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CSS-04
PHYSICS

Q.29. (Diode biasing) 5. Three diodes are connected in series as shown

1. A circuit containing diodes is shown in the in the figure. The current flowing through the
figure, then diodes are

(1) 6 mA (2) 6.5 mA

(1) Only silicon diode conducts (3) 6.2 mA (4) Zero
(2) Both diodes conduct Q.21(Logic gate)
(3) Only Germanium diode conducts
1. Consider the following Boolean logic
(4) Both diodes remain off
2. In Q(1), the potential difference between point (a) 1 + A + B = 1 (b) A + B = A.B
A and B is
(1) 11.7 V (2) 11.3 V (c) A.B = A + B (d) A+ A=0
(3) 0.3 V (4) 0.7 V
3. The current flowing through the resistance of 1 Choose the correct logic expressions
k in the given circuit is (1) a and b only (2) b and c only

(3) a, b and c only (4) d only

2. Choose the correct Boolean logic, among the

following

(1) A. A = 0 (2) 1+A=A

(1) 11.3 mA (2) 12 mA (3) 0. A = A (4) A + B = A.B

(3) 11 mA (4) 11.7 mA 3. A logic gate is shown in the figure. The correct
4. The current flowing through the battery of 10 V expression of output Y is
in the given circuit is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) (A + B) A
(1) 9.3 mA (2) 9.7 mA
(4) A + B
(3) 10.3 mA (4) Zero
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CSS-04 Physics

4. A Boolean expression is given as Y = (A + B). Q. 1. (Photon-Wavelength-Momentum Relation)

(A + C). The given expression is reduced to 1. A single photon in vacuum differs from another
(1) A + BC (2) AB + C (1) In wavelength
(2) In energy
(3) ABC (4) AB + AC (3) In mass
5. The output Y of the given logic diagram is (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
expressed as 2. Regarding photons, which one is incorrect
statement.
(1) Through vacuum of space no matter what
their energy is, they always travel at same
speed
(2) All photons travel at speed of light in
vacuum
(3) Velocity of photons is slowed down when
(1) AB + AB (2) AB + AB
they pass through different media
(3) AB + AB (4) AB + AB (4) Photons in contact with matter may be
absorbed but their number remains
Q.18. (Photodiode)
conserved
1. A p-n junction photodiode is fabricated from 3. Which among the following properties is
semiconductor having band gap Eg. It can incorrect regarding photons.
detect the signal of wavelength , then (1) During matter-light interaction, in
hc hc photoelectric effect, absorption of energy
(1) Eg  (2) Eg 
  takes place in discrete units.
(2) The energy of photon is proportion to
2hc 2hc
(3) Eg  (4) Eg = frequency of light
 
(3) Photons always move with speed of light
2. A p-n junction photodiode made from a material (4) The photons are elementary particles
having band gap 1.9 eV. It can detect a signal despite lacking rest mass
having colour 4. Two photons A and B are travelling through
(1) Green (2) Violet vacuum and have wavelengths of 300 nm and
(3) Yellow (4) All of above 600 nm then
(1) Both photons have equal momentum
3. A p-n junction photo diode is fabricated from a
(2) Photon of short wavelength (300 nm) has
semiconductor with band gap Eg. When a signal
more speed in vacuum
having wavelength 6200 Å falls on the junction,
(3) Photon of short wavelength (300 nm) have
then electron from valance band edge transits
more energy
to conduction band edge. The value of Eg is
(4) Photon of longer wavelength (600 nm) has
(1) 2 eV (2) 1.8 eV more momentum
(3) 2.43 eV (4) 1.12 eV 5. An ultraviolet photon of 300 nm is absorbed by
4. A p-n junction photodiode is fabricated from gas and then re-emitted as two photons. One
semiconductor with a band gap 2 eV. It cannot photon is red of wavelength 750 nm. The
detect the signal of wavelength wavelength of second photon is
(1) 6200 Å (2) 6000 Å (1) 500 nm (2) 450 nm
(3) 1050 nm (4) 600 nm
(3) 5000 Å (4) 62000 Å
Q.4 (Kinetic Energy of Photo-electron)
5. A photodiode is fabricated from a 1. Light of frequency  falls on metal of threshold
semiconductor whose energy-band diagram is frequency 0, maximum kinetic energy of
shown in the figure. Then choose the correct
emitted electron is proportional to
option
(1) (–0) (2) 
(3)  – 0 (4) 0

2. The photoelectric threshold frequency of metal

is . When light of frequency 4  is incident on
metal, the maximum kinetic of the emitted
photo-electron is
(1) i =  (2) i >  (1) 4 h (2) 3 h
(3) i <  (4) i = 2 (2) 5 h (4) 2.5 h

