Allen: Final Jee-Main Examination - March, 2021

Final JEE - Main Exam March, 2021/16-03-2021/Morning Session
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – MARCH, 2021

(Held On Tuesday 16th March, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTION
SECTION-A
1. One main scale division of a vernier callipers 3d/4 d/4
is 'a' cm and nth division of the vernier scale
coincide with (n – 1)th division of the main
scale. The least count of the callipers in mm K
Sol.
is : C1 C2
10 na 10 a
(1) (2)
(n 1) (n 1)
A 0
C0 =
n 1 10 a d
(3) a (4)
10 n n C' = C1 and C2 in series.
Sol. (n – 1)a = n(a')
a' =
(n 1)a
n
EN
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

= (a – a')cm
(n 1)a
1
C'
1
C'
1
i.e. C'
(3d / 4)
4
0 KA
d
1
C1
3 K
A K
1
C2
d/4
0 A
=a– 0
n
LL
4KC 0
na na a a C' =
= = cm (3 K)
n n
3. A block of mass m slides along a floor while
10a a force of magnitude F is applied to it at an
= mm angle as shown in figure. The coefficient of
n
kinetic friction is µ K . Then, the block's
2. For changing the capacitance of a given parallel acceleration 'a' is given by : (g is acceleration
plate capacitor, a dielectric material of dielectric due to gravity)
A
constant K is used, which has the same area as F

the plates of the capacitor. The thickness of the
3
dielectric slab isd, where 'd' is the separation
4
between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. F F
(1) cos µK g sin
The new capacitance (C') in terms of original m m
capacitance (C 0) is given by the following
relation : F F
(2) cos µK g sin
m m
3 K 4 K
(1) C' C0 (2) C' C0
4K 3 F F
(3) cos µK g sin
m m
4K 4
(3) C' C0 (4) C' C0
K 3 3 K F F
(4) cos µ K g sin
Official Ans. by NTA (3) m m
1
5. The angle of deviation through a prism is

F sin minimum when
N
F
F cos
Sol.
fk
mg
(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are
N = mg – f sin symmetric to the prism
(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes
F cos – µkN = ma
parallel to its base
F cos – µk (mg – F sin ) = ma (C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the
angle of emergence
F F (D) When angle of emergence is double the
a= cos µK g sin
m m angle of incidence
4.
EN
The pressure acting on a submarine is 3 × 105
Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is doubled,
the percentage increase in the pressure acting
on the submarine would be : (Assume that
atmospheric pressure is 1 × 10 5 Pa density of
water is 103 kg m–3, g = 10 ms–2)
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true
(2) Only statement (D) is true
(3) Only statements (A) and (B) are true
(4) Statements (B) and (C) are true
Sol. Deviation is minimum in a prism when :
LL
200 200
(1) % (2) % i = e, r1 = r2 and ray (2) is parallel to base of
3 5
prism.
5 3
(3) % (4) %
200 200
i e
Official Ans. by NTA (1) r1 r2
Base
A
Sol. P1 = gd + P0 = 3 × 105 Pa
gd = 2 × 105 Pa 6. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
500 MHz is travelling in vacuum along
P2 = 2 gd + P0
y-direction. At a particular point in space and
= 4 × 105 + 105 = 5 × 105 Pa time, B 8.0 10 8 zT
ˆ . The value of electric
P2 P1 field at this point is :

%increase = 100 (speed of light = 3 × 108 ms–1)
P1
ˆ y,
x, ˆ zˆ are unit vectors along x, y and z
direction.
5 10 5 3 10 5 200
= 5
100 = % (1) 24 xˆ V / m (2) 2.6 xˆ V / m
3 10 3
(3) 24 xˆ V / m (4) 2.6 yˆ V / m
2
Sol. f = 5 × 108 Hz 9. The volume V of an enclosure contains a
EM wave is travelling towards ĵ mixture of three gases, 16 g of oxygen, 28 g
B 8.0 10 8 zT
ˆ of nitrogen and 44 g of carbon dioxide at
absolute temperature T. Consider R as universal
E B C = (8 × 10–8 ẑ ) × (3 × 108 ŷ )
gas constant. The pressure of the mixture of
= 24 xˆ V / m
gases is :
7. The maximum and minimum distances of a
comet from the Sun are 1.6 × 10 12 m and
8.0 × 1010 m respectively. If the speed of the 88RT 3RT
(1) (2)
comet at the nearest point is 6 × 104 ms–1, the V V
speed at the farthest point is :
(1) 1.5 × 10 3 m/s (2) 6.0 × 10 3 m/s
3
5 RT 4RT
(3) 3.0 × 10 m/s (4) 4.5 × 10 3 m/s (3) (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 2 V V
Sol. By angular momentum conservation :
mv1r1 = mv2r2 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
48 1014 Sol. PV = (n1 + n2 + n3)RT
8.
v1
1.6 1012
= 3 × 103 m/sec.
EN
= 3000 m/sec
A bar magnet of length 14 cm is placed in the

magnetic meridian with its north pole pointing
towards the geographic north pole. A neutral
point is obtained at a distance of 18 cm from
the center of the magnet. If B H = 0.4 G, the
P×V=
PV =
1
2
16
32
1 1 RT
28
28
44
44
RT
magnetic moment of the magnet is

(1 G = 10–4T)
LL
(1) 2.880 × 103 J T–1 (2) 2.880 × 102 J T–1 5 RT
P=
(3) 2.880 J T–1 (4) 28.80 J T–1 2 V
BH 10. In thermodynamics, heat and work are :
+m r
7cm (1) Path functions
18cm
B0
Sol. 7cm B0 (2) Intensive thermodynamic state variables
A
r
–m
B=2B0 sin (3) Extensive thermodynamic state variables
2µ 0 m 7 (4) Point functions

i.e. = 0.4 × 10–4
4 r2 r Official Ans. by NTA (1)
m 7
2 × 10–7 × × 104 Sol. Heat and work are treated as path functions in
(7 182 )3/2
2
thermodynamics.
= 0.4 × 10–4
2 Q= U+ W
4 10 (373)3/2
m=
14 Since work done by gas depends on type of
14 process i.e. path and U depends just on initial
M = m × 14 cm = m × and final states, so Q i.e. heat, also has to
100
depend on process is path.
0.04 (373)3/2 14
= ×
14 100
–4
= 4 × 10 × 7203.82 = 2.88 J/T
3
11. Four equal masses, m each are placed at the 12. A conducting wire of length 'l', area of cross-
corners of a square of length (l) as shown in section A and electric resistivity is connected
the figure. The moment of inertia of the system between the terminals of a battery. A potential
about an axis passing through A and parallel difference V is developed between its ends,
to DB would be : causing an electric current.
If the length of the wire of the same material
D l C is doubled and the area of cross-section is
m m halved, the resultant current would be :
1 VA 3 VA
l l (1) (2)
4 l 4 l
1 l VA
m m (3) (4) 4
A l B 4 VA l

(1) ml2
(3) 3 ml2
EN
Sol. Moment of inertia of point mass

(2) 2
(4)
ml2
3 ml2
Sol. As per the question
2l
A/2
(2l)
= mass × (Perpendicular distance from axis)2 4 l
Resistance = =
(A / 2) A
LL
m m V VA
Current = =
l/ 2 R 4 l
13. Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside

45° a lift when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves
m m upwards with an acceleration g/2, the time
A
45° period of pendulum will be :

l/ 2
(1) 3T
T
(2)
3
Moment of Inertia
3
(3) T
2 2 2
l l
= m(0)2 + m (l 2)2 + m +m
2 2
2
(4) T
= 3 ml2 3
4
Sol. When lift is stationary –2
a (ms )
L
T= 2
g
18
When lift is moving upwards (3)
2
Pseudo force acts downwards
0 200 400 x(m)
g 3g –2
geff = g + = a (ms )
2 2
New time period
L 2L 18
(4)
T' = 2 geff =
2
2
3g
0
200 400 x(m)
2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
T' T Official Ans. by ALLEN (1 or Bonus)
3
Sol. For 0 x 200
14.
v (ms )
50
–1 EN
The velocity-displacement graph describing the
motion of a bicycle is shown in the figure.
v = mx + C
v=
a=
1
5
x + 10
vdv
dx
=
x
5
10
5
10
x
0 2
LL
200 400 x(m) a= Straight line till x = 200
25
The acceleration-displacement graph of the for x > 200
bicycle's motion is best described by : v = constant
a=0
–2 –2
a (ms ) a (ms )
A
18 18
(1)
2 2
0 200 400 x(m) 0 200 400 x(m)
Hence most approriate option will be (1),
otherwise it would be BONUS.
–1
a (ms ) 15. A 25 m long antenna is mounted on an antenna
tower. The height of the antenna tower is
75 m. The wavelength (in meter) of the signal
18 transmitted by this antenna would be :
(2)
2 (1) 300 (2) 400
(3) 200 (4) 100
0 200 400 x(m)
Sol. Length of Antena = 25m =

4
100 m
5
16. For an electromagnetic wave travelling in free 19. A block of 200 g mass moves with a uniform
space, the relation between average energy speed in a horizontal circular groove, with
densities due to electric (Ue) and magnetic (Um) vertical side walls of radius 20 cm. If the block
fields is : takes 40 s to complete one round, the normal
(1) Ue = Um (2) Ue > Um force by the side walls of the groove is :
(3) Ue < Um (4) Ue Um
(1) 0.0314 N
(2) 9.859 × 10–2 N
Sol. In EMW, Average energy density due to
(3) 6.28 × 10–3 N
electric (Ue) and magnetic (Um) fields is same.
17. An RC circuit as shown in the figure is driven (4) 9.859 × 10–4 N
by a AC source generating a square wave. The Official Ans. by NTA (4)
output wave pattern monitored by CRO would Sol. N = m 2R
look close to :
4 2
N=m R .....(1)
R T2
Given m = 0.2 kg, T = 40 S, R = 0.2 m
(1)
EN C CRO
20.
Put values in equation (1)
N = 9.859 × 10–4 N
A conducting bar of length L is free to slide on
two parallel conducting rails as shown in the
figure
(2)
v
LL
R1 R2
B
(3)
(4)
Two resistors R1 and R2 are connected across
the ends of the rails. There is a uniform magnetic
A
field B pointing into the page. An external

Sol. agent pulls the bar to the left at a constant speed
t1 t2 t3
v.
For t1 – t2 Charging graph
The correct statement about the directions of
t2 – t3 Discharging graph
induced currents I1 and I2 flowing through R 1
18. The stopping potential in the context of
photoelectric effect depends on the following and R2 respectively is :
property of incident electromagnetic (1) Both I1 and I2 are in anticlockwise direction
radiation : (2) Both I1 and I2 are in clockwise direction
(1) Phase (2) Intensity (3) I 1 is in clockwise direction and I2 is in
(3) Amplitude (4) Frequency anticlockwise direction
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (4) I1 is in anticlockwise direction and I2 is in
Sol. Stopping potential changes linearly with clockwise direction
frequency of incident radiation. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
6
D
I1 I2 Sol. =
d
R1 R2 d
Sol. =
D
3 3
6 10 10
=
SECTION-B 10
1. In the figure given, the electric current flowing = 6 × 10–7 m = 600 × 10–9 m
through the 5 k resistor is 'x' mA.
= 600 nm
3. Consider a 20 kg uniform circular disk of radius
3k
0.2 m. It is pin supported at its center and is at
5k 3k
rest initially. The disk is acted upon by a
3k
constant force F = 20 N through a massless
string wrapped around its periphery as shown
EN
21V, 1 k
The value of x to the nearest integer is

_______.
in the figure.
3k
5k
LL
3k F = 20N
3k
Sol. Suppose the disk makes n number of
revolutions to attain an angular speed of
21V, 1k 50 rad s–1. The value of n, to the nearest integer,
is _______. [Given : In one complete
revolution, the disk rotates by 6.28 rad]
5k 1k
A
F.R. 2F
= Sol. = = 2 =
I mR / 2 mR
21V, 1k
2 200
= = 10 rad/s2
20 (0.2)
21
I= = 3 mA 2 = 2 +2
5 1 1 0
2. A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two 2500

(50)2 = 02 + 2(10) =
slits separated by 1 mm apart. The screen is 20
placed 10 m away. The wavelength of light
= 125 rad
used is 'x' nm. The value of 'x' to the nearest
integer is ______. 125
No. of revolution = 20 revolution
Official Ans. by NTA (600) 2
7
4. The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the
Balmer series are given 1, 2, 3 considering I RS = 35 I1
the Bohr atomic model, the wave lengths of first I2
22V VZ = 15V RL = 90
1
Sol.
and third spectral lines are related by a
3
factor of approximately 'x' × 10–1. The value

Voltage across RS = 22 – 15 = 7V
of x, to the nearest integer, is ________.
Official Ans. by NTA (15) 7 1
Current through RS = I = = A
35 5
Sol. For 1st line
15 1
1 1 1 Current through 90 = I2 = = A
= Rz2 90 6
1 22 32
1 1 1
Current through zener = – = A
1 5 5 6 30
= Rz2 .....(i)
1
1
For 3rd line
1
3
Rz 2
36
1
22
21
EN1
52
6.
Power through zener diode
P = VI
P = 15 ×
1
30
= 0.5 watt
P = 5 × 10–1 watt
A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 250 V is
Rz 2 .....(ii) applied to a series LCR circuit, in which
3 100
LL
R = 8 , L = 24 mH and C = 60µF. The value
(ii) + (i) of power dissipated at resonant condition is 'x'
kW. The value of x to the nearest integer is
1 21 36 ________.
= × = 1.512 = 15.12 × 10–1
3 100 5 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. At resonance power (P)
x 15
(Vrms ) 2
A
5. The value of power dissipated across the zener P=

diode (Vz = 15 V) connected in the circuit as R
shown in the figure is x × 10–1 watt.
(250 / 2)2
P= = 3906.25 W
RS = 35 8
4 kW
VZ = 15V RL = 90 7. In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input
22V
A and B are 0 to 1 respectively, the output at
Y would be 'x'. The value of x is _______.
A
The value of x, to the nearest integer, is
______. Y
Official Ans. by NTA (5) B
8
0 0
A 0
1 1 0
Y A 70°
Sol. 1
B 0 1 35°
1 0 B
P
V 55°
8. The resistance R = , where V = (50 ± 2)V Sol.
I
145°
and I = (20 ± 0.2)A. The percentage error in R
C
is 'x' %. The value of 'x' to the nearest integer
is _________.
Component along AC
R V I
Sol. × 100 = × 100 + × 100 = 100 cos 35°N
R V I
= 100 × 0.819 N
2 0.2
9.
% error in R =
% error in R = 5%
EN
% error in R = 4 + 1
50
× 100 +
20
× 100
Consider a frame that is made up of two thin

massless rods AB and AC as shown in the
figure. A vertical force P of magnitude 100 N
10.
= 81.9 N
82 N
A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity
10 3 ms 1
along X-axis, hits another ball of
mass 20 kg which is at rest. After collision, the
first ball comes to rest and the second one
is applied at point A of the frame. disintegrates into two equal pieces. One of the
pieces starts moving along Y-axis at a speed
LL
of 10 m/s. The second piece starts moving at
a speed of 20 m/s at an angle (degree) with
A 70° respect to the X-axis.
B The configuration of pieces after collision is

P shown in the figure. The value of to the
nearest integer is _______.
A
145°
C After Collision
Y
Suppose the force is P resolved parallel to the

arms AB and AC of the frame. The magnitude X axis
of the resolved component along the arm AC
is xN. The value of x, to the nearest integer, is
________.
[Given : sin(35°) = 0.573, cos(35°) = 0.819
sin(110°) = 0.939, cos(110°) = –0.342 ]
9
Sol. Before Collision
A 10 3 m/s B
Rest
10 kg 20 kg
After Collision
10 m/s
A
10 kg
Rest
10 kg
20 m/s
From conservation of momentum along x axis;

Pi Pf
10 × 10 3 = 200 cos
cos =
= 30°
2
3
EN
LL
A
10

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTION
SECTION-A Official Ans. by NTA (2)
1. Given below are two statement : one is labelled D
Sol. (a) CaCl 2 .6H 2 O ¾¾ ® CaCl 2 + 6H 2 O
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (Anhydrous)
Reason R : D
Assertion A : Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion.
(b) MgCl2 .8H2O ¾¾ ® MgO + 2HCl + 6H 2O
Reason R : The above is a consequence of the The dehydration of hydrated chloride of
lanthanoid contraction. calcium can be achieved. The corresponding
In the light of the above statements, choose the hydrated chloride of magnesium on heating
correct answer from the options given below : suffer hydrolysis.
(1) A is false but R is true
(c) BeO ® Amphoteric
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A MgO
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct CaO
Þ All are basic oxide
explanation of A SrO
EN BaO
(4) A is true but R is false
O
Official Ans. by ALLEN (4) O
Sol. Size of 97Bk3+ ion is less than that of 93Np3+ i) DIBAL-H, Toluene, –78°C
4. "P"
due to actinoid contraction. ii) H3O
+
(Major Product)
As we know that in a period from left to right
ionic radius decreases and in actinide series it
LL
The product "P" in the above reaction is :
is due to actinoid contraction.
2. Which among the following pairs of Vitamins COOH
(1)
is stored in our body relatively for longer
OH
duration ?
(1) Thiamine and Vitamin A (2) CHO
A
(2) Vitamin A and Vitamin D

(3) Thiamine and Ascorbic acid O
(4) Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D
Official Ans. by NTA (2) O–C–H
Sol. Vitamin-A & Vitamin-D (3)
3. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Both CaCl2.6H2O and MgCl2.8H2O
(4) CHO
undergo dehydration on heating.
Statement II : BeO is amphoteric whereas the Official Ans. by NTA (2)
oxides of other elements in the same group are H
O
acidic. O OH C=O
In the light of the above statements, choose the Sol. (i) DIBAL-H
correct answer from the options given below : (ii) H 3OÅ
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false DIBAL can not reduce double bond
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true It can reduce cyclic ester.
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
1
5. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II NH2 OH
Industrial process Application NaNO2, HCl "A"

7. 273 – 278 K
"X"
(a) Haber's process (i) HNO3 synthesis Major Product
(b) Ostwald's process (ii) Aluminium In the above chemical reaction, intermediate
extraction "X" and reagent/condition "A" are :
(c) Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis
N+2 Cl–
(d) Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis
(1) X- ; A- H2O/NaOH
given below : NO2
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) X- ; A- H2O/D
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) N+2 Cl–
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) X- ; A- H2O/D
Official Ans. by NTA (3) EN
Sol. (a) Haber's process is used for NH3 synthesis. NO2
(b) Ostwald's process is used for HNO 3 (4) X- ; A- H2O/NaOH
synthesis.
(c) Contact process is used for H 2 SO 4
Å !
synthesis. NH2 N2Cl OH
LL
(d) In Hall-Heroult process, electrolytic NaNO2+ HCl H2O/D

Sol. 273 – 278 K
reduction of impure alumina can be done. Diazotisation
(A) (B)
(Aluminium extraction) Reaction
6. Among the following, the aromatic compounds 8. Given below are two statements :
A
are : Statement I : The E° value of Ce4+ / Ce3+ is

+ 1.74 V.
(A) CH 2 (B)
Statement II : Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state
than Ce3+ state.
(C) (D) In the light of the above statements, choose the

! Å most appropriate answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the following below :
options : (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(2) (B) and (C) only correct
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (3) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) (A), (B) and (C) only incorrect
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Sol. (A) Non-Aromatic (B) Aromatic incorrect
(C) Aromatic (D) Anti-Aromatic Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2
Sol. The E° value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 V because OH
the most stable oxidation state of lanthanide 20% H 3PO4
series elements is +3. Sol. D
It means Ce3+ is more stable than Ce4+. E1
(Saytzeff product)
9. The functions of antihistamine are : Cl
(1) Antiallergic and Analgesic Me3C–OK(Bulky base)
E2
(2) Antacid and antiallergic (Hoffmann product)
12. Given below are two statements :
(3) Analgesic and antacid
Statement I : H2O2 can act as both oxidising and
(4) Antiallergic and antidepressant reducing agent in basic medium.
Statement II : In the hydrogen economy, the
Official Ans. by NTA (2) energy is transmitted in the form of dihydrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
10. Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst ?
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Zinc chloride and HCl (1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4 (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
EN (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Sodium and Liquid NH3
(4) Partially deactivated palladised charcoal Sol. (a) H 2O 2 can acts as both oxidising and
reducing agent in basic medium.
(i) 2Fe2+ + H2O2 ® 2Fe3+ + 2OH–
Sol. Partially deactivated palladised charcoal In this reaction, H2O2 acts as oxiding agent.
(H2/pd/CaCO3) is lindlar catalyst. +7 +4
(ii) 2 M nO4– + 3H2O2 ® 2 M nO2 + 3O2 + 2H 2O + 2OH –
LL
H3C OH
In this reaction, H2O2 acts as reducing agent.
20% H3PO4
11. "A" , (b) The basic principle of hydrogen economy
358 K (Major Product) is the transportation and storage of energy
H3C Cl in the form of liquids or gaseous
dihydrogen.
A
(CH3)3 CO–K+ "B" ,

Advantage of hydrogen economy is that
(Major Product)
energy is transmitted in the form of
The product "A" and "B" formed in above dihydrogen and not as electric power
reactions are : 13. The type of pollution that gets increased during
CH2 CH2 the day time and in the presence of O3 is :
(1) A- (1) Reducing smog (2) Oxidising smog
B-
(3) Global warming (4) Acid rain
CH3 CH3 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. In presence of ozone(O3), oxidising smog gets
(2) A- B- increased during the day time because
automobiles and factories produce main
CH3 CH2
components of the photochemcial smog
(3) A- B- (oxidising smog) results from the action of
sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbon and
CH2 CH3 nitrogen oxide.
(4) A- B- Ozone is strong oxidising agent and can react
with the unburnt hydrocarbons in the polluted
Official Ans. by NTA (3) air to produce chemicals.
3
14. Assertion A : Enol form of acetone Sol.

[CH 3 COCH 3 ] exists in < 0.1% quantity. O O
CH2–C–CH 3 CH2–C–OH
However, the enol form of acetyl acetone i) Br2+NaOH
+ CHBr3
[CH3COCH2OCCH3] exists in approximately ii) H+
Haloform Reaction
15% quantity. NH 3/D
Reason R : enol form of acetyl acetone is
O
stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding,
CH2–C–NH2 CH2–CH2–NH2
which is not possible in enol form of acetone. LiALH4
Choose the correct statement :
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Þ This reaction does not involve haffmann
explanation of A bromanide degradation.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A Þ Rest all options involve haffmann bromamide
(4) A is true but R is false degradation during the reaction of Br2+NaOH
Official Ans. by NTA (2) with amide.
CH3–C–CH3 CH2=C–CH3 16. The process that involves the removal of
Sol. O
(Keto form)
OH
(enol form)
enol from of acetone is very less (< 0.1 %)
EN sulphur from the ores is :
(1) Smelting
(2) Roasting
H-bonding (3) Leaching
H O
O (4) Refining
CH3–C–CH2–C–CH3 CH3–C C Official Ans. by NTA (2)
LL
CH3
O O CH Sol. In roasting process, metal sulphide (MS) ore
enol from (more than 50%) are converted into metal oxide and sulphur is
15. Which of the following reaction DOES NOT remove in the form of SO2 gas.
involve Hoffmann Bromamide degradation ? D
2MS + 3O2 ¾¾ ® 2MO + 2SO2
A
O 17. Match List-I with List-II :

CH2–C–NH2 CH2–NH2 List-I List-II
(1) Br2, NaOH
Name of oxo acid Oxidation state of 'P'
CN NH2 (a) Hypophosphorous (i) +5
i) KOH, H2 O acid
(2) ii) Br2, NaOH
(b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4
O (c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3
CH2–C–CH3 (d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2
i) Br2, NaOH/H
+
CH2–NH2
(3) ii) NH3/D (v) +1
iii) LiAlH4/H2O Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
O
NH2 (1) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Cl
(4) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
i) NH3, NaOH
ii) Br2, NaOH (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4
Sol. (a) Hypophosphorus acid : H3PO2 19. In chromotography technique, the purification
(+1) 3 + x + (–2)2 = 0 of compound is independent of :
x = +1 (1) Mobility or flow of solvent system
(b) Orthophosphoric acid : H3PO4 (2) Solubility of the compound
(+1) 3 + x + (–2)4 = 0 (3) Length of the column or TLC Plate
x = +5 (4) Physical state of the pure compound
(c) Hypophosphoric acid : H4P2O6 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. In chromotography technique, the purification
(+1) 4 + 2x + (–2)6 = 0
of a compound is independent of the physical
x = +4 state of the pure compound.
(d) Orthophosphorous acid : H3PO3 20. A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms
(+1)3 + x + (–2)3 = 0 a hydride with strongest reducing power among
x = +3 group 15 hydrides. The element is :
18. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (1) Sb (2) P (3) As (4) Bi
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Reason R : Sol. In group 15
Assertion A : The H–O–H bond angle in water
EN N ® Non metal
molecule is 104.5o. P
Reason R : The lone pair – lone pair repulsion As
of electrons is higher than the bond pair - bond Sb ® Metalloid
pair repulsion.
Bi ® Metal
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the Hydrides of group 15 elements are
LL
correct correct explanation of A NH 3

PH3
AsH3
(4) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
SbH3
explanation of A
BiH3
Official Ans. by NTA (4) In NH3, hydrogen atom gets partial positive
A
Sol. H 2O charge due to less electronegativity.

But in BiH3, hydrogen atom gets partial
negative charge because hydrogen is more
O electronegative than bismuth.
q H i.e. BiH3 is a strong reducing agent than others
H because we know that H– is a strong reducing
agent.
q = 104.5°
SECTION-B
the hybridisation of oxygen is water molecule
1. For the reaction A(g) B(g) at 495 K,
is sp3.
DrGo = –9.478 kJ mol–1.
So electron geometry of water molecule is
If we start the reaction in a closed container at
tetrahedral and the bond angle should be
495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of
109°28" but as we know that lone pair-lone
B is the equilibrium mixture is _______
pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the
bond pair-bond pair repulsion because lone millimoles. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
pair is occupied more space areound central [R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1; ln 10 = 2.303]
atom than that of bond pair.
5
Sol. DG° = –RT ln Keq
3. 2 Mn O4- + b C2 O24- + c H+ ® x Mn2+ + y CO2
Given DG° = –9.478 KJ/mole
+ z H2O
T = 495K R = 8.314 J mol–1
If the above equation is balanced with integer
So –9.478 × 103 = –495 × 8.314 × ln Keq coefficients, the value of c is _______.
ln Keq = 2.303 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
= ln 10 Sol. Writting the half reaction
So Keq = 10 oxidation half reaction
Now A(g) B(g) MnO -4 ® Mn 2 +
t=0 22 0 balancing oxygen
t=t 22–x x MnO4- ® Mn 2 + + 4H 2 O
balancing Hydrogen
[ B] x
Keq = [ ] = = 10 8H+ + MnO-4 ® Mn 2+ + 4H2 O
C 22 - x
balancing charge
or x = 20 5e– + 8H+ + MnO4- ® Mn 2 + + 4H 2 O
So millmoles of B = 20 EN Reduction half
2. Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic C2 O24- ® CO2
compound provides 420 g of CO2 and 210 g Balancing carbon
of H2O. The percentage composition of carbon
C2 O24- ® 2CO2
and hydrogen in organic compound is 15.3 and
Balancing charge
________ respectively. (Round off to the
Nearest Integer) C2 O24- ® 2CO2 + 2e -
LL
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Net equation

Sol. 44 gm CO2 have 12 gm carbon 16H + 2MnO4- + 5C 2 O24- ® 10CO2 + 2Mn 2 + + 8H 2 O
+
So c = 16
12
So, 420 gm CO2 Þ ´ 420 4. AB 2 is 10% dissociated in water to A2+ and
44
B–. The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous
A
1260 solution of AB2 is _______oC. (Round off to

Þ gm carbon the Nearest Integer).
11
[Given : Molal elevation constant of water
Þ 114.545 gram carbon Kb = 0.5 K kg mol–1 boiling point of pure water
114.545 = 100oC]
So, % of carbon = ´ 100 Official Ans. by NTA (106)
750
Sol. AB2 ® A2+ + 2B–
; 15.3 % t=0 a 0 0
18 gm H2O Þ 2 gm H2 t = t a –aa aa 2aa
nT = a –aa+aa+2aa
2 = a (1 + 2a)
210 gm Þ ´ 210
18 so i = 1 + 2a
= 23.33 gm H2 Now DTb = i × m × Kb
DTb = (1 + 2a) × m × Kb
23.33 a = 0.1 m = 10 Kb = 0.5
So, % H2 Þ ´ 100 = 3.11%
DTb = 1.2 × 10 × 0.5
750
=6
» 3%
So boiling point = 106
6
5. The equivalents of ethylene diamine required 1364
to replace the neutral ligands from the Volume of solution = ml
1.89
coordination sphere of the trans-complex of mole of solute
CoCl 3 .4NH 3 is _______. (Round off to the Molarity = V
solution in Litre
Nearest Integer).
6.5 ´ 1.89 ´ 1000
Official Ans. by NTA (2) =
1364
Sol. trans - CoCl3.4NH3 = 9.00
or 7. When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a
trans-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-Broglie
wavelength of emitted electrons is _______ Å.
Cl (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
H3 N NH3 [Use : 3 = 1.73, h = 6.63 × 10
–34 Js
Co Cl m e = 9.1 × 10 –31 kg ; c = 3.0 × 10 8 ms –1 ;

H3 N NH3 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19J]
Cl Official Ans. by NTA (9)
-4NH3 EN hc
+ 2en Sol. Energy incident =
l
6.63 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3.0 ´ 10 8
= eV
Cl 248 ´ 10 -9 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
H2 N NH2
6.63 ´ 3 ´ 100
H2 C CH2 =
Co Cl 248 ´ 1.6
CH2
LL
H2 C
= 0.05 eV × 100 = 5 eV
H2 N NH2
Now using
Cl
E = f + K.E.
As we know that ethylene diamine is a 5 = 3 + K.E.
bidentate ligand and ammonia is a mono dentate K.E. = 2eV = 3.2 × 10–19 J
A
ligand. h
for debroglie wavelength l =
It means overall two ethylene diamine is mv
required to replace the all neutral ligands (four 1
K.E = mv 2
ammonia) from the coordination sphere of this 2
complex. 2KE
so v =
6. A 6.50 molal solution of KOH (aq.) has a m
density of 1.89 g cm–3. The molarity of the h
solution is ________ mol dm–3. (Round off to hence l =
2KE ´ m
the Nearest Integer).
6.63 ´ 10 -34
[Atomic masses: K :39.0 u; O :16.0 u; H :1.0 u] =
2 ´ 3.2 ´ 10 -19 ´ 9.1 ´ 10 -31
Sol. 6.5 molal KOH = 1000gm solvent has 6.63 10 -34 66.3 ´ 10 -10 m
= ´ =
6.5 moles KOH 7.6 10 -25 7.6
so wt of solute = 6.5 × 56 = 8.72 × 10–10 m
= 364 gm » 9 ´ 10 -10 m
wt of solution = 1000 + 364 = 1364 = 9Å
7
8. Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of 10. The decomposition of formic acid on gold
solubility product of 4.0 × 10–12. The ratio of surface follows first order kinetics. If the rate
constant at 300 K is 1.0 × 10 –3 s –1 and the
S (A 2 X)
their molar solubilities i.e. = _______. activation energy Ea = 11.488 kJ mol–1, the rate
S (MX)
constant at 200 K is _______ × 10–5 s–1. (Round
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). of to the Nearest Integer).
Official Ans. by NTA (50) (Given : R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
Sol. For A2X Official Ans. by NTA (10)
+ 2–
A2X ® 2A + X Sol. K300 = 10–4 K200 = ?
2S1 S1 Ea = 11.488 KJ/mole R = 8.314 J/mole-K
-12
Ksp = 4S = 4 ´ 10
3
1
æK ö E æ 1 1 ö
so ln ç K ÷ = R çè 200 - 300 ÷ø
300 a
–4
S1 = 10 è 200 ø
for MX
MX ® M+ + X– æK ö 11.488 ´ 1000 ´ 100
ln ç 300 ÷ = 8.314 ´ 200 ´ 300
S2 S2 è K 200 ø
Ksp = S22 = 4 ´ 10 -12

S2 = 2 × 10–6
EN = 2.303
= ln10
K
so K = 10
300
SA2 X 10 -4
so = = 50 200
SMX 2 ´ 10 -6
LL
9. A certain element crystallises in a bcc lattice of 1
K200 = ´ K 300 = 10 -4
unit cell edge length 27 Å. If the same element 10
under the same conditions crystallises in the fcc = 10 × 10–5 sec–1
lattice, the edge length of the unit cell in Å will
be ________. (Round off to the Nearest
A
Integer).
[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]
[Assume 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41]

Sol. For BCC 3 a = 4r
3
so r= ´ 27
4
for FCC a = 2 2r
3
= 2´ 2´ ´ 27
4
3
= ´ 27
2
= 33
8

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 3. If for a > 0, the feet of perpendiculars from the
1. The number of elements in the set points A(a, –2a, 3) and B(0, 4, 5) on the plane
{x Î ¡ : (|x| – 3) |x + 4| = 6} is equal to lx +my + nz = 0 are points C(0, –a, –1) and D
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1 respectively, then the length of line segment
Official Ans. by NTA (2) CD is equal to :
Sol. x ¹ – 4
(1) 31 (2) 41
(|x| – 3)(|x + 4|) = 6
6 (3) 55 (4) 66
Þ |x| – 3 = | x + 4 |
6 y Sol. A(a,–2a,3) B(0,4,5)
y = |x+4|
y = |x|–3
–4
EN –3
O 3 x
C
(0,–a,–1)
lx + my + nz = 0
m 1
C lies on plane Þ –ma – n = 0 Þ = - ....(1)
No. of solutions = 2 n a
uuur
Let a vector aî + bˆj be obtained by rotating the
LL
2. CA || lî + mjˆ + nkˆ
vector 3iˆ + ˆj by an angle 45° about the origin a - 0 -a 4 m a
= = Þ =- ....(2)
in counterclockwise direction in the first l m n n 4
quadrant. Then the area of triangle having From (1) & (2)
vertices (a, b), (0, b) and (0, 0) is equal to
A
1 -a
1 1 - = Þ a 2 = 4 Þ a = 2 (since a > 0)
(1) (2) 1 (3) (4) 2 2 a 4
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (1) m -1
From (2) =
n 2
Sol.
B(0,b) A'(a,b) Let m = –t Þ n = 2t
2 -2
15° A
(Ö3,1) = Þl =t
l -t
45°
So plane : t(x – y + 2z) = 0
O 30°
(0,0) 6
BD = = 6 C @ (0, -2, -1)
6
1
Area of D(OA'B) = OA'cos15° × OA'sin15°
2 CD = BC 2 - BD 2
1 2 sin 30°
= ( OA ' )
( 6)
2
2 2 = (0 2 + 62 + 62 ) -
1 1
= ( 3 + 1) ´ =
8 2 = 66
1
4. Consider three observations a, b and c such that
é i -iù
b = a + c. If the standard deviation of a + 2, 6. Let A = ê ú , i = -1 .Then, the system of
ë-i i û
b + 2, c + 2 is d, then which of the following
is true ? éxù é 8 ù
linear equations A8 ê ú = ê ú has :
(1) b2 = 3(a2 + c2) + 9d2 ë y û ë64 û
(2) b2 = a2 + c2 + 3d2 (1) A unique solution
(3) b2 = 3(a2 + c2 + d2) (2) Infinitely many solutions
(4) b2 = 3(a2 + c2) – 9d2 (3) No solution
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (4) Exactly two solutions
Sol. For a, b, c
a+b+c
mean = (= x) é i -i ù
3 A= ê
Sol. ú
b=a+c ë -i i û
2b
Þ x= ......(1) é -2 2 ù é -1 1 ù
3 A2 = ê ú= 2ê ú
S.D. (a + 2, b + 2, c + 2) = S.D. (a, b, c) = d ë 2 -2 û ë 1 -1û
a 2 + b2 + c2 é 2 -2 ù é 1 -1ù
Þ d2 = - (x)2
EN 3 A4 = 22 ê ú = 8ê ú
2
ë -2 2 û ë -1 1 û
a 2 + b 2 + c 2 4b
Þ d2 = -
3 9 é 2 -2 ù é 1 -1ù
A8 = 64 ê ú = 128 ê ú
Þ 9d = 3(a + b + c2) – 4b2
2 2 2
ë -2 2 û ë -1 1 û
Þ b2 = 3(a2 + c2) – 9d2
éxù é 8 ù
æ pö A8 ê ú = ê ú
5. If for x Î ç 0, ÷ , log 10sinx + log10cosx = –1 ë y û ë64 û
LL
è 2ø
1 é 1 -1ù é x ù é8ù
and log10(sinx + cosx) = (log10n – 1), n > 0, Þ 128 ê úê ú = ê64 ú
2 ë -1 1 û ë y û ë û
then the value of n is equal to :
(1) 20 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 16 é x-y ù é8ù
Þ 128 ê ú= ê 64 ú
A
Official Ans. by NTA (2) ë-x + yû ë û
æ pö 1
Sol. x Î ç 0, ÷ Þ x-y= .....(1)
è 2ø 16
log10sinx + log10cosx = –1 1
Þ log10sinx.cosx = –1 & -x + y = .....(2)
2
1 Þ From (1) & (2) : No solution.
Þ sin x.cos x = ......(1)
10 7. If the three normals drawn to the parabola,
1 y2 = 2x pass through the point (a, 0) a ¹ 0, then
log10 (sin x + cos x) = (log10 n - 1)
2 'a' must be greater than :
æ 1ö
ç log10 n - 2 ÷ n 1 1
Þ sin x + cos x = 10 è ø
= (1) (2) – (3) –1 (4) 1
10 2 2
by squaring Official Ans. by NTA (4)
n Sol. For standard parabola
1 + 2sinx.cosx = For more than 3 normals (on axis)
10
1 n L
Þ 1+ = Þ n = 12 x> (where L is length of L.R.)
5 10 2
2
For y2 = 2x T : (4l + 3, –l –1, 2l + 2)
L.R. = 2 @ (2µ + 1, µ + 2, -2µ - 4)
for (a, 0) 4l + 3 = –2µ + 1 Þ 2l + µ = –1
L.R. l + µ = –3 Þ l = 2
a> Þ a >1
2 & µ = –5 l + µ = –3 Þ l = 2
8. Let the position vectors of two points P and Q So point T : (11, –3, 6)
uuur æ 2ˆj + kˆ ö
be 3iˆ - ˆj + 2kˆ and î + 2 ˆj - 4kˆ , respectively. Let
( )
OA = 11iˆ - 3jˆ + 6kˆ ± ç ÷ 5
R and S be two points such that the direction è 5 ø
ratios of lines PR and QS are (4, –1, 2) and uuur
(–2, 1, –2), respectively. Let lines PR and ( ) (
OA = 11iˆ - 3ˆj + 6kˆ ± 2 ˆj + kˆ)
uuur uuur
QS intersect at T. If the vector TA is OA = 11iˆ - ˆj + 7kˆ
uuur uuur
perpendicular to both PR and QS and the or
uuur 9iˆ - 5ˆj + 5kˆ
length of vector TA is 5 units, then the
uuur
modulus of a position vector of A is : | OA |= 121 + 1 + 49 = 171
(1) 482 (2) 171
or
(3) 5
EN
(4) 227 9.
81 + 25 + 25 = 131
Let the functions ƒ : ¡ ® ¡ and g : ¡ ® ¡ be
defined as :
Sol. P(3, –1, 2)
ìx + 2, x < 0 ìx3 , x <1
Q(1, 2, –4) ƒ(x) = í 2 and g(x) = í
uuur îx , x³0 î3x - 2, x ³ 1
PR || 4iˆ - ˆj + 2kˆ
Then, the number of points in ¡ where (ƒog)(x)
LL
uuur
QS || -2iˆ + ˆj - 2kˆ is NOT differentiable is equal to :
dr's of normal to the plane containing (1) 3 (2) 1
P, T & Q will be proportional to : (3) 0 (4) 2
î ˆj kˆ Official Ans. by NTA (2)
A
4 -1 2 ìg(x) + 2, g(x) < 0

