CONTENTS

CBSE COMPENDIUM
Chapter Page
No.
Topic No.
PHYSICS

1. Electricity 1

2. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 10

S CIENCE

CHEMISTRY

3. Carbon and its compounds 15

4. Periodic Classification of elements 18

BIOLOGY

5. How do Organisms Reproduce? 23

6. Heredity and Evolution 28

7. Our Environment 32
PHYSICS
 Physics

PHYSICS ELECTRICITY
Short answer type questions (2 marks) 4. (i) Define electric power. Write down the
1. (i)What is the conventional direction of (a) Electric expression for electrical power.
current (b) Flow of electrons ? (ii) Calculate the energy consumed by 1200 W
(ii) A charge of 150 coulomb flows through a wire toaster in 200 minutes. (CBSE 2008)
in one minute. Find the electric current flowing Ans. (i) Electric power is rate of doing work or rate of
through it. consumption of energy.
Ans. (i) (a) Electric current flows from positive terminal
SI unit - Watt,
to negative terminal of supply source.
1 watt = 1 Volt Ampere
(b) Flow of electron is opposite to the flow of
P = VI
electric current from supply source.
(ii) Given : Charge (Q) = 150 coulomb 2 V2
or P = I R = (Using relation, V = IR)
Time (t) = 1 minute = 60 sec. R
1200
Current (I) = ? (ii) Given, P = 1200 W = kW,,
1000
Q 150
I= = = 2.5 Amp. 200
t 60 t = 200 min = hr
60
2. (i) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting
Energy consumed, E = P × t
of battery of two cells (each of 1.5 V), 5 W resistor,
10 W resistor and 15 W resistor and a plug key, 1200 200
= ´ kWh = 4 kWh
all connected in series. (CBSE 2009) 1000 60
(ii) Why is a series arrangement not used for 5. (i) A lamp rated 100 W and 220 V is connected
connecting domestic electrical appliances in a to mains electric supply. What current is drawn
circuit? (CBSE 2008) from the supply line, if the voltage is 220 V?
(ii) Which one is having lesser resistance : A 60 W
5W 10W 15W bulb or a 40 W bulb? (CBSE 2010, 2011)
Ans. (i) Ans. (i) Given : P = 100 W, V = 220 V

I Q P = VI

Battery P 100
K \I= = = 0.45 A
V 220
+ –
3V V2
(ii) Power (P) =
(ii) If one device gets damaged (or open), the circuit R
will break and all devices will stop working. 1
\ Rµ , if V is constant.
3. (i) Keeping the resistance of a circuit constant, the P
potential difference across it is doubled, how Hence, bulb of higher wattage will have less
will the current change? resistance. In other words, resistance of 60 W
bulb is less than the resistance of 40 W bulb.
(ii) A wire of resistivity ‘r’ is pulled to double its
length. What will be its new resistivity? 6. The voltage - current (V-I) graph of a metallic circuit
at two different temperature T1 and T2 is shown.
Ans. (i) Ohm’s Law says that resistance is a constant and
Which of the two temperatures is higher and why?
potential difference and current are directly
(CBSE 2010)
proportional to each other. This means that
current will also be doubled. OR
(ii) Resistivity does not depend upon the length of The voltage - current (V-I) graph of a metallic
the wire; it is the property of the material. conductor at two different temperatures T1 and T2
Resistivity will not change, so the resistivity will is shown in figure. At which temperature is the
be r. resistance higher? (CBSE 2011, 2012)

1
CBSE : Class X
8. List in a tabular form two differences between a
T2
voltmeter and an ammeter.

V T1 Ans. S.No. Voltmeter Ammeter

(i) Used to measure Used to measure
the potential the current.
difference.
I
(ii) Connected in Connected in
Ans. The slope of V-I graph gives the resistance of parallel in the series in the
metallic conductor. electric circuit. electric circuit.
(iii) Has high Has low
Since, slope of V-I graph at temperature T2 is resistance. resistance.
greater than the slope of V-I graph at temperature
9. (i) Calculate the electrical energy consumed by a
T1, therefore, resistance at T 2 is greater than
1200 W toaster in 30 minute.
resistance at T1. Since, resistance of a metallic
conductor increases with increase in temperature, (ii) What will be the cost of using the same for 1
month if one unit of electricity costs ` 4?
therefore, T2 > T1.
Ans. (i) Given, P = 1200 W,
7. (a) What is meant by ‘Electric Resistance’ of
t = 30 min = 0.5 hour
conductor? (CBSE 2013)
Electrical energy (E) = P × t
(b) A wire of length L and resistance R is stretched
so that its length is doubled and the area of cross = 1200 × 0.5
section is halved. How will its (i) resistance = 600 WH = 0.6 kWH.
change? (ii) resistivity change? (ii) Energy consumed is 30 days
(CBSE 2007, 2011, 2012, 2013) = 0.6 × 30 = 18 kWH = 18 units
Ans. (a) Electric resistance (R) of a conductor is defined Cost of using 18 units = `4 ×18 = `72
as the ratio of potential difference (or voltage)
10. State the factors on which the heat produced in a
across the conductor to the current passing
current carrying conductor depends. Give one
V practical application of the heating effect of current.
through the conductor. That is, R = .
I
Ans. Factors : Square of current, resistance of the given
conductor, time in which the current flows.
rL
(b) (i) We know, R = ......(1) Application : Electric heating devices, like electric
A
iron /electric heater/electric bulb/electric fuse.
When L'(new length) = 2L and A' (new area
11. In the circuit diagram shown, the two resistance
of cross-section) = A/2
wires A and B are of same area of cross-section and
rL' r ×2L (rL) same material, but A is longer than B. Which
R' = = =4 ......(2) ammeter A1 and A2 will indicate higher reading of
A' A/2 A
current? Give reason. (CBSE 2010, 2011)
R'
Dividing (2) by (1), we get =4 A
R A1
or R' = 4R
Thus, the resistance of the wire becomes 4 B
A2
times its original resistance.
(ii) Since, resistivity of a wire does not depend
+ –
on its length and area of cross-section, so
the resistivity of the wire remains the same.

2
 Physics
Ans. The current in the circuit is high if the resistance of 15. Calculate the total current flowing through the re-
the circuit is low. Since wire A is longer than B, so sistors.
the resistance of wire B is less than the resistance
2W
of wire A. Hence, current flowing through wire B is
greater than the current flowing through wire A.
Therefore, ammeter A2 will indicate higher reading 4W
of current.
12. Two wires, one of copper and other of manganin,
have equal lengths and equal resistances. Which
4V
wire is thicker? Given that resistivity of copper is
lower than that of manganin. (CBSE 2011) Ans. Given, R1 = 2W, R2 = 4W, V = 4 V

rl rl V
Ans. We know, R = or A = V = IR, or I =
A R R

Since l and R of both the wires same, so A µ r. In the given circuit, equivalent resistance is
Since, resistivity (r) of manganin is higher than that R1 R 2 2´4 8
of copper, so manganin wire is thicker than that of R = R +R = = = 1.33
1 2 2+4 6
copper wire.
13. Graphs between electric current and potential 4
\I= =3A
difference across two conductors A and B are 1.33
plotted as shown in figure. Which of the two 16. How would the reading of voltmeter change if it is
conductors has more resistance? connected between B and C?
B – +
V
A
A A 1W B 3W C 2W D

O 3V
V

Ans. In this case, resistance of a conductor Ans. Here, supply voltage, Vs = 3 V, R1 = 1 W,

1 R2 = 3W, R3 = 2W
= .
Slope of graph between V and I
All the resistors are connected in series, thus equal
Since, slope of graph between V and I for the
current flows through all resistors
conductor A is less than the slope for the conductor
B. So, the conductor A has more resistance than Req = R1 + R2 + R3 = 6 W
the conductor B.
14. The resistance of a wire of length 80 cm and of Vs 3
Vs = IR, or I = = = 0.5 A
uniform area of cross-section 0.025 cm2, is found R 6
to be 1.50 ohm. Calculate specific resistance of wire When voltmeter is connected between A and B,
in SI units. the reading of voltmeter is
Ans. Given, R= 1.50 W,
A = 0.025 cm2 = 0.025 × 10–4 m2, V = IR1 = 0.5 × 1 = 0.5 V
l = 80 cm = 80 × 10–2 m When voltmeter is connected between B and C,
l RA the reading of voltmeter is
R= r or r =
A l
V = IR3 = 0.5 × 3 = 1.5 V
1.50 ´ 0.025 ´ 10-4
= = 4.6 × 10–6 Wm Thus the reading of voltmeter increases.
80 ´ 10-2
3
CBSE : Class X
17. One lamp is rated 40 W at 220 V and the other 20. Should the heating element of an electric iron be
60 W at 220 V. These two lamps are connected in made of iron, silver or nichrome wire?
parallel to a 220 V supply. Calculate the current (CBSE (Foreign) 2005)
drawn from the supply line. OR
Ans. Given, P1 = 40 W, P2 = 60 W, V = 220 V Why are conductors of electric heating devices, such
as toasters and electric iron made of an alloy, like
40W
nichrome, rather than pure metals?
Ans. It should be made of nichrome wire because
60W (i) resistivity of nichrome is greater than that of iron
and silver, so more heat is produced in the
nichrome wire due to the flow of current.
220V (ii) melting point of nichrome wire is greater than
PT = P1 + P2 = 100 W that of iron and silver and hence it does not melt
Q PT = VI, easily on heating.
(iii) nichrome wire does not oxidise (or burn) easily
PT 100 even at higher temperature.
\ I= = = 0.45 A
V 220 21. For the circuit shown in fig., calculate
18. Fuses of 3A, 5A and 10A are available. Calculate 5W
and select the fuse for operating an electric iron of I1
1 kW power at 220 V. 10W
I2
Ans. Given, P = 1 kW = 1000 W, V = 220 volt 30W
I I3 I
Q P = VI
–
A +
P 1000
\ I= = = 4.54A 6V
V 220
(a) the value of current through each resistor
Thus 5 ampere fuse must be used.
(b) the total current in the circuit
Short answer type questions (3 marks) (c) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
19. Two identical resistors each of resistance 12 W are Ans. (a) R1 = 5 W, R2 = 10 W, R3 = 30 W;
connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel, in turn to a potential difference across each resistor, V = 6 volt
battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of power
V 6
consumed in the combination of resistors in the two Clearly, I1 = = = 1.2 A
R1 5
cases.
Ans. Here V = 6 Volt. V 6
I2 = = = 0.6 A and
R 2 10
(i) When resistors are connected in series, net
resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 12 + 12 = 24 W. V 6
I3 = = = 0.2 A
R 3 30
V 2 36
Power consumed, Ps = = = 1.5 W (b) Total current, I = I1 + I2 + I3
R 24
= 1.2 A + 0.6 A + 0.2 A = 2 A
(ii) When resistors are connected in parallel, net (c) Since R 1, R 2 and R 3 are in parallel, total
resistance, effective resistance of the circuit, i.e., RP is given
R1 R2 12 ´ 12 by
R= = =6W
R1 + R 2 24 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + = + +
R p R1 R 2 R 3 5 10 30
V 2 36
Power consumed, Pp = = =6W 6 + 3 +1 1
R 6 = = or Rp = 3 W
30 3
Pp 6
\ = =4
Ps 1.5