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CSS-04 Physics

3. A surface irradiated by light of wavelength Q. 24 (-decay energy)

480 nm gives out electrons with maximum
speed of v ms–1, the cut off wavelength being
600 nm. The same surface would release
electrons with maximum speed 2v ms–1 if it is
irradiated by light of wavelength
(1) 325 nm (2) 300 nm
(3) 600 nm (4) 200 nm
4. For a certain metal, incident frequency is five
times threshold frequency , maximum speed of
coming out photoelectrons is 8 × 105 ms–1. If
incident frequency is twice of threshold
frequency, the maximum speed
photoelectrons will be
(1) 4 × 105 ms–1 (2) 3 × 105 ms–1
5
(3) 3.3 × 10 ms –1 (4) Zero
5. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is Ek = h- ,
In this equation, Ek refers to
(1) Kinetic energy of all emitted electrons
(2) Mean Kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(3) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron
(4) Minimum kinetic energy of incident photon
Q.8. (Intensity-Distance-Relation)
1. A 20 W linear source emits monochromatic light
of wavelength 6000 Å, when placed at 2 m in
front of a photosensitive surface which liberates
photoelectrons from surface. When source is
moved closer to distance of 1m, the number of
photoelectrons emitted
(1) Becomes double
(2) Becomes four times
(3) Becomes half
(4) Remains unchanged
2. A 10 W point source emits monochromatic light
of wavelength 4000 Å, when placed 1m in front
of a photosensitive surface, which liberates
photoelectrons from surface. When source is
moved away to distance of 3m. The number of
photoelectrons emitted from same surface
reduced by a factor of
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 9
3. Photon Intensity of incident light increases then
(1) Frequency of incident light increases
(2) Wavelength of incident light increases
(3) Number of photons emitted per second
increases
(4) Number of photons emitted per second
decreases
4. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright
source placed 1m away, when same source of
light is placed 0.5m away, the number of
photoelectrons emitted by photocathode would
(1) Increase by a factor of 2
(2) Increase by a factor of 4
(3) Decrease by a factor of 4
(4) Decrease by a factor of 2
5. A 100 W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly
in all directions. The lamp is located at the
centre of a large sphere that absorbs sodium
light incident over it. The wavelength of sodium
light is 589 nm. The number of photons
delivered per second to sphere is nearly
(1) 6 × 1018 (2) 3 × 1020
(3) 4 × 1016 (4) 5 × 1020
1. Regarding -decay, the correct statement is/are
(1) -decay is a type of decay in which a beta
particle is emitted from atomic nucleus
(2) When electron or position is emitted from an
atomic nucleus, it transform original nucleus
to isobar
(3) In negative -decay a neutron transforms it
into a proton by emission of an electron
accompanied by an anti neutrino
of (4) All of these
2. Tick the correct statement about -decay
(1) Unstable Nucleus obtain a more stable ratio
of protons and neutrons
(2) Binding energy of all existing nuclide
decides about -decay
(3) Positron and electron emission in -decay is
always accompanied by release of energy
(4) All of these
3. In −decay incorrect statement is
(1) Q value is the sum of kinetic energy of
emitted -particle, neutrino and recoiling
nucleus
(2) KE of recoiling nucleus due to large mass
can be ignored
(3) -particles are emitted with any kinetic
energy ranging from 0 to Q
(4) Kinetic energy of emitted neutrino is given
approximately by Q value plus kinetic
energy of emitted -particle
4. During -decay
(1) Angular momentum remains conserved for
whole system
(2) Linear momentum for the system remains
conserved
(3) Total charge during decay remains
conserved
(4) All of these are correct
5. During negative -decay
(1) Proton stays in nucleus and electron is
ejected energetically
(2) Emission occurs when ratio of neutrons to
protons in nucleus is too high
(3) This process increases the number of
neutrons by one and decreases the number
of protons by one
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
Q. 27. (Nuclei)
1. In electron-positron annihilation, the energy of
one -ray photon must be
(1) 1.02 MeV (2) 0.51 MeV
(3) 10.2 MeV (4) 2.04 MeV

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CSS-04 Physics

2. In the electron-positron pair production, select (1) 8  (2) 3

the incorrect statement
32
(1) Mass is conserved (3)  (4) 6
9
(2) Energy is conserved 3. The equivalent Resistance of the circuit across
(3) Momentum is conserved points A and B is (Assume diodes are ideal)
(4) (1) and (2) are correct
3. A gamma ray photon creates an electron-
positron pair. If the rest mass energy of an
electron is K1 and total kinetic energy of electro-
positron pair is k2 then energy of the gamma ray
Photon must be
(1) K1+K2 (2) 2 K1
(3) 2 K1+ K2 (4) 2 k1– k2
4. A neutron breaks into a proton and electron.
The energy produced in this reaction is 19
(1)  (2) 13 
[me = 9 × 10–31 kg, mp = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mn = 9
1.6747 × 10–27 kg]
36
(1) 0.51 MeV (2) 0.73 MeV (3) 10  (4) 
15
(3) 1.02 MeV (4) 1.46 MeV 4. The equivalent resistance of the circuit across
A
5. For a nucleus Z X when undergoes positive points A and B is ( Assume diodes are ideal)
beta decay, The decay equation is given as
Z X A ⎯→ Z −1Y A e + 
+1

The Q-value of this reaction is

(1) ( Mx − My ) c 2

(2) (Mx – My – me)c2

(3) (Mx – My – 2me)c2
(4) (My + me – Mx)c2
Q. 32 (Semiconductor Electronics) (1) 6  (2) 9
1. The equivalent resistance of the circuit across (3) 12  (4) 11 
points A and B is (Assume diodes are ideal) 5. The current in a segment PQ is (Assume diodes
are ideal)

13
(1)  (2) 2
2
(1) 2A, P to Q
14
(3) 4  (4)  (2) 2A, Q to P
5
2. The equivalent resistance of the circuit across (3) 6A, Q to P
point A and B is (Assume diodes are ideal) (4) Zero
Q42. (Semiconductor Electronics)
1. The rms voltage in the output of full-wave
rectifier fed a sinusoidal signal without filter is
20 V. The D.C. component of output voltage is
20 20
(1) V (2) V
2 

