Q.

1 Which of the following metals react with hot water to form its hydroxide
1) Mg 2) Al 3) Zn 4) Fe

Q.2 The number of molecules in 16 gram of methane is

23 23 16 23 16 23
1) 3.0 x 10 2) 6.02 x 10 3) x 10 4) x 10
6.02 3

Q.3 Match the bit of column I with the bits of Column II and Column III
Column I Column II Column III
A) Aluminium E) Dil. H2SO4 I) Salt
B) Aluminium Oxide F) NaOH J) Dyes
C) Alumina G) Dil. HCl K) H2
D) Aluminium H) Fe2O3 L)Aluminium Oxide

1) A – E – J 2) B – G – K 3) C – H – I 4) D – F – J

Q.4 Howmuch MgO is obtained on heating 5 gm of magnesium carbonate?

1) 2.4 gm 2) 2.38 gm 3) 2.8 gm 4) 3.28 gm

Q.5 A dilute ferrous Sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
potassium permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution faded and finally
disappears. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
1) KMnO4 is an Oxidizing agent. It oxidizes FeSO4.
2) FeSO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and oxidizes KMnO4.
3) The colour disappears due to dilution : No reaction is involved.
4) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO 4 to colourless
compound.

Q.6 Benzonitrile is the I.U.P.A.C. name of –

1) C6H5 – C  N 2) C6H5 – NC 3) C6H5 – CNO 4) C6H5 – NCO

Q.7 If 1½ mole of oxygen combines with Al to form Al2O3, the weight of Al in reaction is (Al = 27)
1) 27 gram 2) 54 gram 3) 40.5 gram 4) 81 gram

Q.8 Valency of chromium in Chromium phosphate is -

1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1

Q.9 In the decomposition of organic wastes the useful product (s) is (are) –
1) manure 2) biogas 3) 1 and 2 4) K, P and N

Q.10 Decreasing order in burning and also the decreasing order of reactivity with dilute hydrochloric acid
is as follows –
1) Fe > Zn > Al > Mg 2) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
3) Zn > Al > Mg > Fe 4) Al > Zn > Mg > Fe

Q.11 Which of the following statements is correct?

1) All minerals are ores
2) Refining the metal is the metallurgy
3) Ore is the mineral from which metal is extracted profitably and economically.
4) Impure metal is called gangue.

Q.12 Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, sulphuric acid and coconut oil are put separately in four different glass
bottles without the stoppers and observed for few hours. By observation only match correctly the
identification tests with acids or oils given below.

A) Sulphuric acid P) Oily liquid and no change in volume

B) Hydrochloric acid Q) Transparent liquid and volume decreases
C) Nitric acid R) Thick transparent liquid and volume increases
D) Coconut oil S) Transparent liquid and brownish yellow gas is
evolved.
Correct matching is –

1) A – Q; B – R; C – P; D – S 2) A – P; B – R; C – S; D–Q
3) A – S; B – P; C – S; D – Q 4) A – R; B – Q; C – S; D–P

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 1 of 14

Q.13 To reduce manganese dioxide or iron oxide following metal is added
1) Lead 2) Aluminium 3) Copper 4) Any one above

Q.14 Presence of ___________ makes our muscles tired after exercise.

a) Lactose acid b) Lytic acid
c) Lactic acid d) Peptic acid

Q.15 The sequence of tubules through which the sperms are sent forward is –
1) Rete testes → vaseferens → epididymis → vasdeferns → ejaculatory duct → urinogenital duct.
2) Rete testes → vasdeferens → epididymis → vaseferens → ejaculatory duct → urinogenital duct.
3) Urinogenital duct → ejaculatory duct → vasdeferens → epididymis → vaseferens → Rete testes
4) Rete testes → vaseferens → vasdeferens → epididymis → ejaculatory duct → urinogenital duct

Q.16 Length of each epididymis is –

a) 6 m b) 6 cm c) 600 cm d) 60 cm
Alternatives :-
1) a, b 2) b, c 3) a, c 4) a, d

Q.17 CH3COOH is bleached with which compound during the process of vinegar formation?
1) Potassium ferrocynide 2) Potassium cynide
3) Potassium iodide 4) Potassium isocynide

Q.18 Select the false statement about microbial enzymes.

1) Non-active at low temperature
2) Active at low pH
3) Active at low pressure
4) All of them

Q.19 Choose the correct answer –

a) Evolution is the gradual change occurring in living organisms over a long duration.
b) Evolution is the sudden change in a short duration.
c) Formation of new species, as a response to natural selection is evolution.
d) Progressive development is evolution.
Alternatives :-
1) a, b, c 2) a, b, d 3) b, c, d 4) a, c, d

Q.20 What is not true about species diversity.

1) Presence of innumerable species of organisms is species diversity.
2) It includes various types of plants, animals and microbes.
3) It is the diversity among the organisms of same species.
4) None

Q.21 What is true about vaccine produced with the help of biotechnology?
1) Edible vaccines are produced nowadays.
2) These vaccines are more thermo-stable
3) Potatoes known as transgenic potatoes, work against E. coli and Vibrio cholerae are developed.
4) All of them

Q.22 Production of alcohol from sugar molasses with the help of transgenic yeast is considered as ___
1) White biotechnology 2) Blue biotechnology
3) Silver biotechnology 4) Green biotechnology

Q.23 Setae / parapodia / suckers for locomotion are found in members of which phylum?
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Nematehelminthes
3) Annelida 4) All

Q.24 a) Presence of chitinous exoskeleton

b) Largest phylum in animal kingdom
c) Animals unisexual
d) Jointed appendages are present
Above features belong to the members of which phylum?
1) Ascahelminthes 2) Annelida 3) Arthropoda 4) Mollusca

Q.25 Person committing the cyber-crime has to face the imprisonment for _______________ and fine
upto _________.
1) 3 years, 5 lakh 2) 5 years, 3 lakh 3) 3 years, 3 lakh 4) 5 years, 5 lakh

