Aits 1

Answer keys : AIATS for Repeater Medical-2022(XII Passed)_Test-01
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4), out of which only one is correct.
Question : 1
Natural science does not include
Options:
Social sciences
Physics
Biology
Chemistry
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol. : Natural science does not include social sciences.
You scored -1 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 2
2 metre is the length of path travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval of
Options:
of a second
of a second
of a second
of a second
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : 1 metre is the length of the path travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval of
of a second

Sol. :

You scored -1 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 3
Which of the following expresses the most accurate measurement of length of a rod?
Options:
600.1 mm
6.1 mm
6.15 mm
16.2 mm
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol. : 600.1 mm has minimum percentage error, therefore 600.1 mm is most accurate
measurement.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 4
If the error in the measurement of area of a sphere is 2%, then the maximum error in calculation of
volume will be
Options:
2%
1%
4%
3%
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint :

Sol. :

= 1%

= 3%
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 5
The resistance of a wire is measured as (6 ± 0.5%) ohm. The absolute error in measurement of
resistance is
Options:
0.03 ohm
0.3 ohm
0.02 ohm
0.2 ohm
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Percentage error =

Sol. :

ΔR = 0.03 ohm
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 6
Some physical constants are given in column I and their dimensional formulae are given in column II.
Match the correct pairs in the columns.
Column I Column II
A. Gravitational constant (P) [ML2T–1]
B. Stefan’s constant (Q) [ML0T–3K–4]
C. Boltzmann’s constant (R) [M–1L3T–2]
D. Planck’s constant (S) [ML2T–2K–1]
Options:
A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P)
A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
A(R), B(Q), C(S), D(P)
A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint and Sol.: [Gravitation constant] = [M–1L3T–2]

[Boltzmann’s constant] = [ML2T–2K–1]

[Stefan’s constant] = [ML0T–3K–4]

[Planck’s constant] = [ML2T–1]

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 7
The value of the product of two measured quantities 414.4 and 94 upto correct significant figures is
Options:
3.9 × 104
38953.6
3.6 × 103
36853.5
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : When two measured values are multiplied or divided, there should be as many significant figure
retained in the final results as are there in the original number with least significant figures.

Sol. : 414.4 × 94 = 38953.6

= 3.9 × 104
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 8
The value of (994)1/3 according to binomial theorem is
Options:
9.46
9.98
10.1
9.9
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : (where Δa << a)

Sol. :

= 10 – 0.02

= 9.98
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 9
The value of 270° in radian is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint :

Sol. : ∵ 1° is equal to

∴ 270° is equal to rad

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 10
Which of the following physical quantity has derived unit?
Options:
Mass
Current
Velocity
Amount of substance
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol. : Velocity has it’s unit derived from unit of length and time
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 11
The pair of quantities having same dimensions is
Options:
Acceleration, momentum
Work, Torque
Time, frequency
Wavelength, angular velocity
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint :

Sol. : W = [MLT–2] [L]

= [ML2T–2]

= [L] [MLT–2]

= [ML2T–2]
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 12
If force is dimensionally correct, the dimensions of [xy] are
Options:
[M2L4T–4]
[ML3T–4]
[ML2T–2]
[M0L3T–4]
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Use principle of homogeneity

Sol. :

[x] = [Force] · [Area]

= [MLT–2] [L2]

⇒ [x] = [ML3T–2]

[y] = [MLT–2]

Now, [xy] = [ML3T–2] [MLT–2]

= [M2L4T–4]
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 13
In a new system of units, unit of mass is taken as 10 kg, unit of length is 60 m and unit of time is 1
minute. The value of 20 N weight of a body in the new unit will be
Options:
20 unit
60 unit
40 unit
120 unit
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : n1U1 = n2U2
Sol. :

= 120 unit
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 14
A screw gauge has least count of 0.02 mm and there are 100 divisions on its circular scale. The pitch
of the screw gauge is
Options:
0.02 mm
0.01 mm
2 mm
1.0 mm
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol. : The pitch of screw gauge = L·C × number of divisions on circular scale.

= 0.02 × 100 = 2 mm
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 15
If the percentage error in measurement of a and b are 3% each, then the maximum percentage error
in calculation of will be
Options:
3%
9%
4.5%
1.5%
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint :

Sol. :

= 3%
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 16
The distance travelled by a person moving from A to C on the circular path as shown in figure is 471
m. The radius R of the circular path will be nearly

Options:
50 m
100 m
40 m
120 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Distance travelled = of circumference of circle
Sol. : Distance =

= 100 m
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 17
The position-time graph of a moving particle is as shown in the figure. The speed of the particle

Options:
Constant
Continuously decreases
Continuously increases
First increases then decreases
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : The slope of position-time graph is speed.

Sol. : The slope of position-time graph is continuously increasing therefore speed of the particle will
continuously increase.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 18
The variation of radius of a circle with time is given by the relation r = (2t + 3) m, where t is time in
second. The rate of change of area of the circle at t = 1 s will be
Options:
20π m2/s
10π m2/s
15π m2/s
Zero
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : A = πr2

A = π(2t + 3)2

= 2π(2t + 3) × 2
= 4π(2t + 3)
= 20π m2/s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 19
The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. The instantaneous
acceleration of the particle is negative at the point

Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : The slope of the velocity-time graph represents acceleration.

acceleration at the point C will be
Sol. : The slope of velocity-time graph at point C is negative therefore
negative.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 20
A train of length 225 m is moving towards north with a velocity of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at speed of 5
m/s towards south parallel to the railway track. The time taken by parrot to cross the train will be
Options:
10 s
15 s
20 s
5s
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint :

Sol. :

= 15 s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 21
The variation in velocity of a particle moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. The distance
travelled by the particle in first 5 s is

Options:
20 m
40 m
10 m
50 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Area under the velocity time graph represents displacement

Sol. :

= 30 + 10

= 40 m
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 22
A person travels along a straight road for the first time with speed v1 and for next
time with a speed v2. The average speed of the person will be
Options:
v1 + v2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Average speed =

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 23
Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by x = 6t – 3t2, where x is in m and t is in s. Time (t)
at which particle will momentarily come to rest is
Options:
2s
1s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Sol. : x = 6t – 3t2

v = 6 – 6t

When particle will momentarily comes to rest.

v=0
6 – 6t = 0

t=1s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 24
Which of the following sets of vectors given below may have zero resultant?
Options:
12, 14, 28
14, 18, 36
11, 22, 17
0.5, 1, 2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint and Sol. : Sum of magnitudes of two vector should be greater or equal to magnitude of third vector.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 25
Wind is blowing with velocity ‘v’ towards north-east. A man starts running towards north with
acceleration a. The time after which man will feel the wind blowing towards east is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint :

or
Sol. :

For velocity of man

v = u + at
v = at
If is along east

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 26
A vector of magnitude 2 acting in x-y plane is making an angle 30° with positive x-axis. The vector
will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint :

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 27
For a body thrown vertically up, which of the following best represents displacement-time graph?
(Taking vertically upward direction positive)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol. : On using

a = –g

So, the plot of S versus t is parabolic
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 28
A body is thrown vertically up with some velocity (at t = 0) crosses a fixed point P in its path at t = 4 s
and again at t = 6 s. The velocity of projection of the body will be
Options:
20 m/s
50 m/s
10 m/s
40 m/s
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Time of flight T = t1 + t2

Sol. :

u = 50 m/s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 29
Two bodies one held 100 cm directly above the other are released simultaneously from the large
height and both fall freely under the gravity. The separation between the bodies just after 2 s will be
Options:
50 cm
100 cm
80 cm
120 cm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint :

Sol. :

S1 – S2 = 100 cm
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 30
A food packet is released from a helicopter, which is rising vertically at 2 m/s. The magnitude of
velocity of the food packet after 2 s will be (g = 10 m/s2)
Options:
10 m/s
12 m/s
18 m/s
5 m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Initial velocity of food packet will be same as velocity of helicopter due to inertia
Sol. : v = u + at
v = 2 – 10 × 2 = –18 m s–1
magnitude of velocity
= 18 m/s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 31
At the top of the trajectory of a particle projected obliquely, the velocity and acceleration are directed
Options:
Perpendicular to each other
Inclined to each other at an angle 45°
Parallel to each other
Anti-parallel to each other
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : At highest point vertical component of velocity of particle becomes zero.

Sol. : At highest point particle has only horizontal velocity and acceleration due to gravity will be vertically
downward therefore they will be perpendicular to each other.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 32
The range of a projectile when launched at angle 2θ is R. When launched at angle 3θ, the range is
still R. Then value of θ should be (speed of projection in both case is same)
Options:
30°
60°
24°
18º
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : The range of the projectile will be same for complementary angles, when speed of projection is
same.
Sol. : 2θ + 3θ = 90°
5θ = 90°
θ = 18°
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 33
A body projected horizontally from the top of a tower with initial velocity 30 m/s hits the ground at an
angle 60° with the horizontal. The vertical component of velocity at the time of hitting the ground is
Options:
30 m/s
15 m/s
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Horizontal component of velocity remains constant.

