Lower Anatomy

1. Which one of the malleoli facets has a tear drop shape? Medial
2. The oblique popliteal ligament is from what muscle? Semimembranosus
3. The posterior thigh muscles originate from what structure? Ischial tuberosity
4. What artery supplies the FDB? Medial plantar a.
5. What artery supplies the quadratus plantae m.? Lateral plantar a.
6. What muscle is between the anterior and inferior gluteal lines? Gluteus minimus
7. What inserts into the quadrate tubercle? Quadratus femoris
8. What part of the os coxae is formed by more than one bone? Acetabulum
9. What supplies the nutrient foramen of the fibula? Peroneal a.
10. Which bone is associated with os tibiale externum? Navicular
11. Which muscles can plantarflex and evert the foot? Peroneus longus and brevis
12. Which layer of the foot is the medial plantar a in? Between 1 and 2
13. The anterior compartment of the leg is supplied by which n? Deep peroneal n.
14. What innervates the EDB? Deep peroneal n. (lateral terminal branch)
15. What happens if you remove lymphatics? Edema
16. What is the blood supply to the peroneus tertius? Anterior tibial a.
17. Levels of lumbar plexus T12-L4
18. Common insertion of the TP, TA, and PL? Medial cuneiform
19. What adducts the toes? Plantar interossei
20. Which met base is kidney shaped? 1st
21. What muscles originate from the tibia and the fibula? EDL, Soleus, TP
22. Extranumery bone associated with the talus? Os trigonum
23. What flexes the leg and the thigh? Sartorious, Iliopsoas just for thigh
24. Which cannot be palpated? PIIS
25. Where is the fabella located? Lateral head of the gastrocnemius
26. What is the action of the tibialis posterior? Plantarflexion and inversion
27. In what compartment is the peroneal a. located? Deep posterior compartment
28. What muscles does the medial plantar n. supply? 1st lumbrical, Abductor hallucis, FHB, FDB
29. Where is the quadrate tubercle located? Posterolateral femur (just under
intertrochanteric crest and greater trochanter)
30. Where is the adductor tubercle located? Medial femur
31. What inserts into the trochanteric fossa? Obturator externus
32. What courses with the small saphenous vein? Sural nerve
33. What cuneiform articulates with 3 mets? Lateral cuneiform
34. What part of the hip joint contains hyaline cartilage? Lunate surface
35. What is the innervation to the gluteus medius? Superior gluteal n.
36. What innervates the adductor hallucis? Lateral plantar n.
37. What muscles pass under the superior extensor retinaculum? TA, EHL, EDL, and Peroneus Tertius
38. What m passes b/w the medial and lateral process of the talus? FHL
39. The first tarsal bone to ossify? Calcaneus
40. The last tarsal bone to ossify? Navicular
41. Cutaneous innervation to lateral side of the foot? Sural n. / LDCN
42. What 3 muscles attach to the base of the 1st met? TA, PL, & ?
43. Cuneiform articulates with one met only? Intermediate
44. The medial and lateral femoral circumflex a. comes off of? Profunda femoris (deep femoral a.)
45. Medial calcaneal a. comes off of? Posterior tibial a.
46. What does not flex the knee? Soleus
47. Type of saddle joint? Calcaneocuboid
48. First branch off of the anterior tibial a. Posterior tibial recurrent a.
49. What muscle unlocks the knee joint? Popliteus
50. Deep femoral a. Supplies all 3 compartments in the thigh
51. Which nerve has the same branches as the femoral? Obturator (L2,3,4)
52. Which nerve innervates the hamstring muscle of the thigh? Sciatic (Tibial n.)
53. Injuring the superficial peroneal n. will result in? Inability to evert foot
54. How many common plantar digital n. are there? 4
55. Which artery unpaired and supplies the knee joint? Middle genicular a.
56. What are the adductor muscles of the thigh innervated by? Obturator n.
57. Where does the deep peroneal nerve innervate? Anterior leg muscles
58. What artery supplies the cruciate ligament? Middle genicular a.
59. What does the lateral marginal v. dump into? Lesser saphenous v.
60. Ossification of cuneiforms? Lateral – 1st yr, Medial 2nd yr, Intermed 3rd yr
61. Where is the soleal line located? Posterior tibial – specifically from medial
proximal to lateral distal
62. Which of the following is not found in all synovial joints? Meniscus
63. Which muscle of the foot inserts into a tendon? Quadratus plantae m.
64. Which of the leg compartments has 2 arteries and 1 nerve? Deep posterior compartment
65. What attaches to the superior surface of the greater trochanter? Piriformis
66. Which tarsal bone has a peroneal groove? Cuboid
67. Which side of the calcaneous is the sustentaculum tali on? Medial
68. Ischial spine is on what coxal bone? Ischium
69. Bone with peroneal trochlea, ridge, and notch? Cuboid (calcaneus also has a peroneal trochlea)
70. What lip of linea aspera ends as gluteal tuberosity? Spiral line? Lateral lip, medial lip, intermediate lip
Pectineal line?
71. What is lateral inside the femoral sheath? Intermediate? Lateral is artery, Femoral V., femoral canal,
Medial? nerve is not in the sheath
72. What muscles are innervated by the femoral n. Anterior thigh
73. What is found under the nail plate? Nail bed
74. Knee reflex L2-L4
75. Ankle reflex S1-S2
76. What muscle medially rotates the tibia? Popliteus
77. Only syndesmosis in LE Distal tibio-fibular joint
78. Name the branches off of the dorsalis pedis Lateral and medial tarsal arteries, muscular
branches, arcuate a., ist dorsal metatarsal a.,
deep plantar a. (1st proximal perforating)
79. Ossification of the phalanges DPM (9-12 wk, 11-15 wk, >15 wk) secondary
2-8 yr, fusion 18 y
80. Which of the following bones has 2 centers of ossification? Calcaneus
81. Which inserts in medial proximal phalanx of 2nd toe? 1st lumbrical & 1st dorsal interosseous
82. Where does the long plantar ligament insert? Peroneal ridge of cuboid
83. What is the origin of the EDB Anterolateral floor of sinus tarsi and calcaneus
84. What muscle has an origin on the lateral fibula Peroneus brevis/longus/quartus
85. Where does the FHB originate Medial part of the plantar surface of the cuboid
bone and adjacent portion of the lateral cune, as
well as portions of the tendon of tibialis post
86. Nerve supply to the dorsal lateral aspect of the foot Sural n.
87. What nerve does the medial calcaneal branch from? Tibial n.
88. What artery penetrates the adductor magnus to supply the Perforating branches off the profunda femoris
lower end of the posterior muscles of the thigh
89. Nerve supply to the 5th digit LDCN – branch of sural nerve & IDCN to the
medial side from SPN
90. Nerve supply to the 2nd digit web space 2nd medial – deep peroneal nerve, 2nd lateral is
MDCN via DPN
91. Where does the perforating peroneal anastamose? In the lateral tarsal a. –interosseous membrane
92. What is the embryological order of appearance of the 1. Lower limb buds, 2. lumbosacral plexus, 3.
following structures Chondrification, 4. Ossification
93. What muscle does not go into the 5th digit EDB
94. Where do posterior thigh muscles originate from Ischial tuberosity
95. How many lymph nodes are in the foot? 0
96. What is the most MEDIAN tendon passing the ankle joint? Tibialis anterior
97. A lesion of what nerve in the leg causes loss of dorsiflexion: Common peroneal – deep peroneal
98. What muscle originates on the ischial spine? Superior gemellus
99. Where is the nutrient foramen on the tibia? On the posterior surface
100. The peroneal a. is in what compartment? Deep posterior
101. In which bone is the linea aspira? Femur
102. Which ligament has a Y shape? Iliofemoral ligament
103. Sensory innervation to the lateral heel? Sural n.
104. Lisfranc’s ligament Medial cuneiform and 2nd metatarsal
105. What is the proximal origin of the spring ligament (plantar Calcaneus – sustentaculum tali
calcaneonavicular ligament) is the deepest ligamentous
structure in the foot & contributes to the arch more than any
other single ligament (southerland’s bs)
106. What is the common insertion of the deltoid and spring Navicular (superficial anterior tibionavicular
ligaments? ligament of the deltoid)
107. What shares a tendon sheath with the peroneus longus Peroneus brevis
108. Comma shaped facet on the talus Medial
109. Nerve to the medial compartment of the thigh Obturator
110. Patella articulates with what bone only Femur
111. Medial rotator of the pelvis G.medius and minimus, TFL, gracilis, pectineus
112. Lateral and medial circumflex come from the Deep femoral – profunda femoris
113. Distal surface of medial cuneiform is what shape? Kidney
114. Muscle that abducts a toe from the midline of the body Adductor hallucis
115. If the anterior tibial a. is obstructed blood goes through what? Perforating peroneal
116. Which layer is the deep plantar arch in? The plantar arterial arch and deep branch of
LPN run in b/w layers 3 & 4
117. If dorsalis pedis is removed what will supply the circulation Anterior tibial a, and perforating peroneal
118. What is the most proximal branch of anterior tibial a. Posterior tibial recurrent
119. What muscle opposes the action of the 2nd dorsal interossei? 1st dorsal interossei
120. What artery do most of the dorsal metatarsal arteries branch? Arcuate a.
121. What artery do most of the plantar metatarsal arteries branch Deep plantar arch
from?
122. What structure is not on the proximal aspect of the femur? Linea aspera
123. What nerve supplies the dorsal 1st web space? Deep peroneal nerve
124. Iliofemoral ligament Y shaped, aka ligament of bigalow, strongest of
hip ligaments
125. Which muscle is attached to the tibia and fibula in the Tibialis posterior
posterior compartment
126. Which of the following does not cross the ankle joint EDB
127. Which surface of the cuboid doesn’t have a smooth articular? Lateral
128. Which is most easily palpated on the medial arch? Navicular tuberosity
129. What ligament does not stabilize the ankle joint? Talo-calcaneal ligament
130. Which ligament does not cross the midtarsal joint? Interosseous talo-calcaneal ligament
131. If the dorsalis pedis is not present what circulates anterior foot Perforating a. from peroneal
132. What muscle does not originate from the calcaneus Flexor digiti minimi
133. What does the deep peroneal n. innervate? Muscles of the anterior compartment, ankle
joint, 1st interspace (2,3 digital proper)
134. What do the medial and intermediate dorsal nerves innervate?
135. Axon is covered by endoneurium and together with 100’s of
others forms a fascicle which is surrounded by a perineurium,
few fascicles come together to form a nerve which is
surrounded by epineurium
136. Medial plantar n
137. ME NERVY GAL
138. Lateral plantar n.
139. Where does the medial calcaneal a. come from
140. Which layer of the foot does the medial plantar n. go through
141. All of the following are true about the dorsalis pedis except?
142. Internal pudendal n.
143. What nerve gives dorso-medial cutaneous innervation to the
3rd toe?