Q.26 Radiation leakage occurred after a blast in an atomic energy plant at

1) Moscow 2) Kazan 3) Samara 4) Chernobyl

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 2 of 14

Q.27 The half life of radium is about 1600 years of 100g of radium existing now, 25 g will remain
unchanged after
1) 6400 years 2) 2400 years 3) 3200 years 4) 4800 years

Q.28 A convex lens is immersed in a liquid denser than glass. It will behave as a
1) diverging lens 2) plane glass 3) convergent lens 4) optical axis

Q.29 Chromatic aberration in a lens is caused by

1) reflection 2) interference 3) diffraction 4) dispersion

Q.30 A double convex lens of focal length 20 cm is made of glass of free refractive index 3/2 when placed
 4
in water  a  w   its focal length is
 3
1) 80 cm 2) 15 cm 3) 17.7 cm 4) 22.5 cm

Q.31 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched

1) power of a lens : / dioptre
2) total internal reflection : optical fiber, mirages in desert
 1
3) Lateral displacement : t 1  
 
med
4) refractive index of a medium :
air
Q.32 A glass slab is placed in the path of a beam of convergent light, the point of convergence of light
1) moves towards the glass slap 2) moves away from the glass slab
3) remains at the same point 4) under goes a lateral shift

Q.33 If the length of wire is 60cm and radius 0.4mm, resistance 30  , then its resistivity is
1) 15 x 10  m 2) 15.7 x 10  m m 4) 17.7 x 10  m
–6 –6 –6 –6
3) 25.12 x 10

Q.34 The current I in the circuit is :

1 1 1 1
1) amp 2) amp 3) amp 4) amp
45 10 15 90

Q.35 Which of the following graphs is true for the motion of a satellite revolving round the earth (T is the
time period of a satellite & r is the distance of the satellite from the centre of the earth)

1) 2)

3) 4)

Q.36 The escape velocity of a sphere of mass m from earth having mass M and radius R is given by
2GM GM 2GMm GM
1) 2) 3) 4)
R R R 2R

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 3 of 14

Q.37 Which technology is used in GSLV engine which maintains liquefied fuel at very low temperatures?
1) Pyrogenic 2) Autogenic 3) Refrigenic 4) Cryogenic

Q.38 Which is the first Indian planetary science and exploration mission to Moon?
1) Luna- 1 2) Chandra – 1 3) Chandrama – 1 4) Chadrayaan – 1

Q.39 Two different samples have the same mass and temperature. Equal quantities of energy are
absorbed as heat by each. Their final temperatures may be different because the samples have
different
1) Coefficients of expansion 2) densities
3) heat capacities 4) Volumes
0
Q.40 Fifty grams of ice at 0 C is placed in a thermos bottle containing one hundred grams of water at
0
6 C. How many grams of ice will melt? The heat of fusion of ice is 33 K J/kg & the specific heat
0
is 4190 J/K C.
1) 7.5 2) 2.0 3) 8.3 4) 17

Q.41 The world famous louvre museum is at

heÇ.41 peieheÇefmeOo uegJeÇ mebieÇneueÙe Ùee osMeele Deens.

1) England 2) Italy 3) Belgium 4) France

1) Fbiueb[ 2) Fšeueer 3) yesefupeÙece 4) HeÇâevme

Q.42 The feminist historiography stresses on following aspect of women life

heÇ.42 m$eerJeeoer FeflenemeuesKeve m$eer peerJeveeÛÙee Keeueerue yeeyeerbJej Yej osles.

1) Their education, employment, family life, their role in trade union.

1) lÙeebÛes efMe#eCe veeskeâjer, jespeieej, keâewšgbefyekeâ peerJeve, JÙeeJemeeefÙekeâ mebIešveebceOeerue lÙeeÛes keâeÙe&.
2) Their contribution to economic development
2) DeeefLe&keâ efJekeâemeeleerue lÙeebÛes Ùeesieoeve.
3) Their contribution to the development of nationalism
3) je<š^JeeoeÛÙee efJekeâemeeleerue lÙeebÛes Ùeesieoeve.
4) None of these
4) Ùeehewkeâer veener.

Q.43 Asiatic society was founded at Kolkata by this scholar and in this year
heÇ.43 keâuekeâlòee ÙesLes SefMeDeeefškeâ meesmeeÙešerÛeer mLeehevee Ùee efJeÉeveeves Ùee Je<eer& keâsueer.

1) Max Mullar in 1780 2) Williom Jones in 1784

1) ce@keäme ceguuej 1780 2) efJeueerÙece peesvme 1784
3) Elphinston in 1810 4) None of these
3) SueefHeâmšve 1810 4) Ùeehewkeâer veener.

Q.44 Following statements are correct about colonial Historiography.

heÇ.44 JemeenleJeeoer FeflenememebyebOeer Keeueerue efJeOeeves yejesyej Deensle.
A) Colonial history was written by British officers and Christian missioneries.
De) JemeenleJeeoer Fefleneme heÇecegKÙeeves efyeÇšerMe DeefOekeâejer Je efKeÇMÛeve efceMevejer Ùeeveer efueneruee.
B) They were prejudiced about ancient Indian culture and underrated and criticized our Ancient
civilization, justified the colonial rule of England.
ye) lÙeebÛee heÇeÛeerve YeejleerÙe mebmke=âefleefJe<eÙekeâ o=ef<škeâesve hetJe&ieÇnotef<ele neslee. lÙeeveer Ùee mebmke=âefleuee keâceer opee&Ûeer mebmke=âefle
ceeveues. YeejleerÙe mebmke=âefleJej šerkeâe keâsueer, lÙeeÛes efueKeeCe Fbiueb[ÛÙee JemeenleJeeoer JeÛe&mJeeÛÙee meceLe&ve keâjCÙeemee"er
Jeehejues iesues.
C) They laid stress on military history and war technique.
keâ) lÙeeveer ue<keâjer Fefleneme Je heÇeÛeerve YeejleerÙeebÛes ÙegOo leb$e ÙeeJej Yej efouee.
D) The five volumes of Cambridge History of India published during 1922-1937 are distinct
examples of colonial Historiography.
[) F. me. 1922 — 1937 Ùee keâeUele heÇefmeOo Peeuesues keâsbefcyeÇpe efnmš^er Dee@Heâ Fbef[ÙeeÛes heeÛe Keb[ JemeenleJeeoer Fefleneme
uesKeveeÛee Glòece vecegvee Deens.
Option :-