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 34
A person sitting in an open car moving at constant velocity throws a ball vertically up into air. The ball
falls (neglect air drag)
Options:
Outside the car
In the car ahead of the person
In the car to the side of the person
Exactly in the hand which threw it up
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. : Ball has same horizontal velocity that of person therefore it will fall exactly in hand of the
person.
You scored -1 of 4
Phy-Section A
Question : 35
The equation of a projectile is The velocity of projection of the projectile will be
Options:
4 m/s
8 m/s
2 m/s
1 m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Equation of trajectory of projectile is given by

Sol. :

On comparing with equation of trajectory

θ = 60°

u2cos2θ = 1

u2cos260° = 1

u2 = 4

u = 2 m/s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions
Question : 36
A boat is moving with velocity m/s with respect to ground. The water in the river is moving
with with respect to ground. The velocity of boat with respect to water is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint :

Sol. :

You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 37 skipped
The magnitude of resultant of two vectors having magnitude 12 N and 6 N, can be
Options:
2N
20 N
3N
10 N
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. :

Therefore correct answer will be 10 N

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 38
A force F makes an angle 40° with another force F. The resultant of two forces is
Options:
2Fsin20°
Fcos20°
2Fcos20°
2Fcos40°
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint :

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 39
A projectile projected from ground, with velocity v making angle 60° with vertical, attains maximum
height H. The time interval for which projectile remains in air is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint :

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 40
For motion of an object along x-axis, the velocity v depends on the position x as v = (2x2 – x) m/s,
where x is in m. The acceleration of the object at x = 1 m will be
Options:
1 m/s2
3 m/s2
2 m/s2
Zero
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint :

Sol. : v = 2x2 – x

a = (4x – 1) (2x2 – x)
= (4 – 1) (2 – 1)
= 3 m/s2
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 41
Rain is falling vertically downwards with a speed of 6 km/h. A girl moves on a straight road with
velocity 8 km/h. The magnitude of velocity of rain with respect to girl is
Options:
14 km/h
2 km/h
10 km/h
6 km/h
Solution :
Answer (3)
Velocity of rain w.r.t. girl is

Hint :

Sol. :

= 10 km/h
You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
A swimmer wishes to cross a 800 m river flowing at 4 km/h. His speed with respect to water is 3 km/h.
The shortest possible time to cross the river is
Options:
20 min
16 min
12 min
24 min
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : For shortest time swimmer should move perpendicular to the flow of river.

Sol. : = 3 km/h

= 960 s

or min

= 16 min
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 43
A body is moving in a circular path with a constant speed. It has
Options:
A constant velocity
A constant acceleration
An acceleration of constant magnitude
An acceleration which varies in magnitude with time
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint and Sol. : In uniform circular motiondirection of velocity and acceleration will change but magnitude
remains same.
The magnitude
of radial acceleration is

You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
A particle is projected with an initial velocity The equation of trajectory of the
particle will be (g = 10 m/s2) (Assume horizontal direction as x-axis and vertically upward as positive
y-axis)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Use equation of motion for x and y direction separately.

Sol. : In x-directionx = uxt

x = 2t

In y direction

You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
If angle between two vectors is rad then angle between vectors is
Options:
rad
rad
rad
rad
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : When a vector is multiplied by a positive number then the direction of vector remains
same. Therefore angle between the vectors remains same.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 46
A mark on the rim of a rotating circular wheel of 0.75 m radius is moving with a speed of 12 m/s. The
angular speed of the rim will be
Options:
12 rad/s
8 rad/s
16 rad/s
9 rad/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : v = Rω

Sol. :

⇒ ω = 16 rad/s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 47
The velocity of a particle as a function of time t is given as The displacement of

the particle in first 2 s will be
Options:
12 m
16 m
20 m
6m
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint :

Sol. :

= 23 + 22
= 12 m
You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed. The time period of particle is T = 2 s.
In a time if the difference between average speed and magnitude of average velocity of the
particle is 4 m s–1, then the radius R of the circle is nearly
Options:
14 m
18.6 m
2.4 m
7.4 m
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Average speed =

Average velocity

Sol. : Average speed

Average speed – |Average velocity| = 4

⇒ R ≈ 7.4 m
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 49
A ball of mass m and another ball of mass 2m are dropped from equal heights. If the time taken by
the balls to reach the ground are t1 and t2 respectively, then (neglect air drag)
Options:
t1 = t2
2t1 = t2
t1 = 2t2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint and Sol. : Time taken by the balls to reach the ground is , which is independent of mass,
therefore t1 = t2
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
Question : 50
A body is projected with velocity 60 m/s at an angle 30° with the horizontal. The velocity vector of the
particle at t = 1 s will be (Assume horizontal direction x-axis and vertical upwards as y-axis)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint :

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 51
Which of the following has maximum number of molecules?
Options:
1 g H2
28 g N2
64 g O2
36 g C2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : No. of molecules = Mole × NA

Sol. : H2 : No. of molecules

N2 : No. of molecules

O2 : No. of molecules

C2 : No. of molecules
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 52
Volume of N2 required at STP to produce 10 moles of NH3 through Haber’s process is
Options:
112 L
224 L
145 L
184 L
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Volume of gas at STP = Mole × 22.4 L

Sol. :

∴ Volume of N2 at STP = 5 × 22.4 L = 112 L

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 53
3.01 × 1022 molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) are present in 100 ml of water (density of solution = 1
g/ml). The molality of the solution is
Options:
0.25 m
1m
1.25 m
0.5 m
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint :

Sol. :
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 54
In the reaction,
P(g) + 2 Q(g) →
4 R(g) + 3 S(l)
When 1 mole of P and 1 mole of
Q are allowed to react to the completion of reaction, then
Options:
All P will be consumed
4 mole of R will form
2 mole of S will form
All Q will consumed
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Stoichiometric equation :

Hence, Q will be completely consumed in the reaction

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 55
The number of radial nodes in 3p orbital is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : No. of radial nodes = n – l – 1

Sol. : For 3p orbital, no. of radial nodes

=3–1–1=1
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 56
For a multielectron atom, which among the following orbital has maximum energy?
Options:
5f
3d
4s
2p
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Higher the value of (n + l), higher will be the energy of orbital.

Sol.:
Sol.: Orbital 5f 3d 4s 2p
(n + l) value 5+3=8 3+2=5 4+0=4 2+1=3
∴ Energy order : 5 f > 3 d > 4 s > 2 p

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 57
Select the incorrect statement among the following.
Options:
Mathematically the uncertainty principle is presented as
The value of m for orbital is non-zero
Two electrons occupying the same orbital of an atom are distinguished by spin quantum
number
Electrons in the 3d orbitals have different spatial distribution, consequently their shielding of
one another is relatively small
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : For d-orbitals, –2 ≤ m ≤ + 2

Sol. : For orbital, m values is assumed to be zero

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 58
Paschen series of H-atom spectrum lies in
Options:
UV region
Visible region
Infrared region
Microwave region
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Spectrum of electron transition in H-atom from higher shell to 3rd shell is known as Paschen series.
Sol. : Series Lyman Balmer Paschen Brackett

Region UV visible infrared infrared

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 59
The correct order of the increasing radii of the given species is
Options:
P3– < Cl– < S2–
S2– < Cl– < P3–
Cl– < S2– < P3–
P3– < S2– < Cl–
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Isoelectronic species having more nuclear charge have less atomic/ionic size.

