Professional Documents
Culture Documents
I. Introduction
If you apply for a loan or invest your money using staggered payment, or avail an
installment plan when purchasing an appliance there is a need to determine the value of
money at a particular period of time. This particular date is called the focal date, and the single
value equivalent to the cash stream at that date is called fair market value of the cash flow.
If the focal date is at the beginning of the payment term, then you have to calculate
the present value of the cash flow.
The present value of an annuity refers to how much money would be needed today
to fund a series of future annuity payments.1
where:
𝑃𝑉 = 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑗 = 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑;
𝑚
𝑟 𝑝
𝑛 = 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 𝑗 = (1 + 𝑚
) −1
𝑅 = 𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑔𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
𝑚 = 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟
𝑝 = 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 𝑚𝑎𝑑𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑎 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟
The value of money today or present value of a lump sum or one-time payment can
be computed using the formula:
𝑷𝑽 = 𝑹(𝟏 + 𝒋)−𝒏
where:
𝑃𝑉 = 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑅 = 𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 − 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
𝑟
𝑗 = 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 = 𝑚 𝑛 = 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑙 (𝑚) 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 (𝑡)
If the focal date is at the end of the payment term, then you have to calculate the future
value of the cash flow.
The future value of an annuity is a way of calculating how much money a series of
payments will be worth at a certain point in the future.2
(1 + 𝑗)𝑛 − 1
𝐹𝑉 = 𝑅 [ ]
𝑗
The value of money after a certain period of time or future value of a lump sum or
one-time payment can be computed using the formula:
𝐹𝑉 = 𝑅(1 + 𝑗)𝑛
where:
𝐹𝑉 = 𝑓𝑢𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑅 = 𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 − 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
𝑟
𝑗 = 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 = 𝑚 𝑛 = 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑙 (𝑚) 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 (𝑡)
Illustrative Example 1. JRV Motorcycle Store offers two payment schemes for their top of the
line motorcycle. The first scheme offers a P50,000 down payment and a lump sum payment
of P200.000 after 4 years while the second payment scheme offers P40,000 down payment
and P26,250 every six months for four years. Find the fair market value of each scheme at the
start and end of the payment term if the interest rate is 5% compounded annually.
Solution:
Let 𝑃𝑉1 be the present value of the P50,000 down payment.
The formula for the present value of one-time payment is 𝑃𝑉1 = 𝑅(1 + 𝑗)−𝑛 .
To determine the present value of lump sum payment of P200,000 payable after 4 years:
Given:
𝑅 = 200,000 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟(𝑚) = 1 𝑡=4
𝑟 0.05
𝑛 = 𝑚𝑡 = 1(4) = 4 𝑟 = 0.05 𝑗=𝑚= 1
= 0.05
Solution:
Let 𝑃𝑉2 be the present value of lump sum payment of P200,000 payable after 4
years.
𝑃𝑉2 = 𝑅(1 + 𝑗)−𝑛 ⥤ 𝑃𝑉2 = 200,000(1 + 0.05)−4 ⥤ 𝑷𝑽𝟐 = 𝟏𝟔𝟒, 𝟓𝟒𝟎. 𝟒𝟗
Therefore, the fair market value of the first payment scheme at the beginning of the term
is:
𝐹𝑀𝑉 = 𝑃𝑉1 + 𝑃𝑉2
𝐹𝑀𝑉 = 50,000 + 164,540.49
𝑭𝑴𝑽 = 𝟐𝟏𝟒, 𝟓𝟒𝟎. 𝟒𝟗
Second payment scheme: Just like the first, since the focal date is at the beginning of the
term (today) or 𝑡 = 0, then the present value of P40,000 down payment is still P40,000.
Given:
𝑟 0.05
𝑅 = 40,000 𝑛 = 𝑚𝑡 = 1(0) = 0 𝑗=𝑚= 1
= 0.05
But since the payment interval is not equal to interest interval, let us first convert the
interest interval per time period 𝒋 to the appropriate rate.
𝑚 1
𝑟 𝑝 0.05 2
𝑗 = (1 + ) − 1 ⥤ 𝑗 = (1 + ) −1 ⥤ 𝑗 = 0.02470
𝑚 1
Let 𝑃𝑉2 be the present value of P26,250 regular payment every 6 months or twice
(2) a year.
Given:
1 − (1 + 𝑗)−𝑛 1 − (1 + 0.02470)−8
𝑃𝑉2 = 𝑅 [ ] ⥤ 𝑃𝑉2 = 26,250 [ ]
𝑗 0.02470
Therefore, the fair market value of the second payment scheme at the beginning of
the term is:
𝐹𝑀𝑉 = 𝑃𝑉1 + 𝑃𝑉2
𝐹𝑀𝑉 = 40,000 + 188,457.09
𝑭𝑴𝑽 = 𝟐𝟐𝟖, 𝟒𝟓𝟕. 𝟎𝟗
Thus, the second payment scheme has a greater fair market value at the beginning
of the payment term.