1) All statements 2) A, B and D 3) A and C 4) B and C

1) meJe& efJeOeeves 2) De, ye DeeefCe [ 3) De DeeefCe keâ 4) ye DeeefCe keâ

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 4 of 14

Q.45 The study of History of industry and commerce is useful because
heÇ.45 GÅeesie Je JÙeeheej ÙeebÛÙee FeflenemeeÛee DeYÙeeme GheÙegkeäle Deens keâejCe.
A) As industry and commerce expands human relationship changes , New class develop in society.
De) GÅeesie Je JÙeeheej ÙeebÛee efJemleej PeeuÙeeJej ceeveJeer mebyebOe, JÙeefkeäleiele heeleUerJejerue hejmhejmebyebOe yeoueleele. DeeheCeeuee
lÙeebÛee DeYÙeeme keâjlee Ùeslees.
B) Development of industry and commerce promotes continuous development of the network
of cultural interaction.
ye) GÅeesie Je JÙeeheej ÙeebÛee efJekeâeme meebmke=âeflekeâ mebyebOeebÛes mJe®he Je yeoueebvee Ûeeuevee oslees. lÙeeÛeener DeYÙeeme keâjeJee
ueeielees.
C) The mutual social transactions expands with the growth of industry and trade.
keâ) meceepeeleerue efvejefvejeUÙee Jeie&leerU hejmhej mebyebOe mebyebOeebÛes mJe®he yeouele peeles. lÙeeÛeener DeYÙeeme keâjlee Ùeslees.
D) The study of growth of industry help us to formulate foreign and defense policy.
[) GÅeesie Je JÙeeheej ÙeebÛÙee JeeoerÛee DeYÙeeme hejje<š^ Je mebj#eCe OeesjCe "jefJeleevee GheÙegkeäle "jlees.
Alternative :
1) All statement 2) A, B, C 3) Only A 4) B and C
1) meJe& efJeOeeves 2) De, ye, keâ 3) Heâkeäle De 4) ye DeeefCe keâ

Q.46 The largest stup in world is

heÇ.46 peieeleerue meJee&le cees"e mlethe
1) Borobudur in Indonesia 2) Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh
1) yeesjesyegotj — Fb[esvesefMeÙee 2) meebÛeer — ceOÙeheÇosMe
3) Angarkot in Thailand 4) Lhasa in Tibet
3) Debieejkeâesš — LeeÙeueb[ 4) unemee — efleyesš

Q.47 Some examples of folk styles of sculptural art are

heÇ.47 ueeskeâefMeuhekeâuee Mewueer keâener GoenjCes
A) Ganesh idols B) Mask of Gauri
De) ieCesMecetleer& ye) ieewjerbÛes cegKeJešs
C) Bull figurines for bail pola D) Wooden memorials
keâ) yewueheesUÙeemee"er keâsues peeCeejs ceeleerÛes yewue [) ueekeâ[er mceejkeâs
1) A and C 2) A, B, C 3) All 4) A and D
1) De DeeefCe keâ 2) De, ye DeeefCe keâ 3) meJe& 4) De DeeefCe [

Q.48 The first English newspaper in India by and in the year.

heÇ.48 Yeejleeleerue heefnues FbieÇpeer Je=lòehe$e Ùeebveer ÙeeJe<eer& meg® keâsues.
1) Elphinston in 1810 2) Lord Linlithgow in 1780
1) SueefHeâmšve 1810 2) uee@[& efueve efueLeiees 1780
3) James Augustus Hicky in 1780 4) None of these
3) pescme Dee@iemšme efnkeâer 1780 4) Ùeehewkeâer veener

Q.49 Match the following

heÇ.49 ÙeesiÙe pees[Ùee ueeJee
A B
De ye
i) Baburao painter A) Bajirao Mastani
1) yeeyetjeJe hesbšj De) yeepeerjeJe — cemleeveer
ii) Kamlabai Mangrulkar B) Dnanya Te Santaji Dhanoji
2) keâceueeyeeF& ceebie®Ukeâj ye) OevÙe les mebleepeer Je Oeveepeer
iii) Dinkar D. Patil C) Sighgarh
3) efovekeâj o. heešerue keâ) efmebnie[
iv) Bhalaji Pendharkar D) Savalya Tandel
4) Yeeuepeer hesb{ejkeâj [) meeJeUÙee leebosU
1) i) – C; ii) – D; iii) – B; iv) – A
1) 1 — keâ, 2 — [, 3 — ye, 4) 4 — De
2) i) – A; ii) – C; iii) – B; iv) – D
2) 1 — De, 2 — keâ, 3 — ye, 4) 4 — [
3) i) – D; ii) – A; iii) – C; iv) – B
3) 1 — [, 2 — De, 3 — keâ, 4) 4 — ye
4) i) – A; ii) – B; iii) – C; iv) – D
4) 1 — De, 2 — ye, 3 — keâ, 4) 4 — [

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 5 of 14

Q.50 Read the following statement and choose the correct alternatives
heÇ.50 Keeueerue efJeOeeves JeeÛee Je ÙeesiÙe heÙee&Ùe efveJe[e.
Statement A :-In last few decades sports economy changed significantly.
efJeOeeve De — ceeieerue keâener oMekeâebheemetve KesUebÛes DeLe&keâejCe cees"dÙee heÇceeCeele yeoueues Deens.
Statement B :- The income of sports associations increased tremendously, remuneration of sports
person increased and industrialist, commercial organization advertise their products when sports
matches are displayed on T.V and Radio.
efJeOeeve ye — KesUebÛÙee mebIešvesÛes GlheVe Jee{ues KesUe[btÛÙee ceeveOeeveele Jee{ Peeueer lemesÛe KesUeÛÙee mheOee& jsef[Dees efkeâbJee
otjoMe&veJej oeKeefJeuÙee peeleele lesJneb JÙeeheejer keâbhevÙee Je JemletbÛes Glheeokeâ DeeheuÙee GlheeoveeÛeer peenerjele keâjleele.
Alternatives :

1) Both statement are wrong

1) oesvner efJeOeeves Ûetkeâ Deensle.
2) “A” is wrong B is correct
2) ’De’ Ûetkeâ Deens Je ’ye’ yejesyej Deens.
3) Both are correct but not inlerrelated .
3) oesvner efJeOeeves yejesyej Deensle hejvleg hejmhej mebyebefOele veener
4) Both are correct and “ B “ is the explanation of A.
4) oesvner efJeOeeves yejesyej Je ’ye’ ns ’De’ Ûes mhe<šerkeâjCe Deens.