Sol. : Order of ionic radii :

Cl– < S2– < P3–

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 60
First ionisation enthalpy among the following is maximum for
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Completely filled and half-filled electronic configuration are more stable than partially filled
Sol. :
• Due to half filled configuration (2p3), N has extra stability, hence high ionisation energy.
You scored -1 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 61
The general valence shell electronic configuration of d-block elements is
Options:
(n – 1)d1–10 ns1–2
nd1–10 ns 1–2
(n – 1)d1–10 ns 0–1
(n – 1)d1–10 ns 0–2
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : In d-block elements, the last electron enters in (n – 1)d subshell

Sol. : For d-block elements, general valence shell electronic configuration is (n – 1)d1–10 ns0–2
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 62
Which among the following elements has highest negative electron gain enthalpy?
Options:
Cl
Br
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Generally, smaller the size of atom, higher will be negative electron gain enthalpy.
Sol. : • (–ΔHeg) : Cl > F > Br > I
• Due to very small size of F, there is repulsion between incoming electron and high electron density on F-
atom, so electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than Cl.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 63
In the structure of XeF4, the number of lone pair of electrons on the central atom is
Options:
One
Two
Three
Four
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Non-bonding outer shell electron pairs are known as lone pairs

Sol. :
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 64
Consider the following species : and which one of these will have the lowest
bond order?
Options:
O2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint :

Sol. : O2 (electronic configuration) = (σ1 s)2 (σ*1 s)2 (σ2 s)2 (σ*2 s)2 (σ2 pz)2
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 65
Which of the following species contains minimum number of π-bonds?
Options:
(CN)2
XeO4
H2SO4
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : In multiple bonds, only one bond is σ bond and remaining are π-bonds

Sol. : •

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 66
Which of the following pair of species is isostructural?
Options:
BeCl2 and XeF2
NH3 and
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Species having same structure are isostructural.
Sol. : • BeCl2 ⇒ sp ⇒ Cl – Be – Cl (linear)
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 67
Which of the following molecules has minimum dipole moment?
Options:
SO2
NO2
CO2
ClO2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Dipole moment is a vector quantity

Sol. :
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 68
Among NaX, maximum covalent character is shown by (X is halogen)
Options:
NaF
NaCl
NaBr
NaI
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : More is the size of anion, more will be the covalent character in ionic compound.
Sol. : Covalent character : NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 69
In the organic compound

the state of hybridization of carbons 2, 4 and 6 are in the following sequence
Options:
sp3, sp2, sp
sp, sp2, sp2
sp, sp3, sp2
sp2, sp2, sp2
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : – C ≡ C – : carbon is sp hybridised

> C = C < : carbon is sp2 hybridised

Sol. :
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 70
The total number of antibonding electrons in ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Order of energies of molecular orbitals for N2:

σ1 s < σ*1 s < σ2 s < σ *2 s < (π2 px = π2 py) < σ2 pz

Sol. : Molecular orbital configuration of

(σ1 s) < (σ*1 s) < (σ2 s) < (σ*2 s) < (π2 px)2 = (π2 py)2 < (σ2 pz)1
2 2 2 2

∴ No. of antibonding electrons (Na) = 4

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 71
If the mass percentage of Mg in a biomolecule is 0.2%, then the minimum possible molecular weight
of biomolecule will be
Options:
24000 u
36000 u
12000 u
48000 u
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Molecular weight will be minimum when one Mg atom per molecule is present.

Sol. :

∴ Minimum molecular weight

=
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 72
The molarity of a resulting solution obtained by mixing 50 ml, 0.1 M HCl solution with 100 ml of 0.2 M
HCl solution is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : For mixing,

Sol. : 0.1 × 50 + 0.2 × 100 = M3 × (100 + 50)

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 73
The percentage purity of calcium carbonate sample whose 10 g on complete decomposition gives 4 g
CO2, is
Options:
98.2%
92.8%
95.6%
90.9%
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint :

Sol. : For 4 g CO2, mass of CaCO3 decomposed = = 9.09 g

% purity of sample =
You scored -1 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 74
If 100 g of a metal oxide contains 40 g oxygen then the equivalent weight of metal in the metal oxide
is
Options:
20
16
12
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Equivalent mass of the metal is that mass which combine with 8 g of oxygen.
Sol. : In 100 g metal oxide : Mass of oxygen = 40 g
Mass of metal = 60 g
∴ Equivalent mass of metal =

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 75
The radius of 3rd Bohr’s orbit of H-atom is (Given : radius of first Bohr’s orbit = r0)
Options:
9r0
3r0
15r0
18r0
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : rn = r0

Sol. : r3 = n2r0 = (3)2 r0 = 9 r0

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 76
The orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘p’ orbital is equal to
Options:
Zero
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Orbital angular momentum =

Sol. : For p-orbital, l = 1

∴ Orbital angular momentum
=
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 77
The correct set of four quantum numbers for the outermost electron of Zn (Z = 30) is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Zn (Z = 30): [Ar]3d104s2

Sol. : Outermost electron of Zn is present in 4 s orbital hence, n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s =

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 78
The total number of atomic orbitals in the third energy level of an atom is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : No. of atomic orbitals in nth shell = n2

Sol. : In 3rd shell, No. of atomic orbitals = 32 = 9

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 79
The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in ion, respectively are
Options:
9, 10 and 10
9, 9 and 10
10, 9 and 10
9, 9 and 9
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : No. of protons = Z
No. of neutrons = A – Z
Sol. : For No. of protons = 9

No. of electrons = 9 + 1 = 10
No. of neutrons = 19 – 9 = 10
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 80
According to the Bohr’s theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to
the highest energetic photon?
Options:
n = 4 to n = 1
n = 5 to n = 4
n = 4 to n = 2
n = 5 to n = 3
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint :

Sol. : (1)

(2)
(3)
(4)
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 81
Maximum number of orbitals in a subshell of an atom is given by
Options:
2l
2l + 1
4l + 2
2l + 2
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : For any subshell, No. of orbitals = 2 l +1
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 82
The pair of isoelectronic species among the following is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Isoelectronic species have same number of electrons

You scored -1 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 83
The de Broglie wavelength of a particle having mass 0.662 g and moving with velocity 1 m/s is (h =
6.626 × 10–34 Js)
Options:
10–33 m
10–34 m
10–31 m
10–30 m
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint :

Sol. :
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 84
Strongest intermolecular H-bonding is present in
Options:
HF
NH3
H2O
HCl
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : More the electronegativity of an atom attached to H-atom, stronger will be H-bonding.
Sol. : Strength of H-bond : HF > H2O > NH3
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
Question : 85
The correct geometry and hybridization for PCl5 are
Options:
Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
Pentagonal bipyramidal, sp3d3
Octahedral, sp3d2
Square pyramidal, sp3d
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Hybrid orbitals (HO) = σ-bonds + lone pairs
Sol. : For PCl5, HO = σ-bond + lp = 5 + 0 = 5
∴ Hybridisation = sp3d

Geometry = trigonal bipyramidal

You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
Minimum bond length among the following is of
Options:
C–H
N–O
O–H
C–O
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Smaller the size of atoms, smaller will be bond length

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 87
The species having bond angle of 90° is
Options:
SO3
SF6
SF4
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : In octahedral geometry bond angles are 90º and 180º.

Sol. : SF6 : sp3d2 hybridised :

You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
The decreasing order of bond angles in CH4 (α1), H2O (α2) and NH3 (α3) is
Options:
α3 > α2 > α1
α2 > α1 > α3
α2 > α3 > α1
α1 > α3 > α2
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : More the number of lone pair on central atom, lesser will be the bond angles.

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 89
Octet rule is not followed in
Options:
SCl2
BCl3
CCl4
ICl
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Octet rule : 8 electrons in outermost shell of atom
Sol. : In BCl3, B has 6 electrons in outermost shell
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
The formal charge on central oxygen atom in is
Options:
–1
–2
+1
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Formal charge (FC) on an atom in a Lewis structure = [Total number of electrons in the free state] –
[Total number of non-bonding electrons] – [Total number of bonding electrons]

Sol. :

For central O, FC = 6 – 2 –
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 91
Which among the following has only two π-bonds and no σ-bond?
Options:
C2
B2
Be2
N2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Energy order of molecular orbitals for C2, B2, Be2 and N2 : σ1 s < σ*1 s < σ2 s < σ*2 s < (π2 px =
π2 py) < σ2 pz

Sol. : For C2 : (σ1 s)2 < (σ*1 s)2 <(σ2 s)2 < (σ*2 s)2 < [(π2 px)2 = (π2 py)2]

So C2 has only 2π bonds as its BO is 2 due to bonding molecular orbitals π2 px and π2 py.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 92
Both ionic and covalent bonds are present in
Options:
CaF2
C2H2
KOH
NaCl
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Generally ionic bond is formed between metal and non-metal and covalent bond is formed between
non-metals.

Sol. :
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 93
The incorrect statement regarding resonance among the following is
Options:
The energy of the resonance hybrid is more than the energy of any single canonical structure
The canonical forms have no real existence
Resonance averages the bond characteristics as a whole
The total number of pair and unpaired electrons in all the canonical forms remains same
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Resonance stabilizes the molecule

the energy of the resonance hybrid is less than the energy of
Sol. : Resonance stabilizes the molecule as
any single canonical structure.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 94
Assuming x-axis to be internuclear axis, which of the following orbitals do not form σ bond on
overlapping?
Options:
2s and 2s
2s and 2px
2px and 2px
2px and 2py
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Sigma bond is formed by the axial overlapping of bonding orbitals.

