Agricultural Processing.

Structures and Allied Subjects Part I

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A dryer in which the material being dried moves through the drying chamber is substantially in continuous
stream without being reticulated.
a. Recirculating - type dryer c. Concurrent flow type dryer
b. Continuous-flow type dryer d. None of the above
____ 2. A continuous-flow dryer in which the product being dried moves in the same direction as the drying air.
a. Cross-flow type dryer c. Concurrent-flow type dryer
b. Counter-flow type dryer d. All of the above
____ 3. A continuous-flow type dryer in which the drying bin is a columnar type with louvers causing mixing to occur
as the grain flows through the system.
a. Mixing type c. Recirculating type
b. Non-mixing type d. None of the above
____ 4. A dryer in which the product of combustion comes into contact with the product being dried.
a. Indirect fired dried c. Combustion fired dryer
b. Direct fired dryer d. All of the above
____ 5. It is the ratio of the total heat utilized to vaporize in the material being dried to the amount of the heat added
to the drying air.
a. Dryer efficiency c. Heat of vaporization efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency d. All of the above
____ 6. A fraction of grain with its length equal to or greater than three-forth of the average
a. Large broken grain c. Head grain
b. Small broken grain d. None of the above
____ 7. An air moving device to force heated air through the mass of grain at a desired air-flow rate and pressure,.
a. Blower c. Fanning mill
b. Aspiration d. None of the above
____ 8. A mechanical grain dryer wherein grain is passed intermittently in cycles or stages through a drying chamber
either by mechanical means or by gravity with subsequent cooling and tempering until the grain reaches the
desired moisture content.
a. Batch-in-bin-dryer c. Multipass dryer
b. Flat-bed dryer d. All of the above
____ 9. A chamber wherein air pressure forms uniform distribution of heated air through the grain mass.
a. Plenum c. Duct
b. Bin d. All of the above
____ 10. The minimum requirement for drying efficiency based on the standard performance criteria for a mechanical
dryer.
a. 90% c. 50%
b. 75% d. None of the Above
____ 11. The minimum requirement for heating efficiency of direct-fired biomass-fueled grain dryer.
a. 75% c. 50%
b. 65% d. None of the above
____ 12. The minimum requirement for heat utilization efficiency based on the standard performance criteria of direct-
fired petroleum-based fuel for mechanical dryers.
a. 90% c. 70%
b. 805 d. None of the above
____ 13. Warranty period requirement for mechanical grain dryers.
a. 6 months c. One year
b. 12 moths d. Two of the above
____ 14. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel to the theoretical heat available from the fuel.
a. Burner efficiency c. Combustion efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency d. None of the above
____ 15. It is the percentage of grain free from foreign matter.
a. Percentage foreign matter c. Purity
b. Percentage cleanliness d. None of the above
____ 16. Pressure build up in the plenum chamber to maintain uniform distribution of air flow through the grain mass.
a. Velocity pressure c. Dynamic pressure
b. Static pressure d. Two of the above
____ 17. It is the temporary holding of grains between drying passes to allow the moisture in the center of the grain
equalize with that on its surface.
a. Tempering c. Dry -eration
b. Static drying d. None of the above
____ 18. It is the amount of moisture in the grain expressed as percentage of the total weight of samples.
a. Moisture content dry basis c. Moisture content
b. Moisture content wet basis d. All of the above
____ 19. It is the amount of moisture in the grain expressed as percentage of the weight of dry matter.
a. Moisture content dry basis c. Moisture content
b. Moisture content wet basis d. None of the above
____ 20. Screen cleaners that employ an air blast to assist in cleaning
a. Screen separation c. Blower
b. Fanning mill d. None of the above
____ 21. It is a part of belt conveyer that is use to discharge materials over the end of the belt by diagonal scarper.
a. Scraper c. Head pulley
b. Tripper d. None of the above
____ 22. A moisture meter that determines the moisture content of the product based on the ability of current to pass
through the material.
a. Capacitance type moisture meter c. Infrared moisture meter
b. Resistance type meter d. All of the above
____ 23. Moisture that can be found at the surface of the material.
a. Unbound water c. Free moisture
b. Bound water d. All of the above
____ 24. The blending of ingredients or material in agricultural processing operation.
a. Sorting c. Mixing
b. Molding d. All of the above
____ 25. It is a burr or plate mill.
a. Micro mill c. Roller mill
b. Attrition mill d. All of the above
____ 26. A process of reducing the size of material by applying force to the product in excess of its strength.
a. Shearing c. Milling
b. Crushing d. None of the above
____ 27. A process of reducing the size of materials by pushing or forcing or thin sharp knife into it.
a. Shearing c. Cutting
b. Crushing d. All of the above
____ 28. It indicates the uniformity of grind in the resultant product.
 a. Uniformity sex c. Fineness modulus
b. Particle size d. All of the above
____ 29. A process of reducing materials by a combination of cutting and/crushing actions.
a. Milling c. Shearing
b. Grinding d. None of the above
____ 30. If the amount of water in a product is determine based on its dry matter content, the moisture content is
express in _____________.
a. Wet basis c. Semi wet basis
b. Dry basis d. None of the above
____ 31. A method of measuring the moisture content of the product by direct extraction of water.
a. Primary method c. Tertiary method
b. Secondary method d. None of the above
____ 32. The process of detaching or separating rice grains from the panicle by combing action.
a. Stripping c. Harvesting
b. Reaping d. All of the above
____ 33. If 20kg of water is to be removed from 110kg of paddy, what is the percentage moisture content of paddy in
wet basis?
a. 1.8% c. 22%
b. 18% d. None of the above
____ 34. What is the percentage moisture content of paddy above when express in dry basis?
a. 22% c. 12%
b. 30% d. None of the above
____ 35. What is the amount of moisture to be remove from a material whose moisture contents 12 14.5% with dry
matter weight of 76kg?
a. 12.9kg c. 14.5kg
b. 24.1kg d. None of the above
____ 36. If a product has a percentage moisture content in dry basis is _____________.
a. 13.6% c. 13.4%
b. 16.3% d. None of the above
____ 37. A product express in dry basis has a percentage moisture content 25%, what is a percentage moisture content
of the product in wet basis?