Q.51 To visit Agricultural University Progressive Farms is a

heÇ.51 ke=âef<e efJeÅeeheer"evee lemesÛe heÇieeflekeâejkeâ Mesleeruee Yesš osCes cnCepes

1) Natural Tourism 2) Agro – Tourism 3) Botanical Tourism 4) None of these

1) vewmeefie&keâ heÙe&šve 2) ke=â<eer heÙe&šve 3) Jevemheleer heÙe&šve 4) Ùeehewkeâer veener

Q.52 The first official archive of India was established in __________________.

heÇ.52 Yeejleeleerue heefnues mejkeâejer DeefYeuesKeeieej ÙeeJe<eer& ÙesLes mLeeheve Peeues.

1) 1891 at Kolkata 2) 1820 at Chennai

1) 1891 keâuekeâlòee 2) 1820 ÛesvveF&
3) 1855 at Mumbai 4) 1885 at Delhi
3) 1855 cegbyeF& 4) 1885 efouueer

Q.53 There are three department at Indian Museum at Kolkata .One of the following is not
heÇ.53 keâuekeâlòee ÙesLeerue Fbef[Ùeve cÙegefPeÙece ceOÙes efJeYeeie Deensle. Keeueeruehewkeâer Skeâ veener.

1) Arts 2) Archaeology 3) Anthropology 4) Religious & Cultural

1) keâuee 2) hegjelelJe Meem$e 3) ceeveJeMeem$e 4) Oece& Je mebmke=âefle

Q.54 Point correct statement among the following.

heÇ.54 Keeueerue efJeOeeveebhewkeâer yejesyej efJeOeeves DeesUKee
A) The style of temple architecture are identified by the style of the Towers (Shikhar).
De) cebefojebÛeer mLeehelÙeMewueer efMeKejebÛÙee jÛevee JewefMe<šÙeebvegmeej "jles.
B) Bhoomija style has a close resemblance to the Nagar style from the structural viewpoint.
ye) Yetefcepe cebefojMewueer Je veeiej cebefojMewueer ÙeebÛÙeeceOÙes jÛevesÛÙee o=<šerves meecÙe Dee{Ules
C) In Bhoomija style series of miniature tovers are arranged which become smaller towards the
top.
keâ) Yetefcele Mewueerle keÇâceMeŠ ueneve nesle peeCeeNÙee efMeKejebÛÙee heÇefleke=âefle JejheÙe&le jÛeuesuÙee Demeleele.
D) This style is found in Gandhar Kashmir.
[) Yetefcepe MewueerÛes mLeehelÙe ieebOeej Je keâMceerjceOÙes Dee{Ules.

1) All statements 2) A and D 3) B, C, D 4) A, B, C

1) meJe& efJeOeeves 2) De DeeefCe [ 3) ye, keâ, [ 4) De, ye, keâ

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 6 of 14

Q.55 Knowledge of History is useful for newspapers, for this which of the following arguments can be
made
heÇ.55 Jele&ceevehe$eele Fefleneme efJe<eÙeeÛeer iejpe he[les keâejCe
A) Sometimes newspapers unfold the background of an event in the news.
De) Jele&ceevehe$es SKeeoer yeeleceer osleevee lÙeeÛeer heeÕe&Yetceer veceto keâjleele, YetlekeâeUele Ie[uesuÙee leMeeÛe IešveebÛeer ceeefnleer osleele.
Ùeemee"er FeflenemeeÛeer iejpe Demeles.
B) News papers print columns of historical information like 50 years ago. Such columns are based on
written history.
ye) Jele&ceevehe$es Ssefleneefmekeâ ceeefnleer Demeuesues keâe@uecme Goe. 50 Je<ee&hetJeer& efuenerleele, Demes keâe@uecme ef ueKeerle FeflenemeeJej
DeeOeejuesues Demeleele.
C) News papers publish special issues on a particular incident like 75 years of independence 500 years
of the voyage of Columbus.
keâ) Jele&ceevehe$es keâener Keeme IešveebÛÙee mcejCeeLe& uesKe efuenerleele keâesuebyemeÛÙee meHeâjeruee 500 Je<es& hetCe&. ÛeuespeeJe ÛeUJeUeruee
75 Je<es& hetCe&.
D) Historians can work as expert in news paper.
[) Feflenemekeâej Jele&ceevehe$eele le%e cnCetve keâece keâ® Mekeâlees.
1) A, B, C 2) All statements 3) A and B 4) Not any
1) De, ye, keâ 2) meJe& efJeOeeves 3) De DeeefCe ye 4) Skeâner veener

Q.56 Which of the following statements are correct about orientalist Historiography –
heÇ.56 DeesefjSbšue Fefleneme uesKeveMeem$eeefJe<eÙeer Keeueerue efJeOeeves yejesyej Deensle.
A) Some Europian scholars were curious and interested to study the Eastern i.e. oriental
civilization and religion. Their writing was called as oriental Historiography.
De) keâener ÙegjeefheDeve efJeÉeveevee hetJes&keâ[erue cnCepes DeesefjSbšue Oece& Je mebmke=âefle Ùee efJe<eÙeer keâgletnue Je lÙeeÛee DeYÙeeme
keâjCÙeeÛeer FÛÚe nesleer. lÙeebÛÙee Fefleneme uesKeveeme DeesefjSbšue FeflenemeuesKeveMeem$e Demes cnCeleele.
B) They were not prejudiced and carried on study impartially.
ye) lÙeebÛee DeYÙeeme Je uesKeve hetJe&ieÇn otef<ele veJnles lÙeebÛes uesKeve efveŠhe#eheeleer nesles.
C) Some oriental scholars were Williom Jones and Maxmullar.
keâ) keâebner DeesefjSbšue Feflenemekeâej cnCepes mej efJeueerÙece peesvme Je ce@keämeceguuej
D) Oriental Historiographers were financed by Government of Britain.
[) Ùee Feflenemekeâejele Fiueb[ÛÙee mejkeâejves DeeefLe&keâ ceole keâsueer.
Option : -
1) A, B, C 2) Only A 3) All statements 4) None of these
1) De, ye, keâ 2) Heâkeäle De 3) meJe& efJeOeeves 4) Ùeehewkeâer veener