144. Femoral n. doesn’t pass in the muscular lacunae
145. What nerve innervates a knee flexor and knee extensor?
146. What innervated EDB
147. If you injure your tibial tuberosity what nerve fibers would be?
148. First branch off the femoral a. deviating laterally is
149. Which bursa is in the knee joint capsule?
150. In the posterior compartment there are
151. Where is the pectineal line associated within the pelvis?
152. What arteries are involved in the cruciate anastomoses?
They both innervate the medial and middle
dorsum of the foot. Medial forms the 1st, 4th,
and 5th digital proper, thus sensory for the
medial side of the dorsal foot. IDCN forms the
6,7,8,9 digital proper nerves thus is sensory for
the middle of the foot
Keys: Endoneurium, perineurium, and
epineurium
Terminal branch of the tibial n. Accompanies
medial plantar a. lying superficial and lateral to
the vessel. Innervates medial 3 ½ toes (1,2,3,
common plantar digital nerves, 2-7 plantar
digital propers), 1st plantar digital proper nerve
(1st lumbrical & FHB) LAFF. Supplies Lis
Franc’s midtarsus
Medial plantar nerve is greater than lateral
plantar n. but lateral plantar artery is greater
than medial plantar a.
Terminal branch of tibial n. B/w 1st and 2nd
muscle layers. Innervates lateral 1 ½ hoes.
Accompanies the lateral plantar a. and lies
superficial and medial to the vessel. Splits into
superficial and deep branches. The superficial
branch divides into
Lateral branch – 10th PDP, 5th MTP, plantar
lateral side of 5th toe, FDM & 3rd and 4th plantar
interossei.
Medial branch – 4th common plantar digital n.
forming 8th and 9th PDP. Innervates 4th and 5th
toe and skin on lateral aspect of 4th toe and
medial aspect of 5th toe.
The deep branch has articulating branches to the
tarsus and metatarsus muscles – 2nd, 3rd, 4th
lumbricals, adductor hallucis, 1st, 2nd, 3rd dorsal
interossei, and 1st and 2nd plantar interossei
Posterior tibial a
B/w 1st and 2nd
Originates from posterior tibial
Enters the peroneum thorugh the LCF coming
out through the GSF
Medial dorsal cutaneous nerve
Obturator
Lateral branch of deep peroneal
Saphenous n.
Superifical circumflex iliac a.
Suprapatellar
2 arteries and 1 nerve
Pubic bone
FILM – 1st perf branch of perfunda femoris, inf.
 Gluteal, med and lat femoral circumflex
153. Trochanteric anastomosis SLIM - superior glut, lat fem circumflex, inf.
Gluteal, and medial fem circumflex
154. Peroneal trochlea separates what Peroneus brevis and longus
155. What nerve supplies the inf gemellus Nerve to quadratus femoris and inf gemellus
156. What does the spring ligament support Head of the talus
157. Muscles originate from 3 surfaces of the tibia Yes true
158. Where do you find the pectineal eminence Superior ramus of the pubis
159. Nerve innervating at the anterior tubercle? Saphenous
160. The interosseous membrane of the leg gives part origin to TP, TA, EHL, and EDL
161. Ligaments of the deltoid Posteror talotibial, calcaneotibial, superficial
anterior talotibial, deep anterior talotibial, and
deep posterior talotibial
162. What ligament crosses the sagittal plane? Arcuate ligament of the pubis
163. The immediate source of the femoral a. External iliac a.
164. The immediate source of the long or great saphenous vein is Medial marginal vein
165. Greater saphenous vein drains into the Femoral v.
166. Lesser saphenous vein drains into the Popliteal v.
167. The perforating peroneal perforactes the Crural interosseous membrane
168. The posterior surface of the interosseous membrane of the leg Tibialis posterior
gives origin to
169. The groove on the posterior margin of the medial malleolus FHL tendon
has?
170. The tibialis posterior arises in part from Tibia, fibula, int membrane, everything except
1st and 5th mets, all phalanges and talus
171. The middle phalanx of the 2nd toe receives the insertion of the FDB
172. Each tendon of the FDB divided to allow the passage of the FDL
tendon of
173. The nerve which does not supply the toe area is Saphenous
174. The plantar surface of the 4th toe is innervated by Medial and lateral plantar = PDPN 7,8
175. Which of the following is not innervated by the MPN? 1st plantar interosseous
176. The head of the fibula receives the insertion of the Biceps femoris
177. The lateral plantar a. anastomoses directly with Deep plantar arch b/w 3rd and 4th muscle layers
of plantar foot
178. The muscle inserting at the styloid process of the 5th met Peroneus brevis
179. Most of the cutaneous n. supply to the heel is furnished by the Posterior tibial n.
180. In which plane does the leg move when kicking a football? Sagittal
181. Which of the following muscles origin reaches the most EHL
proximal on the leg? EHL, PB, FHL, EHB
182. The deep plantar perforating a. anastomosis with the Lateral plantar a/dorsalis pedis
183. Which of the following is not attached to the posterior surface FHL
of the tibia (popliteus, soleus, FHL, TP, FDL)
184. The secondary center of ossification of the phalanges of the Bases of the phanages
toes is in the
185. Which of the following does not take part in building the Anterior peroneal septum
anterior muscular compartment of the leg?
186. The largest branch of the posterior tibial a. is Peroneal
187. The lateral plantar artery supplies Most of the muscles in the foot
188. The profunda femoral a. is a branch of the Femoral
189. Behind the lateral malleolus, the peroneus longus tendon Rests in the lateral malleolar sulcus
190. Base of th 4th met Is rectangular
191. Lateral side of the great toe is dorsally supplied by the Deep peroneal nerve
192. Sural n. is synonymous w/ Short saphenous, lateral dorsal cutaneous
193. The soleus and tibialis posterior are separated from each other Deep transverse crural intermuscular septum
194. The outline of the outlet of the pelvis is the same as the Perineum
195. The largest artery of the foot is the Lateral plantar a.
196. The posterior perforating branches of the dorsal metatarsal Plantar metatarsal a
arteries anastamose with
197. Which of the following does not take part in the medial Arcuate a.
malleolar arterial network: ant medial malleolar a, posterior
medial malleolar a, arcuate a, medial calcaneal a. or medial
plantar artery
198. The largest nutrient a. is the one going to the Tibia
199. The largest nerve in the sacral plexus is the Tibial
200. The nerves which unite to form the sciatic n. are Tibial and peroneal
201. The immediate source of the medial dorsal cutaneous n. is the Superficial peroneal n.
202. The small sciatic nerve is also known as Posterior femoral cutaneous
203. The gastrocnemius Arises by two heads
204. The outline of the outlet of the pelvis is the same as the Perineum
205. The GSF is the opening through which what passes through Piriformis
206. The sural anastomosing branch comes off of Lateral sural cutaneous n.
207. The nerve supplying the lateral side of the 5th toe dorsally is da Sural n. (PDDN 10)
208. Ther terminal branches of the dorsalis pedis a are 1st dorsal metatarsal a., deep plantar a, arcuate a.
209. The main tributaries of the dorsal venous arch are Dorsal digital veins
210. The midtarsal joint is bounded anteriorly by the Navicular and cuboid
211. Which of the following does not flex the thigh on the torso: Piriformis
posas major, iliacus, priformis, rectus femoris, pectineus
212. Which of the following does not insert into the femur: iliacus, Sartorius
Sartorius, pectineus, adductor brevis, quadratus femoris?
