __________. cargo on the sides of cargo on a cargo D 2
pressure that will flammable vapors
a tank hose body
cause a flammable given off by a liquid
The term "discharge" as it applies to the pollution
299986 1 spilling leaking pumping All of the above D 2
regulations, means __________.
Which would be considered pollution under the US Hazardous

299987 1 Garbage. Oil. All of the above. D 2
water pollution laws? substances.
A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks

quick-release
299988 1 off the pipe or allow a full flow passage of a liquid blind flange pivot coupling spectacle flange D 2
coupling
through the pipe is referred to as a __________.
The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before
299989 1 the vessel vapor connection must be painted red/yellow/red yellow/red/yellow international orange hi-visibility yellow A 2
__________.
The maximum allowable oxygen content within the

299990 1 ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor 4% 5% 8% 10% C 2
recovery system is __________.
A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the

299991 1 low in the vessel completely empty completely full slack D 2
stability of a vessel when it is __________.
The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure

299992 1 soluble state solid state liquefied state inert state C 2
necessary to keep it in a(n) ___________.
Apply an ice pack to Keep the eyelid Flush the eye with Rub the eye area
299993 1 What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? C 2
the eye. close. plenty of water. clean.

To determine the pressure and temperature

limitations under which LFG is required to be Certificate of rules and regulations tanker man's
299994 1 loading order A 2
transported on a barge, you should look at the Inspection for tank vessels documents
__________.
Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or To keep visitors To prohibit open
299995 1 To prohibit smoking. All of the above. D 2
access point of a barge during cargo transfer? away from the barge. lights.
They are designed to They should operate They should be kept
299996 1 What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves? All of the above. D 2
provide for the flow in advance of the in good working
The person (s)
Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before The US Coast The manager of the The American
299997 1 designated-in- C 2
loading a tank vessel? Guard. shore facility Bureau of Sipping.
charge.
Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation
299998 1 1% 3% 5% 10% D 2
must be accurate to within __________.
its low temperature as it warms up it

One of the principle dangers inherent in liquified the way it reacts with the strong odor it
299999 1 causes frostbite or becomes heavier A 2
petroleum gas is __________. sea water produces
freezing than air
filling to the
loading to within maximum level
The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given checking the loading loading to within 1%
300000 1 10% of the safety indicated on the D 2
tank is determined by __________. sheet of outage
relief valve setting liquid level gauging
device
A combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a

300001 1 40°F (4°C) 80°F (27°C) 110°F (43°C) 150°F (66°C) B 2
flash point above __________.
300002 1 The flash point of vinyl chloride is __________. -108°F (-78°C) -20°F (-29°C) 32°F (0°C) 97°F (36°C) A 2
The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the
person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the
300003 1 5 years 3 years 2 years 1 year A 2
Coast Guard as soon as he/she knows of any oil
discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead
If you observe any situation which presents a safety Notify the person in
Close the valves at Shut down the Sound the general
300004 1 or pollution hazard during the fuel transfer operations, charge of the shore C 2
the manifold. operation. alarm.
which action should you take FIRST? facility.
You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge

the pump running the discharge head
300005 1 cargo. The pump works fine for awhile and then loses incomplete priming All of the above B 2
backwards being too high
suction. This could be caused by __________.

To insure proper seating when closing a valve on a closed against the closed, opened a set up as tight as set up tight using a
300006 1 B 2
tank, the valve should be __________. stop and the locking half turn, and then possible by hand valve wrench
A cargo pump relief valve is usually piped to which of cargo pump atmosphere through
300007 1 crossover line suction side of pump C 2
the following components? pressure gauge pump vent
prevents the flue gas opens when there is enables outside air
allows the inert gas
The fresh air intake of the inert gas system from falling below an excessive vacuum to mix with and to
300008 1 piping to be used for B 2
__________. oxygen content of on the deck water cool the hot flue
gas freeing the tanks
3% seal gases
Maintains gas Removes chemical

Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an Removes particulate
300009 1 Cools the inert gas. pressure in the impurities from the C 2
inert gas system? matter like soot.
tanks. gas.
hydrocarbon content
A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly of the atmosphere is atmosphere is compartment to be
300010 1 All of the above A 2
ONLY when the __________. less than the Upper deficient in oxygen tested is free of CO2
Explosive Limit be capable of be electrically
have a design burst
Each hose used for transferring vapors must withstanding at least continuous with a
300011 1 pressure of at least All of the above D 2
__________. 2.0 psi vacuum maximum resistance
25 psig
without collapsing or of 10,000 ohms
pressure gauge
stud at least 1" long
On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor permanently
300012 1 6" reducer projecting from the hose saddle B 2
connection flange must have a __________. attached to the
flange face
flange
Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank The longitudinal The stress on the The vertical center of
300013 1 GM C 2
vessel? center of gravity hull gravity
Which signal must you display at night on a docked

300015 1 tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging Red light. Flashing amber light. ICC yellow light. Two orange lights. A 2
flammable liquid cargo?
laying out an excess tying off the topping

Pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and adjusting the hose
300016 1 length of hose on lifts and runners to All of the above A 2
the dock should be prevented by __________. supports
deck winch heads
The gas above the liquid in an LNG tank is
300017 1 inert gas gaseous natural gas nitrogen very dry air B 2
__________.
To prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a combustion

300018 1 an oxidizer inert gas a vortex eliminator B 2
a tank container, one can use __________. stabilizer

Tank warm up operations should be continued until

ambient outside air
300019 1 the tank metal temperature is at least as warm as -40°C -20°C 0°C D 2
temperature
__________.
are not held closed can be opened by are not to be
300021 1 Cargo tank safety valves __________. all of the above D 2
by tank pressure pilot valves "popped" in port
There is a water spray or deluge system on LNG protecting protecting mild steel
300022 1 both "A" and "B" neither "A" or "B" C 2
vessels that provide a water spray over all areas surrounding areas hull plating from
Submerged LNG pump bearings are lubricated by Low Temp-a special
300023 1 LNG silicon grease graphite A 2
__________. cryogenic lubricant
300024 1 Methane gas is __________. odorless active volatile corrosive A 2
the design does not

good visibility over
An advantage of the spherical type containment require a full liquid
300025 1 the bow for ship both "A" and "B" neither "A" or "B" B 2
system is __________. tight secondary
handling
barrier
Be on the lookout for
Make sure the raked
Ascertain that the work being
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed Report any leakage ends of the barge
300027 1 hoses to be used are accomplished C 2
during the loading of LFG? of cargo. are completely dry
in good condition. ashore in the vicinity
and mopped.
of the barges.
solid metal bars a natural fiber tag

When tank cleaning with a portable machine, how is a wire rope
300028 1 clamped to the a portable davit line, saddle and D 2
the weight of the machine is suspended? suspension line
Butterworth opening hose
The general name given to propane, butane, and

300029 1 LPG LNG NGL LEG A 2
mixtures of the two is __________.
NGL contains LNG contains LNG contains
smaller quantities of smaller quantities of
smaller quantities of LNG is a pure
300030 1 Which statement is correct? a heavier a heavier a heavier substance and has C 2
hydrocarbon known hydrocarbon known hydrocarbon known no other component
as LNG. as Pantene as NGL
The boiling point of Methane is -161°C. How is the Atmospheric Normal ambient
300031 1 Fully refrigerated. Fully pressurized. C 2
substance carried? pressure. temperature.
A substance that at A liquid that requires A gas that is mixed A liquid that needs to
300032 1 A liquified gas is __________. A 2
normal temperature to be heated above with another be stored at absolute
300033 1 The most common liquified gas cargo is __________. hydrocarbons chemical gases butane ammonia D 2

substance whose
substance whose substance whose
gas that has molecules contain
molecules contain molecules not
300033 3 A chemical gas is described as a __________. molecules but not other atoms as well C 2
only carbon and exceed 4 carbon
carbon or hydrogen as carbon and
hydrogen molecules
hydrogen
The process of adding mercaptans to gas, is known
300034 1 reeking smelling saturating stenching D 2
as __________.
The temperature at which a vapor mixture, at a given