Q.57 Point out the wrong statement among the following

heÇ.57 Keeueerue efJeOeeveehewkeâer ÛegkeâerÛes efJeOeeve DeesUKee.
A) In the Bhajan musical instruments like tall. Mridangam, Pakhavaj are used.
De) YepeveeceOÙes šeU ce=obie efkeâbJee heKeJeepe efn JeeÅes Jeehejleele.
B) Lalit belongs to tradition of Naradiya Keertan and is an old form of entertainment in
Maharashtra.
ye) ueefuele ne ceveesjbpeveeÛee heÇkeâej veejoerÙe keâerle&ve hejbhejsleerue Deens Je ceneje<š^eleerue ceveesjbpeveeÛee petv ee heÇkeâej Deens.
C) Naradiya or Haridasi Keertan is a solo performance. It has two parts Poorvarang and
Uttarrang.
keâ) veejoerÙe efkeâbJee nefjoemeer keâerle&ve Skeâhee$eer heÇÙeesie Demelees. lÙeeÛes hetJe&jbie Je Glòejbie Demes oesve Yeeie Demeleele.
D) In the Varkari Keertan collective participation is important.
[) Jeejkeâjer keâerle&veele meecetefnkeâ menYeeieeuee cenlJe Demeles.
1) Statements B is wrong 2) No statement is wrong
1) efJeOeeve ye ÛegkeâerÛes Deens 2) Skeâner efJeOeeve Ûetkeâ veener
3) B and C are wrong 4) A and D are wrong
3) ye DeeefCe keâ Ûetkeâ 4) De DeeefCe [ Ûetkeâ

Q.58 Point out correct statement from among the following.

heÇ.58 Keeueeruehewkeâer yejesyej efJeOeeves DeesUKee
A) The constitution says that India is a secular Democratic Republic.
De) DeeheuÙee jepÙeIešvesheÇceeCes Yeejle ns Oece&efvejhes#e ueeskeâMeenerJeeoer heÇpeemelòeekeâ Deens.
B) The essence of democracy and representative is to integrate the principles of democracy in
actual practice.
ye) ueeskeâMeener Je heÇefleefveOeerkeâ JÙeJemLesceOÙes ueeskeâeveer ueeskeâMeener lelJes heÇlÙe#e owvebefove JÙeJenejele Debceueele DeeCeeJeer ueeieleele
lesJneÛe ueeskeâMeener JÙeJemLee ÙeMemJeer nesles.

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 7 of 14

 C) For social justice it is necessary to remove those social conditions which are responsible for
injustice, exploitation and inequality.
keâ) meeceeefpekeâ vÙeeme heÇmLeeefhele nesCÙeemee"er pÙee heefjefmLeleer Je IeškeâebcegUs DevÙeeÙe Mees<eCe Je efJe<ecelee efvecee&Ce nesles les
Ieškeâ Je heefjefmLeleer ve<š keâjCes DeeJeMÙekeâ Deens.
D) Since last few decades development is considered as the right of citizens.
[) ceeieerue keâener oMekeâebheemegve efJekeâeme ne veeieefjkeâebÛee nkeäkeâ ceeveuee peele Deens.
1) All are correct 2) Only A and D 3) B and C 4) Only D
1) meJe& efJeOeeves yejesyej 2) De DeeefCe [ yejesyej 3) ye DeeefCe keâ 4) Heâkeäle [

Q.59 The benefits of Electronic voting machine are

heÇ.59 Fueskeäše@efvekeâ Jnesšerbie ceefMeveÛes HeâeÙeos heg{erue heÇceeCes
A) Even disabled persons can vote themselves and easily.
De) efoJÙeebie JÙekeäleervee mJeleŠ celeoeve keâjCes meeshes Peeues.
B) Election results can be declared in a short time.
ye) efveJe[CetkeâerÛee efvekeâeue ueJekeâj ueeieCes MekeäÙe Peeues.
C) If the voter do not to vote for any candidate he can choose the option ‘None of the above,
NOTA’.
keâ) pej SKeeÅee celeoejeuee keâgCeeueener cele ÅeeÙeÛes vemesue lej lees ’veesše’ Ûee heÙee&Ùe mJeerkeâe® Mekeâlees.
D) The election expenses have been reduced considerably.
[) efveJe[CetkeâerÛee KeÛe& yeNÙeeÛe heÇceeCeele keâceer Peeuee.
1) All options 2) C and D 3) A and C 4) A, B, C
1) meJe& HeâeÙeos 2) keâ DeeefCe [ 3) De DeeefCe keâ 4) De, ye, keâ

Q.60 Which of the following statements is wrong about Shiromani Akali Dal.
heÇ.60 efMejesceCeer Dekeâeueer oue Ùee he#eemeboYee&le Keeueerue efJeOeeve Ûetkeâ Deens.
A) It was established in 1920 and is a major party in Punjab.
De) efMejesceCeer Dekeâeueer oueeÛeer mLeehevee 1920 ceOÙes Peeueer.
B) Its objective is to cultivate religious and culture identity of Punjab.
ye) efleÛes GÅeer<š hebpeeyeÛeer Oeeefce&keâ Je meebmke=âeflekeâ Deefmcelee peesheemeCes efn Deens.
C) It is a ruling party in Punjab for many years.
keâ) ne he#e hebpeeyeceOÙes yeNÙeeÛe Je<ee&heemetve melòee®{ he#e Deens.
D) It is a member party of National Democratic Alliance.
[) efMejeceCeer Dekeâeueer oue je<š^erÙe ueeskeâMeener DeIee[erleerue Ieškeâ he#e Deens.
1) Only D 2) A and B
1) Heâkeäle [ 2) De DeeefCe ye
3) No statement is wrong 4) A and C are wrong.
3) Skeâner efJeOeeve Ûetkeâ veener 4) De DeeefCe keâ Ûetkeâ Deensle.