4
 Physics
22. In the circuit shown in fig. calculate : Ans. Given, Req = 0.5W, r1 = 2W, r2 = 2W, r3 = ?

2W 4W 1 1 1 1
D = + +
C E R eq r1 r2 r3
I1
1 rr 1 4 1
6W or = 12 + = +
A B 0.5 r1 + r2 r3 4 r3
I2 10 1
or =1+
+ – 5 r3
3V 1
or 2 – 1 =
r3
(a) total resistance in arm CE,
or r3 = 1 W
(b) current in each arm, i.e., AB and CE of the circuit.
25. In the given circuit diagram, calculate:
(c) total current drawn from the battery
A 3W B 1W C
Ans. (a) RCE = 2 W + 4 W = 6 W
V 3
(b) IAB = = = 0.5 A and 3W 2W
R AB 6

V 3
ICE = = = 0.5 A (Q RCE = 6W)
R CE 6 F 3W E 3W D
(c) Total current, I = I1 + I2 = 0.5 A + 0.5 A = 1A (i) Total resistance between the points B and E.
23. A 4 kW heater is connected to a 220 V source of (ii) Total resistance between the points A and F.
power. Calculate Ans. (i) Between the points B and E, the resistors
between the point BC, CD and DE are in series.
(i) the electric current passing through the heater.
Thus their equivalent resistance is
(ii) the resistance of the heater.
R1 = 1 W + 2 W + 3 W = 6 W
(iii) the electric energy consumed in a 2 hours use
This resistance is in parallel with R2 = 3 W
of the heater. (across BE)
Ans. Given : Power of heater, P = 4 kW = 4000 W
R1 R 2 6 ´ 3 18
Voltage of source of power, V = 220 V \ RBE = = = =2W
R1 + R 2 6 + 3 9
(i) Since, P = VI (I is the current) (ii) The effective resistance between the points A
and F is
P 4000
or I = = = 18.18 A RAF = RAB + RBE + REF
V 220
=3W+2W+3W=8W
(ii) Power, P is also given by 26. What is electrical resistivity? In a series electrical
P = I2R circuit comprising a resistor made up of a metallic
wire, the ammeter reads 5 A. The reading of the
P 4000 ammeter decreases to half when the length of the
or R = = = 12 W (approx)
I2 (18.18)2 wire is doubled. Why?
Ans. Resistivity of a conductor is ‘the resistance offered
(iii) Electric energy consumed is given by,
by a uniform conducting wire having unit length
E = P ×t
and unit area of cross-section’.
\ E = 4 kW × 2h = 8 kWh Resistance is directly proportional to the length (l)
or E = 8 unit of a conductor.
24. The overall resistance of the circuit below is 0.5 W. Rµl
Calculate the value of resistance r3. As the length doubles, the resistance also doubles.
According to Ohm's law, the current is inversly
r1 = 2W proportional to the resistance (Keeping V constant).
r2 = 2W V
V = IR, or I =
R
r3 = ?
As the resistance doubles, the current gets reduced
to half.
5
CBSE : Class X
27. Express Joule's law of heating mathematically. Since, both 8W resistors are in parallel
What is the resistance of 12 m wire having radius combination ; the main current will equally
2 × 10–4 m and specific resistivity 3.14 × 10–8 Wm?
divide through them.
Ans. The energy supplied to the circuit by a source (like
I
a battery) in time t is given by, Therefore, reading of ammeter A1 =
2
E = P ×t = V ×I ×t [Q P = V × I ] 1
= = 0.5 A
This energy (E) gets dissipated in the resistor as heat. 2
(b) For the given circuit, potential difference across
Thus, for a steady current I, the amount of heat H
4W resistor,
produced in time t is V1 = I × R1 = 1 × 4 = 4 V .......(1)
H = V ´ I ×t If both 8W resistors are connected in series in
Applying Ohm’s law, i.e., V = I × R, we get, the given circuit, then new equivalent resistance
of circuit will be,
H = I2 R t R'eq = 4 + 8 + 8 = 20 W
This is known as Joule’s law of heating.
V 8
l \ Main current, I' = = = 0.4 A
12 R ' eq 20
R= r = 3.14 ´ 10-8 ´
A
( )
2
3.14 ´ 2 ´ 10-4
So, now potential difference across 4 W resistor
will be,
or R = 3 W [Q A = pr2 = 3.14 × (2 × 10–4)2 m2]
V'1 = I' × R1 = 0.4 × 4 = 1.6 V .......(2)
Case based questions (4 marks) Thus, using relation (1) & (2), we can say that
28. A student sets up an electric circuit as shown below. the potential difference across 4 W resistor would
decrease by 2.4 volts.
A 4W B
(c) If a short wire (i.e. zero resistance wire) is
+ +
8V A1 connected in parallel with 4W resistor in the
– –
given circuit, the 4W resistor will be bypassed
K 8W 8W by the current flowing in the circuit and this
–A +
2 resistor will then not be a part of given circuit.
D C
So, in this situation, the circuit becomes as
Based on the circuit completed by the student,
answer the following questions: shown below.
(a) Find the reading of ammeter A1. A B
(b) Will the potential difference across the 4 W +
resistor increase or decrease, if both the 8 W
+
8V A1
resistors are connected in series in the circuit? – –
Show the calculations. K 8W 8W
(c) How much power will be consumed by each –A +
8 W resistor if a short wire (i.e. wire of zero D
2
C
resistance) is connected in parallel with the
4 W resistor in the circuit given in the question? Now, power consumed by each 8 W resistor,
OR
V 2 82
Calculate the change in the reading of ammeter P= = = 8 watt
A2, if one of the 8 W resistors is removed by R 8
the student from the circuit given in the OR
question?
For the circuit given in question, the reading of
Ans. (a) Equivalent resistance of circuit,
ammeter A2,
8´8 I=1A
Req = 4W + W =8W
(8 ´ 8) [as calculated in section 'a' of question]
If one of the 8 W resistor is removed from the
Main current supplied by battery of 8 V,
circuit given in question, the circuit is reduced
V 8
I= R = 8 =1A to as shown below :
eq

6
 Physics

A 4W B
(c) If bulb B3 gets fused, the total power consumed,
P' = P1 + P2 = 40 + 60 = 100 W .....(1)
+
Power consumed by bulb B2,
8V
– 8W P2 = 60 W .....(2)
K
P' 100 5
–A + \ = =
D
2
C P2 60 3
Thus, the new reading of ammeter A2 will be, Þ P' : P2 = 5 : 3
OR
V 8 8 If bulb B2 gets fused, only bulbs B1 and B3 will
I' = = = = 0.67 A
R eq (8 + 4) 12 remain operating. Then total power consumed
in circuit,
Thus, change in reading of ammeter A2,
P' = P1 + P3 = 40 + 100 = 140 W
DI = I' – I = 0.67 – 1 = –0.33 A \ Reading of ammeter A will be,
i.e. The reading of ammeter A2 will decrease
by 0.33 A. P' 140 7
I' = = = A ......(1)
29. B1, B2 and B3 are three bulbs of rated voltage each V 220 11
and rated power of 40 W, 60 W and 100 W and Reading of ammeter A1 will be,
respectively. All these three bulbs are connected in P1 40 2
parallel to a 220 V supply source with an ammeter I1 = = = A ......(2)
V 220 11
in series with each bulb, as shown in the electric Therefore, from relation (1) & (2),
circuit below. An additional ammeter A is also
connected in series with 220 V supply source. I' 7
= Þ I' : I1 = 7 : 2
I1 2
B1
A1 30. Four different resistors of 2 W, 3 W, 4 W and 6 W
B2
A2
are provided to a group of students by their teacher
to study the series-parallel combination of resistors.
B3
A3 Students can use a 9 volt battery, a plug key, an
Switch ammeter and a voltmeter to connect them in the
A circuit as per their requirements.
220 V
Power supply Based on the above information, answer the
Based on the above circuit, answer the following following questions :
questions:
(a) The students make a network of resistors by
(a) Calculate the total power consumed in the circuit.
connecting the 3 W and 6 W resistors in parallel
(b) What will be the reading shown by ammeter A?
with the series combination of 2 W and 4 W
(c) What will be the ratio of total power consumed
resistors. They connect the provided battery
in the circuit to the power consumed by bulb B2,
across the terminals of series combination of 2
if bulb B3 gets fused?
W and 4 W resistors. Draw the network of
OR
resistors made by students.
What will be the ratio of the reading of ammeter
A to the reading of ammeter A1, if bulb B2 gets (b) What is the equivalent resistance of the resistors'
fused? network formed by the students?
Ans. (a) Total power consumed in the circuit, (c) What will be the reading of ammeter if it is
P = 40 + 60 + 100 = 200 W connected in the branch of the circuit having
(b) Reading of ammeter A, 4 W resistor?

P 200 OR
I= = = 0.91 A
V 220 What will be the reading of voltmeter if it is
connected in parallel with the 2 W resistor?

7
CBSE : Class X
Ans. (a) The network of resistors made by the students 32. The current flowing through a resistor connected in
is as shows below : an electrical circuit and the potential difference
6W developed across its ends are shown in the given
G H diagrams.
3W
E F
0 20 0 2
C D 10 1
I 2W 4W I 0 0

3 00

3
A – (·) B
+
9V K
(b) The equivalent resistance of branch CD,
mA V
RCD = 2 + 4 = 6 W
Branch CD, EF and GH are in parallel.
Therefore, equivalent resistance of circuit, can Find the value of resistance of the resistor in ohms.
be calculated as, Ans. Current, I = 180 mA = 180 × 10–3 A
Potential difference, V = 1.8 V
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + = + + V 1.8
R e q R CD R EF R GH 6 3 6 Resistance = = = 10 W
I 180 ´ 10-3
33. The following apparatus are available in a laboratory:
1 + 2 +1 4 Cell : Adjustable from 0 to 4.5 Volt,
= =
6 6 Resistors : 3 W and 6 W,
Ammeters : A1 of Range 0 to 3 A; Least count 0.1 A,
6
Þ Req = = 1.5 W A2 of Range 0 to 1 A; Least count 0.05 A,
4
Voltmetres : V1 of Range 0 to 10 V; Least count 0.5 V,
(c) Potential difference across branch CD (which V2 of Range 0 to 5 V; Least count 0.1 V
has 4 W resistor in it) is 9 volts. Reading of
Find the best combination of voltmeter and ammeter
ammeter connected in CD branch,
for finding the equivalent resistance of the resistors
in series.
V 9
ICD = = = 1.5 A Ans. Equivalent resistance, R = 3 W + 6 W = 9 W
RCD 6
Maximum voltage to be measured, V = 4.5 volt
OR Maximum current to be measured,
The reading of voltmeter, when it is connected V 4.5
I= = = 0.5 A
in parallel with the 2 W resistor in CD branch, R 9
will be These requirements of measuring this current and
voltage are fulfilled by ammeter A2 and voltmeter
V 9 V2. Also these two instruments are more accurate
V2 = ICDR2 = ´ R2 = ´ 2 = 3 V
R CD 6 due to their smaller least counts 0.05 A and 0.1 V
respectively.
Practical based questions (2 marks)
34. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor
31. An ammeter has 20 divisions between mark 0 and
for the corresponding value of potential difference
mark 2 on its scale. Find the least count of the
V across the resistor are as given below :
ammeter.
Range I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
Ans. Least count =
Total number of divisions V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
2-0
= = 0.1 A. Plot a graph between V and I and also calculate the
20
resistance of that resistor.