a. 20% c. 26%
b. 22% d. None of the above
____ 38. If 9 ton of a product is to be dried from 24% to 145, the final weight of the product would be ___________.
a. 7,953.4kg c. 9,741.4kg
b. 8,837.3kg d. None of the above
____ 39. What is the moisture loss of the product in item above?
a. 1046.5kg c. 2634.4kg
b. 2285.4kg d. None of the above
____ 40. It is the measure of the power output of fun in relation to its power input.
a. Fan thermal efficiency c. Fan efficiency
b. Fan performance index d. All of the above
____ 41. The recommended depth of grain in a shallow bed dryer is
a. up to 12 inches c. up to 24 inches
b. up to 18 inches d. All of the above
____ 42. Recommended clearance for disk huller to achieve higher brown rice recovery with less breakage.
a. 1/4 the length of paddy grain c. 3/4 of the length of paddy grain
b. 1/2 of the thickness of the paddy grain d. Non of the above
____ 43. Manufacturer’s prescribed peripheral velocity of a disk huller is _________________.
a. 10m/s c. 18m/s
b. 14m/s d. None of the above
____ 44. Manufacturers’ recommendation for the speed of cone in a vertical abrasive whitening cone should not exceed
_________________.
a. 13m/s c. 15m/s
b. 14m/s d. None of the above
____ 45. Manufacturers’ recommendation for the speed of horizontal abrasive whitener
a. 800rpm c. 1200rpm
b. 1000rpm d. All of the above
____ 46. The process which air moves through stored grains at a low rate to maintain its quality.
a. Cooling c. Fanning
b. Aeration d. None of the above
____ 47. Maximum allowable safe height of sack pile in bag storage.
a. 12-16 sacks c. 28-30 sacks
b. 18-25 sacks d. None of the above
____ 48. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for paddy.
a. 5 bags c. 15 bags
b. 10 bags d. None of the above
____ 49. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for corn
a. 12 bags c. 16 bags
b. 14 bags d. None of the above
____ 50. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for milled rice.
a. 10 bags c. 20 bags
b. 15 bags d. None of the above
____ 51. If a pile of rice 8-m long, 6-m wide, and 3.6-m, how many bags of rice are safe to be piled?
a. 2592 bags c. 2295 bags
b. 2952 bags d. None of the above
____ 52. If 5000 bags of paddy is to be pilled 20-bags high, how many square meters of floor space is required?
a. 111sq.m. c. 211sq.m.
b. 121sg.m. d. None of the above
____ 53. A storage method wherein the gas concentration in storage atmosphere is changed.
a. Sealed storage c. Controlled atmosphere
b. Modified atmosphere d. All of the above
____ 54. A process of separating lower density materials from grains.
a. Aspiration c. Fanning
b. Cleaning d. All of the above
____ 55. A primary cleaner which separates larger particles or performs rough cleaning of grains.
a. Rotary sieve c. Vibrating screen
b. Scalper d. All of the above
____ 56. Recommended size of scalper for paddy is ______________.
a. 0.2-0.25m² per ton c. 0.4-0.45 m² per ton
b. 0.3-0.35m² per ton d. None of the above
____ 57. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator whose held pulley diameter is 0.2 m and the bucket projection
is 0.1 m.?
a. 77 rpm c. 160 rpm
b. 120 rpm d. None of the above
____ 58. If the operational efficiency of the bucket elevator above is 85% of the theoretical speed, what is the operation
speed of the elevator?
a. 65 rpm c. 136 rpm
b. 102 rpm d. None of the above
____ 59. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a bucket elevator whose capacity is 545kg/min and lift of
10.7m. The elevator is loaded down side.
a. 2.19 hp c. 2.91 hp
b. 1.92 hp d. None of the above
____ 60. A hydrothermal treatment of paddy before milling.
a. Parboiling c. Water treatment
b. Drying d. None of the above
____ 61. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is located at the _______________-.
a. Top of the huller c. Side of the huller
b. Bottom of the huller d. None of the above
____ 62. The capacity of compartment type separator is ________________.
a. 20-30kg brown rice per hour c. 70-80kg brown rice per hour
b. 40-60kg brown rice per hour d. Non of the above
____ 63. the amount of foreign material
s in a sample of grains.
a. Impurities c. Dockage
b. Chalky grain d. None of the above
____ 64. A storage practice in which grains are stored in loose form in a large container
a. Bag storage c. Bulk storage
b. Bunker storage d. All of the above
____ 65. A small metal probe for taking samples of paddy
a. Sampling tube c. Sampler
b. Tier d. None of the above
____ 66. Wooden frame used in staking bags of rice.
a. Tonnage c. Bag holder
b. Loading platform d. All of the above
____ 67. A ware house used for storing paddy or rice either in bulk or in bags.
a. Silo c. Farmstead
b. Go down d. None of the above
____ 68. Rough cleaning of paddy to remove most foreign materials prior to drying and storage.
a. Aspiration c. Sieving
b. Scalping d. All of the above
____ 69. A drying temperature of 45 C is equal to _____________-.
a. 113F c. 121F
b. 131F d. None of the above
____ 70. Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces 3950 kg brown rice and 3250kg. of milled rice, what is the
milling recovery?
a. 60% c. 70%
b. 65% d. None of the above
____ 71. What is the hulling coefficient of the huller in item above/
a. 0.79 c. 0.99
b. 0.89 d. None of the above
____ 72. If the head rice recovery of paddy in item above is equal to 85%, what is the amount of broken grains?
a. 487.50 kg c. 475.85 kg
 b. 478.85 kg d. None of the above
____ 73. What is the amount of rice hull produced during milling in item above?
a. 1000 kg c. 1100 kg
b. 1050 kg d. None of the above
____ 74. The optimum relative humidity for storing fruits and vegetables is
a. 60-70% c. 90-100%
b. 80-90% d. All of the above
____ 75. A two-ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from 245 to 14% in 8 hours. What is the final weight of the product
after drying?
a. 1767.4 kg c. 1776 kg
b. 1677.4 kg d. None of the above
____ 76. What is the drying capacity of the dryer in the item above?
a. 200 kg/hr c. 125 kg/hr
b. 250 kg/hr d. None of the above
____ 77. What is the moisture reduction per hour in the item above?
a. 29.07 kg/hr c. 20.97 kg/hr
b. 27.09 kg/hr d. None of the above
____ 78. The coefficient of friction of rice to a steel material is o.41. What is the minimum angle of hopper required for
the system?