213. The g. max is attached to the Iliotibial tract and band
214. The capsule of the ankle joint is attached to the Talus, tibia, fibula
215. All the muscles arising in the foot Insert into one/more phalanges
216. The intrinsic muscles of the sole of the foot all Aid in flexing a toe
217. The middle phalanx of the 2nd toe receives the insertion of the FDB, and EDL
218. The interphalangeal joints in the foot are Ginglymus
219. The tendon occupying the groove on the inferior surface of the FHI
sustentaculum tali is
220. The first met bone receives part of the insertion of the Tibialis anterior & peroneus longus
221. The major portion of the TA is into Medial cuneiform & 1st met bone
222. The EHB arises from Anterolateral floor of sinus tarsi and anterior
process of the calcaneus
223. The long plantar ligament “plantar calcaneocuboid” attaches to Cuboid, calcaneus, 2nd, 3rd , 4th met and
according to southerland 5th met also
224. The os peroneum is found in relation to which tendon Peroneus longus
225. The bifurcate ligament attaches to the Cuboid and navicular
226. The deep peroneal n. is synonymous w/ Anterior tibial n
227. Primary action of the tibialis posterior m. Invert the foot on the leg
228. The tendon of the peroneus longus m. passes through a groove Cuboid
on the inferior surface of the
229. The direct invertors of the foot on the leg are Tibialis anterior and posterior
230. The only intrinsic dorsal muscles of the foot are EDB/EHB
231. The tendon that is the second most medialward passing below EHL
the anterior annular ligament is
232. The insertion of the EDL is Middle and distal phalanges of the 4 lesser toes
233. The triceps surae refers to the muscular mass formed by the Gastrocnemius and soleus
234. The os trigonum is found in relation to the Talus
235. The tendon that passes b/w the two sesamoids found beneath FHL
the head of the first met is that of the
236. The peroneus longus passes under the trochlear process on the Calcaneus
237. The lateral dorsal cutaneous n is the continuation of which n Sural
238. Muscle that takes origin from the superior ramus of the pubis Pectineus
239. The short head of the biceps arises from the Linea aspera
240. The nerve that supplies the skin anterior to the femoral sheath Genitofemoral
is the
241. The medial sural cutaneous n. arises from which nerve Tibial n.
242. Which nerve is cutaneous to the skin of the heel? Tibial n.
243. The plantar surface of the talonavicular articulation rests on Spring ligament
244. The tendon of the muscle that passes through the groove on FHL
the inferior surface of the s. tali is
245. Which of the following muscles arise from 1 bone only: TP, None
Gluteus maximus, 1st dorsal interosseous
246. The superficial transverse metatarsal ligament connects Heads of the metatarsal bones
247. Attachment of the menisci to the tibia is direct Along the margins
248. The calcaneofibular ligament is often avulsed in Inversion sprain of the ankle
249. The deltoid ligament is Attached to the calcaneus
250. The tarsometatarsal interosseous ligaments Are attached distally to all met bones
251. The union b/w the tibia and fibula at the lower end is Syndesmosis
252. Nerve supply to the 1st dorsal interosseous m. Deep peroneal n.
253. The immediate source of the MDCN is Superficial peroneal
254. Medial rotation of the legs is not aided by Biceps femoris
255. Which of the following doesn’t have a common action to the PT
other (PT, FHL, FDL, TP, PL)
256. Which draws the 3rd toe laterally 3rd dorsal interosseous m.
257. The m that arises in part from the medial surface of the calcan Quadratus plantae & Abductor hallucis
258. The peroneus brevis tendon passes Above the peroneal tubercle
259. The homotype of the femur is the Humerus
260. The FDB tendon inserts into the 4 lesser toes at the Middle phalanges
261. The dep plantar a is a branch of Dorsalis pedis
262. The interossei are supplied by the Dorsal metatarsal a – dorsal, and plantar
metatarsal a –plantar
263. The medial branch of the IDCN supplies the adjacent sides of 3rd and 4th toes
264. Y shaped annular ligament Cruciate crural ligament
265. The flexor accessories m (quadratus plantae) is supplied by the Lateral plantar a.
266. The talonavicular articulation has how many ligaments 3
267. The trochlear surface of the talus is seen from Superior view (superior surface)
268. What muscles inset into the 1st cuneiform? TA, TP, PL
269. The metatarsal base which is prolonged backward into the 2nd
recess formed by the 3 cuneiforms is the
270. The tibialis externum is the sesamoid found in relationship to Navicular
the
271. Secondary action of the EHL Extension of the foot on the leg
272. The soleus arises from Tibia and fibula
273. The only tarsal bone w/ no muscular attachments Talus
274. The sinus tarsi is found b/w the Calcaneus and talus
275. The great saphenous v. anastomosis with the Femoral vein
276. The sural is synonymous w/ the LDCN, external saphenous n.
277. FHB is supplied by the Medial plantar a.
278. The spring ligament is found b/w the Calcaneus and navicular
279. The long calcaneocuboid ligament is synonymous w/ the Long plantar ligament
280. The tendon that passes under the lateral malleolus FHL
281. The articular face t of the lateral malleolus is Triangular
282. The posterior surface of the base of the proximal phalanx of Concave
the great toe is
283. Which of the following does not articulate w/ the lateral Calcaneus
cuneiform? Navicular, 3rd met, cuboid, 4th met, calcaneus
284. What is the longest m. of the body? Sartorius
285. Medial collateral ligament Talonavicular
286. Lateral marginal vein goes into which vein? Small saphenous vein
287. What muscle is the most superficial on the plantar side? FDB
288. 1st dorsal digital proper n comes off of Medial dorsal cutaneous from superficial
peroneal
289. 1st dorsal digital proper a comes off of 1st dorsal metatarsal a. branch from dorsalis
pedis a.
290. What is the largest branch off the posterior tibia a. Lateral plantar a.
291. Which set of muscles antagonize the 2nd dorsal interossei 1st dorsal interossei
292. Which of the following ligaments attaches to the posterior Posterior talofibular
lateral tubercle of the talus
293. Medial plantar n. gives how many common plantar branches 3
294. What can be palpated on the most superior aspect of the Navicular tuberosity
medial longitudinal arch?
295. Dermatome to dorsal medial hallux L4
296. Dermatome to dorsal lateral 5th digit S1
297. What is the great anastamoser? Deep circumflex iliac?
298. Which joint allows for flex/ext & abd/add? MPJ
299. On the cuboid which does not have a smooth surface? Lateral
300. 2 principle metatarsals participating in the great (general) 2nd and 3rd
tarsal joint are
301. Spring ligament Plantar calcaneonavicular
302. Short plantar ligament Plantar calcaneocuboid
303. Where does the saphenous n. come from Femoral n.
304. Block adductor canal and circulation goes through the Lateral femoral circumflex
305. Dermatome of anterior thigh medial to the knee L3 “L3 medial to the knee”
306. Where to both lumbricales and interossei insert? Proximal phalanx – the tendon of each
lumbrical passes plantar to the deep transverse
metatarsal ligament and the tendons of the
interossei run above the ligament
307. Dorsal interossei insert into which side of the proximal 1st into medial side of 2nd toe, 2nd into lateral
phalanx side of 2nd toe, 3rd into lateral side of 3rd toe, and
4th into lateral side of 4th toe
308. Nerve supply to the dorsal interossei? Deep branch of lateral plantar n. for 1,2,3 &
superifical branch for 4
309. Blood supply to dorsal interossei Dorsal metatarsal arteries
310. Nerve supply to the plantar interossei? Superifical branch of LPN – plantar 3, and deep
branch for 1 & 2
311. Purely sensory nerve of LE Saphenous n.
312. What inserts into the soleal line? Semimembranosus m.
313. What inserts above the soleal line Popliteus muscle
314. What originates form the soleal line? Soleus
315. What blood vessel accompanies the sciatic n. None
316. What muscle originates with a common tendon with Long head of the biceps femoris
semitendinosus
317. Which muscles originate from the intertrochanteric line Vastus medialis and lateralis
318. What muscles originate from the linea aspera All vasti, short head of biceps femoris
319. What makes up the lateral border of the femoral triangle Sartorius
320. What makes up the medial border of the femoral triangle Adductor longus
321. What limits backward slipping of femur on tibia and resists ACL (anterior drawer sign)
attempts to putt leg forward (prevents hyperextension of knee
joint)
322. What limits forward slipping of femur on tibia and resists PCL (posterior drawer sign)
attempts to push the leg backward on the knee (prevents
hyperflexion of knee joint)
323. What originates below the soleal line FDL
324. Triceps surae invertor/evertor Invertor
325. Which muscle is an antagonist to vastus medialis Popliteus
326. Which muscles of the 3rd layer of the foot insert into the FHB, FDMB, adductor hallucis (oblique head)
proximal phalanx
327. Medial side of the 5th toe supplied by Lateral plantar a.
328. Is the patella an accessory bone? No it’s a sesamoid
329. Name the abductors of the thigh Gluteus maximus, minimus, medius, piriformis,
obturator internus
330. Name the adductors of the thigh Quadratus femoris, obturator externus,
adductors, gracilis, pectineus
331. Posterior trunk of internal iliac Superior gluteal, iliolumbar a, and lateral sacral
a
332. Anterior trunk of internal iliac Inferior gluteal a., obturator, internal pudendal
a., umbilical, superior inferior vesicle, middle
rectal, uterine, and vaginal
333. What is the location of anterior tibial a. in proximal 1/3rd of leg b/w TA/EDL
334. In the middle 1/3rd of the leg B/w the TA/EHL
335. At level of ankle joint EHL/EDL
336. Branches off dorsalis pedis Medial and lateral tarsal arteries, 1st dorsal
metatarsal artery, 1st proximating perforating
deep plantar a., arcuate a., muscular branches
337. Where does the arcuate a. arise? 2nd met-cuneiform joint
338. What muscle doesn’t attach to the extensor hood of the 2 nd
Plantar interossei
digit?
339. Where does the iliotibial tract attach? Iliac crest
340. What is the dorsal innervation of the 5th digit? Sural n.
341. Which bone has a dorsal articulating surface? Talus, calcaneus
342. Where does the arterial supply to the dorsal medial hallux 1st dorsal met a.
come from
343. What ligament originates form the anterior tubercle of the Short plantar ligament
calcaneus
344. After tibialis posterior bifurcates into medial and lateral Quadratus plantae and FDB
plantar a., the lateral plantar passes b/w
345. Plantar arch is continuation of what artery and b/w what layers Lateral plantar a. b/w 3rd and 4th layer
346. Where does the lesser saphenous vein empty Popliteal v.
347. What muscle dorsiflexes and everts the foot EDL
348. In which plane is the primary motion of the knee Sagittal
Pharmacology
1. What happens to the eye when treated with atropine? Mydriasis (drooping of the eye)
2. TCA MOA? Blocks the reuptake of NE, serotonin, and dopamine
3. What drugs cause an SLE like RXN (drug induced lupus)? Procainamide, INH, hydralazine, phenytoin
4. DOC for post-surgical pain? Morphine
5. Pt comes in ER, is unconscious and respiration is Naloxone (Narcan)
depressed, what would you use? (heroin OD)
6. What rx is used as an antiemetic postop? Thioridazine
7. What are ACE inhibitors? Antihypertensives
8. What do you give for atropine poisoning? Physostigmine/Scopolomine
9. Which drug causes hair growth Minoxidil (Anti HTN VD)
10. What blocks the activation of histamine in asthma? Epinephrine
11. What antibiotics work on the cell wall? Penicillins
12. What does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? Erythromycin
13. Which do you not use with antacids? Tetracycline
14. Which substance increases muscle wasting? Steroid usage
15. Least sedating histamine blocker Terfinadine
16. Cross allergy b/w PCN? Carbapenems & Cephalosporins
17. Beta blocker with the least respiratory effects? Metoprolol
18. What anti-tumor rx work on the mitotic spindles? Vincristine & Vinblastine
19. Why do you give EPI with local anesthetic? Vasoconstriction, to keep the local anesthetic in longer
20. What inhibits cyclooxygenase? ASA
21. Precursor to PGE? Arachidonic acid
22. What is rapid tolerance to a drug? Tachyphalaxis
23. DOC for GP’s PEN G (IV)
24. How to you force the excretion of an alkaline rx? Acidify the urine
25. Rx given for urinary retention? Bethanachol
26. What inhalation anesthetic causes hepatitis? Halothane
27. DVT drug Heparin
28. What drug has side effects of gingival hyperplasia Phenytoin
29. What decreases gastric acid secretion best? Ranitidine
30. What rx is used orally to treat fungal infection? Griseofulvin, terbinafine
31. Drug the affects the closure of epiphyseal plate Androgens
32. What is inhibited by ranitidine? H2 receptors in the stomach
33. MOA of spironolactone A K+sparing diuretic, competitive antagonist of
aldosterone, Interferes with Na, K, H exchange that
causes a decrease in K+ loss in the distal tubule
34. Dose of Lidocaine plain 4.5 mg/kg BW
35. Dose of Lidocaine w/ EPI 7.0 mg/kg BW
36. Tx of Benzodiazepine OD Flumazenil
37. Tx of GP anaerobe Clindamycin
38. Can increase uric acid elimination by giving? Probenecid
39. Which rx is a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor Lovastatin (basically any statin)
40. Which rx can cause a gout attack? HCTZ
41. Rx given po for pseudomembranous colitis Vancomycin/ Flagyl
42. What rx’s are used to tx pseudomonas aeruginosa Aminoglycosides and extended spectrum penicillins
43. What is cimetidine for? Gastritis, peptic ulcer, esophageal reflux, zollinger
Ellison syndrome (excess gastrin syndrome)
44. Name the bacterial antibiotics PCN’s, fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins, vancomycin,
aminoglycosides, metronidazole
45. What does griseofulvin cause? Hepatotoxicity
46. Warfarin is it oral, what is it for? Oral, for chronic anticoagulation. NOT given during
 pregnancy b/c it crosses the placent. Should check the
PT, it affects the extrinsic pathway (WEPT)
47. Which is a long acting insulin? Protamine Zinc (Lente)
48. What is a treatment for arrhythmias? Quinidine
49. Tx for asthma Theophyllin, cromolyn, steroids, albuterol
50. Rx for infection that is methicillin resistant? Vancomycin
51. Which NSAID is least GI toxic Salsalate
52. What do you give to a pt who is multiple resistant to GP Vancomycin
53. Tx of Candida Nystatin, fluconazole
54. OD of atropine what would happen Mydriasis and blurred vision
55. Pt comes to ER w/ anaphylaxis what do you give? Epinephrine (remember EPI pen for allergies)
56. How do inhaled anesthetics work? Directly by blood gas coefficient
57. Contraindication for Ca+ channel blocker? CHF
58. What rx causes hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia, and HCTZ
hypokalemia?