8
 Physics
35. The rest position of the pointers of a milliammeter
and voltmeter not in use are as shown in Fig A. When
a student uses these in his experiment, then the
Y
reading of pointers are in position shown in Fig B.
Ans.
14 Calculate the corrected value of current and voltage
12 in this experiment.
10
8 mA
6 V
V(volt)

5
4
2 0 0.5
0 X 0
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
I (ampere) Fig.A

40 mA 3 4 V
30
Resistance = Slope of graph

Y - intercept (10.2 – 0) V
= = = 3.4 W Fig.B
X - intercept (3.0 – 0) A
Ans. Currrent, I = 34 mA
Thus, the resistor of the resistor is 3.4 W. Voltage, V = 3.3 – 0.2 = 3.1 V
[Q There is a positive error of 0.2 V in voltmeter.]

9
CBSE : Class X

PHYSICS MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Short answer type questions (2 marks)
1. (i) How can we find out the direction of magnetic
field at a point on the magnetic field line?
(ii) Why does a compass needle get deflected when
brought near a bar magnet?
Ans. (i) We can find the direction of magnetic field at a
point on the magnetic field line by placing a
magnetic compass at that point or drawing a
tangent to the magnetic field line at that point.
S N
figure 1
A insulated and attached to an axle. The external
Direction of magnetic field at A
(a tangent at A)
figure 2
(ii) Magnetic field of the bar magnet applies force
on the compass needle (which is itself a small
bar magnet) when brought near it. This force
on needle deflects the needle.
2. (i) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines around
a straight current carrying conductor.
(ii) On what factors does the magnetic field due to
a current carrying straight conductor depends?
3. (i)When will a current carrying conductor
experience no force when placed in a magnetic
field?
(ii) Explain the construction of electric motor with
diagram.
Ans. (i) The force experienced by a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field is zero
when the conductor is placed such that the
direction of current in it is parallel or antiparallel
to the direction of magnetic field.
(ii) Construction of electric motor : An electric
motor consists of a rectangular coil ABCD made
of an insulated copper wire. The coil consists
of large number of turns and it is wound on a
soft iron core. The coil is placed between the
two poles of a magnetic field such that the arms
AB and CD are perpendicular to the direction
of the magnetic field. The ends of the coil are
connected to the two half-rings R1 and R2 called
split rings. The inner sides of split rings are
conducting edges of R 1 and R 2 touch two
conducting stationary brushes (usually made of
carbon) B1 and B2 respectively.
F
B C
F
N S
Magnetic field
A D

Axle R 1 R2

Ans. (i) B1 B2

N
– +
S 4. What are the factors on which the magnetic field at
I the centre of the current carrying circular coil
depends?
Ans. Magnetic field at the centre of the current carrying
(ii) The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular coil depends on the following factors
straight conductor depends on (i) Inversely on the radius of the coil.
(a) magnitude of electric current (B µ I) (ii) Directly on the strength of current flowing
1 through the coil.
(b) distance from the conductor (B µ )
r (iii) Directly on the number of turns in the coil.

10

5. On what factors does the magnetic field produced
by a current carrying solenoid depend?
(CBSE 2010)
Ans. (i) the strength of the current flowing through the
solenoid.
(ii) the number of turns of the wire of the solenoid.
(iii) the nature of the material inside the solenoid.
6. Current is flowing clockwise in a circular coil lying
in the plane of a table. State the direction of the
magnetic field inside and outside the coil.
State right hand thumb rule.
OR
Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane
of a table. Let the current pass through the loop
clockwise. Apply the right hand rule to find the direction
of the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
Ans. Magnetic field inside the coil is perpendicular to the
plane of the table and in the downward direction.
However, outside the coil, the magnetic field is
perpendicular to the plane of the table and in the
upward direction.
Right hand thumb rule : ‘Imagine that you are
holding a current-carrying straight conductor in your
right hand and the thumb is stretched along the
direction of current, then, your fingers will wrap
around the conductor in the direction of the field
lines of the magnetic field’.
N S
S
I +
Physics
7. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a
galvanometer. What would be seen if a bar magnet
with its south pole facing the plane of the coil is
(a) moved quickly towards it ? (CBSE 2010)
(b) moved quickly away from it?
(c) placed near coil's one face?
Name the phenomena involved.
Ans. (a) There is deflection in the needle of the
galvanometer.
(b) There is deflection in the needle of the
galvanometer but in opposite direction.
(c) There is no deflection in the needle of the
galvanometer.
'Electromagnetic induction' is the phenomena
involved here.
8. A horizontal power line carries current in east to
west direction. What is the direction of the magnetic
field due to the current in the power line at a point
above and at a point below the power line?
Ans. Using right-hand thumb rule,
(i) the direction of magnetic field at a point above
the power line is from south to north,
(ii) the direction of magnetic field at a point below
the power line is from north to south.
Power line N
W E
S
9. What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic
field lines of a solenoid through which a steady
currents flows. What does the pattern of field lines
inside the solenoid indicate?
Ans. Solenoid : A coil of many circular turns of insulated
copper wire wrapped in the shape of cylinder is
called solenoid.
N
–
K
The pattern of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid
indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all
points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform
inside the solenoid.
11
CBSE : Class X
10. (i) A stationary charge is placed in a magnetic Thumb : Force (or motion)
field. Will it experience a force? Give reason to
justify your answer.

(ii) Name and state the rule which gives the direction
Fore finger : Field
of force experienced by a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field.

Ans. (i) No, a magnetic field exerts a force only on

moving charges. Central finger : Flow of positive
charge
(ii) Fleming's Left Hand Rule:
Here, the direction of a-particle is the direction of
According to this rule, "Stretch the tumb
positive charge. Hence, according to Fleming's left
forefinger and middle finger of your left hand
hand rule, the direction of force acting on a-particle
such that they are mutually perpendicular to
each other. is perpendicular to both the direction of motion of
a-particle and the direction of magnetic field. Hence
If the first finger points in the direction of
magnetic field and the middle finger in the a-particle will move perpendicular into the plane
direction of current, then the thumb will point of the paper.
in the direction of motion or the force acting on
13. Find the direction of magnetic field due to a current
the conductor."
carrying circular coil held :
11. (i) On what factors does the direction of force
experienced by a conductor when placed in a (i) Vertically in North-South plane and an observer
magnetic field depend? looking it from East sees the current to flow in
(ii) Under what conditions is the force experienced anti-clockwise direction.
by a current carrying conductor placed in a
(ii) Vertically in East-West plane and an observer
uniform magnetic field maximum?
looking it from South sees the current to flow
Ans. (i) The direction of force depends on the direction
in anti-clockwise direction.
of current and direction of magnetic field.

(ii) The force is maximum when the direction of
current is at right angles to the direction of
magnetic field.
Ans. (i)
Short answer type questions (3 marks)
12. An a-particle enters a uniform magnetic field at right
angles to it as shown in figure. Stating the relevant
principle, explain in which direction will this
a-particle move? (CBSE 2014)
a-particle
Magnetic
field
Ans. According to Fleming's left hand rule, the force
acting on a charged partical projected perpendicular
to a magnetic field is perpendicular to the direction
of flow of positive charge and the magnetic field.
(iii) Horizontally and an observer looking at it from
below sees current to flow in clockwise direction.
When the coil is kept in the North-South plane
and the current is flowing anti-clockwise through
the loop while observed from east, then the
magnetic field is in the West to East direction.
(ii) When the coil is in vertically East-West plane and
current through the coil is in anti-clockwise
direction, then the magnetic field is in the North
to South direction.
(iii) When a circular coil carrying current is placed
horizontally and the direction of the current is
clockwise as seen by observer below coil, then the
direction of the field for the observer, positioned
below the coil, is in the upward direction.

12

Case based questions (4 marks)
14. Ranjan fixed a sheet of paper on a horizontal
drawing board and insert a straight conducting wire
through the center of the board. He sprinkles some
iron filings on the board, in surroundings of the
conductor and makes a current flow through the
conductor by setting up an electric circuit as shown
in the figure below. He taps the board gently and
observes that iron filings arrange themselves in a
particular pattern.
Compass Current
–
Ammeter A needle
+
+ (a) If the magnitude of current through the coil P is
Battery
– changed continuously, will any current be
Plastic board
Rh Key
(a) What does the pattern made by iron filings
indicate?
(b) What will happen to the magnetic field lines
around the straight conductor, if the current
through it is increased?
(c) What does a tangent drawn at a point on
magnetic field lines show? If an electron beam
moving upwards passes parallel to the straight
current carrying conductor shown above, will it
deflect or not from its original path?
OR
In above arrangement, if the current flow
through the straight conductor is made vertically
upwards, will the magnetic field around the
conductor be seen clockwise or anticlockwise to
Ranjan observing the top view of the drawing
board? If a neutron moving upwards passes
parallel to the straight current carrying
conductor, will the neutron deviate from its
original path or it will go undeviated?
Ans. (a) The pattern made by iron filings indicates for
magnetic field lines.
(b) If the current through the conductor is
increased, the magneitc field lines surrounding
the conductor will become crowded i.e. the space
between magnetic field lines will get reduced
due to increase in the strength of the magnetic
field.
(c) The tangent drawn at a point on magneitic field
lines indicates the direction of magnetic field at
that point.
The electron beam, moving upwards and
passing parallel to the given straight current
carrying conductor, will experience a magnetic
force, therefore it will deflect from its original
path. The direction of deflection of electron
beam can be found using fleming's left hand rule.
Physics
OR
The magnetic field lines around the conductor
will be seen anticlockwise by Ranjan. A neutron
doesn't have any charge on it, therefore it will
not experience any magnetic force on it and will
go undeviated while passing parallel to the
striaght current carrying conductor.
15. Two circular coils P and Q faces each other and both
are kept close to each other. The coil P carries a
current but the coil Q does not have any current
flowing through it.
induced in coil Q?
(b) If both the coils are moved in the same direction
at same speed, what will you observe in Q?
(c) What will happen in coil Q, if the coil P is rotated
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
passing through its center, and Why?
OR
If the coil Q is made of a flexible conducting
material and it expand s and co ntract
periodically in its plane, What will happen in coil
Q, and Why?
Ans. (a) If magnitude of current through coil P is changed
continuously, the magnetic field of coil P, which
is linked with coil Q, will get changed. Thus, an
induced current will flow through coil Q.
(b) If both the coils P and Q are moved in same
direction at same speed, there will be no emf
or current induced in coil Q because the
magnetic field of coil P, which is liked to coil Q,
does not change by the time.
(c) There will be no current induced in coil Q, if the
current carrying coil P is rotated about its central
axis perpendicular to its plane. This is so
because in this situation, the magnetic field of
coil P, linked with coil Q, does not vary.
OR
If coil Q is made of a flexible conducting
material and it expands and cont racts
periodically, the number of magnetic field lines
(due to magnetic field of coil P) passing through
the coil Q changes. Hence, the magnetic field
linked with the coil Q changes and a current is
induced in it.
13
CBSE : Class X