a. 22 deg c. 50 deg
b. 30 deg d. None of the above
____ 79. The divisional layer between the dried and the undried products in a drying system.
a. drying layer c. drying front
b. drying zone d. All of the above
____ 80. Amount of the heat required to raise one gram of water one degree centigrade
a. One BTU c. One Joule
b. One calorie d. All of the above
____ 81. What is the peak storage capacity of a 5-m diameter grain storage bin with an average height and a minimum
angle of fill of 6m and 28 deg.
a. 126.5m³ c. 156.2m³
b. 162.5m³ d. None of the above
____ 82. The angle whose tangent equals the coefficient of friction between surfaces of the stored materials.
a. Angle of contact c. Angle of repose
b. Angle of friction d. All of the above
____ 83. Expression of moisture content commonly used in commercial scale.
a. Moisture wet basis c. Moisture content
b. Moisture content dry basis d. All of the above
____ 84. A solar dryer is used to reduce the moisture contents of four tons of paddy from 25% to 15% wet basis. The
amount of moisture removed is about _____________.
a. 471 kilos c. 714 kilos
b. 417 kilos d. None of the above
____ 85. A device that remove excess moisture generally by forced ventilation with or without addition of heat.
a. Fryer c. Dryer
b. Dehydrator d. None of the above
____ 86. A batch type dryer with vertical holding bin and is used for shallow bed drying.
a. 2 c. 2
b. 2 d. 2
____ 87. A batch type dryer equipped to circulate or mix grain during drying operation.
 a. Vertical-bin dryer c. Flat-bed dryer
b. Recirculating dryer d. None of the above
____ 88. A batch- dryer with horizontal grain holding bin is pass continuously through a drying chamber utilizing
agitator until the grain reaches the specified moisture content reduction per pass.
a. Batch dryer c. Recirculating dryer
b. Continuous flow dryer d. None of the above
____ 89. An air chamber maintained under pressure usually connected to one or more distribution duct in a drying
system.
a. Drying bin c. Air duct
b. Plenum chamber d. None of the above
____ 90. A machine that converts paddy to milled rice.
a. Paddy husker c. Rice mill
b. rice whitener d. All of the above
____ 91. An example of rice husker.
a. Rubber roll huller c. Steel-huller
b. Disk huller d. All of the above
____ 92. One ton of coconut will produce approximately _____________ of oil.
a. 400kg c. 600kg
b. 500kg d. None of the above
____ 93. A machine to remove bran.
a. Polisher c. Whitener
b. Husker d. All of the above
____ 94. It is a part of belt conveyor that is use to discharge materials over the end of the belt by a diagonal scalper.
a. Idler pulley c. Head pulley
b. Tripper d. None of the above
____ 95. it is the ratio of the quantity of light on the working lace to the quantity of light output from the source.
a. Room index c. Light intensity
b. Coefficient of utilization d. None of the above
____ 96. A log has a smallest diameter of 24 inches and a length of 18 inches.What is the net total number of board
foot that can be obtained from the log?
a. 450bd ft c. 550 bd ft
b. 500 bd ft d. None of the above
____ 97. A dryer component that can converts velocity pressure of the fan to static pressure.
a. Drying bin c. Manometer
b. Plenum chamber d. None of the above
____ 98. The percentage speed difference between rubber and rollers.
a. 15% c. 25%
b. 20% d. None of the above
____ 99. The maximum percentage of milling recovery that can be obtained from a rice mill is ________________.
a. 695 c. 80%
b. 75% d. None of the above
____ 100. Recommended clearance of disk huller to achive higher brown rice recovery with less breakage.
a. 1/4 of the thickness of paddy grain c. 3/4 of the thickness of the paddy grain
b. 1/2 of the thickness of paddy grain d. None of the above
____ 101. A vertical-axis hammer mill is more advantageous than the horizontal axis hammer mill for the reason that
____________________.
a. It is more effective in grinding grains with c. Less broken grains can be derive from
higher moisture content of up 25% vertical-exist hammer
 b. The power requirement of the vertical-axis d. None of the above
hammer mill
____ 102. A grain milling machine consisting of two cast iron disk plate with teeth or serration on one or both faces.
a. Hammer mill c. Roller mill
b. Attrition mill d. All of the above
____ 103. A grain milling machine suitable for grinding grains with moisture content of up to 30%
a. Hammer mill c. Roller mill
b. Attrition mill d. All of the above
____ 104. A type of mill used for crushing grains by allowing it to pass through a rotating cylinder steel one of which is
smaller than the other.
a. Hammer mill c. Plate mill
b. Roller mill d. All of the above
____ 105. The density of pig and poultry feed is approximately ________________-.
a. 250kg/m³ c. 650kg/m³
b. 450kg/m³ d. None of the above
____ 106. The auger that is centrally located at the vertical feed mixer usually rotates at a speed of _________________.
a. 100-250 rpm c. 400-650 rpm
b. 250-400 rpm d. None of the above
____ 107. Horizontal feed mixer is not advantageous for feed mixing as compared with vertical feed mixer for the
reason that _____________.
a. Horizontal feed mixer has lower capacity c. Horizontal feed mixer has lesser life span
b. Horizontal feed mixer has high power d. None of the above
requirement
____ 108. A type of bearing used for tightening bucket elevator belts.
a. Pillow block bearing c. take-up units
b. Flange bearing d. None of the above
____ 109. When a bucket elevator is to be fed at the downside section instead of the upside section of the elevator booth,
its power requirement will _____________.
a. Decrease c. The same
b. Increase d. None of the above
____ 110. A type of conveyor feeder used for feeding birds in cages on a poultry farm.
a. Flat chain feeder c. Round chain feeder
b. Auger feeders d. All of the above
____ 111. An electrically operated device commonly used for automatic bagging of grains or feeds.
a. Solenoid switch c. Load cell
b. Transducer d. None of the above
____ 112. Manufacturers’ prescribe peripheral velocity of disc-type huller.
a. 10m/s c. 18m/s
b. 14m/s d. None of the above
____ 113. Recommended peripheral speed of rubber roller for hulling operation.
a. 10m/s c. 18m/s
b. 14m/s d. None of the above
____ 114. Manufacturers’ recommendation for maximum speed cone on a vertical abrasive whitening machine.
a. 13m/s c. 18m/s
b. 14m/s d. None of the above
____ 115. An element used primarily to support axial compressive load and with a height of at lest tree times its least
lateral dimension.