59. What rx catalyzes the activation of antithrombin III and Heparin
does not cross placenta?
60. What AB would you use for a diabetic ulcer under the 3rd Vancomycin
met that is infected with GP cocci and anaerboes?
61. MOA of acyclovir Preferentially inhibits viral DNA polymerase when
phosphorylated by viral thymdine kinase-metabolic
analog of nucleic acid synthesis
62. Anticancer rx causing dehydration Vincristine (?)
63. Foot ulcer has fruity odor pseudomonas what drug do you 3rd generation cephalosporin
give?
64. Which of the diuretics can cause increase K+ Spironolactone
65. What is used for wide angle glaucoma? Pilocarpine
66. If you give a beta agonist, it has sympathomimetic effects Increase in salivary secretions (have dry mouth,
what will not occur? tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, blindness)
67. MOA for cromolyn sodium Inhibits mast cell degranulation
68. Which anticancer rx is nephrotoxic? Cisplatin
69. Pt walks in taking captopril, thiazides, digoxin, NOT cardiac arrhythmias
theophylline , and allopurinol, the patient is being treated
for asthma, CHF, and gout
70. What is the problem with loop diuretics? Hypokalemia
71. Causes tardive dyskinesia Halodol
72. DOC for rickettsial infections Tetracycline
73. Cardiac glycosides work by all except Inhibiting sodium in
74. Increases gastric motility Neostigmine
75. Reserpine Anti HTN depletes NE, DOPA, 5HT, from nerve
terminals, sedative and neuron blocker
76. Drug that inhibits DNA gyrase Ciprofloxacin
77. Drug that inhibits lipid synthesis in Mycobacterium TB Isoniazid
78. Doc for strep pyogenes infection of the throat Erythromycin
79. Tx of osteomyelitis that is also associated with Clindamycin
pseudomembranous colitis?
80. What is most commonly used for ventricular tachy? Lidocaine
81. Vit K antidote for ? Coumadin
82. Cimetidine (Tagamet) recommended for the tx of Peptic ulcer
83. DOC for tx of Reiter’s syndrome related urethritis Tetracycline
84. Name an anti-inflammatory agent used in the tx of gout Colchicine
85. Medullary depression occurs in which stage of anesthesia 4
86. DOC strep e? Pen G
87. Procaine is an Ester
88. DOC for bacteroides fragilis Clindamycin
89. What occurs in the 2nd stage of anesthesia Excitement/delirium
90. Esters are detoxified by The liver
91. Name a uricosuric agent used in tx of gout Probenecid, sulfinpyrazone
92. In what ways does a toxin rxn to a local anesthetic appear Stimulation, convulsion, depression, death
93. Sublingual administration w/ short onset and short DOA? Nitroglycerine
94. How would you avoid thrombophlebitis w/ IV Antibiotics, daily application of betadine
95. Amyl nitrate is usually administered by Inhalation
96. Once heparin is initiated, how long should it be continued? 10 days – until warfarin kicks in
97. Isoxuprine is used to treat Premature labor
98. K+ sparing diuretics act on the Distal renal tubules
99. Acetazolamide is a diuretic which inhibits Carbonic anhydrase
100. Which class of drugs block dopamine receptors Phenothiazine
101. Infusion of a low does of dopamine would produce Renal
vasodilation in which vascular bed?
102. Name the cholinesterase inhibitor agent that also ahs a Neostigmine
direct nicotinic effect
103. Which tetracycline is associated w/ grey baby syndrome Chloramphenicol
104. The hypnotic does of barbiturate acts mainly on the Cerebral cortex
105. Drugs that cross the BBB tend to have High lipid solubility and low molecular weight
106. In acute OD of acetaminophen, death usually results Hepatotoxicity
from
107. Furosemide is in which class of drugs Diuretic
108. Antidote for heparin Protamine sulfate
109. How many .25% bupivacaine can be administered w/out 70 cc
exceeding a dose of 175 mg
110. Which anesthetic agent stabilizes the myocardium to Halothane
catecholamines
111. The physiological antagonist of NE Acetylcholine
112. What does digitalis do the cardiac force and velocity of Increases them
contraction
113. B2 adrenergic receptors are found in which tissue Smooth muscle – like lungs
114. Allopurinol is a derivative of Purine
115. Which is likely to bring on an acute gouty attack Aspirin
116. Which of the following are Ca++ antagonists Verapamil and nifedipine
117. Lithium carbonate is used in the tx of Bipolar manic depressive illness
118. Which is an antiviral agent used in prophylaxis of Amantadine
influenza a
119. Which of the following diuretics has its action on the Acetazolamide
proximal tubule in the renal nephron
120. Which effect is not exhibited by acetaminophen Anti-inflammatory action
121. Which is the best tx for acute delirium tremens? Chlorodizepoxide (Librium)
122. Which would have the most significant effect to lower Captopril (b/c its an acei)
plasma angiotensin II levels?
123. Which is excreted unchanged in the kidney Chlorpropamide
124. Which mixed agonist antagonist Pentazocine
125. Which is a ganglionic blocking agent? Hexamethonium
126. Phenylephrine bines to which receptor site? Alpha 1
127. Does diazide increase/decrease uric acid? Increase (it can induce hyperuricemia)
128. The therapeutic effect of warfarin is dependent on the ½ II, VII, IX, X
 lives of which coagulation factors
129. Ringers solution is aqueous solution containing which Na, K, Calcium chloride
ions
130. Bretylium produces a block in release of NE
131. What effect does reserpine have on the action of Inhibition
adrenergic nerves?
132. What is a major therapeutic use of terbutaline Bronchodilator
133. An ergot alkaloid commonly used in the tx of migraine Ergotamine tartrate
headaches
134. Propoxyphene (Darvon-or Darvocet) is structurally Methadone
related to
135. Most commonly used for spinal anesthesia Terbutaline
136. Prevention of motion sickness Scoplomine, meclizine
137. Suldinac is most closely related to Indomethacin
138. Gold is used in tx of RA
139. Sulfonamides are effective mainly against GP bacteria
140. B1 adrenergic receptors predominate in Cardiac tissue
141. What percent of elemental iron does ferrous sulfate 20%
contain?
142. At which point does pH = pKa? Half neutralization
143. How do you treat systemic fungal infections? Amphotericin B
144. Longest acting local anesthetic Bupivicaine
145. What do you use loop diuretics for? Severe edematous states like CHF
146. What anticancer rx is also an antibiotic? Doxyrubicin
147. Interaction of itraconazole and terfenadine Ventricular arrhythmia
148. Metformin is used for Type II DM
149. Add triamterene to another diuretic to Decrease K+ loss
150. What is verapamil? Ca+ channel blocker used in HTN, angina, and
arrhythmias
151. Name 3 ca+ channel blockers Verapamil, nifedipine, and diltiazem
152. Succinylcholine Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug
Pathology
1. What blood group is the universal donor? O-
2. What causes Parkinsonianism? Lack of dopamine
3. MG is a result of Ab’s against AcH receptors at NMJ
4. CREST syndrome is associated with? Calcinosis, Raynauds phenomenon, esophageal
dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia, and diffuse
scleroderma
5. What can give you pulmonary embolus? DVT
6. What is the most common chromosomal disorder? Down Syndrome (trisomy 21) Note: it is also related
to ALL
7. Mesothelioma and bronchogenic CA are associated with? Asbestos
8. Hyperglycemia can be caused by all except? Insulin
9. Emergency problem with insulin? Hypoglycemia
10. Emphysema? Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
11. When vitamin B12 is not absorbed it causes? Pernicious anemia
12. What fluoresces coral red under the Wood’s lamp? Erythrasma (caused by Corynebacterium)
13. Disease characterized by reversible bronchospasm? Asthma
14. What is going on with a patient w/ neuropathy and elevated Alcoholism
liver enzymes? (AST:ALT inc ratio)
15. First Tx for NIDDM? Weight loss
16. Draining granular foot lesion Mycetoma
17. Down syndrome has an association with? ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIc Leukemia
18. Disease characterized by aneurysms? (subarachnoid Marfans, and mitral valve prolapse
hemorrhages)
19. Which is not a risk for atherosclerosis? Alcoholism
20. What is the cause of Libman sacks endocarditis? SLE
21. What disease replaces muscle tissue with fibrous material Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
and fat in a child?
22. Circular rings of cartilage in vessels, non-occlusive Munckeberg’s medial sclerosis (tunica media)
23. Patient with an irregular heart beat has a stroke, what is the Cause is embolic stroke
cause?
24. Young male with thrombosis (smoker) Buerger’s
25. Irregular cells Dysplasia
26. Pannus formation seen in? RA
27. Esophageal inflammation seen with? Gastric reflux
28. Why does diabetes insipidus cause polyuria? Lack of ADH/lack of renal response to ADH
29. What is characteristic of parkinsons? Resting tremor
30. A pathology in which one aa is swapped for another on the Sickle cell anemia
beta chain? glutamic acid to valine
31. A pathology related to aa’s with an aromatic ring? Phenylketonuria
32. What is Klinefelters syndrome? Male (XXY) testicular atrophy, eunucoid body shape,
tall, long extremities, gynecomastia, female hair
distribution, presence of inactivated X chromosome
(barr body)
33. Risk factors for atherosclerosis? Smoking, HTN, DM, hyperlipidemia
34. Frequent location of MI Left anterior descending (LAD>RCA>Circumflex)
35. Hyperglycemia is increased by: Glucocorticoids
36. Cause of essential HTN? There is no known cause
37. What is affected by poliomyelitis Caused by the polio virus, fecal oral spread, LMN
destruction, Destruction of cells in anterior horn of
spinal cord
38. Pathology in Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome Faulty collagen synthesis, causing hyperextensible
skin, tendency to bleed, hypermobile joints – 10
different types
39. Goodpasture syndrome Attacks lungs and kidneys, pulmonary hemorrhages,
renal lesions, hemoptysis, hematuria, anemia,
proliferative glomerulonephritis, anti glomerular
basement membrane, antibodies produce linear
staining on immunofluorescence, type II
hypersensitivity RXN, most common in med 20-40,
glomerulus & pulmonary
40. Hyperthyroidism Heat intolerance, hyperactivity, weight loss, chest
pain/palpitations, arrhythmias, diarrhea, increase
reflexes, warm, dry skin, fine hair, (Decrease TSH) if
primary and increase total T4 and free T4, increase
T3 uptake
41. Hypothyroidism Cold intolerance, hypoactivity, weight gain, fatigue,
lethargy, decrease appetite, constipation, decrease
reflexes, myxedema (facial/periorbital), dry cool skin,
coarse brittle hair. Increase TSH, decrease total T4,
decrease free T3, and decrease T3 uptake
42. Gout Involves purines, negative birefringence
43. What dz has antibodies to dsDNA? SLE
44. What dz causes pleural mesothelioma Asbestosis
45. What dz presents with Reed Sternberg cells, fever, painless Hodgkin’s dz
lymphadenopathy?
