Propulsion B2-2

PROPULSION
Objective Questions
Turbine Engines [LEVEL-2]
1. What is Charles Law?
a) Volume and Temperature are directly proportional b) Pressure and Temperature
are directly proportional c) Both a) & b)
[REF: EASA 14/1.4]
2. MTCS Brayton cycle
a) Open loop b) Closed loop c) Constant temperature d)None of the above
[REF: Treager/155]
3. True FADEC
a) No hydromechanical backup required b) Hydromechanical backup required c)
Mechanical backup is required
[REF: EASA 14/1.17]
4. Fuel is measured in
a) Density b) Volume c) Weight d) Gallon
[REF: EASA 14/2.10]
5. Mostly GTE used in transport category aircraft
a) Low bypass ratio c) High bypass ratio c) both a) & b)
[REF: EASA 14/1.11]
6. If the FADEC must be replaced
a) EEC programming plug must removed b) EEC programming plug must remains with the
engine c) EEC plug get replaced with FADEC
[REF: Treager/295]
7. EEC channel
a) Cross talk logic reads data from channel A and B b) Cross talk logic write data from channel
A and B c) Cross talk logic compares data from channel A and B
[REF: EASA 14/1.19]
8. Process of determining the position of the tip of the propeller blades relative to each other
a) Blade tracking b) Feathring of propeller c) Dove tail c) None of above
[REF: EASA 17/6.6]
9. Cold section refers in Gas Turbine Engine
a) Inlet to Turbine b) Inlet to Exhaust c) Inlet to Compressor d) None of

above
[REF: EASA 14/1.11]
10. Hot section refers in Gas Turbine Engine

a) Combustion chamber to exhaust b) combustion chamber to turbine c) Both A)
& B) d) None of the above
[REF: EASA 14/1.11]
11. Power lever resolver of FADEC
a) Resolver is Hydromechanical device b) Resolver is electromechanical device

c) Resolver is mechanical device d) Resolver is electrical device
[REF: Treager/292]
12. A low pitch, high RPM setting, for example can be utilized for
a) Landing b) Cruise c) Take-Off d) Approach
[REF: EASA 17/1.3]
13. MTCS-Feathering of propeller
a) To reduce propeller drag to a minimum in case of one or more engine failure

b) The pitch to an angle of approximately 900 c) Both A) & B)
[REF: EASA 17/2.9]
14. The EEC gathers the needed information to determine the amount of fuel flow and transmits it
to a
a) FMV b) Fuel Pump c) Toque Motor d) None of the above
[REF: EASA 14/1.17]
15. To prevent failure of the engine bearing during the initial start, the engine should be
a) Pre- Heated b) Pre-Cooled c) Pre-Oiled d) All of the above
[REF: 12A/Ch-1]
16. Bleed Inlet valve 2.5 is controlled by
a) EEC b) FMU c) Torque Motor d) FMV
[REF: EASA 14/1.21]
17. If ice begins to collect on the filter surface, the pressure across the filter slowly decreases
a) Illuminates a warning light on the instrument panel b) Fuel heater gets switch ON
c) Both A) & B)
[REF: 12A/2.43]
18. In gas turbine engine, the inlet shape is generally
a) Divergent b) Convergent c) Convergent-Divergent d) None of

above
[REF: Treager/162]
19. An integrated fuel flow meter system uses components typically
a) Two Phase AC Motor b) Turbine c) LVDT Sensor d) All of the above