a. Pier c. Beans
 b. Column d. None of the above
____ 116. A primary cleaner which separates larger particles or rough cleaning of rough rice.
a. Rotary sieve c. Vibrating screen
b. Scalper d. All of the above
____ 117. Recommended size of scalper for paddy cleaning.
a. 0.2-0.25m²/ton c. 0.4-0.45m²/ton
b. 0.3-0.35m²/ton d. None of the above
____ 118. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator whose head pulley diameter is 0.2m and the bucket projection
is 0.1m.
a. 77 rpm c. 160 rpm
b. 120 rpm d. None of the above
____ 119. If the operational speed of the bucket elevator in item above is 85% of the theoretical speed, what is the
operational speed of the elevator?
a. 65 rpm c. 136 rpm
b. 102 rpm d. None of the above
____ 120. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a bucket elevator with a capacity of 545kg/min and lift of
10.7 and the elevator is loaded down side.
a. 2.19 hp c. 2.91 hp
b. 1.92 hp d. None of the above
____ 121. A rice mill huller which produces high milling recovery.
a. Steel huller c. Stone disk
b. Rubber huller d. None of the above
____ 122. On the disk huller, the stationary disk is located on __________.
a. Top of the huller c. Outside of the hull
b. Bottom of the huller d. None of the above
____ 123. An air moving device which produce high airflow but low head.
a. Fans c. Compressor
b. Blower d. All of the above
____ 124. A device that is used to move oil.
a. Blower c. Compressor
b. Pump d. All of the above
____ 125. If mixing is needed to carryout during conveying, the suitable conveyor is __________.
a. Bucket c. Belt
b. Screw d. All of the above
____ 126. The horsepower requirement of belt conveyors includes power
a. To drive empty c. To drive a vertical
b. To drive at horizontal d. All of the above
____ 127. A conveyor with a high power requirement per unit capacity.
a. Bucket c. Pneumatic
b. Belt d. All of the above
____ 128. an air moving device suitable for grain cleaning.
a. Axial fan c. Cross flow fan
b. Propeller fan d. All of the above
____ 129. If the diameter of a blower is increased, the pressure will _________________.
a. Increase c. The same
b. Decrease d. None of the above
____ 130. A machine which separate paddy from brown rice.
a. Screen sifter c. Paddy husker
 b. Paddy separator d. Non of the above
____ 131. A machine that smoothen mild rice.
a. Whitener c. Sifter
b. Polisher d. All of the above
____ 132. Recommend for conveying product with less damage.
a. Bucket elevator c. Belt conveyor
b. Screw conveyor d. All of the above
____ 133. An air moving device commonly for drying which produces high pressure but low airflow.
a. Blower c. Compressor
b. Fan d. None of the above
____ 134. Recommend to remove metallic element during conveying.
a. Screen separator c. Pneumatic separator
b. Magnetic separator d. None of the above
____ 135. a machine that separate brown rice from paddy.
a. Scalper c. Rice whitener
b. Paddy separator d. Paddy husker
____ 136. The speed of fixed rubber roll from the adjustable roller on a rubber roll huller is slower by
______________.
a. 20% c. 30%
b. 25% d. None of the above
____ 137. A machine that is used to remove the bran from the brown rice.
a. Polisher c. Whitener
b. Grader d. None of the above
____ 138. A machine that is used to make milled rice shiny after removing hew bran layer.
a. Polisher c. Whitener
b. Grader d. None of the above
____ 139. A machine that is used to segregate various fractions/sizes of milled rice.
a. Whitener c. Whitener
b. Grader d. Non of the above
____ 140. A type of whitener consisting of fluted roller rotating inside the hexagonal chamber with slot-type
perforations.
a. Abrasive -type whitener c. All of the above
b. frictional-type whitener d. Non of the above
____ 141. Commonly used material handling equipment.
a. Bucket elevator c. Belt conveyor
b. Screw conveyor d. All of the above
____ 142. A conveyor which is essentially made of an endless belt operating between two or more pulleys with its load
supported by idlers
a. Bucket elevator c. Pneumatic conveyor
b. Screw conveyor d. None of the above
____ 143. A conveyor used for fine materials and is made of a helical plate which rotates on a trough and moves the
product by dragging.
a. Chain conveyor c. Screw conveyor
b. Pneumatic conveyor d. None of the above
____ 144. A material handling equipment which consist of cups attached to a chain or belt that revolves around a
bottom-and-top pulley where the cups are discharge.
a. Chain conveyor c. Bucket elevator
b. Belt conveyor d. None of the above
____ 145. A conveyor which utilizes high terminal velocity air to move the product.
a. Vibratory conveyor c. Pneumatic conveyor
b. Screw conveyor d. None of the above
____ 146. It is the method of determining grain moisture by directly extracting the moisture from the product.
a. Primary method c. Tertiary method
b. Secondary method d. None of the above
____ 147. An example of moisture determination using primary method.
a. Resistance type meter c. Oven
b. Capacitance type meter d. All of the above
____ 148. It is a method of determining moisture from the product which is based on the electrical properties of the
product
a. Primary method c. Tertiary method
b. Secondary method d. None of the above
____ 149. A device used in oven-drying to prevent dehydrated samples to reabsorb moisture while undergoing cooling
process.