Important Notes

14
CHEMISTRY

CHEMISTRY
Short answer type questions (2 marks)
1. (i) What is organic chemistry?
(ii) What are hydrocarbons?
Ans. (i) The branch of chemistry that deals with study
of compounds of carbon except for oxides of
carbon, carbonate and hydrogen carbonate
salts is called organic chemistry.
(ii) The compounds of carbon and hydrogen are
called as hydrocarbons.
2. (i) Define Allotropy.
(ii) Which allotrope of carbon is having spherical
or tube like structure?
Ans. (i) The phenomena by virtue of which an element
can exist in two or more than two forms having
similar chemical properties but different
physical properties is called allotropy.
(ii) Fullerene
3. (i) Write the number of covalent bonds in the
molecule of butane, C4H10. (CBSE (AI) 2015)
(ii) How many lone pair of electrons are present
in water molecule?
Ans. (i) There are thirteen covalent bonds in molecule of
butane.
H H H H
H—C—C—C—C—H
H H H H
(ii) Two
4. (i) What is isomerism?
(ii) Write the molecular formula of decane.
Ans. (i) It is a phenomenon in which compounds have
the same molecular formula but different
structural formula.
(ii) C10H22
5. (i) Write the name and molecular formula of the fourth
member of alkane series. (CBSE (F) 2016)
(ii) Select saturated hydrocarbon from
C3H6, C5H10, C4H10, C6H14, C2H4
Ans. (i) The fourth member of the alkane series is
butane C4H10.
Chemistry
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
(ii) C6H14 and C4H10
6. Write the formula of functional group :
(i) aldehyde (ii) alcohol.
(CBSE Board term-II 2012)
H
Ans. (i) Aldehyde —C
O
(ii) Alcohol –OH
7. Why is fullerene so called ?
Ans. Fullerenes are so called because of their
resemblance in structure with the framework to
geodesic dome designed by American architect
Buckminster Fuller.
8. (i) How many covalent bonds are there in a
molecule of ethane (C2H6)?
(ii) Which type of bond exists between two atoms
of oxygen molecule?
Ans. (i) There are 7 covalent bonds in a molecule of
ethane.
(ii) double bond
9. Name the functional group present in each of the
following organic compounds:
(i) C2H5CI
(ii) C2H5OH
Ans. (i) (-Cl) Halogen (Chloro)
(ii) (-OH) Alcohol
10. (i) Among the following which is a covalent
compound?
CHCl3, CaCO3, NaHCO3, CaC2
(ii) Why carbon is called as tetravalent?
Ans. (i) CHCl 3 Carbon always forms co valent
compounds by sharing its electrons with other
atoms.
(ii) In every compound, the valency of carbon is 4.
Short answer type questions (3 marks)
11. Diamond and graphite show different physical
properties although they are made up of carbon.
Name this relationship between diamond and
graphite. Give the basis of this relationship also.
Ans. This relationship is called allotropy. The physical
properties are different because the carbon-carbon
bonding in both the case varies.
15
CBSE : Class X
Diamond is hard as in it one carbon atom is bonded
with four other carbon atoms with strong covalent
bond, while graphite is a soft in which each C-atom
is joined to three other C-atoms by strong covalent
bonds to form flat hexagonal rings.
The various layers of C-atoms in graphite are quite
far apart, so that covalent bonds can exist between
them. The various layers of carbon atom in graphite
are held together by weak van der Waal's forces,
they can slide over one another.
12. Explain why carbon generally forms compounds by
covalent bonds.
(CBSE Board term-II 2011)
14. Buckminsterfullerene is a spherical molecule in
which 60 carbon atoms are arranged in interlocking
hexagonal and pentagonal rings of carbon atoms.
(i) How many hexagons of carbon atoms are
present in one molecule of buckminsterfullerene?
(ii) How many pentagons of carbon atoms are
present in one molecule of buckminsterfullerene?
(iii) Give the names of some other members of
fullerene family.
Ans. (i) 20 hexagons
(ii) 12 pentagons
(iii) C70, C74 and C78
15. Write the electron-dot structures for
(i) ethane, (ii) ethene and (iii) ethyne.

Ans. Reactivity of an element is explained as its tendency Ans. (i) Ethane

to attain a completely filled outer shell configuration H
.. ..H
that is to attain its nearest noble gas configuration. H:C
.. : C
.. : H
Carbon has 4 electrons in its outer most shell. In H H
order to complete the shell, it should either gain (ii) Ethene
or loss electrons. H H
(a) It could gain four electrons forming C4-anion. C :: C
H H
But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six (iii) Ethyne
protons to hold on to ten electrons, that is, ..
four extra electrons. H : C .. .. C : H

(b) It would lose four electrons forming C4+ cation.
But it would require a large amount of energy
to remove four electrons leaving behind a
carbon cation with six protons in its nucleus
holding on to just two electrons.
Thus, carbon can neither gain nor lose 4
electrons but share with other atoms to attain
nearest noble gas configuration.
13. Give an example each of (i) open chain (ii) branched
chain and (iii) ring compounds.
Ans. (i) Open chain compound (n-pentane)
CH3– CH2– CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(ii) Branched chain compound (isobutane)
CH 3–CH–CH3
CH3
(iii) Ring (cyclopentane) :
CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
16. (i) What is the atomic number of carbon. Write its
electronic configuration.
(ii) What type of chemical bonds are formed by
carbon? Why?
(iii) Name the three allotropic forms of carbon.
Ans. (i) The atomic number of carbon is 6. Its electronic
configuration is 2, 4.
(ii) Carbon forms covalent bonds because it can
achieve the inert gas electron arrangement only
by sharing of electrons.
(iii) Diamond, graphite and buckminsterfullerene.
17. Give an example of each of the following.
(i) A carbon compound containing two double
bonds.
(ii) A molecule in which central atom is linked to
three other atoms.
(iii) An organic compound which is soluble in water.
(iv) An aromatic hydrocarbon
Ans. (i) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
O=C=O

16
 Chemistry

(ii) Ammonia molecule (NH3) H—N—H CH3–CH2–OH are similar?

H (iii) Write the molecular formula of first two

(iii) Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) or ethanoic acid
(CH3COOH) is soluble in water.
(iv) Benzene
18. (i) Why are most carbon compounds poor
conductors of electricity ? Ans. (i) Carboxylic acid
(ii) Write the name and structure of a saturated
compound in which the carbon atoms are
arranged in a ring. Give the number of single
bonds present in this compound.[CBSE 2018]
Ans. (i) Carbon compounds are covalent in nature and
20.
do not dissociate to form ions because of which
they are poor conductor of electricity.
(ii) Cyclohexane is the saturated compound in
which the carbon atoms are arranged in a ring.
Cyclohexane
It has 18 single bonds.
Case Based Questions (4 Marks)
19. Carbon forms most of the compounds with
hydrogen. But carbon also forms bonds with other
atoms such as halogen, oxygen, nitrogen and
sulphur. Therefore, carbon is said to be a very
friendly element.
These compounds are obtained by replacing one
Ans. (i)
or more hydrogen atoms by other atoms such that
the valency of carbon remains satisfied. The atom
or a group of atoms replacing the hydrogen atom
are called heteroatom or functional group
respectively.
(i) Which functional group is present in C2H4O2?
(ii) Why do chemical properties of CH3–OH and
members of homologous series having
functional group –Br.
OR
Which is a non terminal functional group? Which
heteroatom will be present in it ?
(ii) They have same functional group.
(iii) CH3Br are C2H5Br
OR
Ketone. Heteroatom present is oxygen.
An element E exists in three allotropic forms A, B
and C. In allotrope A, the atoms of element E are
joined to form spherical molecules. In allotrope B,
each atom of the element E is surrounded by three
other E atoms to form a sheet like structure. In
allotrope C, each atom of the element E is
surrounded by four other E atoms to form a rigid
structure.
(i) Name the element E.
(ii) What is the allotrope A?
(iii) (a) What is the allotrope B?
(b) What is the C-C bond length in B ?
OR
(i) Which allotrope is used in making jewellery?
(ii) Which allotrope is used in making anode of a
dry cell?
Element E : Carbon
(ii) Allotrope A : Buckminsterfullerene
(iii) (a) Allotrope B : Graphite
(b) 141.5 pm
OR
(i) C
(ii) B

17
CBSE : Class X
CHEMISTRY PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
Short answer type questions (2 marks)
1. (i) The elements A, B, C, D and E with atomic
number 2, 3, 7, 10 and 30 respectively. Which
pair of elements belongs to the same group?
(ii) Name two elements whose properties were
predicted on the basis of their positions in
Mendeleev's periodic table.
Ans. (i) A and D
(ii) Gallium (eka - Aluminium) and Germanium
(eka - Silicon). Their properties were predicted
on the basis of their positions in Mendeleev's
periodic table.
2. (i) A metal M forms an oxide having the formula
M2O3. It belongs to 3rd period in the modern
periodic table. Write the atomic number and
valency of the metal.
(ii) Use Mendeleev's periodic table to predict the
formula for the oxide of following element
K, C, Ba, Al.
Ans. (i) The formula of oxide of metal M is M2O3. It
indicates that the valency of Metal M is 3. It has
three valence electrons and belongs to group
13 since; it is present in 3rd period. The
element is Aluminium (Al).
(ii) K – I A -K2O
C – IV A -CO2
Ba – II A – BaO
Al – III A – Al2O3
3. (i) Out of Li, C and N, which forms the most basic
oxide and which forms the most acidic oxide?
(ii) Which group is the longest in the Modern
Periodic Table?
Ans. (i) Lithium forms the most basic oxide as it is a
metal and nitrogen forms the most acidic oxide
as it is a non-metal.
(ii) The third group is called the longest group
because it has maximum 32 elements.
4. (i) A metal M belongs to 2nd group and 3rd period
in the Modern Periodic Table. Write the valency
of the metal.
18
&&
(ii) What was Dobereiner ' s basis of classifying
elements?
Ans. (i) Atomic number = 12 (Mg)
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
Valency = 2
(ii) According to Dobereiner, elements having
similar properties can be arranged in triads in
which atomic mass of the middle element is the
mean of the atomic masses of the other two
elements.
5. Write the correct increasing order of the atomic
radii of O, F and N.
Ans. F < O < N because atomic radii decreases as the
atomic number increases in a period, due to increase
in effective nuclear charge.
6. Atomic number is considered to be a more
appropriate parameter than atomic mass for
classification of elements in a periodic table. Why?
Ans. The properties of elements depend upon valence
electrons in the atom which in turn depends on the
total number of electrons, i.e., atomic number.
Therefore, atomic number is a more appropriate
parameter than atomic mass for the classification
of elements.
7. Can the following groups of elements be classified
as Dobereiner's triads?
(i) Na, Si and Cl
(ii) Be, Mg and Ca
[Atomic mass of Be = 9, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Si = 28, Cl = 35.5 and Ca = 40]
Explain by giving reason.
Ans. (i) Na, Si and Cl have different properties,
therefore, they do not form a Dobereiner's triad
even through the atomic mass of the middle
atom (Si) is approximately the average of the
atomic masses of Na and Cl, i.e.,
Na (23), Si(28), Cl(35.5)
Average atomic mass of Na and Cl
23+35.5 58.5
= = = 29.25
2 2
(ii) Be, Mg and Ca have many similar properties
and also the atomic mass of the middle element
Mg is approximately the average of the atomic
masses of Be and Ca, i.e., Be(9), Mg(24) and
Ca(40)