ƒ(g(x)) = í
-2 1 -2 Sol.
î(g(x)) , g(x) ³ 0
2
ì x3 + 2, x<0
ï 6
P Q = íx , x Î [0,1)
ï(3x - 2)2 , x Î [1, ¥)
î
T
ì 3x 2 , x<0
ï 5
(ƒog(x)) ' = í6x , x Î (0,1)
l m n ï 2(3x - 2) ´ 3, x Î (1, ¥ )
\ = = î
0 4 2
At 'O'
uur x - 3 y + 1 z - 2 L.H.L. ¹ R.H.L. (Discontinuous)
For point, T : PT = = = =l
4 -1 2 At '1'
uuur x - 1 y - 1 z + 4 L.H.D. = 6 = R.H.D.
QT = = = =µ Þ ƒog(x) is differentiable for x Î ¡ –{0}
-2 1 -2
3
10. Which of the following Boolean expression is k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
a tautology ? 60 - 8k
is always divisible by 4 for all value
(1) (p Ù q) Ú (p Ú q) 4
(2) (p Ù q) Ú (p ® q) of k.
(3) (p Ù q) Ù (p ® q) Total rational terms = 8
Total terms = 61
(4) (p Ù q) ® (p ® q)
irrational terms = 53
Official Ans. by NTA (4) n – 1 = 53 – 1 = 52
Sol. p q p Ù q p ® q (p Ù q) ® (p ® q) 52 is divisible by 26.
13. Let P be a plane lx + my + nz = 0 containing
T T T T T
1- x y + 4 z + 2
T F F F T the line, = = . If plane P
1 2 3
F T F T T divides the line segment AB joining points
F F F T T A(–3, –6, 1) and B(2, 4, –3) in ratio k : 1 then
(p Ù q) ® (p ® q) is tautology the value of k is equal to :
11. Let a complex number z, |z| ¹ 1, (1) 1.5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
æ | z | +11 ö Sol.
satisfy log ç 1 2 ÷
£ 2 . Then, the largest
è (| z | -1) ø
EN 2 B(2,4,–3)
value of |z| is equal to _____ . A(–3,–6,1)
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 5 C
Official Ans. by NTA (2) k: 1
æ | z | +11 ö
Sol. log 1 ç ÷£2
è (| z | -1)
2
2 ø
Point C is
LL
| z | +11 1
³ æ 2k - 3 4k - 6 -3k + 1 ö
(| z | -1)2 2 ç , , ÷
è k +1 k +1 k +1 ø
2|z| + 22 ³ (|z| – 1)2
2|z| + 22 ³ |z|2 + 1 – 2|z| x -1 y + 4 z + 2
= =
|z|2 – 4|z| – 21 £ 0 -1 2 3
A
Þ |z| £ 7 Plane lx + my + nz = 0
\ Largest value of |z| is 7 l(–1) + m(2) + n(3) = 0
– l + 2m + 3n = 0 .......(1)
12. If n is the number of irrational terms in the
It also satisfy point (1, –4, –2)
expansion of (3 1/4 + 5 1/8) 60 , then(n – 1) is l – 4m – 2n = 0 .......(2)
divisible by : Solving (1) and (2)
(1) 26 (2) 30 (3) 8 (4) 7 2m + 3n = 4m + 2n
Official Ans. by NTA (1) n = 2m
Sol. (31/4 + 51/8)60 l – 4m – 4m = 0
60 C (3 1/4)60–r .(5 1/8 )r l = 8m
r
60 - r r l m n
60 = =
C r (3) 4 .5 8 8 1 2
For rational terms. l:m:n=8:1:2
r Plane is 8x + y + 2z = 0
= k; 0 £ r £ 60 It will satisfy point C
8
0 £ 8k £ 60 æ 2k - 3 ö æ 4k - 6 ö æ -3k + 1 ö
8ç ÷+ç ÷ + 2ç ÷=0
60 è k +1 ø è k +1 ø è k +1 ø
0£k£ 16k – 24 + 4k – 6 – 6k + 2 = 0
8
0 £ k £ 7.5 14k = 28 \ k=2
4
14. The range of a Î ¡ for which the function Sol. E1 : Event denotes spade is missing
1 3
æxö æxö
ƒ(x) = (4a - 3)(x + loge 5) + 2(a - 7) cot ç ÷ sin 2 ç ÷ , ; P ( E1 ) =
P(E1 ) =
2
è ø è2ø 4 4
A : Event drawn two cards are spade
x ¹ 2np, n Î ¥ , has critical points, is :
é 4 ù 1 æ 12 C 2 ö 3 æ 13 C 2 ö 3 æ 13 C 2 ö
(1) (–3, 1) (2) ê - , 2 ú ´ç ÷ + ´ç ÷ + ´ç ÷
ë 3 û 4 è 51 C 2 ø 4 è 51 C 2 ø 4 è 51 C 2 ø
P(A) =
(3) [1, ¥) (4) (–¥, –1] 1 æ 12 C 2 ö 3 æ 13 C 2 ö
´ç ÷ + ´ ç 51 ÷
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 4 è 51 C 2 ø 4 è C2 ø
Sol. ƒ(x) = (4a – 3)(x + loge5) + (a – 7)sinx
ƒ(x) = (4a – 3)(1) + (a – 7)cosx = 0 39
=
3 - 4a 50
Þ cos x =
a-7 16. Let [x] denote greatest integer less than or
3 - 4a 3n
-1 £ <1 equal to x. If for n Î ¥, (1 - x + x 3 )n = å a j x j ,
a-7
j =0
3 - 4a 3 - 4a
+1³ 0 <1
a-7 EN a-7 é 3n ù
ê ú
é 3n -1 ù
ê ú
ë 2 û ë 2 û
3 - 4a + a - 7
³0
3 - 4a
-1 < 0
then åa
j =0
2j +4 å j=0
a 2 j + 1 is equal to :
a-7 a-7
(1) 2 (2) 2n–1
-3a - 4 3 - 4a - a + 7
³0 <0 (3) 1 (4) n
a-7 a-7
3a + 4 -5a + 10
LL
£0 <0 3n
a-7 a-7 Sol. (1 - x + x 3 )n = åa j xj
5a - 10 j= 0
>0
a -7 (1 – x + x3)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 ....... + a3nx3n
5 (a - 2) é 3n ù
ê 2 ú
>0 ë û
A
a-7 åa
j= 0
2j = Sum of a0 + a2 + a4 ........
é 3n -1 ù
0 2 7 ê 2 ú
ë û
é 4 ö
a Î ê- , 2 ÷
åj= 0
a 2 j + 1 = Sum of a1 + a3 + a5 .......
ë 3 ø
put x = 1
é 4 ö
Check end point ê - , 2 ÷ 1 = a0 + a1 + a2 + a3 ......... + a3n .......(A)
ë 3 ø
Put x = –1
15. A pack of cards has one card missing. Two
1 = a0 – a1 + a2 – a3 ......... + (–1)3na3n .......(B)
cards are drawn randomly and are found to be
spades. The probability that the missing card Solving (A) and (B)
is not a spade, is : a0 + a2 + a4 ..... = 1
3 52 a1 + a3 + a5 ....... = 0
(1) (2)
4 867 é 3n ù é 3n -1 ù
ê ú ê ú
ë 2 û ë 2 û
39 22
(3)
50
(4)
425
åa
j= 0
2j +4 åj= 0
a 2 j+1 = 1
5
17. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential ky – k2 = –hx + h2
hx + ky = h2 + k2
dy æpö
equation, + 2y tan x = sin x,
y ç ÷ = 0 , then hx h 2 + k 2
dx è3ø y=- +
k k
the maximum value of the function y(x) over ¡
is equal to : x 2 y2
tangent to - =1
9 16
1 15 1
(1) 8 (2) (3) – (4) c2 = a2m2 – b2
2 4 8 2 2
æ h2 + k2 ö æ hö
Official Ans. by NTA (4) ç ÷ = 9 ç - ÷ - 16
dy è k ø è kø
Sol. + 2y tan x = sin x (x2 + y2)2 = 9x2 – 16y2
dx
19. The number of roots of the equation,
I.F. = e ò
2 tan xdx
= e 2 ln sec x
(81)sin x + (81)cos x = 30
2 2
I.F. = sec2x
in the interval [0, p] is equal to :
y.(sec 2 x) = ò sin x.sec 2 xdx
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 2
y.(sec2 x) = ò sec x tan xdx Official Ans. by NTA (2)
y.(sec 2 x) = sec x + C
EN (81)sin x + (81)cos x = 30
2 2
Sol.
p
x= ;y=0
(81)
1
3
(81)
sin 2 x
+ = 30
Þ C = –2
(18 )
2
sin x
sec x - 2
Þ y= = cos x - 2 cos2 x
( 81)sin x = t
2
sec 2 x
LL
dy 1 81
y = t – 2t2 Þ = 1 - 4t = 0 Þ t = t+ = 30
dt 4 t
1 1 2 -1 1 t2 – 30t + 81 = 0
\ max = - = =
4 8 8 8 (t – 3)(t – 27) = 0
18. The locus of the midpoints of the chord of the 2 2
(81)sin x
= 31 or (81)sin x
= 33
circle, x 2 + y 2 = 25 which is tangent to the
A
2 2
x 2 y2 34sin x
= 31 or 34 sin x
= 33
hyperbola, - = 1 is :
9 16 1 3
sin 2 x = or sin 2 x =
(1) (x2 + y2)2 – 16x2 + 9y2 = 0 4 4
(2) (x2 + y2)2 – 9x2 + 144y2 = 0
(3) (x2 + y2)2 – 9x2 – 16y2 = 0
(4) (x2 + y2)2 – 9x2 + 16y2 = 0 Total sol. = 4
O p
k
æ 6r ö
Sol.
x2 + y2 = 25 20. Let Sk = å tan -1 ç 2 r +1 2 r +1 ÷ . Then lim Sk is
r =1 è2 +3 ø k ®¥
(0,0) equal to :
-1 æ 3 ö p
(1) tan ç ÷ (2)
(h,k) è2ø 2
Equation of chord -1 æ 3 ö
(3) cot ç ÷ (4) tan–1(3)
h è2ø
y – k = - (x - h)
k Official Ans. by NTA (3)
6
SECTION-B
-1 æ 6r ö
k
Sol. Sk = å tan ç 2 r +1 2 r +1 ÷ 1. Consider an arithmetic series and a geometric
r= 1 è2 +3 ø
series having four initial terms from the set
Divide by 32r {11, 8, 21, 16, 26, 32, 4}. If the last terms of
these series are the maximum possible four
æ æ 2 ör ö
k ç ç ÷ ÷ digit numbers, then the number of common
-1 ç è 3ø ÷
å
r= 1
tan
ç æ 2 ö2 r ÷
terms in these two series is equal to ______ .
ç ç ÷ .2 + 3 ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (3)
èè3ø ø Sol. GP : 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256, 512, 1024, 2048,
4096, 8192
æ r ö AP : 11, 16, 21, 26, 31, 36
ç æ2ö ÷
ç ÷ Common terms : 16, 256, 4096 only
-1 ç ÷
k
è 3ø
å tan ç ÷ Let ƒ : (0, 2) ® ¡ be defined as
ç 3 æç æ 2 ö + 1 ö÷ ÷
2 r +1 2.
r= 1
ç ç çè 3 ÷ø ÷÷ æ æ px ö ö
è è øø ƒ(x) = log 2 ç1 + tan ç ÷ ÷ .
è è 4 øø
r
æ2ö 2æ æ1ö æ2ö ö
Let ç ÷ = t EN Then, lim ç ƒ ç ÷ + ƒ ç ÷ + .... + ƒ(1) ÷ is equal
è 3ø n ®¥ n
è ènø ènø ø
to _______ .
æ t ö Official Ans. by NTA (1)
k ç ÷
å tan ç 3 ÷
-1
2 n
1 ærö
r =1 ç 1+ t2 ÷ Sol. E = 2 lim å f ç ÷
è 3 ø n ®¥
r=1 n è n ø
LL
1
æ 2t ö 2 æ px ö
k ç t-
3 ÷
E= ò ln ç 1 + tan ÷ dx
ln2 0 è 4 ø
.....(i)
å tan -1 ç
2t ÷
r =1 ç 1 + t. ÷ replacing x ® 1 – x
è 3 ø
1
2 æ p ö
E= ò ln ç 1 + tan (1 – x) ÷ dx
ln2 0 è
A
k
æ æ 2t ö ö 4 ø
å ç tan -1
(t) - tan -1 ç ÷ ÷
è 3 øø
r =1 è 1
2 æ æ p p öö
ln2 ò0 è
E= ln ç 1 + tan ç – x ÷ ÷ dx
k æ -1 æ 2 ö r -1 æ 2 ö
r +1
ö è 4 4 øø
å çç tan ç ÷ - tan ç ÷ ÷÷
r =1 è è3ø è 3ø ø
æ p ö
2
1
ç 1 + tan 4 x ÷
ln2 ò0 ç 1 + tan p x ÷
æ2ö æ2ö
k +1
E= ln ç 1 + ÷ dx
Sk = tan -1 ç ÷ - tan -1 ç ÷
è3ø è 3ø è 4 ø
æ -1 æ 2 ö -1 æ 2 ö
k +1
ö 1
=
S¥ k ®¥ çç
lim tan ç ÷ - tan ç ÷ ÷÷ 2 æ 2 ö
è è3ø è 3ø ø E= ò
ln2 0
ln ç
px ÷ dx
ç 1 + tan ÷
è 4 ø
æ2ö
= tan -1 ç ÷ - tan -1 ( 0 ) 1
è3ø 2 æ æ px ö ö
E= ò ç ln2 – ln ç 1 + tan ÷ ÷ dx .....(ii)
ln2 0 è è 4 øø
æ2ö æ 3ö
\ S¥ = tan -1 ç ÷ = cot -1 ç ÷ equation (i) + (ii)
3
è ø è2ø
E=1
7
3. Let ABCD be a square of side of unit length. Taking greater slope of CE as

Let a circle C1 centered at A with unit radius 2 + 3
is drawn. Another circle C2 which touches C1
y – 1 = (2 + 3 ) (x – 1)
and the lines AD and AB are tangent to it, is Put y = 0
also drawn. Let a tangent line from the
–1 = (2 + 3 ) (x – 1)
point C to the circle C2 meet the side AB at E.
-1æ 2- 3 ö
If the length of EB is a + 3 b , where a, b are ´ç ÷ = x -1
2 + 3 çè 2 - 3 ÷ø
integers, then a + b is equal to_______.
x – 1 = 3 – 1
EB = 1 – x = 1 – ( 3 – 1)
Sol.
EB = 2 – 3
ae x - b cos x + ce - x
4. If lim = 2 , then a + b + c is
x 0® xsin x
EN equal to _______.
ae x – b cos x + ce – x
Sol. lim =2
Here AO + OD = 1 or ( 2 + 1) r = 1 x®0 x sin x
LL
Þ r = 2 -1 æ x2 ö æ x2 ö æ x2 ö
a ç1 + x + ... ÷ – b ç1 – + ... ÷ + c ç1 – x + ÷
Þ lim è 2! ø è 2! ø è 2! ø = 2
equation of circle (x – r)2 + (y – r)2 = r2 x ®0 æ xsin x ö
ç ÷x
è x ø
Equation of CE
a–b+c=0 .....(1)
y – 1 = m (x – 1) a–c=0 .....(2)
A
mx – y + 1 – M = 0 a+b+c
& =2
It is tangent to circle 2
Þ a+ b+c = 4
mr - r + 1 - m 5. The total number of 3 × 3 matrices A having
\ = r
m +1
2
enteries from the set (0, 1, 2, 3) such that the
sum of all the diagonal entries of AAT is 9, is
(m - 1)r + 1 - m equal to _____.
= r
m +1
2
éa b cù
(m - 1)2 (r - 1)2 Sol. Let A = ê d e f ú
= r2
m +1
2 êë g h i úû
diagonal elements of
Put r = 2 - 1 AAT, a2 + b2 + c2, d2 + e2 + f2, g2 + b2 + c2
Sum = a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2 + f2 + g2 + h2 + i2 = 9
On solving m = 2 – 3, 2 + 3 a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, i Î {0, 1, 2, 3}
8
x
Case No. of Matrices
(1) All – 1s 9! Sol. y(x) = ò (2t 2 - 15t + 10) dt
= 1 0
9!
(2) One ® 3 9! y '(x)]x = a = éë2x 2 - 15x + 10 ùû = 2a 2 - 15a + 10
remaining-0 =9 a
1!´ 8!
(3) One-2 9! 1
= 8 ´ 63 Slope of normal = -
five-1s 1!´ 5!´ 3! 3
three-0s Þ 2a 2 - 15a + 10 = 3 Þ a = 7
(4) two – 2's 9!
one-1 = 63 ´ 4 1
2!´ 6! & a= (rejected)
six-0's 2
7
Total no. of ways = 1 + 9 + 8 × 63 + 63 × 4
b = y(7) = ò (2t - 15t + 10)dt
2
= 766 0
6. Let 7
é 2t 3 15t 2 ù
=ê - + 10t ú
é -30 20 56 ù é2 7 w2 ù ë 3 2 û0
ê ú
P = êê 90 140 112 úú and A = ê -1 -w 1 ú
Þ 6b = 4 ´ 73 - 45 ´ 49 + 60 ´ 7
êë120 60 14 úû ê 0 –w – w + 1ú
ë û |a + 6b| = 406
where w =
2
EN
-1 + i 3
, and I 3 be the identity
8. Let the curve y = y(x) be the solution of the
differential equation,
dy
= 2(x + 1) . If the
matrix of order 3. If the determinant of the dx
matrix (P–1AP – I3)2 is aw2, then the value of numerical value of area bounded by the curve
a is equal to ______ . 4 8
y = y(x) and x-axis is , then the value of
LL
Sol. Let M = (P–1AP – I)2 y(1) is equal to _______ .
= (P–1AP)2 – 2P–1AP + I Official Ans. by NTA (2)
= P–1A2P – 2P–1AP + I dy
PM = A2P – 2AP + P Sol. = 2(x + 1)
dx
= (A2 – 2A.I + I2)P
A
Þ Det(PM) = Det((A – I)2 × P)

Þ DetP.DetM = Det(A – I)2 × Det(P)
Þ ò dy = ò 2(x + 1)dx
Þ y(x) = x2 + 2x + C
Þ Det M = (Det(A – I))2 x = –1
4 8
é1 7 w2 ù Area =
ê ú 3 –1+Ö1–C
Now A - I = ê -1 - w - 1 1 ú
ê0 -1 + 1 - C
ë -w - w úû
-1+ 1- C
4 8
Det(A – I) = (w2 + w + w) + 7(–w) + w3 = –6w Þ 2 ò
-1
(-(x + 1)2 - C + 1)dx =
3
Det((A – I))2 = 36w 2
-1+ 1- C
Þ a = 36 é (x + 1)3 ù 4 8
Þ 2 ê- - Cx + x ú =
7. If the normal to the curve ë 3 û -1 3
x
Þ - ( 1 - C)3 + 3c - 3C 1 - C
= ò (2t - 15t + 10) dt at a point (a,b) is
2
y(x)
0
-3 + 3 1 - C - 3C + 3 = 2 8
parallel to the line x + 3y = –5, a > 1, then the Þ C = –1
value of |a + 6b| is equal to ________ .
Þ ƒ(x) = x2 + 2x – 1, ƒ(1) = 2
9
9. Let ƒ : ¡ ® ¡ be a continuous function such Sol. w = zz - 2z + 2
3i
that ƒ(x) + ƒ(x + 1) = 2, for all x Î ¡. If z+i
=1 z
8 3 z - 3i y=1
I1 = ò ƒ(x)dx and I2 = ò ƒ(x)dx,
-1
then the value
Þ | z + i | =| z - 3i |
0 i
Þ z = x + i, x Î ¡
of I1 + 2I2 is equal to ________ .
w = (x + i)(x – i) – 2(x + i) + 2
Official Ans. by NTA (16) = x2 + 1 – 2x – 2i + 2
Sol. ƒ(x) + ƒ(x + 1) = 2 Re(w) = x2 – 2x + 3
Þ ƒ(x) is periodic with period = 2 For min (Re(w)), x = 1
8 2 p
ò ƒ(x)dx = 4 ò ƒ(x)dx
-i
I1 = Þ w = 2 – 2i = 2(1 – i) = 2 2 e 4
0 0
np
-i
1
wn = (2 2) n e 4
= 4 ò ( ƒ(x) + ƒ(1 + x) ) dx = 8 For real & minimum value of n,
0
n=4
Similarly I2 = 2 × 2 = 4
I1 + 2I 2 = 16
10. Let z and w be two complex numbers such that
EN z+i
w = zz - 2z + 2, = 1 and Re(w) has
z - 3i
minimum value. Then, the minimum value of
n Î ¥ for which wn is real, is equal to _____.
LL
A
10
Final JEE - Main Exam March, 2021/16-03-2021/Evening Session

(Held On Tuesday 16th March, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
SECTION-A Sol. From energy conservation,
1. The following logic gate is equivalent to :
é after bullet gets embedded till the ù
êësystem comes momentarily at rest úû
A
Y
B 1
(M + m)g h = (M + m)v12
2
(1) NOR Gate (2) OR Gate
[v1 is velocity after collision]
(3) AND Gate (4) NAND Gate
Official Ans. by NTA (1) \ v1 = 2gh
Sol. Truth table for the given logic gate : Applying momentum conservation, (just
before and just after collision)
ENA
0
0
1
1
B Y
0
1
0
1
1
1
1
0
The truth table is similar to that of a NOR gate.

3.
mv = (M + m)v1
æM+mö
v = çè
m ÷
ø
v1 =
»831.55 m / s
6
10 ´ 10 -3
´ 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 9.8 ´ 10 -2
uur
A charge Q is moving dI distance in the
r
magnetic field B . Find the value of work done
2. A large block of wood of mass M = 5.99 kg is r
by B .
LL
hanging from two long massless cords. A
(1) 1 (2) Infinite
bullet of mass m = 10g is fired into the block
(3) Zero (4) –1
and gets embedded in it. The (block + bullet)
then swing upwards, their centre of mass rising
Sol. Since force on a point charge by magnetic field
a vertical distance h = 9.8 cm before the
(block + bullet) pendulum comes momentarily r r r r
is always perpendicular to v éë F = qV ´ Bùû
to rest at the end of its arc. The speed of the
\ Work by magnetic force on the point charge
A
bullet just before collision is : (Take g = 9.8 ms–2)

is zero.
4. What will be the nature of flow of water from
a circular tap, when its flow rate increased from
0.18 L/min to 0.48 L/min ? The radius of the
tap and viscosity of water are 0.5 cm and
10–3 Pa s, respectively.
h
m M (Density of water : 103 kg/m3)
v (1) Unsteady to steady flow

(2) Remains steady flow
(1) 841.4 m/s (2) 811.4 m/s (3) Remains turbulent flow
(3) 831.4 m/s (4) 821.4 m/s (4) Steady flow to unsteady flow
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
1
Sol. The nature of flow is determined by Reynolds Sol. Given :

Number. r
v = 0.5t 2 î + 3t ˆj + 9kˆ
rvD r
Re =
h v at t = 2 = 2 î + 6 ˆj + 9kˆ
\ Angle made by direction of motion of
ér ® density of fluid ; h ® coefficient of ù
êv ® velocity of flow viscosity ú mosquito will be,
êë D ® Diameter of pipe úû
2 -1 117
cos-1 (from x-axis) = tan
From NCERT 11 2
If Re < 1000 ® flow is steady
6 85
cos-1 (from y-axis) = tan
-1
1000 < Re < 2000 ® flow becomes unsteady 11 6
Re > 2000 ® flow is turbulent 9 40
cos-1 (from z-axis) = tan
-1
11 9
0.18 ´ 10 -3 1 ´ 10 -2 None of the option is matching.
R e initial = 10 3 ´ ´
p ´ (0.5 ´ 10 -2 )2 ´ 60 10 -3 Hence this question should be bonus.
= 382.16
R e final = 103 ´
= 1019.09
EN 0.48 ´ 10 -3
p ´ (0.5 ´ 10 -2 )2 ´ 60
´
1 ´ 10 -2
10 -3
6. Find out the surface charge density at the
intersection of point x = 3 m plane and x-axis,
in the region of uniform line charge of 8 nC/
m lying along the z-axis in free space.
(1) 0.424 nC m –2
(3) 0.07 nC m–2
(2) 47.88 C/m
(4) 4.0 nC m–2
5. A mosquito is moving with a velocity Official Ans. by NTA (1)
LL
r 2Kl s
v = 0.5t 2 î + 3t ˆj + 9kˆ m/s and accelerating in =
Sol. r e0 (x = 3m)
uniform conditions. What will be the direction
of mosquito after 2s ? C
s = 0.424 ´ 10 -9
m2
-1 æ 2 ö 7. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an
(1) tan çè ÷ø from x-axis
3 electron and a proton were calculated by
A
accelerating them through same potential of

100 V. What should nearly be the ratio of their
-1 æ 2 ö
(2) tan çè ÷ø from y-axis wavelengths ? (mP = 1.00727 u, me = 0.00055u)
3
(1) 1860 : 1 (2) (1860)2 : 1
(3) 41.4 : 1 (4) 43 : 1
-1 æ 5 ö Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(3) tan çè ÷ø from y-axis
2 h h h
Sol. l= = =
mv 2mK 2mqV
-1 æ 5 ö
(4) tan çè ÷ø from x-axis l1 m2
2 =
l2 m1
le mP
Official Ans. by ALLEN (Bonus) = = 1831.4 = 42.79
lP me
2
8. For the given circuit, comment on the type of 11. The refractive index of a converging lens is 1.4.
transformer used : What will be the focal length of this lens if it
is placed in a medium of same refractive
i1 iL 0.11A
index ? (Assume the radii of curvature of the
L faces of lens are R 1 and R2 respectively)
O V (1) 1 (2) Infinite
220V ~ P S A 60W 2
D R1 R 2
(3) R - R (4) Zero
1 2
(1) Auxilliary transformer Official Ans. by NTA (2)

(2) Auto transformer
(3) Step-up transformer 1 é mL ùé 1 1 ù
Sol. = ê - 1ú ê - ú
(4) Step down transformer F ë mS û ë R1 R 2 û
P 60 1
Sol. VS = = = 545.45
If mL = mS Þ =0Þ F=¥
i 0.11 F
9.
VP = 220
VS > VP
EN
Þ Step up transformer
The half-life of Au198 is 2.7 days. The activity
of 1.50 mg of Au 198 if its atomic weight is
198 g mol–1 is, (NA = 6 × 1023/mol)
(1) 240 Ci (2) 357 Ci
12. In order to determine the Young's Modulus of
a wire of radius 0.2 cm (measured using a scale
of least count = 0.001 cm) and length 1m
(measured using a scale of least count = 1 mm),
a weight of mass 1kg (measured using a scale
of least count = 1g) was hanged to get the
(3) 535 Ci (4) 252 Ci
LL
Official Ans. by NTA (2) elongation of 0.5 cm (measured using a scale
Sol. A = lN of least count 0.001 cm). What will be the
æ ln 2 ö
N = nNA çè t1/2 = l ÷ø fractional error in the value of Young's
æ 1.5 ´ 10 -3 ö Modulus determined by this experiment ?
N= ç NA
è 198 ÷ø
(1) 0.14%
æ ln 2 ö (2) 0.9%
A = ç t ÷N
è ø
A
1/2 (3) 9%
1 Curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq (4) 1.4%
A = 365 Bq
10. Calculate the value of mean free path (l) for
oxygen molecules at temperature 27°C Stress FL mg.L
Sol. Y = = =
and pressure 1.01 × 10 5 Pa. Assume the Strain Al pR 2 .l
molecular diameter 0.3 nm and the gas is ideal.
DY Dm DL DR Dl
(k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1) = + + 2. +
Y m L R l
(1) 58 nm (2) 32 nm
(3) 86 nm (4) 102 nm
Official Ans. by NTA (4) DY é 1 1 æ 0.001 ö 0.001 ù
´ 100 = 100 ê + + 2ç +
Y ë1000 1000 è 0.2 ø÷ 0.5 úû
RT
Sol. l = 2pd 2 N P
A
1 1 1 14
l =102 nm = + +1+ = = 1.4%
10 10 5 10
3
13. A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. (1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
It is mounted rigidly as shown. The metal A has
correct
higher coefficient of expansion compared to
that of metal B. When the bimetallic strip is (2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
placed in a cold both, it will :
incorrect
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false

A B

(1) Bend towards the right
Sol. Statement I :
(2) Not bend but shrink
(3) Neither bend nor shrink v max = mRg = (0.2) ´ 2 ´ 9.8
(4) Bend towards the left
Official Ans. by NTA (4) vmax = 1.97 m/s
Sol. aA > aB 7 km/h = 1.944 m/s
Length of both strips will decrease
14.
DLA > DLB
EN
A resistor develops 500 J of thermal energy in
20s when a current of 1.5 A is passed through
Speed is lower than vmax, hence it can take safe
turn.
Statement II
vmax =
é tan q + m ù
Rg ê ú
ë 1 - m tan q û
it. If the current is increased from 1.5 A to 3A, é1 + 0.2 ù

2 ´ 9.8 ê ú = 5.42 m / s
LL
what will be the energy developed in 20 s. =
ë 1 - 0.2 û
(1) 1500 J (2) 1000 J
(3) 500 J (4) 2000 J 18.5 km/h = 5.14 m/s
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Speed is lower than vmax, hence it can take safe
Sol. 500 = (1.5)2 × R × 20 turn.
E = (3)2 × R × 20 16. Two identical antennas mounted on identical
E = 2000 J
towers are separated from each other by a
15. Statement I : A cyclist is moving on an
A
unbanked road with a speed of distance of 45 km. What should nearly be

7 kmh –1 and takes a sharp the minimum height of receiving antenna
circular turn along a path of
to receive the signals in line of sight ?
radius of 2m without reducing
the speed. The static friction (Assume radius of earth is 6400 km)
coefficient is 0.2. The cyclist (1) 19.77 m (2) 39.55 m
will not slip and pass the curve
(g = 9.8 m/s2) (3) 79.1 m (4) 158.2 m
Statement II : If the road is banked at an angle
of 45°, cyclist can cross the
curve of 2m radius with the Sol. D = 2 2Rh
speed of 18.5 kmh –1 without
slipping. D2 452
In the light of the above statements, choose the h= = km @ 39.55m
8R 8 ´ 6400
correct answer from the options given below.
4
17. The magnetic field in a region is given by 19. Calculate the time interval between 33% decay
and 67% decay if half-life of a substance is 20
r æ xö
B = B0 ç ÷ kˆ . A square loop of side d is placed minutes.
è aø
(1) 60 minutes (2) 20 minutes
with its edges along the x and y axes. The loop (3) 40 minutes (4) 13 minutes
r
is moved with a constant velocity v = v 0 î . The
Sol. N1 = N 0 e - lt1
emf induced in the loop is :
N1
y = e -lt1
N0
z 0.67 = e -lt1
d
ln(0.67) = –lt1
d N 2 = N 0 e - lt 2
x N2
= e -lt 2
B0 v 20 d B0 v 0 d N0
(1)
Sol. E1 = 0
2a
Bv d
(3) 0 0
a EN
2
(2)

B (x + d)
B (x)
a
v0d
2a
B v d2
(4) 0 0
2a
0.33 = e -lt 2
ln(0.33) = –lt2
ln(0.67) – ln(0.33) = lt1 – lt2
æ 0.67 ö
l(t1 – t2) = ln çè
0.33 ÷ø
l (t 1 - t 2 ) @ ln 2
E2 = 0 v0d ln 2
a t1 - t 2 ; = t1/2
l
LL
Enet = E1 – E2 Half life = t1/2 = 20 minutes.
E2 E1
20. Red light differs from blue light as they
B v d2 x x+d
Enet = 0 0 have :
a
(1) Different frequencies and different wavelengths
18. Amplitude of a mass-spring system, which is (2) Different frequencies and same wavelengths
(3) Same frequencies and same wavelengths
executing simple harmonic motion
(4) Same frequencies and different wavelengths
decreases with time. If mass = 500g, Decay
A

constant = 20 g/s then how much time is
Sol. Red light and blue light have different
required for the amplitude of the system to drop
wavelength and different frequency.
to half of its initial value ? (ln 2 = 0.693)
(1) 34.65 s (2) 17.32 s SECTION-B
(3) 0.034 s (4) 15.01 s 1. The energy dissipated by a resistor is 10 mJ in
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 1s when an electric current of 2 mA flows
-
bt
through it. The resistance is _______ W.
Sol. A = A0e–gt = A 0 e 2m
bt
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
A0 -
= A0e 2 m Official Ans. by NTA (2500)
2
bt Sol. Ans. (2500)
= ln 2
2m Q = i2 RT
2m 2 ´ 500 ´ 0.693
t= ln 2 = Q 10 ´ 10 -3
b 20 R= = = 2500 W
t = 34.65 second. i 2 t 4 ´ 10 -6 ´ 1
5
2. In a parallel plate capacitor set up, the plate area

î ˆj kˆ
of capacitor is 2 m2 and the plates are separated
by 1m. If the space between the plates are filled r r r = 0 -3 -4
t= r ´F
with a dielectric material of thickness 0.5 m and 4 3 4
area 2m 2 (see fig.) the capacitance of the
set-up will be ______ e0. = î( -12 + 12) - ˆj(0 + 16) + k(0
ˆ + 12)
(Dielectric constant of the material = 3.2)
= -16iˆ + 12kˆ
d r
\ t = 16 2 + 122 = 20
4. If one wants to remove all the mass of the earth

to infinity in order to break it up completely.
The amount of energy that needs to be supplied
k
x GM 2
Sol. Ans. (3)

EN
d/2
will be
5 R
where x is ____ (Round off to
the Nearest Integer)

(M is the mass of earth, R is the radius of earth,
G is the gravitational constant)
e0 A 2e0 A Sol. Ans. (3)

C= =
LL
d d d Energy given = Uf – Ui
+ +d
2K 2 K
æ 3 GM 2 ö
= 0 – ç-
2 ´ 2e 0 4 ´ 3.2 è 5 R ÷ø
= = e
1 4.2 0
+1
3.2
3 GM 2
=
A
= 3.04 e0 5 R
r
3. A force F = 4iˆ + 3ˆj + 4kˆ is applied on an x=3
intersection point of x = 2 plane and x-axis. The 5. A deviation of 2° is produced in the yellow ray
magnitude of torque of this force about a point when prism of crown and flint glass are
(2, 3, 4) is ________. (Round off to the Nearest achromatically combined. Taking dispersive
Integer) powers of crown and flint glass are 0.02 and
Official Ans. by NTA (20) 0.03 respectively and refractive index for
Sol. Ans. (20) yellow light for these glasses are 1.5 and 1.6
r r r respectively. The refracting angles for crown
t= r ´F glass prism will be ________° (in degree)
r ˆ - (2iˆ + 3ˆj + 4k)
ˆ = -3ˆj - 4kˆ
r = (2i) (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
r
& F = 4iˆ + 3ˆj + 4kˆ Official Ans. by NTA (12)
6
Sol. Ans. (12) 7. A swimmer can swim with velocity of
w 1 = 0.02 ; m1 = 1.5 ; w 2 = 0.03 ; m 2 = 1.6 12 km/h in still water. Water flowing in a river
has velocity 6 km/h. The direction with respect
Achromatic combination
to the direction of flow of river water he should
\ qnet = 0
swim in order to reach the point on the other
q1 – q2 = 0 bank just opposite to his starting point is
q 1 = q2 _________°. (Round off to the Nearest
w 1 d1 = w 2 d 2 Integer) (find the angle in degree)
& d net = d1 - d 2 = 2°
Sol. Ans. (12)
w1d1
d1 - = 2° 12sinq = vr
w2
æ w ö 1 q
d1 ç 1 - 1 ÷ = 2° sinq = V S/r=12
a
è w2 ø 2
æ 2ö
d1 ç 1 - ÷ = 2°
è 3ø
d1 = 6°
d1 = (m1 - 1) A1
EN 8.
q = 30°
\ a = 120°
A closed organ pipe of length L and an open
organ pipe contain gases of densities r1 and r2
respectively. The compressibility of gases are
Vr=6
6° = (1.5 - 1) A1 equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are

vibrating in their first overtone with same
LL
A1 = 12°
6. A body of mass 2kg moves under a force of frequency. The length of the open pipe is
(2iˆ + 3ˆj + 5k)

ˆ N . It starts from rest and was at
x r
L 1 where x is ________. (Round off to
the origin initially. After 4s, its new coordinates 3 r2
are (8, b, 20). The value of b is __________.
A

Sol. Ans. (4)
Sol. Ans. (12)
r fc = f0
fc f0
r F 2iˆ + 3ˆj + 5kˆ
a= = 3VC 2V0
m 2 = L L'
4L 2L '
= î + 1.5 ˆj + 2.5kˆ
3VC V0 r1 r2
r r 1r 2 =
t = ut + at 4L L '
2
1 ˆ 4L V0 4L B. r1
(i + 1.5jˆ + 2.5k)
ˆ (16) L' = =
=0+
2 3 VC 3 r2 .B (B is bulk modulus)
= 8iˆ + 12ˆj + 20kˆ 4L r1

= 3 r
b = 12 2
x=4
7
9. A solid disc of radius 'a' and mass 'm' rolls 10. For an ideal heat engine, the temperature of the
down without slipping on an inclined plane source is 127°C. In order to have 60%
making an angle q with the horizontal. The efficiency the temperature of the sink should
2 be _______°C. (Round off to the Nearest
acceleration of the disc will be g sin q where
b Integer)
b is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) Official Ans. by NTA (113)
(g = acceleration due to gravity) Official Ans. by ALLEN (–113)
(q = angle as shown in figure) Sol. Ans. (–113)
TL
a n = 0.60 = 1 = T
H
P
TL
= 0.4 Þ T = 0.4 × 400
TH L
a=
gsin q
I
q
=
EN
Sol. Ans. (3)
gsin q 2
= gsin q
1 3
= 160 K
= –113°C
1+ 1 +
mR 2 2
LL
b=3
A
8

SECTION-A 4. Identify the elements X and Y using the
1. The green house gas/es is (are) : ionisation energy values given below :
(A) Carbon dioxide Ionization energy (kJ/mol)
(B) Oxygen 1st 2nd
(C) Water vapour
X 495 4563
(D) Methane
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Y 731 1450
options given below : (1) X = Na ; Y = Mg
(1) (A) and (C) only (2) X = Mg ; Y = F
(2) (A) only (3) X = Mg ; Y = Na
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) X = F ; Y = Mg
(4) (A) and (B) only Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Sol. Na ® [Ne] 3s1 IE1 is very low but IE2 is very
Sol. The green house gases are CO2, H2O(vapour) &
EN high due to stable noble gas configuration of
CH4. Na+.
2. CH3 COOH Mg ® [Ne] 3s2 IE1 & IE2 ® Low
"A"
IE3 is very high.
5. Cl
OCH3 OCH3
In the above reaction, the reagent "A" is : A
LL
(1) NaBH4, H3O+
(2) LiAlH4 Cl
(3) Alkaline KMnO4, H+
Identify the reagent(s) 'A' and condition(s) for
(4) HCl, Zn-Hg
the reaction :
(1) A = HCl; Anhydrous AlCl3
A
CH3 COOH
"A" (2) A = HCl, ZnCl2
Sol. (3) A = Cl2; UV light
OCH3 OCH3 (4) A = Cl2; dark, Anhydrous AlCl3
CH3 COOH Official Ans. by NTA (3)
AlkalineKMnO4
H
+ ; Cl
OCH3 OCH3 "A"
Sol.
3. Which of the following reduction reaction
CANNOT be carried out with coke ? Cl
(1) Al2O3 ® Al For substitution at allylic position in the given
(2) ZnO ® Zn compound, the reagent used is Cl2/uv light.
(3) Fe2O3 ® Fe The reaction is free radical halogenation.
(4) Cu2O ® Cu
Cl
Sol. Reduction of Al2O3 ® Al is carried out by Cl2
electrolytic reduction of its fused salts. UV light
ZnO, Fe2O3 & Cu2O can be reduce by carbon. Cl
1
6. The secondary structure of protein is stabilised by: 10. The INCORRECT statement regarding the
(1) Peptide bond structure of C60 is :
(2) glycosidic bond
(1) The six-membered rings are fused to both
(3) Hydrogen bonding
six and five-membered rings.
(4) van der Waals forces
(2) Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (3) The five-membered rings are fused only to
Sol. The secondary structure of protein includes two six-membered rings.
type : (4) It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24
(a) a-Helix (b) b-pleated sheet five-membered rings.
In a-Helix structure, the poly peptide chain Official Ans. by NTA (4)
is coil around due to presence of Intramolecular Sol. Structure of C60
H-Bonding.
7. Fex2 and Fey3 are known when x and y are :
(1) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br
(2) x = F, Cl, Br and y = F, Cl, Br, I
(3) x = Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I
(4) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I
Sol. 2FeI 3 ¾¾ ® 2FeI 2 + I 2
(Unstable) (Stable)
EN
Due to strong reducing nature of I– It contain 20 hexagons 20 and 12 pentagons
3+ 2+
2Fe + 2I ¾¾
® 2Fe + I 2
–
12 so option 4 is incorrect.
remaining halides of Fe2+ & Fe3+ are stable.
11. The correct statements about H2O2 are :
8. Which of the following polymer is used in the
manufacture of wood laminates ? (A) used in the treatment of effluents.
(1) cis-poly isoprene (B) used as both oxidising and reducing agents.
LL
(2) Melamine formaldehyde resin (C) the two hydroxyl groups lie in the same
(3) Urea formaldehyde resin plane.
(D) miscible with water.
(4) Phenol and formaldehyde resin
given below :
Sol. Urea –HCHO resin is used in manufacture of
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
A
wood laminates.
(2) (A), (B) and (D) only
9. Statement I : Sodium hydride can be used as
an oxidising agent. (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
Statement II : The lone pair of electrons on (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic. Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options Sol.
given below : H
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false O O
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false H
Structure of H 2O 2
(Open book type) ® Non planar
Sol. (1) NaH (sodium Hydride) is used as a H2O2 is used in the treatment of effluents.
reducing reagent. . O2
R. A
H 2 O2 act as both O.A & R.A.
(2) In pyridine, due to free electron on O.A
N . H2 O
N atom, it is basic in nature. H2O2 is miscible in water due to hydrogen
Hence statement I is false & II is true. bonding.
2
12. Ammonolysis of Alkyl halides followed by the Sol. Ozonolysis

(X) (A) Ammonical Ag¯
treatment with NaOH solution can be used to Unsaturated AgNO3 silver
Hydrocarbon (Tollen's mirror
prepare primary, secondary and tertiary regent)
amines. The purpose of NaOH in the reaction As (A) compound given positive tollen's test
is : hence it may consist –CHO (aldehyde group).
(1) to remove basic impurities or it can be HCOOH
(2) to activate NH3 used in the reaction So for the given option :
(3) to remove acidic impurities (3) CH3–CH2–CºCH Ozonolysis CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH
(4) to increase the reactivity of alkyl halide (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) +ve tollen's
test
and for other compounds (options):
.. + CH3 CH3 CH3
Ozonolysis
R–X + NH3 [R–NH3] X– (1) C=C C = O (Does not
Sol. alkyl halide CH3 CH3 CH3 show tollen's
! Test)
OH
CH3 CH3
(2) Ozonolysis
H C= C=O+ O
R + R–X .. EN
N
–
X R–NH + NaX + H2O CH3 CH3
H 1° amine (Both do not show
R
tollen's test)
NaOH Ozonolysis
(3) CH3–CºC–CH3 2CH3–COOH
R–NH–R + NaX + H2O (Does not show
2° amine tollen's test)
LL
R–X 14. Which of the following is least basic ?