a. Distilling flack c. desiccators
b. Glass jar d. All of the above
____ 150. It is the ability of the machine to remove hulls from the grains.
a. Coefficient of hulling c. Husking efficiency
b. Hulling percentage d. All of the above
____ 151. Outer layer of brown rice consisting of aileron cells covering the endosperm of the rice grain.
a. Hull c. Bran
b. Embryo d. All of the above
____ 152. The ASE standard agricultural pallet bin square shape bin.
a. 100 cm x 100 cm c. 150 cm x 150 cm
b. 120 cm x 120 cm d. None of the above
____ 153. The ASE standard agricultural pallet bin for rectangular shape bin.
a. 120 cm x 100 cm c. 150 cm x 100 cm
b. 150 cm x 120 cm d. None of the above
____ 154. Overall height of agricultural pallet bin as recommend by ASAE.
a. 72 or 133 cm c. 52 or 112 cm
b. 62 or 122 cm d. None of the above
____ 155. An auger capable of discharging materials to one or more locations.
a. Feeding auger c. Distributing auger
b. Portable auger d. None of the above
____ 156. An auger which releases conveyed materials essentially uniformly along a substantial portion of its length.
a. Feeding auger c. Distributing auger
b. Portable auger d. None of the above
____ 157. An auger whose accessories include a suitable support system which provides mobility.
a. Feeding auger c. Distributing auger
b. Portable auger d. None of the above
____ 158. Auger size refers to _______________.
a. The diameter of the auger c. The outside diameter of the auger tube
b. The inside diameter of the auger tube d. None of the above
____ 159. Hammer mills are designed purposely to _________________.
a. Chop forage materials c. Compact power product
b. Reduce the size of granular products d. None of the above
____ 160. The husking ratio of rubber roll huller is about ________________.
 a. 60-70% c. 95-98%
b. 80-90% d. None of the above
____ 161. A rice thresher that is feed at one end and discharge threshed product at the end is _______
a. Radial-type thresher c. Axial flow thresher
b. Hold on type thresher d. None of the above
____ 162. Commonly use threshing units for throw-in type thresher.
a. Peg-tooth c. Rasp bar
b. Wire loop d. None of the above
____ 163. Part of rice thresher that cause the movement of panicles from one end to the other end of the threshing
cylinder.
a. Louvers c. Pegs
b. Concave d. None of the above
____ 164. The recommended rpm of rice thresher cylinder
a. 400-600 rpm c. 2000-3000 rpm
b. 800-1200 rpm d. None of the above
____ 165. It is a dehulled paddy but the bran layer remains intact.
a. Rough rice c. Brown rice
b. Milled rice d. All of the above
____ 166. Measure the ability of the machine to remove hulls with minimum breakage.
a. Coefficient of hulling c. Coefficient of wholeness
b. Coefficient of breakage d. All of the above
____ 167. It is the extend by which the bran layer of the brown rice is removed as a result of whitening.
a. Milling degree c. Milling whitening
b. Degree of whitening d. All of the above
____ 168. A multi pass rice mill is determined by__________
a. Having two or three separate hullers in the c. Paddy is loaded several times in the rice
system mill
b. having a series of two or three whitening d. None of the above
machines
____ 169. It is the ratio of the weight of milled rice to the weight of paddy multiplied by one hundred.
a. Percentage head rice recovery c. Percentage milling capacity
b. Percentage milling recovery d. None of the above
____ 170. It is an un-hulled grain of Oryza sativa.
a. Palay c. Rough rice
b. Paddy d. All of the above
____ 171. An auxiliary device of a rice mill which receives the remaining small bran particles of milled rice and gives a
glossy appearance to the product.
a. Whitener c. Polisher
b. Grader d. All of the above
____ 172. An example of rice huller.
a. Steel-fluted c. Disk
b. Rubber roll d. All of the above
____ 173. A process of reducing the corn kernel into pieces of grits, germ, and pericarp with or without conditioning.
a. Dry milling c. Attrition milling
b. Hammer milling d. None of the above
____ 174. A machine used to remove the germ and pericarp from the corn kernel.
a. Conditioner c. Corn mill
b. De-germinator d. None of the above
____ 175. A major component of a corn mill used to reduce corn kernel into grits.
a. Roller mill c. Attrition mill
b. ball mill d. All of the above
____ 176. A kind of cleaner that uses air to separate lower density material from corn kernel/corn grits such as floured
corn, germ, and bran.
a. Aspirator c. Cleaner
b. Oscillating screen d. Cyclone separator
____ 177. A kind of rice mill that employs only one whitening machine.
a. “kiskisan” rice mill c. Rubber roll rice mill
b. Single pass rice mill d. None of the above
____ 178. Minimum hulling efficiency requirement for rice mill based on the standard performance criterion.
a. 90% c. 70%
b. 80% d. None of the above
____ 179. It is the process of re-wetting of dried corn kernels to about 18 to 22% moisture content and tempered to make
the pericarp and the germ more pliable and easier to remove during de-germination process.
a. Tempering c. Drying
b. Conditioning d. None of the above
____ 180. A storage system for holding buffer stocks usually located at shipping receiving terminals.
a. Village laves storage system c. Centralized storage system
b. Commercial level storage system d. All of the above
____ 181. It is a storage structure made of pre-fabricated reinforcement concrete of pre-fabricated metal siding, which is
either a hopper bottom or a flat bottom.
a. Warehouse c. Bulk container
b. Silo d. All of the above
____ 182. Size of wire mesh used in storage to protect stored product
from insects and rodents.
a. 1/4 inches mesh c. 3/4 inches mesh
b. 1/2 inches mesh d. All of the above
____ 183. GPEP stands for _________________
a. grain productivity enhancement project c. grain production enhancement program
b. Grain productivity enhancement program d. All of the above
____ 184. Areas of concern of Philippine Post harvest industry
a. Research and development c. Post harvest facility assistance
b. Training, extension and commercialization d. All of the above
____ 185. It is the fibrous layer of paddy when hull is removed and is frequently known as the silver skin of brown rice.
a. Lemma and plea c. Bran layer
b. pericarp d. None of the above
____ 186. The free space between the husk of rough rice and the brown rice kernel greatly affects milling in the since
that ____________
a. The larger the free space increase the c. The larger the free space, the smaller the
amount of broken grains breakage and losses
b. The smaller the free space the lesser its d. All of the above
abrasive effects to the rubber roller huller
____ 187. Slender type paddy has a length to width ratio of ______________
a. less than 2.0 c. More than 3.0
b. between 2 to 3 d. None of the above
____ 188. The uneven expansion and contraction of the inner and outer layer of the grain that cause fissuring is a factor
of __________
 a. Mechanical stress c. Physical stress
b. Thermal stress d. None of the above
____ 189. Broken rice is a quality deterioration index during ___________
a. Drying c. Milling
b. Threshing d. None of the above
____ 190. Changes in texture, odor, flavor and nutritive value of grains during prolonged storage, even in the absence of
insects and microorganism are due to _______________
a. Moisture and temperature c. vapor pressure and moisture
b. Vapor pressure and temperature d. None of the above
____ 191. It is recommended that paddy should be harvested when 80% of the panicle are fully ripe for the reason that
______________
a. Harvesting paddy below 80% will c. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce
produce more broken grains more shattered and broken grains
b. Harvesting paddy above 80% will produce d. All of the above
more empty grains
____ 192. It is the manual method of harvesting paddy using “yatab”?
a. Sickle harvesting c. Shipper harvesting
b. Panicle harvesting d. All of the above
____ 193. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to 14%. If the initial weight of corn is 1000 kilos, what is the final
weight/
a. 782 kg c. 218 kg
b. 827 kg d. None of the above
____ 194. Factors that cause migration of moisture during storage.
a. Variation of ambient temperature within c. All of the above
the grain mass
b. Moisture gradient within the grain mass d. None of the above
____ 195. It is the process of diffusion from region of high concentration to region of low concentration.
a. Energy transfer c. Heat transfer
b. Mass transfer d. None of the above
____ 196. In grain drying theory, drying will occur if __________
a. The vapor pressure of grains is higher than c. The vapor pressure of grains is equal with
the vapor pressure of air the vapor pressure of air
b. The vapor pressure of grain s is lower that d. None of the above
the vapor pressure of air
____ 197. The usual depth of grain in deep bed batch dryer is ___________
a. 18 inches c. 8 to 10 ft
b. 2 to 8 ft d. None of the above
____ 198. What is the relative humidity of air if the psychometer measure 40 C for both dry bulb and wet bulb
temperatures?
a. 40% c. 100%
b. 80% d. All of the above
____ 199. If the point is moved horizontally to the left of the psychometric chart, the process is ______
a. Heating c. Drying
b. Cooling d. None of the above
____ 200. If the end- product in milling is brown rice, the grain has just passed through a ___________
a. Paddy cleaner c. Whitener
b. Rubber roll huller d. Sifter
____ 201. What machine is usually used before brown rice will undergo whitening process?
 a. Husker c. Paddy separation
b. Aspiration d. Rice polisher
____ 202. Adjustment clearance for rubber brakes in vertical abrasive whitening cone.
a. 1 to 2 mm from cone coating c. 3 to 4 mm from cone coating
b. 2 to 3 mm from cone coating d. None of the above
____ 203. Maximum speed requirement of vertical abrasive whitening cone machine.
a. 13 m/s c. 15 m/s
b. 14 m/s d. All of the above
____ 204. Normal setting speed of horizontal abrasive whitener.
a. 800 rpm c. 1200 rpm
b. 1000 rpm d. None of the above
____ 205. Recommended clearance setting between stones of a disk huller
a. 1/4 of the length of paddy c. 3/4 of the length of paddy
b. 1/2 of the length of the paddy d. All of the above
____ 206. If the rubber roll huller becomes worn-out, the peripheral speed of the roller will __________
a. Decrease c. Be the same
b. increase d. None of the above
____ 207. It is the process of compressing mash feeds with the aid of live steam to produce small chunks or cylinders of
feed.
a. Mixing c. filleting
b. crumbling d. All of the above
____ 208. It is the complete destruction of all forms of life in the product being processed.
a. Cooking c. Pasteurization
b. Sterilization d. None of the above
____ 209. It is the process of heating the product nearly at boiling point to render its stable against spoilage by
microorganism.
a. Cooking c. Pasteurization
b. Sterilization d. None of the above
____ 210. It is the indicator of the quality of food which determines wether or not it is acceptable to the consumers.
a. Taste c. Palatability
b. Flavor d. None of the above
____ 211. It is the process applied in the manufacture of chocolate and similar products to produce a very marked effect
on appearance and flavor through the elimination of moisture, harshness, and acidity.
a. Conching c. Frying
b. Roasting d. None of the above
____ 212. A process of pumping product against a steel plate through a very small opening of 0.0001 diameter at a
pressure of about 3500psi to reduce the size of fat globule such as those in milk, mayonnaise and others to
appoint that fats have no tendency to rise.
a. Homogenizing c. Pressing
b. Conching d. None of the above
____ 213. It is the process often used in heating of can and its content under vacuum condition to remove air and other
entrapped gases before sealing.
a. Exhausting c. Heating
b. Sterilizing d. All of the above
____ 214. A process used for many food products by giving aeration treatment to improve the color, flavor, aroma
retention, or reduce the volume of the product.
a. Degassing c. Exhausting
b. Blending d. All of the above
____ 215. A process usually applied to nuts and beans of various sorts in order to bring about a desired flavor rather than
to effect on sterilization.
a. Drying c. Roasting
b. Blanching d. None of the above
____ 216. A processing used in canning in which there is rigid regulation of the cooking temperature in such a manner
that packages are not misshapen or broken by too rapid cooling.
a. Tempering c. Refrigeration
b. Freezing d. None of the above
____ 217. Brown spots on dried vegetables is caused by
a. Too high drying temperature used c. Optimum drying temperature used
b. Low drying temperature used d. None of the above
____ 218. A pretreatment method used for vegetables to destroy enzymes that can cause undesirable changes in color
and flavor during drying and storage.
a. Cleaning c. Drying
b. Blanching d. None of the above
____ 219. A pretreatment method for fruits and vegetables to retard spoilage and darkening of fruits.
a. Blanching c. Sterilizing
b. Sulfuring d. All of the above
____ 220. Roasting temperature for pumpkin seeds, and peanuts.
a. 200-250ºF c. 300-350ºF
b. 250-300ºF d. None of the above
____ 221. Pre-drying temperature requirement for mushroom.
a. 80-90ºF c. 250-300ºF
b. 120-125ºF d. None of the above
____ 222. A “case” formed like a leathery material over the outside of very high sugar food such as fruit doesn’t allow
water to pass through during drying is a factor of __________
a. Slow drying c. Normal drying
b. Rapid drying d. None of the above
____ 223. Pre-treatment of fruits and vegetables are recommended to ________________
a. Stop enzymatic activity which results in c. Hasten drying rate and improve storage
color, flavor, and nutrient losses or ability of the product
changes
b. Stop ripening and spoilage d. None of the above
____ 224. Another term for citric acid.
a. Table salt c. Acid salt
b. Lemon salt d. All of the above
____ 225. Requirements for a good dehydration.
a. Some form of temperature control c. Easily removable and washable trays
b. a fan to circulate air and remove moisture d. All of the above
____ 226. Rotating trays or exchanging trays on a dehydrator when drying fruits and vegetables is recommend for the
purpose of _____________
a. Reducing drying time c. Promoting even drying of product
b. Increasing the efficiency of the dryer d. None of the above
____ 227. Conditioning dried fruits after drying basically is done to ______________
a. Allow moisture to equalize through all the c. Improved the color and taste of fruit