[REF: Integrated Pallet /370]
20. FADEC gets power from
a) Aircraft electrical system b) PMA c) Both A) & B)
[REF: EASA 14/1.19]
21. Number of channels in EEC
a) Seven b) Two c) Nine d) Three
[REF: EASA 14/1.19]
22. The swirling motion in fuel flow indicating system is due to
a) Impeller b) Diffuser c) Both A) & B) d) None of above
[REF: 15A/Ch-14]
23. Fuel metering unit location
a) FMU is mounted on the front of gear box and is attached to the front of the fuel pump
b) FMU is mounted on the back of gear box and is attached to the front of the fuel pump
c) FMU is mounted on the front of gear box and is attached to the back of the fuel pump
d) FMU is mounted on the back of gear box and is attached to the back of the fuel pump
[REF: EASA 14/1.20]
24. Centrifugal compressor advantages
a) High flow rate then positive displacement b) Generate high pressure rise per stage
c) Lighter than axial flow compressor d) All of the above
[REF: 12A/1.43]
25. In centrifugal compressor, the impeller is usually made from
a) Stainless steel b) Cast aluminium c) Forged aluminium d) Cast iron
[REF: 12A/1.40]
26. In axial flow compressor, the rotor blades are usually made from
a) Stainless steel b) Cast aluminium c) Forged aluminium d) Cast iron
[REF: 12A/1.42]
27. The primary function of combustion section is
a) Mixing of fuel and air b) Burn the mixture efficiently c) Deliver hot gases to the
turbine d) All of the above
[REF: 12A/1.44]
28. Types of turbine blades in GTE

a) Impulse turbine blades b) Reaction turbine blades c) Impulse-Reaction turbine blades
d) All of the above
[REF: 12A/1.48]
29. Bearings are positioned on the compressor or turbine shaft so that they can absorb any axial or
radial loads
a) Ball bearing b) Roller bearing c) Needle ball bearing d) Tapered roller

bearing
30. In aircraft steady state condition, which fuel nozzle is used
a) Primary Nozzle b) Secondary Nozzle c) Both A) & B) d) Only A is

correct
[REF: EASA 14/1.17]
31. MTCS regarding FADEC channel
a) Each FADEC channel can use only its own driver b) The healthiest channel is always in
command & is known as the local channel c) The other channel is known as the remote
channel d) All of the above
[REF: Treager/295]
32. Axial flow compressor
a) Low compression ratio and high efficiency b) High compression ratio and high efficiency
c) High compression ratio and low efficiency d) Low compression ratio and low efficiency
[REF: 12A/1.43]
33. Centrifugal flow compressor
a) Total compression is shared b/w rotor & diffuser b) Partially compression is shared b/w
rotor & diffuser c) Half compression is shared b/w rotor & diffuser d) None of the
above
[REF: 12A/1.41]
34 MTCS Regarding Gas Turbine Engine

a) Turbojet has low thrust at low forward speed b) Turboprops are able to develop high
thrust at low speed c) All of above
[REF: Treager/15]
35. Mostly GTE used in transport category aircraft
a) Low bypass ratio c) High bypass ratio c) both a) & b)
[REF: EASA 14/1.11]
36. EEC Connections
a) 2 b) 6 c) 3 d) 7
[REF: EASA 14/1.21]
37. MTCS regarding EEC computer
a) EEC has two channels, which is an independent computers b) Can completely control the
operation of the engine c) Both A) & B)
[REF: EASA 14/1.19]
38. Turbo shaft Engines are mostly used in
a) Fixed wing A/C b) Helicopters c) Rockets d) All of above
[REF: EASA 14/1.14]
39. Number of channels in EEC
a) Seven b) Two c) Nine d) Three
[REF: EASA 14/1.19]
40. The swirling motion in fuel flow indicating system is due to
a) Impeller b) Diffuser c) Both A) & B) d) None of above
[REF: 15A/Ch-14]
41. Power lever resolver of FADEC
a) Resolver is Hydromechanical device b) Resolver is electromechanical device

c) Resolver is mechanical device d) Resolver is electrical device
[REF: Treager/292]
42. FADEC gets power from
a) Aircraft electrical system b) PMA c) Both A) & B)
[REF: EASA 14/1.19]
43. Types of turbine blades in GTE
a) Impulse turbine blades b) Reaction turbine blades c) Impulse-Reaction turbine blades