Average atomic mass of Be and Ca
9 + 40 49
= = = 24.5
2 2
Therefore, they form a Dobereiner's triads.
8. In Mendeleev's periodic table, the elements were
arranged in the increasing order of their atomic
masses However, cobalt with atomic mass of 58.93
amu was placed before nickel having an atomic
mass of 58.71 amu. Give reason for the same.
Ans. In Mendeleev's periodic table, cobalt (Co) with the
higher atomic mass of 58.93 u is placed before
nickel (Ni) due to the following reasons
(i) The properties of cobalt are similar to those of
rhodium (Rh) and iridium (Ir) (same group).
(ii) The properties of nickle are similar to those of
palladium (Pd) and platinum (Pt) (same group).
9. State two main properties of elements on which
Mendeleev's periodic classification was based. Why
position of hydrogen is not fixed in his periodic table?
(CBSE Board term-II 2009, 2012)
Ans. (i) Physical and chemical properties of elements are
periodic function of their atomic masses.
(ii) Similar formula of oxides and hydrides formed
by elements of same group was selected as
chemical property as basis of classification. The
atomic mass of hydrogen is 1 and hence it should
occupy the first position in group 1 of the periodic
table. But because of its chemical similarity with
elements of group 1 and 17, the position of
hydrogen in the periodic table is not fixed.
10. Give an example of :
(i) a metal that is liquid at room temperature.
(ii) an inert gas (At. no < 20)
(CBSE Board term-II 2015)
Ans. (i) Mercury
(ii) Helium or Neon or Argon
Short answer type questions (3 marks)
11. (i) How does the electronic configuration of an
atom related to its position in the modern
periodic table?
(ii) Why did Mendeleeve leave gaps in the Periodic
Table?
Ans. (i) (a) The group number of elements having up
to two valence electrons is equal to the
number of valence electrons.
(b) The group number of elements having more
than two valence electrons is equal to the
number of valence electrons plus 10.
Chemistry
Number of
Group number
Valence
in Periodic Table
electrons
1 1 Group number = number
2 2 of valence electron
3 3 + 10 13 Group number = number
4 4 + 10 14 of valence electrons + 10
(c) For those elements, which do not have the
same number of valence electrons but have
same number of shells, the number of shells
is equal to the period number to which they
belong in the periodic table. For example :
2nd Period :
Li Be B C N O F Ne
2, 1 2, 2 2, 3 2, 4 2, 5 2, 6 2, 7 2, 8
(ii) In the classification of elements, Mendeleeve
was guided by two factors:
(a) Increasing atomic masses and
(b) Grouping of similar elements.
In view of the second factor, he left some
vacant places for elements which were yet
to be discovered though he could predict
their properties.
12. (i) What were the limitations of Newland's law
of Octaves ? (CBSE Board term-II 2016)
(ii) How does the tendency of the elements to
lose electrons change in the Modern Periodic
Table in a group and why ?
Ans. (i) The limitations of Newland's Law of Octaves
are
(a) The law was applicable to elements upto
calcium (Ca) only.
(b) It contained only 56 elements. Further it was
assumed by Newland that only 56 elements
existed in nature and no more elements
would be discovered in the future.
(c) In order to fit elements into the table,
Newland adjusted two elements in the same
column as fluorine, chlorine and bromine
which have very different properties than
these elements.Iron which resembles cobalt
and nickel in properties, has been placed
diffrently away from these elements.
19
CBSE : Class X
(ii) Increases down a group.
Reason : At each succeeding element down a
group the number of shells increases, so the
distance of the valence shell from the nucleus
increases, the effective nuclear force of
attraction decreases on the last shell, so it
becomes easy for the atom to lose electrons.
13. Name
(a) three elements having three electrons in their
outermost shells.
(b) three elements with completely filled outermost
shells having atomic number more than 25.
Ans. (a) Boron, aluminium and gallium, elements of
group 13.
(b) Krypton (atomic number = 36)
Xenon (atomic number = 54)
Radon (atomic number = 86)
14. Identify the elements with the following property
and arrange them in increasing order of their
reactivity.
(a) An element which is a soft and reactive metal.
(b) The metal which is an important constituent of
limestone.
(c) The metal which exists in liquid state at room
temperature.
Ans. (a) Na or K
(b) Ca
(c) Hg
Reactivity order: Hg < Ca < Na < K
15. Consider the following elements,
Li, Cl, Br, Na, K and I
(a) Arrange the elements according to the groups
to which they belong in the periodic table.
(b) Which of the element have been grouped
together on the basis of their common
properties ?
Ans. (a) Group 1 Group 17
Li Cl
Na Br
K I
(b) Li (2, 1), Na (2, 8, 1) and K (2, 8, 8, 1) are
grouped together in the periodic table and
belong to group I. They are grouped together
because all of them have one electron in their
valence shell.
20
Rest of the elements Cl (2, 8, 7), Br (2, 8, 18, 7)
and I (2, 8,18,18,7) are grouped together in
the periodic table and belong to group 17 as
they all have 7 electrons in their valence shell.
The element of group 17 are monovalent non-
metals. They form acidic oxides and are called
halogens.
16. An element A reacts with oxygen to form A2O.
(a) State the number of electrons in the outermost
orbit of A.
(b) To which group of periodic table does A
belong?
(c) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.
Ans. (a) A reacts with oxygen to form A2O. That means
two electrons are given to oxygen atoms by two
atoms of A. So each A atoms has one electron
in its outermost shell.
(b) A belongs to the first group of the periodic table
because its valency is 1.
(c) A is a metal.
17. Atoms of seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F and G
have different number of electronic shells but have
the same number of electrons in their outermost
shells. How will the following property vary as we
move from A to G? (a) Metallic character, (b) Atomic
radii, (c) Valency.
Ans. As all the given seven elements have the same
number of electrons in their outermost shell, they
will belong to the same group and hence, as we
move from A to G.
(a) Metallic character increases.
(b) Number of shells increases. As a result the
distance between the nucleus and the last shell
increases and thus the atomic size or atomic
radius increases.
(c) Valency remains constant in a group.
18. Lithium is an alkali metal with atomic number = 3
and number of valence electron is 1. The formula
of the hydride of lithium is LiH. Boron and carbon
are placed in group 13 and 14 respectively with
valence electrons 3 and 4. Write the formulae of
the hydrides of boron and carbon giving reason for
your answer.
Ans. Formula of the hydride of boron BH3.
Formula of the hydride of carbon is CH4.
Reason
Number of valence electrons in boron is 3, so its
valency is 3 and valency of carbon is 4 (have 4
valence electrons). As valency of hydrogen is 1, so
formula of hydride of B and C are BH3 and CH4
respectively.
 Chemistry

19. An element X placed in 2nd group and 4th period
of the periodic table burns in the presence of oxygen
to form a basic oxide.
(a) Identify the element.
(b) Write its electronic configuration.
(c) Write the formula of its hydroxide.
Ans. (a) Calcium (Q It contains four shells and two
electrons in the valence shell).
(b) 2,8,8,2
(c) Ca(OH)2
20. What is meant by group in the modern periodic
table? How do the following changes occur on
moving from top to bottom in a group?
(a) Number of valence electrons
(b) Number of occupied shells
(c) Size of atoms
Ans. The vertical column of the periodic table consisting
elements of similar properties is called group.
(a) Number of valence electrons remains same.
(b) Number of occupied shells increases.
(c) Size of atoms increases (as number of shell
increases).
21. Consider two elements A (atomic number =17) and
B (atomic number = 19)
(a) Write the positions of these elements in the
modern periodic table give justification.
(b) Write the formula of the compound formed
when A combines with B.
(c) Draw the electron dot structure of the
compound.
Ans. (a) Atomic number of A = 17
Electronic configurationof A = 2, 8, 7
Atomic number of B = 19
Electronic configuration of B = 2, 8, 8, 1
Position of the elements in the periodic table :
Element Period Group
A 3 17
B 4 1 form similar type of compounds.
22. With reference to the first three period of the
modern periodic table, answer the questions
given below.
(a) Write the formula of the sulphate of the element
with atomic number 13.
(b) Consider the following elements
Ca, O, Ar, S, Be and He
Which of the above elements would you expect
to be.
(i) in group II A of the periodic table?
(ii) in group VI A of the periodic table?
(c) How many electrons are present in the valence
shell of the element with atomic number 18?
(d) What is the electronic configuration of the
element in the third period which gain one
electron to change into an anion?
Ans. (a) Element with atomic number 13 is Al. formula
of sulphate is Al2(SO4)3
(b) (i) Ca and Be (ii) O and S
(c) 8
(d) 2, 8, 7
23. (a) What is meant by periodicity in properties of
elements with reference to the periodic table?
(b) Why do all the elements of the same group have
similar properties?
(c) How will the tendency to gain electrons change
as we go from left to right across a period? Why?
Ans. (a) When element are arranged in increasing order
of their atomic numbers, elements with similar
chemical properties are repeated at definte
intervals. This is known as periodicity of properties
of elements.
(b) Elements placed in the same group of the
periodic table have similar properties because
they have same number of outermost electrons
and hence show same valency. Thus they will

(b) BA (c) Tendency to gain electrons increases as we go

from left to right in a period due to addition of
(c) The electron dot structure of compound BA
will be extra electron in the same shell at each
successive element. Hence, tendency to attain
××
× ® [B+A–] a noble gas configuration also increases.
B + × A×
×× Moreover, as the number of electrons increases
in outermost shell there is an increase in
effective nuclear charge due to which tendency
to gain electrons increases.

21
CBSE : Class X
Case Based Questions (4 Marks) OR
24. Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D , E, F, G and H H i.e. Ar is a noble gas.
have the same number of electronic shells but
25. The position of eight elements in the Modern
different number of electrons in their outermost
shell. It was found that elements A and G combine Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers
to form an ionic compound. This compound is added of elements are given in the parenthesis.
in a small amount to almost all vegetable dishes
Period No.
during cooking. Oxides of elements A and B are
2 Li (3) Be (4)
basic in nature while those of E and F are acidic.
Based on the above information answer the 3 Na (11) Mg (12)
following questions. 4 K (19) Ca (20)
(a) To which group or period of the periodic table 5 Rb (37) Sr (38)
do the listed elements belong?
(a) Write the electronic configuration of Ca
(b) What would be the nature of compound formed
by a combination of elements B and F? (b) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.
(c) Which two of these elements could definitely (c) (i) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal.
be metals?
(ii) Arrange Be, Ca Mg and Rb in the increasing
OR
order of the size of their respective atoms.
Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be
a noble gas? OR
Ans. Eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F G and H have (a) Which one of these elements has the largest
same number of electronic shells. So, they belong atomic size and why ?
to the same period.
The biggest hint in the question is that the compound
formed when A and G combine is used in almost all Ans. (a) 2, 8, 8, 2
vegetable dishes which is NaCl.
(b) It has one valence electron.
Thus, A = Na and B = Cl
(c) (i) 'K' is a metal.
(a) These elements belongs to period number 3.
Group: 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18 (ii) Be < Mg < Ca < Rb is increasing order of
A B C D E F G H atomic size.

Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar OR
(b) The compound formed by the combination of (a) Rubidium is the largest atom in size as atomic
B and F i.e., Mg and S will be ionic in nature as size increases on moving down the group and
the bond will be formed by complete transfer decrease on moving from left to right in a period.
of electrons.

××
Mg + S ¾® Mg2+ [××S ]2–
(c) A and B i.e. sodium and magnesium will
definitely be metals.

