USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam

February 14, 2013

Congratulations! You are about to take the USABO Open Exam, the first exam in a series of
competitions to qualify for the USA Biology Olympiad and the International Biology Olympiad.
This multiple-choice exam has no pass or fail. Please try to complete as much of the Open Exam
as you can. Results and selection to the Semifinals are based on ranking across the United States.
The fact that you are taking this exam marks you as an outstanding biology student. By taking
this exam, you may qualify to be one of the top 10% who will take the USABO Semifinal Exam in
March 2013. The top 20 students from the Semifinal Exam will be selected to go on to attend the
all-expense-paid USA Biology Olympiad at Purdue University. From the national Olympiad, four
students will represent the United States at the International Biology Olympiad in Switzerland.
Please put away your books and other materials. Clear your desk of all but the following items:
• USA Biology Olympiad Open Exam and Answer Sheet
• Number 2 pencils and erasers
• Scrap paper
• Non-programmable calculator (optional)

Instructions: There are 50 multiple-choice questions on this exam, and the point value of each
question will be given. If the correct answer is given, then the appropriate number of points will be
awarded. If the answer is incorrect or left blank, then no points will be given. Some questions may
require more than one answer; if so, the question will clearly state “select all of the following”, and
it will be worth 2 points. For questions that have n correct answers, you will receive n2 points for
each correct choice that you have given, but you will also be deducted n2 points for each incorrect
choice that you have given on your answer sheet. Therefore, it is theoretically possible to receive
negative points on a multiple-choice question that requires multiple answers.
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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

Questions 1-2 concern an enzyme you have recently isolated, which you decide to call Derp.

1. (2 points) You prepare three different beakers (labeled A, B, and C). You add glucose, fructose,
and sucrose to A, glucose and starch to B, and free amino acids and dipeptides to C. Then,
you add the enzyme Derp to each of the beakers. One hour after the addition of the enzyme1 ,
you take 3 samples from each beaker, and add three different solutions to test for the presence
for different types of macromolecules. The results are given in the following table:

Beaker Ninhydrin Potassium iodide Benedict’s reagent

A - - +
B - + +
C + - -

Halfway through writing your thesis on this wonderful discovery, you realize that (unfortu-
nately) Derp is not a unique enzyme, but actually one of the enzymes given below. Which one
of these enzymes is Derp most likely to be?
A. Trypsin
B. Sucrose synthase
C. Amylase
D. Sucrase
E. Starch synthase

2. (1 point) In another experiment, you decide to treat Derp in solutions with differing pH’s. You
notice that Derp is very active in a narrow range from pH 11 to pH 11.5. Which of the following
is not an acceptable explanation for this?
A. Derp uses general acid-base catalysis
B. Derp requires that an aspartate residue in the active site be in the protonated form
C. Derp is associated with a mangnesium cofactor which is bound to the enzyme by a
glutamate residue
D. Most of the enzyme is held together by electrostatic interactions
E. The protein contains arginine residues in its interior that cause the protein to fold
improperly at lower pH values

3. (1 point) Which of the following combinations of functional groups can give a molecule the
properties of a pH buffer?
A. Carboxyl, alcohol
B. Alcohol, phosphate
C. Phosphate, sulfhydryl
D. Sulfhydryl, amino
E. Amino, carboxyl

4. (2 points) Select all of the following fatty acids that would yield 8 acetyl CoA molecules upon
β-oxidation:
1
Assume that enough time has passed and the rate of the back-reaction is negligible, so that pratically all substrate
has been converted to product

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A. Palmitic acid (C16:0)

B. Margaric acid (C17:0)
C. Stearic acid (C18:0)
D. Nonadecylic acid (C19:0)
E. Palmitoleic acid (C16:1)

5. (2 points) You synthesize a molecule of cystine2 . Select all of the following locations in the cell
in which it would be stable:
A. Extracellular matrix
B. Lysosome
C. Mitochondrial matrix
D. Mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. Endoplasmic reticulum

6. (1 point) Which of the following best explains why the aldolase reaction in glycolysis is impor-
tant?
A. It is highly exergonic, and so it drives the next few reactions, which are slightly
endergonic
B. Having two 3-carbon molecules instead of one 6-carbon molecule increases the ener-
getic yield of glycolysis
C. Having two 3-carbon molecules instead of one 6-carbon molecule makes redox reac-
tions easier to catalyze
D. Having two 3-carbon molecules instead of one 6-carbon molecule makes phosphory-
lation and dephosphorylation reactions easier to catalyze
E. Because this is a reverse aldol condensation, it converts a phosphodiester bond, which
is of low energy, to an enol phosphate bond, which has a higher energy