Sol. :
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 95
Element A has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit and element B has 7 electrons in the outermost orbit.
The possible formula of the compound formed by elements A and B is
Options:
AB
AB2
A2B
A2B3
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : A is 2nd group metal and B is a 17th group non-metal

Sol. :
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. The elemental analysis of compound
gives C: 41.38% and H: 3.45%. The empirical formula of the compound would be
Options:
CHO
CH2O
C2H3O
CH3O
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of atoms of the various element
present in the molecule of the compound.
Sol. :
Element Mass% Moles Simple ratio
C 41. 38
H 3. 45
O 55. 17
∴ Empirical formula = CHO

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 97
How many electrons can fit in an orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?
Options:
10
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : Any orbital can have maximum two electrons.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 98
Match the oxide given in Column A with its chemical nature given in Column B
Column-A Column-B
a. NO (i) Acidic
b. As2O3 (ii) Basic
c. SO3 (iii) Neutral

d. Na2O (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
Options:
a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Alkali metal oxides are basic in nature
Sol. : NO : Neutral oxide
As2O3 : Amphoteric oxide
SO3 : acidic oxide

Na2O : Basic oxide

You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
An element having Z = 117 belongs to which of the following group?
Options:
14th
15th
16th
17th
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Z = 117 : [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5

Sol. : Since the element contains 7 electrons in outermost shell (7s and 7p) so it belongs to 17th group.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
Question : 100
Statement I : Mole fraction is the ratio of moles of a substance to the total moles in the solution.
Statement II : Mole fraction does not depend on temperature of solution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
Statement I is correct but statement II is false
Both statement I and statement II are true
Both statement I and statement II are false
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Concentration terms which does not involve volume of solution are independent of temperature of
solution.

Sol. : Mole fraction

Since mole fraction term does not involve volume of solution so it is independent of temperature of
solution.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 101
Read the following statements and choose the option for the set of all the correct ones.
a. All living organisms grow but growth is not a defining property of living organisms
b. Reproduction is the fundamental characteristic of all living organisms
c. All the living organisms possess metabolic reactions
d. Self-consciousness is seen in most of the animals species
Options:
(a), (c) and (d)
(a) and (c)
(b), (c) and (d)
(b) and (d)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Some organisms such as mule do not reproduce but they are living.

Sol. : Reproduction is not shown in some organisms. Human is the only organism who has self-
consciousness.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 102
According to IUCN, currently known and described species of all organisms are between
Options:
35 - 38 million
3.8 - 4.0 million
13 - 14 million
1.7 - 1.8 million
Solution :
Answer (4)
Sol. : According to IUCN, currently known and described species of all organisms are between 1.7 - 1.8
million.
You scored -1 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 103
Select the option in which the scientific name is printed correctly.
Options:
Solanum Nigrum
Panthera leo
Mangifera indica
Homo sapiens
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Scientific names of organisms are printed in italics.

Sol. : In binomial nomenclature, the first word denoting genus starts with capital letter and the specific
epithet starts with small letter.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 104
Out of the following, which one is not a taxon related to wheat?
Options:
Poales
Angiospermae
Dicotyledonae
Triticum
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Triticum belongs to order Poales.

to the class Monocotyledonae.
Sol. : Wheat is a monocot plant. It belongs
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 105
In both plant and animal cells, the main arena of cellular activities is their
Options:
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Genetic material
Nucleoplasm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : In cytoplasm, various chemical reactions occur to keep the cell in living state.

Sol. : The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 106
Which amongst the following cell organelles in eukaryotes are not single membrane bound?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Vacuole
(c) Mitochondrion
(d) Centrosome
(e) Chloroplast
(f) Golgi complex

(g) Ribosome
Options:
(c) and (e) only
(d) and (g) only
(a), (b) and (f)
(c), (d), (e) and (g)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Cell organelles can be single membrane, double membrane and non-membrane bound structures.
Sol. : Lysosome, vacuole and Golgi complex are single membrane bound structures.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are double membrane bound structures.
Centrosome and ribosome are not bound by any membrane.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 107
Identify the option which is correct regarding the cell organelles which are also found within other cell
organelles.
Options:
These are single membrane bound structures
They are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
They store proteins and lipids
These are formed only in the nucleus
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Ribosomes are found in cytoplasm as well as within mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Sol. : Ribosomes are composed of RNA and proteins and are not surrounded by any membrane.
Ribosomes are also formed in chloroplasts and mitochondria.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 108
The smallest individual which has nucleic acid either DNA or RNA is
Options:
PPLO
Mycoplasma
Virus
A typical bacteria
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Viruses also have genetic material.
Sol. : Amongst PPLO, viruses, mycoplasma
and bacteria, viruses are the smallest individuals.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 109
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. White blood cells (i) Branched and long
B. Tracheid (ii) Round and oval
C. Mesophyll cells (iii) Amoeboid
D. Nerve cells (iv) Elongated
Options:
A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
A-(iii) , B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
A- (ii) , B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : White blood cells are amoeboid.
Sol. : White blood cells – Amoeboid
Tracheid – Elongated

and oval
Mesophyll cells – Round
Nerve cells – Branched and long
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 110
Select the incorrect match from the following.
Options:
Vibrio – Comma shaped
Bacillus – Spherical
Blue-green algae – Naked genetic material
Plasmid – Small circular DNA
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Blue-green algae are prokaryotes. They have naked genetic material. Some bacteria have small
circular DNA outside the genomic DNA called plasmid.
Sol. : Vibrio are comma shaped and bacillus are rod like
bacteria.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 111
Select the incorrect statement from the following.
Options:
RNA is the only genetic material in bacteria
Some bacteria are resistant to antibiotics due to plasmid
Mesosomes in bacteria are infoldings of plasma membrane
Inclusion bodies are also found in bacteria
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : The genetic material in prokaryotes are not enveloped by nuclear membrane.
Sol. : In prokaryotes, the genetic material is DNA.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 112
In three layered envelope of bacterial cells, the outermost layer is
Options:
Pellicle
Cell wall
Plasma membrane
Glycocalyx
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : The outermost layer in bacteria can be slime layer or capsule.

followed by cell wall and then the
Sol. : In three layered envelope in bacteria, the outer layer is glycocalyx
plasma membrane.
You scored -1 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 113
The plasma membrane of prokaryotes and eukaryotes are
Options:
Similar in structure but different in function
Similar in structure and function
Different in both structure and function
Different in structure but similar in function
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the plasma membrane is selective in nature.
Sol. : Plasma membrane of prokaryotes are structurally and functionally similar to that of
eukaryotes.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 114
In which of the following processes/functions, there is no role of mesosome?
Options:
DNA replication
Distribution of daughter cells
Cell wall formation
Movement of cilia and flagella
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : In bacteria, mesosomes are the extension of plasma membrane into the cell that help in DNA
replication, cell wall formation etc.

Sol. : Prokaryotes lack cilia. The movement of cilia and flagella is due to some specific motor proteins.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 115
All of the following informations regarding chromatophores are correct, except
Options:
They contain genetic materials
These are membranous extensions into the cytoplasm
They contain pigments
These are found in some photosynthetic prokaryotes
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Chromatophores are membranous structures into the cytoplasm of cyanobacteria.
Sol. : Chromatophores contain pigments involved in photosynthesis. The genetic material
in prokaryotes
is located in the region called nucleoid.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 116
In prokaryotes, the polysome has ribosomes with sub-units
Options:
50S and 20S attached with mRNA
40S and 30S attached with rRNA
50S and 30S attached with mRNA
50S and 30S attached with rRNA
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : In polysome, several ribosomes are attached with a single mRNA.

Sol. : In prokaryotes, 70S ribosomes are found. These ribosomes have sub-units 50S and 30S.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 117
Consider the following diagram and select the option which is not true regarding the labelled part.

Options:
A – Performs the function of packaging material
B – Contains excretory products and other materials
C – Made up of cellulose
D – Contains xanthophylls
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : The structures A, B, C and D are Golgi complex, vacuole, cell wall and mitochondrion respectively.
Sol. : Xanthophylls are found in chromoplasts. Mitochondria have enzymes for respiration.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 118
Cell membrane is mainly composed of
Options:
Lipids and cholesterol
Polysaccharides and polypeptides
Lipids and proteins
Cellulose and phospholipids
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : The major lipids in cell membrane are phospholipids.

Sol. : The cell membrane is composed of lipids and proteins.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 119
The site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis in an eukaryotic cell is
Options:
Cytosol
Nucleolus
Centromere
Perinuclear space
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : RNA synthesis occurs inside the nucleus.

synthesis.
Sol. : Nucleolus is the site for active ribosomal RNA
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 120
Which of the following organelles are involved in the formation of spindle fibres and basal body of
flagella?
Options:
Centrioles
Ribosomes
Kinetochores
Microbodies
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Kinetochores are the site for the attachment of spindle fibres during cell division.