22
BIOLOGY
 Biology

BIOLOGY HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE

Short answer type questions (2 marks) 6. (a) Give reason : Regeneration is not the same as
1. Mention the common mode of reproduction found Reproduction.
in (i) Amoeba (ii) Planaria. [2009] (b) State the mode of asexual reproduction in
Ans. (i) Amoeba — Binary fission. Plasmodium

(ii) Planaria — Regeneration.
2. (a) Name the hormone secretion which is responsible
for changes in appearance in girls when they
approach 10-12 years of age.
(b)List two functions of ovary in female reproductive
system.
Ans. (a) Estrogen.
(b) Ovary in females is responsible for the production
of female gamete (ova) and also produces
hormones, i.e. oestrogen and progesterone.
3. (a) Define sexual reproduction .
(b) What is gestation period?
Ans. (a) Sexual reproductio n is the met hod of
reproduction involving formation and fusion of
gametes from both the parents, i.e. ovum (female)
and sperm (male).
(b) Fetal development period from the time of
conception until birth is called gestation period.
4. How can pregnancy be prevented surgically?
Ans. When vas deferens in males are blocked surgically
it is called vasectomy this prevents sperm transfer.
When fallopian tubes are blocked it is called
tubectomy egg will not be able to reach the uterus
there by preventing pregnancy.
5. What will happen when :
Ans. (a) Regeneration is not the same as reproduction
because most organisms would not normally
depend on being cut up to be able to reproduce.
(b) Plasmodium reproduce through multiple fission.
7. (a) What is vegetative propagation?
(b) Write any two advantages of practising this
method.
Ans. (a) The formation of a new individual from any
vegetative part of the plant body is known as
vegetative propagation.
(b) Advant ages of practis ing vegetative
propagation.
(i) It allows quicker and easy propagation.
(ii) Better qualities of the plants can be
maintained and the quality can even be
enhanced as in seedless oranges.
8. How does the process of budding differ from the
process of spore formation?
Ans. In budding a protuberance develops on the mature
organism's body, attains full maturity and then
detaches. While in spore formation, spores are
formed within special structures called sporangia
that disseminate and can form the entire plant.
Short answer type questions (3 marks)
9. In what respect is the human male gamete different
from the female gamete ? What is the importance
of this difference?

(a) A mature Spirogyra fi lament attains Ans. Differences between human male and female
considerable length? gamete are :

(b) Planaria gets cut into two pieces? Male Gamete Female Gamete
It is also called sperm.It is also called ovum.
Ans. (a) When a mature Spirogyra filament attains It is smaller in size It is larger in size,
considerable length it breaks up into smaller motile gamete with rounded non-motile
pieces (fragments). These fragments grow into scanty amount of food gamete with a good
new individuals. reserve. amount of reserve
food.
(b) If Planaria gets cut into two pieces, both pieces
The difference helps the ovum or female gamete
grow into separate individuals by a process called
to get loaded with cytoplasmic content and allows
regeneration.
the sperm to swim freely up to the ovum.

23
CBSE : Class X
10. Name the organ where sperms are produced and Ans.
Asexual Sexual
name the hormone produced by it. Why do sperms (a)
Reproduction Reproduction
have a tail but ovum does not have it?
(i) New individual is New individual is
Ans. Sperms are produced in the testes. The testes produced from a produced from
secrete a hormone called testosterone. Sperms single parent two parents
have a long tail that helps them to move towards (ii) It does not involve It involves the
the union of union of gametes
the female germ cells. Ovum is larger is size and
gametes
contains the reserve food material.
(iii) The young ones The young ones
11. In a bisexual flower inspite of the young stamens are genetically are not genetically
being removed artificially, the flower produces fruit. identical to the identical to the
parents parents
Give reasons.
(a) Name the parts of the flower which ripens to (b) Plumule Radicle
form fruit and seed? (i) Plumule is future Radicle is future
(b) In the following diagram label A and B. shoot root
(ii) It grows towards It grows towards
the sun the ground in soil
A or water
B (c) Pollination Fertilisation
(i) It is the transfer of It is the fusion of
Ans. A bisexual flower has both stamen and carpel. When pollen grains from male and female
young stamens are removed then also it can undergo anther to the gametes
stigma of a flower
cross pollination and subsequent fertilization. The
ovary enlarges considerable and becomes the fruit.
(ii) It is a physical It is a physio-
(a) Ovary ripens to form fruit and ovule develops process chemical
into seed. (biological)
process
(b) A = Plumule (iii) It occurs only in It occurs in plants
seed plants and animals of
B = Radicle
various types
12. (i) Trace the path of sperms from where they are (iv) It carries the male It actually brings
produced in human body to the exterior. gamete to the about fusion of
female sex organs gametes
(ii) Write the functions of secretions of prostate
gland and seminal vesicle in humans. (v) It precedes Fertilisation occurs
fertilisation only after
Ans. (i) The formation of sperms takes place in testes
pollination
which are delivered through the vas deferens when the pollen
which is united with urethra from where sperms grain has
are released out of the body through penis. germinated
and male gametes
(ii) The secretions of prostate gland and seminal
reach the ovule
vesicles allow the sperms to be in a fluid medium
which makes their transport easier and also 14. (a) Why is vegetative propagation practised for
provides them with nutrition. growing some types of plants?
13. Differentiate between : (b) Name the different parts of a flower that has
germ cells.
(a) Asexual and sexual reproduction.
(c) List any two agents of pollination.
(b) Plumule and Radicle.
(c) Pollination and Fertilisation.

24

Ans. (a) Some plants like banana, seedless grapes, rose,
which cannot produce viable seeds, can be
easily grown by vegetative propagation. To get
genetically identical copies and to maintain and
preserve a stock of selected varieties, vegetative
propagation is the only means. It is an easier
less expens ive and rapid method of
propagation.
(b) Anther and ovule both have germ cells.
(c) Wind and water.
15. In the diagram of human male reproductive system
given below :
D sperm can enter and merge with the egg or ovum
A (a) How does the growing embryo meet with its
B nutritional requirements?
C X
(a) Label parts A and B.
(b) Name the hormone produced by organ ‘X’.
What is the role of this hormone in the human
male?
(c) Mention the name of substances that are
transported by tubes.
(i) C (ii) D
Ans. (a) A — Seminal vesicle
B — Prostate gland
(b) X (Testes) secrete hormone testosterone which
brings about changes in appearance seen in
boys at the time of puberty.
(c) (i) Tube C- vas deferens- It transport sperms.
(ii) Tube D - urethra - transports the urine and
semen.
16. A student is observing a permanent slide showing
sequentially the different stages of asexual
reproduction taking place in yeast. Name this
process and draw diagrams of what he observes in
a proper sequence.
Ans. An yeast shows budding a type of asexual
reproduction in which a daughter organism is
formed from a small projection known as bud, which
develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell
divisions on the parent body.
Biology
Daughter
Bud
Parent cells
cell Parent
cell
Budding in yeast
Case based type questions (4 marks)
17. The female reproductive system is made up of the
internal and external sex organs that function in
reproduction of new offspring. In humans, the
female reproductive system is immature at birth and
develops to maturity at puberty to be able to
produce gametes, and to carry a foetus to full term.
The internal sex organs are the vagina, uterus
fallopian tubes and ovaries.
At certain intervals, the ovaries release an ovum.
If, in this transit, it meets with sperm, a single cell
and fertilizing it into a zygote.
(b) Where does fertilization take place?
(c) What happens if the ovum is not fertilized?
OR
Draw a neat diagram of the reproductive
system of a human female and label on it the
following :
(i) reproductive part that produces the female
hormone
(ii) site of fertilisation
(iii) organ where growth and development of
the embryo takes place.
Ans. (a) The embryo gets nutrition, oxygen, water, etc.
from the mother’s blood with the help of
placenta through a cord called umbilical cord.
In placenta, villi grow into the surrounding
uterine tissue from which embryo absorb
nutrients. Villi provides a large surface area for
exchange of materials between embryo and
mother.
(b) Fallopian tube or oviduct.
(c) The lining of the uterus becomes thick and
spongy so as to receive the fertilised egg in the
normal situation. If fertilisation does not take
place then the unfertilised egg lasts for about
one day. As the uterine lining breaks, the blood
vessels also rupture. So the blood alongwith the
mucous comes out through the vagina. This
25
CBSE : Class X
period of d ischarge of bloo d is called
menstruation. This happens roughly every
month and lasts for about 3-5 days.
OR
(i) Ovary (ii) Fallopian tube (iii) Uterus
Fallopian tube
Uterus
Ovary
18. Reproductive health is a state of complete physical,
mental and social well-being and not merely the
absence of disease or infirmity, in all matters relating
to the reproductive system and to its functions and
processes.The good reproductive health provides
both male and female with
- the fertility control methods (like physical,
machanical, chemical & surgical methods)
- awareness about how to limit their family size.
- Protection from infection and sexually transmitted
diseases.
(a) Which device prevents implantation by irritating
the lining of uterus?
(b) Why do female take oral contraceptive pills?
(c) What are the planned control of population.
OR
What are the methods of prevention of STDs.
Ans. (a) Copper-T prevents implantation by irritating the
lining of uterus.
(b) Human female take as oral contraceptive pills
to avoid pregnancy.
(c) Planned control of population :
(i) By educating people about the advantages
of small family
(ii) Raising the age of marriage can help in
reducing population growth.
(iii)By family planning.
OR
Methods of prevention of STDs :
(i) The people should be educated about various
STDs.
(ii) Avoid multiple sexual partners.
(iii) No sex without proper precaution.
(iv) Finding sources of infection and treating them.
26
19. Sexual reproduction takes place within specialized
reproductive organs, called flowers in angiosperms
(flowering plants).
Flower is a modified condensed reproductive shoot
on which all the floral appendages are inserted.
A typical flower has four whorls arranged on
thalamus.
(a) Draw a diagram illustrating fertilisation in a
flowering plant and label on it : Pollen grain,
Male germ cell, Female germ cell, Stigma.
(b) Why can not fertilization take place in flowers if
pollination does not occur?
(c) Describe the process of fertilisation in plants.
OR
Write the post fertilization changer in the flower.
Ans. (a) Pollen grain
Stigma
Male germ cell
Female germ
cell
(b) Pollination is essential for bringing the male
gametes. In the absence of pollination, there will
be no male gamete to perform fertilization.
(c) Process of Fertilisation : After the pollen grains
are deposited on the stigma, the pollen grains
absorb water and sugar from the surface of
stigma and swell up. The pollen grains produce
a fine tube called pollen tube. Eventually it
travels down the whole length of the style into
ovary.
The pollen tube carrying the two male gametes
enters the ovule and embryo sac through the
micropyle and its tip dissolves. The two male
gametes are liberated inside the embryo sac.
One male gamete fuses with the egg to form
zygote which grows into an embryo and finally
into a new plant. The other male gamete fuses
with the secondary nucleus (two polar nuclei) to
form th e en dosperm which provides
nourishment to the growing embryo. The fusion
of the male gamete with the female gamete is
called syngamy. Thus it is known as double
fertilisation.