d) All of the above
[REF: 12A/1.48]
44. The fuel flow indicating/measurement system the input voltage 115 V Single Phase 400Hz
converted into
a) 60V 11Hz Two Phase O/P b) 60V 11Hz Single Phase O/P c) 60V 8Hz Two Phase O/P
d) 60V 8Hz Single Phase O/P
45. If ice begins to collect on the filter surface, the pressure across the filter slowly decreases
a) Illuminates a warning light on the instrument panel b) Fuel heater gets switch ON
c) Both A) & B)
[REF: 12A/2.43]
46. Input to FADEC from Air Data Computer
a) Total Air Temperature b) Total Pressure c) Pressure Altitude d) All of above
[REF: Treager/292]
47. Centrifugal compressor advantages
a) High flow rate then positive displacement b) Generate high pressure rise per stage
c) Lighter than axial flow compressor d) All of the above
[REF: 12A/1.43]
48. Efficiency of the engine is improved by controlling
a) Anti-surge bleed valves b) Variable-stator vanes c) Both a) & B)
[REF: Treager/292]
49. Input to FADEC from ADC
a) Pressure altitude b) Ambient pressure c) Burner pressure
[REF: Treager/292]
50. De-icing and anti-icing system, the hot bleed air is taken from
a) LP compressor b) HP compressor c) Bypass air
[REF: 15A/Ch-15]
51. MTCS regarding dual axial flow compressor
a) HP Compressor driven by starter b) LP Compressor driven by starter c)

Both a) & b)
[REF: EASA 14/3.2]
52. MTCS regarding exhaust duct
a) Relatively high pressure, low velocity gas leaving the turbine b) Duct also serves to reduce
swirl in the gas as it leaves the turbine c) Both A) & B)
[REF: Treager/205]
Engine Indicating System[LEVEL-2]
1. MEL data is displayed in which mode

a) Operational mode b) Status mode c) Maintenance mode
[REF: Integrated Pallet/380]
2. Thermal efficiency is affected by
a) Total inlet temperature b) Compression ratio c) Component efficiencies of the
compressor & turbine d) All of above
[REF: 12A/1.58]
3. Servo-operated tachometer indicator contains
a) Squaring amplifier b) Servo amplifier c) 28 V DC power d) All of above
4. FADEC does not have input of
a) N1 b) N2 c) compression differential pressure
[REF: Treager/294]
5. When cancel switch is pressed

a) Only caution massages will be removed b) Only warning massages will be removed
c) both caution and warning massages will be removed
6. MTCS
a) In pure jet engine-stagnation type b) Turbojet-rapid response
c) Turboprop-Stagnation
7. Discriminator output signal is connected from
a) Half wave pulse into a full wave signal b) Full wave pulse into a full wave signal
c) Half wave signal into a full wave signal c) Half wave pulse into a half wave signal
8. MTCS regarding Timing Mark
a) Indicate that the piston is in the correct position b) Marked on it that line up with the mark on
starter c) Mark is normally on the propeller’s flange edge d) All of the above
[REF: 12A/Ch-1]
9. Coupling torque
a) Delivered thrust divided by shaft RPM b) Delivered power divided by shaft RPM
c) Delivered lift divided by shaft RPM d) All of the above
[REF: EASA 14/2.12]
10. Harness and coupling of thermocouple is connected to
a) Al Wire b) Pt Wire c) Cu Wire d) Alumel & Chromel
11. EGT Thermocouple
a) Chromel–Positive b) As in A) & Alumel-Negative c) Chromel-Negative d) As

in C) & Alumel-Positive
[REF: Instrument Pallet /292]
12. An integrated fuel flow meter system uses components typically
a) Two Phase AC Motor b) Turbine c) LVDT Sensor d) All of the above

13. EGT probes are generally classified as
a) Stagnation type b) As in A) & Rapid response type c) Immersion type
14. Electrical energy is produced by the direct conversion of heat energy, the form of energy
conversion known as the
a) Piezoelectric effect b) Seebeck effect c) Both A) & B) d) None of above
15. In EICAS system if lower DU fails
a) Amber alert appears at top right of upper DU b) Amber alert appears at top right of lower DU
c) Amber alert appears at top left of upper DU d) Amber alert appears at top left of lower
DU
16. In EICAS system if lowers DU fails, all information is transferred from lower DU to upper DU
known as
a) Compact b) Transferred c) Display Failure d) System Failure
17. Momentary push type switch is used in the air or on ground, to activate the recording of fault
data relevant to the environment control system
a) Engine display switch b) Status display switch c) Event record switch