46. Most common cause of esophageal inflammation Gastric reflux
47. Where is a peptic ulcer located most often? Proximal duodenum
48. What is the most serious type of glomerulonephritis in SLE Diffuse
49. What causes bilateral ankle edema? CHF
50. Pt presents with eye, skin rash, periorbital edema, and Dermatomyositis
muscle weakness in the shoulder and pelvic girdle
51. Normocytic, normochromic anemia does not include: but it Iron deficiency
includes intravascular & extravascular hemolysis
52. Autosomal recessive defect affecting electrolytes? Cystic fibrosis
53. Pt with papule, plaques, and white scales? Psoriasis
54. Mother donates a kidney to her child, what type of graft is Allograft
this?
55. Myasthenia Gravis is what type of hypersensitivity II
56. TB is what type of hypersensitivity IV
57. SLE is what type of hypersensitivity III
58. Sjorgen is what type of hypersensitivity? III
59. Paget’s Disease of bone Condition caused by disordered bone remodeling,
where excessive bone reabsorption initially results in
lytic lesions, to be followed by disorganized and
excessive bone formation (aka osteitis deformans),
has an unknown etiology. Presence of
microfilamentous inclusions in paracrystalline array
suggests presence of a virus, increase in alkaline
phosphatase levels that correlate with osteoblastic
activity. Histologically its feature is of abnormal
arrangement of lamellar bone, with islands of
irregular bone formation-jigsaw puzzle/mosaic patter
in bone. Triphasic uncoupling of osteoblastic and
 osteoclastic activities
1) Hot – osteoclastic resorptive stage – tumor
like
2) Mixed stage of osteoclastic + osteoblastic
activity – larger than normal bone
3) Cold-burnt out stage – little cellular activity
thickened disordered bones
60. Lesch Nyhan syndrome is associated with Purine salvage problem owing to absence of
HGPRTase which converts hypoxanthine to
memophosphate (IMP) and guanine to guanosine
memophosphate. An X linked recessive – increase
uric acid production
61. Bence-Jones protein Is present in the urine in up to 75% of cases of
multiple myeloma. The neoplastic clone of plasma
cells may secrete excess light chains.
62. SLE 90% are female (14-45), fever, fatigue, weight loss,
joint pain, malar rash, pleuritis, pericarditis,
nonbacterial verrucous endocarditis, raynaud’s
phenomenon. Wire loop lesions in the kidney w/
immune complex deposition. Type III
hypersensitivity, nephrotic syndrome, shows false +
on syphilis test
Lab: ANA, antibodies to dsDNA & anti-smith
antibodies, most common & severe in black females.
SLE causes LSE (libman sacks endocarditis)
Drug induced – procainamide, INH, phenytoin,
hydralazine – produces an SLE like syndrome that is
commonly reversible
63. Dermatofibroma Common, benign dermal lesions composed of
fibroblasts and macrophages. Fibroblasts form ill-
defined small carwheels with small vascular space at
the center. The overlying epidermis is hyperplastic
and frequently hyperpigmented
64. Raynaud’s phenomenon Traditional discoloration sequence (white, blue, red),
pallor, cyanosis, and rubor with paresthsias
65. Raynaud’s syndrome Bilateral symmetrical occurrence of the phenomenon
(raynaud’s) as a result of underlying
collagen/autoimmune disorder
66. Which of the following results in osteosarcoma? Paget’s dz of bone
67. Gouty tophi are found in Synovia, capsule and cartilage
68. How thick is the typical RBC 7 microns
69. A highly malignant rare tumor of striated muscle Rhabdomyosarcoma
70. Congenital/acquired outpouching of the wall of the colon Diverticulosis
71. Bells palsy affects which CN? VII
72. What are the components of virchows triad? Blood flow stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial
injury
73. What dz is characterized by dry mouth, dry eyes, and RA Sjogrens syndrome
74. What term is used to describe congential hypothyroidism Cretinism
with retardation
75. The dx of pseudogout is established by demonstration of Ca++pyrophosphate
what in the joint fluid
76. Macrocytic anemia results in deficiency of Folate and B12
77. Actinic keratosis can or cannot become malignant It can
78. What causes fever 24 hours after surgery? Atelectasis
79. Malignant melanoma in situ? Lentigo maligna
80. Can superficial varicose veins lead to emboli? No
81. Reyes syndrome Occurs with AS (ankylosing spondolitis) in kids
82. Gaucher’s dz Spingolipidoses, deficiency of b-glucocerebrosidase
leading to glucocerebroside accumulation in brain,
liver, spleen, and bone marrow. Gauchers cells with
“crinkled paper” enlarged cytoplasm

83. Niemann pick dz Deficiency of sphingomyelinase causes build up of

spingomyelin and cholesterol in reticuloendothelial
and parenchymal cells. “cherry red macula” “No man
picks his nose with his sphinger.
84. ANA titer seen in SLE
85. Protein s Anticoagulant and w/out it you are going to get clots,
young girl with multiple miscarriages and DVTs
86. Polycythemia vera Increases erythrocytes-increases blood viscosity
Physiology
1. What hormone is secreted by the zona glomerulosa of Aldosterone, Glucocorticoids, Androgens,
the adrenal gland? Zona fasciculata? Zona reticularis? Catecholamines
Adrenal medulla?
2. Where is erythropoietin made? Hormone made to Kidney
promote formation of RBC.
3. What increases diffusion Solubility
4. Comparison of pulmonary and systemic circulation? Blood flow volume is equal
5. What does aldosterone do? Increased reabsorption of Na+ and increased excretion of
K+ decreased secretion of k+ into blood
6. What is the fastest conducting axon? Large myelinated
7. Which of the following require energy? Active transport
8. Which ion is a clotting factor? Calcium
9. Rapid repolarization is result of K+ efflux
10. What is lacking in smooth muscle? Troponin
11. Competitive inhibition can be reversed by Increasing substrate
12. Iron is carried in the blood by Transferrin
13. Best measure of excretion capacity of kidneys? Creatinine clearance
14. What aids the absorption of Vit B12 from intestine Intrinsic factor
15. What is the dicrotic notch? Closure of aortic valve and accompanying back pressure
16. Best way to build up skeletal muscle is Exercise
17. ADH (vasopressin) is secreted by what part of the Posterior lobe
pituitary gland?
18. What secretes renin Juxtaglomerular cells adjacent to afferent arterioles
19. 65% of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed where? Proximal convoluted tubule
20. Where does aldosterone act? Distal tubules
21. Where is melatonin produced? Pineal gland
22. Hard contraction of muscle resulting from sustained Tetanus
stimulus?
23. Which cell has the fastest AP? Nerve cell
24. What is true of both sympathetic and parasympathetic Presynaptic release of Ach
responses?
25. What represents and AV delay Increased PR segment
26. What represents purkinje? ST segment
27. Calcium binds to which molecules to produce muscle Troponin – skeletal m. & Calmodulin – smooth muscle
contraction?
28. After an MI, what is elevated First 6 hrs EKG is gold standard: troponin is used w/in 1st
8 hr, CK-MB is test of choice in 1st 24 hr post MI, LDH1
is test of choice from 2-7 days post MI. EKG changes can
include ST elevation (transmural ischemia) and Q waves
(transmural infarct)
29. What degrades blood clots? Plasmin
30. What does the T wave represent? Ventricular repolarization
31. What drives the AP in neuronal cells? Na+ uptake
32. Actin and myosin are together in which band? A Band, I band only actin
33. Increase urinary flow by: Dilating afferent arterioles (which will increase gfr and
rbf)
34. The major difference b/w skeletal and smooth muscle? Comparison of the contractile filaments
35. Which hormone interferes with Na+ movement in distal Aldosterone
tubules?
36. If there is a sudden large increase in venous pressure Increase in preload
what would be the direct effect?
37. If everything stayed the same what would decrease BP Decrease blood viscosity
38. Epinephrine decreases bronchial tone, decreases GI DOES NOT increase bronchial secretion
motility, increases HR
39. QRS complex deals with Ventricular depolarization
40. What happens in a 2nd degree heart block? Type 1 (Wenckebach) – shows a progressive prolongation
of PR interval until a P wave is blocked and not followed
by a QRS complex (dropped beat), and Type 2 (Mobitz)
shows sporadic or episodic “dropped” QRS complex
41. 1st heart sound Closure of the mitral and tricuspid (AV valves)
42. 2nd heart sound Closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves (semilunar
valves)
43. What is used for the uncoupling of actin and myosin ATP
complex?
44. Pars nervosa makes ADH
45. Rheumatic fever affects which heart valve? Mitral
46. Who is in positive nitrogen balance? Pregnant women
47. Thick filament Myosin
48. Thin filament Actin
49. What is characteristic of skeletal m. but not cardiac m.? Short AP duration
50. Treppe? Gradual increase in muscular contraction following
rapidly repeated stimulation (progressive increase in
developed force) =staircase or treppe phenomenon
51. Tetanus? The state of muscular contraction without periods of
relaxation
52. MOA of aldosterone Major product of mineralocorticoids of zona glomerulosa
(adrenal cortex). Sustains ECF volume by conserving
Na+. It is secreted in response to a signal from the JG
cells of the kidney. JG cells→ renin→ angiotensinogen
→ angiotensin I → angiotensin II → aldosterone → DCT.