One male gamete + Egg cell ¾¾¾¾
Syngamy
® Zygote.
Second male gamete + Two polar nuclei
Triple fusion
¾¾¾¾¾ ® Triploid nucleus (Primary Endosperm
m (i)
Nucleus)
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization.
OR
Post fertilization changes in the flower : The petals
and stamen withers off, however the calyx may be
present in some cases. Style and stigma degenerates.
Ovary develops into fruit and ovule grows into seed. The
seed contains the future plant or embryo which develops
into a seedling under appropriate conditions. This
process is called as germination.
Antipodal cells and synergids degenerate.
Triploid nucleus Endosperm
Fertilize egg/zygote Embryo
Ovule
Integuments Seed coat
Funiculus Stalk of the seed
20. Arjun and Ram are students of class IX. Both were
good in studies. However, after some time,
academic performance of Arjun started declining
and he started geting irritated quickly in his class.
This change was noticed by his class. This change
was noticed by his class teacher. While, interacting
with Arjun, she found out that he had six siblings
and whole family lived in a single room. Arjun's
mother was not able to devote much attention to
him and resources were also insufficient.
Biology
Read the given passage and answer the following
questions :
After going through the situation, what are the
factors, you think, are responsible for change in
behaviour and poor performance of Arjun in
studies?
(ii) What suggestions can be given before a couple
start their families for a good life ?
(iii) What value will the learners infer from this
passage ?
OR
Write two methods adopted for population control.
Ans. (i) Big family can be one of the reason as space
(shelter),food and clothes are scarce/limited in
big families. It leads to physical as well as mental
stress. This can be the reason for Arjun's
may be sit uati on and decline in hi s academic
consumed
by embryo performance.
(ii) A small family is a happy family. If a couple plans
a family according to the resources available to
Seed
them, they can provide good food, clothes,
space and education to each child.Thus,
making both the children and parents happy.
(iii) The learners will understand the importance of
having a small family. Each person gets the
necessary resources and grows well.
OR
Methods to control population :
(i) By educating people about advantages of small
family.
(ii) By family planning.
27
CBSE : Class X

BIOLOGY HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION

Short answer type questions (2 marks) 5. What constitutes the link between one generation
1. (a) Define alleles. and the next? (CBSE 2008)

(b) Which sex chromosomes are found in male and

Ans. The hereditary information is transferred from
female human beings?
parents to offspring through the gametes. So,
Ans. (a) Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits gametes constitute the link between one generation
are known as alleles, i.e., they are different
and the next and pass on the paternal and maternal
forms of the same gene.
characters to the offspring.
(b) Males have one X and one Y-chromosomes,
whereas females have two X-chromosomes. 6. "The sex of the children is determined by what they
2. Give an example where sex is determined by inherit from their father and not from the mother."
environmental factors. Justify. (CBSE 2008)
Ans. In snail, sex is determined by environmental factors
Ans. The children inherit similar chromosomes (22 + X)
(temperature).
from the mother but the sex of the children will
3. (a) Which of the following traits are recessive in pea
depend on the chromosome they inherit from the
plant?
father. If a child inherits (22 + X) chromosomes from
Dwarfness, violet flower, wrinkled seed. the father that will be a girl but when a child inherits
(b) A pair of contrasting characters behaves (22 + Y) chromosomes from the father that will be
independently of each other. Which law of a boy. Therefore, the sex of a child is determined
Mendel does this statement support?
by the inheritance of X or Y chromosome from the
Ans. (a) Dwarfness and wrinkled seeds are the recessive father.
characters.
(b) The statement supports the law of independent 7. Guinea pig having black colour when crossed with
assortment, which refers to the ability of guinea pig having same colour produced 100
different characters to assort themselves offsprings out of which 75 were black and 25 were
independently of the others during formation of white. Now find out.
gametes, e.g. seed colour is independent of seed
coat. (a) What is the possible genotype of the guinea pig?
4. List two differences in tabular form between
(b) Which trait is dominant and which trait is
dominan t trait and re cessive trait s. What
recessive?
percentage/proportion of the plants in the F2
generation/progeny were round, in Mendel's cross
(c) What is this cross called as and what is the ratio
between round and wrinkled pea plants.
of F2 progeny obtained from this cross?
Ans.
Dominant trait Recessive trait
Ans. (a) The possible genotype of the guinea pig is Bb.
(i) The trait which (i) The trait which
appears in the remains hidden
(b) Black colour is dominant and white colour is
F1 progeny is or which does not
recessive.
dominant. appear in the
F1 progeny is the
(c) This cross is called monohybrid cross.
recessive trait.
(ii) It appears in (ii) It appears in Phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 3 : 1
more numbers. less number.
Genotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 1 : 2 : 1
75% of the plants were with round seeds.

28
 Biology
Short answer type questions (3 marks) 10. If a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf
8. (a) Name the plant used by Mendel to carry out his plant, then in the first generation only tall plants
experiments. appear.
(b) Study the following cross and answer the
questions that follow : (a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plant?
Parents Green and × Yellow and
Round seed Wrinkled seed (b) In the second generation, the dwarf trait
F1 Generation All Green and reappears. Why?
Round seeds
Ans. (a) According to law of dominance, ‘‘when a pair
F2 Generation Green and Green and
of contrasting characters are present together,
Round (9) Wrinkled (3)
only one is able to express itself in the F 1
Yellow and Yellow and
generation while others remain suppressed’’.
Round (3) Wrinkled (1)
Dwarf trait is recessive trait which is unable to
(i) List the dominant and recessive characters.
express itself in the hybrid (First generation).
(ii) Are the characters linked or independent?
Ans. (a) Garden Pea (Pisum sativum) (b) Both the characteristics (tall and dwarf) were
(b) (i) Dominant characters are Green and Round
inherited from the parents to F1 progeny. In
seeds. Recessive characters are yellow and
F 1 progeny only tallness character was
wrinkled seeds.
expressed. However, the second generation
(ii) The characters are independent
progeny (F2 progeny) expressed both characters
9. A pea plant with blue colour flower denoted by BB
is cross-bred with a pea plant with white flower in a particular ratio i.e. 3 : 1 (3 tall and 1 dwarf)
denoted by ww. due to law of segregation.
(a) What is the expected colour of the flower in
Law of segregation : Allele or genes remain
their F1 progeny?
(b) What will be the percentage of plants bearing together and segregate at the time of gamete
white flower in F2 generation, when the flower formation. This means that the alleles do not mix
of F1 plants were selfed? in the hybrids [Non-mixing of alleles].
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB
and Bw in the F2 progeny. This is also known as the Law of purity of
gametes.
Ans. Parents BB ww
Blue x White 11. Why did Mendel choose pea plant for his
experiments?
Gametes B w
Ans. Pisum sativum was a unique plant selected by
Bw blue Mendel for his experimentations which had
F1 generation Bw × Bw following importance :
Selfing

F2 generation B w Property Advantages of properties.

BB Bw a. Short life cycle Results of experiments were
B obtained in less time.
Blue Blue
Bw ww b. Could be grown More experiments can be done
w throughout year in a year.
Blue White
c. Choice of cross or Mendel could conduct
self fertilization experiment as per his desire.
(a) Blue
d. 7 pairs of allelic Large number of choice for
(b) 25% characters experiments.
(c) BB : Bw = 1 : 2 e. Large number of Good number of data for
offspring statistical analysis.

29
CBSE : Class X
12. The genotype of green stemmed tomato plants is Wh en Y chr omo so me o f male fu se s to
denoted as GG and that of purple stemmed tomato X chromosome of female, boy child is born.
plants is denoted as gg. When these two are crossed
with each other :

®
Male O O
Female +
(a) What colour of stem would you expect in the 44 + XY 44 + XX

F1 progeny?
22 + X 22 + Y 22 + X 22 + X
(b) Give the percentage of purple stemmed plants
if F1 plants are self pollinated.
44 + XX 44 + XX 44 + XY 44 + XY
(c) In what ratio would you find the genotypes GG
O
+ children children

®
and gg in the progeny? O

Draw flow chart in support of your answer. Case based type questions (4 marks)

Ans. (a) Green stemmed Purple stemmed 14. Pea plants can have yellow or green seeds. One of
tomato plant tomato plant the phenotypes is completely dominant over the
(GG) (gg)
¯ ¯ other. A farmer decides to pollinate one flower of a
G (gamete) g (gamete) plant with yellow seed using pollen from plant with
green seeds.
Gg (a) What would be th e colour of s eeds in
(Green stemmed tomato plant) F1 genration?
In F1 generation, all the plants would be green (b) In which type of cross farmer can obtain green
stemmed. and yellow seeds in same proportion ?
(b) If F1 plants are self pollinated
(c) What is the percentage of green seeds in
Gg F2 generation.
OR
G g
On crossing of two heterozygous yellow seeded (Yy)
GG Gg plants, a total of 1000 plants were obtained in
G
Gg Green stemmed Green stemmed F1 generation. What will be the respective number
g Gg gg of yellow and green seeds obtained in F1 generations
Green stemmed Purple stemmed
Ans. (a) YY × yy
Yellow seeds Green seeds
25% purple stemmed plants
F1 generation Yy (Hybrid yellow)
(c) We would find the genotypes GG and gg in
1 : 1 ratio. All seeds in F1 generation have yellow colour.
13. How is the sex of an offspring determined in the (b) If farmer will cross Yy × yy then he will get
yellow and green seeds in same proportion.
zygote in human beings? Explain with suitable
Yy × yy
diagram showing the cross between male and
female gametes. y y y
Y
Ans. During gamete formation the male produce two y
Y
types of gametes i.e. one having X chromosome +
y Yy yy
and other having Y chromosome while both gametes
produced by females are alike i.e. each having y Yy yy 1 : 1
Yellow : Green
X chromosome.
(c) Farmer will obtain 25% of green plants in
Wh en X chr omo so me o f male fu se s to F2 generation.
X chromosome of female, girl child is born. Genotype ratio of F2 - 1 : 2 : 1

30
 Biology
How many types of gametes are produced by male.
Y y
Ans. (a) It is wrong to blame mother only for giving birth
Y YY Yy female child because each human all contains
46 chromosomes,out of which 22 pairs are
y Yy yy similar called autosomes.The last pair is called
sex chromosome. The children inherit similar
yy = green = 25% chromosome (22+X) from the mother but the
OR sex of child will depend on the chromosome
inherit from father (22+Y), (22+X).
On crossing Yy × Yy, total 1000 plants
obtained in F1 generation number of yellow & (b) 50% chances to give birth to a boy.
green seeds = 3:1 = 750 & 250. (c) The sex of child will be boy.
15. A couple has two daughters in a row, they want to OR
Male produce two different types of gametes
get a son. After some time woman deliver one more that is (22+Y), (22+X) .
baby girl. The society and relatives of couple blame
Male Female
mother for girl child. 44 + XY 44 + XX
(a) Is it right to blame mother for child's sex. Give gametes
reasons. 22+X 22+Y 22+X 22+X
(b) What is the probability or chances for couple
to give birth to a boy next time ?
44+XX Girl 44+XY Boy
(c) When a sperm containing Y chromosome
fertilises an egg with X chromosome,what will
be the sex of child.
OR