H
:
(1) (CH3CO) NHC2H 5

+ NaOH –
[R–N –R] X R3N+ NaX + H2O
:
(2) (C2H5)3 N
R
:
(3) (CH3CO)2 NH
A
:
(4) (C2H5)2 NH
So the purpose of NaOH in the above
reactions in to remove acidic impurities. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. For the given compounds :
13. An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozonolysis
O
gives A. Compound A when warmed with
(1) CH3–C–NH–C2H 5 ; L.P. on Nitrogen is
ammonical silver nitrate forms a bright silver
delocalised.
mirror along the sides of the test tube. The
(2) CH3CH2–N–CH2CH3 ; L.P. on Nitrogen is
unsaturated hydrocarbon X is :
CH2CH3
(1) CH3–C = C–CH 3 localised.
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3–C–NH–C–CH3 ; L.P. on Nitrogen is
CH 3 O O
(2) CH3–C= delocalised due to conjugation with both –C–
(3) HCºC–CH2–CH3 O
(Hence least basic)
(4) CH3–CºC–CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (4) CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3 ; L.P. on Nitrogen
is localised.
3
15. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with 17. The INCORRECT statements below regarding
atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83 colloidal solutions is :
are : (1) A colloidal solution shows colligative
properties.
(1) X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal.
(2) An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow
(2) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is of colloidal particles.
a metal. (3) The flocculating power of Al3+ is more than
that of Na+.
(3) X, Y and Z are metals.
(4) A colloidal solution shows Brownian
(4) X and Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid motion of colloidal particles.
Sol. X = 33As ® Metalloid Sol. * Colloidel solution exhibits colligative
properties
Y = 53I ® Nonmetal
* An ordinary filter can not stop the flow of
Z = 83Bi ® Metal colloidal particles.
16. Match List-I with List-II * Flocculating power increases with increase
EN the opposite charge of electrolyte.
List-I List-II * Colloidal particles show brownian motion.
Test/Reagents/Observation(s) Species detected
18. Arrange the following metal complex/
(a) Lassaigne's Test (i) Carbon
(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur compounds in the increasing order of spin only
(c) Silver nitrate (iii) N, S, P, and halogen magnetic moment. Presume all the three, high
(d) The sodium fusion extract spin system.
LL
gives black precipitate with (iv) Halogen Specifically
acetic acid and lead acetate (Atomic numbers Ce = 58, Gd = 64 and Eu = 63.)
(a) (NH4)2[Ce(NO3)6] (b) Gd(NO3)3 and
The correct match is :
(c) Eu(NO3)3
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) Answer is :
(1) (b) < (a) < (c)
A
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2) (c) < (a) < (b)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) (a) < (b) < (c)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (4) (a) < (c) < (b)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Sol. (a) 58Ce ® [Xe]4f2 5d0 6s2
Sol. Match list :- In complex Ce4+ ® [Xe] 4f0 5d0 6s0
there is no unpaired electron so µm = 0
(a) Lassaigne's Test (iii) N, S, P and Halogen (b) 64Gd3+ ® [Xe]4f7 5d0 6s0
(b) Cu(II) Oxide (i) Carbon contain seven unpaired electrons so,
(c) AgNO3 (iv) Halogen specifically. µm = 7(7 + 2) = 63 B.M.
(d) Sodium fusion (ii) Sulphur
(c) 63Eu3+ ® [54Xe]4f6 5d0 6s0
extract given black contain six unpaired electron
precipitate with acetic
acid and lead acetate so, µm = 6(6 + 2) = 48 B.M.
(CH3COOH/(CH3COO)2Pb)
Hence, order of spin only magnetic movement
Option-(a)-(iii) ; (b)-(i) ; (c)-(iv) ; (d)-(ii) b>c>a
4
19. The exact volumes of 1 M NaOH solution SECTION-B
required to neutralise 50 mL of 1 M H3PO 3
solution and 100 mL of 2 M H3PO2 solution, 1. Ga (atomic mass 70 u) crystallizes in a
respectively, are : hexagonal close packed structure. The total
(1) 100 mL and 100 mL number of voids in 0.581 g of Ga is _______
(2) 100 mL and 50 mL
(3) 100 mL and 200 mL × 1021. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(4) 50 mL and 50 mL Official Ans. by NTA (15)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Sol. HCP structure : Per atom, there will be one
Sol. H3PO3 + 2NaOH ® Na2HPO3 + 2H2O octahedral void (OV) and two tetrahedral voids
50 ml 1M (TV).
1M V=? Therefore total three voids per atom are present
n 2 in HCP structure.
Þ n
NaoH
=
H PO 3
1 3
® therefore total no of atoms of Ga will be-
1´ V 2 Mass 0.581g
Þ = Þ VNaOH = 100 ml = ´ NA = ´ 6.023 ´ 10 23
50 ´ 1 1 Molar Mass 70g / mol
H3PO2 + 2NaOH ® NaH2PO3 + H2O ® Now, total Number of voids = 3 × total
100 ml 1M no. of atoms
2M V=? EN
n NaoH 1 0.581
= 1´ V 1 = 3´ ´ 6.023 ´ 10 23 = 14.99 × 1021
Þ n H3 PO3 1 Þ = Þ VNaOH = 200 ml 70
2 ´ 100 1
CN ; 15 ´ 10 21
(i) C6H5MgBr Ether 2. A 5.0 m mol dm–3 aqueous solution of KCl has
(1.0 equivalent), dry a conductance of 0.55 mS when measured in
20. + X
(ii) H 3O
Major Product a cell constant 1.3 cm–1. The molar conductivity
of this solution is _______ mSm2 mol–1.
OCH3
LL
The structure of X is : (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

(1) NH2 (2) NH2 Official Ans. by ALLEN (14)
m.mol
Sol. Given concn of KCl =
C6 H 5 OCH3 L
A
: Conductance (G) = 0.55 mS

O O
ælö -1
C6 H 5 : Cell constant ç ÷ = 1.3 cm
(3)
C6 H 5
(4) èAø
C6 H 5 To Calculate : Molar conductivity (lm) of sol.
1 k
OCH3 ® Since l m = 1000 ´ m ......(1)
mol
Ph ® Molarity = 5 × 10–3
L
CºN d– d+
–
C=N MgBr
PhMgBr
Sol. ælö 1.3 -1
Dry ether G ´ ç ÷ = 0.55 mS ´ m
® Conductivity = èAø 1
OCH3 OCH3
+
100
H3O = 55 × 1.3 mSm–1
Ph Ph 1 55 ´ 1.3 mSm 2
lm = ´
C=O C=NH eqn (1) 1000 æ 5 ö mol
ç ÷
+
H3O Br
+Mg è 1000 ø
OH
OCH3 OCH3 mSm 2
Þ l m = 14.3
mol
5
3. A and B decompose via first order kinetics with
273 ´ 744 ´ 30
half-lives 54.0 min and 18.0 min respectively. Volume of nitrogen at STP =
287 ´ 760
Starting from an equimolar non reactive mixture
of A and B, the time taken for the concentration V = 27.935 mL
of A to become 16 times that of B is ______ Q 22400 mL of N2 at STP weighs = 28 gm.
min. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). \ 27.94 mL of N2 at STP weighs =
æ 28 ö
ç ´ 27.94 ÷ gm
Sol. Given t2 = 54 min T1/2 = 18 min è 22400 ø
A B = 0.0349 gm
t = 0 'x' M t = 0 'x' M
Þ To calculate : [At] = 16 × [Bt] ....(1) time = ? æ 0.0349 ö
Hence % of Nitrogen = ç ´ 100 ÷
è 0.1840 ø
A
For I order kinetic : [A t ] = (2) n = 18.97 %
0
Þ
Rond off. Answer = 19 %
n ® no of Half lives
5. The number of orbitals with n = 5, m1 = + 2 is
Þ Now from the relation (1)
[At] = 16 × [Bt] ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
x x
Þ = ´ 16 Þ ( 2 ) n2 = ( 2 ) n1 ´ ( 2 )4 Sol. For, n = 5
(2) n1
(2) n 2
l = (0, 1, 2, 3, 4)
t t If l = 0, m = 0
Þ Þ = +4
n2 = n1 + 4 ( t1/2 )2 ( t1/2 )1 l = 1, m = {–1, 0, +1}
l = 2, m = {–2, –1, 0, +1, +2}
æ1 1 ö
tç - ÷ = 4 Þ t =
4 ´ 18 ´ 54 l = 3, m = {–3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3}
Þ
è 18 54 ø 36 l = 4, m = {–4, –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4}
Þ t = 108min
5d, 5f and 5g subshell contain one-one orbital
having ml = +2
4. In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen,
6. At 363 K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa
0.1840 g of an organic compound gave 30 mL
and that of B is 18 kPa. One mole of A and 2
of nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758 mm of
moles of B are mixed. Assuming that this
Hg pressure. The percentage composition of
solution is ideal, the vapour pressure of the
nitrogen in the compound is ______. (Round
mixture is ________ kPa. (Round of to the
off to the Nearest Integer).
Nearest Integer).
[Given : Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm Official Ans. by NTA (19)
of Hg]
Sol. Given PA0 = 21kPa Þ PB0 = 18kPa
® An Ideal solution is prepared by mixing 1
Sol. In Duma's method of estimation of Nitrogen. mol A and 2 mol B.
0.1840 gm of organic compound gave 30 mL 1 2
of nitrogen which is collected at 287 K & 758 ® XA = and XB =
3 3
mm of Hg. ® Acc to Raoult's low
Given ; PT = X A PA0 + X B PB0
Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg.
æ1 ö æ2 ö
Hence actual pressure = (758 – 14) Þ PT = ç ´ 21 ÷ + ç ´ 18 ÷
è3 ø è3 ø
= 744 mm of Hg.
Þ PT = 7 +12 = 19 KPa
6
7. Sulphurous acid (H2SO3) has Ka1 = 1.7 × 10–2 9. At 25°C, 50 g of iron reacts with HCl to form
and Ka2 = 6.4 × 10–8. The pH of 0.588 M H2SO3 FeCl 2 . The evolved hydrogen gas expands
is _________. (Round off to the Nearest against a constant pressure of 1 bar. The work
Integer) done by the gas during this expansion is
Official Ans. by NTA (1) _______ J.
Sol. H2SO3 [Dibasic acid] (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
c = 0.588 M [Given : R = 8.314 J mol –1 K –1 . Assume,
Þ pH of solution Þ due to First dissociation only hydrogen is an ideal gas]
[Atomic mass off Fe is 55.85 u]
since Ka, >> Ka2
Þ First dissociation of H2SO3
J
Sol. T = 298 K, R = 8.314 mol K
H 2 SO 3 (aq) H Å (aq) + HSO 3- (aq) : ka1 = 1.7 ´ 10 -2
® Chemical reaction is
t=0 C Fe + 2HCl ® FeCl2 + H2(g)
t C–x x x 50g P = 1 bar
50
EN = mol
1.7 [H Å ][HSO3- ] 55.85
Þ Ka1 = =
100 [H 2 SO3 ]
50
mol
55.85
1.7 x2 ® Work done for 1 mol gas
Þ =
100 ( 0.58 - x ) = –Pext × DV
Þ 1.7 × 0.588 – 1.7x = 100 x2 = Dng RT
LL
Þ 100x2 + 1.7x –1 = 0 = –1 × 8.314 × 298 J

50
-1.7 + (1.7 ) + 4 ´ 100 ´ 1
2
® Work done for mol of gas
Þ Å
[H ] = x = = 0.09186 55.85
2 ´ 100
50
A
Therefore pH of sol. is : pH = – log [HÅ] = –1.8314 × 298 × J

55.85
Þ pH = –log (0.09186) = 1.036 ; 1
= –2218.059 J
8. When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is
; –2218 J
mixed with 20 mL of 0.12 M chromic sulphate
10. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ absorbs light of wavelength 498
solution, ________ × 10 –5 moles of lead
nm during a d – d transition. The octahedral
sulphate precipitate out. (Round off to the
splitting energy for the above complex is _____
Nearest Integer).
× 10–19 J. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). h
= 6.626 × 10–34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms–1.
Sol. 3 Pb (NO3)2 + Cr2 (SO4)3 ® 3PbSO4 + 2Cr(NO3)3
35 ml 20 ml Sol. labsorbed = 498 nm (given)
0.15 M 0.12 M The octahedral spilitting energy
= 5.25 m.mol = 2.4 m.mol 5.25 m.mol hc 6.626 ´ 10 –34 ´ 3 ´ 10 8
D 0 or E = =
= 5.25 × 10–3 mol l 498 ´ 10 –9
therefore moles of PbSO4 formed = 5.25 × 10–3 = 0.0399 × 10–17 J
= 525 × 10–5 = 3.99 × 10–19 J
= 4.00 × 10–19 J (round off)
7

SECTION-A Number divisible by 3 º
1. The maximum value of Sum of digits must be divisible by 3
Case-I
2 2
sin x 1 + cos x cos 2x 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
f(x) = 1 + sin2 x cos 2 x cos2x , x Î R is: Number of ways = 6!
sin 2 x cos2 x sin 2x Case-II
0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Number of ways = 5·5!
3
(1) 7 (2) (3) 5 (4) 5 Case-III
4
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Official Ans by NTA (3)
Number of ways = 5·5!
Sol. C1 + C2 ® C 1
n(favourable) = 6! + 2·5·5!
2
2 1 + cos x cos 2x
EN 6! + 2 · 5 · 5! 4
2 cos2 x cos 2x P= =
6 · 6! 9
1 cos2 x sin 2x
3. Let a Î R be such that the function
R1 – R2 ® R 1
ì cos-1(1 - {x}2 )sin -1(1 - {x})
0 1 0 ï ,x ¹ 0
LL
f(x) = í {x} - {x}3
2
2 cos x cos 2x ï a, x= 0
î
1 cos2 x sin 2x
is continuous at x = 0, where {x} = x – [x], [x]
Open w.r.t. R1 is the greatest integer less than or equal to x.
A
–(2 sin 2x – cos 2x) Then :

cos 2x – 2 sin 2x = f(x) p
(1) a = (2) a = 0
f(x) max = 1 + 4 = 5 2
p
2. Let A denote the event that a 6-digit integer (3) no such a exists (4) a =
4
formed by 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetitions,
be divisible by 3. Then probability of event A
Sol.
is equal to :
Lim f(x) = f(0) = Lim- (x)
9 4 3 11 x ® 0+ x® 0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
56 9 7 27
Official Ans by NTA (2) cos-1 (1 - x2 ) × sin -1 (1 - x)
Lim+
Sol. Total cases : x®0 x(1 - x)(1 + x)
6 · 6 · 5 · 4 · 3 · 2
n(s) = 6 · 6! cos-1 (1 - x2 ) p
Lim+ ×
Favourable cases : x®0 x × 1× 1 2
1
Let 1 – x2 = cos q
a b c 42
3+ + 2 2+ 2 2-
2 2
p q b c a c a b 14abc
Lim+
2 x ® 0 1 - cosq
a 3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc
3+
p q p a 2 b2 c 2
Lim+ =
2 q® 0 2 sin q 2 If a + b + c = 0
2
Þ a3 + b3 + c3 = 3 abc
Þ 3
cos -1
(1 - (1 + x) ) sin
2 -1
( - x) 5. Consider the integral
Now, Lim- 3
x®0 (1 + x) - (1 + x)
10
[x] e[x]
I= ò e x-1 dx,
p
( )
0
- sin -1 x
Lim 2
where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than
x ® 0- (1 + x)(2 + x)( - x)
or equal to x. Then the value of I is equal to:
EN (1) 9(e – 1) (2) 45(e + 1)
p (3) 45(e – 1) (4) 9(e + 1)
sin -1 x p
Lim- 2 × = Official Ans by NTA (3)
x ® 0 1× 2 x 4
10
ò [x] × e
[x]- x+1
Þ RHL ¹ LHL Sol. I=
0
Function can't be continuous
Þ No value of a exist
LL
1 2 3 10
4. If (x, y, z) be an arbitrary point lying on a plane
I = ò 0dx + ò 1 × e 2 -x + ò 2 × e 3-x + ..... + ò 9 × e10 -x dx
P which passes through the point (42, 0, 0), 0 1 2 9
(0, 42, 0) and (0, 0, 42), then the value of
expression 9 n +1
Þ I= å ò n × e n +1-x dx
A
x - 11 y - 19 n=0
3+ + n
(y - 19)2 (z - 12)2 (x - 11)2 (z - 12)2
9
( )
n +1
z - 12 x+y+z = - å n en +1-x
+ - n=0
n
(x - 11) (y - 19) 14(x - 11)(y - 19)(z - 12)
2 2
(1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 39 (4) –45 9

Official Ans by NTA (2) = - å n × (e 0 - e1 )
n=0
Sol. Plane passing through (42, 0, 0), (0, 42, 0),
(0, 0, 42)
9
From intercept from, equation of plane is = (e - 1) å n
x + y + z = 42 n= 0
Þ (x – 11) + (y – 19) + (z – 12) = 0

let a = x – 11, b = y – 19, c = z – 12 9 × 10
= (e - 1) ×
a+ b+ c= 0 2
Now, given expression is = 45(e – 1)
2
6. Let C be the locus of the mirror image of a point y = cos x ×ln | sec x |
on the parabola y2 = 4x with respect to the line
y = x. Then the equation of tangent to C at P(2,1) æ 1 ö
y x= p = ç ÷ × ln 2
is : 4 è 2ø
(1) x – y = 1 (2) 2x + y = 5
(3) x + 3y = 5 (4) x + 2y = 4 1
Official Ans by NTA (1) y x= p = loge 2
4 2 2
Sol. Given y2 = 4x
8. Let A = {2, 3, 4, 5, .... , 30} and ' ; ' be an
Mirror image on y = x Þ C : x2 = 4y
equivalence relation on A × A, defined by
dy dy x (a, b) ; (c, d), if and only if ad = bc. Then the
2x = 4 × Þ =
dx dx 2 number of ordered pairs which satisfy this
equivalence relation with ordered pair (4, 3) is
dy 2
= =1 equal to :
dx P(2,1) 2
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 7
Equation of tangent at (2, 1)
Sol. A = {2, 3, 4, 5, .... , 30}
Þ y – 1 = 1(x – 2)
EN (a, b) ; (c, d) Þ ad = bc
Þ x– y= 1
7. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential (4, 3) ; (c, d) Þ 4d = 3c
dy p 4 c
equation + (tanx) y = sinx, 0 £ x £ , with Þ =
dx 3 3 d
æpö
y(0) = 0, then y ç ÷ equal to :
c 4
LL
è4ø = & c, d Î {2, 3, ......, 30}
1 æ 1 ö d 3
(1) log e 2 (2) ç ÷ log e 2
4 è2 2 ø (c, d) = {(4, 3), (8, 6), (12, 9), (16, 12), (20,
1 15), (24, 18), (28, 21)}
(3) loge2 (4) loge 2
2 No. of ordered pair = 7
A
Official Ans by NTA (2) 9. Let the lengths of intercepts on x-axis and y-axis
made by the circle x2 + y2 + ax + 2ay + c = 0,
dy p
Sol. + ( tan x ) y = sin x ; 0 £ x £
dx 3 (a < 0) be 2 2 and 2 5 , respectively. Then
the shortest distance from origin to a tangent to
I.F. = e ò = e lnsec x = sec x
tan x dx
this circle which is perpendicular to the line
x + 2y = 0, is euqal to :
y sec x = ò ta n x d x
(1) 11 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 10
ysec x = ò tan xdx
Sol. x2 + y2 + ax + 2ay + c = 0
y sec x = ln | sec x | + C
a2
x = 0, y = 0 Þ \ c = 0 2 g2 - c = 2 -c = 2 2
4
y sec x = ln | sec x |
a2
Þ -c= 2 ...(1)
4
3
Þ |z|2 + |z| – 6 ³ 0
2 f 2 - c = 2 a2 - c = 2 5
Þ (|z| – 3) (|z| + 2) ³ 0 Þ |z| – 3 ³ 0
Þ a2 – c = 5 ...(2) Þ |z| ³ 3 Þ |z|min = 3
(1) & (2) 11. Consider a rectangle ABCD having 5, 7, 6, 9
points in the interior of the line segments AB,
3a 2
=3 Þ a= –2 (a < 0) CD, BC, DA respectively. Let a be the number
4
of triangles having these points from different
\ c = – 1
sides as vertices and b be the number of
Circle Þ x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y – 1 = 0
quadrilaterals having these points from different
Þ (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 6
sides as vertices. Then (b – a) is equal to :
1 (1) 795 (2) 1173 (3) 1890 (4) 717
Given x + 2y = 0 Þ m = – Official Ans by NTA (4)
2
mtangent = 2
Equation of tangent 5 Pts
A B
Þ (y – 2) = 2(x – 1) ± 6 1+ 4
Þ 2x – y ±
EN 30 = 0
Sol.
9 Pts 6 Pts
± 30
Perpendicular distance from (0, 0) = = 6 D C
4 +1 7 Pts
10. The least value of |z| where z is complex number

LL
a = Number of triangles
which satisfies the inequality
a = 5·6·7 + 5·7·9 + 5·6·9 + 6·7·9
æ (| z | +3)(| z | -1) ö = 210 + 315 + 270 + 378
exp ç log e 2 ÷ ³ log 5 7 + 9i ,
è | z | +1 ø
2 = 1173
b = Number of Quadrilateral
A
i= -1 , is equal to : b = 5·6·7·9 = 1890

b – a = 1890 – 1173 = 717
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 8
12. If the point of intersections of the ellipse
x2 y2
æ (| z | +3)(| z | -1) ö + = 1 and the circle x2 + y2 = 4b, b > 4
Sol. exp ç ln 2 ÷ ³ log 5 7 + 9i 16 b2
è | z | +1 ø
2
lie on the curve y2 = 3x2, then b is equal to:

(|z|+3)(|z|-1)
(1) 12 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 10
(|z|+1) Official Ans by NTA (1)
Þ 2 ³ log 2
(16)
Sol. y2 = 3x2
(|z|+3)(|z|-1) and x2 + y2 = 4b
Þ 2 (|z|+1)
³ 23 Solve both we get
so x2 = b
(|z|+3)(|z|-1)
Þ (|z|+1)
³3
x2 3x2
+ =1
16 b2
Þ (|z| + 3)(|z| – 1) ³ 3(|z| + 1)
|z|2 + 2|z| – 3 ³ 3|z| + 3
4
b 3 4
+ =1 (1) (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
16 b 15
b2 – 16b + 48 = 0
(b – 12) (b – 4) = 0 B(3,4)
b = 12, b > 4
13. Given that the inverse trigonometric functions Sol. (–1,1)A P Q
take principal values only. Then, the number of
C(2,0)
real values of x which satisfy
P º (x1, mx1)
æ 3x ö æ 4x ö
sin -1 ç ÷ + sin -1 ç = ÷ sin -1 x is equal to: Q º (x2, mx2)
è 5 ø è 5 ø
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 0 3 4 1
Official Ans by NTA (3) 1 13
A1 = 2 0 1 =
2 2
3x 4x -1 1 1
Sol. sin -1 + sin -1 = sin -1 x
5 5
æ 3x
sin -1 ç
ç 5
è
1-
EN
16x2 4x
25
+
5
1-
9x2
25
ö
÷ = sin -1 x
÷
ø
1
x1
A 2 = x2
2
mx1 1
mx2 1
2 0 1
3x 16x2 4x 9x2
1- + 1- =x
5 25 5 25 1
A2 = 2(mx1 - mx2 ) = m x1 - x2
LL
2
x = 0, 3 25 - 16x2 + 4 25 - 9x2 = 25
13
A1 = 3A2 Þ = 3m x1 - x2
2
4 25 - 9x2 = 25 - 3 25 -16x2 squaring we get
16
A
16(25–9x2) = 625+9(25–16x2)– 150 25 - 16x2 Þ x1 - x2 =

6m
400 = 625 + 225 – 150 25 - 16x2 AC : x + 3y = 2

BC : y = 4x – 8
2
25 - 16x = 3 Þ 25 – 16x2 = 9
2
Þ x2 = 1 P : x + 3y = 2 & y = mx Þ x1 =
1 + 3m
Put x = 0, 1, –1 in the original equation
We see that all values satisfy the original 8
Q : y = 4x – 8 & y = mx Þ x2 =
equation. 4-m
Number of solution = 3
2 8
14. Let A(–1, 1), B(3, 4) and C(2, 0) be given three x1 - x2 = -
1 + 3m 4 - m
points. A line y = mx, m > 0, intersects lines
AC and BC at point P and Q respectively. Let
-26m 26m
A1 and A2 be the areas of DABC and DPQC = =
(1 + 3m)(4 - m) (3m + 1) | m - 4 |
respectively, such that A1 = 3A2, then the value
of m is equal to :
5
16. Let f : S ® S where S = (0, ¥) be a twice

26m
= differentiable function such that f(x + 1) = xf(x).
(3m + 1)(4 - m)
If g : S ® R be defined as g(x) = logef(x), then
13 the value of |g"(5) – g"(1)| is equal to :
x1 - x2 = 205 197 187
6m (1) (2) (3) (4) 1
144 144 144
26m 13 Official Ans by NTA (1)
=
(3m + 1)(4 - m) 6m Sol. lnf(x + 1) = ln(xf(x))
lnf(x + 1) = lnx + lnf(x)
Þ 12m2 = –(3m + 1)(m – 4)
Þ g(x + 1) = lnx + g(x)
Þ 12m2 = –(3m2 – 11m – 4)
Þ g(x + 1) – g(x) = lnx
Þ 15m2 – 11m – 4 = 0
Þ 15m2 – 15m + 4m – 4 = 0 1
Þ g"(x + 1) – g"(x) = –
Þ (15m + 4) (m – 1) = 0 x2
Þ m= 1
Put x = 1, 2, 3, 4
15. Let f be a real valued function, defined on
R – {–1, 1} and given by
EN 1
g"(2) – g"(1) = – ...(1)
12
x -1 2
f(x) = 3loge - .
x +1 x -1 1
g"(3) – g"(2) = – ...(2)
22
Then in which of the following intervals,
function f(x) is increasing?
1
LL
g"(4) – g"(3) = – ...(3)
æé1 ö ö 32
(1) ( -¥, -1) È ç ê , ¥ ÷ - {1} ÷
èë 2 ø ø
(2) (–¥, ¥) – {–1, 1} 1
g"(5) – g"(4) = – ...(4)
42
æ 1ù
(3) ç -1, ú Add all the equation we get
A
è 2û
æ 1ù 1 1 1 1
(4) ç -¥, ú - {-1} g"(5) – g"(1) = – 2
– 2– 2 – 2
è 2û 1 2 3 4
205
g"(5) - g"(1) =
2 144
Sol. f(x) = 3ln(x - 1) - 3ln(x + 1) -
x -1
17. Let P(x) = x2 + bx + c be a quadratic polynomial
3 3 2
f '(x) = - + 1
x - 1 x + 1 (x - 1)2 with real coefficients such that ò P(x)dx = 1 and
0
4(2x - 1)
f '(x) =
(x - 1)2 (x + 1) P(x) leaves remainder 5 when it is divided by
f '(x) ³ 0 (x – 2). Then the value of 9(b + c) is equal to:
(1) 9 (2) 15 (3) 7 (4) 11
é1 ö Official Ans by NTA (3)
Þ x Î ( -¥, -1) È ê ,1÷ È (1, ¥)
ë2 ø
6
1 x -2 y - 4 z-5
L2 : = =
ò (x + bx + c)dx = 1
2
Sol. 3 4 5
0
A = <1, 2, 3>
1 b b 2 B = <2, 4, 5>
+ +c = 1 Þ +c= uuur
3 2 2 3 AB = < 1,2,2 >
3b + 6c = 4 ...(1) r
p = 2iˆ + 3ˆj + 4kˆ
P(2) = 5
r
4 + 2b + c = 5 q = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ
2b + c = 1 ...(2) r r
p ´ q = - î + 2 ˆj - kˆ
From (1) & (2)
uuur r r
2 5 AB × (p ´ q) 1
b=
9
& c=
9
Shortest distance = r r =
p´q 6
9(b + c) = 7
19. Let C1 be the curve obtained by the solution of
18. If the foot of the perpendicular from point
EN
(4, 3, 8) on the line L1 :
x-a y-2 z-b
l
=
3
=
4
,
l ¹ 0 is (3, 5, 7), then the shortest distance
differential equation 2xy
dy
dx
Let the curve C 2 be the solution of
= y2 - x2 , x > 0.
between the line L1 and line

x-2 y-4 z-5 2xy dy
L2 : = = is equal to : =
3 4 5
2
x -y 2
dx . If both the curves pass through
LL
1 1 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1,1), then the area enclosed by the curves C1
2 6 3 3
Official Ans by NTA (2) and C2 is equal to :
Sol. (3,5,7) satisfy the line L1 p p
(1) p – 1 -1 (3) p + 1
(2) (4) +1
2 4
3-a 5-2 7- b
A
= = Official Ans by NTA (2)

l 3 4
dy y2 - x2
3-a 7-b Sol. = , x Î (0, ¥)
=1 & =1 dx 2xy
l 4
put y = vx
a + l = 3 ...(1) & b = 3 ...(2)
r dv v2 - 1
v1 = < 4,3,8 > - < 3,5,7 > x +v=
r dx 2v
v1 = < 1, -2,1 >
r 2v dx
v2 = < l,3,4 > 2
dv = -
v +1 x
r r
v1.v2 = 0 Þ l - 6 + 4 = 0 Þ l = 2
Integrate,
a +l =3 Þ a = 1 ln(v2 + 1) = – lnx + C
x -1 y - 2 z - 3 æ y2 ö
L1 : = = ln ç 2 + 1 ÷ = - lnx + C
2 3 4
èx ø
7
put x = 1, y = 1, C = ln2 Solve (2) & (3)

a = 1, l = 1
æ y2 ö
ln ç 2 + 1÷ = -lnx + ln2 r
èx ø
Þ r = 3iˆ - ˆj + 2kˆ
Þ x2 + y2 – 2x = 0 r2
(Curve C1) r = 14 & a = 1
Similarly,
r2
a + r = 15
dy 2xy
= 2
dx x - y2 SECTION-B
Put y = vx 1. If the distance of the point (1, –2, 3) from the
x2 + y2 – 2y = 0 plane x + 2y – 3z + 10 = 0 measured parallel
x -1 2 - y z + 3 7
to the line, = = is , then the
3 m 1 2
(1,1) value of |m| is equal to ______.
EN z+
2 =
3
1 P (1,–2,3)
-
( )
1
p y m r
required area = 2 ò 2x - x2 - x dx = –1 1 = -
2 x-
0
Sol. 3
Q
LL
r r
20. Let a = î + 2ˆj - 3kˆ and b = 2iˆ - 3jˆ + 5kˆ . If
x + 2y – 3z + 10 = 0
r r r r r ˆ ˆ ˆ
( )
r ´ a = b ´ r , r. ai + 2 j + k = 3 and
r ˆ ˆ
( )
r. 2i + 5j - akˆ = -1 , a Î R, then the value of
A
æ 3 -m 1 ö
ç
DC of line º ç , , ÷÷
r2 2 2 2
è m + 10 m + 10 m + 10 ø
a + r is equal to :
(1) 9 (2) 15 (3) 13 (4) 11
Official Ans by NTA (2) æ 3r - mr r ö
Q º ç1 + , -2 + ,3 + ÷÷
r r r r ç
Sol. rr ´ ar = b ´ rr Þ r ´ (a + b) = 0
2 2 2
è m + 10 m + 10 m + 10 ø
r r r r r r Q lies on x + 2y – 3z + 10 = 0
r = l(a + b) Þ r = l(iˆ + 2 ˆj - 3kˆ + 2iˆ - 3ˆj + 5k)
ˆ
r r ˆ ˆ ˆ 3r 2mr 3r
r = l(3i - j + 2k) ...(1) 1+ -4- -9- + 10 = 0
2 2
m + 10 m + 10 m 2 + 10
r ˆ ˆ ˆ
r × (ai + 2 j + k) = 3
r r
Put r from (1) al = 1 ...(2) Þ (3 - 2m - 3) = 2
m2 + 10
r ˆ ˆ ˆ = -1
r × (2i + 5 j - ak)
r
r Þ ( -2m) = 2
Put r from (1) 2la - l = 1 ...(3) m2 + 10
8
r2m2 = m2 + 10
a12 + a 22 =
3
(
2 2
b1 + b22 ) and (k 2 + 1)b22 ¹ -2b1b2 ,
7 2 5 2
m = m 2 + 10 Þ m = 10 Þ m2 = 4
2 2 then the value of k is _______.
|m| = 2
Sol. A = XB
2. Consider the statistics of two sets of
observations as follows :
é a1 ù 1 é1 -1ù é b1 ù
Size Mean Variance ê ú= ê úê ú
ëa 2 û 3 ë1 k û ë b2 û
Observation I 10 2 2
Observation II n 3 1
é 3 a1 ù é b1 - b2 ù
If the variance of the combined set of these two ê ú= ê ú
17 ëê 3 a 2 ûú ë b1 + kb2 û
observations is , then the value of n is equal to
9
__________. b1 – b2 = 3 a1 ...(1)
EN b1 + kb2 = 3 a2 ...(2)
n1s12 + n 2s22 n1n 2
Sol. s2 = + (x1 - x2 )2
n1 + n 2 (n1 + n 2 )
Given, a12 + a22 = (
2 2
b + b22
3 1
)
n1 = 10, n2 = n, s12 = 2 , s22 = 1
(1)2 + (2)2
2 17 (b1 + b2)2 + (b1 + kb2)2 = 3(a12 + a22)
x1 = 2 , x2 = 3 , s =
LL
9
2 2 (1 + k 2 ) 2 2
17 10 ´ 2 + n 10n a12 + a22 = b + b2 + b1b 2 (k - 1)
= + (3 - 2)2 3 1 3 3
9 n + 10 (n + 10)2
2 2 2 2 2 2
Given, a1 + a 2 = b1 + b2
A
17 (n + 20)(n + 10) + 10n 3 3

Þ =
9 (n + 10)2
On comparing we get
Þ 17n2 + 1700 + 340 n = 90n + 9(n2+30n+200)
k2 + 1 2
Þ 8n2 – 20n – 100 = 0 = Þ k2 + 1 = 2
3 3
2n2 – 5n – 25 = 0
Þ k = ±1 ....(3)
-5
Þ (2n + 5)(n – 5) = 0 Þ n = ,5
2 2
¯ & (k - 1) = 0 Þ k = 1 ...(4)
3
(Rejected)
Hence n = 5 From both we get k = 1
éa ù éb ù 4. For real numbers a, b, g and d, if

3. Let A = ê 1 ú and B = ê 1 ú be two 2 × 1
ëa 2 û ë b2 û æ x2 + 1 ö
matrices with real entries such that A = XB, (x2 - 1) + tan -1 ç ÷
è x ø dx
1 é1 -1ù ò æ x2 + 1 ö
where X= ê ú , and k Î R. If (x 4 + 3x 2 + 1) tan -1 ç
3 ë1 k û ÷
è x ø
9
æ -1 æ x 2 + 1 ö ö or
= a log eç tan çç ÷÷ ÷÷
ç
è è x øø -1 -1 -1
a = 1, b = ,g= ,d=
æ g(x - 1) ö
2 æ x +1ö 2 2 5 5 2
+b tan -1 ç ÷ +d tan -1 ç +C
ç x ÷ ç x ÷÷
è ø è ø
æ 1 1ö
where C is an arbitrary constant, then the value 10(a + bg + d) = 10 ç 1 + - ÷ = 6
è 10 2 ø
of 10(a + bg + d) is equal to __________.
Official Ans by NTA (6) 5. Let f : R ® R and g : R ® R be defined as
(x2 - 1)dx dx ì x + a, x < 0

Sol. ò +ò f(x) = í and
æ 1ö x + 3x 2 + 1
4
î| x - 1|, x ³ 0
(x 4 + 3x2 + 1)tan -1 ç x + ÷
è xø
ìï x + 1, x<0
g(x) = í 2
ïî(x - 1) + b, x ³ 0
æ 1ö
ç 1 - 2 ÷ dx 1 (x 2 + 1) - (x 2 - 1)dx
è x ø
òæ 1 2 ö +
1ö 2
EN ò x4 + 3x2 + 1 where a, b are non-negative real numbers. If
æ ö -1 æ
ç x + ÷ + 1÷ tan ç x + ÷ (gof)(x) is continuous for all x Î R, then a + b
ç çè xø ÷ è xø
è ø
is equal to ___________.
æ 1ö
Put tan -1 ç x + ÷ = t é f(x) + 1 f(x) < 0
è xø
Sol. g[f(x)] = ê 2
ë(f(x) - 1) + b f(x) ³ 0
LL
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
ç 1 + 2 ÷ dx ç 1 - 2 ÷ dx
dt 1 è x ø 1 è x ø x + a +1 x+a < 0& x < 0
ò t + 2 ò æ 1 ö2 – 2 ò æ 1 ö2 é
ê | x - 1| +1
çx - ÷ + 5 | x - 1|< 0 & x ³ 0
è xø çx + x ÷ +1 ê
g[f(x)] = ê
è ø
A
2
(x + a - 1) + b x+a ³ 0&x < 0
ê
ê (| x - 1 | -1)2 + b | x - 1| ³ 0 & x ³ 0
ë
1 1
Put x - = y , x+ =z
x x
1 dy 1 dz é x + a +1 x Î ( -¥, -a) & x Î (-¥,0)

loge t + ò 2
- ò 2
2 y + 5 2 z +1
ê | x - 1| +1
ê
x Îf
g[f(x)] = ê
(x + a - 1)2 + b x Î[ -a, ¥) & x Î ( -¥,0)
ê
æ x2 - 1 ö ê(| x - 1| -1) + b
2
x Î R & x Î[0, ¥)
æ 1ö 1 ë
= loge tan -1 ç x + ÷ + tan -1 ç ÷
è xø 2 5 è 5x ø
1 æ x2 + 1 ö é x + a +1 x Î ( -¥, -a)
– tan -1 ç ÷+C ê
2 è x ø g[f(x)] = ê (x + a - 1)2 + b x Î [ -a,0)
ê(| x - 1| -1)2 + b x Î [0, ¥)
1 1 ë
-1
a = 1, b = ,g= ,d=
2 5 5 2
10
g(f(x)) is continuous 8. Let n be a positive integer. Let

at x = –a & at x = 0
n éæ 1 ö k æ 3 ö k æ 7 ö k æ 15 ö k æ 31 ö k ù
1=b+1 & (a – 1)2 + b = b A= å (-1)k nC êç ÷ + ç ÷ + ç ÷ + ç ÷ + ç ÷ ú
êëè 2 ø è 4 ø è 8 ø è 16 ø è 32 ø úû
k
k= 0
b=0 & a=1
Þ a+b=1
1
If 63A = 1 - , then n is equal to _______.
1 1 1 230
6. Let , a and b be in G.P. and , , 6 be in
16 a b Official Ans by NTA (6)
A.P., where a, b > 0. Then 72(a + b) is equal
n éæ 1 ö k æ -3 ö k æ -7 ö k æ -15 ö k æ -37 ö k ù
Sol. A = kå
n
to ________. C k êç - ÷ + ç ÷ + ç ÷ + ç ÷ +ç ÷ ú
=0 ëêè 2 ø è 4 ø è 8 ø è 16 ø è 32 ø ûú
Official Ans by NTA (14 )
n n n n n
b 1 1 æ 1ö æ 3 ö æ 7 ö æ 15 ö æ 31 ö
Sol. a2 = Þ = A= ç 1 - 2 ÷ + ç 1 - 4 ÷ + ç 1 - 8 ÷ + ç 1 - 16 ÷ + ç 1 - 32 ÷
è ø è ø è ø è ø è ø
16 b 16a 2
2 1 1 1 1 1 1
= +6 A= n
+ n+ n + n + n
b a 2 4 8 16 32
1
8a 2
1
= +6
a
EN æ æ 1 ö5
ç1-
1 ç çè 2 n ÷ø
ö
÷
æ 1 ö
ç 1 - 5n ÷
÷ Þ A=è 2 ø
1 8 A=
- - 48 = 0 2n ç 1 - 1 ÷ (2n - 1)
a2 a çç ÷÷
2n
è ø
1 1 1
= 12, - 4 Þ a = , -
LL
a 12 4
1 1
(2n – 1)A = 1 – , Given 63A = 1 – 30
1 2 5n 2
a= , a>0
12 Clearly 5n = 30
1
b = 16a2 = n=6
9 r
A
Þ 72 (a + b) = 6 + 8 = 14 9. Let c be a vector perpendicular to the vectors

r r
7. In DABC, the lengths of sides AC and AB are a = î + ˆj - kˆ and b = î + 2 ˆj + kˆ .
12 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the area of
r r r r
DABC is 30 cm2 and R and r are respectively ( )
If c. î + ˆj + 3kˆ = 8 then the value of c. a ´ b ( )
the radii of circumcircle and incircle of DABC,
is equal to _________.
then the value of 2R + r (in cm) is equal to
_______.
r r r
Official Ans by NTA (15) Sol. c = l(a ´ b)
1
Sol. D = .5.12.sin A = 30 î ˆj kˆ
2
sinA = 1 A r r =
a´b 1 1 -1
A = 90° Þ BC = 13 1 2 1
BC = 2R = 13 5 12
D 30 r r
r= = =2 B C
(a ´ b) = 3iˆ - 2ˆj + kˆ
S 15
r
2R + r = 15 c × (iˆ + ˆj + 3k)
ˆ = l(3iˆ - 2 ˆj + k)
ˆ . (iˆ + ˆj + 3k)
ˆ
11
Þ l(4) = 8 Þ l = 2 S24(x) = 1093 (Given)
r r r æ
logax ç 48 +
23.24.47 ö
÷ = 1093
c = 2(a ´ b) è 6 ø
r r r r r 1
c.(a ´ b) = 2 | a ´ b |2 = 28 logax = .... (1)
4
10. Let S12 (2x) = 265
S12 (2x) = 265
Sn (x) = log a1/2 x + log a1/ 3 x + log a1/6 x
æ 11.12.23 ö
loga(2x) ç 24 + ÷ = 265
+ log a1/11 x + log a1/18 x + log a1/27 x + ..... è 6 ø
1
up to n-terms, where a > 1. If S24(x) = 1093 and loga2x = .... (2)
2
S 12 (2x) = 265, then value of a is equal to (2) – (1)
_______.
1
Official Ans by NTA (16) loga2x – logax =
4
Sol. Sn(x) = (2+3+6+11+18+27+.......+n-terms)logax
Let S1 = 2 + 3 + 6 + 11 + 18 + 27 + .... + Tn 1
loga2 = Þ a = 16
S1 = 2 + 3 + 6 + .............................. + Tn
EN 4
–––––––––––––––––––––
Tn = 2 + 1 + 3 + 5 + ...... + n terms
Tn = 2 + (n – 1)2
(n - 1) n (2n -1)
S1 = STn = 2n +
6
æ n(n - 1)(2n - 1) ö
LL
Þ Sn (x) = ç 2n + ÷ loga x
è 6 ø
A
12

(Held On Wednesday 17th March, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
SECTION-A Sol. Excess pressure at common surface is given by
r
1. A triangular plate is shown. A force F = 4iˆ - 3jˆ
æ1 1ö 4T
is applied at point P. The torque at point P with Pex = 4T ç - ÷ =
èa bø r
respect to point 'O' and 'Q' are :
1 1 1
\ = -
Y r a b
F
P
ab
r=
cm
10
b-a
10
cm
60° 60° 3. A polyatomic ideal gas has 24 vibrational