May be responsible for K+ regulation. Stimulus for
secretion is decrease in blood volume and increase in
plasma K+. Action on kidneys: increase Na+
reabsorption, increase K+ excretion, increase H+
secretion in distal tubule
53. MOA of ADH Vasopressin is secreted from posterior pituitary. Acts to
regulate water in body fluid, synthesized by hypothalamic
neurons and regulated by osmotic and volume stimuli
acting on the renal cells responsible for reabsorption.
ADH increases vascular tone by vasoconstriction. Also a
CRF and ntm w.in brain for long term memory. Stimulus
for secretion is increase in plasma osmolarity, decrease in
blood volume. Action on kidneys: increase water
permeability of principle cells in collecting ducts
54. MOA ACTH A. pit hormone controlling the growth and secretions of
adrenal cortex, cortisol, and androgens. Exhibits circadian
rhythm, feedback and variety of stimuli. Mediated by
CRH
55. Gastrin Source: g cells of antrum and duodenum
Fx: stimulates secretion of HCl, IF, pepsinogen-
stimulates gastric motilitiy.
Regulation: stimulated by stomach distension, aa’s,
 peptides, vagus. Inhibited by secretin & stomach acid pH
<1.5. Hypersecreted in Zollinger Ellison syndrome –
peptic ulcer. Phenylalanine and tryptophan are potent
stimulators.
56. Secretin Source: S cells of duodenum
Fx: nature’s antacid, stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate
secretion, inhibits gastric acid secretion
Regulation: stimulated by acid and FA in lumen of
duodenum. Alkaline pancreatic juice in duodenum
neutralizes gastric acid allowing pancreatic enzymes to
function
57. What part of the GI tract absorbs aa’s Jejunum
58. Function of the liver Bile secretion, regulating metabolism (CHO, fat, protein)
degrading hormones (EPI, NE, steroids) and
detoxification, storage for fats, glycogen, vitamins
59. What is released at the neuromuscular end plate? Acetylcholine
60. Has a zona glomerulosa Adrenal cortex
61. Produces growth hormones Pituitary
62. Is composed of follicles Thyroid
63. Blood contained in the pulmonary veins is Returning from the lungs
64. The pulmonary veins convey blood from The lungs – left atrium
65. Worn out RBC’s are eliminated by what organ Spleen
66. Sperm are stored in the Epididymis
67. Sperm produced in Seminiferous tubules
68. JG cells of the kidney have direct contact with the Afferent arteriole
69. Most of the iodine in the adult body is found in the Thyroid gland
70. Glucocorticoids originate form the Adrenal cortex
71. What is the normal pH of blood? 7.4
72. What is the fxn of coagulation factor XIII Stabilize fibrin clot
73. Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume Inspiratory capacity
74. Functional unit of the kidney Nephron
75. A pt has normal CO2 but decreased bicarbonate Metabolic acidosis
76. What are gallstones mostly made of? Bilirubin, cholesterol, bile salts
77. The lowest pressure in the ventricles occurs when During isovolumetric relaxation of ventricles immediately
after ventricular systole
78. If pKa = 7, what % of acid is ionized at pH of 7 50%, pKa =pH @ 50% neutralization
79. Where does reabsorption of drugs occur in the kidney Distal tubule
80. Hypokalemia will cause ST depression
81. Residual volume Air in lung at maximal expiration
82. Expiratory reserve volume Air that can still be breathed out after normal expiration
83. Tidal volume Air that moves into lungs w/ each quiet inspiration
84. Inspiratory reserve volume Air in excess of tidal volume that moves into lungs on
maximum inspiration
85. Total lung capacity IRV + ERV + TV + RV
86. Vital capacity IRV + ERV + TV
87. Functional reserve capacity RV + ERV
88. Inspiratory capacity IRV + TV
89. What person is in + nitrogen balance Pregnant woman
90. Stroke volume CO/HR
91. If blood to the hypothalamus is hyperosmolar what Increase ADH
would happen
Microbiology/Immunology
1. Acute bacterial endocarditis Staph Aureus
2. What is coagulase and catalase positive? Staph Aureus
3. What do gram + not have? Outer membrane
4. What organism is blue-green with an odor? Pseudomonas
5. What is the major cause of peptic ulcers? H. pylori
6. What causes lyme disease? Borrelia burgdorferi
7. What produces antibodies? Plasma cells
8. Most common opportunistic mycosis Candida
9. What causes pseudomembranous colitis? C. Difficile
10. Where does herpes zoster lie dormant? Dorsal root ganglion
11. Rejection of an organ is mediated by T cells
12. What protects bacteria from phagocytosis? Capsule
13. Not a fx of T cells Manufacture of immunoglobulins
14. What facilitates phagocytosis Opsonins
15. Rice water stools? Cholera
16. What is the ELISA test looking for? Antibodies to viral proteins
17. Primary lung infection? Coccidiomycosis
18. What Ig fixes complement IgG – crosses placenta, IgM – doesn’t cross placenta
19. Hep A Picornaviridae, no chornic carrier state – fecal oral
20. Hep B Hepadnaviridae (STD) acute and chronic states
21. Hep C Flaviviridae – non A non B, acute and chronic state, most
common cause of post-transfusional hepatitis
22. Hep D Hepadnaviridae – requires obligatory helper function of hep B
virus b/c there is no outer protein coat
23. Hep E Caliciviridae – fecal oral route, water born
24. Spirochetes Borrelia, leptospira, and treponema
25. What produces cauliflower lesions? Bacterial endocarditis
26. Rickettsial diseases and vectors Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever – Rickettsia rickettsia
Endemic typhus – R. typhi
Epidemic typhus – R. prowazekii
Q fever – coxiella burnetti
27. Is typhoid fever rickettsial? No
28. Whooping cough Bordetella pertussis
29. Which form of IgG doesn’t bind complement IgG 4
30. A patient with Kaposi’s and lung problems? PCP – pneumocystis jeruvechi
31. What bug most often has antigenic drift? Influenza
32. What has pseudohyphae? Candida
33. Systemic fungus that mainly affects the Coccidiomycosis
lungs?
34. In which subcutaneous fungal dz do you see Sporotrichosis
asteroid bodies
35. What is the virulence factor for TB Cord factor
36. GN diplococcic Neisseria
37. When you are doing a KOH prep on a fungal Hyphae, budding, and spores
scraping what are you looking for?
38. What is the function of KOH fungal prep To dissolve the tissue in the scraping
39. How do you kill endospores Autoclave
40. What virus causes plantar verruca? Papovavirus
41. EBV is associated with Infectious mononucleosis
42. Urease + organism H. pylori
43. Gas gangrene Clostridum Perfringins
44. Cytoskeleton is made of Microtubules
45. What component of the bacterial cell wall Capsule
decreases phagocytosis
46. Oral thrush? Candida
47. Virus with reverse transcriptase, RNA HIV
suppresses T4 cells
48. Where are B cells mainly produced? Bone Marrow
49. Prokaryotic cells don’t have Membrane bound organelles
50. Organism associated with Clostridium difficile
pseudomembranous colitis
51. HIV virus has receptors for which of the CD4 T cell helper
following?
52. Fungal cell wall component Rich in ergosterol. Peptidomannans – major antigenic structure of
fungi, chitin – long unbranched cahins of poly-N
acteylglucosamine. Glucans –polymers of glucose. Chitin
provides cell wall strength
53. Staphylococcus species Catalase +, GP cocci, irregular clusters, NON spore forming,
NONmotile
54. Staphylococcus aureus Coagulase +, Catalase +, GP spherical cocci, irregular clusters,
creamy white to golden yellow on blood agar, metabolizes
mannitol
55. Staph epidermidis Coagulase -, Catalase +, ferments glucose DOES NOT ferment
mannitol, white colonies, no hemolysis, predisposed by
percutaneous placement of foreign bodies
56. Staph saphrophyticus Coagulase -, DOES NOT ferment glucose or mannitol. Second
most common UTI pathogen
57. Streptococcus Catalase -, GP, small ovoid cocci arranged in chains, pneummial
generally in pairs (diplococcic) NON-spore forming, NON-motile
58. Strep Pyogenes Group A Strep. Beta hemolytic, Bacitracin Sensitive. Causes:
rheumatic fever (progressive dz accompanying pharyngitis) may
cause valvular damage (mitral) murmur, enlargement and weak
heart. Must use prophylaxis. Scarlet fever, eryseipelas,
necrotizing fasciitis, and acute strep endocarditis
59. Strep agalactiae Group B Strep. Beta hemolytic. Leading cause of pneumonia,
sepsis, meningitis in first 2 years of life. * remember Group B for
babies
60. Strep anginosus Group A, C, F, G. Beta hemolytic
61. Strep pneumo Lancet or bullet shaped. Alpha hemolytic, no lancefield antigen.
Quelling rxn, optochin sensitive
62. Strep viridans Associated with dental work, alpha hemolytic, optochic resistant
63. What is the ONLY strep that is bacitracin Strep pyogenes
sensitive?
64. What causes lyme dz, and clinical Borrelia burgdorferi (spirochete), transmitted by bites of ixodes
manifestations of the dz? ticks. Primary syndrome: erythema chronicum migrans reddened
macular/papular lesion with central clearing and raised border.
Second manifestation: stiff neck-facial n. palsies, peripheral
neuropathy, cardiac manifestations. Mycoarditis – AV block.
Tertiary manifestations: recurrent arthralgia and arthritis.
65. Secondary to antibiotic therapy pt gets Clostridium difficile
diarrhea, what organism is responsible?
66. What is mycoses fungoides? Primary cutaneous T-helper cell lymphoma
67. Pontiac dz Legionella
68. Hansen’s dz Mycobacterium lebrae
69. UTI & Travellers diarrhea E. coli
70. Chancroid H. ducreyi
71. Pseudomembranous colitis Clostridium difficile
72. Gas gangrene C. perfringins
73. Woolsorters dz Bacillus anthracis
74. Plague Yersinia
75. Bacteria are frequently ingest by Neutrophilic leukocytes
76. Koplik spots occur in which childhood Measles (rubeola)
illness
77. Anaphylaxis is a rnx associated w/ IgE
78. Most frequent organism in suppurative woun Staph aureus
79. Eat a sandwich break out into hives which Ig IgE
is responsible
80. What will cause ulcerations and nodules Sporothris schanckii
along lymphatics?
81. What ig’s activate complement IgG, IgM
82. If a pt comes in having low T helper cells HIV
and getting lots of infections what dz is
responsible?