Q.61 Which of the following statement is wrong about Assam Gana Parishad
heÇ.61 Deemeece ieCe heefj<eosmebyebOeer Keeueerue efJeOeeves Ûetkeâ Deensle.
A) It is a major Party in Assam and was in power for many years.
De) Deemeece ieCe heefj<eo ne DeemeeceOeerue cenlJeeÛee heÇeosefMekeâ he#e Deens.
B) Its objectives are to protect the unique cultural, linguistic and social identity of Assam and to
face the problem of infiltration from Bangladesh.
ye) Ùee he#eeÛeer GÅeer<"s, DeemeeceÛes Yeeef<ekeâ meebmke=âeflekeâ meeceeefpekeâ JesieUsheCe Je Deefmcelee efškeâJeCes Je yeebieuee osMeceOetve
DeeuesuÙee IetmeKeesjebÛeer mecemÙee mees[efJeCes.
C) Assam Agreement was signed in 1985 between Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Assam Gana
parishad.
keâ) F. me. 1985 ceOÙes hebleheÇOeeve jepeerJe ieebOeer Je Deemeece ieCe heefj<eo ÙeebÛÙeele Deemeece keâjej Peeuee.
D) This party was banned in 1988 and its all leader were arrested.
[) Ùee he#eeJej F.me. 1988 ceOÙes yeboer IeeUCÙeele Deeueer Je lÙeebÛÙee veslÙeebvee Deškeâ keâjCÙeele Deeueer.
1) Only D is wrong 2) No statement is wrong
1) Heâkeäle efJeOeeve [ Ûetkeâ Deens. 2) Skeâner efJeOeeve Ûetkeâ veener.
3) A and C are wrong 4) B and C are wrong
3) De DeeefCe keâ Ûetkeâ 4) ye DeeefCe keâ Ûetkeâ Deens

Q.62 In India, workers were facing different problems .Some of them are
heÇ.62 Yeejleele keâeceieejevee Keeueerue mecemÙeebvee leesb[ ÅeeJes ueeiele Demes.
A) Unstable employment B) Health Hazards
De) DeefmLej jespeieej ye) DeejesiÙeeÛee DeeYeeJe
C) Financial insecurity D) Political interference in the working
keâ) DeeefLe&keâ Demegjef#elelee [) keâeceeceOÙes jepekeâerÙe nmle#eshe

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 8 of 14

 Alternatives
1) None of these problems 2) A and D
1) Ùeehewkeâer Skeâner veener 2) De DeeefCe [
3) B and D 4) A,B and C
3) ye DeeefCe [ 4) De, ye DeeefCe keâ

Q.63 Point out wrong statement from among the following

heÇ.63 Keeueeruehewkeâer ÛegkeâerÛeer efJeOeeves DeesUKee.
A) Democracy guarantees political equality. But in the absence of social equality, political equality
may prove to be futile.
De) ueeskeâMeener jepekeâerÙe mecelesÛeer nceer osles. heCe meeceeefpekeâ meceevelee vemesue lej jepekeâerÙe meceevelee efvejLe&keâ "jles.
B) The objective of democracy is to provide basic necessities to all people. In the situation of
extreme poverty and unemployment democracy remains only in name and may face the danger
of social rebellion.
ye) ueeskeâMeenerÛes Skeâ cenlJeeÛes GÅeer<" cnCepes meJe& veeieefjkeâebvee lÙeebÛÙee cetueYetle iejpee hegjefJeCes. DeelÙebeflekeâ yeskeâejerÛÙee Je
ieefjyeerÛÙee heefjefmLeleerle ueeskeâMeener Heâkeäle veebJeehegjlee Gjles Je ueeskeâMeneruee meeceeefpekeâ GoÇskeâeÛee Oeesk eâe GodYeJelees.
C) Regional inequality is a challenge before democracy. It can be handled in three ways
i) balanced development; ii) fair share in resource; iii) adequate share in power
keâ) heÇeosefMekeâ efJe<ecelee ns ueeskeâMeenerheg{erue cees"sÛe DeeJneve Deens. efn mecemÙee leerve ceeiee&ves neleeUlee Ùesles. Heefnuee — meblegefuele
efJekeâeme, ogmeje — meeOevemebheblòeerÛes vÙeeÙe DeeefCe leermeje — melòesceOÙes ÙeesiÙe Jeeše. ns GheeÙe heÇYeeJeerheCes Debceueele DeeCeCes
ueeskeâMeenerleÛe MekeäÙe Demeles.
D) Low voter turnout is also a challenge before democracy.
[) celeoeveeÛes keâceer heÇceeCe ns megæe ueeskeâMeenermeceesjerue DeeJneve Deens.
Alternatives

1) No statement is wrong 2) All statement are wrong

1) meJe& efJeOeeves Ûetkeâ Deens 2) Skeâner efJeOeeve Ûetkeâ veener
2) A and C are wrong 4) B and D are wrong
3) De DeeefCe keâ Ûetkeâ Deens 4) ye DeeefCe [ Ûetkeâ Deensle.

Q.64 Following is the core of democracy

heÇ.64 Keeueerue Ieškeâ ne ueeskeâMeener JÙeJemLesÛee ieeYee Deens.

1) People 2) Elections
1) pevelee 2) efveJe[Cetkeâe
3) Government 4) People’s participation
3) mejkeâej 4) ueeskeâebÛee menYeeie

Q.65 Most of the part of Brazil lies in _________hemisphere, Where as India lies in_________ hemisphere.
heÇ.65 yeÇePeerueÛee yejeÛemee Yeeie —————————— ieesueeOee&le Deens, Je Yeejle ————————–ieesueeOee&le Deens.