They also form
Sol. : Centrioles help in the formation of basal bodies which give rise to cilia and flagella.
spindle fibres.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 121
The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia and flagella is referred as
Options:
9 + 2 array
9 + 0 arrangement
12 + 1 array
12 + 2 arrangement
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Cilia and flagella have a pair of centrally located microtubules along with peripheral microtubules.
Sol. : The arrangement of microtubules in cilia and flagella is referred to as 9+2 array as they have 9
doublets of peripheral and a pair of central microtubules.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 122
Options:
Galactans and mannans are found in the cell wall of algae
Cell wall protects the cell from mechanical damage
Plants never contain proteins in their cell wall
Primary cell wall of young plant cell is capable of growth
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Along with cellulose, plant cell wall has many other components.
Sol. : Plants other than algae have cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and
proteins in their cell wall.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 123
What is true for endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes as well as vacuoles?
Options:
They store protein digesting enzymes
These are the sites of protein synthesis
They play important role in osmoregulation
They are included in endomembrane system
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles function in coordinated way with
each other.

Sol. : The endomembrane system includes endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and
vacuoles as their functions are coordinated.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 124
The plastid store oils and fats whereas store proteins.

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and (ii).
Options:
(i) - Amyloplasts; (ii) - Elaioplasts
(i) - Chromoplasts; (ii) - Chloroplasts
(i) - Aleuroplasts; (ii) - Elaioplasts
(i) - Elaioplasts ; (ii) - Aleuroplasts
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Elaioplasts store oils and fats.

Sol. : Amyloplasts, elaioplasts and aleuroplasts store starch, oils and fat, and proteins respectively.
You scored -1 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 125
The location in a cell where cytoskeleton is found, is
Options:
Nuclear membrane
Cytoplasm
Cell wall
Plasma membrane
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments form the cytoskeleton of the cell.
Sol. : The network of filamentous proteinaceous structures that form the cytoskeleton are found
in
cytoplasm.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 126
Which of the following processes occur during cell cycle?

a. Synthesis of RNA
b. DNA replication
c. Protein synthesis
d. Organelles duplication

The correct ones are
Options:
All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Only (b) and (d)
Only (b), (c) and (d)
Only (a) and (c)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Cell cycle includes DNA synthesis and cell growth.

Sol. : During cell cycle, cell duplicates its genome, duplicates its cell organelles and synthesises the other
constituents of the cell.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 127
Read the following statements and choose the option which is true for them.

Statement A : The steps of cell division are themselves under genetic control.

Statement B : Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.
Options:
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Both the statements are correct
Both the statements are incorrect
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : All the events of cell cycle are themselves under genetic control.

Sol. : Cytoplasmic increase in terms of cell growth is a continuous process.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 128
If a yeast cell divides into two daughter cells in 90 minutes then, how much time it takes to complete
its M phase?
Options:
Less than 4.5 minutes
More than 85.5 minutes
12-15 minutes
50-55 minutes
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : In a cell cycle, interphase lasts more than 95% of the total duration.

Sol. : In a cell cycle, M phase takes less than 5% of total time of cell cycle.
Therefore, < 5% of 90 minutes
minutes

= < 4.5 minutes

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 129
One of the stages of interphase also known as synthesis phase occurs
Options:
Just before Gap 1 phase
During quiescent stage
Just after Gap 2 phase
Between Gap 1 and Gap 2 phases
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : S phase of cell cycle is also called synthesis phase.
Sol. : S phase is a synthesis phase in which DNA replication
occurs. This phase occurs between Gap 1
and Gap 2 phases.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 130
A cell undergoing reduction division has 28 chromosomes in its G1 stage. What would be the number
of chromosomes in this cell just after S phase?
Options:
112
56
28
14
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Amount of DNA becomes double during S phase of cell cycle.

Sol. : Number of chromosomes remains the same in G2 phase as that in G1 phase.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 131
Select the incorrect statement regarding the cells which are in G0 phase.
Options:
These cells do not appear to exhibit division
These cells exit G1 phase of cell cycle
These cells are in inactive stage of cell division
These cells are metabolically inactive and can never proliferate
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : The cells that do not divide further exit G1 phase to enter in quiescent stage.

Sol. : The cells which are in G0 phase remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called
on to do so.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 132
Mitotic cell division occurs in
Options:
Diploid cells only
Haploid cells only
Gametes only
Both haploid and diploid cells
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : In mitotic division, chromosome number does not reduced to half.

ultimate product of meiotic
Sol. : Mitotic division occurs in both haploid and diploid cells. Gametes are
division. They fuse to form zygote.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 133
Select the correct sequence of different stages of karyokinesis.
Options:
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Prophase is the first stage of karyokinesis.
Sol. : Sequence of four stages of karyokinesis is as
follows :
Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 134
Read the following events :

• Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores.

• Chromosomes are moved to get aligned
at spindle equator.
During which stage of cell cycle, these events occur?
Options:
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase
Prophase
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : After prophase, chromosomes move to the spindle equator of the cell.

chromosomes and they
Sol. : During metaphase stage, spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores of the
move to get aligned at spindle equator.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
Question : 135
Which event marks the start of the second phase of mitosis?
Options:
Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
Beginning of condensation of chromatin material
Alignment of chromosomes at the equator
Assemblage of nuclear envelope
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : At the end of prophase, nuclear envelope disappears.

Sol. : The second phase of mitosis is metaphase. The disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the
beginning of metaphase.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 136
Which of the following events is not associated with anaphase?
Options:
Splitting of centromeres
Formation of cell plate
Separation of chromatids
Movement of chromatids to opposite poles
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : The phase after metaphase is anaphase.

Sol. : During anaphase, centromere splits, chromatids separate and move to opposite poles. Cell plate
formation occurs during cytokinesis.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
Double metaphasic plate is formed during
Options:
Mitosis
Meiosis I
Meiosis II
Mitosis and meiosis II
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis I.

Sol. : During metaphase I, centromeres of homologous chromosomes are arranged in two rows at the
equator and thus, double metaphasic plate is formed.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 138
Match the following columns and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Metaphase II (i) Duplication of centrioles
B. Interkinesis (ii) Nucleolus reappears
C. Metaphase I (iii) Univalents align themselves at equator
D Telophase I (iv) Alignment of bivalents at the equator
Options:
A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : During metaphase II, univalent chromosomes align themselves at the equator.

Sol. : Alignment of bivalents at equator occurs during metaphase I. Duplication of centriole occurs during
interkinesis.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
Which of the following events occurs during the last stage of prophase I of meiosis?
Options:
Terminalization of chiasmata
Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Recombination of genetic material
Pairing of homologous chromosomes
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : The last stage of prophase I of meiosis is diakinesis.
Sol. : During diakinesis, terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 140
Which of the following is not a significance of mitosis?
Options:
It brings about reproduction in unicellular organisms
It is essential for growth and development in multicellular organisms
It increases genetic variability in the population
It produces new cells for healing the wounds
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Meiosis provides chance for the formation of new combination of chromosomes.

Sol. : Meiosis is a reduction division which causes increase genetic variability in the population.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 141
Options:
Unicellular organisms also show independent existence
Some component of cells can also show independent living
Cell is the fundamental structure of all living organisms
Plants and animals are multicellular organisms
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Cell is the functional unit of all living organisms.
Sol. : Anything less than a complete structure of a cell
does not ensure independent living.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 142
The contribution of Anton von Leeuwenhoek in the study of cells was that
Options:
He first saw and described a live cell
He first described the structure of nucleus
He discovered and studied the cells from slice of cork
He described that how do the cells multiply
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Robert Hooke discovered the cells from slice of cork and Robert Brown discovered the nucleus.

Sol. : Anton von Leeuwenhoek was the first person who saw and described a living cell. He saw the living
cells under his own designed microscope.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 143
For the first time, Rudolf Virchow told that Omnis cellula-e-cellula. It means
Options:
All living organisms are composed of cells
Each cell has organelles that function in coordinated manner
All cells arise from pre-existing cells
Activities of an organism are the result of activities of its constituent cells
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : The cell theory given by Schleiden and Schwann did not explain how new cells were formed.

Sol. : Rudolf Virchow first explained that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells,
i.e., Omnis cellula-e cellula.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 144
In which of the following organisms, the outermost boundary of cell is cell wall?
Options:
Amoeba
Mycoplasma
Blue-green algae
Planaria
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Cells of animals and protozoans do not have cell wall.

Sol. : Except Mycoplasma, other prokaryotes such as archaebacteria, blue-green algae and bacteria have
cell wall as the outermost boundary of cell.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 145
Which of the following taxonomic aids provides information about both plants and animals?
Options:
Flora
Museum
Botanical garden
Herbarium
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Flora is a book containing information about plants. Herbarium is storehouse of plant specimens.
Sol. : Museum is a place for storing, preservation and exhibition of both plants and animals.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 146
The chromosome that is said to be single armed is
Options:
Metacentric
Telocentric
Acrocentric
Sub-metacentric
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Terminal centromere is present in telocentric chromosome.