83. Which is true of EBV Transmitted by saliva
84. A cell that synthesizes and secretes antibody Plasma cell
85. What are the CSF findings w/ a bacterial inf? Decrease sugar
86. GP do not have a Lipopolysaccharaide and outer membrane
87. A main difference seen in bacterial Low glucose content
meningitis and not viral meningitis is
88. A person presents with vesicular lesions that Herpes
turned pustular then ulcerated, cause is
89. IL 1,2,3,4,5 IL1 – fever – (HOT)
IL2 – stimulates T cells (helper and cytotoxic) secreted by helper
T cell
IL3 – stimulates bone marrow
IL4 – stimulates IgE production
IL5 – stimulates IgA production
“Hot T-Bone Steak”
90. EBV and herpes simplex 1 are found latent B cells and dorsal root respectively
where
91. Yeast that goes into macrophages in an Histoplasmosis
immunocompromised patient with HIV
92. What causes ring enhancing lesions in the Toxoplasmosis
brain
93. Which bacteria don’t gram stain well? Treponema, rickettsia, mycoplasma, mycobacteria,legionella,
chlamydia “these rascals may microscopically lack color”
94. Fermentation pattern of N. meningococci & Meningococci – maltose & glucose & gonococci-glucose
gonococci
95. Pigments of s. aureus, pseudomonas S. aureus – gold
aeruginosa, and serratia marcescens P. aeruginosa – blue/green
S. marcesens – red
96. Which organisms have an IgA protease Haemophilus influenza, streptococcus pneumoniae, N.
allowing them to colonize mucosal surfaces? meningitidis & gonorrhoeae
97. Helper T cells cause B cell proliferation
98. St. Louis encephalitis Arbovirus
99. Acid fast bacillus that increases occurrence Mycobacterium avium intraceullulaire
of pneumonia in AIDS patietns
100. Heterophile infectious mononucleosis EBV
101. Non-heterophile mononucleosis CBV
102. Interferons innate or adaptive immunity Innate
103. Erythrasma caused by Corynebacterium
104. Fuzzy round lesions in lung Aspergillus
105. Tetanus toxoid what type of protection Artificial passive
Biochemistry
1. Which vitamin causes exfoliation? Vitamin A
2. Melanin is composed from what aa? Tyrosine
3. What is a precursor of serotonin? Tryptophan
4. What usually happens with electron transport? Oxidative phosphorylation
5. Scurvy Vitamin C deficiency
6. If a patient is starving where does the brain get Ketone bodies
glucose?
7. How many ATP’s are formed from glycolysis? 2
8. The key enzyme in glycolysis is? Phosphofructokinase
9. Chylomicrons are formed from Dietary TG’s
10. What promotes healing? Vitamin C
11. Glucose production from non-carbohydrate Gluconeogenesis
source?
12. Which is not part of DNA structure Ribose sugar
13. MOA of 5FU Inhibits thymidylate synthase
14. Ketogenic amino acids? Leucine and lycine
15. What is the parent comound of NE and EPI? Phenylalanine
16. Fat soluble vitamins A, D, E, K
17. Amino acid most likely to donate methyl group Methoinine
18. Name the essential aa’s Phenylalnine, valine, threonine, tryptophan, isoleucine,
methionine, histidine, arginine, leucine, lysine
19. Neutral aa Histidine
20. Krebs cycle occurs in all except Erythrocytes
21. Ceruloplasm is related to which mineral? Copper
22. HMG CoA is related to which cycle? Cholesterol synthesis
23. Which of the following are aromatic? Phenylalanine
24. mRNA from DNA Transcription
25. What does not occur in the krebs cycle? Net gain of OAA
26. Insulin will enhance Glycolysis, lipogenesis, and pentose phosphate pathway
27. What are tyrosine derivatives? Thyroxine, dopamine, EPI, melanin NOT creatine
28. HDL’s are best described as Scavengers of cholesterol from the peripheral tissue (to
liver)
29. Fats are stored as TG’s
30. Which carbohydrate has alpha 1-4, alpha 1-6 Glycogen
bonds?
31. Vitamin D deficiency can cause Rickets in children (bending bones), Osteomalacia and
hypocalcemic tetany in adults (soft bones)
32. What glycosylates proteins? Golgi Apparatus
33. Peptide chains of proteins that are secreted in the Rough ER
blood are synthesized in
34. What enzyme is responsible for the rate limiting Phosphofructokinase
step in glycolysis
35. In the TCA cycle, acetyl CoA reacts with what? OAA
36. Which vitamin is an antioxidant? Vitamin E
37. Oxidative phosphorylation produces ATP
38. What is a precursor of catecholames? Tyrosine
39. Pellagra is associated with deficiency of what? Vit B3 (Niacin)
40. Tophi develop in Purine metabolism defect (aka gout)
41. What tissue doesn’t have glucose-6-phosphatase? Muscle cannot produce glucose
42. What is the site of cyanide inhibition Cytochrome oxidase complex
43. Digestion of proteins Hydrolysis of amide bonds
44. Defective hydroxylation of aromatic rings Phenylketonuria
45. Which aa is optically inactive? Glycine
46. Net gain of anaerobic glycolysis 2 lactate, 2 ATP’s
47. Is the hydrophobic end of protein inside or Inside
outside the molecule?
48. What 2 aa’s go directly into the krebs cycle? Glutamate and aspartate
49. Alanine→ Pyruvate via Alanine aminotransferase
50. Which is not in plasma membrane in humans? DNA
51. Which of the following is found in relation to Propionyl CoA
odd-numbered FA?
52. Bile acids are conjugated with Taurine/glycine – gallbladder
53. After one week of fasting the brain uses B-hydroxybutyrate
54. Primary digestive process Mechanical disintegration, hydrolysis to enzymes,
emulsification by bile
55. Which is common to purine synthesis, purine (de PRPP (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate)
novo) synthesis, and pyrimidine synthesis?
56. Nicotinamide and adenine are parts of Co-enzymes
57. Which comes 1st in the pathway? Uric acid, AMP, IMP
IMP, DMP, OMP?
58. Uric acid is a breakdown product of Purines
59. What pathway is related to PRPP and NADH? Pentose phosphate shunt
60. After bilirubin is broken down it is Conjugated
61. What is a fat soluble vitamin? (cholecalciferol, Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D)
citrate, thiamine, or niacin)
62. Urea cycle steps “Ordinarily, careless crappers are also frivolous about
urination” → Ornithine → carbamoyl phosphate →
cirrulline → aspartate → arginiosuccinate → fumarate →
arginine → Urea (also glutamate)
63. cAMP Protein kinase activation
64. Pyruvate deficiency results in Lactic acidosis
65. What glycosylates proteins Golgi apparatus
66. A rxn of glycolysis that is not readily reversible Pyruvate kinase
67. Glucagon is secreted in response to Decreased blood sugar
68. Insulin stimulates Glycolysis
69. Insulin inhibits Gluconeogenesis
70. Which aa is the source of nicotinic acid for Tryptophan
pyridimidine nucleotide synthesis
71. All proteins Have peptide linkages
72. Proteins are least soluble at Their isoelectric point
73. An ester is best described as Rxn product of alcohol and acid
74. An ether may be designated as ROR
75. Osteomalacia will result from deficiency of Vit. D
76. AA’s are absorbed into the Portal system
77. Deamination of the most aa takes place in the Liver
78. One of the components of the kreb cycle is Fumeric acid
79. When a vegetable oil is converted to a solid fat Hydrogen
which element is introduced
80. Ethyl chloride is useful in podiatry b/c of its Boiling point
81. Covalence depends on Valence of carbone
82. Ketone can be prepared by Oxidation of a secondary alcohol
83. Ethyl alcohol + w/ N-butyric acid to give Ethyl butyrate
84. Which of the following is not a solvent? Propane
Methanol, chloroform, acetone, propane
85. pH means Negative log of the [H+]
86. Which of the following is a protein Globin
87. A practical test for protein in the urine is a Nitroprusside test
88. Glucose is synonymous w/ Dextrose
89. Lactose when digested will form One glucose and 1 galactose
90. Glycogen is A polysaccharide
91. Which of the following is a simple protein Albumin
92. The movement of charged particles in an external Electrophoresis
electric field
93. An enzyme falling in the category of esterases Lipase
94. Which of the following factors will not Pressure
appreciably influence enzyme action?
95. Which of the following vitamins plays an Vitamin K
important role in the synthesis of prothrombin
96. The formation of urea involves a complex cycle Ornithine
of numerous intermediates, one such important
one
97. Which will produce hypoglycemia? Insulin
98. Adenosine triphosphate is a Nucleotide
99. Driving muscle contraction Muscle glycogen – lactic acid
100. Carbonic acid rapidly decomposes to CO2 and Carbonic anhydrase
H2O in the presence of
101. Sulfanilamides is a biochemical antagonist of PABA
102. One eq of calcium hydroxide will react with 2 equivalents of HCl
103. The glass electrode is an important component for pH meter
104. The polarimeter is useful in determining Optically active compounds
105. Williams reagent is useful in determining the Proteins
concentration of
106. Long chain aa’s are Amphoteric in nature
107. The storage of iron in the liver in an adult is Ferric ion
almost entirely in the form of
108. Which of the following is not a major constituent Albumin
of normal urine?
109. A normal [glucose] in blood is maintained by the Liver
110. Hemoglobin is important in Respiration
111. Pepsinogen → pepsin when it reacts with Hcl
112. Ca++ plays an important role in Coagulation and calcficiation
113. Which is not a property of an enzyme? Ability to work on any substrate
114. Sterols are Solid alcohols w/ high MW
115. Peptide linkage holds together 2 Aa’s
116. Gastric lipase is an Enzyme
117. All of the following are bile pigments except Uroporphyrin
118. Which of the following is not an aa (alanine, Choline
cysteine, lysine, leucine, choline)
119. Vitamins A, D, E, K Fat soluble and essential for life
120. Which aa is involved in disulfide bonds? Cysteine
121. Degradation of glucagon by the liver is stimulated Insulin
122. Wernicke korsakoff syndrome is caused by Vitamin B1 deficiency in alcoholics – aka beriberi
123. Hematoma and bleeding into the joint are caused Vitamin C
124. Ketosis in DM Acetoacetate in liver
125. Why does glucose increase w/ epi Glycogenolysis
General Anatomy
1. What muscles are supplied by the spinal accessory nerve? Trapezius, SCM
2. What supplies blood ot the AV node? Rt. Coronary a.
3. What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome? Median n.
4. Root value of the phrenic nerve? C3,C4, C5
5. If you are hit behind the neck in the C4,5 area, what is Part of your breathing mechanism since the
affected? phrenic n. is involved.
6. Kyphosis Increased thoracic curvature
7. What supplies motor to the tongue? Hypoglossal nerve.
8. What nerve supplies the lateral rectus m.? Abducen (VI)
9. A kid falls from his bike, hits his head on the curb, later goes Middle meningeal a.
unconscious, what structure was affected?