d) Computer select switch
18. If display select panel fails, the advisory massage ‘EICAS CONTROL PANEL’ appears at
a) Top left of upper DU b) Top left of lower DU c) Top right of upper DU d) Top
right of lower DU
19. Temperature sensing element used in resistance coil of variable resistance system
a) Nickel & Copper c) Nickel & Constantan c) Aluminium Alloy d) Nickel &
Platinum
20. In turbo super charger location of centrifugal pump
a) B/W compressor and diffuser b) B/W carburettor and cylinder
c) B/W AGB and cylinder d) ON the cylinder head
21. EPR measures air pressure at the ___________ and ___________ of a turbine engine
a) Inlet pressure, Exhaust Pressure b) Exhaust pressure, Inlet Pressure c)
Compressor pressure, Exhaust pressure
[REF: EASA 14/2.7]
22. Why fuel is measured in pound, why not in gallon
a) Density b) Volume c) Temperature c) Permeability
[REF: 15A/Ch-14]
23. The metering valve area is modulated by
a) Torque motor b) Induction motor c) Synchronous motor
[REF: EASA 14/1.18]
24. Synchroscope in four engine aircraft, how many motors
a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 2
[REF: Instrument Pallet/253]
25. MTCS-Tachogenerator advantages
a) There are no moving parts b) No Separate electrical output for speed indication
c) Both A) & B)
Starting and Ignition System[LEVEL-2]
1. In the process of starting a turbine engine, the ignition is turned on __________ the engine has
started rotating
a) Before b) After c) At same time d) None of the above
[REF: Dale Crane AMT Powerplant/498]
2. In the process of starting engine, the fuel is turned on __________ the ignition
a) After b) Before c) At same time d) None of the above
[REF: Dale Crane AMT Powerplant /498]
3. In a dual-spool turbine engine, the starter rotates the
a) Turbine Blades b) LP Compressor c) HP Compressor d) All of the

above
4. The engines on most jet transport aircraft are started with
a) Air Turbine Starter b) Starter Generator c) Both A) & B)

5. Air for starting the engines on a jet transport aircraft is normally supplied by
a) Super Charger b) Exhaust Air b) APU d) All of the above
5. The primary advantage of an air turbine starter is its low weight to __________ ratio
a) Power ratio b) Torque ratio c) Thrust ratio d) None of the

above
6. Basic types of fuel nozzles used in turbine engine are
a) Atomizing b) Vaporizing c) Both A) & B)
7. Types of atomizing fuel nozzles are
a) Simplex b) As in A) & Duplex c) Only Duplex Nozzle d) None of the

above
8. The spark produced by a battery ignition system occurs when the breaker points
a) Shorted b) Close c) Open d) Both A) & B)
9. The capacitor in a battery ignition system is installed in __________ with the breaker points
a) Parallel b) Series c) Across d) None of the above
10. The ignition switch of a battery ignition system is installed in __________ with the breaker points
a) Parallel b) Series c) Across d) None of the above
11. Number on the magneto distributor are
a) Firing order of engine b) Sparking order of magneto c) Both A) & B)
12. Igniter plug electrode must be capable of withstanding _______ than electrode of conventional
spark plug
a) Higher current b) Higher voltage c) lesser current
[REF: EASA 14/3.13]
13. Gas Turbine Engine have starter
a) DC Electric motor b) Starter Generator c) Both a) & b)
[REF: EASA 14/3.2]
14. Starter generator has

a) Shunt generator with heavy series winding b) Shunt generator with additional heavy
series winding c) Series generator with additional heavy shunt winding
[REF: EASA 14/3.4]
15. Mostly used Igniter plug
a) Electromagnetic type b) Capacitor type c) Induction type
[REF: EASA 14/3.17]
16. Continuous ignition is used
a) In case of engine were to flame out b) At takeoff and landing condition c) Both a) and b)
[REF: EASA 14/3.10]
17. Action required when short and voltage arching occurs in igniter plug
a) Tighten and secure b) Secure as required c) Replace faulty components and

wiring
[REF: Oid 12A/234]
18. ATS consist of an axial flow turbine that turns a drive coupling through
a) Reduction gear train b) Starter clutch mechanism c) Both A) & B)
[REF: EASA 14/3.5]
19. Starter generator while starting
a) Shunt winding, compensating winding, commutating winding b) Series winding, Shunt