1) Southern, Northern 2) Southern, Southern 3) Northern, Northern 4) Northern, Southern

1) oef#eCe, Glòej 2) oef#eCe, oef#eCe 3) Glòej, Glòej 4) Glòej, oef#eCe

Q.66 Himalaya

Extend from Extend in India from Southern most part

heÇ.66 efnceeueÙe

heemetve meg® neslees Yeejleele —— heemetve meg® neslees oef#eCeskeâ[erue Yeeve

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 9 of 14

 1) Pamirknot, Jammu & Kashmir, Shiwalik
1) heeceerj vee@š, peccet DeeefCe keâeMceerj, efMeJeeefuekeâ
2) Kazikistan, Jammu & Kashmir, Himadri
2) keâPeekeâermleeve, peccet DeeefCe keâeMceerj, efnceeoÇer
3) Myanmar, Punjab, Himachal
3) cÙeeceej, hebpeeye, efnceeÛeue
4) None of these
4) Ùeehewkeâer veener

Q.67 to Q.69 : Observe the picture and answer these given questions :
heÇ.67 les heÇ.69 : — vekeâeMeeÛes DeYÙeeme keâ®ve heÇMveeÛes Glòejs oÙee.

Q.67 What is the picture of

HeÇ.67 ns efÛe$e keâMeeÛes Deens?
1) Brazilian flag 2) Brazilian army 3) Brazilian symbol 4) Brazilian emblem
1) yeÇePeerueÛee Pesb[e 2) yeÇePeerueÛee mewvÙe efÛe$e 3) yeÇeefPeueÛes efÛevn 4) yeÇeefPeueÛes heÇleerkeâ

Q.68 What was it officially accepted?

heÇ.68 ns keâsJne mJeerkeâejCÙeele Deeues?
1) 1822 2) 1930 3) 1889 4) 1985
1) 1822 2) 1930 3) 1889 4) 1985

Q.69 Which are the two important crops of the country are shown here?
heÇ.69 osMeeleerue keâg"ueer oesve cenlJeeÛeer efhekeâs Ùeele oeKeJeueer Deensle?
1) Coffee, tobacco 2) Coffee, coca 3) Coffee, banana 4) coffee, rubber
1) keâe@Heâer, lebyeeKet 2) keâe@Heâer, keâeskeâes 3) keâe@Heâer, keâsUer 4) keâe@Heâer, jyej

Q.70 Match the column

heÇ.70 pees[Ùee pegUJee —
A B
De — ieš ye — ieš
i) Pink dolphins a) Pantanal
1) iegueeyeer [e@efuHeâve De) he@ševeue
ii) Anaconda b) sea
2) De@veekeâesb[e ye) mecegoÇ
iii) Sword-fish c) river
3) mJee[& HeâerMe keâ) veoer

1) i – c; ii – a iii – b
1) i – keâ ; ii – De iii – ye
2) i – c; ii – b iii – a
2) i – keâ; ii – ye iii – De
3) i – b; ii – c iii – a
3) i – ye; ii – keâ iii – De
4) i – b; ii – a iii – c
4) i – ye; ii – De iii – keâ

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 10 of 14

Q.71 to Q.73 : Read the passage and answer these question :-
Sex ratio of Brazil is more than 1000. In India, men outnumber women. In India we see fluctuations
in sex ratio since few decades.
heÇ.71 les 73 — heefjÛÚso JeeÛee, Deeke=âleer DeYÙeemee Je heÇMveebÛeer Glòejs oÙee —
yeÇeefPeueÛes efuebie iegCeeslòej 1000 hes#ee peemle Deens. Yeejleele heg®<eebÛeer mebKÙee efm$eÙeebhes#ee DeefOekeâ Deens. iesuÙee keâener
oMekeâeheemetve Yeejleeleerue efuebie iegCeeslòejele Ûe{ Gleej efometve Ùesle Deens.

Q.71 From which year increase in sex ratio of India can be seen?
heÇ.71 keâg"uÙee Je<ee&heemetve Yeejleeleerue efuebie iegCeeslòejele Jee{ efometve Ùesles?
1) 2001 2) 2011 3) 1991 4) 1981
1) 2001 2) 2011 3) 1991 4) 1981

Q.72 Till which year the ratio in Brazil was almost stable?
heÇ.72 keâg"uÙee Je<ee&heÙe&ble yeÇePeerue ceOeerue iegCeeslòej peJeUheeme efmLej nesles?
1) 1991 2) 2001 3) 1971 4) 2011
1) 1991 2) 2001 3) 1971 4) 2011

Q.73 What is the conclusion

heÇ.73 oesvner Deeke=âlÙee yeIetve keâeÙe Devegceeve keâe{lee ÙesF&ue?
1) sex ratio of Brazil is more 2) sex ratio of India is less
1) yeÇePeerue ceOeerue efuebie iegCeeslòej DeefOekeâ Deens? 2) Yeejleeleerue efuebie iegCeeslòej keâceer Deens?
3) both 1 and 2 4) None of these
3) 1 DeeefCe 2 oesvner 4) Ùeehewkeâer veener

Q.74 Brazil adopted GST from _____________ & India adopted GST from _____________.
heÇ.74 yeÇeefPeueves peerSmešer heÇCeeueer —————————— Je<eer& lej Yeejleeves leer ————————— Je<eer& mJeerkeâejueer.
1) 1984, 2017 2) 2017, 1889 3) 1985, 2018 4) 1984, 2018
1) 1984, 2017 2) 2017, 1889 3) 1985, 2018 4) 1984, 2018

Q.75 What is the following description about?

heÇ.75 Keeueerue JeCe&ve keâMeeÛes Deens?
“A vast continental area believed to have existed in southern hemisphere to have resulted
from Break-up of Pangea. It comprised present day Arabia, Africa, South America, Antarctica,
Australiya & Peninsula of India.”
’’Keb[eÛee efJemleerCe& Yeeie pees cetU oef#eCe ieesueeOee&le, he@efpeÙeeÛÙee efJeKeb[veecegUs yeveuee. Jele&ceeve keâeUele — DejsefyeÙee,
DeHeÇâerkeâe, o. Decesefjkeâe, Debšeefkeäš&keâe, Dee@mš^sefueÙee Je YeejleeÛee keâener Yeeie Ùeeves JÙeeheuee Deens.’’
1) Shield 2) Acient plateau 3) Gondwana land 4) Core
1) keâJeÛe 2) heÇeÛeerve he"ej 3) ieesb[Jeve 4) ieeYee