10. Muscles of the rotator cuff? Teres MINOR, infraspinatus, supraspinatus,
and subscapularis
11. Damage to which nerve causes wrist drop Radial n.
12. Which nerve supplies the heart? Parasympathetic of the vagus
13. CN III muscle innervation Levator palpebrae, inferior, super, medial
rectus, inferior oblique, pupillary sphincter,
ciliary muscle
14. What are the mastication muscles Medial pterygoid, masseter, temporalis
15. Notochord Nucleus pulposis
16. What nerve passes in front of the ear and goes through the CN VII (facial nerve)
parotid gland?
17. What cranial nerve is responsible for taste in the ANTERIOR CN VII (facial nerve)
2/3rds of the tongue
18. What gives preganglionic sympathetic fibers? Greater splanchnic
19. Jugular notch is in what bone? Manubrium
20. The right coronary artery comes off of Ascending aorta
21. Pectoralis minor, biceps, and coracobrachialis muscles have a On the choracoid process
common insertion:
22. What artery supplies the posterior muscles of the arm Profunda brachii
23. What carpal bones articulate with the radius Scaphoid and lunate
24. Artery that passes anterior to the masseter at the mandible Facial
25. What is the shortest broadest rib? 1
26. Picture of the arterial supply ot the stomach Gastroduodenal
27. Involutes at puberty Thymus
28. The vertebral a. pass through foramina in the Cervical vertebrae
29. The right atrium of the heart receives blood by way of the Coronary sinus
30. The IVC is formed by the union of the Right and left common iliac veins
31. The thoracic duct empties into the Left subclavian v.
32. The sacral hiatus is usually present on the dorsal surface of 4th and 5th sacral segments
33. Kidney substance is nourished by blood carried by the Renal artery
34. Blood which nourishes the liver substance is carried by the Hepatic a
35. The substance of the lungs is nourished by blood carried by Bronchial a.
36. The mediastinum Is in the thoracic cavity
37. The floating ribs are so called b/c they Have no anterior articulation
38. No valves are present in the? SVC
39. The foramen magnum is located in the Occipital bone
40. The oropharynx is part of Respiratory and alimentary system
41. The thoracic duct drains lymph from More than ½ the entire body
42. The blood with the least undesirable ingredients is found in Pulmonary veins
43. Blood very rich in proteins is found in Portal v.
44. The majority of digested fats is conveyed by the Thoracic duct
45. The olecranon is part of the Ulna
46. The portal v. is formed by the union of Superior mesenteric and splenic
47. The right external jugular v. empties into Right subclavian v.
48. The basilar a. is formed by union of Right and left vertebral a.
49. The common carotid arteries Divide into internal and external branches
50. The main lymphatic vessel empties into the Left subclavian v.
51. The right lymphatic duct drains Both upper extremities, head and neck
52. The thoracic duct commences In the abdomen @ the cisterna chyli
53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cardiac m: Peripheral nucleus
purkinje fibers, syncytial arrangement, peripheral nucleus,
intercalated discs, sarcolemma?
54. The impulse conducting mechanism in the mammalian heart is Modified cardiac muscle fibers
composed of
55. Carpal tunnel syndrome will affect which nerves function Medial
56. 70% of drainage to the mammary glands is secreted to Axillary nodes
57. The specialized afferent nerve that supplies taste to the Geniculate ganglion
anterior 2/3rds of the tongue is the facial, but it goes to which
ganglion?
58. SA node is located in the Right atrium
59. Nerve root of phrenic C3,4,5
60. The left 5th intercostal space is the landmark of Apex of the heart
61. What is the first bone to calcify in the fetus Clavicle
62. What CN passes through the internal acoustic meatus VII, VIII
63. The gallbladder is found b/w which 2 lobes of the liver? Right and quadrate
64. How many permanent teeth does a normal adult have? 32
65. What structure contains haustra, fat tabs, and taenia coli? Large intestine
66. Which vertebrae contains a dens? Axis (C2)
67. Action of the sympathetic fibers leading to the eye promotes Pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
68. The superior sagittal sinus is located at the top of the Falx cerebri
69. The epithalamus is formed by the Pineal gland
70. The subclavian a. becomes the axillary a at what mark? Inferior border of the first rib
71. Which organ works as an exocrine and endocrine gland? Pancreas
72. What rami make up the brachial plexus Ventral rami C5,6,7,8 & T1
73. Middle ear deafness is a result of damage to the Tympanic membrane
74. Which artery enters the skull thorugh the foramen lacerum? Internal carotid a.
75. The fossa ovalis is located in which part of the heart Right atrium
76. The sternal angle serves as a landmark to locate 2nd rib
77. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there 31
78. In the skull the cribiform plate is part of which bone Ethmoid
79. Muscles of the erector spinal group Spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis
80. The axillary a. becomes the brachial a. at what landmark Lateral teres major
81. The vena cava enters the heart through the floor of the Right atrium
82. The jugular foramen contains which CN IX, X, XI
83. Which ribs are considered true ribs 1-7
84. Which meatus has the opening of the nasolacrimal duct? Inferior
85. The sternum is made up of Manubrium, body, xyphoid
86. What structure joins the transverse and spinous processes Lamina
87. Anterior intercostal a. branches are of the Internal thoracic a.
88. Which 2 vertebrae does spinal n. C8 run b/w C7 & T1
 89. If one inhales a coin which lung would it lodge into Right
90. Which fossa is associated with the pituitary gland Sella turcica
91. What structure is found b/w the liver and umbilical v. Falciform ligament
92. Where does the right coronary artery come off of? Ascending aorta
93. Which n is located anterior to the ear and enters gangion? Facial n.
94. Quiet respiration muscles Diaphragm
95. Space of disse is where Liver
96. Which heart vein is not a tributary of the coronary sinus Anterior cardiac v.
97. What part of the spine does the ligamentum flavum attach? Laminae

Neuroanatomy
1. Cerebellum is concerned with? Balance & coordination
2. What ganglia controls pain in the face? Trigeminal
3. Nerves that go below L2 Cauda equine
4. What makes CSF? Choroid plexus
5. All of the following cause hydrocephaous except Non-functioning choroid plexus
6. What secretes NE & epi? Sympathetic postganglionic
Pre sympathetic and para release ACH
Post ganglionic para release ACH
7. Which are pain fibers? Delta A, short are C
8. Where is dopamine concentrated? Substantia nigra
9. What is the 4th ventricle associated with Foramen of magendie
10. Function of schwann cells Myelinate PNS axons, a single schwann cell myelinates
only 1 PNS axon
11. Function of oligodendroglia Myelinate multiple CNS axons, in nissl stains, they
appear as small nuclei with dark chromatin and little
cytoplasm, predominant type of glial cell in white
matter
12. Cause of hemiballisms Sudden wild flailing of one arm, contralateral
subthalamic nucleus lesion
13. What are neural crest derivatives ANS, DRG, melanocytes, chromaffin cells of adrenal
medulla, enterochromaffin cells, pia, celiac ganglion,
schwann cells, odontoblasts, parafollicular (C) cells of
thyroid
14. What happens in spinal cord hemisection Brown sequard syndrome – ipsilateral motor paralysis
and spasiticity (UMN-pyramidal tract-coritcospinal
tract) Ipsilateral loss of tactile vibration, fine touch,
proprioception sense (dorsal column/posterior column)
Contralateral pain and temp loss, babinsky reflex
damage-3 segments down (spinothalamic tract)
Ipsilateral loss of all sensation at level of lesion
15. Which tract carries pain and temp? Spinothalamic tract
16. Pressure, 2 point tactile discrimination from the legs go Fasciculus gracilis – dorsal column
up to the which spinal tract
17. What is a sign of basal ganglia defect? Resting tremor
18. If there is a lesion in the optic chiasm the result? Bitemporal hemianopia
19. The vertebral a. is a branch off of the: Subclavian a.
20. 2 point tactile sensation goes to which tract Dorsal column
21. In which part of the cerebral cortex is the motor area? Precentral gyrus
22. Nissl bodies contain aggregates of the RER
23. A brainstem injury refers to what part of the brain Medulla oblongata
24. Babinski reflex is associated with what tract? Spinothalamic
25. Basal ganglia includes Putamen, caudate, globus pallidus, claustrum, amygdala
 26. Red nucleus gives rise to which tract Rubrospinal tract
27. If you close your eyes and fall over what is affected? Cerebellum/dorsal column
28. The thing that distinguishes the axon hillock in a normal Nissl body
perikaryon cell is
29. A cell of the CNS that develops from mesoderm Microglia
30. Vascular branches to the pons are given off from Basilar a.
31. What innervates the frontal sinus? Orbital nerve
32. What areas are cause for aphasias Brocas area- inferior frontal gyrus, broken speech
Werknickes – superior temporal gyrus, wordy aphasia
33. What are of the brain controls hunger? Hypothalamus

Histology
1. What is the function of microvilli in cells? Increase surface area
2. Transitional epithelium Bladder (urinary tract)
3. What iskeratinized stratified squamous epithelium? Skin
4. What connective tissue is has of parallel fibers? Dense Regular CT
5. What are Peyer’s Patches made of? Lymphoid follicles
6. What is smaller than RBC’s Platelets
7. Which cells can self replicate? Mitochondria
8. Type of collagen in bone Type 1
9. What connects epithelial cells together? Desmosomes (IgG antibody against
desmosomes in pemphigus vulgaris)
10. Phagocytic cells of the liver? Kupffer cells
11. Type of collagen in the basement membrane IV
12. Contains chief cells Parathyroid, stomach
13. Fibrocartilaginous laminae are found b/w the Body of the lumbar vertebrae
14. Chromatophores are seen in Reticular layer of dermis
15. Stains black with silver stain Reticular fibers
16. Have a strong resistance to pull Collagenous fibers
17. Never occur in bundles Elastic fibers
18. Forms a fine mesh-work Reticular fibers
19. Platelets arise from Megakaryocytes
20. Bone cells occupy cavities called Lacunae
21. The epithelial lining of the complete digestive tract is Varied, simple columnar in some places,
stratified squamous in others
22. The functional unit in the thyroid gland is the Follicle
23. In a peripheral blood smear, the anucleated cells smaller than Platelets
RBC’s are
24. The duodenum can be histologically differentiated from the Brunner’s glands
ileum by the
25. Which is not a living substance? Collagen fibers/keratin
26. Haversian systems in compact bone are interconnected by Volkmann’s canals
means of
27. Which type of epithelium lines the esophagus Stratified squamous
28. The chemical composition of dentin in teeth is most similar to Bone
29. Peyers patches are most commonly found in the Ileum
30. The vitelline veins become the definitive Sinusoids of the liver
31. The fascia of the abdominal wall consists of which layers Campers fascia & scarpie’s fascia
32. Chondroitin sulfate is a major part of CT
33. Which cell functions to form osteoid? Chondroblast
34. CT surrounding a single axon Endoneurium
35. Hair follicles arise from invagination of Epidermis