40 40 2
(3) V (4) V
 

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CSS-04 Physics

2. A sinusoidal signal of peak voltage 100 V is 4. The rms voltage in the output of full-wave
connected to a diode and resistor of 10  in the rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter
circuit as shown. The rms voltage across the is 20 V. The form factor is
resistor is (1) 1.21 (2) 1.57
(3) 1.1 (4) 0.48
5. Four diodes are connected to sinusoidal voltage
of rms value 220 V with a resistor R in the circuit
as shown. The effective output voltage is

100 100
(1) V (2) V
2 
(3) 100 V (4) 50 V
3. The peak voltage in the output of half-wave
rectifier fed with sinusoidal signal without filter is
200 V. The form factor is (1) 220 V (2) 220 2 V

(1) 1.21 (2) 1.57 220

(3) 110 V (4) V
(3) 1.11 (4) 0.48 2

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04 (Physics)
Answer Key

Q.29. (Diode biasing)

1. (3) Q.8. (Intensity-Distance-Relation)
2. (3) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (4)
4. (4) 3. (3)
5. (1) 4. (2)
Q.21(Logic gate) 5. (2)
1. (3) Q. 24 (-decay energy)
2. (1) 1. (4)
3. (2) 2. (4)
4. (1) 3. (4)
5. (2) 4. (4)
Q.18. (Photodiode) 5. (4)
1. (2) Q. 27. (Nuclei)
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (1) 2. (4)
4. (4) 3. (3)
5. (3) 4. (2)
1. (Photon-Wavelength-Momentum Relation) 5. (3)
1. (4) Q. 32 (Semiconductor Electronics)
2. (4) 1. (4)
3. (3) 2. (1)
4. (3) 3. (3)
5. (1) 4. (2)
Q.4 (Kinetic Energy of Photo-electron) 5. (2)
1. (1) Q42. (Semiconductor Electronics)
2. (2) 1. (4)
3. (2) 2. (4)
4. (1) 3. (2)
5. (3) 4. (3)
5. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
CHEMISTRY
Q.47. (Acidic strength)
1. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) CF3COOH (2) CH3COOH (1) (2)
(3) C6H5COOH (4) C2H5OH
2. Which chloro substituted carboxylic acid is most
acidic?
(1) CCl3COOH (2) HCCl2COOH (3) (4)

(3) ClCH2COOH (4) ClCH2CH2COOH

3. Acid of least pKa among the following is 3. Maximum enol content is of

(1) CH3COOH (2) C6H5COOH

(3) HCOOH (4) FCH2COOH (1) (2)
4. Which among the following on reaction with
NaHCO3 releases CO2(g) most easily? (3) (4)
(1) CH3OH (2) PhOH 4. How many number of H-atom(s) can involve in
(3) HCOOH (4) NCCH2COOH keto-enol tautomerism in
5. Most basic anion among the following is
(1) NO2CH2COO– (2) FCH2COO–
(3) CH3CH2COO– (4) HCOO–
Q.58. (Tautomerism)
1. Keto-enol tautomerism is shown by

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) (2) 5. Which among the following cannot tautomerise?
(1) CH3COCH3 (2) (CH3)2CHCOCH3
(3) (CH3)3CCOC(CH3)3 (4) (CH3)3CCOCH3
Q.49. (Haloform reaction)
(3) (4) 1. Iodoform test is given by
(1) CH3OH
(2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3CH2CH2CHO
2. Most stable enol form of is (4) PhCOPh

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CSS-04 Chemistry

2. Which on reaction with I2/NaOH gives yellow 4. Grignard reagent when reacts with carbon dioxide
precipitate? followed by hydrolysis in acidic medium forms
(1) CH3COCH3 (1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone
(2) CH3CH2CH2OH (3) Alcohol (4) Carboxylic acid
(3) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 5. Consider the reaction,
(4) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 CH3MgBr + A ⎯⎯⎯
H3 O +
→ Secondary Alcohol
3. Which pair of compounds cannot be distinguished A is
by I2/NaOH? (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Formaldehyde
(1) CH3CH2OH and CH3OH (3) Acetone (4) Acetic acid
(2) CH3COCH3 and CH3CH2CHO Q.71. (Chemical Properties of Amines)
(3) 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone 1. Which of the following gives positive isocyanide
(4) HCHO and CH3OH test?
4. Among the following which is not used as reagent
of haloform reaction?
(1) NaOCl (2) Ca(OCl)2
(1) CH3NH2 (2)
(3) Cl2/NaOH (4) Cl2+HCl
5. Which among the following will not give iodoform
(3) CH3–NH–CH3 (4) Both (1) and (2)
test?
2. Hinsberg’s reagent is used to distinguish between
(1) CH3COCH3 (2) CH3COCH2CH3
(1) CH3CH2NH2 and CH3NH2
(2) CH3CH2NH2 and CH3CH2NHCH2CH3
(3) (4) PhCH2COCH3
Q.50. (Grignard reagent) (3) CH3NH2 and
1. Consider the reaction,
(4)
B is
3. C6H5NH2 and C2H5NH2 can be chemically
(1) Benzophenone (2) Acetophenone
distinguished using
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid
(1) Nitrous acid (2) Isocyanide test
2. Consider the reaction,
(3) Hinsberg’s Reagent (4) Iodoform test
4. Consider the following reaction,

CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH ⎯⎯ → A + KCl + H2O
Foul
Identify R Smelling
Substance