Sol. : Due to the presence of terminal centromere, telocentric chromosome is said to have single arm.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
Question : 147
Non-staining secondary constriction in some chromosomes gives the appearance of a small fragment
called
Options:
Microbody
Telomere
Heterochromatin
Satellite
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : The chromosomes having secondary constriction are called SAT-chromosomes.
Sol. : The part of the chromosome beyond the secondary constriction is called satellite.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
A condition in cell division that leads to the formation of syncytium is
Options:
Failure of segregation of chromatids after metaphase
Failure of pairing of homologous chromosomes during cell division
Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis
Lack of nuclear envelope formation in telophase
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Syncytium is a single cell containing many nuclei.

Sol. : When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, multinucleate condition arises that leads to the
formation of syncytium.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
If crossing over does not occur in meiosis then which of the following would be true regarding the
resultant daughter cells?
Options:
All the daughter cells will be genetically different
Four daughter cells will not be formed
All the daughter cells will be genetically identical
Only two genetically different types of daughter cells will be formed
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

In this way,
Sol. : Crossing over brings genetic differences between sister chromatids of a chromosome.
all the resultant daughter cells become genetically different from each other.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
The process which is not included in taxonomy is
Options:
Identification
Phylogeny
Classification
Nomenclature
Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint : Systematics includes evolutionary history of organisms.

Sol. : Taxonomy does not include phylogeny, i.e., evolutionary
history of organisms.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 151
A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries constitutes epithelial lining in
Options:
Inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes
Inner surface of bronchioles
PCT of nephrons in kidneys
Walls of blood vessels
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : This type of epithelium is involved in forming diffusion boundary.

are lined by ciliated epithelium.
Sol. : Inner surface of hollow organs, like fallopian tubes and bronchioles,
Cuboidal epithelium is found in tubular part of nephrons in kidneys while squamous epithelium is found in
blood vessels and air sacs of lungs.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 152
Select the secretion of an endocrine gland among the following
Options:
Saliva
Insulin
Milk
Trypsin
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Identify blood glucose regulating hormone

Sol. : Insulin a proteinaceous hormone, is an endocrine secretion of pancreas. Saliva, digestive enzymes
(like trypsin) and milk are secretions of exocrine glands.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 153
Tendon is an example of
Options:
Loose connective tissue
Specialized connective tissue
Fluid connective tissue
Dense connective tissue
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Orientation of fibres show a regular pattern

Sol. : Areolar tissue is an example of loose connective tissue. Blood is a fluid connective tissue. Blood,
bone and cartilage are specialized connective tissues.

Tendon and ligament are dense regular connective tissues.

You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 154
Choose the incorrect match w.r.t types of cell junctions and their function.
(1) Tight junctions – Promote substances from leaking across a tissue

(2) Adhering junctions – Cement neighbouring cells together
(3) Gap junctions – Facilitate cell to cell communication
(4) Gap junctions – Connect cytoplasm of neighbouring cells for rapid transfer of ions
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Zonula occludens
Sol. : Tight junctions help
to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 155
The kind of connective tissue that is found in outer ear joints as a support framework, is also found in
the
Options:
Ear ossicles
Heart wall
Tip of nose
Abdominal wall
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Location of elastic cartilage

Sol. : Elastic cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear joints, etc.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 156
Select the incorrect match.
(1) Smooth, involuntary muscle – Biceps

(2) Striated, involuntary muscle – Cardiac muscle
(3) Striated, voluntary muscle – Thigh muscle
(4) Non-striated, involuntary muscle – Iris
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Identify skeletal muscle of upper limb
Sol. : Biceps – skeletal and voluntary muscle.
Striped skeletal muscle fibres are multinucleated and their
nuclei are peripheral in position. Each myofibril shows distinct alternate dark and light bands giving a
characteristic striped or striated appearance. Smooth muscle fibres are present in the wall of internal
organs such as blood vessels, stomach and intestine.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 157
Cell junctions called desmosomes facilitate
Options:
Production of blood cells
Transport of various substances
Anchoring function
Cell to cell cytoplasmic communication in adjoining cells
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : These junctions are also called macula adherens
Sol. : Gap junctions facilitate cytoplasmic communication
between adjoining cells for rapid transfer of
ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules. Blood is the main circulating fluid that helps in the
transport of various substances. The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 158
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
(1) Chondrocytes – Present in cartilage, a specialized connective tissue

(2) Osteocytes – Present in bones, a specialized connective tissue
(3) Goblet cells – Present in epithelium of alimentary canal
(4) Mast cells – Present in blood, a loose connective tissue
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a fluid connective tissue.

Sol. : Mast cells are present in loose connective tissue, such as areolar connective tissue. Blood is a fluid
connective tissue.
Mast cells produce
histamine (which dilates the wall of blood vessels in inflammatory and allergic
reactions), heparin (which checks clotting of blood inside the blood vessels) and serotonin (which
constricts blood vessels to check bleeding).
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 159
A common feature shared by smooth muscle fibres and cardiac muscle fibres is
Options:
Presence of intercalated discs
Fusiform appearance
Functioning that cannot be directly controlled by our will
Presence of multinucleated and branched condition
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Cardiac muscles are involuntary.

Sol. : Smooth muscle fibres are uninucleated, fusiform shaped, involuntary muscle fibres without
intercalated discs.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 160
Choose the incorrect statement.
Options:
Hydra exhibits cell-tissue level of organisation.
Epithelial cells are compactly packed with abundant intercellular matrix.
In ciliated epithelium, cilia help to move mucus in a specific direction.
Epithelium of PCT of nephron in kidney has microvilli.
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Epithelium found in the walls of blood vessels has little ground matrix.

Sol. : The cells of epithelium are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.

The cells are held together by specialised intercellular junctions, which serve as structural and functional
links between them.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 161
Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a. Fibroblasts (i) Phagocytic cells
b. Macrophages (ii) Produce collagen fibres
c. Adipocytes (iii) Store fats
(iv) Present in blood
Options:
a(iii), b(i), c(iv)
a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
a(i), b(iv), c(ii)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Macrophages remove cellular debris etc.
Sol. : Fibroblasts produce and secrete fibres, macrophages are phagocytic cells while adipocytes store
fats.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 162
Epithelium that is made of more than one layer of cells and has limited role in secretion and
absorption covers all of the following except
Options:
Inner lining of ducts salivary glands
Inner lining of pancreatic ducts
Moist surface of buccal cavity
Inner surface of hollow organs like trachea and large bronchi
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : False multilayered appearance

Sol. : Pseudostratified epithelium is found in trachea and large bronchi. Compound epithelium is made of
more than one layer of cells. Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical
stresses.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 163
Hydroxymethyl group containing proteinaceous amino acid is
Options:
Glycine
Alanine
Valine
Serine
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Alcoholic amino acid.

Sol. : Glycine – R group is hydrogen

Alanine - R group is methyl
Valine - R group is isopropyl
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 164
Choose the incorrect match
No. of double bonds

Fatty acid No. of carbon atoms
(C = C)
(1) Palmitic acid 16C 0
(2) Oleic acid 18C 1
(3) Linolenic acid 20C 2
(4) Arachidonic acid 20C 4
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Identify 18 C unsaturated fatty acid

acid with 2 double bonds.
Sol. : Linolenic acid is 18 C unsaturated fatty
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 165
Select a non-polymeric biomolecule i.e. found in cell membrane and acid insoluble fraction.
Options:
Nucleotides
GLUT-4
Lecithin
Receptor
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Polymeric proteinaceous structures/ molecules are found in acid insoluble fraction.
Sol. : Nucleotides are present in acid soluble fraction. GLUT-4 and receptors are proteins
that are
polymeric forms and are found in acid insoluble fraction. Lipids are non-polymeric biomolecules found in
cell membrane and acid insoluble fraction.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Study the components given in the box below :

Na+, K+, H2O, CaCO3,
How many of the above given components represent inorganic constituents of living tissues?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Water makes maximum percent of total cellular mass of cell.

Sol. : are inorganic components of

living tissue.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 167
Read the following statements.

a. α-amino acids are substituted methanes.

b. The chemical and physical properties of amino acids depend only on R group.

of –NH and –
c. At different pH, the structures of amino acids change due to the ionisable nature 2
COOH groups.

d. In proteins, there are only twenty types of amino acids.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
b and c are correct
a and b are correct
a, b and d are correct
a, c and d are correct
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : A variable group is designated as R group

Sol. : Based on the nature of R group, there are many amino acids.

amino, carboxyl and R functional
Physical and chemical properties of amino acids are mainly due to the
groups. Based on comparative number of amino and carboxyl groups, amino acids can be acidic, basic
and neutral.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 168
Identify zwitterionic form
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Zwitterion is a dipolar ion.