The difference between fair market value of the second and first payment schemes
is:
𝟐𝟐𝟖, 𝟒𝟓𝟕. 𝟎𝟗 − 𝟐𝟏𝟒, 𝟓𝟒𝟎. 𝟒𝟗 = 𝟏𝟑, 𝟗𝟏𝟕. 𝟎𝟎
Solution:
Let 𝐹𝑉1 be the future value of the P50,000 down payment after 4 years at 5% interest
rate compounded annually.
𝐹𝑉1 = 𝑅(1 + 𝑗)𝑛 ⥤ 𝐹𝑉1 = 50000(1 + 0.05)4 ⥤ 𝑭𝑽𝟏 = 𝟔𝟎, 𝟕𝟕𝟓. 𝟑𝟏
The future value of P200.000 is still P200,000 because the payment is to be done 4
years from now. Therefore, the fair market value of the first payment scheme at the END of
the term is:
𝐹𝑀𝑉 = 60,775.31 + 200,000
𝑭𝑴𝑽 = 𝟐𝟔𝟎, 𝟕𝟕𝟓. 𝟑𝟏
Second payment scheme: Since the focal date is at the end of the term (4 years from
now) or 𝑡 = 4 then, the future value of P40,000 down payment can be calculated using the
future value formula for one-time payment.
𝐹𝑉1 = 𝑅(1 + 𝑗)𝑛
Given:
𝑟 0.05
𝑅 = 40,000 𝑛 = 𝑚𝑡 = 1(4) = 4 𝑗=𝑚= 1
= 0.05
Solution:
𝐹𝑉1 = 𝑅(1 + 𝑗)𝑛 ⥤ 𝐹𝑉1 = 40000(1 + 0.05)4 ⥤ 𝑭𝑽𝟏 = 𝟒𝟖, 𝟔𝟐𝟎. 𝟐𝟓
Let us determine the future value of an annuity with regular payment of P26,250 every
six months for 4 years at 5% interest compounded annually using the formula:
(1 + 𝑗)𝑛 − 1
𝐹𝑉 = 𝑅 [ ]
𝑗
Given:
The appropriate interest rate was previously converted as 𝑗 = 0.02470, since the
number of payments (p) per year is not equal to interest interval (m).
Solution:
Let 𝐹𝑉2 be the future value of the P26,250 annuity every 6 months for 4 years at 5%
interest compounded annually
The fair market value of the second payment scheme at the END of the term is:
𝐹𝑀𝑉 = 48,620.25 + 229,079.58
𝑭𝑴𝑽 = 𝟐𝟕𝟕, 𝟔𝟗𝟗. 𝟖𝟑
Still the second payment scheme has greater fair market value. Therefore, it is
advisable to choose the first payment scheme if you are going to buy that top of the line
motorcycle that is, if you have P200,000 available fund after 4 years.
Illustrative Example 2. A land owner plans to sell his estate. Two individuals expressed their
intent to buy the said estate. Mr. Velasco offered 1.5 million pesos payable after 6 months and
2 million pesos after 2 years while Mrs. Abengoza offered a down payment of P500,000 plus
Php375,000 every end of 3 months for 2 years. Suppose the money is earning 8%
compounded semi-annually, which offer has a better market value?
If the focal date is today then, compute the present value of each offer.
Compute the present value of P1.5 million that is payable after 6 months with interest
rate of 8% compounded semi-annually.
Given:
𝑟 0.08
𝑅 = 1,500,000 𝑟 = 0.08 𝑚=2 𝑗=𝑚= 2
= 0.04
𝑡 = 6 𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑠 𝑜𝑟 0.5 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑛 = (𝑚)(𝑡) = (2)(0.5) = 1
Solution:
Compute the present value of P2 million payable after 2 years with interest rate of 8%
compounded semi-annually.
Given:
𝑟 0.08
𝑅 = 2,000,000 𝑟 = 0.08 𝑚=2 𝑗=𝑚= 2
= 0.04
𝑡 = 2 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑛 = (𝑚)(𝑡) = (2)(2) = 4
Solution:
The present value of P500,000 down payment is still P500,000 since 𝑡 = 0. Obviously,
the present value of a down payment is P500,000 because the payment will be made at 𝑡 = 0.
Given:
𝑟 0.08
𝑅 = 500,000 𝑟 = 0.08 𝑚=2 𝑗=𝑚= 2
= 0.04
𝑡 = 0 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑛 = (𝑚)(𝑡) = (2)(0) = 0
Solution:
To compute for the present value of an annuity with quarterly payment of P375,000 for 2 years
with 8% interest compounded semi-annually:
Given:
𝑅 = 375,000 𝑝=4 𝑡 = 2 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑟 = 0.08
𝑚=2 𝑛 = (𝑝)(𝑡) = (4)(2) = 8
Solution:
Since the payment interval (𝑝) is not equal to interest interval(𝑚), convert to appropriate
interest rate (𝑗).