A is
(1) (2)
(1) CH3CN
(2) CH3NC
(3) CH3– (4) CH3–CH2–
(3) CH3–NH–CH3
3. In which of the following reactions, alkane is
(4) CH3NO2
obtained?
5. In the given reaction,
(i) CH3CH2MgBr + H2O →
(ii) CH3CH2MgBr + HCHO →
(iii) CH3CH2MgBr + NH3 →
(iv) CH3CH2MgBr + C2H5OH →
(1) (i) only (2) (i), and (iii) only orange coloured dye

(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) only A and B respectively are

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CSS-04 Chemistry

(2)
(1) (2)

(3) CH3COCH = C(CH3)2

(4) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH=C(CH3)2

(3) (4) 2. 3 molecules of acetone undergo self condensation

in the presence of dry HCl gas to give
Q.76. (Preparation of Amines) (1) Trioxane (2) Mesityl oxide
1. Alkylamine on reaction with 3 molecules of alkyl (3) Phorone (4) Cinnamaldehyde
halide form 3. 2 molecules of acetone undergo self condensation
(1) Primary alkylamine in the presence of dry HCl gas to give
(2) Secondary alkylamine
(1) Crotonaldehyde (2) Phorone
(3) Quaternary ammonium salt
(3) Dioxane (4) Mesityl oxide
(4) Tertiary alkylamine
4. Three molecules of acetone on self condensation
2. Which of the following compounds can be
in the presence of conc H2SO4 gives
prepared using Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
(1) Phorone (2) Mesityl oxide
(3) Mesitylene (4) Crotonaldehyde

(1) (2) 5. Benzaldehyde on condensation with acetone in

the presence of sodium ethoxide gives
(3) (4) CH3–NH2 (1) Benzalacetone (2) Benzophenone
(3) Benzylalcohol (4) Acetophenone
3. In the following reaction,
Q.67. (Carbohydrates)
1. Number of chiral carbons present in -D-(-)-
Fructofuranose is
(1) 3 (2) 4
A is
(3) 5 (4) 6
2. Number of chiral carbons present in -D-(+)-
(1) (2) Glucopyranose is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) CH3–NH2 (4) 3. Cyclic forms of fructose are obtained by the
addition of
4. Consider the following reaction,
(1) –OH of C6 to (>C = O) group
CH3–OH ⎯⎯⎯
HBr
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ B ⎯⎯⎯
H2 /Ni
→C (2) –OH of C4 to (>C = O) group
C is (3) –OH of C5 to (–CHO) group
(1) CH3–NH2 (2) CH3–CH2–NH2 (4) –OH of C5 to (>C = O) group
4. With the analogy of which compound, the two
anomers of fructose are named as fructofuranose?
(3) CH3–CH2–COOH (4)
5. Reduction of CH3CONH2 with LiAlH4 yields (1) (2)
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3NC
(3) CH3CH2NH2 (4) CH3CHO (3) (4)
Q.81. (Reactions of Aldehydes and ketones)
5. The number of primary –OH group present in -D-
1. Chemical formula of phorone is (-)-fructofuranose is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) (3) 4 (4) 5

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CSS-04 Chemistry

Q.69 (Reduction of nitrobenzene) 4. Which of the following reagent(s)/method(s) can

be used to reduce nitrobenzene into aniline?
1. The product (P) obtained in the following reaction
is (1) Sn/HCl
(2) H2/Ni
(3) Electrolytic reduction in weak acidic medium
(4) All of these

(1) 5. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in strong

acidic medium gives
(1) p-amino phenol (2) Hydrazobenzene
(2)
(3) Azoxybenzene (4) Azobenzene
Q.84 (Preparation of Amines)
(3) 1. Propanamide on reduction with LiAlH4 followed by
aqueous work up gives
(1) Ethanamine (2) n-propyl amine
(4) (3) Ethanol (4) n-propyl alcohol
2. Ethane nitrile on reduction with LiAlH4 gives
2. Hydrazobenzene can be obtained by the reduction
of nitrobenzene with (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Ethanamine

(1) LiAlH4 in ether (3) Propanamine (4) Ethanol

3. RCONH2 on treatment with Br2 in ethanolic
(2) Zn/NH4Cl,  solution of NaOH gives
(3) Zn dust/aq. NaOH (1) RCN (2) ROH
(4) Na3AsO3/NaOH (3) RBr (4) RNH2
4. N-ethylacetamide on reduction with LiAlH4 gives
3. m-dinitro benzene on reduction with ammonium
sulphide gives (1) (C2H5)2NH (2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) C2H5NH2
5. Reagent used in mendius reduction is
(1) (2) (1) (i) LiAlH4/ether, (ii) H2O
–
(2) (i) Fe/HCl, (ii) OH
(3) Na/C2H5OH
(3) (4) (4) H2/Pd

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04 (CHEMISTRY)
Answers Key

Q.47. (Acidic strength) Q.76. (Preparation of Amines)

1. (1) 1. (3)
2. (1) 2. (4)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (3) 5. (3)
Q.58. (Tautomerism) Q.81. (Reactions of Aldehydes and ketones)
1. (1) 1. (4)
2. (3) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (2) 4. (3)
5. (3)
5. (1)
Q.49. (Haloform reaction)
Q.67 (Carbohydrates)
1. (2)
1. (2)
2. (1)
2. (3)
3. (4)
3. (4)
4. (4)
4. (3)
5. (3) 5. (1)
Q.50. (Grignard reagent) Q.69 (Reduction of nitrobenzene)
1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (4)
5. (1) 5. (1)
Q.71. Chemical Properties Amines) Q.84 (Preparation of Amines)
1. (4) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (2)