Sol. : At isoelectric point, an amino acid exists as a dipolar ion that has a negative charge on one atom
and a positive charge on a non-adjacent atom.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 169
In all of the given carbon compounds heterocyclic rings can be found, except
Options:
Cytosine
Cysteine
Cytidine
Uridine
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Nitrogen bases, nucleosides and nucleotides possess heterocyclic rings

Sol. : Cysteine is a sulphur containing amino acid. Cytosine is a heterocyclic nitrogen-containing

compound. Cytidine and uridine are nucleosides in which the nitrogenous base molecule i.e., cytosine and
uracil respectively are joined to the sugar molecule by glyosidic bond.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 170
Select the biomolecule in which phosphate group is esterified to the sugar.
Options:
Cytidine
Lecithin
Phospholipid
ADP
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a higher nucleotide

Sol. : Cytidine is a nucleoside.

Lecithin is a phospholipid in cell membrane. ADP is a nucleotide.

Phospholipids are composed of a molecule of glycerol or other alcohol having (a) A phosphate group
joined to one of its –OH groups, (b) Two fatty acid molecules linked to the other two –OH groups, and (c)
A nitrogen–containing molecule (choline), bound to the phosphate group.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 171
Choose a correct statement w.r.t. glycerol.
Options:
It’s a fatty acid that has a carboxyl group attached to a methyl group
It is an ester of three fatty acids and alcohol
It is a simple lipid called trihydroxypropane
It is a simple unsaturated fatty acid with three double bonds
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : It’s a 3 C biomolecule

Sol. :

A glycerol molecule has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl ( –OH) group.

You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 172
Choose the set of primary metabolites.
Options:
Cellulose, Ribose
Chlorophyll, Anthocyanins
Glucose, Chlorophyll
Curcumin, cellulose
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Primary metabolites play known roles in normal physiological processes.

Sol. : Haem, chlorophyll, glucose and ribose are primary metabolites.

Cellulose, curcumin and anthocyanins are secondary metabolites.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 173
Incorrect match w.r.t. proteins and their functions is
(1) Collagen – Intercellular ground substance

(2) Insulin – Proteinaceous hormone
(3) GLUT-4 – Enables insulin transport into cells
(4) Trypsin – Proteolytic enzyme
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Action of pancreatic hormone that maintains blood glucose levels in the body
Sol. : GLUT-4 enables transport of glucose into cells. Collagen is the most abundant
protein in animal
world. Insulin is secreted by the β–cells present in the islets of Langerhans of pancreas. It regulates sugar
metabolism. Trypsinogen is present in the pancreatic juice.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 174
The most abundant proteins in whole of the biosphere and animal world, respectively are
Options:
Collagen and RuBisCO
Glucose and collagen
Starch and glucose
RuBisCO and collagen
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Identify proteinaceous molecules

Sol. : Glucose and starch are carbohydrates. RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole of the
biosphere. Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world. Glucose is a hexose sugar and starch
is a homopolymer which is present as a store house of energy in plant tissues.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 175
Read the following statements :

Statement I : The right end of polysaccharides is called the reducing end.

Statement II: Sucrose is a polysaccharide with right end as reducing end.
Choose the correct option.
Options:
Both the statements are correct
Only statement B is correct
Only statement A is correct
Both the statements are incorrect
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Invert sugar is another name for this disaccharide.

Sol. : Sucrose is a disaccharide not a polysaccharide. Sucrose consists of glucose and fructose. The left
end of polysaccharides is called the non-reducing end.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 176
Choose the incorrect match.
Options:
Chitin – Homopolymer of modified sugar
Cellulose – Homopolymer of glucose
Starch – Holds I2 in helical primary structure
Inulin – Homopolymer of fructose
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Level of organisation of α-kertain protein

Sol. : Starch holds I2 molecules in the helical secondary structures. Starch gives a characteristic blue
colour with iodine (I2) molecules due to the ability of the latter to occupy position in the interior of helical
structure of starch. Cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine (I2).
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 177
Carefully read the given statements.

a. Enzymes lower the activation energy barrier.

b. Temperature, pH, change in substrate concentration or binding of specific chemicals that regulate
the activity of enzymes are the factors that affect enzyme activity.
c. Transition state structures are altered stable structural states of
substrate.

d. Malonate and oxaloacetic acid, both can compete with succinate for active site of succinic
dehydrogenase.

e. Competitive inhibitors are often used in control of bacterial pathogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
(a), (b), (d) and (e) are correct
(b), (c) and (e) are correct
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : ES complex has higher energy.

Sol. : Transition state structures are altered, unstable, high energy structural states. In competitive
inhibition, the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of
enzyme.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 178
Incorrect match among the following is
Options:
Haem –Prosthetic group of catalase
Zn2+ – Co-factor for carboxypeptidase
NADP – Co-factor that contains vitamin B9
FMN – Binds to apoenzyme transiently
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Co-enzyme

Sol. : NADP contains vitamin niacin (vitamin B3). Folic acid is vitamin B9. Haem is prosthetic group in
peroxidase and catalase enzymes that catalyse the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and
oxygen. Coenzyme FMN (Flavin mono nucleotide) contain the vitamin riboflavin.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 179
Dental formula for deciduous teeth of 4-5 years old boy is best represented as
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Temporary milk teeth are deciduous teeth.

Sol. : Premolars and last molars are permanent teeth that erupt once in a life time. is the dental
formula for adult human beings.

You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 180
The ‘C’ shaped part of small intestine is called
Options:
Colon
Jejunum
Duodenum
Ileum
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Colon is part of large intestine.

Sol. : Small intestine is distinguishable into three regions, a ‘C’ shaped duodenum, a long coiled portion
jejunum and a highly coiled ileum.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 181
Observe the given figure

Choose the option that represents structure guarding the opening of labelled structure ‘A’ in given
figure.
Options:
Sphincter of Boyden
Pyloric sphincter
Sphincter of Oddi
Ileo-cecal valve
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : This duct receives secretions from common bile duct and pancreas.

Sol. : Sphincter of Boyden guards the opening of common bile duct. Pyloric sphincter guards the opening
of stomach into duodenum while ileocecal valve prevents the backflow of faecal matter from caecum to
ileum.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 182
Oblique muscle layer is additionally present in the wall of which of the following part of human
alimentary canal?
Options:
Oesophagus
Stomach
Duodenum
Colon
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Identify a ‘J’ shaped structure

Sol. : Stomach has additional oblique muscle layer in the muscularis layer of wall of alimentary canal.
Oesophagus, duodenum and ileum lack additional oblique muscles but have only longitudinal and circular
muscle layers.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 183
Choose a proteolytic enzyme that does not act on consumed/dietary proteins or their break down
products in human.
Options:
Trypsin
Pepsin
Enterokinase
Carboxypeptidase
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Enzyme present in intestinal juice
Sol. : Enterokinase activates trypsinogen
into trypsin that acts on dietary proteins. Pepsin, a gastric
proteolytic enzyme digests proteins in the diet consumed.

Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). HCl provides the acidic pH (pH1.8)
optimal for pepsin.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Question : 184
Select the odd one w.r.t. location in mucosa of alimentary canal.
Options:
Crypts of Lieberkuhn
Rugae
Lacteal
Brunner’s gland
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Identify the submucosal structure
Sol. : Brunner’s glands are submucosal
glands in duodenum.

Crypts of Lieberkuhn are found in the small intestine, rugae in stomach and lacteals in the villi (mucosa) of
small intestine.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section A
Read the following organisms given in the box below

Tapeworm, Roundworm, Hookworm, Threadworm
How many of the above mentioned parasites causes inflammation of the intestinal tract?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Select helminths

Sol. : Tapeworm, roundworm, threadworm, pinworm and hookworm, all are parasites of the intestine and
can cause enteritis i.e., inflammation of intestine.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Glucose transport is possible by all of the following transport mechanisms, except
Options:
Facilitated transport via GLUT
Secondary active transport via SGLT
Simple diffusion along concentration gradient
Osmosis against concentration gradient
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Transport of water is carried out without the expenditure of energy.

Sol. : Water transport occurs via osmosis from higher concentration to lower concentration.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
The of faeces to the outside is called a process carried out by

movement.

Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks.
A B C D
(1) Egestion Deglutition Involuntary Peristaltic
(2) Excretion Defaecation Voluntary Mass peristaltic
(3) Excretion Deglutition Involuntary Reflex
(4) Egestion Defaecation Voluntary Mass peristaltic
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : We can control passing out of faeces as per our will.