O X
EN 10 cm
(1) – 15 – 20 3 , 15 – 20 3
(2) 15 + 20 3 , 15 – 20 3
(3) 15 – 20 3 , 15 + 20 3
Q modes. What is the value of g ?
(1) 1.03
(3) 1.37
(2) 1.30
(4) 10.3
Sol. Since each vibrational mode has 2 degrees of

freedom hence total vibrational degrees of
freedom = 48
(4) – 15 + 20 3 , 15 + 20 3
LL
f = 3 + 3 + 48 = 54
r 2 28
Sol. F = 4iˆ - 3ˆj g=1+ = = 1.03
f 27
r r
r1 = 5iˆ + 5 3ˆj & r2 = - 5iˆ + 5 3ˆj 4. If an electron is moving in the nth orbit of the
Torque about 'O' hydrogen atom, then its velocity (vn) for the nth
r r r
( ) (
tO = r1 ´ F = -15 - 20 3 kˆ = 15 + 20 3 -kˆ )( ) orbit is given as :
A
1
Torque about 'Q' (1) vn µ n (2) vn µ
n
r r r
( ) (
tQ = r2 ´ F = -15 + 20 3 kˆ = 15 - 20 3 -kˆ )( )
1
2. When two soap bubbles of radii a and (3) vn µ n2 (4) vn µ
n2
b (b > a) coalesce, the radius of curvature of
common surface is : Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. We know velocity of electron in n th shell of
ab a+b hydrogen atom is given by
(1) (2)
b-a ab
2 pkZe 2
v=
b-a ab nh
(3) (4)
ab a+b
1
Official Ans. by NTA (1) \vµ
n
1
5. An electron of mass m and a photon have same 7. The vernier scale used for measurement has a
energy E. The ratio of wavelength of electron positive zero error of 0.2 mm. If while taking
a measurement it was noted that '0' on the
to that of photon is : (c being the velocity of
vernier scale lies between 8.5 cm and 8.6 cm,
light)
vernier coincidence is 6, then the correct value
1/ 2 1/ 2 of measurement is_____ cm.
1 æ 2m ö 1æ E ö
(1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷ (least count = 0.01 cm)
cè E ø c è 2m ø (1) 8.36 cm (2) 8.54 cm
(3) 8.58 cm (4) 8.56 cm
1/2
æ E ö Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(3) ç ÷ (4) c (2mE)1/2
è 2m ø Sol. Positive zero error = 0.2 mm
Main scale reading = 8.5 cm
Vernier scale reading = 6 × 0.01 = 0.06 cm
h Final reading = 8.5 + 0.06 – 0.02 = 8.54 cm
Sol. l1 =
2mE 8. An AC current is given by I = I1 sinwt + I2 coswt.
A hot wire ammeter will give a reading :
hc
6.
l2 =
E
l1 1 æ E ö
=
l 2 c çè 2m ÷ø
EN
1/2
Two identical metal wires of thermal

conductivities K 1 and K 2 respectively are
(1)
(3)
2
I12 - I 22
2
I1 + I 2

Sol. I = I1 sin wt + I2 cos wt
(2)
(4)
I12 + I 22
2 2
2
I1 + I 2
\ I0 = I12 + I 22
connected in series. The effective thermal
LL
conductivity of the combination is : I0
= I12 + I 22
\ Irms =
2K1 K 2 K1 + K 2 2 2
(1) K + K (2) 2K K 9. A modern grand-prix racing car of mass m is
1 2 1 2
travelling on a flat track in a circular arc of
K1 + K 2 K1 K 2 radius R with a speed v. If the coefficient of
(3) K K (4) K + K static friction between the tyres and the track
A
1 2 1 2
is m s, then the magnitude of negative lift F L
Official Ans. by NTA (1) acting downwards on the car is :
(Assume forces on the four tyres are identical
l l and g = acceleration due to gravity)
K1 K2 v
Sol. 2l
Keq R
l l 2l æ v2 ö æ v2 ö
Reff = K A + K A = K A m
(1) ç + g÷ (2) ç m R - g ÷
m
1 2 eq
è ms R ø è s ø
2K1K 2 æ v2 ö æ v2 ö
K eq = (3) m ç g - ÷ (4) -m ç g + ÷
K1 + K 2 è ms R ø è ms R ø
2
Sol. B = mnI = m0mrnI
mv2 B = 4p × 10–7 × 500 × 1000 × 5
Sol. msN =
R B = p Tesla
12. A mass M hangs on a massless rod of
mv 2 l ength l which rotates at a constant angular
N= = mg + FL
ms R frequency. The mass M moves with steady
speed in a circular path of constant radius.
mv 2 Assume that the system is in steady circular
FL = - mg motion with constant angular velocity w. The
ms R
angular momentum of M about point A is LA
10. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a which lies in the positive z direction and the
for some time after which it decelerates at a angular momentum of M about B is LB. The
correct statement for this system is :
constant rate b to come to rest. If the total time
elapsed is t seconds, the total distance travelled
is : z w
B
4 ab 2 2 ab 2
(1) (a +b) t
ab 2
(3) 2(a +b) t
EN
(2) (a +b) t
ab 2
(4) 4(a +b) t
Sol. v0 = at1 and 0 = v0 – bt2 Þ v0 = bt2

A
a l
r M
(1) LA and LB are both constant in magnitude

t1 + t2 = t and direction
LL
v
(2) LB is constant in direction with varying
æ1 1ö v0
v0 ç + ÷ = t magnitude
è a b ø (3) L B is constant, both in magnitude and
time direction
t
abt
Þ v0 = (4) L A is constant, both in magnitude and
a+b direction
Distance = area of v-t graph Official Ans. by NTA (4)
r
A
r r
Sol. We know, L = m (r ´ v)
1 1 abt ab t 2
= × t × v0 = ×t× = 2 a+b
2 2 a+b ( ) Now with respect to A, we always get direction
r
11. A solenoid of 1000 turns per metre has a core of L along +ve z-axis and also constant
magnitude as mvr. But with respect to B, we
with relative permeability 500. Insulated
get constant magnitude but continuously
windings of the solenoid carry an electric
changing direction.
current of 5A. The magnetic flux density
13. For what value of displacement the kinetic
produced by the solenoid is :
energy and potential energy of a simple
(permeability of free space = 4p × 10–7 H/m)
harmonic oscillation become equal ?
(1) pT (2) 2 × 10 –3 pT
(1) x = 0 (2) x = ± A
p
(3) T (4) 10–4pT A A
5 (3) x = ± (4) x =
2 2
3
Sol. KE = PE 16. The output of the given combination gates
1 1 represents :
mw2 (A2 – x2) = mw2 x2
2 2
A
A2 – x2 = x2 Y
2x2 = A2 B
A (1) XOR Gate (2) NAND Gate
x=±
2 (3) AND Gate (4) NOR Gate
14. A Carnot's engine working between 400 K and Official Ans. by NTA (2)
800 K has a work output of 1200 J per cycle. Sol. By De Morgan's theorem, we have
The amount of heat energy supplied to the
engine from the source in each cycle is : A A A·B = NAND
A·B
(1) 3200 J (2) 1800 J Y
(3) 1600 J (4) 2400 J B B
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 17. A boy is rolling a 0.5 kg ball on the frictionless
T2 Q 2 Q1 - W floor with the speed of 20 ms–1. The ball gets
Sol. h = T = Q = Q
400
800
W
Q1
1
=1-
=1- =
1
W
Q1
1 1
2 2
1
EN (Q W = Q1 – Q2)
deflected by an obstacle on the way. After
deflection it moves with 5% of its initial kinetic
energy. What is the speed of the ball now ?
(1) 19.0 ms–1
(3) 14.41 ms–1
(2) 4.47 ms–1
(4) 1.00 ms–1
Sol. Given, m = 0.5 kg and u = 20 m/s

Q1 = 2W = 2400 J
15. The thickness at the centre of a plano convex
1
LL
lens is 3 mm and the diameter is 6 cm. If the Initial kinetic energy (ki) = mu 2
2
speed of light in the material of the lens is
2 × 108 ms–1. The focal length of the lens is 1
_____. = × 0.5 × 20 × 20 = 100 J
2
(1) 0.30 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 30 cm After deflection it moves with 5% of ki
\ kf = × ki Þ × 100
A
Sol. R2 = r2 + (R – t)2 R 100 100

r
R2 = r2 + R2 + t2 – 2Rt
t Þ kf = 5 J
Neglecting t2, we get
Now, let the final speed be 'v' m/s, then :
r2
R= 1
2t kf = 5 = mv2
2
1 æ1 1ö m -1
\ = (m – 1) ç - ÷ = Þ v2 = 20
f è R ¥ ø R
Þv= 20 = 4.47 m/s
R r2 (3´10 -2 ) 2
f= = = 18. Which level of the single ionized carbon has
m -1 2t (m - 1) æ3 ö
2 ´ 3´10 -3 ´ ç - 1 ÷ the same energy as the ground state energy of
è2 ø
hydrogen atom?
9 ´10 -4 (1) 1 (2) 6
= ×2
6 ´10 -3 ´1 (3) 4 (4) 8
f = 0.3 m = 30 cm Official Ans. by NTA (2)
4
Sol. Energy of H-atom is E = – 13.6 Z2/n2 Sol. i = 10A, A = 5 mm2 = 5 × 10–6 m2

for H-atom Z = 1 & for ground state, n = 1 and vd = 2 × 10–3 m/s
We know, i = neAvd
2
1 \ 10 = n × 1.6 × 10–19 × 5 × 10–6 × 2 × 10–3
Þ E = – 13.6 × = – 13.6 eV
12 Þ n = 0.625 × 1028 = 625 × 1025
Now for carbon atom (single ionised), Z = 6 SECTION-B
Z2 1. For VHF signal broadcasting, ____ km 2 of

E = – 13.6 = – 13.6 (given)
n2 maximum service area will be covered by an
antenna tower of height 30m, if the receiving
Þ n2 = 62 Þ n = 6
antenna is placed at ground. Let radius of the
19. Two ideal polyatomic gases at temperatures
earth be 6400 km. (Round off to the Nearest
T1 and T2 are mixed so that there is no loss of
Integer) (Take p as 3.14)
energy. If F1 and F2, m1 and m2, n1 and n2 be
the degrees of freedom, masses, number of Official Ans. by NTA (1206)
molecules of the first and second gas Sol. d = 2Rh
(1) n1 + n 2
EN
respectively, the temperature of mixture of
these two gases is :
n1T1 + n 2 T2
n1 F1 T1 + n 2 F2 T2
(2)
n1 F1 T1 + n 2 F2 T2
n1 F1 + n 2 F2
n1 F1 T1 + n 2 F2 T2
A = pd2
A = p2Rh
= 3.14 × 2 × 6400 ×
A = 1205.76 km 2
30
1000
(3) (4) A ; 1206 km2

F1 + F2 n1 + n 2
LL
2. The angular speed of truck wheel is increased
Official Ans. by NTA (2) from 900 rpm to 2460 rpm in 26 seconds. The
Sol. Let the final temperature of the mixture be T. number of revolutions by the truck engine
Since, there is no loss in energy. during this time is _______.
DU = 0 (Assuming the acceleration to be uniform).
F1 F2 Official Ans. by NTA (728)
Þ n1R DT + n RDT = 0
2 2 2
A
æ w1 + w2 ö
Sol. We know, q = ç ÷t
F1 F è 2 ø
Þ n R (T1 – T) + 2 n2R (T2 – T) = 0
2 1 2 Let number of revolutions be N
F1 n1RT1 + F2 n 2 RT2 F n T +F n T æ 900 + 2460 ö

ÞT= Þ 1 1 1 2 2 2 \ 2pN = 2p ç ÷ ´ 26
F1 n1 R + F2 n 2 R F1 n1 + F2 n 2 è 60 ´ 2 ø
20. A current of 10A exists in a wire of N = 728
crosssectional area of 5 mm 2 with a drift
3. The equivalent resistance of series combination
velocity of 2 × 10–3 ms–1. The number of free of two resistors is 's'. When they are connected
electrons in each cubic meter of the wire is ___. in parallel, the equivalent resistance is 'p'.
(1) 2 × 106 (2) 625 × 1025
If s = np, then the minimum value for n is ___.
(3) 2 × 1025 (4) 1 × 1023
5
Sol. R1 + R2 = s ... (1)

2C0 2 Î0 A
Ceq = =
R1 R 2 3 3 d
R1 + R 2 = p ... (2)
2Î0 æ 3 ö 3
Ceq = ´ 2´ = 2 (Q A = lb = 2 × )
R1R2 = sp 3d çè 2 ÷ø 2
R1R2 = np2 5. The radius in kilometer to which the present
nR1 R 2 radius of earth (R = 6400 km) to be compressed
R1 + R2 = (R + R ) so that the escape velocity is increased 10 time
1 2
is _______.
(R1 + R 2 )2 Official Ans. by NTA (64)

=n
R1 R 2
2Gm
Sol. Ve = .... (1)
for minimum value of n R
R1 = R2 = R
2Gm
4.
\n=
(2R)
R2
2
=4
EN
Four identical rectangular plates with length,
3
l = 2 cm and breadth, b = cm are arranged
2
as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance
10Ve =
\ 10 =
Þ R' =
R
100
R'
R
R'
=
6400
100
... (2)
= 64 km
x e0
between A and C is . The value of x is ___.
d 6. Consider two identical springs each of spring
LL
(Round off to the Nearest Integer) constant k and negligible mass compared to the
mass M as shown. Fig.1 shows one of them and
A B C D Fig.2 shows their series combination. The ratios
of time period of oscillation of the two SHM is
Tb
= x , where value of x is ______.
Ta
A

d d d
Official Ans. by NTA (2) /////////////////// ///////////////////
Ta Tb
Sol.
M
A B C D Fig.1
C0 B,D C0
M
A C Fig.2
C0
6
8. A parallel plate capacitor whose capacitance C

M
Sol. Ta = 2p is 14 pF is charged by a battery to a potential
K
difference V = 12V between its plates. The
charging battery is now disconnected and a
M
Tb = 2p porcelin plate with k = 7 is inserted between the
K/2
plates, then the plate would oscillate back and
Tb forth between the plates with a constant
= 2 = x
Ta mechanical energy of ______ pJ.
(Assume no friction)
Þx=2
7. The following bodies,
(1) a ring (2) a disc 1 1
Sol. Ui = × 14 × 12 × 12 pJ (Q U = CV2 )
2 2
(3) a solid cylinder (4) a solid sphere,
of same mass 'm' and radius 'R' are allowed to = 1008 pJ
EN
roll down without slipping simultaneously from
the top of the inclined plane. The body which
will reach first at the bottom of the inclined
plane is ______.
[Mark the body as per their respective
Uf =
1008
7
pJ = 144 pJ
Mechanical energy = DU
= 1008 – 144
= 864 pJ
(Q Cm = kC0)
numbering given in the question]

9. Two blocks (m = 0.5 kg and M = 4.5 kg) are
LL
arranged on a horizontal frictionless table as
shown in figure. The coefficient of static
S 3
h friction between the two blocks is . Then the
7
q maximum horizontal force that can be applied
on the larger block so that the blocks move
A
Official Ans. by NTA (4) together is ______ N. (Round off to the Nearest
Sol. Mg sinq R = (mk2 + mR2) a Integer) [Take g as 9.8 ms–2]
Rgsin q gsin q m
a = k2 + R2 Þ a = F
k2 M
1+ 2
R

2s 2s æ k ö
2
t= = ç1 + 2 ÷ 3
a g sin q è R ø Sol. amax = mg = × 9.8
7
for least time, k should be least & we know k F = (M + m) amax = 5 amax
is least for solid sphere. = 21 Newton
7
10. If 2.5 × 10–6 N average force is exerted by a

light wave on a non-reflecting surface of 30 cm2
area during 40 minutes of time span, the energy
flux of light just before it falls on the surface
is ____ W/cm2.
(Assume complete absorption and normal
incidence conditions are there)
IA
Sol. F =
C
FC 2.5´10 -6 ´ 3´10 8
I= = = 25 W/cm2
A 30
EN
LL
A
8

SECTION-A O O
1. With respect to drug-enzyme interaction, Ethylene Glycol A
3. OC2H 5 H+
identify the wrong statement: (Major Product)
(1) Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the The product "A" in the above reaction is:
allosteric site
OH
(2) Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme's O O
active site OH
(1)
(3) Allosteric inhibitor competes with the OC2H5
enzyme's active site
(4) Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme's
active site O
O O
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (2)
OC2H 5
Sol. Some durg do not bind to the Enzyme's active
EN
site. These bind to a different site of enzyme O
which called allosteric site.
OC2H 5
This binding of inhibitor at allosteric site
changes the shape of the active site in such (3)
a way that substrate can not recognise it. OH
Such inhibitor is known as Non-competitive
LL
inhibitor. O
(4) O O
Active site with
Active OH
shape change
site
A
OH
O O
OH O OO
Sol. C2 H 5
Enzyme Allosteric Inhibitor OC2H5 H
+
O
site Inhibitor occupying allosteric site
4. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs
(non-competitive) of electrons and forms three single bonds. The
shape of this molecule is:
2. Which of the following is an aromatic compound? (1) see-saw (2) planar triangular
(3) T-shaped (4) trigonal pyramidal
(1) (2) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol.
(3) (4)

–..
Sol. ® Aromatic compound sp3d hybridised
T-shaped
1
5. Given below are two statements: Sol. The structure of Tyrosine amino acid is
Statement I : Potassium permanganate on COOH
heating at 573 K forms potassium manganate.
Statement II : Both potassium permanganate H 2N H
and potassium manganate are tetrahedral and CH2 OH
paramagnetic in nature.
– +
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Cl O Na
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false 7.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true + NaOH
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false The above reaction requires which of the
Official Ans. by NTA (1) following reaction conditions?
Sol. 2KMnO4 ¾¾¾ (1) 573 K, Cu, 300 atm
573K
® K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 (2) 623 K, Cu, 300 atm
Potassium Potassium (3) 573 K, 300 atm
permanganate manganate (4) 623 K, 300 atm
.. +
Cl ONa
EN Sol. + NaOH
Temperature = 623 K
Dow process
Statement-I is correct. Pressure = 300 atm

Statement-II is incorrect. 8. The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy
6. Which of the following is correct structure of tyrosine? of halogens satisfies:
(1) I > Br > Cl > F (2) Cl > Br > F > I
LL
COOH (3) Cl > F > Br > I (4) F > Cl > Br > I
H 2N H Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. Order of electron gain enthalpy
(1) (Absolute value)
OH Cl > F > Br > I
9. Which of the following compound CANNOT
A
act as a Lewis base?

COOH (1) NF3 (2) PCl5 (3) SF4 (4) ClF3
H 2N H OH Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(2) Sol. Lewis base : Chemical species which has
capability to donate electron
pair.
COOH In NF3, SF4, ClF3 central atom (i.e. N, S, Cl)
having lone pair therefore act as lewis base.
H 2N H
OH In PCl5 central atom (P) does not have lone
(3) pair therefore does not act as lewis base.
10. Reducing smog is a mixture of:
(1) Smoke, fog and O3
COOH (2) Smoke, fog and SO2
(3) Smoke, fog and CH2=CH–CHO
H2 N H
(4) Smoke, fog and N 2O3
(4) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
OH
Sol. Reducing or classical smog is the combination
Official Ans. by NTA (4) of smoke, fog and SO2.
2
11. Hoffmann bromomide degradation of 13. Which of the following reaction is an example
benzamide gives product A, which upon heating
of ammonolysis?
with CHCl3 and NaOH gives product B. The
structures of A and B are : (1) C6H5COCl + C6H5NH2 ¾® C6H5CONHC6H5
NH2 NH2 (2) C6H5CH2CN ¾¾®

[H] C6H5CH2CH2NH2
CHO
+
(1) A - B- (3) C6H5NH2 ¾¾¾
HCl
® C 6 H 5 NH 3 Cl –
(4) C6H5CH2Cl + NH3 ¾® C6H5CH2NH2
Br Br
NH2 NC
Sol. The process of cleavage of the C–X bond by
(2) A - B- Ammonia molecule is known as ammonolysis.
..
Ex : R–CH 2–Cl + NH 3 R–CH 2–NH 2
NH2 NH 2
CHO
Br A
(3) A - B- 14.
CH3 CCl4 (Major product)
O O EN Br
NH2 NH2
CHO
A- B- (1)
(4) CH3
Br Br
Br CH3
(2)
LL
Sol. Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction :
CH 3
O
Br
C–NH2 + Br2 4NaOH NH 2 (A)
(3) CH3
A
CHCl3/KOH
CH 3
NC (B) Br
CH3
Carbylamine reaction : (4)
CH3
12. Mesityl oxide is a common name of : Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(1) 2,4-Dimethyl pentan-3-one Sol.
(2) 3-Methyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde
(3) 2-Methyl cyclohexanone Å
(4) 4-Methyl pent-3-en-2-one
CH3 HBr CH3 Methyl
Official Ans. by NTA (4) CCl4 shift
..
O Br
4
Sol. 1 2 3 5
Br
Mesityloxide
IUPAC [4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one]
3
15. A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed 18. What is the spin-only magnetic moment value
in a solid is called a/an : (BM) of a divalent metal ion with atomic
(1) solid sol (2) gel number 25, in it's aqueous solution?
(3) aerosol (4) foam (1) 5.92
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (2) 5.0
Sol. Colloid of gas dispersed in solid is called solid sol. (3) zero
16. The INCORRECT statement(s) about heavy
(4) 5.26
water is (are)
(A) used as a moderator in nuclear reactor
Sol. Electronic configuration of divalent metal ion
(B) obtained as a by-product in fertilizer industry.
having atomic number 25 is
(C) used for the study of reaction mechanism
(D) has a higher dielectric constant than water
Mn+2(aq) Þ
given below : Total number of unpaired electrons = 5
(1) (B) only (2) (C) only EN m (Magnetic moment) = n(n + 2) BM
(3) (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only
where n = number of unpaired e–
\ m= 5(5 + 2) = 35 BM = 5.92 BM
Sol. The dielectric constant of H2O is greater than
heavy water. 19. Given below are two statements :
17. The correct order of conductivity of ions in
Statement-I : Retardation factor (Rf) can be
LL
water is :
measured in meter/centimeter.
(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
Statement-II : Rf value of a compound remains
(2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
constant in all solvents.
(3) K+ > Na+ > Cs+ > Rb+
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
A
(4) Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+

options given below:
(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
Sol. (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
\ Correct option is Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
OR Sol. Rf = retardation factor
Sol. As the size of gaseous ion decreases, it get
more hydrated in water and hence, the size of Dis tan ce travelled by the subs tan ce from
aqueous ion increases. When this bulky ion reference line (c.m)
move in solution, it experience greater Rf =
Dis tan ce travelled by the solvent from
resistance and hence lower conductivity.
reference line (c.m)
Size of gasesous ion : Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
Size of aqueous ion : Cs+ < Rb+ < K+ < Na+ Note : Rf value of different compounds are
Conductivity : Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ different.
4
20. The point of intersection and sudden increase 2. 0.01 moles of a weak acid HA(Ka = 2.0 × 10–6)
is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M HCl solution. The
in the slope, in the diagram given below,
degree of dissociation of HA is ________ × 10–5
respectively, indicates : (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Neglect volume change on adding HA.
0 Assume degree of dissociation <<1]
–100 O Official Ans. by NTA (2)
®2Cu 2 HA H+ + A–
–200 4Cu+O 2
e O Sol.
DG /kJ mol of O2
2F
O®
–300 2F e +
2
C+O2®CO2 Initial conc. 0.01M 0.1M 0
–400 2 C +O ® Equ. conc. (0.01 – x) (0.1 + x) xM
2CO
–1
–500 CO+O ® 2ZnO 2 2 2CO » 0.01M » 0.1M

2
–600 Zn+O 2 ®
2
–700 [x + ][A - ] 0.1 ´ x
l 2O 3 Þ 2 ´ 10 -6 =
0
Now, Ka =
–800
® 2/3A A [HA] 0.01
–900 l + O2
3A gO
–1000 4/
–7
®2M \ x = 2 × 10
+ O
–1100 2Mg
2
x 2 ´ 10 -7
–1200 Now, a = = = 2 ´ 10 -5
0.01 0.01
0°C 400°C 800°C 1200°C 1600°C 2000°C
273K 673K 1073K 1473K 1873K 2273K
3. A certain orbital has n = 4 and mL = –3. The
EN number of radial nodes in this orbital is
Temperature
________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(1) DG = 0 and melting or boiling point of the Sol. n = 4 and ml = –3
metal oxide Hence, l value must be 3.
(2) DG > 0 and decomposition of the metal Now, number of radial nodes = n – l – 1
oxide =4–3–1=0
(3) DG < 0 and decomposition of the metal
LL
oxide NO2
(4) DG = 0 and reduction of the metal oxide
4. HNO3
H2SO4
Official Ans. by ALLEN (Bonus)
Sol. At intersection point DG = 0 and sudden In the above reaction, 3.9 g of benzene on nitration
A
increase in slope is due to melting or boiling gives 4.92 g of nitrobenzene. The percentage yield
point of the metal. of nitrobenzene in the above reaction is _______
%. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(Given atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0u,
SECTION-B O : 16.0 u, N : 14.0 u)
1. The reaction of white phosphorus on boiling Official Ans. by NTA (80)
with alkali in inert atmosphere resulted in the NO2
formation of product 'A'. The reaction 1 mol of
Sol. HNO3
'A' with excess of AgNO3 in aqueous medium H2SO4
gives ________ mol(s) of Ag. (Round off to the 1 mole 1 mole
Nearest Integer). 78gm 123gm
3.9gm × 3.9 = 6.15gm
78
Sol. P4 + 3OH– + 3H2O ® PH3 + 3H 2 PO2- But actual amount of nitrobenzene formed is
(A)
4.92 gm and hence.
H 2 PO2- + 4Ag + + 2H 2O ® 4Ag + H 3 PO 4 + 3H + 4.92
Percentage yield = ´ 100 = 80%
1 mole excess 4 mole 6.15
5
5. The mole fraction of a solute in a 100 molal 9. The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial
aqueous solution _______ × 10 –2. pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above water.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Atomic masses : H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u] The molar solubility of oxygen in water is
Official Ans. by NTA (64) _______ × 10 –5 mol dm–3.
Sol. 100 molal aqueous solution means there is 100 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
mole solute in 1 kg = 1000 gm water. [Given : Henry's law constant
Now, = KH = 8.0 × 104 kPa for O2.
n solute Density of water with dissolved oxygen = 1.0 kg dm–3]
mole-fraction of solute =
n solute + n solvent Official Ans. by NTA (25)
Official Ans. by ALLEN (1389)
100 1800
= = = 0.6428 Sol. P = KH · x
1000 2800
100 + n O2
18 or, 20 × 103 = (8 × 104 × 103) ×
= 64.28 × 10–2 n O2 + n water
6. For a certain first order reaction 32% of the
reactant is left after 570 s. The rate constant of 1 n O2 n O2
or, = =
this reaction is _______ × 10–3 s–1. (Round off 4000 n O2 + n water n water
to the Nearest Integer). EN
[Given : log102 = 0.301, ln10 = 2.303] Means 1 mole water (= 18 gm = 18 ml) dissolves
Sol. For 1st order reaction, 1
moles O 2 . Hence, molar solubility
2.303 [A ] 2.303 æ 100 ö 4000
K= .log 0 = .log ç ÷
t [A t ] 570 sec è 32 ø
= 1.999 × 10–3 sec–1 » 2 × 10–3 sec–1 æ 1 ö
LL
ç 4000 ÷
7. The standard enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 = è ø ´ 1000 = 1 mol dm -3
and CaO are –1675 kJ mol–1 and –635 kJ mol–1 18 72
respectively.
For the reaction = 1388.89 × 10–5 mol dm–3 » 1389 mol dm–3
3CaO + 2Al ® 3Ca + Al 2 O 3 the standard 10. The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous
reaction enthalpy DrH0= _______ kJ.
A
mixture of 6.4 g of methane and 8.8 g of carbon

dioxide in a 10 L vessel at 27°C is _______ kPa.
Sol. Given reaction: (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
3CaO + Al ® Al2O3 + 3Ca [Assume gases are ideal, R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1
Now, DrH° = S DfH°Products – SDfH°Reactants Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u]
= [1 × (–1675) + 3 × 0] – [3 × (–635) + 2 × 0] Official Ans. by NTA (150)
= + 230 kJ mol–1
8. 15 mL of aqueous solution of Fe2+ in acidic Sol. Total moles of gases, n = n CH4 + n CO2
medium completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03 M
aqueous Cr 2 O 7 2– . The molarity of the Fe 2+ 6.4 8.8
= + = 0.6
solution is _______ × 10–2 M (Round off to the 16 44
Nearest Integer).
Official Ans. by NTA (24) nRT 0.6 ´ 8.314 ´ 300
Sol. neq Fe2+ = neq Cr2O72– Now, P = =
V 10 ´10-3
æ 15 ´ M Fe2+ ö æ 20 ´ 0.03 ö = 1.49652 × 105 Pa = 149.652 kPa
or, ç ÷ ´1 = ç ÷´6
è 1000 ø è 1000 ø » 150 kPa
\ M Fe2+ = 0.24 M = 24 × 10–2 M
6

SECTION-A Þ l(-5 - 8 + 10) = -3
1. The inverse of y = 5log x is :
l =1
(1) x = 5logy (2) x = ylog5
r
1 1
Now r = -5iˆ - 4ˆj + 10kˆ
(3) x = y (4) x = 5
log 5 log y
r
Official Ans. by NTA (3) = r.(2iˆ - 3ˆj + k)
ˆ
Allen Ans. (1 or 2 or 3)
= –10 + 12 + 10 = 12
( loga x )
Sol. Given y = 5 = ƒ(x) 3. In a triangle PQR, the co-ordinates of the points
P and Q are (–2, 4) and (4, –2) respectively. If
Interchanging x & y for inverse
the equation of the perpendicular bisector of PR
x = 5(
log a y )
EN
= y (loga 5)
option (1) or option (2)

Further, from given relation
log5y = logax
Þ x = a(
log 5 y )
= y (log5 a)
Sol.
is 2x – y + 2 = 0, then the centre of the
circumcircle of the DPQR is :
(1) (–1, 0)
(3) (0, 2)
P(–2, 4)
(2) (–2, –2)
(4) (1, 4
(1, 1) M 2x – y + 2 = 0
LL
æ 1 ö
ç ÷
è log a 5 ø
Þ x=y = ƒ -1 (y)
0
option (3) Q R
r r (4, –2)
2. Let a = 2iˆ - 3ˆj + 4kˆ and b = 7iˆ + ˆj - 6k.
ˆ
Equation of perpendicular bisector of PR is
r r r rr r
( )
If r ´ a = r ´ b, r × î + 2ˆj + kˆ = -3,then r × 2iˆ - 3jˆ + kˆ ( ) y=x
A
is equal to : Solving with 2x – y + 2 = 0 will give

(1) 12 (2) 8 (–2, 2)
(3) 13 (4) 10 4. The system of equations kx + y + z = 1,
Official Ans. by NTA (1) x + ky + z = k and x + y + zk = k2 has no solution
r if k is equal to :
Sol. rr ´ ar - rr ´ b = 0
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) –2
r r r Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Þ r ´ (a - b) = 0
Sol. kx + y + z = 1
r r r x + ky + z = k
Þ r = l(a - b)
x + y + zk = k2
r
Þ r = l(-5iˆ - 4ˆj + 10k)
ˆ K 1 1
D= 1 K 1 = K(K 2 - 1) - 1(K - 1) + 1(1 - K)
r
Also r.(iˆ + 2ˆj + k)
ˆ = -3
1 1 K
1
= K3 – K – K + 1 + 1 – K r
n = ˆj ´ (iˆ + 2ˆj + 3k)
ˆ
= K3 – 3K + 2
= (K – 1)2 (K + 2) = -3iˆ + 0 ˆj + kˆ
For K = 1
So,(-3) (x – 1) + 0 (y – 2) + (1) (z – 3) = 0
D = D1 = D2 = D3 = 0
But for K = – 2, at least one out of D1, D2, D3 Þ – 3x + z = 0
are not zero Option 4
Hence for no soln, K = –2 Alternate :
5. If cot –1 (a) = cot –1 2 + cot –1 8 + cot –1 18 Required plane is
+ cot–1 32 + ..... upto 100 terms, then a is :
(1) 1.01 (2) 1.00 x y z
(3) 1.02 (4) 1.03 0 1 0 =0
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 1 2 3
Sol. Cot–1(a) = cot–1(2) + cot –1(8) + cot –1(18)+..... Þ 3x – z = 0
=
100
å tan
n =1
100
n =1
100
-1
EN
æ 2 ö
ç 4n 2 ÷
è ø
æ (2n + 1) - (2n - 1) ö
= å tan -1 ç ÷
è 1 + (2n + 1)(2n - 1) ø
= å tan -1 ( 2n + 1) - tan -1 (2n - 1)

7. If A = ç
(1)
p
2
æ 0
è sin a
sin a ö
0 ø
a possible value of a is
(2)
æ 2 1 ö
÷ and det ç A - I ÷ = 0, then
è
p
3
2 ø
n =1 p p
(3) (4)
LL
= tan–1 201 – tan–11 4 6
æ 200 ö
-1
= tan ç ÷ Sol. A2 = sin2a I
è 202 ø
2
I æ 2 1ö
æ 202 ö So, A - = ç sin a - ÷ = 0
2
-1 -1
\ cot (a) = cot ç ÷ 2 è 2ø
è 200 ø
1
a = 1.01 Þ sin a = ±
A
2
6. The equation of the plane which contains the
8. If the Boolean expression (p Þ q) Û (q * (~p))
y-axis and passes through the point (1, 2, 3)
is a tautology, then the Boolean expression
is :
p * (~q) is equivalent to :
(1) x + 3z = 10 (2) x + 3z = 0
(1) q Þ p (2) ~q Þ p
(3) 3x + z = 6 (4) 3x – z = 0
(3) p Þ ~q (4) p Þ q
Sol.
Sol. Q p ® q º ~ p Ú q
^
j
(0, 0, 0) So, * º v
Thus, p *(~ q) º pv(~ q)
(i^+ 2j^+ 3k)

^ ºq®p
2
9. Two dices are rolled. If both dices have six faces (1) P and Q
numbered 1,2,3,5,7 and 11, then the probability (2) P and R
that the sum of the numbers on the top faces (3) None of these
is less than or equal to 8 is : (4) Q and R
4 17 5 1 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 36 12 2 Sol. A Ç B Ç C is visible in all three venn diagram
Hence, Option (3)
Sol. n(E) = 5 + 4 + 4 + 3 + 1 = 17 12. The sum of possible values of x for
17 æ 1 ö æ8ö
So, P (E) = tan–1 (x + 1) + cot–1 ç ÷ = tan -1 ç ÷ is :
36 è x -1ø è 31 ø
10. If the fourth term in the expansion of 32 31

(1) - (2) -
4 4
(x + x log2 x )7 is 4480, then the value of x where
x Î N is equal to :
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1
EN (3) -
30
4
æ 1 ö
Sol. tan–1(x + 1) + cot–1 ç ÷
è x -1ø
(4) -
33
= tan -1
4
8
31
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Taking tangent both sides :-

LL
x (x + 1) + (x - 1) 8
Sol. 7
C3 x 4 x (3log2 ) = 4480 =
1 - (x 2 - 1) 31
x
Þ x (4 + 3 log2 ) = 2 7 2x 8
Þ =
2-x 2
31
Þ (4 + 3t)t = 7;t = logx2 Þ 4x2 + 31x – 8 = 0
-7 1
A
Þ x = –8,
Þ t = 1, Þ x = 2 4
3
1
11. In a school, there are three types of games to But, if x =
4
be played. Some of the students play two types
of games, but none play all the three games. æ pö
tan -1 (x + 1) Î ç 0, ÷
Which Venn diagrams can justify the above è 2ø
statement?
-1 æ 1 ö æp ö
& cot ç ÷ Îç ,p÷
è x -1ø è 2 ø
p p
Þ LHS > & RHS <
2 2
P Q R (Not possible)
Hence, x = – 8
3
13. The area of the triangle with vertices A(z), B(iz)

æ (h - 4) ö
and C (z + iz) is : çh- 2 ÷
ç ÷ (2) = -1
1 2 çç 2 - h ÷÷
(1) 1 (2) |z| è ø
2
1 1 h=8
(4) | z + iz |
2
(3)
2 2 center (8, 2)
Sol. Radius = (8 - 2)2 + (2 - 5)2 = 3 5 )
15. Team 'A' consists of 7 boys and n girls and
R(z + iz)
Team 'B' has 4 boys and 6 girls. If a total of 52
single matches can be arranged between these
two teams when a boy plays against a boy and
Q
P(z) a girl plays against a girl, then n is equal to :
(iz)
(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
A=
z
1
2
2
EN
| z | | iz |
O
Sol. Total matches between boys of both team
team = nC1 6C1 = 6n

Now, 28 + 6n = 52
= 7C1 × 4C1 = 28
Total matches between girls of both
=
2
Þn=4
LL
14. The line 2x – y + 1 = 0 is a tangent to the circle
at the point (2, 5) and the centre of the circle
1
lies on x – 2y = 4. Then, the radius of the circle 16. The value of 4 + is :
1
is: 5+
1
4+
(1) 3 5 1
5+
(2) 5 3 4 + .......¥
A
(3) 5 4
2 4
(4) 4 5 (1) 2 + 30 (2) 2 + 30
5 5
4 2
(3) 4 + 30 (4) 5 + 30
Sol. 2x – y + 1 = 0 5 5
A(2, 5)
1
Sol. y= 4+
æ 1ö
O x – 2y = 4 ç5 + ÷
è yø
(h, h – 4 ) mm
1 2 =–1
2
y
y-4=
( 5y + 1)
5y2 – 20y – 4 = 0
4
p /3
20 + 480 cosa x
y=
10 g(a) = ò
p (sin a x + cosa x) .....(ii)
6
20 - 480 (1) + (2)

y= ® rejected
10 p
2g (a) =
6
480 p
y= 2+ g(a) =
100 12
Constant and even function
Correct with Option (A) Due to typing mistake it must be bonus.
17. Choose the incorrect statement about the two 19. Which of the following is true for y(x) that
satisfies the differential equation
circles whose equations are given below :
dy
x2 + y2 – 10x – 10y + 41 = 0 and = xy - 1 + x - y ; y(0) = 0 :
dx
x2 + y2 – 16x – 10y + 80 = 0 1
-
(1) Distance between two centres is the average (1) y(1) = e 2 -1
of radii of both the circles.
another.
other. EN
(2) Both circles' centres lie inside region of one
(3) Both circles pass through the centre of each
(4) Circles have two intersection points.

Sol. r1 = 3, c1 (5, 5) Sol.
(2) y(1) = e 2 – e
(3) y(1) = 1
(4) y(1) = e 2 – 1
dy
dx
= (1 + y)(x - 1)
1

-
1
2
r2 = 3, c2 (8, 5)
dy
C1C2 = 3, r1 = 3, r2 = 3 = (x - 1)dx
LL
(y + 1)
x2
C1 C2 Integrate ln(y + 1) = -x+c
2
æ x2 ö
çç - x ÷÷
18. Which of the following statements is incorrect è 2
(0,0) Þ c = 0 Þ y = e ø
-1
for the function g(a) for a Î R such that
p
20. The value of
A
3
sina x
g(a) = ò a a
dx
p cos x + sin x cos-1 (x - [x]2 ) × sin -1 (x - [x]2 ) where
6 lim+ ,
x ®0 x - x3
(1) g(a) is a strictly increasing function
[x] denotes the greatest integer £ x is :
1
(2) g(a) has an inflection point at a = – (1) p
2
(2) 0
(3) g(a) is a strictly decreasing function
(4) g(a) is an even function p
(3)
Allen Answer (1 or 2 or 3/Bonus) p
(4)
p /3 a
sin x 2
Sol. g(a) = ò (sin
p
a
x + cosa x)
.....(i) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
6
cos-1 x sin -1 x p
Sol. lim+ ´ =
x ®0 (1 - x2 ) x 2
5
SECTION-B
cos(sin x) - cosx
1. The maximum value of z in the following 2. If the function f(x) = is
x4
equation z = 6xy + y2,
where 3x + 4y £ 100
continuous at each point in its domain and
and 4x + 3y £ 75 for x ³ 0 and y ³ 0
is _______ . 1
f(0) = , then k is _________ .
Official Ans. by NTA (904) k
Allen Answer (904 or 904.01 or 904.02)
Sol. y
cos(sin x) - cosx
Sol. lim = f(0)
x ®0 x4
(0, 25)
C æ sin x + x ö æ x - sin x ö
2sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ 1
è 2 ø è 2 ø=
Þ lim 4
3x + 4y – 100 = 0
x ®0 x K
EN
(0, 0) A B
( 75 ,0)
4
100
( ,0)
3
4x + 3y – 75 = 0
x
Þ lim
x ®0
Þ 2´
æ sin x + x ö æ x - sin x ö 1
2ç
è 2x ø è 2x
÷ç
(1 + 1) 1 1 1
2
´ ´ =
2 6 K
3 ÷= K
ø
ÞK=6
z = 6xy + y2 = y (6x + y)
LL
æ æ 1 - 22 x öö
3. If f(x) = sin ç cos -1 ç ÷ ÷÷ and its first
3x + 4y £ 100 .....(i) ç
è1+ 2
2x
è øø
4x + 3y £ 75 ......(ii)
b
x ³ 0 derivative with respect to x is – loge 2 when
a
y ³ 0
x = 1, where a and b are integers, then the
75 - 3y minimum value of |a2 – b2| is _______ .
A
x £
Z = y (6x + y)
æ æ 1 - 22 x öö
æ æ 75 - 3y ö ö Sol. f(x) = sin çç cos -1 ç ÷ ÷÷ at x= 1 ; 22x = 4
è1+ 2
2x
Z £ y ç 6. ç ÷ + y÷ è øø
è è 4 ø ø
1 (225)2
Z £ (225y - 7y 2 ) £ æ æ 1 - x2 öö
2 2´4´7 for sin ç cos-1 ç ÷ ÷÷ ;
ç
è1+ x
2
è øø
50625
=
56
æ p pö
» 904.0178 Let tan–1 x = q ; qÎ ç - , ÷
è 2 2ø
» 904.02
It will be attained at y =
225 ( )
\ sin cos-1 cos2q = sin 2q
14
6
Given that, (a – 2b) P = ab

ì p pü
ïï If x > 1 Þ 2 > q > 4 ïï Þ (P 1 (1 – P 2) (1 – P 3) – 2 (1 – P 1) P 2 (1 – P 3) )P = P 1P 2
í ý
ï\ p ï (1–P1) (1 – P 2) (1 – P 3)2
p > 2q >
ïî 2 ïþ
Þ (P 1(1–P2) – 2(1–P 1) P2) = P1P 2
Þ (P1 – P1P2 – 2P2 + 2P1P2) = P1P2
2 tan q
= 2 sin q cos q =
1 + tan 2 q Þ P1 = 2P2 ......(1)
and similarly, (b – 3g)P = 2Bg
2x
= P2 = 3P3 ......(2)
1 + x2
P1
So, P1 = 6P3 Þ P = 6
2×2 x
3
Hence, f(x) =
1 + 22 x r
5. If a = aî + bˆj + 3k,
ˆ
(1 + 22x )(2.2 x ln 2) - 22x × 2 × ln 2 × 2 × 2x r

b = -bî - aˆj - kˆ and
\ f '(x) =
\ f 1 (1) =
EN
20 ln 2 - 32 ln 2
25
(1 + 22x )
12
= - ln 2
25
So, a = 25, b = 12 Þ |a2 – b2| = 252 – 122

= 625 – 144
r
c = î - 2ˆj - kˆ
r r r r
such that a × b = 1 and b × c = -3, then
1 r r r
3
(( ) )
a ´ b × c is equal to _______.
= 481 Official Ans. by NTA (2)

LL
rr
4. Let there be three independent events E1, E2 and Sol. a.b = 1 Þ –ab – ab – 3 = 1
E3. The probability that only E1 occurs is a,
only E2 occurs is b and only E3 occurs is g. Let Þ –2ab = 4 Þ ab = -2 .........(1)
'p' denote the probability of none of events
occurs that satisfies the equations rr
b.c = -3 Þ -b + 2a + 1 = -3
(a – 2b) p = ab and (b – 3g)p = 2bg. All the
given probabilities are assumed to lie in the
A
b - 2a = 4 .........(2)
interval (0, 1).
Solving (1) & (2), (a,b) = (–1, 2)
Pr obability of occurrence of E1
Then,
Pr obability of occurrence of E 3 is equal a b 3
1 rrr 1
[a b c] = -b -a -1
to _____. 3 3
1 -2 -1
Sol. Let P(E1) = P1 ; P(E2) = P2 ; P(E3) = P3 -1 2 3
1
P(E1 Ç E 2 Ç E 3 ) = a = P1 (1 - P2 )(1 - P3 )......(1) = -2 1 -1
3
1 -2 -1
P(E1 Ç E 2 Ç E 3 ) = b = (1 - P1 )P2 (1 - P3 )......(2)
0 0 2
1 1
P(E1 Ç E 2 Ç E 3 ) = g = (1 - P1 ) (1 - P2 )P3 ......(3) -2 1 -1 = [2(4 - 1)] = 2
= 3 3
1 -2 -1
P(E1 Ç E 2 Ç E 3 ) = P = (1 - P1 )(1 - P2 )(1 - P3 )......(4)
7
8. The minimum distance between any two points
é2 3 ù
6. If A = ê ú , then the value of P 1 and P 2 while considering point P 1 on one
ë 0 -1û circle and point P2 on the other circle for the
given circles' equations
det(A4) + det ( A - (Adj(2A)) ) is equal to
10 10
x2 + y2 –10x – 10y + 41 = 0
_________ .
x2 + y2 – 24x – 10y + 160 = 0 is ______ .
Sol. 2A adj (2A) = |2A|I
Sol. Given C1(5, 5), r1 = 3 and C2 (12, 5), r2 = 3
Þ A adj (2A) = –4I ....(i)
Now, C1C2 > r1 + r2
Now, E = |A4| + |A10 – (adj(2A))10|
Thus, (P1P2)min = 7 – 6 = 1
| A 20 - A10 (adj 2A)10 |
= (–2)4 + P1 P2
| A |10
C1 C2
| A 20 - (A adj(2A))10 |
= 16 +
| A |10 9. If the equation of the plane passing through the
line of intersection of the planes
= 16 +
210
EN
| A 20 - 210 I |
(from (1))
Now, characteristic roots of A are 2 and –1.