food so that the there will no damp spots
where mold will grow
b. Increase the quality of dried fruit prior to d. None of the above
packaging
____ 228. Sulfured food are recommended for storage using
a. Metal can container c. Bottle with can cover container
b. Plastic container d. All of the above
____ 229. Recommend temperature for drying vegetables.
a. 125ºF c. 175ºF
b. 150ºF d. All of the above
____ 230. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Different foods requiring similar drying c. Don’t dry strong -smelling vegetables
times and temperature can be dried outside in an electric dehydrator because
together dehydrators are not screen and insect may
invade the food
b. Vegetables with strong odors or flavors d. All of the above
should be dried separately
____ 231. Sulfur treatment on fruits and vegetables can be replace by ______________
a. Sulfite dips c. Water belching
b. A team blanching d. All of the above
____ 232. An example of chemical used as sulfite dips.
a. Sodium bisulfate c. Sodium metabisulfite
b. Sodium sulfite d. All of the above
____ 233. Pasteurizing is recommended for foods that had been contaminated or used as second treatment for vegetables
in storage if the vegetables do not have any mold on them _______
a. Before drying c. After storage
b. Before and during storage d. All of the above
____ 234. Commonly method used for pasteurizing foods.
a. Freezing and open drying c. Boiling and drying
b. Steaming and belching d. None of the above
____ 235. Recommended storage time for dried food.
a. 2-4 months c. 12-24 months
b. 4-12 months d. All of the above
____ 236. Fruits rool that is characterize by tasty chewy dried fruit made by pouring pursed fruit into a flat surface for
drying.
a. fruit rolls c. Fruit leathers
b. Dried fruit d. All of the above
____ 237. Drying time requirement for solid yellow or slightly brown-flecked bananas in dehydrator.
a. 4-8 hours c. 10-16 hours
b. 8-10 hours d. All of the above
____ 238. It is the process of decomposition of carbohydrates by microorganism or enzyme.
a. Fermentation c. Preservation
b. Spoilage d. None of the above
____ 239. It is the preservation of food in brine or vinegar with or without bacterial fermentation.
a. Pickling c. Blanching
b. Salting d. None of the above
____ 240. A pre-treatment procedure to keep the color and quality of vegetable before drying.
a. trimming c. Salting
b. Blanching d. None of the above
____ 241. It is the process of boiling whole fruits or pieces of fruits pulp with sugar to a moderate thick consistency,
without retaining the shape of the fruit.
a. Jams c. Marmalades
 b. Jellies d. All of the above
____ 242. It is a product prepared by extracting the juice from boiled fruit, and then boiled with sugar and cooked to
such consistency that gelatinization takes place when cooled.
a. jams c. Marmalades
b. Jellies d. All of the above
____ 243. It is the aseptic practice in the preparation, processing, and packaging of food products.
a. Cleaning c. Housekeeping
b. Sanitation d. None of the above
____ 244. It is a clear jelly which contains evenly suspended slices of fruits or peel.
a. Jam c. Marmalades
b. jellies d. All of the above
____ 245. Substances used to prevent food by retarding deterioration, rancidity or discoloration due to oxidation.
a. Additives c. Emulsifiers
b. Antioxidants d. None of the above
____ 246. Substances that modify surface tension in the component phase of an emulsion to establish a uniform
dispersion.
a. Additives c. Emulsifiers
b. Antioxidants d. None of the above
____ 247. Any substances including a food additive used as a component in the manufacture of preparation of a food
and present in the final product.
a. Nutrients c. Ingredients
b. Micro-element d. None of the above
____ 248. Any tag, brand mark, pictorial, or other descriptive matter, written, printed, marked, embossed or impressed
on, or attached to a container of food.
a. Nutrition facts c. Trademark
b. Label d. None of the above
____ 249. Canning temperature for fruits, tomatoes, and pickles in water bath canner.
a. 115 deg C c. 74 deg C
b. 100 deg C d. None of the above
____ 250. Canning temperature for low acid vegetables, meat and poultry in pressure canner.
a. 115 deg C c. 74 deg C
b. 100 deg C d. None of the above
Agricultural Processing. Structures and Allied Subjects Part I
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1
2. ANS: C PTS: 1
3. ANS: A PTS: 1
4. ANS: B PTS: 1
5. ANS: A PTS: 1
6. ANS: C PTS: 1
7. ANS: A PTS: 1