Sol. : The egestion of faeces to the outside through anal opening (defaecation) is a voluntary process and
is carried out by a mass peristaltic movement. The process through which bolus is pushed down through
pharynx into oesophagus is called deglutition or swallowing. This bolus further passes down from the
oesophagus through successive waves of muscular contractions. These muscular contractions are called
peristalsis. Excretion is removal of metabolic wastes from the body.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Emetic reflex is controlled by the emetic centre located in
Options:
Hypothalamus
Pons
Medulla oblongata
Mid brain
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Ejection of stomach contents through mouth

Sol. : Vomiting is a reflex action controlled by vomit centre in the medulla.

A feeling of nausea precedes vomiting. Nausea refers to the discomfort which
leads to vomiting. It may be
caused by distension of stomach or gastro–intestinal tract.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 189
Match column I with column II.
Column I Column II
a. Biliverdin, bilirubin (i) Bile
b. Lipase (ii) Hydrolyses 30% of starch
c. Amylase, pH 6.8 (iii) Digestion of fats
d. Nucleases (iv) Digestion of nucleic acids
(v) Maximum hydrolysis of starch
Options:
a(iii), b(i), c(v), d(iv)
a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Salivary amylase acts at slightly acidic pH.

Sol. : Biliverdin, bilirubin etc. are components of bile. Lipase digests fats while nucleases in pancreatic
juice digest nucleic acids.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 190
Intestinal juice called succus entericus contains
Options:
Trypsin, pepsin, enterokinase
Maltase, lipase, nuclease
Lipase, nucleosidase, rennin
Enterokinase, lipase, dipeptidase
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : This juice contains a variety of enzymes that act on substrates to form simple absorbable forms as
products.

Sol. : Pancreatic lipase, trypsinogen, nucleases are present in pancreatic juice. Intestinal lipase,
enterokinase, maltase, nucleosidase, dipeptidase are present in succus entericus. Pepsinogen is present
in gastric juice.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 191
Extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are symptoms of malnutritional child suffering from
protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. This is seen in
Options:
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Rickets
Eczema
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Pot bellied appearance
Sol. : Marasmus is produced
by simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories.

Rickets is caused by deficiency of vitamin D. Eczema or dermatitis is a skin condition.

the replacement
Kwashiorkor is produced by protein deficiency and not calorie deficiency. It results from
of mother’s milk by a high calorie–low protein diet in a child more than one year in age.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 192
Which one of the following is the correct match of the site of action on the given substrate, the
enzyme acting upon it and the end product(s)?
Substrate Site of action Enzyme End product(s)

(1) Trypsinogen Stomach Enterokinase Trypsin
(2) Starch Pancreas Amylopsin Maltose
(3) Nucleoside Intestine Nucleosidase Nitrogenous base and sugar
(4) Casein Stomach Renin Calcium para caseinate
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Maximum absorption occurs at this site

Sol. : Trypsinogen Trypsin

Starch Maltose

Casein Calcium paracaseinate

You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 193
No significant digestive activity occurs in

a. Large intestine
b. Oesophagus
c. Rectum
d. Gall bladder

Options:
a, c and d only
a, b and c only
a, b, c and d
a and c only
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Digestive enzyme secreting cells are absent in such structures.

Sol. : Gall bladder stores bile. Rectum stores faecal matter till defaecation. Oesophagus is a passage
through which bolus passes into the stomach.
No significant digestive activity occurs in large
intestine. The functions of large intestine are:
(a) Absorption of water, some minerals and certain drugs.
(b) Secretion of mucus which helps in lubricating and adhering the faeces.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 194
Incorrect statement w.r.t. diarrhoea is
Options:
It reduces the absorption of food
There is abnormal frequency of bowel movement
Increased liquidity of faecal discharge
There is inadequate enzyme secretion
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint : Cause of indigestion

Sol. : The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, overeating, etc.
In this condition, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
What is common between pepsin, maltase and amylase?
Options:
These are produced in intestine
These are carbohydrate splitting enzymes
These are proteinaceous in nature and acts at same temperature
These are proteinaceous enzymes that acts on substrate at same pH
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Almost all enzymes are proteins.

Sol. : Pepsin is a proteolytic gastric enzyme that acts at low pH (acidic).

Maltase is an intestinal enzyme that acts on maltose at alkaline pH.

All enzymes act at same temperature i.e., body temperature.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 196
A proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in curdling of milk protein is
Options:
Rennin
Trypsin
Pepsin
Amylase
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Enzyme active at low pH

Sol. : Rennin is a milk protein curdling enzyme in infants. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme of the stomach.
Amylase and trypsinogen (active form is trypsin) are pancreatic enzymes.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 197
Chylomicrons are globules which are transported into in the villi.

Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A and B respectively.
Options:
A - Protein coated fat, B - Blood capillaries
A - Fat coated protein, B - Lacteals
A - Protein coated fat, B - Lacteals
A - Fat coated protein, B - Blood capillaries
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint : Chylomicrons are transported into lymph vessels.

protein coated fat globules called the
Sol. : Fatty acids and glycerol are re-formed into very small
chylomicrons which are transported into lymph vessels (lacteals) in the villi.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 198
If in a ds B-DNA fragment 200 bases are present then what would be its length?
Options:
340 Å
340 nm
0.34 nm
34 Å
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Rise per bp would be 3.4 Å

or 3.4 nm.
Sol. : The pitch of ds B-DNA is 34Å

1 pitch = 10 bp

Length of ds B-DNA fragment containing 10 bp = 34 Å

∴ Length of ds B-DNA fragment containing 200 bases or 100 bp

You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Which of the following is a colorimetric method that can estimate the presence of carbohydrates, both
reducing and non-reducing?
Options:
Fehling’s test
Anthrone test
Biuret test
Widal test
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint : Fehling’s test is negative for table sugar.

Sol. : Fehling’s test is negative with reducing sugars. Biuret test is a colorimetric test for proteins.

Widal test is a diagnostic test for typhoid/enteric fever.

You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section B
Question : 200
Assertion (A): The Michaelis Menten constant (Km) can be used to compare catalytic efficiency of
two different enzymes.

Reason (R): The Km value is numerically equal to the substrate concentration at which ½ of Vmax is
achieved.
In the light
of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.
Options:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is false but (R) is true
(A) is true but (R) is false
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint : Km indicates affinity of enzyme for substrate.

Sol. : Km is numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half of maximal velocity. The
catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by their Km values.

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Answer keys : AIATS for Repeater Medical-2022(XII Passed)_Test-01

Natural science does not include

Hint : Percentage error =

B. Stefan’s constant (Q) [ML0T–3K–4]

C. Boltzmann’s constant (R) [M–1L3T–2]

D. Planck’s constant (S) [ML2T–2K–1]

A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P)

A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)

A(R), B(Q), C(S), D(P)

A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)

[Boltzmann’s constant] = [ML2T–2K–1]

[Stefan’s constant] = [ML0T–3K–4]

[Planck’s constant] = [ML2T–1]

Sol. : 414.4 × 94 = 38953.6

The value of (994)1/3 according to binomial theorem is

Hint : (where Δa << a)

The value of 270° in radian is

∴ 270° is equal to rad

Which of the following physical quantity has derived unit?

The pair of quantities having same dimensions is

Wavelength, angular velocity

Sol. : W = [MLT–2] [L]

If force is dimensionally correct, the dimensions of [xy] are

[x] = [Force] · [Area]

Now, [xy] = [ML3T–2] [MLT–2]

Hint : Distance travelled = of circumference of circle

First increases then decreases

Hint : Average speed =

When particle will momentarily comes to rest.

For velocity of man

Hint & Sol. : On using

So, the plot of S versus t is parabolic

Perpendicular to each other

Inclined to each other at an angle 45°

Parallel to each other

Anti-parallel to each other

Outside the car

In the car ahead of the person

In the car to the side of the person

Exactly in the hand which threw it up

The equation of a projectile is The velocity of projection of the projectile will be

Hint : Equation of trajectory of projectile is given by

On comparing with equation of trajectory

The magnitude of resultant of two vectors having magnitude 12 N and 6 N, can be

Therefore correct answer will be 10 N

A body is moving in a circular path with a constant speed. It has

An acceleration of constant magnitude

An acceleration which varies in magnitude with time

A particle is projected with an initial velocity The equation of trajectory of the

Sol. : In x-directionx = uxt

If angle between two vectors is rad then angle between vectors is

The velocity of a particle as a function of time t is given as The displacement of

particle is 4 m s–1, then the radius R of the circle is nearly

Hint : Average speed =

Sol. : Average speed

Average speed – |Average velocity| = 4

Which of the following has maximum number of molecules?

Sol. : H2 : No. of molecules

Volume of N2 required at STP to produce 10 moles of NH3 through Haber’s process is

∴ Volume of N2 at STP = 5 × 22.4 L = 112 L

All P will be consumed

4 mole of R will form

σ1 s < σ1 s < σ2 s < σ 2 s < (π2 px = π2 py) < σ2 pz