3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (1)
4. (2)
5. (3)
5. (3)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
BOTANY
Q.103 (Ecosystem: Ecological Pyramids)
1. Ecological pyramids do not take _____ into (1) Only (a) & (b) (2) All (a), (b) & (c)
account (3) Only (c) (4) Only (a)
(1) Carnivores (2) Herbivores 2. Adult frog is
(3) Insectivorous animals (1) Herbivorous (2) Omnivorous
(4) Insectivorous plants (3) Carnivorous (4) Scavenger
2. Which of the following are not given any place in 3. Larval stage of frog is called
ecological pyramids? (1) Tadpole (2) Nymph
(1) Saprophytes (2) Consumers (3) Maggot (4) Wriggler
(3) Herbivores (4) Omnivores 4. Larval stage of frog feeds on
3. Ecological pyramids assume a food chain but do (1) Planktons (2) Small insects
not assume (3) Larvae of other animals
(1) Producers (2) Food web (4) Blood of aquatic animals
(3) Aquatic plants 5. Young ones of butterfly and Hydra are
(4) Key industry animals (1) Carnivores
4. Read the following statements and select the (2) Carnivore and herbivore respectively
correct option (3) Plant eaters
Statement A:Ecological pyramids do not take (4) Herbivore and predator respectively
into account the same species belonging to two Q.109(Biodiversity and Conservation: Biodiversity)
or more trophic levels. 1. Thallophytes do not include
Statement B: Decomposers and detritivores are (1) Fungi (2) Gymnosperms
not given any place in ecological pyramids (3) Lichens (4) Algae
(1) Only statement A is correct 2. All of the following are green plants, except
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) Angiosperms (2) Mosses
(3) Both statements A & B are correct (3) Algae (4) Lichens
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect 3. Amongst the following, which has maximum
5. Which of the following is not given any place in species diversity?
ecological pyramids? (1) Fungi (2) Mosses
(1) Green plants (3) Ferns (4) Algae
(2) Microbes 4. Consider the following pie chart regarding plants,
(3) Phytoplanktons fungi and lichens
(4) Both (2) & (3)
Q.94 (Ecosystem: Ecosystem-Components)
1. Which of the following organisms has/have
herbivorous larval stage?
(a) Butterfly (b) Silkworm
(c) Frog
The correct one(s) is/are

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In the given pie chart, sector A and B respectively (2) Only statement B is correct
represent (3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Fungi and angiosperms 3. Heterotrophic individual present at top strata of
(2) Angiosperms and fungi forest ecosystem is
(3) Angiosperms and algae (1) Grass (2) Tree
(3) Tree dweller (4) Shrub
(4) Algae and fungi
4. Autotrophic individual present at top strata of
5. Which of the following representations regarding
forest ecosystem is
global diversity of different groups is correct?
(1) Grass
(1) Lichens > Algae
(2) Shrub
(2) Algae > Mosses
(3) Herb
(3) Ferns = Angiosperms
(4) Tree
(4) Ferns > Algae
Q.100 (Ecosystem: Food Chain)
Q.112 (Biodiversity & Conservation: Patterns of 1. Energy flow through different trophic levels
biodiversity)
follows
1. Species area relationship represents which of the (1) 10% law of energy transfer
given on a logarithmic scale for very large area? (2) Allen’s Rule
(1) Straight line (3) Third law of thermodynamics
(2) Rectangular hyperbola (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Hyperbola (4) Parabola 2. Read the following food chain and select the
2. Which of the given equation correctly represents correct option for B.
species-area relationship on logarithmic scale? Plant Insect B Snake
(100J)
(1) Log C = Log S + Z Log A
(1) B – can be peacock
(2) Log S = Log C + Z Log A
(2) B – is herbivore
(3) Log A = Log S + Z Log C
(3) B – is secondary consumer
(4) Log Z = Log A + Log S
(4) B – represents second trophic level
3. The relationship between species richness and
3. Plant Insect A Snake
area turned out to be a rectangular hyperbola for
(100J)
a wide variety of which of the given organisms?
In above food chain the organism represented by
A) Angiosperm
A receives
B) Birds
(1) 10 J energy from insect
C) Bats
(2) 1 J energy from insect
D) Fresh water fishes.
(3) 0.1 J energy from insect
The correct option is:
(4) 0.01 J energy from insect
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) & (B)
4. Plant Insect A Snake
(3) Only (B) (4) All (A),(B), (C)& (D) (100J)
4. Species –area relationship was explained by In above food chain at plant level 100 J energy
(1) Alexander Von Humboldt represents
(2) David Tilman (1) Available energy to insects directly
(3) Paul Ehrlich (2) GPP
(4) Edward Wilson (3) Secondary productivity
Q.95 (Ecosystem: Ecosystem - Structure) (4) NPP available directly to insects
1. In a forest, stratification is seen. Which of the 5. In a food chain A is the available biomass for
given are present in uppermost layer of forest?
(1) Grasses (2) Herbs the consumption to herbivores and B . Choose
(3) Shrubs (4) Arboreal animals the correct option to fill in the blanks A & B .
2. Consider the given statements and select the A B
correct option
(1) GPP : Carnivore
Statement A:Top strata of forest ecosystem
accommodates trees and arboreal animals. (2) NPP : Decomposer
Statement B:Bottom layer of forest ecosystem is (3) GPP : Decomposer
formed by only herbs. (4) NPP : Carnivore
(1) Only statement A is correct