So, characteristic roots of A20 are 210 and 1.
Hence, (A20 – 210 I) (A20 – I) = 0
Þ |A20 – 210I| = 0 (as A20 ¹ I)
Þ E = 16 Ans.
Sol.
2x – 7y + 4z – 3 = 0, 3x – 5y + 4z + 11 = 0
and the point (–2, 1, 3) is ax + by + cz – 7 = 0, then
the value of 2a + b + c – 7 is _____ .
Required plane is
p1 + lp2 = (2 + 3l) x – (7 + 5l) y
7. If [×] represents the greatest integer function, + (4 + 4l)z – 3 + 11l = 0 ;
which is satisfied by (–2, 1, 3).
LL
then the value of
1
p Hence, l =
2 6
ò éë éë x ùû - cos x ùdx
2
û is ________ . Thus, plane is 15x – 47y + 28z – 7 = 0
0
So, 2a + b + c – 7 = 4
10. If (2021) 3762 is divided by 17, then the
remainder is _______ .
A
p /2
ò ([x ] + [- cos x]) dx

Sol. I=
0 Sol. (2023 – 2)3762 = 2023k1 + 23762
1 p/ 2 p /2
= 17k2 + 23762 (as 2023 = 17 × 17 × 9)
= ò 0 dx + ò dx + ò ( -1) dx = 17k2 + 4 × 16940
0 1 0
= 17k2 + 4 × (17 – 1)940
p p = 17k2 + 4 (17k3 + 1)
= –1– = –1
2 2 = 17k + 4 Þ remainder = 4
Þ|I|=1
8

(Held On Wednesday 17th March, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
SECTION-A
3. A block of mass 1 kg attached to a spring is
1. A rubber ball is released from a height of 5 m made to oscillate with an initial amplitude of
above the floor. It bounces back repeatedly, 12 cm. After 2 minutes the amplitude decreases
81 to 6 cm. Determine the value of the damping
always rising to of the height through
100 constant for this motion. (take In 2 = 0.693)
which it falls. Find the average speed of the ball.
(1) 0.69 × 102 kg s–1 (2) 3.3 × 10 2 kg s–1
(Take g = 10 ms–2)
(3) 1.16 × 102 kg s–1 (4) 5.7 × 10–3 kg s–1
(1) 3.0 ms–1 (2) 3.50 ms–1 Official Ans. by NTA (NA)
(3) 2.0 ms–1 (4) 2.50 ms–1 Official Ans. by ALLEN (Bonus)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Sol. A = A0e–gt
Sol. (4) v0 =
v = e 2gh =
Þ e = 0.9
2gh
EN 2gh
S = h + 2e2h + 2e4 h +..........

ln2 =
b
2m
´ 120
0.693 ´ 2 ´ 1
120
=b
1.16 × 10 –2 kg/sec.
4. Which one of the following will be the output
2h 2h 2h
LL
t= + 2e + 2e2 +.......... of the given circuit ?
g g g
A
Y
s
vav= = 2.5 m/s B
t
(1) NOR Gate (2) NAND Gate
2. If one mole of the polyatomic gas is having two (3) AND Gate (4) XOR Gate
A
vibrational modes and b is the ratio of molar Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. (4) Conceptual
æ CP ö
specific heats for polyatomic gas ç b = ÷ then 5. An object is located at 2 km beneath the surface
è CV ø
of the water. If the fractional compression
the value of b is :
DV
(1) 1.02 (2) 1.2 is 1.36% , the ratio of hydraulic stress to
V
(3) 1.25 (4) 1.35 the corresponding hydraulic strain will be
Official Ans. by NTA (2) ___________.
Sol. (2) f = 4 + 3 + 3 = 10 [Given : density of water is 1000 kg m–3 and
assuming non linear g = 9.8 ms–2.]
(1) 1.96 × 107 Nm–2 (2) 1.44 × 107 Nm–2
Cp 2 12 (3) 2.26 × 109 Nm–2 (4) 1.44 × 109 Nm–2
b= = 1+ = = 1.2
Cv f 10 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
1
Sol. (4) P = hrg 8. Which one is the correct option for the two
different thermodynamic processes ?
p 2 ´ 103 ´ 10 3 ´ 9.8
b= = adiabatic
DV 1.36 ´ 10 –2 P
isothermal
V (a)
= 1.44 × 109 N/m2 V
6. A geostationary satellite is orbiting around an isothermal

arbitary planet 'P' at a height of 11R above the
P
surface of 'P' , R being the radius of 'P'. The time
(b)
period of another satellite in hours at a height adiabatic
of 2R from the surface of 'P' is_________.'P' T
has the time period of 24 hours.
(1) 6 2
EN
(2)
6

Sol. (3) T µ R3/2
2
(3) 3 (4) 5
(c)
V isothermal
adiabatic
3/2
24 æ 12R ö
=ç Þ T = 3hr
LL
÷ isothermal
T è 3R ø
P
7. A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels
(d) adiabatic
with the speed of 300 ms–1 along the positive
x-axis. Each point of the wave moves to and T
fro through a total distance of 6 cm. What will

A
(1) (c) and (a) (2) (c) and (d)

be the mathematical expression of this
(3) (a) only (4) (b) and (c)
travelling wave ?
(1) Y(x,t) = 0.03 [sin 5.1 x – (0.2 × 103)t] Sol. (2) Option (a) is wrong ; since in adiabatic
(2) Y(x,t) = 0.06 [sin 5.1 x – (1.5 × 103)t] process V ¹ constant.
(3) Y(x,t) = 0.06 [sin 0.8 x – (0.5 × 103)t] Option (b) is wrong, since in isothermal process
(4) Y(x,t) = 0.03 [sin 5.1 x – (1.5 × 103)t] T = constant
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Option (c) & (d) matches isothermes &
Sol. (4) w = 2p f adiabatic formula :
= 1.5 × 103 Tg
TVg–1= constant & g –1 = constant
6 p
A= = 3 cm = 0.03 m
2
2
9. The velocity of a particle is v = v0 + gt + Ft2. 11. Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal
resistance r1 and r2 respectively are connected
Its position is x = 0 at t = 0 ; then its
in series to an external resistor R (see figure).
displacement after time (t = 1) is :
The value of R, at which the potential difference
g F across the terminals of the first cell becomes
(1) v0 + g + F (2) v0 + +
2 3 zero is
g 2E E
(3) v0 + +F (4) v0 + 2g + 3F
2
Sol. (2) v = v0 + gt + Ft2
R
ds r1
= v0 + gt + Ft2 (1) r1 + r2 (2) – r2
dt 2
1 r1
+ r2
ò ds = ò
0
(v0 + gt + Ft2)dt (3)
2
(4) r1 – r2
é
s = êv 0 t +
ë
s = v0 +
g
+
F
2
EN
gt 2 Ft 3 ù
+
3 û0
ú
1
Sol. (2) i
3E
2E
R
r1
E
r2
2 3 i = R+r +r
1 2
LL
TPD = 2E – ir1 = 0
10. A carrier signal C(t) = 25 sin (2.512 × 1010 t)
2E = ir1
is amplitude modulated by a message signal
3E ´ r1
m(t) = 5 sin (1.57 × 10 8 t) and transmitted 2E = R + r + r
1 2
through an antenna.What will be the bandwidth 2R + 2r1 + 2r2 = 3r1

of the modulated signal ? r1
R= – r2
A
(1) 8 GHz 2
(2) 2.01 GHz 12. A hairpin like shape as shown in figure is made
by bending a long current carrying wire. What
(3) 1987.5 MHz
is the magnitude of a magnetic field at point P
(4) 50 MHz which lies on the centre of the semicircle ?
Official Ans. by NTA (4) I
Sol. (4) Band width = 2 fm P •r I
wm = 1.57 × 108 = 2pfm I
m0 I m0 I
108 (1) (2 – p) (2) ( 2 + p)
BW = 2fm = Hz = 50 MHz 4 pr 4 pr
2
m0 I m0 I
(3) (2 + p) (4) (2 – p)
2pr 2pr
3
Sol. (2) B = 2 × Bst.wire + Bloop 14. Two particles A and B of equal masses are
suspended from two massless springs of spring
m0 i m0 i æ p ö
+ constants K 1 and K 2 respectively.If the
4 pr 2r çè 2 p ÷ø
B=2×
maximum velocities during oscillations are
m0 i equal, the ratio of the amplitude of A and B is
B= ( 2 + p)
4 pr
K2 K1 K1 K2
13. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have (1) K (2) K (3) (4)
1 2 K2 K1
resistances as shown in the figure. A
galvanometer of 15 W resistance is connected Official Ans. by NTA (4)
across BD. Calculate the current through the Sol. (4) A1w1 = A2w2
galvanometer when a potential difference of
10V is maintained across AC. k1 k2
A1 = A2
B m m
0W
10
10
W
A C
G A1 k2
=
EN A2 k1
60
5W
W
D
15. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
10V
(1) 2.44 mA (2) 2.44 mA p
(3) 4.87 mA (4) 4.87 mA (a) Phase difference (i) ; current leads
2
x between current and voltage
B voltage in a purely
0W
LL
resistive AC circuit
10
10
W
A C (b) Phase difference (ii) zero

10 G 0 between current and
60
5W
Sol. (3) voltage in a pure

W
D
y inductive AC circuit
p
10V (c) Phase difference (iii) ; current lags
2
between current and voltage
A
x – 10 x – y x – 0
+ + =0 voltage in a pure
100 15 10
capacitive AC circuit
53x – 20y = 30 .....(1)
æ XC – XL ö
(d) Phase difference (iv) tan–1 ç ÷
è R ø
y – 10 y – x y – 0
+ + =0 between current and
60 15 5
voltage in an LCR
17 y – 4x = 10 ......(2) series circuit
on solving (1) & (2) Choose the most appropriate answer from the
x = 0.865 options given below :
(1) (a)–(i),(b)–(iii),(c)–(iv),(d)–(ii)
y = 0.792
(2) (a)–(ii),(b)–(iv),(c)–(iii),(d)–(i)
DV = 0.073 R = 15W (3) (a)–(ii),(b)–(iii),(c)–(iv),(d)–(i)
i = 4.87 mA (4) (a)–(ii),(b)–(iii),(c)–(i),(d)–(iv)
4
V = VR 18. Two identical photocathodes receive the light

Sol. (4) (a)
I of frequencies f 1 and f 2 respectively. If the
VL velocities of the photo-electrons coming out are
v1 and v2 respectively, then
I
(b) (c) 2h
VC (1) v2 – v2 = [f1 – f2]
I 1 2
m
VL – VC X L – X C 2h
(d) tan f = = (2) v2 + v2 = [f1 + f2]
VR R 1 2
m
16. Two identical blocks A and B each of mass m
1
resting on the smooth horizontal floor are
(3) v1 + v2 = é 2h ( f1 + f2 ) ù
2
connected by a light spring of natural length L êm ú

ë û
and spring constant K. A third block C of mass
m moving with a speed v along the line joining 1/ 2
é 2h ù
(1) v
M
2K
EN
A and B collides with A.The maximum
compression in the spring is
C
m
A
m
(2)
mv
2K
B
m
(4) v1 – v2 = ê ( f1 – f2 ) ú
Sol. (1)
1
2
ëm
mv12 = hf1 – f
û
1
mv 22 = hf2–f
mv m
LL
(3) (4)
2
K 2K
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 2h
v12 – v 22 = ( f1 – f2 )
Sol. (1) C comes to rest m
v 19. What happens to the inductive reactance and

Vcm of A & B = the current in a purely inductive circuit if the
2
frequency is halved ?
A
1 1 (1) Both, inductive reactance and current will

Þ is v ret = kx2
2
2 2 be halved.
(2) Inductive reactance will be halved and
m ´ v2 m
x= = v current will be doubled.
k 2k
(3) Inductive reactance will be doubled and
17. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum current will be halved.
consisting of various series.Which series of
(4) Both, inducting reactance and current will
hydrogen atomic spectra is lying in the visible
be doubled.
region ?
(1) Brackett series (2) Paschen series
Sol. (2) XL = wL
(3) Lyman series (4) Balmer series
Official Ans. by NTA (4) v0
Sol. (4) Conceptual i=
wL
5
20. A sphere of mass 2kg and radius 0.5 m is rolling 2. A body of mass 1 kg rests on a horizontal floor
with an initial speed of 1 ms –1 goes up an with which it has a coefficient of static friction
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° 1
with the horizontal plane, without slipping. . It is desired to make the body move by
3
How low will the sphere take to return to the applying the minimum possible force F N. The
starting point A ? value of F will be __________. (Round off to
[Take g = 10 ms–2]
30°
A F
(1) 0.60 s (2) 0.52 s q
(3) 0.57 s (4) 0.80 s Sol.

N
F cos q = mN
gsin q
F sin q + N = mg
Sol. (3) a = 1 + I = ×
t=
mR 2
EN
5 10 25
7 2
2v 0 2 ´ 1 ´ 7
= 0.56
a
=
25
=
7
ÞF=
m mg
cos q + m sin q
m mg
1
3
´ 10
SECTION-B =5
Fmin = = 2
1. The electric field intensity produced by the 1 + m2
LL
3
radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a
distance of 3m is E. The electric field intensity
3. A boy of mass 4 kg is standing on a piece of
produced by the radiation coming from 60 W
wood having mass 5kg . If the coefficient of
x friction between the wood and the floor is 0.5,
at the same distance is E. Where the value
5 the maximum force that the boy can exert on
A
of x =_________. the rope so that the piece of wood does not

Official Ans. by NTA (3) move from its place is ________N.(Round off
to the Nearest Integer)
100
Sol. c Î0 E =
2
[Take g = 10 ms–2]
4p´ 32
T
2 T
æ x ö 60 F • •
c Î0 ç E =
ç 5 ÷÷ 4 p ´ 32 R
è ø •
T
T •
x 3
Þ =
5 5
Þx = 3 Official Ans. by NTA (30)
6
v µ r2
N
T
nh
mN T mvr =
Sol. 2p
9g
r3 µ n
N + T = 90 r µ n1/3
T = m N = 0.5 (90–T)
=3
1.5 T = 45
6. The electric field in a region is given by
T = 30
4. Suppose you have taken a dilute solution of r 2 3 N
E = E 0 î + E 0 ˆj with E0 = 4.0 × 103 .The
oleic acid in such a way that its concentration 5 5 C
becomes 0.01 cm3 of oleic acid per cm3 of the
solution. Then you make a thin film of this flux of this field through a rectangular surface
solution (monomolecular thickness) of area area 0.4 m 2 parallel to the Y – Z plane is
æ 3 ö
radius ç
è 40 p ø
EN
4 cm 2 by considering 100 spherical drops of
1
3
÷ ´ 10 cm. Then the thickness of
–3
oleic acid layer will be x × 10–14 m.

Where x is__________.
_________Nm 2C –1.
Sol. f = Ex A Þ
2
5
× 4 × 103 × 0.4 = 640
7. The disc of mass M with uniform surface mass

density s is shown in the figure. The centre of
LL
4
Sol. 4tT = 100 × pr3
3 mass of the quarter disc (the shaded area) is at
4p 3 x a x a
= 100 × × × 10–9 = 10–8 cm3 the position , where x is ________.
3 40p 3 p 3 p
tT = 25 × 10–10 cm
= 25 × 10–12 m
A
[a is an area as shown in the figure]

t0 = 0.01 tT = 25 × 10–14 m
= 25 Y
5. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit a
in a central potential field U(r) = U0r4 . If Bohr's q
X
quantization conditions are applied, radii of
possible orbitals rn vary with n1/ a , where a
is___________.
–dU mv2 4a 4a
Sol. F = = –4U0 r3 = Sol. C.O.M of quarter disc is at ,
dr r 3p 3p
mv2 = 4U0r4 =4
7
8. The image of an object placed in air formed by 10. Seawater at a frequency f = 9 × 10 2 Hz, has
a convex refracting surface is at a distance of
permittivity e = 80e0 and resistivity r = 0.25 Wm.
10 m behind the surface. The image is real and
2 rd Imagine a parallel plate capacitor is immersed
is at of the distance of the object from the
3 in seawater and is driven by an alternating
surface .The wavelength of light inside the
voltage source V(t)=V0 sin (2pft). Then the
2
surface is times the wavelength in air. The conduction current density becomes 10 x times
3
x the displacement current density after time
radius of the curved surface is m. the value 1
13
t= s. The value of x is ________
of 'x' is__________. 800
1
la 3 (Given : = 9 ´ 10 9 Nm 2 C–2 )
Sol. lm = Þ m= 4 pe0
m 2
m 1 m –1
– =
v u
3
R
3
1 2
+ =
2 ´ 10 15
–1
R
EN Official Ans. by NTA (6)
Sol. Jc =
E V
=
r rd
1 dq
Jd =
30 A dt
LL
R=
13
= 30 C dVc
=
A dt
9. A 2 mF capacitor C1 is first charged to a potential
difference of 10 V using a battery.Then the
battery is removed and the capacitor is Î dVc
=
d dt
A
connected to an uncharged capacitor C2 of 8mF.

The charge in C 2 on equilibrium condition
is_______mC. (Round off to the Nearest V0 sin 2 pft 80 e0
Þ = 10x × V0 (2pf) cos 2pft
Integer) rd d
S1 S
• •2
2mF 8mF æ 900 ö 40
10V tan ç 2 p ´ ÷ = 10x × ´ 900
C1 C2 è 800 ø 9 ´ 10 9
Official Ans. by NTA (16) =x=6

Sol. 20 = (C1+ C2) V Þ V = 2 volt.
Q2 = C2V = 16mC
= 16
8

SECTION-A (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
1. Fructose is an example of :- (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(1) Pyranose (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) Ketohexose (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) Aldohexose Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(4) Heptose Sol. Ore Formula
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (a) Haematite Fe2O3
Sol. Fructose is a ketohexose. (b) Bauxite Al2O3.xH2O
(c) Magnetite Fe3O4
CH2OH (d) Malachite CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
O 5. The correct pair(s) of the ambident nucleophiles
HO H is (are) :
H OH (A) AgCN/KCN
H OH
(B) RCOOAg/RCOOK
CH2OH EN (C) AgNO2/KNO2
(D) AgI/KI
2. The set of elements that differ in mutual (1) (B) and (C) only
relationship from those of the other sets is : (2) (A) only
(1) Li – Mg (2) B – Si (3) (A) and (C) only
(3) Be – Al (4) Li – Na (4) (B) only
LL
Sol. Li–Mg, B–Si, Be–Al show diagonal Sol. Ambident nucleophile
relationship but Li and Na do not show (A) KCN & AgCN
diagonal relationship as both belongs to same (C) AgNO2 & KNO2
group and not placed diagonally. 6. The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides
3. The functional groups that are responsible for of nitrogen is :
the ion-exchange property of cation and anion (1) NO and N2O (2) N2O and N2O3
A
exchange resins, respectively, are : (3) N2O and NO 2 (4) NO and NO2
(1) –SO3H and –NH2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(2) –SO3H and –COOH Sol. N2O and NO are neutral oxides of nitrogen
(3) –NH2 and –COOH NO2 and N2O3 are acidic oxides.
(4) –NH2 and –SO3H 7. Match List-I with List-II :
Official Ans. by NTA (1) List-I List-II
Sol. Cation exchanger contains –SO3H or –COOH (a) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] (i) Linkage
isomerism
groups while anion exchanger contains basic (b) [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3] (ii) Solvate
groups like –NH2. isomerism
4. Match List-I and List-II : (c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (iii) Co-ordination
List-I List-II isomerism
(a) Haematite (i) Al2O3.xH2O (d) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]3– (iv) Optical isomerism
(b) Bauxite (ii) Fe2O3 Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) Magnetite (iii) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 given below :
(d) Malachite (iv) Fe3O4 (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Choose the correct answer from the options (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
given below :
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
1
Sol. Complex Type of Isomerism 11. Given below are two statements :
(a) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] Co-ordination isomerism Statement-I : 2-methylbutane on oxidation with
(b) [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3] Linkage isomerism
(c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 Solvate isomerism KMnO4 gives 2-methylbutan-2-ol.
(d) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]3– Optical isomerism Statement-II : n-alkanes can be easily oxidised
8. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be to corresponding alcohol with KMnO4.
separated using :-
Choose the correct option :
(1) Para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride
(2) Chloroform and KOH (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Benzene sulphonic acid (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Acetyl amide (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Official Ans. by NTA (1) incorrect
Sol. Primary amines react with Para Toluene (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
sulfonyl chloride to form a precipitate that is Official Ans. by NTA (3)
soluble in NaOH. Sol. Alkane are very less reactive, tertiary hydrogen
Secondary amines reacts with para toluene can oxidise to alcohal with KMnO4.
sulfonyl chloride to give a precipitate that is
H KMnO4 OH
insoluble in NaOH.
Tertiary amines do not react with para toluen.
EN 2-methyl-butane
9. The common positive oxidation states for an
element with atomic number 24, are : 12. Nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl's method
(1) +2 to +6 (2) +1 and +3 to +6 for which of the following compound ?
(3) +1 and +3 (4) +1 to +6
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (1) (2)
Sol. Cr(Z=24)
[Ar] 4s13d5 Cr shows common oxidation states
LL
starting from +2 to +6.

10. Match List-I with List-II : (3) (4)
List-I List-II
Chemical Used as
Compound
(a) Sucralose (i) Synthetic detergent
A
(b) Glyceryl ester (ii) Artificial sweetener Sol. Kjeldahl method is not applicable to
of stearic acid compounds containing nitrogen in nitrogroup,
(c) Sodium (iii) Antiseptic Azo groups and nitrogen present in the ring
benzoate
(e.g Pyridine) as nitrogen of these compounds
(d) Bithionol (iv) Food preservative
Choose the correct match : does not change to Ammonium sulphate under
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) these conditions.
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 13. Amongst the following, the linear species is :
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) NO2 (2) Cl2O
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (3) O3 (4) N3–
Sol. Artificial sweetner : Sucralose Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Antiseptic : Bithional Sol.
Preservative : Sodium Benzoate
Glyceryl ester of stearic acid : Sodium steasate
2
14. C12H22O11+H2O ¾¾¾¾

Enzyme A
® C6H12O6+C6H12O6 Sol.
Sucrose Glucose Fructose + –
N2 Cl
C6H12O6 ¾¾¾¾
® 2C2H5OH+2CO2
Enzyme B
Glucose
+ CH3–CH2–OH + CH3CHO+HCl+N2
In the above reactions, the enzyme A and
enzyme B respectively are :-
(1) Amylase and Invertase OCH3 OCH3
(2) Invertase and Amylase Anisole
(3) Invertase and Zymase
(4) Zymase and Invertase 17. For the coagulation of a negative sol, the
Official Ans. by NTA (3) species below, that has the highest flocculating
Sol. Informative power is :
OR (1) SO2– (2) Ba2+ (3) Na + (4) PO3–
4 4
C12H22O11 + H2O Invertase C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Glucose Fructose Sol. To coagulate negative sol, cation with higher
charge has higher coagulation value.
C6H12O 6 Zymase 2C6H 5OH + 2CO2
18. Which of the following statement(s) is (are)
15. One of the by-products formed during the EN incorrect reason for eutrophication ?
recovery of NH3 from Solvay process is :
(A) excess usage of fertilisers
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) NaHCO3 (B) excess usage of detergents
(3) CaCl2 (4) NH4Cl (C) dense plant population in water bodies
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (D) lack of nutrients in water bodies that
prevent plant growth
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
16.
LL
options given below :
(1) (A) only (2) (C) only
In the above reaction, the structural formula of (3) (B) and (D) only (4) (D) only
(A), "X" and "Y" respectively are : Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. The process in which nutrient enriched water
bodies support a dense plant population which
A
kills animal life by depriving it of oxygen and

(1) results in subsequent loss of biodiversity is
known as eutrophication.
19. Choose the correct statement regarding the
formation of carbocations A and B given :-
(2)
(3) (1) Carbocation B is more stable and formed

relatively at faster rate
(2) Carbocation A is more stable and formed
relatively at slow rate
(3) Carbocation B is more stable and formed
relatively at slow rate
(4)
(4) Carbocation A is more stable and formed
relatively at faster rate
3
Sol. 2. On complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in

aqueous solution containing KOH, resulted in the
formation of product A. The secondary valency
of Fe in the product A is ____.
This is more stable due to secondary cation
formation and formed with faster rate due to
low activation energy.
Sol. Fe3+ + 3K+ + 3C2O42– ® K3[Fe(C2O4)3]
20. During which of the following processes, does (A)
entropy decrease ? Secondary valency of Fe in 'A' is 6.
(A) Freezing of water to ice at 0°C
3. The reaction 2A + B2 ® 2AB is an elementary
(B) Freezing of water to ice at –10°C
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 2NH3(g) reaction.
(D) Adsorption of CO(g) and lead surface For a certain quantity of reactants, if the volume
(E) Dissolution of NaCl in water
of the reaction vessel is reduced by a factor of
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only 3, the rate of the reaction increases by a factor
(2) (B) and (C) only of _____. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(3) (A) and (E) only EN Official Ans. by NTA (27)
(4) (A), (C) and (E) only
Sol. Reaction : 2A + B2 ¾® 2AB
0° C
Sol. (A) Water ¾¾® ice; DS = –ve As the reaction is elementary, the rate of reaction
(B) Water ¾¾¾-10° C
® ice; DS = –ve is
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 2NH3(g); DS = –ve r = K . [A]2 [B2]
(D) Adsorption; DS = –ve on reducing the volume by a factor of 3, the
+ –
(E) NaCl(s) ® Na (aq) + Cl (aq); DS = +ve
LL
concentrations of A and B2 will become 3 times
and hence, the rate becomes 32 × 3 = 27 times
SECTION-B of initial rate.
1. A KCl solution of conductivity 0.14 S m –1 4. The total number of C–C sigma bond/s in
shows a resistance of 4.19 W in a conductivity
A
mesityl oxide (C6H10O) is_____. (Round off to

cell. If the same cell is filled with an HCl the Nearest Integer).
solution, the resistance drops to 1.03 W. The
conductivity of the HCl solution is
Sol. Mesityle oxide
____× 10–2 S m–1. (Round off to the Nearest
s
Integer). – C = CH –s C s
H 3C s – CH 3
s
Official Ans. by NTA (57) CH3 O
\ Cs–C=5
1
Sol. k = ·G * 5. A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of
R
For same conductivity cell, G* is constant and dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to
hence k.R. = constant. that of another solution which contains 18.1
\ 0.14 × 4.19 = k × 1.03 weight percent of a non electrolytic solute A.
0.14 ´ 4.19 The molar mass of A is_____ u. (Round off to
or, k of HCl solution =
1.03 the Nearest Integer).
= 0.5695 Sm–1 [Density of water = 1.0 g cm–3]
= 56.95 × 10–2 Sm–1 » 57 × 10–2 Sm–1
4
Sol. K4 Fe(CN)6 4K+ + Fe(CN)64– \ Required number of cation vacancies
Initial conc. 1 m 0 0
10 -7 ´ 6.023 ´ 10 23
Final conc. (1 – 0.4)m 4 × 0.4 0.4m = = 5.06 ´ 1014 ; 5 ´ 1014
= 0.6 m = 1.6 m 119
Effective molality = 0.6 + 1.6 + 0.4 = 2.6m 9. 2NO2(g).
Consider the reaction N2O4(g)
For same boiling point, the molality of another The temperature at which K C = 20.4 and
solution should also be 2.6 m. K P = 600.1, is_____K. (Round off to the
Now, 18.1 weight percent solution means Nearest Integer).
18.1 gm solute is present in 100 gm solution [Assume all gases are ideal and R = 0.0831 L
and hence, (100 – 18.1 =) 81.9 gm water. bar K–1 mol–1]
18.1 / M Official Ans. by NTA (354)
Now, 2.6 =
81.9 / 1000 Sol. N2O4(g) 2NO2(g); Dng = 2 – 1 = 1
\ Molar mass of solute, M = 85 Now, Kp = Kc . (RT)Dng
6. In the ground state of atomic Fe(Z = 26), or, 600.1 = 20.4 × (0.0831 × T)1
the spin-only magnetic moment is ______ \ T = 353.99 K = 354K
× 10–1 BM. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). 10.
[Given : 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41] O
Official Ans. by NTA (49) C O
Sol. Fe ® [Ar] 4s23d6 EN Cl + C H NHC H C6H 5–C–N–(C6H 5)2
6 5 6 5
Number of unpaired e– = 4 0.140g 0.388g 0.210g

m = 4(4 + 2) B.M. Consider the above reaction. The percentage
yield of amide product is _______. (Round off
m = 24 B.M. to the Nearest Integer).
m = 4.89 B.M. (Given : Atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0u,
m = 48.9 × 10–1 B.M. N : 14.0 u, O : 16.0 u, Cl : 35.5 u)
LL
Nearest integer value will be 49.
7. The number of chlorine atoms in 20 mL of Sol.
chlorine gas at STP is_____1021. (Round off to
the Nearest Integer). O O
[Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP C C–N(C6H5)2
R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1, NA = 6.023 ×1023] Cl + C H NHC H ® + HCl
A
6 5 6 5

Sol. PV = nRT 1 mole 1 mole 1 mole
20 N
1.0 × = ´ 0.083 ´ 273 = 140.5 gm = 169 gm = 273 gm
1000 6.023 ´ 10 23
\ Number of Cl2 molecules, N = 5.3 × 1020 169
Hence, Number of Cl-atoms = 1.06 × 1021 \ 0.140 gm ´ 0.140
140.5
» 1 × 1021
L.R. = 0.168 gm < 0.388 gm
8. KBr is doped with 10–5 mole percent of SrBr2.
The number of cationic vacancies in 1 g of KBr excess
crystal is _____1014. (Round off to the Nearest \ Theoretical amount of given product formed
Integer). 273
[Atomic Mass : K : 39.1 u, Br : 79.9 u, = ´ 0.140 = 0.272gm
140.5
NA = 6.023 × 1023]
But its actual amount formed is 0.210 gm.
Hence, the percentage yield of product.
10 -5
Sol. 1 mole KBr (= 119 gm) have moles SrBr2 0.210
100 = ´ 100 = 77.20 » 77
0.272
and hence, 10 –7 moles cation vacancy
(as 1 Sr2+ will result 1 cation vacancy) OR
5
O O
Ph
C–Cl C–N
0.388g Ph
(C6H 5)2NH
excess
0.140g 0.210g
0.140
Mole of Ph – CoCl = = 10–3mol
140
O
Mole of Ph–C–N(Ph)2 , that should be obtained
by mol-mol analysis = 10–3 mol.
Theoritical mass of product = 10–3 × 273 =
273 × 10–3g
Observed mass of product = 210 × 10–3g
210 ´ 10 –3 EN
%yield of product = ´ 100 =76.9%=77
273 ´ 10 –3
LL
A
6

SECTION-A
10 1
Let f : R ® R be defined as f(x) = e–x sinx. If [sin 2 px] -
1.
ò0 ex - [x] dx = ae + be 2 + g ,
-1
2. If the integral
F : [0, 1] ® R is a differentiable function
x
where a, b, g are integers and [x] denotes the
such that F(x) = ò f(t) dt , then the value of
0 greatest integer less than or equal to x, then the
1
value of a + b + g is equal to :
ò ( F¢(x) + f(x) ) e dx
x
lies in the interval
(1) 0 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 10
0
é 327 329 ù é 330 331 ù
(1) ê , (2) ê ,
ë 360 360 úû ë 360 360 úû
10 10
[sin 2p x] [sin 2p x]
Sol. Let I = ò dx = ò dx
e x - [x ] e{x}
é 331 334 ù é 335 336 ù 0 0
(3) ê , ú (4) ê ,
ë 360 360 úû
Sol.
ë 360 360 û
1
EN
f(x) = e - x sin x
x
Now, F(x) = ò f(t)dt
0
Þ F'(x) = f(x)
1
Function f(x) =
period '1'
Therefore
1
I = 10 ò
0
[sin 2px]
e{x}
dx
[sin 2px ]
e{x}
is periodic with
I= ò ( F¢(x) + f(x) ) e dx = ò ( f(x) + f(x) ) · e x dx

x
1
[sin 2px]
LL
0 0
= 10 ò dx
1 1 0
ex
= 2 f(x) · e x dx = 2 ò e - x sin x · e x dx
ò 0 0 æ 1/2 [sin 2px] 1
[sin 2 px] ö
= 10 çç ò x
dx + ò dx ÷÷
1
è0 e ex ø
= 2 ò sin x dx
1/2
= 2(1 – cos 1) æ 1
(-1) ö
= 10 çç 0 + ò x dx ÷÷
A
è e ø
ì æ 1 1 1 1 öü
1/2
I = 2 í1 - ç 1 - + + + ......... ÷ý
î è 2 4 6 8 øþ 1
= -10 ò e - x dx
2 2 2
I =1- + - + ...... 1/2
4 6 9
= 10 ( e -1 - e -1/2 )
2 2 2
1- < I <1- + Now,
4 4 6
11 331 10 · e -1 - 10 · e -1/2 = ae -1 + b e -1/2 + g (given)

<I<
12 360 Þ a = 10, b = –10, g = 0
é 11 331 ù Þa+b+g=0 Ans. (1)
Þ IÎê ,
ë 12 360 úû
Þ I Î éê
330 331 ù
, Ans. (2)
ë 360 360 úû
1
3. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential So solution of D.E.

equation cosx (3sinx + cosx + 3)dy = x
1 + tan
(1 + y sinx (3sinx + cosx + 3))dx, 2 +C
y(cos x) = l n
x
p æ pö 2 + tan
0£x£ , y(0) = 0. Then , y ç ÷ is equal to: 2
2 è3ø
æ2 3 +9ö æ 2 3 + 10 ö æ xö
(1) 2 log e ç ÷ (2) 2 loge ç ÷ ç 1 + tan 2 ÷
è 6 ø è 11 ø p
Þ y(cosx) = l n ç ÷ + C for 0 £ x <
æ 3 +7ö çç 2 + tan x ÷÷ 2
æ 3 3 -8ö è 2ø
(3) 2 log e ç ÷ (4) 2 log e ç ÷
è 2 ø è 4 ø Now, it is given y(0) = 0
æ1ö
Sol. cosx ( 3sin x + cosx + 3 ) dy Þ 0 = l nç ÷ + C Þ C = ln2
è2ø
= (1 + y sin x ( 3sin x + cos x + 3 ) ) dx
æ xö
dy 1 ç 1 + tan 2 ÷
- (tan x)y = Þ y ( cos x ) = l n ç ÷ + ln2
(3sin x + cos x + 3) cos x çç 2 + tan x ÷÷
dx
I.F. = e ò
Solution of D.E.
é pö
y ( cosx ) = ò (cos x) ·
EN
- tan x dx
= cos x " x Î ê0, ÷

ë 2ø
= e l n cosx = cos x
1
dx + C
For x =
æ1ö
æ
ç 1+
yç ÷ = l nç
è2ø
p
3
è 2ø
1
3
ö
÷
÷ + ln2
cos x ( 3sin x + cosx + 3) ç2+ ÷
ç ÷
è 3 ø
LL
dx
y ( cosx ) = ò dx + C
3sin x + cos x + 3 æ 2 3 + 10 ö
y = 2l n ç ÷ Ans.(2)
ó æ 2 xö è 11 ø
ô ç sec ÷
y ( cosx ) = ô è 2ø dx + C 6
x
ô 2 tan + 6 tan + 4
2 x 4. The value of å( 6
C r · 6 C6 - r ) is equal to :
õ 2 2 r= 0
Now (1) 1124 (2) 1324 (3) 1024 (4) 924

A
ó æ 2 xö Official Ans. by NTA (4)

ô ç sec ÷
Let I1 = ô è 2ø dx + C 6
ô 2 ç tan 2 + 3tan x + 2 ö÷
æ x Sol. å
r= 0
6
C r · 6 C6 - r
õ è 2 2 ø
x 1 2x = 6 C 0 · 6 C 6 + 6 C1 · 6 C 5 + ...... + 6 C 6 · 6 C 0
Put tan =t Þ sec dx = dt
2 2 2 Now,
dt ó dt (1 + x )6 (1 + x )6
I1 = ó
ô 3 =ô
õ t + 3t + 2 õ (t + 2)(t + 1)
= ( 6 C 0 + 6 C1x + 6 C 2 x 2 + ...... + 6 C 6 x 6 )
óæ 1 1 ö
=ôç - ÷ dt
õè t +1 t + 2 ø ( 6 C0 + 6 C1x + 6 C 2 x 2 + ...... + 6 C 6x 6 )
æ x ö Comparing coefficeint of x6 both sides
æ t +1 ö ç tan 2 + 1 ÷ 6
C 0 · 6 C 6 + 6 C1 + 6 C 5 + ....... + 6 C 6 · 6 C 0 = 12
C6
=ln ç ÷ =ln ç ÷
èt+2ø çç tan x + 2 ÷÷ = 924
è 2 ø Ans.(4)
2
1 -4 5
[r] + [2r] + ..... + [nr] -1 £ x 2 + <2 Þ £ x2 <
5. The value of nlim , where r 3 3 3
®¥ n2
5
Þ 0 £ x2 < ....(1)
is non-zero real number and [r] denotes the 3
greatest integer less than or equal to r, is equal é 2ù
and cos-1 ê x 2 - ú is defined if
to : ë 3û
r 2 -1 8
(1) (2) r (3) 2r (4) 0 -1 £ x 2 - < 2 Þ £ x2 <
2 3 3 3
Þ 0£x <
2
....(2)
Sol. We know that 3
r £ [r] < r + 1 So, form (1) and (2) we can conclude
and 2r £ [2r] < 2r + 1
5
3r £ [3r] < 3r + 1 0 £ x2 <
3
M M M
nr £ [nr] < nr + 1 2
Case - I if 0 £ x 2 <
3
2
n2
Now,
·r
£
[r]
EN
r + 2r + ....+ nr
£ [r] + [2r] +....+ [nr] < (r + 2r +....+ nr) + n
n ( n + 1)
+ [2r] +
n2
...... +
n(n + 1) · r r
[nr]
<
n ( n + 1)
2
n2
r+n
sin -1 (0) + cos-1 (-1) = x 2
Þ x + p = x2
Þ x2 = p
é 2ö
but p Ï ê0, ÷
ë 3ø
Þ No value of 'x'
lim = 2 5
n ®¥ 2 · n2 2 Case - II if £ x2 <
3 3
LL
n(n + 1) r sin -1 (1) + cos -1 (0) = x 2
+n
2 r
and lim 2
= p p
n ®¥ n 2 Þ + = x2
So, by Sandwich Theorem, we can conclude 2 2
that Þ x2 = p
[r] + [2r] + ...... + [nr] r é2 5 ö
lim = but pÏ ê , ÷
n2 2 ë3 3 ø
A
n ®¥
Ans. (1) Þ No value of 'x'

6. The number of solutions of the equation So, number of solutions of the equation is zero.
é 1ù é 2ù Ans.(2)
sin -1 ê x 2 + ú + cos-1 ê x 2 - ú = x 2 , 7. Let a computer program generate only the
ë 3û ë 3û digits 0 and 1 to form a string of binary
for x Î [–1, 1], and [x] denotes the greatest numbers with probability of occurrence of 0 at
integer less than or equal to x, is : 1
(1) 2 (2) 0 even places be and probability of
2
(3) 4 (4) Infinite 1
Official Ans. by NTA (2) occurrence of 0 at the odd place be . Then
3
Sol. Given equation the probability that '10' is followed by '01' is
equal to :
é 1ù é 2ù
sin -1 ê x 2 + ú + cos-1 ê x 2 - ú = x 2 1 1 1 1
ë 3û ë 3û (1) (2) (3) (4)
18 3 6 9
-1 é 2 1ù Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Now, sin ê x + ú is defined if
ë 3û
3
Sol. 1 0 0 1 Sol. For | z - 1 | £ 2 , z lies on and inside the circle

odd place even place odd place even place
1 0 0 1 of radius 2 units and centre (1, 0).

or even place odd place even place odd place
æ1 1 1 2ö æ2 1 1 1ö
Þ ç · · · ÷+ç · · · ÷ (0,1)
è2 3 2 3ø è2 2 3 2ø Im (z) =1
1 S1 Ç S2 Ç S3
Þ
9
8. The number of solutions of the equation (1,0)
p
x + 2 tanx = in the interval [0, 2p] is :
2
(x + y) = 1
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5
p For S2
Sol. x + 2 tan x =
2 Let z = x + iy
p
Þ 2 tan x = - x
2
1
Þ tan x = - x +
y
2
p
4
EN y=tanx
10.
Now, (1 – i) (z) = (1 – i) (x + iy)
Re((1 – i)z) = x + y
Þx+y³1
Þ S1 Ç S2 Ç S 3 has infinity many elements
Ans. (3)
If the curve y = y(x) is the solution of the
differential equation
2(x2 + x5/4)dy – y(x + x1/4)dx = 2x9/4 dx , x > 0
LL
which passes through the point
x æ 4 ö
ç 1,1 - loge 2 ÷ , then the value of y(16) is equal
è 3 ø
to :
x=2p
p x=p 3p æ 31 8 ö æ 31 8 ö
x= 2 x= 2 (1) 4 ç + loge 3 ÷ (2) ç + loge 3 ÷
1 p è 3 3 ø è 3 3 ø
A
y= 2 x +
4
æ 31 8 ö æ 31 8 ö
(3) 4 ç - loge 3 ÷ (4) ç - log e 3 ÷
Number of soluitons of the given eauation is è 3 3 ø è 3 3 ø
'3'. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Ans. (1)
dy y x 9/ 4
9. Let S 1, S 2 and S3 be three sets defined as Sol. - = 5/4 3/4
dx 2x x (x + 1)
S1 = {z Î £ : z - 1 £ 2 }
dx 1
S2 = {z Î £ : Re ( (1 - i)z ) ³ 1} ò 2d 1
- - ln x
IF = e =e 2
=
x1/2
S3 = {z Î £ : Im(z) £ 1}
Then the set S1 Ç S2 Ç S 3 x 9/ 4 · x -1/2
(1) is a singleton
y.x -1/2 = ò x5/4 ( x3/ 4 + 1) dx
(2) has exactly two elements
(3) has infinitely many elements x1/2
(4) has exactly three elements ò (x3/ 4 + 1) dx
4
x = t4 Þ dx = 4t3 dt
3 4 2 x
t 2 ·4t 3 dt
ò (t 3 + 1) Sol. 4 5 2 y=0
5 k z
t 2 ( t 3 + 1 - 1)
4ò dt
(t 3 + 1) R2 ® R1 + R3 – 2R2
t2 3 4 2 x
4 ò t 2 dt - 4 ò dt
t3 + 1 Þ 0 k-6 2 0 =0
4t 3 4 ( 3 ) 5 k z
- ln t + 1 + C
3 3
4x 3/ 4 4 ( 3/4 ) Þ ( k - 6 2 ) ( 3z - 5x ) = 0
yx -1/2 = - ln x + 1 + C
3 3 if 3z – 5x = 0 Þ 3(x + 2d) – 5x = 0
4 4 4 Þ x = 3d (Not possible)
1 - loge 2 = - log e 2 + C
3 3 3 Þ k=6 2 Þ k2 = 72 Option (1)
uuur
1 13. Let O be the origin. Let OP = xiˆ + yjˆ - kˆ and
ÞC= - uuur
3 OQ = - î + 2ˆj + 3xkˆ , x, y Î R, x > 0, be such that
y=
4 5/ 4 4
3
y(16) =
=
x -
4
3
3
4
EN
x ln ( x 3/ 4 + 1) -
´ 32 - ´ 4 ln 9 -
124 32
3 3
3
4
3
3
x
- ln 3 = 4 æç 31 - 8 ln 3 ö÷
è 3 3 ø
uuur
uuur
uuur
is equal to
(1) 7
uuur
uuur
uuur
PQ = 20 and the vector OP is perpendicular
to OQ . If OR = 3iˆ + zjˆ - 7kˆ , z Î R, is coplanar

with OP and OQ , then the value of x2 + y2 + z2
(2) 9 (3) 2 (4) 1

11. If the sides AB, BC and CA of a triangle ABC Official Ans. by NTA (2)
uuur uuur
LL
have 3, 5 and 6 interior points respectively, then
Sol. OP ^ OQ
the total number of triangles that can be
Þ –x + 2y – 3x = 0
constructed using these points as vertices, is Þ y = 2x .....(i)
equal to : uuur 2
(1) 364 (2) 240 (3) 333 (4) 360 PQ = 20
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Þ (x + 1)2 + (y – 2)2 + (1 + 3x)2 = 20
Þx=1
uuur uuur uuur
A
OP, OQ, OR are coplanar.