300035 1 dew point bubble point boiling point critical point A 2
pressure, begins to condense is the __________.
Which of the following terms best defines the
300036 1 flash over boil off cascading rollover D 2
spontaneous mixing of a tank's liquid contents when
Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and When large When 21% of Where large Where rusting of
300037 1 B 2
the deficiency of breathable air in an enclosed space quantities of cargo oxygen is present. quantities of inert internal tank
A burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating
300038 1 asphyxia dermatitis athlete's foot chemical burn D 2
rash, blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning
Some cargoes can react with air to form unstable

300039 1 explode form water cause polymerization form CO2 A 2
oxygen compounds which could __________.
Most liquified gas cargoes are flammable, and are burn, if it's within it's freeze and possibly result in sloshing in allow air to enter the
300040 1 A 2
carried at or close to their boiling point. If released flammable range and cause structural the tank which could system causing
MARPOL 73/78 is the convention dealing with International International International International Marine
300041 1 A 2
__________. Convention for the Convention on Convention of Safety Organization Gas
If liquified gas tankers which comply with the Certificate of Fitness
International Oil Certificate for the
requirements with regard to their structure, for the Carriage of Cargo Ship Safety
300042 1 Prevention Carriage of Noxious D 2
equipment, fittings, arrangements, and materials are Dangerous Construction
Certificate Liquid Substances
certified by the __________. Chemicals in Bulk
Ventilation spaces for a gas safe space within the operating on at all sucking from the
300043 1 positive pressure filtered system A 2
cargo area must be __________. times outside atmosphere
a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid- line solenoid

2
valve that is leaking during the 'off' cycle, what would
What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in
2
the tanks?

Uscg - General MCQ 2

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Engineering Test Gen Sub 1 2 Formatted by Bruce Sherman

The mutual action between parts of a material to

A "barrel" is defined as a unit of liquid, measured at

A "barrel" is defined as a unit of liquid, measured at

Crawford Nautical School 1 www.crawfordnautical.com

As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an

Crawford Nautical School 2 www.crawfordnautical.com

As shown in the illustration, a section of standard

A measurement of .2344 inches is equal to

If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots,

Your ship has steamed 1856 miles at 18 knots using

If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots,

Crawford Nautical School 3 www.crawfordnautical.com

Your ship has steamed 1940 miles at 21 knots using

If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots,

Your ship has steamed 1651 miles at 20 knots using

If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots,

Your ship has steamed 1945 miles at 21 knots using

If your ship burns 5 tons of fuel per hour at 23 knots,

Your ship has steamed 2014 miles at 22 knots using

If your ship burns 4 tons of fuel per hour at 21 knots,

Crawford Nautical School 4 www.crawfordnautical.com

Your ship has steamed 1951 miles at 20 knots using

A 30 HP electric motor is rotating shaft "A" at 300

If the temperature in a hot air manifold were found to

The mechanical efficiency of a particular centrifugal

Your vessel has taken on 25,000 gallons of fuel with

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Referring to the table shown in the illustration, your

A volume of one cubic foot would equal how many

One cubic foot of salt water would equal

Figure "I" shown in the illustration is a diagram of a

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 62.8 feet.

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 62.8 feet.

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 43.96

Crawford Nautical School 6 www.crawfordnautical.com

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 35.84

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 48.62

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 50.24

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 75.36

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 125.6

In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 157.6

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

Crawford Nautical School 7 www.crawfordnautical.com

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

Crawford Nautical School 8 www.crawfordnautical.com

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

Crawford Nautical School 9 www.crawfordnautical.com

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as

If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15

If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15

If your vessel burns 3 tons of fuel per hour at 19

Crawford Nautical School 10 www.crawfordnautical.com