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Q.96 (Ecosystem: Productivity) (3) Increases DO and reduces BOD

1. The primary productivity is defined as the (4) Reduces DO and increases BOD
(1) The rate of biomass production by plants per 3. Match the columns.
unit area over a time period Column I Column II
(2) The rate of formation of new organic matter (Disease) (Toxic Elements)
by secondary consumer a. Minamata disease I) Arsenic
(3) The rate of production of biomass by b. Itai-itai disease II) Mercury
herbivores per unit area over a time period c. Black foot disease III) Cadmium
(4) Available biomass for the consumption to d. Fluorosis IV) Fluorine
primary carnivores (1) a-(I), b-(III), c-(II), d-(IV)
2. The primary productivity is expressed in terms of (2) a-(II), b-(III), c-(I), d-(IV)
(1) g2m2yr-1 or Kcal m2yr-1 (3) a-(IV), b-(III), c-(II), d-(I)
(2) g2yr2 or Kcal m yr-1 (4) a-(III), b-(I), c-(II), d-(IV)
(3) (gm m-2)yr-1or (Kcal m-2) yr-1 4. The measure of oxygen required by aerobic
(4) Only weight decomposers for the biochemical degradation of
3. Which of the following belong to high productivity biodegradable materials in water is
ecosystem? (1) COD (2) DO
(1) Sugarcane field, coral reefs and deep sea (3) BOD (4) FOAM
(2) Coral reefs, sugarcane field and tropical rain Q.121(Environmental Issues: Air Pollution)
forests 1. A suspension of fine solid particles or liquid
(3) Grassland, deep sea and deserts droplets in a gas is known as
(4) Pond, estuary and deserts (1) Aerosols
4. Choose the option which is correctly matched. (2) Smoke
(1) Most productive ecosystem – Deep sea (3) Dust
(2) High productive ecosystem – Desert (4) Cyst
(3) Least productive ecosystem - Desert 2. A visible suspension of carbon in the atmosphere
(4) Least productive ecosystem – Tropical rain is
forests (1) Aerosol
5. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (2) Smoke
(1) Productivity solely depends on (3) Dust
photosynthetic capacity of producers & solar (4) Mist
radiation of the area 3. Select the odd one out w.r.t biological products
(2) Despite occupying 70% of the surface causing allergy?
productivity of oceans is 55 billion tons (1) Pollen grains
(3) NPP = GPP – R (R- is respiration loss) (2) Fungal spores
(4) Secondary productivity is the productivity at (3) Cyst and bacteria
consumers level (4) Solid plastic foams
Q.127 (Environmental Issues: Water Pollution) 4. Liquid suspended particle of size more than 1 µm
1. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the water in the atmosphere is called
pollution. (1) Dust
(1) Water pollutants include pathogens, (2) Mist
pesticides but not phosphates and nitrates (3) Cyst
(2) Oil spills are not water pollutants (4) Smoke
(3) Mere 0.1% impurities make domestic sewage
5. Aerosols like Freon used as refrigerant in
unfit for human use.
refrigerators and air conditioners, can be
(4) Soap and detergents are not pollutant of the
environmental hazards as they can cause
water bodies
(1) Ozone depletion
2. Domestic sewage which is rich in biodegradable
(2) Byssinosis
organic matter
(3) Hay fever
(1) Reduces DO and BOD
(2) Increases DO and BOD (4) Decreased visibility

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Q.99 (Ecosystem: Energy flow in food chain) 4. Gross primary productivity is

1. Which of the following is true for primary (1) The rate of production of organic matter by
productivity?
(1) NPP = GPP + R consumers
(2) NPP = GPP - R (2) The rate of production of organic matter
(3) NPP = GPP during photosynthesis
(4) GPP = NPP- R
(3) Available completely to consumers
2. Which of the following is available to herbivores
from the plants when they consume them? (4) Usually less than net primary productivity
(1) Total biomass 5. According to 10 percent law
(2) Gross primary productivity (1) 10 percent of energy is lost from one trophic
(3) NPP
level to another trophic level
(4) Both (2) and (3)
3. Net primary productivity is (2) Only 10 percent of the total energy is actually
(1) Always more than GPP available to the next trophic level
(2) Always equal to GPP (3) 10 percent biomass will be lost from one
(3) The available biomass for consumption to the
trophic level to the next trophic level
heterotrophs in a food chain
(4) Is less than secondary productivity (4) Both (1) and (2) are true

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ANSWERS

Q.103 (Ecosystem: Ecological Pyramids) Q.100 (Ecosystem: Food Chain)

1. (4) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2 (3)
3. (2) 3 (2)
4. (3) 4 (2)
5. (2) 5 (2)
Q.94 (Ecosystem: Ecosystem-Component) Q.96 (Ecosystem: Productivity)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (1) 4. (3)
5. (4) 5. (1)
Q.109 (Biodiversity and Conservation: Biodiversity) Q.127(Environmental Issues: Water Pollution)
1. (2) 1. (3)
2. (4) 2. (4)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (3) 4. (3)
5. (2) Q.121(Environmental Issues: Air Pollution)
Q.112(Biodiversity & Conservation: Patterns of 1. (1)
biodiversity) 2. (2)
1. (1) 3. (4)
2. (2) 4. (2)
3. (4) 5. (1)
4. (1) Q.99 (Ecosystem: Energy flow in food chain)
Q.95(Ecosystem: Ecosystem - Structure) 1. (2)
1. (4) 2. (3)
2. (1) 3. (3)
3. (3) 4. (2)
4. (4) 5. (2)