31
CBSE : Class X
BIOLOGY
Short answer type questions (2 marks)
1. (a) Why are green plants called producers?
(CBSE 2009)
(b) Define food web.
Ans. (a) Green plants are called producers because they
can synthesise organic food from inorganic raw
materials by trapping the solar energy in the
process of photosynthesis. This food is used by
green plants as well as all other organisms called
consumers.
(b) Food web is a network of interconnected food
chains which provides a number of feeding
connections amongst different organisms of a
biotic community.
2. Which compounds are responsible for the depletion
of ozone layer? (CBSE 2009)
Ans. Substances like chlorofluorocarbons, hydrocarbon,
NO2, chlorine, etc. are responsible for the depletion
of ozone layer.
3. Define biological magnification.
Ans. The accumulation of chemicals in the bodies of the
organisms that belong to the top most trophic level
in a food chain is called biological magnification.
4. (a) Name the natural cleansing agent in an
ecosystem.
(b) Write one negative effect of affluent life style
of few persons of a society on the environment.
Ans. (a) Decomposers and scavengers.
(b) Affluent people use resources recklessly which
leads to their depletion and generation of excess
waste. Due to their high living standards, such
affluence has terrible consequences on the
environment.
5. Which one of the following is always at the third
trophic level in a food chain ? Carnivores, herbivores,
producers, decomposers.
Ans. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always
occupied by carnivores that feed on herbivores.
Plants (producers or autotrophs) occupy the first
trophic level, herbivores constitute the second
trophic level and large carnivores occupy the fourth
trophic level.
32
OUR ENVIRONMENT
6. Mention the amount of solar energy captured by the
green plants out of the total energy that reaches
on the Earth from the Sun and mention the
percentage of energy, which is transferred from one
trophic level to next higher one.
Ans. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem captures
about 1% of the energy of sunlight falling on their
leaves and convert it into food. An average of 10%
energy is made available for the next level of
consumers, i.e. transferred from one trophic level
to next higher one.
7. Observe the food chain
Plant (1000 kJ) ® Goat ® Lion
(a) If autotrophs occupying the first trophic level are
called producers what are herbivores called as?
(b) How much energy does the lion get in the above
food chain?
Ans. (a) Herbivores occupying the second trophic level
are called primary consumers.
(b) Plant ¾¾® Goat ¾¾® Lion
(1000 kJ) (100 kJ) (10 kJ)
The lion gets 10 kJ energy in the above food chain.
8. With the help of an example show that ‘reuse’
strategy is better than ‘recycling’. (CBSE 2010)
Ans. The plastic cans can be reused instead of recycling
them. Reusing any waste does not require energy
and no pollution is produced. While a lot of energy
is required to melt the plastic cans and make some
other usable items from them. Many harmful gases
are also released during recycling a plastic waste.
9. List two reasons to show that the existence of
decomposers is essential in an ecosystem.
Ans. Role of decomposers : The decomposers are
microorganisms like bacteria and fungi which help
in the breakdown of organic matter or biomass of
dead plants and animals into simple inorganic raw
materials such as CO2, H2O and nutrients. Their
existence is thus essential in an ecosystem because:
(i) They help in the natural replenishment of soil.
(ii) They help in keeping the environment clean.
10. Explain an agricultural practice that has a harmful
effect on ecosystem.

Ans. Agriculture is the process of cultivation of plants and
other life forms for the production of food and fibre
etc. Increased use of pesticides and other insect or
disease repellents in soils and standing crops is a
harmful practice that adversely affects the
environment and its components. These chemicals
mixed with soil and water are absorbed by growing
plants and through food chain reach all the trophic
levels causing various diseases in them.
11. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in
the lanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to
make people realise that the improper disposal of
waste is harmful to the environment.
Ans. (i) Banners and signboards can be used in residential
colonies in order to educate people about the
ill effects of improper waste disposal.
(ii) Street plays can be organised highlighting this
issue.
Short answer type questions (3 marks)
12. Why is Government of India imposing a ban on the
use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives to
these bags and explain how this ban is likely to
improve the environment.
Ans. Government of India is imposing a ban on the use
of polythene bags because they cannot be degraded
naturally by the action of microorganisms. Because
of their non-biodegradability, they stay in the soil for
a long time and continue to poison it with toxic by
products that keep leaching from them.
Also, they do not allow water to seep in, as they are
waterproof. These polyt hene bags, when
accidentally eaten by stray animals can harm them
and can even lead to their death.
Jute and cloth bags can be used in place of polythene
bags.
If polythene bags are banned use of cloth and jute
bag will increase which have following advantages
(i) They are environment friendly as they are
biodegradable.
(ii) They are renewable and can be easily recycled.
(iii) They have more strength than polythene bags
because they are thick and can be used again
and again.
Thus, using jute and cloth bags will help to reduce
pollution.
Biology
13. We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium
needs to be cleaned. Why?
Ans. A pond or lake is a natural ecosystem. They are self-
sustaining and complete. In them, all the necessary
components of the food chain are available.
If any organism dies, there are microbes like
bacteria and fungi to decompose their bodies into
simpler substances. An aquarium, on the contrary
is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem. It may not
have all the abiotic and biotic components in it. If a
fish dies in an aquarium in the absence of
decomposers, it will lie there as a rotten body
polluting the water of aquarium. Thus, an aquarium
needs regular cleaning.
14. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Justify.
Ans. The green plants of an ecosystem receive the
energy from sun and change it into chemical form.
This energy is transferred from plants to herbivores
and then to the next trophic level.
Tiger
Sun Plants Cow
(source (Producers) (Herbivore) (Carnivore)
of energy) 1000 cal 100 cal 10 cal
10,000 cal
Since energy available decreases at every trophic
level, very little of it is available at higher trophic
levels. There is a loss of energy at every step of its
transfer. Hence, it cannot flow in the reverse
direction and is called unidirectional flow.
15. What is meant by food chain? “The number of
trophic levels in a food chain is limited”. Give reason
to justify this statement.
Ans. Food chain is a simple representation of energy flow
in nature.
For example : A rat eats grains, a snake eats a
rat, which in turn, is eaten by an eagle.
In a food chain, the number of trophic levels are
limited to 4–5. This is because according to 10%
law of energy transfer only 10% of energy passes
from one trophic level to next. Thus the amount of
energy decreases with successive trophic levels.
After five trophic levels, existence of organisms
would become impossible with such negligible
amount of energy.
33
CBSE : Class X

the use of adsorption equipments. Adsorption

is a surface phenomenon that needs the
16. Distinguish between biodegradable and non-
presence of a large solid surface area. Toxic and
biodegradable substances. List two effects of each
odoriferous compounds are efficiently removed
of them in our environment. (CBSE 2008)
by this process.
Ans.
(ii) Three options available for controlling the
Biodegradable Non-biodegradable effluents are :
Pollutants Pollutants
(a) Control can take place at the point of
1. They are biological They are commonly man-
generation within the factory.
in origin. made.
2. The wastes are They are not degraded (b) Waste water can be pre-treated for
degraded by micro- by micro-organisms. discharge to municipal treatment systems.
organisms. (c) Waste water can be treated completely at
3. They do not They pile up and the factory and either reused or discharged.
accumulate in accumulate in nature.
18. Name the wastes which are generated in your house
nature.
4. The biodegradable The soluble non- daily. Give the measures you should take for their
wastes do not show degradable wastes enter disposal.
biomagnification food chains and undergo Ans. Waste Materials generated daily in homes are :
biomagnification. (i) Vegetable and fruit peels, stale food, food
5. Examples : Examples : Plastic, leftovers, used tea leaves, etc.
Garbage, kitchen polythene, glass, metallic
(ii) Milk pouches, polythene bags, empty cartons,
wastes, sewage. cans, chemicals, etc.
etc. plastic and metallic cans.
(iii) Waste newspapers, paper bags, paper
Effects of biodegradable substances on our
envelopes, packing paper, empty bottles, cotton
environment :
cloth pieces, etc.
(i) They can be easily decomposed, hence they do
(iv) Dust and other sweepings.
not create pollution.
Measures for Disposal of Wastes :
(ii) The degradation of agricultural waste helps in
(i) Separation into different categories as-
reducing the use of fertilisers in place of
bio degradable an d no n-bio degradable,
manures.
recyclable and non-recyclable wastes.
Effects of non-biodegradable substances on our
(ii) Recyclable wastes i.e. waste paper, cloth,
environment :
polythene or plastic bags, cartons, bottles, cans,
(i) Depletion of ozone layer.
etc. can be given to rag pickers for recycling.
(ii) Pollution created by non-biodegradable
(iii) Preparation of compost or vermicompost from
substances cause different diseases among the
kitchen wastes for kitchen garden.
living organisms.
(iv) The household garbage and other wastes can
17. Sugges t su itab le mechanis m(s) for waste
also be given to waste collectors for disposal.
management in fertilizer factory.
Case based type questions (4 marks)
Ans. Suitable mechanism for waste management are :
Effluents and harmful gases are the main waste 19. Rama went to picnic with her friends to a nearby
which are produced in a fertilizer factory. Suitable park. All of them took with themselves, eatables
mechanism for waste management are : packed either in aluminium foils, polythenes, paper
bags, plastic bottles,cans or in paper cups.They
(i) For control of gaseous pollutants combustion
enjoyed their picnic and when teacher called them
equipments are used which can be oxidised.
to be ready for going back, her friends picked up
Th e po llutants are exposed to a high
their bags and left all the waste material scattered
temperature in the process.
here and there. But, Rama called them and asked
Air pollutants such as certain gases, vapours and
each one to pick up the left over things and put them
inflammable compounds are controlled through

34

in the bins marked 'biodegradable' and 'non-
biodegradable' and 'non-biodegradable'.She also
explained the advantages of doing so. Her friends
accepted her advice and cleaned the park.
Read the given passage and answer the following
questions :
(a) Classify waste into biodegradable and non-
biodegradable categories.
(b) What arguments Rama must have given to
convince her friends to segregate waste into
biodegradable and non-biodegradable bins ?
(c) Mention the value reflected by Rama's initiative.
OR
Why is improper disposal of waste a curse to
environment ?
Ans. (i) Biodegradable Paper cups, napkins and paper
bags.
Non-biodegradable Aluminium foils,
polythene, plastic bottles, cans.
(ii) (a) By segregating the waste into biodegradable
and non-biodegradable, they can be treated
easily and accordingly.
(b) Biodegradable waste can be converted into
compost, biogas for agricultural purposes and
other uses.
(c) Non-biodegradable waste can be sent to factories
for recycling.
(iii) Rama is observant, environment-friendly,
initiative taker and a sensible student.
OR
Disposal of waste means 'to get rid of waste'.
Improper dispo sal of waste is a curse to
environment because it can cause substantial harm
to human health andsafety improper waste storage
or disposal frequently contaminates surface and
groundwater supplies. People living in homes built
near old and abandoned waste disposal sites may
be in a particular vulnerable position as they can
catch various type of infections.
Biology
20. A food chain is a linear network of links in a food
web starting from producer organisms and ending
at an apex predator species, detritivores, or
decomposer species. A food chain also shows how
organisms are related to each other by the food they
eat. Each level of a food chain represents a different
trophic level.
(a) Give an example of a food chain consisting of
four organisms at different trophic levels. Give the
scientific term used to indicate the first and third
trophic level.
(b) Mention the form of energy transfer, if a
grasshopper is eaten by a frog.
(c) Which of the following belong to the first trophic
level ?
(i) Grasshopper, mango tree, hawk, snake.
(ii) Sunflower plant, grasshopper, cockroach, banyan
tree.
OR
Which of the following belong to the second trophic
level ?
(i) Frog, butterfly, spider, rice weevil.
(ii) Parrot, frog, butterfly, spider.
Ans. (a) Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® Snake.
Producer is the term used to indicate the first trophic
level. Secondary consumers is the scientific term
used to indicate the third trophic level.
(b) In a food chain, if a grasshopper is eaten by a
frog, then the energy transfer will be from primary
consumer to secondary consumer. Grasshopper
feeds on producers, i.e. the grass/Plants. So, it
occupies the level of primary consumer. Frog eating
grasshopper thus becomes the secondary consumer.
(c) (i) Mango tree.
(ii) Sunflower plant, banyan tree.
OR
(i) Butterfly, rice weevil.
(ii) Butterfly, parrot.
35
CBSE : Class X

Important Notes

36