𝑚 2
𝑟 𝑝 0.08 4
𝑗 = (1 + ) − 1 ⥤ 𝑗 = (1 + ) − 1 ⥤ 𝑗 = 0.019804
𝑚 2
Note: In computing for the value of j, please use at least 5 decimal places.
1 − (1 + 𝑗)−𝑛 1 − (1 + 0.019804)−8
𝑃𝑉2 = 𝑅 [ ] ⥤ 𝑃𝑉2 = 375,000 [ ]
𝑗 0.019804
KEY TAKEAWAYS:
Computing for the fair market value of a cash flow will help you decide which financial
transaction will give a much higher return or favorable on your part at a particular period of time.
Compute the fair market value at the end of the payment term of a motorcycle with a
down payment of P5,000 and monthly payment of P2,000 payable for 3 years at 5% interest
compounded monthly.
Answer: _________________________________________________________________
ACTIVITY 2:
______________
Sophia is planning to invest her P200,000 savings into two investment firms. She will
_
invest P100,000 in ABC Investment Corporation. The remaining amount will be invested in
Phil-Asia Investment Co. with regular payment of P25,000 every 3 months for one year. Both
investment firms are offering 5% interest compounded quarterly.
Guide questions:
a. What is the future value of her first investment in ABC Investment Corporation after one
year?
Answer:____________________________________________________________
b. What type of annuity is the investment made in Phil-Asia Investment Corporation? Why?
Answer: ____________________________________________________________
d. Which investment has higher fair market value after one year?
Answer: ____________________________________________________________
ACTIVITY 3:
______________
_ A certain television set is for sale with 2 different payment schemes. The first payment
scheme has regular monthly payment of P5,000 for one year. The second payment scheme
is P15,000 every 3 months also for one year. Assume that the prevailing interest rate is 4%
per annum.
Guide questions:
a. Compare the present value of the 2 payment schemes.
Answer: ____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
In here, you will be learning to calculate the present value and period of deferral of a
deferred annuity.
Deferred Annuity – an annuity that does not begin until a given time interval has passed
Period of Deferral – a time between the purchase of an annuity and the start of the payments
for the deferred annuity.3
The present value of a deferred annuity is given by
(𝟏 + 𝐣)−𝐤 − (𝟏 + 𝐣)−(𝐤+𝐧)
𝐏𝐕 = 𝐑 [ ]
𝐣
where:
𝑅 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑔𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
𝑛 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 𝑚𝑎𝑑𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚
𝑘 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑘𝑖𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑑 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑎𝑙
𝑟 0.05
𝑗= = = 0.05
𝑚 1
Given:
𝑅 = 80,000 𝑘=4 𝑛 = 10 𝑗 = 0.05
(1 + 𝑗)−𝑘 − (1 + 𝑗)−(𝑘+𝑛)
𝑃𝑉 = 𝑅 [ ]
𝑗
(1 + 0.05)−4 − (1 + 0.05)−(4+10)
𝑃𝑉 = 80,000 [ ]
0.05
𝑃𝑉 = 508,215.23
Therefore, P508,215.23 must be invested today to receive an annual payout of
P80,000 for 10 years.
2. Sophia Jureign inherited P800,000 from his wealthy uncle and invested it in a firm that offers
4.5% interest compounded semi-annually. If she wants to receive a monthly payout 10
months from now for 15 years, how much will be her regular payout every month?
Given:
𝑃𝑉 = 800,000 𝑘=9 𝑡 = 15 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑛 = 12𝑡 = 12(15) = 180
(1 + 𝑗)−𝑘 − (1 + 𝑗)−(𝑘+𝑛)
𝑃𝑉 = 𝑅 [ ]
𝑗
(1 + 0.003715)−9 − (1 + 0.003715)−(9+180)
800,000 = 𝑅 [ ]
0.003715
800,000 = 𝑅(126.785)
800,000 𝑅(126.785)
=
126.785 126.785
𝑹 = 𝟔, 𝟑𝟎𝟗. 𝟖𝟗
Therefore, her monthly payout will be P6,309.89 payable for 15 years.
ACTIVITY 1:
V. Reflection
1. What is the importance of comparing the fair market value of the cash flows
between different instalment plans, loan terms and investment schemes?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
2. Is it good to invest money in a pension plan? Why or why not?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Lesson 1, Activity 1
𝐹𝑢𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 (𝐹𝑉1 )𝑜𝑓 𝑃5000 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 𝑃5,807.36
𝐹𝑢𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 (𝐹𝑉2 ) 𝑜𝑓 𝑃2000 𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑙𝑦 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 𝑃77,506.67
Lesson 1, Activity 2
a. P105,094.53
VII. References
(1) https://www.investopedia.com/terms/p/present-value-annuity.asp
(2) https://www.investopedia.com/terms/f/future-value-annuity.asp
(3) General Mathematics Learners Manual, p. 199