7. (1 point) Which of the following is not true of enzymes and their inhibition?
A. Noncompetitive inhibitors do not bind to the active site of an enzyme
B. Allosteric regulators bind to a site other than the active site of an enzyme and change
its conformation
C. Feedback inhibition is due to the final product in a pathway acting as an allosteric
inhibitor to the first enzyme in the pathway
D. For allosteric enzymes, an increase in the concentration of the substrate results in a
change in enzyme activity that is far less than for non-allosteric enzymes
E. Competitive inhibitors are usually analogs of the substrate and bind reversibly to the
active site of the enzyme but not to the enzyme-substrate complex

8. (2 points) Select all of the following choices that would hydrolyze a peptide bond:
A. Addition of an acid
B. High temperature
2
Cystine is a dimer of cysteine linked by a disulfide bond

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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

C. High urea concentration

D. Addition of β-mercaptoethanol
E. Addition of both an acid and a base in equimolar concentrations

9. (2 points) Solutions A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane that is permeable

to K+ , but not to Cl- . Solution A is 100 mM KCl, and solution B is 1 mM KCl. Which of the
following statements about solution A and solution B is true?
A. K+ ions will diffuse from solution A to solution B until the [K+ ] of both solutions is
50.5 mM
B. K+ ions will diffuse from solution B to solution A until the [K+ ] of both solutions is
50.5 mM
C. KCl will diffuse from solution A to solution B until the [KCl] of both solutions is 50.5
mM
D. K+ will diffuse from solution A to solution B until a membrane potential develops
with solution A negative with respect to solution B
E. K+ will diffuse from solution A to solution B until a membrane potential develops
with solution A positive with respect to solution B

10. (2 points) Which of the following would have the lowest pKa value for the carboxyl group on
the aspartate side chain?
A. An aspartate side chain on the surface of a protein with no other ionizable groups
nearby
B. An aspartate side chain buried in a hydrophobic pocket on the surface of a protein
C. An aspartate side chain in a hydrophobic pocket adjacent to a glutamate side chain
D. An aspartate side chain in a hydrophobic pocket adjacent to a lysine side chain
E. An aspartate side chain in a hydrophobic pocket adjacent to an alanine side chain

For questions 11-13, use the following information: in humans, the gene P OKEM ON is a gene
that may act as a master switch for cancer, and is responsible for the proliferation of cancer
throughout surrounding cells. There is also a recessive allele for P OKEM ON known as ash,
which, when expressed in the homozygous recessive form, severely disrupts embryonic development
and is lethal. Therefore, in any given population, there are no individuals that are ashash.

11. (1 point) In a population that initially starts out with 25% of the population being ash+ ash+
and 75% of the population being ash+ ash (remember that there are no ashash individuals), if
all of the assumptions of the Hardy-Wienberg equilibrium are correct (except that the homozy-
gous recessive form of the gene is completely selected against), what percent of the population
will be heterozygotes in an infinite amount of time?
A. 0%
B. 33%
C. 67%
D. 75%
E. 100%

12. (1 point) In the population described above, what is the frequency of the ash+ allele?

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A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 63%
D. 67%
E. 75%
13. (1 point) Suppose an ash+ ash individual mates with another ash+ ash individual. What frac-
tion of the progeny will be heterozygous?
A. 0
1
B. 3
1
C. 2
2
D. 3
E. 1
14. (2 points) In mice, the brown mutation codes for the synthesis of a mutant form of melanin
that appears brown, and the clear mutation results in a lack of coloration (and therefore a
white color). A purebread brown mouse is bred with purebred white mouse. All of the mice
are black. These mice are then bred with the same purebred white mouse line. The color of
the offspring is tallied up. Which of the following is not true?
A. In this scenario, it is possible for the clear and brown mutant alleles to be on two
separate genes, and for their interaction to be epistatic
B. In this scenario, it is possible for the brown+ allele to be dominant to the brown
allele, which is dominant to the clear allele (where all three alleles are on a single
gene)
C. The purebred white mice from the P and F1 generations are of the genotype clearclear
brown+ brown+ .
D. It is very unlikely that the percentage of clearclear brownbrown and clear+ clear+
brown+ brown+ in the F2 generation (added together) will exceed 50%
E. Assuming independent assortment and segregation, if the black mice from the F2
generation are interbred, then the phenotype ratio of their offspring will be 9 black :
3 brown : 4 white

Use the following pedigree to answer questions 15 and 16:

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15. (1 point) Which of the following modes of inheritance is most likely?