Sol.
x y -1
Þ -1 2 3x = 0
Total Number of triangles formed 3 z -7
= 14C3 – 3C3 – 5C3 – 6C3
= 333 Option (3) 1 2 -1
12. If x, y, z are in arithmetic progression with Þ -1 2 3 = 0
common difference d, x ¹ 3d, and the 3 z -7
é3 4 2 xù Þ 1(–14 – 3z) – 2(7 – 9) – 1 (–z – 6) = 0
ê ú Þ z = –2
determinant of the matrix ê 4 5 2 y ú is zero,
ê ú \ x2 + y2 + z2 = 1 + 4 + 4 = 9 Option (2)
ë5 k zû
then the value of k2 is
(1) 72 (2) 12 (3) 36 (4) 6
5
14. Two tangents are drawn from a point P to the ì æ æ 1 öö

circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 4 = 0, such that the ï-x ç 2 - sin ç ÷ ÷
ïï è è x øø x<0
æ 12 ö Sol. f(x) = í 0 x =0
angle between these tangents is tan -1 ç ÷ ,
è 5 ø ï
ï x æ 2 - sin çæ 1 ÷ö ö
-1 æ 12 ö
where tan ç ÷ Î (0, p). If the centre of the ïî çè è x øø
÷
è 5 ø
circle is denoted by C and these tangents touch ì æ 1ö æ 1 æ 1 öö
the circle at points A and B, then the ratio of ï- ç 2 - sin ÷ - x ç - cos ·ç - 2 ÷ ÷ x < 0
ï è xø è x è x øø
the areas of DPAB and DCAB is : f ¢(x) = í
ï æ 2 - sin 1 ö + x æ - cos 1 æ - 1 ö ö x > 0
(1) 11 : 4 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 3 :1 (4) 2 : 1 ïî çè xø
÷ ç
è
ç ÷÷
x è x2 ø ø
A ì 1 1 1
P ïï -2 + sin x - x cos x x < 0
1 f ¢(x) = í
q
ï 2 - sin 1 + 1 cos 1 x > 0
Sol. C ïî x x x
(1,2) 1
tan q =
PA = cot
12
5
q
2
B
EN 16.
2
f'(x) is an oscillating function which is
non-monotonic in (–¥, 0) È (0, ¥).
Option (2)
Let L be a tangent line to the parabola y2 = 4x – 20
at (6, 2). If L is also a tangent to the ellipse
x2 y2
+
b
= 1 , then the value of b is equal to :
1 1 q (1) 11 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 20

\ area of DPAB = (PA)2 sin q = cot 2 sin q Official Ans. by NTA (2)
LL
2 2 2
Sol. Tangent to parabola
1 æ 1 + cos q ö 2y = 2(x + 6) – 20
= ç ÷ sin q
2 è 1 - cos q ø Þy=x –4
Condition of tangency for ellipse.
æ 5 ö
1+ ÷ 16 = 2(1)2 + b
1ç æ 12 ö 1 18 2 27
= ç 13 ÷ç ÷ = ´ = Þ b = 14 Option (2)
2ç 5 è 13 ø 2 18 13 26
ç 1 - ÷÷ tan ( p cos 2 q )
è 13 ø 17. The value of the limit lim is
q® 0 sin ( 2 p sin 2 q )
A
1 1 æ 12 ö 6 equal to :
area of DCAB = sin q = ç ÷ =
2 2 è 13 ø 13
1 1 1
(1) - (2) - (3) 0 (4)
area of DPAB = 9 2 4 4
\ Option (2)
area of DCAB 4 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
15. Consider the function f : R ® R defined by
tan ( p (1 - sin 2 q ) )
ìæ æ 1 öö Sol. lim
ï 2 - sin ç ÷ ÷ | x | , x ¹ 0 q® 0 sin ( 2 p sin 2 q )
f(x) = íèç è x øø . Then f is :
ï
î 0 ,x= 0 - tan ( p sin 2 q )
= lim
(1) monotonic on (–¥, 0) È (0, ¥) q®0 sin ( 2 p sin 2 q )
(2) not monotonic on (–¥, 0) and (0, ¥)
(3) monotonic on (0, ¥) only æ tan ( p sin 2 q ) ö æ 2p sin 2 q ö 1
= lim - ç ÷ç ÷´
(4) monotonic on (–¥, 0) only q®0 è p sin 2 q ø è sin ( 2p sin 2 q ) ø 2
-1
= Option (1)
2
6
18. Let the tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 25 at the Option (4)

point R(3, 4) meet x-axis and y-axis at point P = ( p Ù q ) Ù (~ p Ú q)
and Q, respectively. If r is the radius of the circle = pÙq (Not a tautology)
Option (1)
passing through the origin O and having centre
20. If the equation of plane passing through the
at the incentre of the triangle OPQ, then r2 is
mirror image of a point (2, 3, 1) with respect
equal to
x +1 y - 3 z + 2
529 125 625 585 to line = = and containing the
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 1 -1
64 72 72 66 x - 2 1 - y z +1
line = = is ax + by + gz = 24,
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 3 2 1
Sol. Tangent to circle 3x + 4y = 25 then a + b + g is equal to :
(1) 20 (2) 19 (3) 18 (4) 21
25 Q Official Ans. by NTA (2)
0, 4
125 x +1 y - 3 z + 2
12 Sol. Line = =
2 1 -1
P P (2,3,1)
O
OP + OQ + OR = 25 EN
æ 25 25 25 25 ö
ç 4 ´ 3 4 ´ 3 ÷
Incentre = ç
è 25
, ÷
25 ø
25
3 ,0
uuur
M
(2l – 1,l + 3,–l – 2)
PM = (2l - 3, l, -l - 3)
uuur
PM ^ ( 2iˆ + ˆj - kˆ )
æ 25 25 ö 1
= ç , ÷ 4l – 6 + l + l + 3 = 0 Þ l =
è 12 12 ø 2
LL
æ 25 ö
2
625 625 æ 7 -5 ö
\ r = 2ç ÷ = 2 ´
2
= \ M º ç 0, , ÷
è 12 ø 144 72 è 2 2 ø
\ Reflection (–2, 4, –6)
Option (3)
x - 2 y -1 z +1
19. If the Boolean expression (p Ù q) e * (p Ä q) is
a tautology, then e
* and Ä are respectively given Plane : 3 -2 1 =0
by 4 -3 5
(1) ®, ® (2) Ù, Ú (3) Ú, ® (4) Ù, ® Þ (x – 2) (–10 + 3) – (y – 1) (15 – 4) + (z + 1) (–1) = 0
A
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Þ –7x + 14 – 11y + 11 – z – 1 = 0

Sol. Option (1) Þ 7x + 11y + z = 24
\ a = 7, b = 11, g = 1
(p Ù q) ¾¾
®(p ® q) a + b + g = 19 Option (2)
= ~ (p Ù q) Ú (~ p Ú q) SECTION-B
= (~ pÚ ~ q) Ú (~ p Ú q)
æ 18 ö
= ~ p Ú (~ q Ú q) 1. If 1, log10(4 x – 2) and log10 ç 4x + ÷ are in
è 5ø
= ~ pÚt arithmetic progression for a real number x,
=t
then the value of the determinant
Option (2)
( p Ù q ) Ù (p Ú q) = (p Ù q) (Not a tautology) æ 1ö
2 ç x - ÷ x - 1 x2
è 2ø
Option (3)
1 0 x is equal to :
( p Ù q ) Ú (p ® q)
x 1 0
= ( p Ù q ) Ú (~ p Ú q) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
= ~ pÚq (Not a tautology)
7
æ 18 ö 3. Let f : [–3, 1] ® R be given as

Sol. 2 log10 (4 x - 2) = 1 + log10 ç 4 x + ÷
è 5ø
ìï min {( x + 6 ) , x 2 } , -3 £ x £ 0
æ 18 ö f(x) = í
(4 x - 2)2 = 10 ç 4 x + ÷ ïî max { x, x } , 0 £ x £ 1.
2
è 5ø
(4x)2 + 4 – 4(4x) – 32 = 0 If the area bounded by y = f(x) and x-axis is

(4x – 16) (4x + 2) = 0 A, then the value of 6A is equal to ______.
4x = 16 Official Ans. by NTA (41)
x=2 Sol. f : [–3, 1] ® R
3 1 4
ï
f(x) = í
{
ìmin (x + 6), x 2 } , -3£ x £0
1 0 2 = 3(–2) – 1(0 – 4) + 4(1)
2 1 0
{
ïmax x, x 2
î } , 0 £ x £1
=–6+4+4=2
2.
EN
Let f : [– 1, 1] ® R be defined as f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
for all x Î [–1, 1], where a, b, c Î R such that
f(–1) = 2, f'(–1) = 1 and for x Î (–1, 1) the
maximum value of f"(x) is

1
2
. If f(x) £ a,
x Î [–1, 1], then the least value of a is equal
to ______.
x2
–3 –2
x+6
0 1
x2
x

area bounded by y = f(x) and x-axis
LL
Sol. f : [–1, 1] ® R
f(x) = ax2 + bx + c -2 0 1
= ò (x + 6)dx + ò x dx + ò x dx
2
f(–1) = a – b + c = 2 ...(1)
-3 -2 0
f'(–1) = –2a + b = 1 ...(2)
f"(x) = 2a
41
A=
1 6
Þ Max. value of f"(x) = 2a =
A
2
6A = 41
1 3 13 (2n - 1)p
Þ a= ; b= ; c= 4. Let tana, tanb and tang; a, b, g ¹ ,
4 2 4 2
x2 3 13 n Î N be the slopes of three line segments OA,
\ f(x) = + x+
4 2 4 OB and OC, respectively, where O is origin.If
S circumcentre of DABC coincides with origin
and its orthocentre lies on y-axis, then the value
2 2
cos3a + cos3b + cos3g ö
1 of æç ÷ is equal to :
è cos a cos b cos g ø
–3 –1 1
For, x Î [–1, 1] Þ 2 £ f(x) £ 5
\ Least value of a is 5
8
Sol. Since orthocentre and circumcentre both lies on 6. Let the coefficients of third, fourth and fifth
n
y-axis æ a ö
terms in the expansion of ç x + 2 ÷ , x ¹ 0, be
Þ Centroid also lies on y-axis è x ø
Þ Scos a = 0 in the ratio 12 : 8 : 3. Then the term independent
cos a + cos b + cos g = 0 of x in the expansion, is equal to _______.
Þ cos3a + cos3b + cos3g = 3cosa cosb cosg Official Ans. by NTA (4)
r
\ cos3a + cos3b + cos3g æ a ö
Sol. Tr +1 = n C r (x) n - r ç 2 ÷
cos a cos b cos g èx ø
4(cos3 a + cos 3 b + cos3 g) - 3(cos a + cos b + cos g) = n C r a r x n -3r

=
cos a cos b cos g n
C 2 a 2 : n C 3 a 3 : n C 4 a 4 = 12 : 8 : 3
= 12 After solving
5. Consider a set of 3n numbers having variance 1
4. In this set, the mean of first 2n numbers is n = 6, a =
2
6 and the mean of the remaining n numbers is For term independent of 'x' Þ n = 3r
EN
3. A new set is constructed by adding 1 into
each of first 2n numbers, and subtracting 1 from
each of the remaining n numbers. If the
variance of the new set is k, then 9k is equal
to ______.
Nearest integer is 4.
éa b ù
è2ø
r=2
æ 1 ö 15
\ Coefficient is C2 ç ÷ =
4
6
éa ù é0 ù
2
Ans. 4
Sol. Let number be a1,a2,a3, ...... a2n, b1,b2,b3....bn 7. Let A = ê ú and B = ê ú ¹ ê ú such that
ëc d û ë b û ë0 û
åa + åb 2 2
LL
- ( 5)
2
s2 = AB = B and a + d = 2021, then the value of
3n
ad – bc is equal to ________.
Þ åa + åb 2 2
= 87n
Now, distribution becomes
a1 + 1, a 2 + 1, a 3 + 1, .......a 2n + 1, b 1 – 1, éa b ù éa ù
Sol. A= ê ú , B=ê ú
b2 – 1 .....bn – 1 ëc d û ëb û
Variance AB = B
A
=
å (a + 1) + å (b - 1)
2 2
æ 12n + 2n + 3n - n ö
-ç ÷
2
Þ (A – I) B = O
Þ |A – I | = O, since B ¹ O
3n è 3n ø
(a - 1) b
=
(åa 2
+ 2n + 2å a ) + ( å b 2 + n - 2å b )
c (d - 1)
=0
3n
ad – bc = 2020
r
=
(åa 2
+ 2n + 2å a ) + ( å b + n - 2å b ) æ 16 ö
-ç ÷
2 2
8. Let x be a vector in the plane containing
r r
3n è 3ø vectors a = 2iˆ - ˆj + kˆ and b = î + 2ˆj - kˆ . If the
r
vector x is perpendicular to ( 3iˆ + 2ˆj - kˆ ) and
2
87n + 3n + 2(12n) - 2(3n) æ 16 ö
= -ç ÷
3n è 3 ø
2 r 17 6
108 æ 16 ö its projection on a is , then the value of
Þ k= -ç ÷ 2
3 è 5ø
r2
Þ 9k = 3(108) – (16)2 = 324 – 256 = 68 x is equal to ________.
Ans. 68.00 Official Ans. by NTA (486)
9
r r r 10. Let P be an arbitrary point having sum of
Sol. Let x = la + mb (l and m are scalars)
r the squares of the distance from the planes
x = î(2l + m) + ˆj(2m - l) + k(
ˆ l - m)
x + y + z = 0, lx – nz = 0 and x – 2y + z = 0,
r
Since x·(3iˆ + 2 ˆj - k)
ˆ =0
equal to 9. If the locus of the point P is
3l + 8m = 0 .....(1) x2 + y2 + z2 = 9, then the value of l – n is equal
r r 17 6 to _______.
Also Projection of x on a is
r r Sol. Let point P is (a, b, g)
x · a 17 6
r = æ a + b + g ö æ la - ng ö æ a - 2b + g ö
2 2 2
a 2
ç ÷ +ç ÷ +ç ÷ =9
6l – m = 51 .....(2) è 3 ø è l2 + n 2 ø è 6 ø
From (1) and (2) Locus is
l = 8, m = –3
r (x + y + z) 2 (lx - nz) 2 (x - 2y + z)2
x = 13iˆ - 14ˆj + 11kˆ + 2 + =9
3 l + n2 6
r2 Ans.
x = 486 æ1 l2 ö 2 æ1 n2 ö æ1 ln ö
x2 ç + 2 2 ÷
+ y + z2 ç + 2 ÷ + 2zx ç - 2 ÷-9= 0
9.
e
1
EN
Let I n = ò x19 ( log x ) dx , where n Î N. If
n
(20)I10 = aI9 + bI8 , for natural numbers a and b,

then a - b equal to _______.
è2 l +n ø
After solving l = n
è 2 l + n2 ø
Since its given that x2 + y2 + z2 = 9
è 2 l + n2 ø
e
I n = ò x19 ( log x ) dx
n
Sol.
LL
1
e
x 20 1 x 20
I n = ( log x )
19
- ò n(log x ) n -1 . . dx
20 1 x 20
20In = e20 – nIn–1
\ 20I10 = e20 – 10I9
20I9 = e20 – 9I8
Þ 20I10 = 10I9 + 9I8
A
a = 10, b = 9
10

(Held On Thursday 18th March, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
SECTION-A
1. An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density 3g Sol. Order of atmosphere stratification from bottom
cm–3 is held stationary under a constant electric Troposphere, stralospherre, Mesosphre,
field 3.55 × 105 V m–1 in the Millikan's oil drop Thermosphere
experiment. What is the number of excess (a) ® (iv)
electrons that the oil drop will possess ? (b) ® (iii)
(consider g = 9.81 m/s 2) (c) ® (ii)
(1) 48.8 × 1011 (d) ® (i)
(2) 1.73 × 1010 3. Imagine that the electron in a hydrogen atom
(3) 17.3 × 1010 is replaced by a muon (µ). The mass of muon
particle is 207 times that of an electron and
(4) 1.73 × 1012
Sol. qE = Mg
æ4 3ö
è3
n × 1.6 ×
ø
EN
neE = r ç pr ÷ ´ g
10–19 × 3.55 × 10 5
charge is equal to the charge of an electron. The
ionization potential of this hydrogen atom will
be :-
(1) 13.6 eV
(3) 331.2 eV
(2) 2815.2 eV
(4) 27.2 eV
LL
4 1 1
= 3 × 103 × × p × (2 × 10–3)3 × 9.81 Sol. Eµ rµ
3 r m
n = 173 × 10(3 – 9 – 5 + 19) Eµm
n = 1.73 × 1010
2. Match List–I with List–II. ( Mass ) eV
m
Ionization potential = 13.6 ×
List–I ( Masse )
(a) 10 km height over earth's surface
A
= 13.6 × 207 eV = 2815.2 eV

(b) 70 km height over earth's surface
4. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
(c) 180 km height over earth's surface
100 MHz is travelling in vacuum along the x-
(d) 270 km height over earth's surface
direction. At a particular point in space and
List–II r
ˆ . (where, k̂ is unit
time, B = 2.0 ´ 10 –8 kT
(i) Thermosphere
r
(ii) Mesosphere vector along z-direction) What is E at this
(iii) Stratosphere point ?
(iv) Troposphere
(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) (1) 0.6 ĵ V/m (2) 6.0 k̂ V/m
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(3) 6.0 ĵ V/m (4) 0.6 k̂ V/m
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
1
Sol. E = BC = 6
r r B
(
(Dir. of wave) || E ´ B ) i/3
A
C i/3
î = ˆj ´ kˆ
Sol. i
r i/3
E = 6ˆj V / m
D
5. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is
rotating about its axis with an angular speed w. fµi
ÞBµi
Two particles having mass m each are now
attached at diametrically opposite points. The 3
so, field at centre of C = = 1T
angular speed of the ring will become : 3
7. The time period of a simple pendulum is given
M M + 2m
(1) w (2) w l
M+m M
by T = 2p . The measured value of the
(3) w
M
M + 2m
EN
(4) w
Sol. Using conservation of angular momentum

(Mr2)w = (Mr2 + 2mr2)w'
M - 2m
M + 2m
g
length of pendulum is 10 cm known to a 1mm
accuracy. The time for 200 oscillations of the
pendulum is found to be 100 second using a
clock of 1s resolution. The percentage accuracy
in the determination of 'g' using this pendulum
is 'x'. The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is:-
(1) 2% (2) 3%
Mw
w' =
LL
(3) 5% (4) 4%
M + 2m
6. Four identical long solenoids A, B, C and D are
4 p2 l
connected to each other as shown in the figure. Sol. g =
T2
If the magnetic field at the center of A is 3T,
the field at the center of C would be : (Assume æ 1 ö
0.1 ç ÷
that the magnetic field is confined with in the Dg Dl DT + 2 ç 200 ÷
= +2
A
= 10
volume of respective solenoid). g l T ç 0.5 ÷
è ø
B Dg 1 1
= +
g 100 50
A
C Dg
´ 100 = 3%
i g
8. A constant power delivering machine has
D
towed a box, which was initially at rest, along
a horizontal straight line. The distance moved
(1) 12T (2) 6T by the box in time 't' is proportional to :-
(3) 9T (4) 1T (1) t2/3 (2) t3/2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (3) t (4) t1/2
2
Sol. P = C 11. The P-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system
FV = C going under cyclic process as shown in figure.
The work done during an adiabatic process CD
dV
M V=C is (use g = 1.4) :
dt
V2
µt
2
200N/m2 A D
V µ t1/2
dx 100N/m2 B C
µ t1/ 2
dt
P
x µ t3/2
9. What will be the average value of energy along
one degree of freedom for an ideal gas in 1 3 4
thermal equilibrium at a temperature T ? (kB is V(m3)
Boltzmann constant)
(3)
1
(1) k B T
2
3
2
k BT
EN
2
(2) k B T
3
(4) kBT
(1) –500 J
(3) 400 J
(2) –400 J
(4) 200 J
Sol. Adiabatic process is from C to D
WD =
P2 V2 - P1V1
1- g
Sol. Energy associated with each degree of
PD VD - PC VC
LL
1 =
freedom per molecule = k B T . 1- g
2
10. A radioactive sample disintegrates via two 200(3) - (100)(4)
=
independent decay processes having half lives 1 - 1.4
T1/( 2) and T1/2

1 (2)
respectively. The effective half- = –500 J Ans. (1)
12. In Young's double slit arrangement, slits are
life T1/ 2 of the nuclei is : separated by a gap of 0.5 mm, and the screen
A
is placed at a distance of 0.5 m from them. The

(1) None of the above (2) T1/ 2 = T1/(12) + T1/(22)
distance between the first and the third bright
() ( )
1 2 ()
1 ( )
2
fringe formed when the slits are illuminated by
T1/2 T1/2 T1/2 + T1/2
(3) T1/2 = () 1 ( ) 2 (4) T1/2 = ()
1 ( )
2
a monochromatic light of 5890 Å is :-
T1/2 + T1/2 T1/2 - T1/2 (1) 1178 × 10–9 m (2) 1178 × 10–6 m
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (3) 1178 × 10–12 m (4) 5890 × 10–7 m
Sol. leq = l1 + l2 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
1 1 1 lD 5890 ´ 10 -10 ´ 0.5

= (1) + (2 ) Sol. b= =
T1/2 T1/2 T1/2 d 0.5 ´ 10 -3
= 589 × 10–6 m
() ( )
1 2 Distance between first and third bright fringe
T1/2 T1/2
T1/2 = () ( )
1
T1/2 + T1/2
2 is 2b = 2×589 × 10–6 m
= 1178 × 10–6 m Ans. (2)
3
13. A particle is travelling 4 times as fast as an Sol. Option (2) represent correct graph for particle
electron. Assuming the ratio of de-Broglie moving with constant acceleration, as for
wavelength of a particle to that of electron is constant acceleration velocity time graph is
2 : 1, the mass of the particle is :- straight line with positive slope and x-t graph
should be an opening upward parabola.
1
(1) times the mass of e– 15. In the experiment of Ohm's law, a potential
16
difference of 5.0 V is applied across the end of
(2) 8 times the mass of e– a conductor of length 10.0 cm and diameter of
(3) 16 times the mass of e– 5.00 mm. The measured current in the
1 conductor is 2.00 A. The maximum
(4) times the mass of e– permissible percentage error in the resistivity
8
Official Ans. by NTA (4) of the conductor is :-
(1) 3.9 (2) 8.4
h (3) 7.5 (4) 3.0
Sol. l=
p Official Ans. by NTA (1)
lp pe m eve rl V
= = Sol. R= =
le A I
14.
2=
pp m p v p
m e æ ve ö
ç ÷
m p è 4v e ø
\ mp = e
m
8
EN
Ans. (4)
The position, velocity and acceleration of a

r=
Dr
AV pd 2 V
Il
=
4Il
Dr 2 Dd DV DI Dl
r
=
d
+
V
+
I
+
l
æ
ç
è
A
æ 0.01 ö 0.1 0.01 0.1

=
pd 2 ö
4 ø
÷
= 2ç ÷+ + +
particle moving with a constant acceleration r è 5.00 ø 5.0 2.00 10.0
LL
can be represented by : Dr
= 0.004 + 0.02 + 0.005 + 0.01
r
acceleration
x(t) v(t)
a(t)
position
velocity
Dr
(1) = 0.039
r
t t t
Dr
% error = ×100 = 0.039 × 100 = 3.90%
r
A acceleration
v(t) a(t)
position
velocity
x(t) Ans. (1)

(2) 16. In a scries LCR resonance circuit, if we
change the resistance only, from a lower to
t t t
higher value :
a(t) (1) The bandwidth of resonance circuit will
acceleration
x(t) v(t) increase.

position
velocity
(2) The resonance frequency will increase.

(3) (3) The quality factor will increase.
t t t (4) The quality factor and the resonance
frequency will remain constant.
acceleration
v(t) a(t)
position
velocity
x(t) Sol. Bandwidth = R/L

(4) Bandwidth µ R
So bandwidth will increase
t t t
4
17. An AC source rated 220 V, 50 Hz is connected 20. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit
to a resistor. The time taken by the current to of radius R is T. The period of another satellite
change from its maximum to the rms value in a circular orbit of radius 9R is :
is : (1) 9 T (2) 27 T
(1) 2.5 ms (2) 25 ms (3) 12 T (4) 3 T
(3) 2.5 s (4) 0.25 ms
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol. T 2 µ R3
Sol. i = i0 cos(wt) 2 3
æ T ' ö æ 9R ö
i = i0 at t = 0 ç ÷ =ç ÷
èTø è R ø
i0 p T'2 = T2 × 93
i= at wt =
2 4 T' = T ×33
T' = 27 T
p p 1 SECTION-B
t= = =
4w 4(2 pf) 8f 1. A particle performs simple harmonic motion
with a period of 2 second. The time taken by
1
18.
t=
400
EN
= 2.5 ms
Your friend is having eye sight problem. She

is not able lo see clearly a distant uniform
window mesh and it appears to her as non-
uniform and distorted. The doctor diagnosed
the problem as :
the particle to cover a displacement equal to
half of its amplitude from the mean position
is
1
a
s . The value of 'a' to the nearest integer
is _______ .
A/2
T = 2sec.
(1) Astigmatism
LL
(2) Myopia with Astigmatism O
Sol.
(3) Presbyopia with Astigmatism
t = T/12
(4) Myopia and hypermetropia
t= =
Sol. If distant objects are blurry then problem is 12 6
Myopia. \ Correct answer = 6.00
If objects are distorted then problem is 2. The circuit shown in the figure consists of a
A
Astigmatism charged capacitor of capacity 3 µF and a charge

19. A loop of flexible wire of irregular shape of 30 µC. At time t = 0, when the key is closed,
carrying current is placed in an external the value of current flowing through the 5 MW
magnetic field. Identify the effect of the field resistor is 'x' µ-A. The value of 'x to the nearest
on the wire. integer is _______.
(1) Loop assumes circular shape with its plane C = 3µF 5MW
normal to the field.
(2) Loop assumes circular shape with its plane q = 30 µC
parallel to the field.
(3) Wire gets stretched to become straight.
(4) Shape of the loop remains unchanged.
Sol. Every part (dl) of the wire is pulled by force V 30 / 3
Sol. i0 = = = 2 ´ 10 -6
i(dl)B acting perpendicular to current & R 5 ´ 106
magnetic field giving it a shape of circle. \ Ans. = 2.00
5
3. The voltage across the 10W resistor in the given a 1
circuit is x volt. =
b 32
50W \ Answer = 32
5. A person is swimming with a speed of 10 m/
10W s at an angle of 120° with the flow and reaches
20W
to a point directly opposite on the other side of
the river. The speed of the flow is 'x' m/s. The
value of 'x' to the nearest integer is ______.
170 V Official Ans. by NTA (5)
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is _____.

Official Ans. by NTA (70) 10m/s
50 ´ 20 100 Sol. 30°

Sol. R eq1 = =
70 7
x
v1
10 sin 30° = x
x = 5 m/s
Req =
10
170
7
EN
170
100
7 6. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 100 m2
and plate separation of 10 m. The space
between the plates is filled up to a thickness 5
m with a material of dielectric constant of 10.
The resultant capacitance of the system is 'x' pF.
The value of e0 = 8.85 × 10–12 F.m–1.
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is_____.
é ù
LL
ê 170 ú
´ 10 = 70v
v1 = ê 170 ú
ê ú
ë 7 û
Ans. = 70.00
Sol.
4. Two separate wires A and B are stretched by
2 mm and 4 mm respectively, when they are
5m 5m
subjected to a force of 2 N. Assume that both
A
A = 100 m2
the wires are made up of same material and the k Î0 A
radius of wire B is 4 times that of the radius of Using C =
d
wire A. The length of the wires A and B are in 10 Î0 (100 )
the ratio of a : b. Then a/b can be expressed as C1 =
5
1/x where x is _______ . = 200 Î0
Official Ans. by NTA (32) Î0 (100 )
C2 = = 20 Î0
E 2mm 5
Sol. For A =y ....(1)
pr 2
a C1C2
C1 & C2 are in series so Ceqv. =
E 4mm C1 + C2
For B =y ....(2)
p.16r 2 b
\ (1)/(2) 4000 Î0
=
2b 220
16 =
4a = 160.9 × 10–12 ; 161 pF
6
7. A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity Sol. Using work energy theorem,
Wg = DK.E.
10 3 m/s along the x-axis, hits another ball of
mass 20 kg which is at rest. After the collision, 1
(10) (g) (5) = (10)v2 – 0
first ball comes to rest while the second ball 2
disintegrates into two equal pieces. One piece v = 10 m/s
starts moving along y-axis with a speed of 10 9. An npn transistor operates as a common emitter
m/s. The second piece starts moving at an angle
amplifier with a power gain of 106. The input
of 30° with respect to the x-axis. The velocity
circuit resistance is 100W and the output load
of the ball moving at 30° with x-axis is x m/s.
resistance is 10 KW. The common emitter
The configuration of pieces after collision is
current gain 'b' will be ______. (Round off to
shown in the figure below. The value of x to
the nearest integer is ______ .
y–axis R0
Piece-1 Sol. 10 6 = b2 ´
Ri
v1 = 10 m/s
EN
30°
x–axis
v2
Sol. Let velocity of 2 nd fragment is vr then by

10.
10 6 = b2 ´
10 4
10 2
b2 = 10 4 Þ b = 100
A bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired on a wooden
block to pierce through it, but it stops after
moving a distance of 50 cm into it. If the
conservation of linear momentum velocity of bullet before hitting the wood is 10
LL
r
( ) ( )
10 10 3 î = (10 ) 10 ˆj + 10v
m/s and it slows down with uniform
deceleration, then the magnitude of effective
r retarding force on the bullet is 'x' N. The value
Þ v = 10 3iˆ - 10 ˆj
of 'x' to the nearest integer is ______ .
r
v = 300 + 100 = 400 = 20m / s Official Ans. by NTA (10)
8. As shown in the figure, a particle of mass 10 Sol. v2 = u2 + 2as
kg is placed at a point A. When the particle is
A
æ1ö
slightly displaced to its right, it starts moving 0 = (10)2 + 2 (–a) ç ÷
è2ø
and reaches the point B. The speed of the
particle at B is x m/s. (Take g = 10 m/s 2) a = 100 m/s2
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is_____. F = ma = (0.1) (100) = 10 N
A C
B
horizontal
surface 10 m
5m
7

SECTION-A NH 2
+
N2 Cl
H3C CH3 Sol. NaNO2, HCl

(X) Major product
N 273–278 K
NH2
CH3 CH3
NaNO2,HCl
'Y' N
1. 273K - 278 K
'X'
(Major Product)
(Major Product)
Considering the above reaction, X and Y

respectively are : CH3 CH3
N
+
N2Cl—
(1) and
N
N
N CH3
EN N=N
(Y)
CH3 Major product
2. The ionic radius of Na+ ions is 1.02 Å. The ionic
LL
+
N2Cl— radii (in Å) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively, are-
CH3 (1) 1.05 and 0.99 (2) 0.72 and 0.54
N
(2) N N (3) 0.85 and 0.99 (4) 0.68 and 0.72
and CH3 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. The ionic radii order is
+ 2+ 3+
Cl Na > Mg > Al
A
N CH3 3. Reaction of Grignard reagent, C2H5MgBr with

(3) N N C8H8O followed by hydrolysis gives compound
and CH3 "A" which reacts instantly with Lucas reagent
to give compound B, C10H13Cl.
Cl The Compound B is :
N Cl
N
(4) and
CH3
N
H3C CH3
CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (1) (2)
Cl
Cl CH3
CH3
Cl
CH3
CH3
(3) (4)

1
4. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulphanilic acid Sol. (a) Antacid : Cimetidine

in acetic acid is used for the detection of (b) Artifical Sweetener : Alitame
(1) N2O (2) NO3– (3) NO (4) NO2– (c) Antifertility : Novestrol
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (d) Tranquilizers : Valium
–
Sol. For detection of NO2, the following test is used.
– – CºN
NO2 + CH3COOH ® HNO 2 + CH3COO
COOH
Å
NH3CH3COO –
N=N–OCOCH3 7. H2O
"A"
H2O
H+ H+, D
(Major Product)
+ HNO 2 ® + 2H 2O
Consider the above chemical reaction and
identify product "A"
SO3H SO3H
(Sulphanilic acid CH2NH2
solution) (1)
N=N–OCOCH 3
+ CH2NO2
¾®
EN (2)
SO3H NH2
Diazotized 1-napthyl
acid amine CONH2
(3)
HO3S N=N NH2 + CH3COOH

LL
H
(Red azo dye)
C=N—OH
5. A non-reducing sugar "A" hydrolyses to give (4)
two reducing mono saccharides. Sugar A is-
(1) Fructose (2) Galactose
A
(3) Glucose (4) Sucrose Official Ans. by NTA (3)

H2O
Sol. Sucrose ¾¾¾ ® glu cose + Fructose O O
(Non reducing (Re ducing (Re ducing CºN C – NH2 C – OH
sugar) sugar) sugar)
H3O H3O
6. Match the list -I with list - II Sol.
D
List-I List-II
'A' Complete
(Class of Drug) (Example)
Major hydrolysis
(a) Antacid (i) Novestrol product
(b) Artificial sweetener (ii) Cimetidine (partial hydrolysis)
(c) Antifertility (iii) Valium
(d) Tranquilizers (iv) Alitame
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv),(c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i),(c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii),(c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv),(c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
2
8. Match List-I with List-II 10. The satements that are TRUE :
List-I List-II (A) Methane leads to both global warming and
(a) Chlorophyll (i) Ruthenium photochemical smog
(b) Vitamin-B12 (ii) Platinum (B) Methane is generated from paddy fields
(c) Anticancer drug (iii) Cobalt (C) Methane is a stronger global warming gas
(d) Grubbs catalyst (iv) Magnesium than CO2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (D) Methane is a part of reducing smog
options given below : Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(a) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i options given below :
(b) a-iv, b-iii), c-ii, d-i (1) (A), (B), (C) only
(c) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) (A) and (B) only
(d) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) (B), (C), (D) only
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (4) (A), (B), (D) only
Sol. Chlorophyll is a coordination compound of Official Ans. by NTA (1)
magnesium. Sol. Methane leads to both global warming &
Vitamin B-12, cyanocobalamine is a photochemical smog.
coordination compound of cobalt. EN Methane is generated in large amounts from
Cisplatin is used as an anti-cancer drug and paddy fields.
is a coordination compound of platinum. CO 2 can be absorbed by photosynthesis, or
Grubbs catalyst is a compound of Ruthenium. by formation of acid rain etc., while no such
activities are there for methane.
9. Match List-I with List-II :
Hence methane is stronger global warming gas
List-I than CH 4.
(Chemicals) Methane is not a part of reducing smog.
LL
(a) Alcoholic potassium hydroxide 11. Match List-I with List-II

(b) Pd/ BaSO4
List-I List-II
(c) BHC (Benzene hexachloride)
(a) Ca(OCI)2 (i) Antacid
(d) Polyacetylene
List-II 1
(b) CaSO4. H 2 O
A
(Use / Preparation / Constituent) (ii) Cement

2
(i) Electrodes in batteries
(c) CaO (iii) Bleach
(ii) Obtained by addition reaction
(iii) Used for b- elimination reaction (d) CaCO3 (iv) Plaster of paris
(iv) Lindlar's catalyst Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Choose the most appropriate match : options given below :
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Sol. Ca(OCl)2 is Bleach.
Sol. (a) Alcoholic potassium hydroxide ® used for
1
b-elimination CaSO4× H 2 O is plaster of paris.
(b) Pd/ BaSO4 ® Lindlar's catalyst 2
CaCO3 is used as an antacid.
(c) BHC (Benzene hexachloride) ® Obtained
CaO is major component of cement.
by addition reactions
(d) Polyacetylene ® Electrodes in batteries
3
12. Compound with molecular formula C3H6O can 14. A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two
show : radial nodes. The orbital is :
(1) Positional isomerism (1) 2s (2) 3s (3) 3p (4) 2p
(2) Both positional isomerism and metamerism Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(3) Metamerism
Sol. l = 0 Þ 's' orbital
(4) Functional group isomerism
n–l–1=2
Sol. C 3H6O Þ CH 3–CH 2–CH=O n –1=2
& CH3–C–CH3 n=3
O
They are functional group isomerism. CH3
13. The correct structures of trans-[NiBr2(PPh3)2]
and meridonial-[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3], respectively, are Alkaline KMnO4
15. ¾¾¾¾¾¾ + ® "X"
H
NO2
Ph3P Br H3N NO2 OCH3
Ni Co
(1) and
H3N NO2 Considering the above chemical reaction,
Br PPh3 NH3 EN identify the product "X" :
NO2
Ph3P Br O2N
NH3 CHO CH2OH
Ni Co
(2) and
Br O2N NH3
Ph3P NH3 (1) X- (2) X-
NH3 OCH3 OCH3