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Q.142. (Bacteriophages and plasmids) 2. At which RE site should the alien DNA be inserted
in pBR322 so that the transformed recombinant
1. To which taxonomic group do the Bacteriophages E.coli cells are susceptible to tetracycline?
belong?
(1) ClaI (2) Hind III
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus
(3) Sal I (4) Pvu I
(3) Fungi (4) Algae
3. Insertional inactivation of AmpR in pBR322 occurs
2. Among options given below, vectors include all if alien DNA is added at site recognized by
except
(1) Pvu I (2) Pvu II
(1) pBR322 (2) pUC8
(3) Bam HI (4) EcoRI
(3) Bacteriophage (4) E.coli
4. A researcher cannot distinguish between
3. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. recombinants and non recombinants w.r.t.
bacteriophages pBR322 if alien DNA is cloned at
(1) Bacteriophages have the ability to replicate (1) Hind III (2) Sal I
within host cells independent of the control of
chromosomal DNA (3) Bam HI (4) Pst I
(2) They have their high copy number per cell 5. The recombinant E.coli cells are not able to grow
on ampicillin rich medium. This suggests that gene
(3) Bacteriophages are said to have very high of interest was successfully cloned at recognition
copy numbers of their genome within the host site of
cells
(1) Cla I (2) Pst I
(4) One cannot link any alien DNA to the genome
of bacteriophages (3) Bam HI (4) Sal I
4. The alien or foreign DNA coding for gene of Q.177 (Biopatents)
interest can be made to replicate in host cells by 1. A set of standard used to regulate/govern/evaluate
linking to which region of plasmid? the morality of human activities that might help or
(1) Ori harm living organisms is
(2) MCS (1) Biowar (2) Biopiracy
(3) Antibiotic resistance gene (3) Biopatent (4) Bioethics

(4) -galactosidase gene 2. ‘It’ is a right granted by a government or an agency

to an inventor to prevent others from the
5. The bacteriophage copies itself inside commercial use of his/her invention without a
(1) Virus (2) Bacteria mutual consent. ‘It’ refers to
(3) Algae (4) Fungus (1) Biopatent (2) Biopiracy
Q.144 (Insertional inactivation) (3) Biowar (4) Bioethics
1. When the foreign gene of interest is added into the 3. Biopatents can be granted to the inventor for which
sequence of ampR in pBR322, it will lead to reasons among following?
(1) Greater expression of ampR a. Non-obvious b. Documented
(2) Slightly lowered expression of ampR c. Well known d. Useful for human beings
(3) Very high expression of tetR Select the correct option
(4) Insertional inactivation of ampR (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d (4) b & d

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4. Patents can be issued by a national government to (1) Simple stirred tank bioreactor’s
an inventor or their assignee for a limited period of (2) Sparged stirred tank bioreactor’s
time if they satisfy criteria excluding
(3) All types of bioreactor’s
(1) Novelty (2) Non-obviousness
(4) Only pilot plant culture
(3) Utility (4) Being documented
3. Sparger in sparged stirred-tank bioreactor provide
5. A patent was issued for which crop to an American
company in 1997 but is currently disputed? (1) Foam control
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (2) Sterile air in the form of bubbles
(3) Brinjal (4) Tobacco (3) Temperature control
Q.149 (Fragmentation of DNA at specific locations (4) pH control
by RE) 4. Small volume of the culture can be withdrawn
1. In the given fragment of DNA, the only B gene can periodically from bioreactors by using
be isolated by digestion with (1) Sparger
(2) Sampling ports
(3) Flat-bladed impeller
(1) Pst I and EcoRI (4) Stirrer

(2) Pvu I 5. How many provisions exist in simple stirred tank

bioreactor from a given table?
(3) EcoRI
(4) Pvu I and Pst I Foam control system, temperature control
system, pH control system, sampling port,
2. Which of the following restriction sites are not sparger
present in selectable markers of cloning vector
pBR322? (1) Two (2) Three
(1) BamHI (2) PstI (3) Four (4) Five
(3) Hind III (4) SalI Q.163 (Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vectors)
3. In the given fragement of DNA, the gene C can be 1. Lac Z gene is present in cloning vector
obtained by action of (1) pBR322 (2) pUC8
(3) Phagemid (4) Cosmid
2. Tetracycline resistance gene, used as a selectable
(1) EcoRI (2) PvuI marker exist in
(3) Pst I (4) Hind III (1) pBR322
4. All of the following restriction enzymes have their (2) pUC8
recognition site in cloning vector pBR322 except (3) Natural plasmid of native E.coli
(1) PstI (2) SalI (4) Natural M13 phage
(3) Hind III (4) Hind II 3. The native E.coli cells are resistant to
5. In the given fragment of DNA, if we want to insert (1) Tetracycline
an alien DNA in gene C, the best choice of (2) Kamamycin
restriction enzyme will be
(3) Ampicillin
(4) None of the antibiotics
4. Which of the following selectable marker is present
(1) EcoRI (2) PstI in both cloning vector pBR322 and pUC8?
(3) Hind III (4) Sal I (1) Ampicillin resistance gene
Q.159 (Culturing the host cell in a nutrient medium (2) Lac Z gene
at a large scale for obtaining the foreign gene (3) Tetracycline resistance gene
product)
(4) Kanamycin resistance gene
1. Which of the following is a unique feature in
sparged stirred-tank bioreactor? 5. Insertional inactivation in Lac Z gene results in
formation of colourless colonies in the presence of
(1) Sterile air chromogenic substance. It represent
(2) Presence of Sparger (1) Recombinants with plasmid pUC8
(3) Foam control system (2) Recombinants with plasmid pBR322
(4) pH control system (3) Non-recombinants with plasmid pBR322
2. A stirrer in a bioreactor facilitates even mixing of (4) Non-recombinants with plasmid pUC8
nutrients and oxygen. It exist in