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex-linked dominant
D. Sex-linked recessive
E. All of the above are equally likely

16. (2 points) In humans, the f loppy mutation is a recessive allele that makes ears floppy, whereas
the wild-type dominant f loppy + allele makes ears fixed. The prevalance of heterozygotes in
the population is 15 . In the above pedigree, individuals with the floppy ear condition are
marked black. What is the probability that individual I2 is heterozygous?3
A. 0
1
B. 40
1
C. 33
1
D. 8
E. 1

17. (2 points) You extract a plasmid known to contain a single BamHI site from E. coli. Bacteria
normally maintain plasmids in slightly negatively supercoiled states. You run on a gel: unal-
tered plasmid, DNAse 1 digest4 , BamHI digest, and gyrase incubated5 . Which of these would
travel the slowest in the gel?
A. Unaltered plasmid
B. DNase 1 treatment
C. BamHI digest
D. Gyrase treatment
E. All except BamHI digest would travel at the same speed because they are the same
length

18. (2 points) You perform a western blot for a 42kD peptide after following the protocol for
running an SDS-PAGE. To your surprise, you find the protein running at the speed of an 84kD
protein. What did you do wrong?
A. You forgot to add β-mercaptoethanol
B. You forgot to add loading buffer
C. You forgot to add running buffer
D. You used a very low concentration of polyacrylamide
E. You added too much sodium dodecylsulfate

19. (1 point) Which of the following plant families includes the buttercups?
3
Hint: Bayes Theorem must be used in order to get the right answer to this question
4
DNase I is a nuclease that cleaves DNA preferentially at phosphodiester linkages adjacent to a pyrimidine nu-
cleotide, yielding 5’-phosphate-terminated polynucleotides with a free hydroxyl group on position 3’, on average
producing tetranucleotides
5
Gyrase is a type of topoisomerase

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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

A. Ranunculaceae
B. Fabaceae
C. Fagaceae
D. Araceae
E. Poaceae

20. (1 point) Which of the following insect orders is the most diverse?
A. Odonata
B. Coleoptera
C. Diptera
D. Hymenoptera
E. Hemiptera

21. (1 point) Which of the following is not a seedless vascular plant division?
A. Psilotophyta
B. Lycophyta
C. Sphenoophyta
D. Pterophyta
E. Cycadophyta

22. (1 point) Sporophylls of club mosses...

A. Bear sporangia on their lower surfaces
B. Are always morphologically distinct from vegetative leaves
C. Are always photosynthetic
D. Can be grouped into strobili
E. Are precursors to the flowers of angiosperms

23. (2 points) Which of the following happened first in the evolution of land plants?
A. Development of bifacial vascular cambium
B. Emergence of specialized cells for water and food conduction
C. Replacement of albuminous cells with companion cells in phloem tissue
D. Emergence of vessel elements in xylem tissue

24. (2 points) A short-day plant has a critical night length of 6 hours. Select all of the following
24-hour light/dark cycles that would initiate flowering:
A. 4 hours light/8 hours dark, 4 hours light/8 hours dark
B. 6 hour light/6 hour dark, 6 hour light/6 hour dark
C. 6.5 hour light/5.5 hour dark, 6.5 hour light/5.5 hour dark
D. 7 hour light/5 hour dark, 7 hour light/5 hour dark
E. 8 hours light/16 hour dark

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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

25. (2 points) Select all of the following statements that are true concerning the Photosynthesis
Reaction Center (Photosystem II):
A. The Photosynthesis Reaction Center contains chlorophyll and sometimes Fe-heme
groups.
B. It is a globular protein found in the cytoplasm where it acts as an antenna protein.
C. It oxidizes carbon dioxide and produces H2O.
D. It transfers high-energy electrons to an acceptor nearby in the thylakoid membrane.
E. The Photosynthesis Reaction Center is usually a heterotetramer, but may be a het-
erotrimer in some species of cyanobacteria.