LL
Ph3P Br O2N
NH3
Ni Co
(3) and
Br O2N NO2
Ph3P NH3 COOH
CH3
NO2
A
Ph3P Br H3N
NO2 (3) X- (4) X-
Ni Co
(4) and OCH3
PPh3 O2N NH3 OH
Br NH3
Sol. trans-[Ni Br2(PPh3)2] is
Ph2P Br CH3 CO2H
Sol.
Ni
alkaline KMnO 4
Br PPh3 ¾¾¾¾® +
H
meridional - [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] is
NO2 OCH3 OCH3
H3N NO2
(X)
Co
O 2N NH3
NH3
4
16. Match List-I with List-II 18. The number of ionisable hydrogens present in
List-I (process) List-II (catalyst) the product obtained from a reaction of
(a) Deacron's process (i) ZSM-5 phosphorus trichloride and phosphonic acid is:
(b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2
(1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 1
(c) Cracking of hydrocarbons (iii) Particles 'Ni'
(d) Hydrogenation of vegetable (iv) V2O5 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
oils Sol. PCl3 + H3PO3 ® H4P2O5
Choose the most appropriate answer from the O O
options given below -
P P
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv HO O
OH
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii H H
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (Two ionisable H)
Sol. In manufacture of H 2SO 4 (contact process),
V2O5 is used as a catalyst. 19. In a binary compound, atoms of element A
Ni catalysts enables the hydrogenation of fats. form a hcp structure and those of element M
CuCl2 is used as catalyst in Deacon's process. occupy 2/3 of the tetrahedral voids of the hcp
ZSM-5 used as catalyst in cracking of
structure. The formula of the binary compound
hydrocarbons.
is :
17. Given below are two statements : One is
EN (1) M2A3 (2) M4A3 (3) M4A (4) MA3
labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled
as reason R
Assertion A : During the boiling of water M A6
Sol. 12 ´
2
3
having temporary hardness, Mg(HCO 3 ) 2 is
converted to MgCO3. M8 A 6
Reason R : The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 M4 A 3
LL
is greater than that of MgCO3. 20. The chemical that is added to reduce the
In the light of the above statements, choose the melting point of the reaction mixture during the
most appropriate answer from the options given extraction of aluminium is :
(1) Cryolite (2) Bauxite
below :
(3) Calamine (4) Kaolite
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
A

correct explanation of A
Sol. To reduce the melting point of reaction
mixture, cryolite is added.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A SECTION-B
1. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A
and X are second row elements of periodic
Sol. For temporary hardness,
table. Based on Molecular orbital theory, the
Mg(HCO3)2 ¾¾¾ heating
® Mg(OH)2¯ + 2CO 2
Assertion is false. bond order of AX is 25. The total number of
MgCO 3 has high solubility product than electrons in AX is ______. (Round off to the
Mg(OH) 2. Nearest Integer).
According to data of NCERT table 7.9
(Equilibrium chapter), the solubility product
of magnesium carbonate is 3.5 × 10 and
–8 Sol. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule.
solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 1.8 × 10 .
–11 The molecule is NO.
Hence Reason is incorrect. Total no. of electrons is 15.
The question should be Bonus.
5
2. In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74, Sol. DrH = [ÎC–C + 2ÎC–H] – [ÎC=C + ÎH–H]
sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If the = [347 + 2 × 414] – [611 + 436]
concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0 = 128
M, the concentration of sodium acetate in the
5. _____ grams of 3-Hydroxy propanal (MW=74)
buffer is ________ M. (Round off to the
must be dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of acrolein
Nearest Integer).
(MW = 56) (C3H4O) if the percentage yield is
[Given : pKa (acetic acid) = 4.74] 64. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Official Ans. by NTA (10) [Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u,
[CB] H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u]
Sol. pH = pKa + log
[WA] Official Ans. by NTA (16)
H2
[CB] C D
5.74 = 4.74 + log Sol. ¾¾¾
64%® C3H4O + H2O
1 (HO)H2C CHO
Þ [CB] = 10 M
x x 7.8
mol ´ 0.64 =
3. 2 NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2 NOCl(s) EN 74 74 56
This reaction was studied at –10°C and the x = 16.10
following data was obtained ; 16.00
run [NO]0 [Cl2]0 r0 6. A reaction of 0.1 mole of Benzylamine with
1 0.10 0.10 0.18 bromomethane gave 23 g of Benzyl trimethyl
2 0.10 0.20 0.35 ammonium bromide. The number of moles of
LL
3 0.20 0.20 1.40 bromomethane consumed in this reaction are

n × 10–1, when n = _______. (Round off to the
[NO]0 and [Cl2]0 are the initial concentrations
Nearest Integer).
and r0 is the initial reaction rate.
(Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u,
The overall order of the reaction is ______.
H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0 u, Br : 80.0 u]
A

m n ··
Sol. r = k[NO] [Cl2] Sol. Ph–CH2–NH¾¾¾¾
CH -Br
2 - HBr
® Ph–CH2– N H –CH3
3
m n
= k(0.1) (0.1) .....(1)
m n –HBr CH3–Br
= k(0.1) (0.2) .....(2)
m n
= k(0.2) (0.2) .....(3)
CH3
n =1 CH3 CH3–Br
CH3
m = 2 Ph–CH2–N Ph–CH 2–N
Å CH3 –HBr CH3
m + n = 3
no of moles = 3
4. For the reaction
7. The total number of unpaired electrons present
C2H6 ® C2H4 + H2
in the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is ______.
the reaction enthalpy DrH = ______ kJ mol–1.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. K3[Cr(oxalate)3]
[Given : Bond enthalpies in kJ mol–1 : C–C : Chromium is in +3 oxidation state.
347, C=C : 611; C–H : 414, H–H : 436] +3
Number of unpaired electrons in Cr will
Official Ans. by NTA (128) be 3.
6
8. 2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a
0 0
E1 E2
freezing point of 3.885°C. The degree of Fe3+ Fe2+ Fe
dissociation of this acid is _____ × 10–3. (Round Sol.
E30
off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Molal depression constant of water = E10 + 2E02 = 3E30
1.85 K kg mol–1 Freezing point of pure water
= 0°C] E10 = 3E30 - 2E02
Official Ans. by NTA (50) = 3 (–0.036) – 2(–0.44)
Sol. DTf = (1 + a) Kf.m = + 0.772 V
a = 0.05 = 50 × 10 –3
E0cell = E0Fe3+ /Fe2+ + E0I- /I = 0.233
2
9. For the reaction

–
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I (aq) ® 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s) D r G0 = – 2 × 96.5 × 0.233 = –45 kJ
the magnitude of the standard molar free energy 10. Complete combustion of 3 g of ethane gives
change, DrG°
m = – ______ kJ (Round off to the
x × 1022 molecules of water. The value of x
Nearest Integer). is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
ê
EN
é E oFe2+ /Fe(s) = -0.440 V; E oFe3+ /Fe(s) = -0.036 V ù
ú
[Use : NA = 6.023 × 1023; Atomic masses in u
: C : 12.0 ; O : 16.0 ; H : 1.0]
ê E oI /2I- = 0.539 V; F = 96500 C ú Official Ans. by NTA (18)
ë 2 û
Sol. C 2H 6 ® 3H 2 O
23 22
Official Ans. by NTA (46) 0.1 0.3 = 0.3 × 6 × 10 = 18 × 10
LL
Official Ans. by ALLEN (45) mol mol
23
No. of molecules = 0.3 × 6.023 × 10
22
= 18.069 × 10
A
7

SECTION-A Sol. 3x + 4y = 9
1. The differential equation satisfied by the system y = mx + 1
of parabolas y = 4a(x + a) is :
2
Þ 3x + 4mx + 4 = 9
2 Þ (3 + 4m)x = 5
æ dy ö æ dy ö
(1) y ç ÷ - 2x ç ÷ - y = 0 Þ x will be an integer when
è dx ø è dx ø
3 + 4m = 5, – 5,1,–1
2
æ dy ö æ dy ö 1 1
(2) y ç ÷ - 2x ç ÷ + y = 0 Þ m = , -2, - , -1
è dx ø è dx ø 2 2
2
æ dy ö æ dy ö so, number of integral values of m is 2
(3) y ç ÷ + 2x ç ÷ - y = 0 3. Let (1 + x + 2x2)20 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 +...+ a40x40.
è dx ø è dx ø
æ dy ö
(4) y ç
Sol. y2 = 4ax + 4a2

EN
æ dy ö
÷ + 2x ç ÷ - y = 0
è dx ø è dx ø
differentiate with respect to x

then a1 + a3 + a5 +... + a37 is equal to
(1) 220(220 – 21)
(2) 219(220 – 21)
(3) 219(220 + 21)
(4) 220(220 + 21)
Sol. (1 + x + 2x2)20 = a0 + a1x + ....+ a40x40 put x =
dy 1, – 1
Þ 2y = 4a
dx Þ a0 + a1 + a2 +.... + a40 = 220
LL
a0 – a1 + a2 +.... + a40 = 220
æ y dy ö
Þa=ç ÷ 420 - 220
è 2 dx ø Þ a1 + a3 +.... + a39 =
2
so, required differential equation is
Þ a1 + a3 +... + a37 = 239 – 219– a39
2
æ y dy ö æ y dy ö
20!( 2 ) ´ 1
19
y = ç4´
2
÷x + 4ç ÷
A
è 2 dx ø è 2 dx ø here a39 = = 20 ´ 219

19!
æ dy ö
2
æ dy ö Þ a1 + a3 +... + a37 = 219(220 – 1 – 20)
Þ y 2 ç ÷ + 2xy ç ÷ - y 2 = 0 = 219 (220 – 21)
dx
è ø è dx ø
4. The solutions of the equation
2
æ dy ö æ dy ö 1 + sin 2 x sin 2 x sin 2 x
Þ y ç ÷ + 2x ç ÷ - y = 0
è dx ø è dx ø cos2 x 1 + cos2 x cos 2 x = 0, ( 0 < x < p )
, are
4 sin 2x 4 sin 2x 1 + 4 sin 2x
2. The number of integral values of m so that the
abscissa of point of intersection of lines p p p 5p
(1) , (2) ,
3x + 4y = 9 and y = mx + 1 is also an integer, is : 12 6 6 6
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0 5p 7p 7p 11p
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (3) , (4) ,
12 12 12 12
1
1 + sin 2 x sin 2 x sin 2 x a b g

b g a =0
cos2 x 1 + cos2 x cos2 x =0 Sol.
Sol. g a b
4 sin 2x 4 sin 2x 1 + 4 sin 2x
Þ –(a + b + g) (a2 + b2 + g2 – åab) = 0
use R1 ® R1 + R2 + R3
Þ –(–a) (a2 – 2b – b) = 0
1 1 1 Þ a(a2 – 3b) = 0
Þ (2 + 4sin2x) cos x 2
1 + cos x
2 2
cos x =0
a2
4sin 2x 4sin 2x 1 + 4sin 2x Þ a2 = 3b Þ =3
b
1
Þ sin 2x = -
( 2x - 1) cos ( 2x - 1)
2
2 +5
7. The integral ò 4x 2 - 4x + 6
dx is
p p
Þ 2x = p + ,2p -
6 6
5.
x=
p p
+ ,p -
2 12
p
12 EN
Choose the correct statement about two circles
whose equations are given below :
x2 + y2 – 10x – 10y + 41 = 0
equal to
(where c is a constant of integration)
(1)
(2)
1
2
1
2
sin
cos
( 2x - 1)
( 2x + 1)
2
2
+5+c
+5 +c
x2 + y2 – 22x – 10y + 137 = 0 1

( 2x - 1)
2
(3) cos +5+c
(1) circles have same centre 2
LL
(2) circles have no meeting point
1
sin ( 2x + 1) + 5 + c
2
(3) circles have only one meeting point (4)
(4) circles have two meeting points 2
Sol. x2 + y2 – 10x – 10y + 41 = 0
( 2x - 1) cos ( 2x - 1)
2
A(5,5), R1 = 3 +5
Sol. ò dx
x2 + y2 – 22x – 10y + 137 = 0 ( 2x - 1) + 5
2
A
B(11,5), R2 = 3
AB = 6 = R1 + R2 (2x – 1)2 + 5 = t2
Touch each other externally 2(2x – 1) 2dx = 2t dt
Þ circles have only one meeting point.
2 t 2 - 5dx = t dt
6. Let a,b,g be the real roots of the equation,
x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0, (a,b,c Î R and a,b ¹ 0).
t 2 - 5 cos t 1
If the system of equations (in, u,v,w) given by So ò 2 t2 - 5
dt =
2
sin t + c
au + bv + gw = 0, bu + gv + aw = 0;
gu + av + bw = 0 has non-trivial solution, then the
1
( 2x - 1)
2
2 = sin +5 +c
a 2
value of is
b
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 0
2
8. The equation of one of the straight lines which

passes through the point (1,3) and makes an angles æ x3 ö æ x3 ö
ç x + ... -
÷ ç x - ... ÷
è 3! ø è 3 ø 1
tan -1 ( 2 ) with the straight line, y + 1 = 3 2 x is
Sol. lim
x ®0 3x 3
=
6
(
(1) 4 2x + 5y - 15 + 4 2 = 0 ) So 6L + 1 = 2
r
10. A vector a has components 3p and 1 with respect
(2) 5 2x + 4y - (15 + 4 2 ) = 0 to a rectangular cartesian system. This
(3) 4 2x + 5y - 4 2 = 0 system is rotated through a certain angle about the
origin in the counter clockwise sense. If, with
(
(4) 4 2x - 5y - 5 + 4 2 = 0 ) respect to new system, ar has components p + 1
and 10 , then a value of p is equal to:
Sol. y = mx + c
3=m+c 5 4
(1) 1 (2) -
(3) (4) –1
4 5
2=
m-3 2
1 + 3 2m
= 6m + 2 = m - 3 2
= sin = -4 2 ® m =
EN
-4 2
5
r
Sol. a Old = 3piˆ + ˆj
r
a New = ( p + 1) î + 10jˆ
r r
Þ a Old = a New
Þ ap2 + 1 = p2 + 2p + 1 + 10
q
a
a N ew
= = 6m - 2 = m - 3 2 8p2 – 2p – 10 = 0
LL
4p2 – p – 5 = 0
2 2
= 7m - 2 2 ® m = 5
7 (4p – 5) (p + 1) = 0 ® p = , –1
4
-4 2 2
According to options take m = 11. If the equation a z + az + a z + d = 0 represents
5
a circle where a,d are real constants then which
A
-4 2x 3 + 4 2 of the following condition is correct ?

So y = +
5 5 2
(1) a - ad ¹ 0
(2) |a|2 – ad > 0 and a Î R – {0}
(
4 2x + 5y - 15 + 4 2 = 0 ) (3) |a|2 – ad > 0 and a Î R
(4) a = 0, a,d Î R+
sin -1 x - tan -1 x Official Ans. by NTA (2)
9. If lim is equal to L, then the value
®
x 0 3x 3 Sol. azz + a z + az + d = 0 ® Circle
of (6L + 1) is
-a aa d aa - ad
1 1 centre = 2= 2
- =
(1) (2) a a a a2
6 2
(3) 6 (4) 2 So |a|2 – ad > 0 & a Î R – {0}
3
12. For the four circles M, N, O and P, following

99 ´ 100 ´ 199
four equations are given : = 1003 -
6
Circle M : x2 + y2 = l
Circle N : x2 + y2 – 2x = 0 a=3 b = 1650
Circle O : x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 1650
slope = = 550
Circle P : x + y – 2y = 0
2 2
3
If the centre of circle M is joined with centre of
the circle N, further centre of circle N is joined cosec -1 x
ƒ (x) =
with centre of the circle O, centre of circle O is 14. The real valued function x - [ x ] , where
joined with the centre of circle P and lastly, centre
of circle P is joined with centre of circle M, then [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
these lines form the sides of a : to x, is defined for all x belonging
(1) Rhombus to :
(2) Square (1) all reals except integers
(3) Rectangle (2) all non-integers except the interval [–1,1]
Sol. M : x2 + y2 = 1
EN
(4) Parallelogram
N : x2 + y2 – 2x = 0
(0,0)
O : x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0
P : x2 + y2 – 2y = 0
(1,0)
(0,1)
(1,1)
Sol.
(3) all integers except 0,–1,1
(4) all reals except the Interval [–1,1]
ƒ (x) =
cosec -1 x
{x}
M(0,0) 1 N(1,0)
Domain Î ( -¥, -1] È [1, ¥ )
LL
1 1 {x} ¹ 0 so x ¹ integers
1 1 1 1
P O + 2 + 2 + ... +
15. 3 -1 5 -1 7 -1 ( 201) - 1 is equal
(0,1) 1 (1,1) 2 2
to
13. If a, b are natural numbers such that
101 25 101 99
100a – 199b = (100)(100) + (99)(101) + (98)(102) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A
404 101 408 400

+.....+ (1)(199), then the slope of the line passing
through (a,b) and origin is :
(1) 540 1 1 1
Tn = =
( 2n + 1) - 1 ( 2n + 2 ) 2n 4 ( n )( n + 1)
(2) 550 Sol. 2
(3) 530
(4) 510
=
( n + 1) - n = 1 æ 1 - 1 ö
Sol. S = (100)(100) + ( 99 )(101) + ( 98 )(102 ) ..... 4n ( n + 1) 4 çè n n + 1 ÷ø
1æ 1 ö 1 æ 100 ö 25
... ( 2 )(198 )+ (1)(199 ) S = ç1 - ÷ = ç ÷ =
4 è 101 ø 4 è 101 ø 101
99
S = å (100 - x )(100 + x ) = å100 2 - x 2
x= 0
4
16. If the functions are defined as ƒ ( x ) = x and

ì 1
ï , x ³1
g ( x ) = 1 - x , then what is the common domain Sol. ƒ(x) = í x
ïax 2 + b, x <1
of the following functions : î
ƒ + g, ƒ – g, ƒ/g, g/ƒ, g – ƒ where (ƒ ± g) (x) =
at x = 1 function must be continuous
ƒ(x) So, 1 = a + b ...(1)
ƒ(x) ± g(x), (ƒ/g)(x) =
g(x) differentiability at x = 1
(1) 0 < x < 1 æ 1 ö

(2) 0 < x < 1 ç - 2 ÷ = ( 2ax )x =1
è x øx =1
(3) 0 < x < 1
(4) 0 < x < 1
1
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Þ –1 = 2a Þ a = -
2
Sol. ƒ(x) + g(x) = x + 1 - x , domain [0, 1]
1 3
ƒ(x) – g(x) =
g(x) – ƒ(x) =
ƒ(x)
g(x)
=
x
1- x
EN x - 1 - x , domain [0, 1]
1 - x - x , domain [0, 1]
, domain [0, 1) 18.

(1) Þ b = 1 +
ê
2
=
é 1 2 0ù
2
Let A + 2B = ê 6 -3 3 ú
ú
êë -5 3 1 úû
g(x) 1- x
= , domain (0, 1] é 2 -1 5 ù
LL
ƒ(x) x
and 2A - B = ê2 -1 6 ú . If Tr(A) denotes the
ê ú
So, common domain is (0, 1) êë0 1 2 úû
ì 1 sum of all diagonal elements of the matrix A, then

ï ; x ³1
17. If ƒ ( x ) = í x is differentiable at Tr(A) – Tr(B) has value equal to
ïax 2 + b ; x <1 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 3
î
A

every point of the domain, then the values of a and æ 1 2 0ö
b are respectively : ç ÷
Sol. A + 2B = ç 6 -3 3 ÷ ...(1)
1 1 ç -5 3 1 ÷
, è ø
(1)
2 2
æ 2 -1 5 ö
1 3 ç ÷
(2) , - 2A - B = ç 2 -1 6 ÷
2 2
ç0 1 2÷
è ø
5 3
(3) ,-
2 2 æ 4 -2 10 ö
ç ÷
1 3 4 -2 12 ÷
(4) - , Þ 4A – 2B = ç ...(2)
2 2 ç0 2 4 ÷
è ø
5
æ 5 0 10 ö
ç ÷ 1
10 -5 15 ÷ Sol. Let x = 3 +
(1) + (2) Þ 5A = ç
ç -5 5 5 ÷ 1
è ø 4+
1
3+
æ 1 0 2ö æ 2 0 4ö 1
4+
ç ÷ ç ÷ 3 + ...¥
2 -1 3 ÷ 4 -2 6 ÷
A= ç and 2A = ç
ç -1 1 1 ÷ ç -2 2 2 ÷
è ø è ø
æ 2 0 4 ö æ 2 -1 5 ö 1 1
So, x = 3 + =3+
ç ÷ ç ÷ 1 4x + 1
\ B = ç 4 -2 6 ÷ - ç 2 -1 6 ÷ 4+
ç -2 2 2 ÷ ç 0 1 2 ÷ x x
è ø è ø
æ 0 1 -1 ö Þ ( x - 3) =
x
ç ÷ ( 4x + 1)
B = ç 2 -1 0 ÷
ç -2 1 0 ÷
è ø Þ (4x + 1) (x – 3) = x
19.
tr ( B) = -1
EN
tr ( A ) = 1 - 1 + 1 = 1
tr(A) = 1 and tr(B) = –1

\ tr(A) – tr(B) = 2
The sum of all the 4-digit distinct numbers that can
be formed with the digits 1, 2, 2 and 3 is:
Þ 4x2 – 12x + x – 3 = x
Þ 4x2 – 12x – 3 = 0
x=
12 ± (12 )
2´ 4
2
12 ± 4 ´ 2 3 3 ± 2 3
+ 12 ´ 4
=
12 ± 12 (16 )
8
(1) 26664 (2) 122664 = =

8 2
LL
(3) 122234 (4) 22264
x= ± 3 = 1.5 ± 3 .
Sol. Digits are 1, 2, 2, 3 2
4! But only positive value is accepted
total distinct numbers = 12 .
2!
So, x = 1.5 + 3
total numbers when 1 at unit place is 3.
SECTION-B
A
2 at unit place is 6
3 at unit place is 3. 1. The number of times the digit 3 will be written when
So, sum = (3 + 12 + 9) (103 + 102 + 10 + 1) listing the integers from 1 to 1000 is
= (1111) × 24 Official Ans. by NTA (300)
= 26664 Sol. 3_ _ = 10 × 10 = 100
_3 _ = 10 × 10 = 100
1
20. The value of 3 + is equal to
1
4+ _ _ 3 = 10 × 10 = 100
1
3+ 300
1
4+
3 + ...¥
(1) 1.5 + 3 (2) 2 + 3

(3) 3 + 2 3 (4) 4 + 3
6
2. Let the plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 bisect the Sol. x = (2 – 1)1! =1

2 3
line joining the points (4,–3,1) and (2, 3, –5)
1 x y 5
at the right angles. If a, b, c, d are integers, then w = (12 – 8)4! = 424
w z
the mi nimum val ue of (a2 + b2 + c2 + d2) is 12 4
z = (7 – 4)3! = 36
hence y = (5 – 3)2! = 22
P(4,–3,1)
5. Let z1, z2 be the roots of the equation z2 + az +
12 = 0 and z1,z2 form an equilateral triangle with
M(3,0,–2)
origin. Then, the value of |a| is
Sol.
Q(2,3,–5)
Sol. If 0,z,z2 are vertices of equilateral triangles
Plane is 1(x – 3) – 3(y – 0) + 3(z + 2) = 0 Þ a2 + z12 + z22 = 0 (z1 + z2) + z1z2
x – 3y + 3z + 3 = 0 Þ (z1 + z2)2 = 3z1z2
(a2 + b2 + c2 + d2)min = 28 Þ a2 = 3 × 12
3.
value of
EN
Let ƒ(x) and g(x) be two functions satisfying ƒ(x2)
+ g(4 – x) = 4x3 and g(4 – x) + g(x) = 0, then the
4
ò ƒ (x)
-4

2
dx is
6.
Þ |a| = 6
The equation of the planes parallel to the plane x
– 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 which are at unit distance
from the point (1, 2, 3) is ax + by + cz + d =0. If
(b – d) = K(c – a), then the positive value of K
is
( )
LL
Sol. I = 2 ò ƒ x dx {Even funtion}
2
Sol. Let plane is x – 2y + 2z + l = 0
0
distance from (1,2,3) = 1
4
(
= 2 ò 4x3 - g ( 4 - x ) dx ) Þ
l+3
= 1 Þ l = 0, -6
0 5
Þ a = 1, b = –2, c = 2, d = –6 or 0
æ 4x 4 4 4 ö
A
= 2ç - ò g ( 4 - x ) dx ÷ b – d = 4 or – 2, c – a = 1
ç 4 0 0 ÷
è ø Þ k = 4 or – 2
7. The mean age of 25 teachers in a school is 40
= 2(256 – 0) = 512
years. A teacher retires at the age of 60 years and
4. The missing value in the following figure is
a new teacher is appointed in his place. If the mean
age of the teachers in this school now is 39 years,
2 3 then the age (in years) of the newly appointed
1 1 ? 5 teacher is_.
12 4
24
3
6
4
8 7
7
Sol.
åx i
= 40 &
åx i - 60 + N
= 39
1 1
-
25 25 t1 + t 2 t 1 t 2
. =1
2 2
Let age of newly appointed teacher is N
Þ 1000 – 60 + N = 975 Þ t12 – t22 = 4t1t2
Þ N = 35 years
1 æ 1ö
´ ç - ÷ = -1 Þ t1 t 2 = 1
5x + 7x
8 6 t12 è t 22 ø
8. If ƒ ( x ) = ò dx, ( x ³ 0 ) , ƒ ( 0 ) = 0
(x )
2
2
+ 1 + 2x 7
Þ (t1t2)2 = 1 Þ t1t2 = 1
t12 – t22 = 4
1
and ƒ (1) = , then the value of K is
K Þ t12 + t 22 = 42 + 4 = 2 5
1
5 Þ t2 = 5 - 2
Sol. ƒ(x) = ò
Let x–5 + x–7 + 2 = t

(–5x–6 – 7x–8)dx = dt
( 5x
x (x
14
EN
8
-5
+ 7x ) dx6
+ x -7 + 2 )
2
Þ t12 = 2 +
1
æ1 1ö
AB2 = (t1 – t2)2 + ç + ÷
è t1 t 2 ø
2
æ 2 1ö
dt 1 = 2 ç t1 + t 2 ÷ = 4 5 Þ Area2 = 80
Þ ƒ( x) = ò - = +c
è 1 ø
LL
t2 t
10. The number of solutions of the equation

x7
ƒ(x) = 2
x + 1 + 2x 7 1
cot x = cot x + in the interval [0, 2p] is
sin x
1
ƒ (1) = Official Ans. by NTA (1)
4
A
1
9. A square ABCD has all its vertices on the curve Sol. If cotx > 0 Þ = 0 (Not possible)
sin x
x2y2 = 1. The midpoints of its sides also lie on the
same curve. Then, the square of area of ABCD
1
is If cotx < 0 Þ 2cotx + =0
sin x
Þ 2cosx = –1
Sol. xy = 1, –1
2p 4p
1 A (t 1 , 1 ) ; t 1 > 0 Þx= or (reject)
(– t 2 ,– ) S
t2
t1 3 3
D P
R B (t2 , – 1 ) ; t 2 > 0
1 Q t2
(– t 1 ,– )
t1 C
8

(Held On Thursday 18th March, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
SECTION-A
1. Which of the following statements are correct? v1
(A) Electric monopoles do not exist whereas m1 m2
magnetic monopoles exist. Sol.
m1 m2 v v
(B) Magnetic field lines due to a solenoid at its
ends and outside cannot be completely
straight and confined. m1v1 = –m1v + m2v
(C) Magnetic field lines are completely confined m2
within a toroid. v1 = -v + v
m1
(D) Magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet are
not parallel. ( v1 + v ) = m 2
(E) c = – 1 is the condition for a perfect
EN
diamagnetic material, where c is its
magnetic susceptibility.
given below :
(1) (C) and (E) only
(2) (B) and (D) only
e=
v=
v
2v
v1
v1
2
=1
m1
(3) (A) and (B) only

(4) (B) and (C) only v1 + v1 / 2 m 2
=
LL
Official Ans. by NTA (1) v1 / 2 m1
Sol. Statement (C) is correct because, the magnetic
m2
field outside the toroid is zero and they form 3=
closed loops inside the toroid itself. m1
Statement (E) is correct because we know that 3. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the
super conductors are materials inside which the fractional change in its pressure is equal to
net magnetic field is always zero and they are (where g is the ratio of specific heats):
A
perfect diamagnetic.
dV V
µr = 1 + c (1) -g (2) -g
V dV
c = –1
µr = 0 1 dV dV
For superconductors. (3) - (4)
g V V
2. An object of mass m1 collides with another
object of mass m2, which is at rest. After the
Sol. PVg = constant
collision the objects move with equal speeds
Differentiating
in opposite direction. The ratio of the masses
m2 : m1 is : dP gP
=-
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 dV V
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
dP gdV
Official Ans. by NTA (1) =-
P V
1
4. A proton and an a-particle, having kinetic 6. Consider a uniform wire of mass M and length
energies Kp and Ka, respectively, enter into a L. It is bent into a semicircle. Its moment of
magnetic field at right angles. inertia about a line perpendicular to the plane
The ratio of the radii of trajectory of proton to of the wire passing through the centre is :
that of a-particle is 2 : 1. The ratio of Kp : Ka 1 ML2 2 ML2
(1) (2)
is : 4 p2 5 p2
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 ML2 1 ML2
(3) (4)
p2 2 p2
mv p ma
Sol. r= = =4 L
qB qB mp Sol. pr = L Þ r =
p
rp pp q a 2 ML2
= = I = Mr 2 =
ra q p pa 1 p2
pp
pa
pp
pa
=
=1
2q p
qa EN
æ1ö
= 2ç ÷
è2ø
7. The velocity-displacement graph of a particle
is shown in the figure.
v
v0
LL
Kp p p2 m a x
= = (1) (4) O x0
Ka pap m p
5. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating The acceleration-displacement graph of the

along y-direction can have the following pair same particle is represented by :
r r
( )
of electric field E and magnetic field B ( ) a a
A
components.
(1) (2)
(1) Ey, By or Ez, Bz O x O x
(2) Ey, Bx or Ex, By
(3) Ex, Bz or Ez, Bx
(4) Ex, By or Ey, Bx a a
O x
(3) (4)
z z O x
E B
K
y y Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. B
K E æv ö
x x Sol. v = -ç 0 ÷ x + v0
è x0 ø
2
9. Three rays of light, namely red (R), green (G)
vdv and blue (B) are incident on the face PQ of a
a=
dx right angled prism PQR as shown in figure.
é æv ö ù é v0 ù P
a = ê- ç 0 ÷ x + v 0 ú ê- ú
ëê è x 0 ø ûú ë x 0 û
B
2
G
æv ö v2
a= ç 0 ÷ x- 0 R
è x0 ø x0
Q R
8. The correct relation between a (ratio of
collector current to emitter current) and b (ratio
The refractive indices of the material of the
of collector current to base current) of a
prism for red, green and blue wavelength are
transistor is : 1.27, 1.42 and 1.49 respectively. The colour
(1) b =
(2) a =
a
1+ a
b
1-a
1
EN of the ray(s) emerging out of the face PR is :
(1) green
(3) blue and green
P
(2) red
(4) blue
(3) b =
1- a
LL
45°
b Sol.
(4) a =
1+b
Q R
IC I Assuming that the right angled prism is an

Sol. a= ,b = C isoceles prism, so the other angles will be 45°
IE IB
A
each.
IE = IB + IC Þ Each incident ray will make an angle of 45°
with the normal at face PR.
IC 1 Þ The wavelength corresponding to which the
a= =
IB + IC I incidence angle is less than the critical angle,
B
+1
IC will pass through PR.
Þ qC = critical angle
1 -1 æ 1 ö
a= Þ qC = sin ç ÷
1 èmø
+1
b Þ If qC ³ 45°
the light ray will pass
b
a= -1 æ 1 ö
1+b Þ ( qC )Re d = sin ç ÷ = 51.94°
è 1.27 ø
3
Red will pass. 11. The decay of a proton to neutron is :

(1) not possible as proton mass is less than the
-1 æ 1 ö
neutron mass
Þ ( qC )Green = sin ç ÷ = 44.76° (2) possible only inside the nucleus
è 1.42 ø
(3) not possible but neutron to proton
Green will not pass conversion is possible
(4) always possible as it is associated only with
-1 æ 1 ö b + decay
Þ ( qC )Blue = sin ç ÷ = 42.15° Official Ans. by NTA (2)
è 1.49 ø
Sol. It is possible only inside the nucleus and not
Blue will not pass otherwise.
Þ So only red will pass through PR. 12. In a series LCR circuit, the inductive reactance
(XL) is 10 W and the capacitive reactance (XC)
10. If the angular velocity of earth's spin is
is 4 W. The resistance (R) in the circuit is 6 W.
increased such that the bodies at the equator The power factor of the circuit is :
start floating, the duration of the day would be 1
1
approximately : (1) (2)
2 2 2
(Take : g = 10 ms –2 , the radius of earth,
(1) 60 minutes
EN
R = 6400 × 103 m, Take p = 3.14)
(2) does not change

(3) 1200 minutes
(4) 84 minutes
(3)
1
2
L
XL=10W
C
XC=4W
(4)
R = 6W
2
3
Sol. For objects to float Sol.

LL
mg = mw2R
w = angular velocity of earth.
We know that power factor is cosf,
R = Radius of earth
R
cos f = ... (1)
g Z
w= ... (1)
R
Z = R2 + ( XL - XC )
2
... (2)
Duration of day = T
A
(wL–1/ wC)
2p
T= ... (2)
w
Z
R
Þ T = 2p
g f
R
6400 ´ 10 3
Þ Z = 62 + (10 - 4 )
2
= 2p
10
6
Þ Z = 6 2 | cos f =
T 6 2
Þ = 83.775 minutes
60
1
cos f =
; 84 minutes 2
4
13. The angular momentum of a planet of mass M 2p

moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit is Sol. Time period T =
w'
r
L . The magnitude of the areal velocity of the
p 2p
planet is : =
w w'
4L L w' = 2w ® Angular frequency of SHM
(1) (2)
M M Option (3)
1 1
(3)
2L
(4)
L sin 2 wt =
2
( )
2sin 2 wt = (1 - cos2wt )
2
M 2M
Official Ans. by NTA (4) æ1 1 ö
Angular frequency of ç - cos2wt ÷ is 2w
è2 2 ø
ds Option (4)
r q Angular frequency of SHM
Sol. S æp ö
can be written as
dl
ds
q
EN
For small displacement ds of the planet its area
15.
3cos ç - 2wt ÷ is 2w.
è4 ø
So option (3) & (4) both have angular
frequency 2w but option (4) is direct answer.
A solid cylinder of mass m is wrapped with an
inextensible light string and, is placed on a
rough inclined plane as shown in the figure.
r The frictional force acting between the cylinder
and the inclined plane is :
LL
1
dA = rdl
2
1
= r dssin q
2
dA 1 ds Vr sin q
= r sin q =
A
A.vel =
dt 2 dt 2
dA 1 mVr sin q L
= =
dt 2 m 2m
14. The function of time representing a simple 60°
p
harmonic motion with a period of is :
w
[The coefficient of static friction, µs, is 0.4]
(1) sin(wt) + cos (wt)
(2) cos(wt) + cos (2wt) + cos (3wt) 7
(1) mg (2) 5 mg
(3) sin2(wt) 2
æp ö mg
(4) 3cos ç - 2wt ÷ (3) (4) 0
è 4 ø 5
5
17. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit
-C
under the central potential field, U ( r ) = ,
T r
where C is a positive constant.
f
The correct radius – velocity graph of the
Sol. particle's motion is :
60° r r
Let's take solid cylinder is in equilibrium (1) (2)

T + f = mg sin60 ....(i)
O v O v
TR – fR = 0 ....(ii)
Solving we get
mgsin q r r
T = freq =
2
µmgcos60° <
Hence f = kinetic
2
EN
But limiting friction < required friction
mg sin 60°
\ Hence cylinder will not remain in

equilibrium
Sol.
(3)
O v
U= -
C
r
(4)
O v
= µk N
= µkmgcos 60°
LL
dU C
mg F= - =- 2
= dr r
5
16. The time taken for the magnetic energy to reach mv 2
F =
25% of its maximum value, when a solenoid r
of resistance R, inductance L is connected to
a battery, is : C mv 2
=
A
L r2 r
(1) ln5 (2) infinite
R
1
v2 µ
L L r
(3) ln2 (4) ln10
R R
18. An ideal gas in a cylinder is separated by a
piston in such a way that the entropy of one part
1 2 is S1 and that of the other part is S2. Given that
Sol. Magnetic energy = Li = 25%
2 S1 > S2. If the piston is removed then the total
i0 entropy of the system will be :
ME Þ 25% Þ i = (1) S1 × S2 (2) S1 – S2
2
i = i 0 (1 - R - Rt / L ) for charging S1
(3) (4) S1 + S2
S2
L
t = ln2
R Official Ans. by NTA (4)
6
Piston h h
l= =
P mv
Sol. S1 S2 ; S1 > S2
mv
So (RP) µ
h
After piston is removed
RP µ P
Stotal RP µ mv
; Stotal = S1 + S2
RP µ m
19. Consider a sample of oxygen behaving like an SECTION-B
ideal gas. At 300 K, the ratio of root mean 1. The projectile motion of a particle of mass 5 g
square (rms) velocity to the average velocity is shown in the figure.
of gas molecule would be :
(Molecular weight of oxygen is 32 g/mol;
R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)
45° 45°
A B
(1)
(3)
3
3
3p
8
3RT
EN (2)
(4)
8
3
8p
3
The initial velocity of the particle is
5 2 ms–1 and the air resistance is assumed to
be negligible. The magnitude of the change in
momentum between the points A and B is
x × 10–2 kgms–1. The value of x, to the nearest
Sol. v rms = integer, is _______.
M Official Ans. by NTA (5)
LL
8 RT
v avg =
p M
u
v rms 3p
=
vavg 8 Sol. 45°
45°
20. The speed of electrons in a scanning electron
A
v
microscope is 1 × 10 7 ms –1. If the protons
having the same speed are used instead of
r r
electrons, then the resolving power of scanning u = v ... (1)
proton microscope will be changed by a factor r
of: u = u cos 45iˆ + u sin 45ˆj ... (2)
r
1 v = v cos 45iˆ - v sin 45ˆj ... (3)
(1) 1837 (2)
1837 uur r r
DP = m ( v - u ) ... (4)
1
(3) 1837 (4) DP = 2mu sin 45°
1837
= 2 ´ 5 ´ 10 -3 ´ 5 2 ´
2
1
Sol. Resolving power (RP) µ = 50 × 10–3
l
= 5 × 10–2
7
2. A ball of mass 4 kg, moving with a velocity of 4. Consider a water tank as shown in the figure.
10 ms–1, collides with a spring of length 8 m It's cross-sectional area is 0.4 m2. The tank has
and force constant 100 Nm–1. The length of the an opening B near the bottom whose cross-
compressed spring is x m. The value of x, to section area is 1 cm2. A load of 24 kg is applied
the nearest integer, is_____. on the water at the top when the height of the
water level is 40 cm above the bottom, the
Sol. Let's say the compression in the spring by : y.
velocity of water coming out the opening B is
So, by work energy theorem we have
v ms–1. The value of v, to the nearest integer,
1 1 is___. [Take value of g to be 10 ms –2]
Þ mv 2 = ky 2
2 2
m 24kg
Þy= ×v
k A
4
Þy= ´ 10
3.
Þ y = 2m
100
= 8 – 2 = 6m
EN
Þ final length of spring
The typical output characteristics curve for a

transistor working in the common-emitter
configuration is shown in the figure.
B
P0
LL
m
IC(mA)
8 A
IB = 40µA v1
Sol. H
6 IB = 30µA P0
a v
4 IB = 20µA
2 IB = 10µA
A
m = 24 kg
0
VCE(V) A = 0.4 m2
a = 1 cm2
H = 40cm
The estimated current gain from the figure is
Using Bernoulli's equation
0
DI C 2 ´ 10 -3 æ mg ö 1
Sol. b= = Þ ç P0 + ÷ + rgH + —rv 2
DI B 10 ´ 10 -6 è A ø 2 1
1
b= ´ 10 3 1
5 = P0 + 0 + rv 2 ... (1)
2
b = 2 × 102
Þ Neglecting v1
b = 200
8
7. An infinite number of point charges, each

2mg
Þ v= 2gH + carrying 1 µC charge, are placed along the
Ar
y-axis at y = 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m..................
The total force on a 1 C point charge, placed
Þ v = 8 + 1.2
at the origin, is x × 103 N. The value of x, to
Þ v = 3.033 m/s the nearest integer, is________.
Þ v ; 3m / s
1
5. A TV transmission tower antenna is at a height [Take 4 pÎ = 9 × 109 Nm2/C2]
0
of 20 m. Suppose that the receiving antenna is
at.
(i) ground level 1C 1µC 1µC 1µC 1µC
Sol. 1 2 4 8 y
(ii) a height of 5 m.
The increase in antenna range in case (ii)
relative to case (i) is n%. é 1 1 1 ù
F = k(1C)(1µC) ê1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + ...ú
Sol. Range =
Range (i) =
EN
The value of n, to the nearest integer, is .
2Rh
2Rh
é
ê 1 ú
ë 2
ù
4
= 9 × 103 ê 1 ú = 12 × 103N
ê1 - ú
ë 4û
8 û
Range (ii) = 2Rh + 2Rh ' 8. Consider a 72 cm long wire AB as shown in

LL
where h = 20 m & h' = 5m the figure. The galvanometer jockey is placed
at P on AB at a distance x cm from A. The
2Rh ' 5 galvanometer shows zero deflection.
Ans = ´ 100% = ´ 100% = 50%
2Rh 20
6. The radius of a sphere is measured to be 12W C 6W

(7.50 ± 0.85) cm. Suppose the percentage error
A
in its volume is x. The value of x, to the nearest

G
x, is_______.
Official Ans. by NTA (34) x
A B
P
4 3
Sol. Q v = pr
3
taking log & then differentiate

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is
dV dr Official Ans. by NTA (48)
=3
V r Sol. In Balanced conditions
3 ´ 0.85 12 x
= ´ 100% = 34 % =
7.5 6 72 - x
x = 48 cm
9
9. Two wires of same length and thickness having 10. A galaxy is moving away from the earth at a
specific resistances 6W cm and 3W cm speed of 286 kms–1. The shift in the wavelength
respectively are connected in parallel. The of a red line at 630 nm is x × l0–10 m. The value
effective resistivity is r W cm. The value of r, of x, to the nearest integer, is_____.
to the nearest integer, is_____. [Take the value of speed of light c, as 3 × 108
Official Ans. by NTA (4) ms–1]
Sol. Q in parallel Official Ans. by NTA (6)
Dl
Sol. c= v
l
R1R 2
Rnet = R + R A
1 2 v 286
l Dl = ´l = ´ 630 ´ 10 -9 = 6 × 10–10
c 3 ´ 105
l l
rl r1 A ´ r2 A
=
2A r l + r l
1
r 6´3
=
2 6+3
r=4
A
=2
2
EN
A
LL
A
10