winding, Interpole winding c) Series winding, compensating winding, commutating
winding
[REF: EASA 14/3.4]
20. Ignition system consist of
a) Two exciter unit b) Two transformer c) two intermediate lead and two high tensions
lead d) All of above
[REF: EASA 14/3.11]
21. Mostly small turbine engines such as APU & Small turbo shaft engines are uses
a) Starter generator b) Direct cranking electrical system c) Air turbine starter
[REF: EASA 14/3.3]
22. Size of piston engine is enlarged by
a) Increase size of cylinder b) Increase No. of cylinders c) Increase No. of valves

d) Both A) & B)
[REF: 12A/Ch-1]
23. The starter must continue to assist the engine until the engine reaches
a) Self sustaining speed b) Fixed speed c) Self accelerating speed d) Set

speed
[REF: EASA 14/3.2]
24. MTCS regarding Maintenance of igniters plug
a) Disconnect the igniters lead coupling nut at exciter end first b) Insulated tools must be used
c) Both A) & B) and follow manufacturer’s instructions
[REF: EASA 14/3.15]

Propulsion B2-2

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PROPULSION

5. Mostly GTE used in transport category aircraft

a) Low bypass ratio c) High bypass ratio c) both a) & b)

[REF: EASA 14/1.11]

6. If the FADEC must be replaced

[REF: EASA 14/1.19]

a) Blade tracking b) Feathring of propeller c) Dove tail c) None of above

[REF: EASA 17/6.6]

9. Cold section refers in Gas Turbine Engine

a) Inlet to Turbine b) Inlet to Exhaust c) Inlet to Compressor d) None of

[REF: EASA 14/1.11]

10. Hot section refers in Gas Turbine Engine

[REF: EASA 14/1.11]

11. Power lever resolver of FADEC

a) Resolver is Hydromechanical device b) Resolver is electromechanical device

a) Landing b) Cruise c) Take-Off d) Approach

[REF: EASA 17/1.3]

13. MTCS-Feathering of propeller

a) To reduce propeller drag to a minimum in case of one or more engine failure

[REF: EASA 17/2.9]

a) FMV b) Fuel Pump c) Toque Motor d) None of the above

[REF: EASA 14/1.17]

a) Pre- Heated b) Pre-Cooled c) Pre-Oiled d) All of the above

16. Bleed Inlet valve 2.5 is controlled by

a) EEC b) FMU c) Torque Motor d) FMV

[REF: EASA 14/1.21]

18. In gas turbine engine, the inlet shape is generally

a) Divergent b) Convergent c) Convergent-Divergent d) None of

19. An integrated fuel flow meter system uses components typically

a) Two Phase AC Motor b) Turbine c) LVDT Sensor d) All of the above

20. FADEC gets power from

a) Aircraft electrical system b) PMA c) Both A) & B)

[REF: EASA 14/1.19]

21. Number of channels in EEC

a) Seven b) Two c) Nine d) Three

[REF: EASA 14/1.19]

22. The swirling motion in fuel flow indicating system is due to

a) Impeller b) Diffuser c) Both A) & B) d) None of above

23. Fuel metering unit location

[REF: EASA 14/1.20]

24. Centrifugal compressor advantages

25. In centrifugal compressor, the impeller is usually made from

a) Stainless steel b) Cast aluminium c) Forged aluminium d) Cast iron

a) Stainless steel b) Cast aluminium c) Forged aluminium d) Cast iron

27. The primary function of combustion section is

28. Types of turbine blades in GTE

a) Ball bearing b) Roller bearing c) Needle ball bearing d) Tapered roller

30. In aircraft steady state condition, which fuel nozzle is used

a) Primary Nozzle b) Secondary Nozzle c) Both A) & B) d) Only A is

[REF: EASA 14/1.17]

31. MTCS regarding FADEC channel

32. Axial flow compressor

33. Centrifugal flow compressor

34 MTCS Regarding Gas Turbine Engine

35. Mostly GTE used in transport category aircraft

a) Low bypass ratio c) High bypass ratio c) both a) & b)

[REF: EASA 14/1.11]

36. EEC Connections

37. MTCS regarding EEC computer

[REF: EASA 14/1.19]

38. Turbo shaft Engines are mostly used in

a) Fixed wing A/C b) Helicopters c) Rockets d) All of above

[REF: EASA 14/1.14]