26. (1 point) Arrange the following five events in the order that explains the bulk flow of substances
in the phloem:

1. Sugar moves down the stem.

2. Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis.
3. Sugar is transported from cell to cell via the apoplast and/or symplast.
4. Solutes are actively transported into sieve elements.
5. Water diffuses into the sieve tube elements.
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 2,1,4,3,4
C. 2,3,4,1,5
D. 2,4,1,3,5
E. 4,2,1,3,5

27. (1 point) In the ABC model of flowering, a mutation in the C gene will result in which of the
following floral patterns?
A. Sepals-Petals-Stamen-Carpels
B. Sepals-Petals-Petals
C. Sepals-Petals-Petals-Sepals
D. Sepals-Petals-Petals-Carpels
E. Sepals-Petals-Stamen

28. (2 points) A heavy frost occurred one morning in early spring injuring young grape plants.
The two tissues commonly affected are the phloem and the xylem. Which of these observations
is made several weeks following the frost?
A. The leaves and new shoots are smaller than expected due to lack of nutrient and
water conduction.
B. The xylem tissue dies rendering the plant helpless against viral or bacterial infection.
C. Undamaged xylem tissue assumes the responsibilities of the damaged phloem and
likewise the undamaged phloem assumes the responsibilities of the damaged xylem.
D. The plants recover completely and the damaged vascular tissue is replaced by new
tissue.

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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

E. The plants die as a consequence of root death from lack of food.

29. (1 point) The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is:
A. Action potential in the motor nerve; depolarization of the muscle end plate; uptake
of Ca2+ into the presynaptic nerve terminal
B. Uptake of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminal; release of acetylcholine; depolarization
of the muscle end plate
C. Release of acetylcholine; action potential in the motor nerve; action potential in the
muscle
D. Uptake of Ca2+ into the motor end plate; action potential in the motor end plate;
action potential in the muscle
E. Release of acetylcholine; action potential in the muscle end plate; action potential in
the muscle

30. (1 point) The velocity of conduction of action potentials along a nerve will be increased by:
A. Stimulating the Na+ -K+ pump
B. Inhibiting the Na+ -K+ pump
C. Decreasing the diameter of the nerve
D. Myelinating the nerve
E. Lengthening the nerve fiber

31. (1 point) Which of the following transport processes is involved if transport of glucose rom the
intestinal lumen into a small intestinal cell is inhibited by abolishing the usual Na+ gradient
across the cell membrane?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Primary active transport
D. Cotransport
E. Countertransport

32. (1 point) Which of the following responses is mediated by parasympathetic muscarinic recep-
tors?
A. Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
B. Erection
C. Ejaculation
D. Constriction of gastrointestinal sphincters
E. Increased cardiac contractility

33. (2 points) Which of the following is a step in photoreception in the rods?

A. Light converts trans-rhodopsin to 11-cis-rhodopsin
B. Metarhodopsin II activates transducin
C. Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels increase
D. Rods depolarize

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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

E. Release of neurotransmitter increases

34. (1 point) A person’s electrocardiogram has no P wave, but has a normal QRS complex and a
normal T wave. Therefore, his pacemaker is located in the...
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje system
E. Ventricular muscle

35. (2 points) The following image shows changes in different variables as the heart proceeds
through the cardiac cycle:

Which curve corresponds to left ventricular pressure?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

36. (2 points) The greatest pressure decrease in the circulation occurs across the arterioles be-
cause...
A. They have the greatest surface area
B. They have the greatest cross-sectional area

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Animal Nephron length Heart rate Limb : body length

P 5 cm 60 bpm 0.5
Q 5 cm 60 bpm 0.5
R 5 cm 60 bpm 0.5
S 5 cm 60 bpm 0.5
T 5 cm 60 bpm 0.5

C. The velocity of blood flow through them is the highest

D. The velocity of blood flow through them is the lowest
E. They have the greatest resistance

37. (1 point) Cardiac output of the right side of the heart is what percentage of the cardiac output
of the left side of the heart?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E. 125%

38. (2 points) Nephron length, heart rate, and limb-to-body-length ratio for 5 animals are given
below:
Which of the following is not true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

39. (1 point) Which agent is released or secreted after a hemorrhage and causes an increase in
renal Na+ reabsorption?
A. Aldoserone
B. Angiotensin I
C. Angiotensinogen
D. Antidiuretic hormone
E. Atrial natriuretic peptide

40. (2 points) Select all of the following hormones that act on their target tissues by crossing the
plasma membrane and binding to an intracellular receptor:
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Vitamin D
C. Aldosterone
D. Insulin

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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