SECTION-A R–C–NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH

Sol.
1. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2,
–
O
N2O and NO 3 are in the order of :
(1) NO3- > NO 2 > NO > N 2O R–NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O
Mechanism
(2) NO 2 > NO3- > NO > N 2O
H OH
(3) N 2 O > NO2 > NO > NO3- R–C–N R–C–NH + Br – Br
H –H2O
-
(4) NO > NO 2 > N 2 O > NO 3 O O
Sol. The oxidation states of Nitrogen in following –H2O
molecules are as follows R–C–N – Br R–C–N – Br
– –Br HO
NO 3 ® +5 O O H
NO 2 ® +4
NO ® +2
N 2O ® +1
EN R–N=C=O
H – OH
2
(2NaOH)
HO
R–NH2 + Na2CO3
or
2. In basic medium, H2O2 exhibits which of the
H – OH 2
following reactions ? CO3
(A) Mn2+ ® Mn4+ 4. The oxide that shows magnetic property is :
(B) I2 ® I– (1) SiO2 (2) Mn3O4
LL
(C) PbS ® PbSO4 (3) Na2O (4) MgO

Choose the most appropriate answer from the Official Ans. by NTA (2)
options given below : Sol. Mn 3O 4 shows magnetic properties.
(1) (A), (C) only 5. Main Products formed during a reaction of
(2) (A) only 1-methoxy naphthalene with hydroiodic acid are:
A
(3) (B) only I

(4) (A), (B) only
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (1) and CH3OH
Sol. In basic medium, oxidising action of H 2O 2.
2+ +4 –
Mn + H2O 2 ® Mn + 2OH
OH
In basic medium, reducing action of H2O 2
– –
I2 + H2O 2 + 2OH ® 2I + 2H2O + O2
(2) and CH3I
In acidic medium, oxidising action of H2O2.
PbS(s) + 4H2O2(aq) ® PbSO 4(s) + 4H2O(l)
Hence correct option (4) OH
3. In the reaction of hypobromite with amide, the
carbonyl carbon is lost as : (3) and CH3OH
(1) CO32–
– I
(2) HCO3
(3) CO2 (4) and CH3I
(4) CO
1
O – CH3 OH 8. The first ionization energy of magnesium is smaller

as compared to that of elements X and Y, but
Sol. HI
+ CH3–I higher than that of Z. the elements X, Y and Z,
respectively, are :
Mechanism (1) chlorine, lithium and sodium
H (2) argon, lithium and sodium
O – CH3 O – CH3 (3) argon, chlorine and sodium
(4) neon, sodium and chlorine
H I Official Ans. by NTA (3)
st rd
(SN2 ) Sol. The 1 IE order of 3 period is
Na < Al < Mg < Si < S < P < Cl < Ar
X & Y are Ar & Cl
OH
Z is sodium (Na).
9. The secondary valency and the number of
+ CH3–I hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) in
6. Deficiency of vitamin K causes : CuSO4×5H2O, respectively, are :
(1) Increase in blood clotting time (1) 6 and 4 (2) 4 and 1
(2) Increase in fragility of RBC's (3) 6 and 5 (4) 5 and 1
(3) Cheilosis EN Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(4) Decrease in blood clotting time
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol. H2 O OH2 H O O
Sol. Due to deficiency of Vitmain K causes Cu 2+
O S
increases in blood clotting time. H O
Note : Vitamin K related to blood factor. H2 O OH2 O
7. An organic compound "A" on treatment with
LL
benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B
Hydrogen bonded
is soluble in dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is : water molecule = 1
(1) C6H5–N–(CH3)2 (2) C6H5–NHCH2CH3 Secondary valency = 4
(3) C6H5–CH2 NHCH3 (4) C6H5–CH–NH2
CH3 10. Given below are two statements :
A
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Statement I : Bohr's theory accounts for the
Sol. Hinsberg reagent (Benzene sulphonyl chloride) stability and line spectrum of Li+
gives reaction product with 1° amine and it
ion.
is soluble in dil. NaOH.
O Statement II : Bohr's theory was unable to
.. explain the splitting of spectral
R – NH2 + Cl – S
lines in the presence of a
(A) O
(1° amine) magnetic field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
O most appropriate answer from the options given
dil. NaOH
R – NH – S below :
(B) O (1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false.
O
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
R–N–S Official Ans. by NTA (2)
O
2
Sol. Statement-I is false since Bohr's theory accounts Official Ans. by NTA (3)
for the stability and spectrum of single electronic Sol. (A) Antifertility drug ® (iii) Nor ethindrone
+ 2+
species (eg : He , Li etc) (B) Antibiotic ® (iv) Salvarsan
Statement II is true. (C) Tranquilizer ® (i) Meprobamate
11. NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2 (D) Artificial sweetener ® (ii) Alitame
NO2 Ans. A–iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
HNO 3, H 2SO 4
+ +
288 K
NO2 O
NO2 dil.NaOH +
A B C 14. ¾¾¾¾ ® "X" ¾¾¾¾
H , Heat
® "Y"
2
Consider the given reaction, percentage yield
of :
Consider the above reaction, the product 'X' and
(1) C > A > B (2) B > C > A
(3) A > C > B (4) C > B > A 'Y' respectively are :
OH O
NH2
HNO3 + H2SO4 (1) ,
Sol. 288 K O
Aniline
EN (2)
O
,
O
NH 2 NH2 NH 2
OH
NO 2
+ +
NO2 O O
LL
NO2 (3) ,
(A) (B) (C) OH
(2%) (47%) (51%)
% yield order Þ C > B > A O O
12. The charges on the colloidal CdS sol and TiO2
A
sol are, respectively : (4) ,

OH
(1) positive and positive
(2) positive and negative Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(3) negative and negative
(4) negative and positive
Official Ans. by NTA (4) O O O
Sol. CdS sol ® –ve sol OH
Sol. H
TiO2 sol ® +ve sol –H2O
13. Match List - I with List - II :
List - I List - II
H 2O
(Class of Chemicals) (Example)
(a) Antifertility drug (i) Meprobamate
(b) Antibiotic (ii) Alitame O OH
(c) Tranquilizer (iii) Norethindrone O
(d) Artificial Sweetener (iv) Salvarsan D
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (X)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (Y)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3
15. Match list-I with list-II : (1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
List-I List-II (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(a) Be (i) Treatment of cancer (4) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(b) Mg (ii) Extraction of metals
Sol. Non-biodegradable wastes are generated by the
(c) Ca (iii) Incendiary bombs and signals thermal power plants which produces fly ash.
(d) Ra (iv) Windows of X-ray tubes Detergents which are biodegradable causes
problem called eutrophication which kills
(v) Bearings for motor engines. animal life by deprieving it of oxygen.
Choose the most appropriate answer the option 18. Match list-I with list-II :
given below : List-I List-II
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (a) Mercury (i) Vapour phase refining
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (b) Copper (ii) Distillation refining
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii (c) Silicon (iii) Electrolytic refining
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-v (d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Sol. (a) Be ® it is used in the Windows of X-ray EN option given below :
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
tubes
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(b) Mg ® it is used in the Incendiary bombs Official Ans. by NTA (3)
and signals Sol. (a) Mercury ® Distillation refining
(c) Ca ® it is used in the Extraction of metals (b) Copper ® Electrolytic refining
(d) Ra ® it is used in the Treatment of cancer (c) Silicon ® Zone refining
LL
(d) Nickel ® Vapour phase refining
16. Given below are two statements : 19. In the following molecules,
a
Statement I : C 2H5OH and AgCN both can H3C
b
generate nucleophile. c
C=C–O
Statement II : KCN and AgCN both will H
A
H
generate nitrile nucleophile with all reaction Hybridisation of carbon a, b and c respectively
conditions. are :
Choose the most appropriate option : (1) sp3, sp, sp (2) sp3, sp2, sp
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (3) sp , sp , sp
3 2 2 (4) sp3, sp, sp2
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true 3
a (sp )
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false H3C 2
b (sp ) (sp )
2
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol. c

C=C–O
17. Given below are two statements : H H
Statement I : Non-biodegradable wastes are 20. A hard substance melts at high temperature and
generated by the thermal power plants. is an insulator in both solid and in molten state.
Statement II : Bio-degradable detergents leads This solid is most likely to be a / an :
to eutrophication. (1) Ionic solid (2) Molecular solid
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Metallic solid (4) Covalent solid
most appropriate answer from the option given Official Ans. by NTA (4)
below :
4
Sol. Covalent or network solid have very high melting
point and they are insulators in their solid and F F
F
molten form. Sol. SF4 = S , BF4 = B
F F F
SECTION-B F F
1. A reaction has a half life of 1 min. The time F
required for 99.9% completion of the reaction ClF3 = Cl–F , AsF3 = As
F F
is ______ min. (Round off to the Nearest F
F
integer)
Cl F
[Use : ln 2= 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3] Cl F F
PCl5 = Cl–P , BrF5 = Br
Official Ans. by NTA (10) Cl F F
Cl
1 100 F
ln F F F F
t 99.9% K 0.1
Sol. = XeF4 = Xe , SF6 = S
t 50% 1 F F F F
ln 2
K F
ln1000 Two l.p. on central atom is = ClF3, XeF4

= × t50%
ln 2 EN 4. A xenon compound 'A' upon partial hydrolysis
3ln10 gives XeO2 F 2 . The number of lone pair of
= × 1
ln 2 electrons present in compound A is
3 ´ 2.3 _______(Round off to the Nearest integer)
= = 10
0.69 Official Ans. by NTA (19)
Sol. XeF6 + 2H2O ¾® XeO2F2 + 4HF
2. The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of
(A) (Limited water)
LL
barium chloride, sulphuric arid and Structure of 'A'

hydrochloric acid are 280, 860 and 426 Scm2
mol–1 respectively. The molar conductivity at F
F F
infinite dilution of barium sulphate is Xe
F F
A
________S cm2 mol–1(Round off to the Nearest

F
Integer).
Official Ans. by NTA (288) Total l.p. on (A) = 19
Sol. From Kohlrausch's law 5. The gas phase reaction
¥ ¥ 2+ ¥ 2-
L (BaSO4 ) = l (Ba ) + l (SO )
2A(g)
m m m 4 A2(g)
¥ ¥ ¥
L (BaSO4 ) = L (BaCl 2 ) + L (H2SO4 )
m m m at 400 K has DGº = + 25.2 kJ mol–1.
¥ The equilibrium constant KC for this reaction
–2 L m (HCl) is ______× 10 –2. (Round off to the Nearest
= 280 + 860 – 2 (426) integer)
2
= 288 Scm mol
–1
[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1K–1 , ln 10 = 2.3
log10 2 = 0.30, 1 atm = 1 bar]
3. The number of species below that have two
[antilog (–0.3) = 0.501]
lone pairs of electrons in their central atom is
____(Round off to the Nearest integer)
SF4, BF4– , CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6
5
Official Ans. by NTA (166) 7. The solubility of CdSO 4 in water is
Official Ans. by ALLEN (2) 8.0 × 10 –4 mol L –1. Its solubility in 0.01 M
Sol. Using formula H 2 SO 4 solution is ______× 10 –6 mol L –1 .
D r G0 = –RTlnKp (Round off to the Nearest integer) (Assume that
25200 = –2.3 × 8.3 × 400 log(K p) solubility is much less than 0.01 M)
–3.3 –3
K p = 10 = 10 × 0.501 Official Ans. by NTA (64)
–4 –1
= 5.01 × 10 Bar Sol. In pure water,
–9 –1
= 5.01 × 10 Pa 2
Ksp = S = (8 × 10 )
–4 2
–8
KC = 64 × 10
= In 0.01 M H2SO 4
8.3 ´ 400
+ 2–
–5 3 H2SO4(aq) ® 2H (aq) + SO4 (aq.)
K C = 1.66 × 10 m /mole
–2 0.02 0.01
= 1.66 × 10 L/mol
Ans = 2

BaSO 4(s)
Ba
2+
(aq.)
+ SO4
2–
(aq)
6. In Tollen's test for aldehyde, the overall x x (x + 0.01)

number of electron(s) transferred to the Tollen's K sp = x (x + 0.01)
reagent formula [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] + per aldehyde
group to form silver mirror is_______.(Round
off to the Nearest integer)
EN = 64 × 10
–8
x + 0.01 @ 0.01 M
So, x (0.01) = 64 × 10
–8
Official Ans. by NTA (2) x = 64 × 10

–6
M
Sol. AgNO3 + NaOH ® AgOH + NaNO 3
2AgOH ® Ag 2O + H 2O 8. A solute a dimerizes in water. The boiling point
LL
1 of a 2 molar solution of A is 100.52ºC. The
+
Ag 2O + 4NH3 + H2O ® 2Ag(NH 3) 2 + 2OH percentage association of A is.____.
(Round off to the Nearest integer)
.
O . [Use : Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1
HO O
–e– + OH
R–C–H Boiling point of water = 100°C]
A
+ R H R H
O Ag Ag
Official Ans. by ALLEN (100)
0
Sol. DTb = Tb – Tb
O OH 100.52 – 100
e– = 0.52ºC
. HO .
+
Ag Ag R OH R OH æ aö
i = ç1 - ÷
è 2ø
Q DTb = i Kb × m
R – C – OH R–C–O
æ aö
O O 0.52 = ç1 - ÷ ´ 0.52 ´ 2
è 2ø
– a = 1
Total 2e transfer to Tollen's reagent
So, percentage association = 100%.
6
9. 10.0 ml of Na2CO3 solution is titrated against 0.2 6.1

M HCl solution. The following titre values were Sol. Moles of Benzoic acid =
122
obtained in 5 readings. = moles of m-bromobenzoic acid
So, weight of m-bromobenzoic acid
4.8 ml, 4.9 ml, 5.0 ml, 5.0 ml and 5.0 ml
6.1
Based on these readings, and convention of = ´ 201gm
122
titrimetric estimation of concentration of
= 10.05 gm
Na2CO3 solution is ________mM.
Actual weight
(Round off to the Nearest integer) % yield = ´ 100
Theoretical weight
7.8
Sol. Most precise volume of HCl = 5 ml = ´ 100
at equivalence point 10.05
Meq. of Na 2CO3 = meq. of HCl. = 77.61%
Let molarity of Na2CO3
solution = M, then
M × 10 × 2 = 0.2 × 5 × 1
M = 0.05 mol / L
= 0.05 × 1000 EN
= 50 mM
COOH COOH
FeBr3
10. + Br2 ¾¾¾¾ ® + HBr
LL
Br
Consider the above reaction where 6.1 g of

benzoic acid is used to get 7.8 g of m-bromo
benzoic acid. The percentage yield of the
A
product is_____.
(Round off to the Nearest integer)
[Given : Atomic masses : C = 12.0u, H : 1.0u,
O : 16.0u, Br = 80.0 u]
7

SECTION-A uuur uuur
2. In a triangle ABC, if BC = 8 , CA = 7 ,
1. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
uuur uuur
equation
dy
dx
(
= ( y + 1) ( y + 1) e x /2 - x , 0 < x < 2.1,
2
) AB = 10 , then the projection of the vector AB

uuur
on AC is equal to :
dy
with y(2) = 0. Then the value of at 25 85 127 115
dx (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 14 20 16
x = 1 is equal to : Official Ans. by NTA (2)
-e3/ 2 2e2 Sol.
(1) (2) -
(e + 1) (1 + e )
2
2 2 2
(3)
e 5/2
(1 + e ) 2 2

Sol. Let y + 1 = Y
\
dY x
= Y2 e 2 – xY
EN 2
(4)
5e1/2
(e 2
+ 1)
2
A
c
q
B
b
a
dx
r r r
LL
1 a = 8, b = 7, c = 10
Put - =k
Y r2 r2 r2
b +c -a 17
x 2 cos q = r r =
dk 2b c 28
Þ + k ( -x ) = e 2
dx
r r
2
Projection of c on b
x
I.F. = e - 2 r
= c cos q
A
\ k = ( x + c ) ex
2
/2
17
= 10 ´
28
1
Put k = - y + 1 =
85
14
3. Let the system of linear equations
1
\y +1 = - ...(i) 4x + ly + 2z = 0
( x + c ) ex / 2
2
2x – y + z = 0
1 µx + 2y + 3z = 0, l, µ Î R.
when x = 2, y = 0, then c = –2 – has a non-trivial solution. Then which of the
e2
diffentiate equation (i) & put x = 1 following is true ?
(1) µ = 6, l Î R (2) l = 2, µ Î R
æ dy ö e3/2 (3) l = 3, µ Î R (4) µ = –6, l Î R
we get ç dx ÷ = -
(1 + e2 ) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2
è ø x =1
1
Sol. For non-trivial solution 5. Let the centroid of an equilateral triangle ABC
be at the origin. Let one of the sides of the
4 l 2 equilateral triangle be along the straight line
2 -1 1 = 0 x + y = 3. If R and r be the radius of circumcircle
and incircle respectively of DABC, then (R + r)
m 2 3 is equal to :
Þ 2m – 6l + lm = 12 9
(1) (2) 7 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 3 2
when µ = 6, 12 – 6l + 6l = 12 2
which is satisfied by all l Official Ans. by NTA (1)
4. Let ƒ : R – {3} ® R – {1} be defined by
Sol. A
x-2
ƒ(x) = . Let g : R ® R be given as
x-3
g(x) = 2x – 3. Then, the sum of all the values O
R r
13 30°
of x for which ƒ–1(x) + g–1(x) = is equal to B M C
2
(1) 7
Sol. ƒ(x) = y =
\ x=
(2) 2
3y - 2
EN
x -3
(3) 5
x-2
(4) 3
r = OM =
& sin 30° =
\r + R =
9
3
2
1
2
=
r
R
ÞR=
6
2
y -1 2
6.
LL
Consider a hyperbola H : x2 – 2y2 = 4. Let the
\ ƒ -1 ( x ) =
3x - 2
x -1
tangent at a point P 4, 6 ( ) meet the x-axis at
Q and latus rectum at R(x1, y1), x1 > 0. If F is a
& g(x) = y = 2x – 3
focus of H which is nearer to the point P, then
y+3 the area of DQFR is equal to
\ x=
2 (1) 4 6 (2) 6 -1
A
x +3 7
\ g -1 ( x ) = (3) -2 (4) 4 6 - 1
2 6
13 Sol.
Q ƒ -1 ( x ) + g -1 ( x ) =
2
y P(4, Ö6)
x1
\ x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
x2 R
\ sum of roots
O x
x1 + x2 = 5 Q F(Ö6, 0)
x = Ö6
2
º (P Ú Q) Ú P ¹ Tautology
x 2 y2
- =1 (D) (~P Ù ~Q) ® (P Ù Q)
4 2
º (P Ú Q) Ú (P Ù Q) ¹ Tautology
Aliter :
b2 3
e = 1+ =
a2 2 P Q P Ú Q P Ú Q ~ P (P Ú Q)Ú ~ P
T T T T F T
\ Focus F(ae, 0) Þ F ( 6,0 ) T F T F F T
equation of tangent at P to the hyperbola is F T T F T T
2x – y 6 = 2 F F F F T T
tangent meet x-axis at Q(1, 0) x

8. Let g ( x ) = ò0 ƒ ( t ) dt , where ƒ is continuous
æ ö
& latus rectum x =
2
6 at R ç 6, 6
è
( )
6 -1 ÷
ø 1
function in [0, 3] such that £ ƒ ( t ) £ 1 for all
3
\ Area of DQFR =
1
( )
6 -1 .
2
( 6 -1 )
7.
=
7
6
-2 EN 2
If P and Q are two statements, then which of

the following compound statement is a
tautology ?
6
t Î [0, 1] and 0 £ ƒ(t) £
é
ë
1ù
(1) ê -1, - ú
2û
1
2
for all t Î (1, 3].
The largest possible interval in which g(3) lies

is :
é 3 ù
(2) ê - , -1ú
ë 2 û
(1) ((P Þ Q) Ù ~ Q) Þ Q
é1 ù
LL
(2) ((P Þ Q) Ù ~ Q) Þ ~ P
(3) ê , 2 ú (4) [1, 3]
(3) ((P Þ Q) Ù ~ Q) Þ P ë3 û
(4) ((P Þ Q) Ù ~ Q) Þ (P Ù Q) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
1
Sol. LHS of all the options are some i.e. Sol. £ ƒ ( t ) £ 1 " t Î [ 0, 1]
((P ® Q) Ù ~Q) 3
º (~P Ú Q) Ù ~Q
1
º (~P Ù ~Q) Ú (Q Ù ~Q) 0 £ ƒ(t) £ " t Î (1,3]
A
º ~P Ù ~Q 2
(A) (~P Ù ~Q) ® Q
3 1 3
º ~(~P Ù ~Q) Ú Q
Now, g ( 3) = ò ƒ ( t ) dt = ò ƒ ( t ) dt + ò ƒ ( t ) dt
º (P Ú Q) Ú Q ¹ tautology 0 0 1
(B) (~P Ù ~Q) ® ~P

º ~(~P Ù ~Q) Ú ~P 1
1
1 1
º (P Ú Q) Ú ~P Q ò0 3 dt £ ò0 ƒ ( t ) dt £ ò0 1. dt ....(1)
3 3 3
1
Þ Tautology and ò 0 dt £ ò ƒ (1) dt £ ò
1 1 1 2
dt ....(2)
(C) (~P Ù ~Q) ® P
3
Adding, we get Sol. w = 1 – 3.i Þ |w| = 2

1 1
+ 0 £ g ( 3) £ 1 + ( 3 - 1) 1 1
3 2 Now, |z| = Þ |z| =
w 2
1
£ g ( 3) £ 2
3 p
and amp(z) = + amp(w)
2
9. Let S 1 be the sum of first 2n terms of an
arithmetic progression. Let S2 be the sum of first
4n terms of the same arithmetic progression. If Q(w)
(S2 – S1) is 1000, then the sum of the first 6n
O
terms of the arithmetic progression is equal to:
(1) 1000 (2) 7000 (3) 5000 (4) 3000
P(w)
2n 4n
Sol. S2n = [2a + (2n – 1)d], S4n = [2a + (4n – 1
1)d]
2
Þ S2 – S1 =
1)d]
4n
2
EN
[2a + (4n – 1)d] –
2n
2
2
[2a + (2n –
11.
Þ Area of triangle =
1 1 1
= .2. =
2 2 2
2
.OP.OQ
Let in a series of 2n observations, half of them

are equal to a and remaining half are equal to
= 4an + (4n – 1)2nd – 2na – (2n – 1)dn
–a. Also by adding a constant b in each of these
= 2na + nd[8n – 2 – 2n + 1]
LL
observations, the mean and standard deviation
Þ 2na + nd[6n – 1] = 1000
of new set become 5 and 20, respectively. Then
1000 the value of a2 + b2 is equal to :
2a + (6n – 1)d = (1) 425 (2) 650 (3) 250 (4) 925
n
6n Sol. Let observations are denoted by xi for 1 £ i <
Now, S6n = é 2a + ( 6n - 1) d ùû
2 ë 2n
A
1000 x=
å x = ( a + a + ... + a ) - ( a + a + ... + a )
i
= 3n. = 3000 2n 2n
n
Þx =0
10. Let a complex number be w = 1 – 3 i . Let
and s 2
=
åx - ( x)
2
i 2
=
a 2 + a 2 + ... + a 2
- 0 = a2
x
another complex number z be such that |zw| = 1 2n 2n
Þ sx = a
p
and arg(z) – arg(w) = . Then the area of the Now, adding a constant b then y = x + b = 5
2
Þb=5
triangle with vertices origin, z and w is equal
and sy = sx (No change in S.D.) Þ a = 20
to :
Þ a2 + b2 = 425
1 1
(1) 4 (2) (3) (4) 2
2 4
4
12. Let S1 : x2 + y2 = 9 and S2 : (x – 2)2 + y2 = 1. r r

13. Let a and b be two non-zero vectors
Then the locus of center of a variable circle S
r r
which touches S 1 internally and S 2 externally perpendicular to each other and a = b . If
always passes through the points :
r r r
æ1 a ´ b = a , then the angle between the vectors
5ö
(
(1) 0, ± 3 ) (2) çç 2 , ± 2 ÷÷
è ø r r
æ 3ö
( ar + b + ( ar ´ b )) and ar is equal to :
(3) ç 2, ± ÷ (4) (1, ± 2 )
è 2ø æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
(1) sin -1 ç ÷ (2) cos -1 ç ÷
Official Ans. by NTA (3) è 3ø è 3ø
r1 = 3 æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
Sol. S1 : x2 + y2 = 9 (3) cos -1 ç ÷ (4) sin -1 ç ÷
A(0, 0) è 2ø è 6ø
r2 = 1
S2 : (x – 2)2 + y2 = 1 r r r r r r r
Sol. a = b , a ´ b = a , a ^ b
B(2, 0)
Q c1c 2 = r1 - r2
EN A
P
B
S2
r r r
r
r r r r r
a ´ b = a Þ a b sin 90° = a Þ b = 1 = a
r
a and b are mutually perpendicular unit
vectors.
r r
Let ar = î , b = ˆj Þ ar ´ b = kˆ
S1
( î + ˆj + kˆ ) .iˆ = 1 -1 æ 1 ö
cos q = Þ q = cos ç ÷
LL
\ given circle are touching internally 3 1 3 è 3ø
Let a veriable circle with centre P and radius
14. Let in a Binomial distribution, consisting of 5
r
independent trials, probabilities of exactly 1 and
Þ PA = r1 – r and PB = r2 + r
2 successes be 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively.
Þ PA + PB = r1 + r2
Then the probability of getting exactly 3
Þ PA + PB = 4 ( > AB)
Þ Locus of P is an ellipse with foci at A(0, 0) successes is equal to :
A
and B(2, 0) and length of major axis is 2a = 4, 32 80 40 128

(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 625 243 243 625
e=
Þ centre is at (1, 0) and b2 = a2(1 – e2) = 3 Sol. P(X = 1) = 5C1.p.q 4 = 0.4096
if x-ellipse P(X = 2) = 5C2.p2.q3 = 0.2048
q
Þ 2p = 2
A(0,0) (1,0) B(2,0) x
Þ q = 4p and p + q = 1
( x - 1)
2 2
y 1 4
Þ E: + =1 Þ p= and q =
4 3 5 5
æ 3ö Now
which is satisfied by ç 2, ± ÷
è 2ø 3 2
æ1ö æ4ö 10 ´ 16 32
5
P(X = 3) = C3 . ç ÷ .ç ÷ = =
è5ø è 5 ø 125 ´ 25 625
5
x2 Sol. A and B are matrices of n × n order & ARB iff

15. Let a tangent be drawn to the ellipse + y2 = 1
27 there exists a non singular matrix P(det(P) ¹ 0)
such that PAP–1 = B
( ) æ pö
at 3 3 cos q,sin q where qÎ ç 0, ÷ . Then the
è 2ø
For reflexive
ARA Þ PAP–1 = A ...(1) must be true
for P = I, Eq.(1) is true so 'R' is reflexive
value of q such that the sum of intercepts on For symmetric
axes made by this tangent is minimum is equal ARB Û PAP–1 = B ...(1) is true
to : for BRA iff PBP = A ...(2) must be true
–1
p p p p Q PAP–1 = B
(1) (2) (3) (4) P–1PAP–1 = P–1B
8 4 6 3
Official Ans. by NTA (3) IAP–1P = P–1BP
A = P–1BP ...(3)
Sol. Equation of tangent be
from (2) & (3) PBP–1 = P–1BP
x cos q y.sin q æ pö can be true some P = P–1 Þ P2 = I (det(P) ¹ 0)
+ = 1, qÎ ç 0, ÷
3 3 1 è 2ø So 'R' is symmetric
OA = 3 3 sec qEN
intercept on x-axis
intercept on y-axis
OB = cosecq
Now, sum of intercept
For trnasitive
ARB Û PAP–1 = B... is true
BRC Û PBP–1 = C... is true
now PPAP–1P–1 = C
P2A(P2)–1 = C Þ ARC
So 'R' is transitive relation
Þ Hence R is equivalence
= 3 3 secq + cosecq = ƒ(q) let 17. A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park
LL
ABC. Let the angle of elevation of the top of
ƒ'(q) = 3 3 secqtanq – cosecqcotq
p
sin q cos q the pole from each corner of the park be .
=3 3 - 3
cos2 q sin 2 q
If the radius of the circumcircle ot DABC is 2,
cos q é 1 ù p
= . 3 3 ê tan 3 q - ú = 0Þq= then the height of the pole is equal to :
sin 2
14243 q ë 3 3û 6
2 3 1
A
Å
(1) (2) 2 3 (3) 3 (4)
3 3
– +
p Official Ans. by NTA (2)
q= Sol. Let PD = h, R = 2
6 P
p As angle of elevation
Þ at q = , ƒ(q) is minimum A
6 of top of pole from
16. Define a relation R over a class of n × n real A, B, C are equal So R
matrices A and B as "ARB iff there exists a D must be circumcentre R D R
non-singular matrix P such that PAP–1 = B". of DABC B C
Then which of the following is true ? æ p ö PD h
(1) R is symmetric, transitive but not reflexive, tan ç ÷ = =
è3ø R R
(2) R is reflexive, symmetric but not transitive
(3) R is an equivalence relation
æpö
(4) R is reflexive, transitive but not symmetric h = R tan ç ÷ = 2 3
è3ø
6
18. If 15sin4a +10cos4a = 6, for some a Î R, then 20. Let ƒ : R ® R be a function defined as
the value of + 27sec6a 8cosec6a
is equal to :
(1) 350 (2) 500 (3) 400 (4) 250
ì sin(a + 1)x + sin 2x
Official Ans. by NTA (4) ï , if x < 0
2x
Sol. 15sin4a + 10cos4a = 6 ïï
ƒ(x) = í b , if x = 0
15sin4a + 10cos4a = 6(sin2a + cos2a)2 ï
(3sin2a – 2cos2a)2 = 0 ï x + bx3 - x
, if x > 0
ïî bx 5 / 2
2 3
tan 2 a = . cot a =
2
3 2
If ƒ is continuous at x = 0, then the value of
Þ 27sec6a + 8cosec6a
a + b is equal to :
= 27(sec6a)3 + 8(cosec6a)3
= 27(1 + tan2a)3 + 8(1 + cot 2a)3 5 3
(1) - (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) -
= 250 2 2
19. The area bounded by the curve Official Ans. by NTA (4)
4y2 = x2 (4 – x)(x – 2) is equal to : Sol. ƒ(x) is continuous at x = 0
(1)
p
8
(2)
3p
8
(3)

Sol. 4y2 = x2(4 – x)(x – 2)
y =
x
2
3p
2
EN
(4 - x)(x - 2)
(4)
p
16
lim ƒ(x) = ƒ(0) = lim- ƒ(x)
x ®0 +
ƒ(0) = b
x ®0 x®0 è
x ®0
æ sin ( a + 1) x sin 2x ö
lim+ ƒ(x) = lim+ ç
a +1
2x
+
2x ø
÷
...(1)
...(2)
x = +1 ...(3)
Þ y1 = (4 - x)(x - 2) 2
2
LL
-x x + bx3 - x
and y 2 = (4 - x)(x - 2) lim+ ƒ(x) = lim+
2 x ®0 x ®0 bx 5 / 2
D : x Î [2, 4]
Required Area (x + bx3 - x)
= lim+
4 4 x®0
bx 5/ 2 ( x + bx3 + x )
= ò (y
2
1 - y 2 ) dx = ò x (4 - x)(x - 2) dx ...(1)
2
A
x 1
= lim+ =
x ( 1 + bx 2 + 1)
b b
x ®0 2 ...(4)
Applying ò ƒ(x) dx = ò ƒ(a + b - x) dx
a a
Use (2), (3) & (4) in (1)
4
Area = ò (6 - x) (4 - x)(x - 2) dx ...(2) 1 a +1

= b= +1
2 2 2
(1) + (2)
1
4
Þ b= , a = –2
2A = 6 ò (4 - x)(x - 2) dx 2
2
-3
4
a+b=
A = 3ò 1 - (x - 3) dx 2
(2,0) (3,0) (4,0) 2
2
p 3p
A = 3. .12 =
2 2
7
SECTION-B 10
1. If ƒ(x) and g(x) are two polynomials such that 3. If å r!( r

r =1
3
+ 6r 2 + 2r + 5) = a(11!) , then the
the polynomial P(x) = ƒ(x3) + xg(x3) is divisible
by x2 + x + 1, then P(l) is equal to______. value of a is equal to _______.

Sol. P(x) = ƒ(x3) + xg(x3) 10
P(1) = ƒ(1) + g(1) ...(1) Sol. å r!{(r + 1)(r + 2)(r + 3) - 9(r + 1) + 8}

r=1
Now P(x) is divisible by x + x + 1
2
Þ P(x) = Q(x)(x2 + x + 1) 10
P(w) = 0 = P(w2) where w, w2 are non-real cube = å éë{(r + 3)!- (r + 1)!} - 8{(r + 1)!- r!}ùû
r= 1
roots of units
P(x) = ƒ(x3) + xg(x3) = (13! + 12! – 2! – 3!) – 8(11! – 1)
P(w) = ƒ(w3) + wg(w3) = 0 = (12.13 + 12 – 8).11! – 8 + 8
ƒ(1) + wg(1) = 2 ...(2) = (160)(11)!
P(w2) = ƒ(w6) + w2g(w6) = 0 Hence a = 160
(2) + (3)
(2) – (3)
EN
ƒ(1) + w2g(1) = 0
Þ 2ƒ(1) + (w + w2)g(1) = 0
2ƒ(1) = g(1)
Þ (w – w2)g(1) = 0
g(1) = 0 = ƒ(1) from (4)
...(3)
...(4)
4. The term independent of x in the expansion of
é x +1
10
x - 1 ù , x ¹ 1, is equal to
êë x 2 / 3 - x1 / 3 + 1 - x - x1/ 2 úû
_______.
from (1) P(1) = ƒ(1) + g(1) = 0 Official Ans. by NTA (210)
LL
2. Let I be an identity matrix of order 2 × 2 and 10
æ 1/ 3 æ x +1 öö
Sol. çç ( x + 1) - ç ÷÷
é 2 -1 ù è è x ø ÷ø
P=ê ú . Then the value of n Î N for
ë 5 -3 û
(x1/3 – x–1/2)10
which P n = 5I – 8P is equal to _______. Tr+1 = 10Cr(x1/3)10–r (–x–1/2)r
Official Ans. by NTA (6) 10 - r r
- = 0 Þ 20 – 2r – 3r = 0
A
3 2
é 2 -1ù
Sol. P= ê ú Þr=4
ë 5 -3û
10 ´ 9 ´ 8 ´ 7
T5 = 10 C 4 = = 210
é 5 0 ù é16 -8 ù é -11 8 ù 4 ´ 3 ´ 2 ´1
5I - 8P = ê ú-ê ú =ê ú
ë 0 5 û ë 40 -24 û ë -40 29û 5. Let P(x) be a real polynomial of degree 3 which
vanishes at x = –3. Let P(x) have local minima
é -1 1 ù
P =ê
2
ú at x = 1, local maxima at x = –1 and
ë -5 4 û
1
é 3 -2 ù é -11 8 ù ò P(x) dx = 18 , then the sum of all the

P3 = ê ú Þ P =ê
6
ú =P
n -1
ë10 -7 û ë -40 29 û
coefficients of the polynomial P(x) is equal to
Þn=6
_______.
8
Sol. Let p'(x) = a(x – 1) (x + 1) = a(x2 – 1) Þ a + 2 = 2b + 12 Þ a = 2b + 10 ...(i)

<PQ> = <4, –2, a – 2>
p(x) = a ò ( x - 1) dx + c
2
2 -1 1
\ = =
æx 3
ö 4 -2 a - 2
= aç - x÷ + c
è 3 ø Þ a – 2 = 2 Þ a = 4, b = –3
\ |a + b| = 1
Now p(–3) = 0
7. Let ƒ : R ® R satisfy the equation
æ 27 ö ƒ(x + y) = ƒ(x).ƒ(y) for all x, y Î R and
Þ a ç - + 3÷ + c = 0
è 3 ø f(x) ¹ 0 for any x Î R. If Ihe function ƒ is
Þ –6a + c = 0 ...(1) differentiable at x = 0 and ƒ'(0) = 3, then
æ æ x3
1
ö ö 1 ( )
Now ò çç a ç - x ÷ + c ÷÷ dx = 18 lim ( ƒ h - 1) is equal to ______.
-1 è è
3 ø ø h ®0 h
= 2c = 18 Þ c = 9 ...(2) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. If ƒ(x + y) = ƒ(x).ƒ(y) & ƒ'(0) = 3 then
Þ p(x) =
sum of coefficient
EN
Þ from (1) & (2) Þ –6a + 9 = 0 Þ a =
3 æ x3 ö
ç - x÷ +9
2è 3 ø
3
2 ƒ(x) = ax Þ ƒ'(x) = ax.lna
Þ ƒ'(0) = lna = 3 Þ a = e3
Þ ƒ(x) = (e3)x = e3x
lim
x ®0
ƒ(x) - 1
x
= lim ç
æ e 3x - 1 ö
x ®0 è 3x
´ 3 ÷ = 1´ 3 = 3
ø
1 3 8. Let nCr denote the binomial coefficient of xr in
= - +9
2 2 the expansion of (1 + x)n.
LL
=8
10
6. Let the mirror image of the point (1, 3, a) with If å(2
k =0
2
+ 3k ) n C k = a.310 + b.210 , a, b Î R,
r
respect to the plane r. ( 2iˆ - ˆj + kˆ ) - b = 0 be
then a + b is equal to ______.
(–3, 5, 2). Then the value of |a + b| is equal to Official Ans. by NTA (19)
_______. Allen Answer (Bonus)
A
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol. BONUS
Sol.
rn P(1,3,a) Instead of nCk it must be 10 C
k i.e.
10
å(2
k= 0
2
+ 3k ) 10 C k = a.310 + b.210
R
10 10
10 9
LHS = 4å 10 C k + 3å k. . C k -1
k =0 k =0 k
Q(–3,5,2) = 4.210 + 3.10.29
plane = 2x – y + z = b = 19.210 = a.310 + b.210
Þ a = 0, b = 19 Þ a + b = 19
æ a +2ö
R º ç -1, 4, ÷ ® on plane
è 2 ø
a +2
\ -2 - 4 + =b
2
9
9. Let P be a plane containing the line

Sol. xdy - ydx = x 2 - y 2 dx
x -1 y + 6 z + 5
= = and parallel to the line
3 4 2 xdy - ydx 1 y2
Þ = 1 - dx
x2 x x2
x -3 y -2 z + 5
= = . If the point (1, –1, a) lies æyö
4 -3 7 dç ÷
èxø dx
on the plane P, then the value of |5a| is equal
Þ ò 2
=ò
x
æyö
to ______. 1-ç ÷
èxø
-1 æ y ö
Þ sin ç ÷ = ln x + c
x -1 y + 6 z + 5 èxø
Sol. Equation of plane is 3 4 2 =0 at x = 1, y = 0 Þ c = 0
4 -3 7 y = xsin(lnx)
ep
Now (1, –1, a) lies on it so A= ò x sin(l n x)dx
10.
0
3
4 -3
5
4
a+5
2
7
EN
= 0 Þ 5a + 38 = 0 Þ |5a| = 38
Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential

1
æ e 2t
p
x = et, dx = etdt Þ ò e 2 t sin(t) dt = A
0
p
ö 1 + e2 p
ae 2 p + b = ç ( 2sin t - cos t ) ÷ =
è 5 ø0 5
equation xdy - ydx = ( x2 - y2 ) dx , x ³ 1, with 1 1
a = , b = so 10(a + b) = 4
LL
5 5
y(1) = 0. If the area bounded by the line
x = 1, x = ep, y = 0 and y = y(x) is ae2p + b,
then the value of 10(a + b) is equal to ______.
A
10

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Final JEE - Main Exam March, 2021/16-03-2021/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – MARCH, 2021

Sol. (n – 1)a = n(a')

L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

constant K is used, which has the same area as F

5. The angle of deviation through a prism is

P2 P1 field at this point is :

48 1014 Sol. PV = (n1 + n2 + n3)RT

A bar magnet of length 14 cm is placed in the

magnetic moment of the magnet is

2µ 0 m 7 (4) Point functions

Official Ans. by NTA (1)

Sol. Moment of inertia of point mass

13. Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside

45° period of pendulum will be :

Sol. Length of Antena = 25m =

Given m = 0.2 kg, T = 40 S, R = 0.2 m

field B pointing into the page. An external

The value of x to the nearest integer is

Official Ans. by NTA (20)

2. A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two 2500

factor of approximately 'x' × 10–1. The value

For 3rd line

5. The value of power dissipated across the zener P=

Consider a frame that is made up of two thin

B The configuration of pieces after collision is

Suppose the force is P resolved parallel to the

From conservation of momentum along x axis;

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – MARCH, 2021

(2) Vitamin A and Vitamin D

5. Match List-I with List-II :

Industrial process Application NaNO2, HCl "A"

(d) In Hall-Heroult process, electrolytic NaNO2+ HCl H2O/D

are : Statement I : The E° value of Ce4+ / Ce3+ is

(C) (D) In the light of the above statements, choose the

(CH3)3 CO–K+ "B" ,

14. Assertion A : Enol form of acetone Sol.

O 17. Match List-I with List-II :

correct correct explanation of A NH 3

Sol. H 2O charge due to less electronegativity.

Official Ans. by NTA (3) Net equation

1260 solution of AB2 is _______oC. (Round off to

Co Cl m e = 9.1 × 10 –31 kg ; c = 3.0 × 10 8 ms –1 ;

Ksp = S22 = 4 ´ 10 -12

[Assume 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41]

Sol. For BCC 3 a = 4r

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – MARCH, 2021

Official Ans. by NTA (2) ë-x + yû ë û

4 -1 2 ìg(x) + 2, g(x) < 0

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

3. Let ABCD be a square of side of unit length. Taking greater slope of CE as

Þ Det(PM) = Det((A – I)2 × P)

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – MARCH, 2021

The truth table is similar to that of a NOR gate.

bullet just before collision is : (Take g = 9.8 ms–2)

v (1) Unsteady to steady flow

Sol. The nature of flow is determined by Reynolds Sol. Given :

accelerating them through same potential of

(1) Auxilliary transformer Official Ans. by NTA (2)

(3) Both statement I and statement II are false

Official Ans. by NTA (4)

it. If the current is increased from 1.5 A to 3A, é1 + 0.2 ù

unbanked road with a speed of distance of 45 km. What should nearly be