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Q.155 (DNA ligases) 4. Restriction endonucleases cut

1. Removal of single phosphate group from 5’ end of (1) Only one strand of double helix DNA
a linear DNA molecules is a function of (2) Each of the two strands of double helix of DNA
(1) DNA ligases (3) At any site throughout length of DNA
(2) Alkaline phosphatase (4) Glycosidic bond present between sugar and
nitrogenous base
(3) Restriction endonuclease
5. The palindromic sequence for restriction
(4) DNA polymerase endonuclease, EcoRI to reproduce sticky ends is
2. Function of DNA ligases is to
(1) Remove single phosphate group from 3 end (1) (2)
of a linear DNA molecules
(2) Forms phosphodiester bonds between
adjacent nucleotides
(3) (4)
(3) Add nucleotides at the 3 OH group of
circularized DNA
Q.157 (Fermenter/Bioreacter)
(4) Break phophodiester bonds
1. Read following statements A and B and choose the
3. Most commonly used enzyme alkaline correct answer.
phosphatase in genetic engineering, is obtained Statement-A: Batch fermentation is a closed
from system because conditions once set up are not
(1) T4-phage changed from outside when fermentation starts.
(2) E.coli Statement-B: In continuous culture system, the
used medium is drained out from one side and
(3) Intestine of calf fresh medium is added from other side, so is called
(4) Intestine of birds an open system.
4. Which of the following enzyme replace terminal 5- (1) Both statements A and B are correct
pO4 groups of DNA with 5-OH groups? (2) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(1) DNA polymerase (3) Only statement A is correct
(2) Restriction endonuclease (4) Only statement B is correct
2. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. batch
(3) Alkaline phosphatase
fermentation
(4) DNA ligase (1) It is a closed system
5. Which of the following can only add new (2) Already set conditions can be changed during
nucleotides to the 3–OH end of a growing strand fermentation
of DNA?
(3) The contents of the fermenter is removed after
(1) Alkaline phosphatase the fermentation is stopped
(2) DNA polymerase (4) It is not a continuous culture system
(3) DNA ligase 3. All of the following are properties of continuous
culture system except
(4) Restriction endonuclease
(1) The used medium can be exchanged with
Q.154 (Restriction enzymes) fresh medium side by side
1. Restriction enzymes belong to larger class of (2) The cells can be maintained in their
enzymes called physiologically most active phase
(1) Hydrolase (2) Lyases (3) Most active phase of fermentation is called
exponential phase
(3) Ligases (4) Oxidoreductases
(4) This type of culture produces only low yields of
2. The nucleases which remove nucleotides from the desired proteins
ends of DNA are called
4. Which of the following type of fermenter is used for
(1) Endonucleases (2) Exonucleases long term operation over many weeks by changing
(3) Nucleotidases (4) Nucleosidases nutrient medium as fast as it is used side by side?

3. Each restriction endonuclease recognizes which (1) Batch fermentation

specific sequence of nucleotides on both strands (2) Continuous culture system
of DNA? (3) ‘Fed-batch’ culture
(1) Rop (2) Ori (4) Either ‘Fed batch’ fermentation or batch
(3) Palindrome (4) Sticky ends fermentation

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 CSS-04 Zoology

5. Which of the following does not differentiate batch

fermentation from continuous culture system?
A B
(1) One is closed and other is open system
(2) Duration of change of nutrient medium (1) Cloned Transgenic
(3) To maintain a sustained log phase (2) Cloned Inter specific hydridized
(4) Maintenance of pH
(3) Transgenic Cross-breed
Q.174 (Transgenic animals)
1. All of the following are transgenic animals except (4) Transgenic Inbreed

(1) Rosie (2) Tracy

(3) ANDi (4) Dolly 4. Infants suffering from protein energy malnutrition
2. Which of the following is a transgenic animal to are recommended to take milk produced by
produce human protein enriched milk? (1) Rosie (2) Tracy
(1) Rosie (2) Dolly (3) Jersey (4) Karan-swiss
(3) Polly (4) Tracy 5. ANDi was the first monkey produced by
3. Polly and Molly were the first mammals to have (1) Cloning
been successfully __A__ from adult somatic cell (2) Genetic modification
and to be __B__ animals at the same time.
(3) Cross breeding
Choose the option which fill the blank A & B
correctly. (4) Interspecific hybridization

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ANSWERS

Q.142 Q.163
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (1)
3. (4)
4. (1)
4. (1)
5. (2)
5. (1)
Q.144
Q.155
1. (4)
1. (2)
2. (3)
3. (1) 2. (2)
4. (1) 3. (3)
5. (2) 4. (3)
Q.177 5. (2)
1. (4) Q.154
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (2)
4. (4) 3. (3)
5. (2) 4. (2)
5. (2)
Q.149
Q.157
1. (3)
1. (1)
2. (3)
2. (2)
3. (2)
3. (4)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (2) 5. (4)
Q.159 Q.174
1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (2) 3. (1)
4. (2) 4. (1)
5. (3) 5. (2)

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