E. Testosterone

41. (2 points) Chickadees were given an opportunity to store seeds in 72 possible storage sites
consisting of holes drilled in small trees that had been placed in an aviary. Typically, the seeds
were placed in only 4 or 5 storage sites. The chickadees were then removed from the aviary, the
seeds removed from the storage sites, and each hole covered. A day later, the chickadees were
returned to the aviary and they spent nearly 5 times as long pulling at the covers on storage
sites than at the covers on sites where they had not stored food. This experiment indicates
that chickadees...
A. use auditory cues to find stored food
B. have a spatial memory that enables them to locate storage sites
C. have a propensity to inspect and pull at the covers wherever they are located
D. cannot find a storage site if they cannot see the food in it
E. rely on the visual cues provided by the opening to a storage site to locate stored food

42. (1 point) 53. The oxygen consumption of marine crabs acclimated to either 10C or 20C was
measured at environmental temperatures of 5C to 25C to produce the following graph:

Which of the following can be correctly concluded from the information in the graph?
A. Acclimation temperature does not affect the rate of oxygen consumption.
B. Crabs have higher rates of oxygen consumption when measured at 10C than when
measured at 20C.
C. Oxygen consumption is higher in the 10C-acclimated crabs than in the 20C-acclimated
crabs at each test temperature.
D. Acclimation to a high temperature induces a high rate of oxygen consumption at all
test temperatures.
E. This pattern of acclimation produces complete metabolic compensation.

43. (1 point) Which of the following would be the most acceptable limiting factor showing a boom
or bust curve in a mosquito population?
A. Density-independent factors
B. Density-dependent factors
C. Intrinsic rate factors

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USA Biology Olympiad 2013 Open Exam February 14, 2013

D. S factors
E. Survivorship factors

44. (1 point) Which of the following roles have humans not traditionally taken in the process of
domesticating animals?
A. Parent in imprinting
B. Nature in selection
C. Dominant male in social organization
D. Landmark in social learning
E. Bottleneck effects

45. (1 point) The freshwater fish black ghost is found off the coast of Ecuador. Suppose there
are no close relatives and you have the ability to prevent black ghosts from immigrating or
emigrating from their present population and there would be no further mutations. Which of
the following statements is the best description of the future of this black ghost population?
A. The population will deteriorate after a few generations due to excessive inbreeding.
B. All evolution will stop immediately
C. The population will continue to evolve for a long time as selection acts on the vari-
ability produced by recombination
D. The population will stop evolving, but will continue for many generation as long as
the environment remains constant
E. Major evolutionary changes will continue due to genetic drift

46. (1 point) Two plant species co-occur in a prairie. Species X always occurs near species Y.
However, species Y often occurs in isolation from species X and produces more seeds when
alone than when growing next to species X. Which of the following interactions between species
X and Y could generate this pattern?
A. Competition, in which Y is superior to X in accumulating resources
B. Mutualism, in which both X and Y benefit by exchanging resources
C. Parasitism, in which X benefits from resources produced by Y and reduces the growth
of Y by doing so
D. Commensalism, in which X benefits from resources produced by Y but does not affect
the growth of Y by doing so
E. Amensalism, in which X gains no benefit from Y but reduces the growth of Y

47. (1 point) The amount of energy entering a food chain depends on the direction of energy
flow in the system efficiency of energy recycling in the system biomass of carnivores and their
efficiency in locating and capturing animal prey biomass of heterotrophs and their efficiency
in transforming plant tissue into animal tissue biomass of autotrophs and their efficiency in
transforming solar energy into chemical energy
All of the following are strategies used by potential prey to avoid predation EXCEPT...
A. mimetic coloration
B. erratic flight

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C. cryptic coloration
D. lekking
E. alarm signals

48. (2 points) Which of the following is NOT a hypothesis explaining the advantage of group
living?
A. Vigilance effect
B. Dilution effect
C. Group foraging
D. Group defense
E. Parasite avoidance

49. (2 points) The figure above illustrates the relationship between population density in the
present generation (Nt ) and population density in the next generation (Nt+1 ). The dashed
reference line has a slope of 1. Which of the following represents equilibrium density of this
population?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. There is no equilibrium.

50. (1 point) If average family size for the human population could be immediately reduced to two
children per couple, the population would...
A. remain constant
B. begin an immediate decline
C. continue to increase for 20 to 40 years
D. continue to increase indefinitely
E. crash within 5 years

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