8. ANS: C PTS: 1
9. ANS: A PTS: 1
10. ANS: B PTS: 1
11. ANS: B PTS: 1
12. ANS: A PTS: 1
13. ANS: A PTS: 1
14. ANS: C PTS: 1
15. ANS: C PTS: 1
16. ANS: B PTS: 1
17. ANS: A PTS: 1
18. ANS: B PTS: 1
19. ANS: A PTS: 1
20. ANS: B PTS: 1
21. ANS: B PTS: 1
22. ANS: B PTS: 1
23. ANS: C PTS: 1
24. ANS: C PTS: 1
25. ANS: B PTS: 1
26. ANS: B PTS: 1
27. ANS: C PTS: 1
28. ANS: C PTS: 1
29. ANS: C PTS: 1
30. ANS: B PTS: 1
31. ANS: A PTS: 1
32. ANS: A PTS: 1
33. ANS: B PTS: 1
34. ANS: A PTS: 1
35. ANS: A PTS: 1
36. ANS: A PTS: 1
37. ANS: A PTS: 1
38. ANS: B PTS: 1
39. ANS: A PTS: 1
40. ANS: C PTS: 1
41. ANS: B PTS: 1
42. ANS: B PTS: 1
43. ANS: B PTS: 1
44. ANS: A PTS: 1
45. ANS: B PTS: 1
46. ANS: B PTS: 1
47. ANS: B PTS: 1
48. ANS: B PTS: 1
49. ANS: A PTS: 1
50. ANS: B PTS: 1
51. ANS: A PTS: 1
52. ANS: A PTS: 1
53. ANS: B PTS: 1
54. ANS: A PTS: 1
55. ANS: B PTS: 1
56. ANS: A PTS: 1
57. ANS: A PTS: 1
58. ANS: A PTS: 1
59. ANS: B PTS: 1
60. ANS: A PTS: 1
61. ANS: A PTS: 1
62. ANS: B PTS: 1
63. ANS: C PTS: 1
64. ANS: C PTS: 1
65. ANS: B PTS: 1
66. ANS: A PTS: 1
67. ANS: B PTS: 1
68. ANS: B PTS: 1
69. ANS: A PTS: 1
70. ANS: B PTS: 1
71. ANS: A PTS: 1
72. ANS: A PTS: 1
73. ANS: B PTS: 1
74. ANS: B PTS: 1
75. ANS: A PTS: 1
76. ANS: B PTS: 1
77. ANS: A PTS: 1
78. ANS: A PTS: 1
79. ANS: C PTS: 1
80. ANS: C PTS: 1
81. ANS: A PTS: 1
82. ANS: B PTS: 1
83. ANS: A PTS: 1
84. ANS: A PTS: 1
85. ANS: C PTS: 1
86. ANS: B PTS: 1
87. ANS: B PTS: 1
88. ANS: B PTS: 1
 89. ANS: B PTS: 1
90. ANS: C PTS: 1
91. ANS: D PTS: 1
92. ANS: C PTS: 1
93. ANS: C PTS: 1
94. ANS: B PTS: 1
95. ANS: B PTS: 1
96. ANS: A PTS: 1
97. ANS: B PTS: 1
98. ANS: C PTS: 1
99. ANS: A PTS: 1
100. ANS: B PTS: 1
101. ANS: B PTS: 1
102. ANS: B PTS: 1
103. ANS: B PTS: 1
104. ANS: B PTS: 1
105. ANS: B PTS: 1
106. ANS: B PTS: 1
107. ANS: B PTS: 1
108. ANS: C PTS: 1
109. ANS: B PTS: 1
110. ANS: D PTS: 1
111. ANS: C PTS: 1
112. ANS: C PTS: 1
113. ANS: B PTS: 1
114. ANS: A PTS: 1
115. ANS: B PTS: 1
116. ANS: B PTS: 1
117. ANS: A PTS: 1
118. ANS: A PTS: 1
119. ANS: A PTS: 1
120. ANS: B PTS: 1
121. ANS: B PTS: 1
122. ANS: A PTS: 1
123. ANS: A PTS: 1
124. ANS: B PTS: 1
125. ANS: B PTS: 1
126. ANS: D PTS: 1
127. ANS: C PTS: 1
128. ANS: D PTS: 1
129. ANS: A PTS: 1
130. ANS: B PTS: 1
131. ANS: B PTS: 1
132. ANS: C PTS: 1
133. ANS: A PTS: 1
134. ANS: B PTS: 1
135. ANS: B PTS: 1
136. ANS: C PTS: 1
137. ANS: A PTS: 1
138. ANS: A PTS: 1
139. ANS: B PTS: 1
140. ANS: B PTS: 1
141. ANS: D PTS: 1
142. ANS: D PTS: 1
143. ANS: D PTS: 1
144. ANS: C PTS: 1
145. ANS: C PTS: 1
146. ANS: A PTS: 1
147. ANS: C PTS: 1
148. ANS: B PTS: 1
149. ANS: C PTS: 1
150. ANS: A PTS: 1
151. ANS: C PTS: 1
152. ANS: B PTS: 1
153. ANS: A PTS: 1
154. ANS: A PTS: 1
155. ANS: C PTS: 1
156. ANS: A PTS: 1
157. ANS: B PTS: 1
158. ANS: C PTS: 1
159. ANS: B PTS: 1
160. ANS: B PTS: 1
161. ANS: A PTS: 1
162. ANS: A PTS: 1
163. ANS: A PTS: 1
164. ANS: B PTS: 1
165. ANS: C PTS: 1
166. ANS: C PTS: 1
167. ANS: A PTS: 1
168. ANS: B PTS: 1
169. ANS: B PTS: 1
170. ANS: D PTS: 1
171. ANS: C PTS: 1
172. ANS: D PTS: 1
173. ANS: A PTS: 1
174. ANS: B PTS: 1
175. ANS: A PTS: 1
176. ANS: A PTS: 1
177. ANS: B PTS: 1
178. ANS: A PTS: 1
179. ANS: B PTS: 1
180. ANS: C PTS: 1
181. ANS: B PTS: 1
182. ANS: A PTS: 1
183. ANS: C PTS: 1
184. ANS: D PTS: 1
185. ANS: B PTS: 1
186. ANS: C PTS: 1
187. ANS: C PTS: 1
188. ANS: C PTS: 1
189. ANS: C PTS: 1
190. ANS: A PTS: 1
191. ANS: C PTS: 1
192. ANS: B PTS: 1
193. ANS: C PTS: 1
194. ANS: A PTS: 1
195. ANS: B PTS: 1
196. ANS: B PTS: 1
197. ANS: C PTS: 1
198. ANS: C PTS: 1
199. ANS: B PTS: 1
200. ANS: B PTS: 1
201. ANS: C PTS: 1
202. ANS: B PTS: 1
203. ANS: A PTS: 1
204. ANS: B PTS: 1
205. ANS: B PTS: 1
206. ANS: A PTS: 1
207. ANS: C PTS: 1
208. ANS: B PTS: 1
209. ANS: A PTS: 1
210. ANS: C PTS: 1
211. ANS: A PTS: 1
212. ANS: A PTS: 1
213. ANS: A PTS: 1
214. ANS: A PTS: 1
215. ANS: C PTS: 1
216. ANS: A PTS: 1
217. ANS: A PTS: 1
218. ANS: B PTS: 1
219. ANS: B PTS: 1
220. ANS: B PTS: 1
221. ANS: A PTS: 1
222. ANS: B PTS: 1
223. ANS: A PTS: 1
224. ANS: B PTS: 1
225. ANS: D PTS: 1
226. ANS: C PTS: 1
227. ANS: A PTS: 1
228. ANS: B PTS: 1
229. ANS: A PTS: 1
230. ANS: D PTS: 1
231. ANS: D PTS: 1
232. ANS: D PTS: 1
233. ANS: B PTS: 1
234. ANS: A PTS: 1
235. ANS: B PTS: 1
236. ANS: C PTS: 1
237. ANS: B PTS: 1
238. ANS: A PTS: 1
239. ANS: A PTS: 1
240. ANS: B PTS: 1
241. ANS: B PTS: 1
242. ANS: B PTS: 1
243. ANS: B PTS: 1
244. ANS: C PTS: 1
245. ANS: B PTS: 1
246. ANS: C PTS: 1
247. ANS: C PTS: 1
248. ANS: B PTS: 1
249. ANS: B PTS: 1
250. ANS: A PTS: 1