Q.76 In which months, Brazil experience Winter?

heÇ.76 keâesCelÙee ceefnvÙeeble yeÇeefPeueceOÙes efnJeeUe Demelees?
1) October to January 2) February to May
1) Dee@keäšesyej les peevesJeejer 2) HeâsyeÇgJeejer les ces
3) March to June 4) February to July
4) ceeÛe& les petve 4) HeâsyeÇgJeejerr les peguew

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 11 of 14

Q.77 to Q.80 : Observe the map and answer the following questions given below :-
heÇ.77 les heÇ.80 :— vekeâeMeeÛes efvejer#eCe keâ®ve heÇMveebÛeer Glòejs oÙee.

Q.77 On which side of North America ore earthquake prone zones located?
HeÇ.77 Glòej DecesefjkeâsÛÙee keâg"uÙee efoMesme Yetkeâbhe heÇJeCe #es$e Dee{Ules.
1) Western 2) Eastern 3) Southern 4) Northern
1) heefMÛece 2) hetJe& 3) oef#eCe 4) Glòejs

Q.78 In which mountainous zone in Asia does the earthquake prone zones located?
heÇ.78 DeeefMeÙeeÛÙee keâg"uÙee heJe&leerÙe Yeeieele Yetkeâbhe heÇJeCe #es$e Dee{Ules?
1) Arawali mountains 2) Sahyadri mountains
1) DejJeueer 2) menÙeeoÇer
3) Himalayas mountains 4) Nilgiri mountains
3) efnceeueÙee 4) efveueefiejer

Q.79 In which region are volcanoes concentrated in Africa?

heÇ.79 DeefHeÇâkeâsÛÙee keâg"uÙee Yeeieele pJeeueecegKeer keâsefoÇle Peeuesues efomeleele?
1) Eastern 2) Western 3) Southern 4) Northern
1) hetJe& 2) heefMÛece 3) oef#eCe 4) Glòej

Q.80 Which volcanic mountain/s lie between American plate and Euracian plate?
heÇ.80 Decesefjkeâve huesš Je ÙegjsefMeÙeve huesšÛÙee ceOÙes keâesCelee/les pJeeueecegKeer heJe&le Deensle?
1) Mt. Etna 2) Mt. Vesuvius 3) Mt. Stromboli 4) All above
1) Sšvee 2) JnsmegefJnÙeme 3) mš^esbyeesueer 4) Jejerue meJe&

0
Q.81 Find the slope of a line passing three (0, 3) and making an angle of 120 from the Y-axis in clockwise
direction.
1 1
1) - 2) 3) 3 4) - 3
3 3

Q.82
Points Location
A) (-3, 0), (4, 0), (-2, 0) P) Quadrant bisector
B) (-1, -1), (1,1), (m , m )
2 2 Q) X – axis
C) (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 9) R) Line parallel to Y – axis
D) (-3, 1) (3, 1), (-2, 1) S) Line Parallel to X - axis

1) A  Q, B  P, C  S, D  R 2) A  P, B  S, C  R, D  Q
3) A  Q, B  P, C  R, D  S 4) None

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 12 of 14

Q.83 There are 3 men and 2 women. A committee of two is to be formed.
P is the event that committee should contain at least one woman.
Q is the event that committee should contain one man and one woman.
R is the event that there should be no woman in the committee.
1) P & R are complementary events.
2) P & R are mutually exclusive events.
3) n(s) = 10, n(p) = 7, n(q) = 6, n(r) =3
4) 1, 2, 3 all are correct

Q.84 Two digits numbers are formed from the digits 0,1,2,3,4 where digits are not repeated.
5
1) the probability of forming an even number is .
8
3
2) the probability of forming number greater than 40 is .
16
5
3) the probability of getting a prime number is .
16
4) All 1,2,3, are true.

Q.85 Find the value of ‘x’ for the equation ax + by = 5; bx + ay = 3 where a & b are real constants-
3a  5b a b 5a  3b 5a  3b
1) 2) 3) 4)
a2  b2 a2  b a2  b a2  b2

x y x y
Q.86 + = a+b; 2 + 2 = 2 then x – y = ?
a b a b
2 2
1) (a+b) 2) (a - b)
3) (a+b) (b - a) 4) (b+a) (a – b)

3
Q.87 The rationalising factor of x + 3 y is
2 1 1 2
3 3
1) x + y 2) (x + y) 3) x 3 - x 3 y 3 + y 3 4) None

5 2 2 1
Q.88 If x = then x + 2 = ?
5 2 x
180 197 178
1) 2) 3) 4) None
7 4 9

Q.89 If in an A.P. t4 = 12 & d = - 10, then General term of A.P. is

1) 24 – 3n 2) 52 – 10n 3) 32 – 5n 4) 28 – 4n
th th
Q.90 Find the sum of the 56 terms of an A.P. whose 19 and 38 terms are 52 and 148 respectively.
1) 5200 2) 5300 3) 5400 4) 5600

Q.91 Sachin, Sehwag, and Dhoni together scored 228 runs. Their individual scores are in G.P. Sehwag and
Dhoni together scored 12 runs more than Sachin. Find their individual scores.
1) 60, 90, 78 2) 40, 72, 116 3) 108, 72, 48 4) None

Q.92 Mr. Nasim purchased 200 shares of FV Rs.50 at a premium of Rs.100. He received 50% dividend on
the shares. After receiving the dividend he sold 100 shares at a discount of Rs. 10 and remaining
shares were sold at a premium of Rs. 75. For each trade he paid the brokerage of Rs.20. Find whether
Mr. Nasim gained profit or incurred a loss? By how much?
1) Loss of Rs. 8500 2) Loss of Rs. 8560 3) Gain of Rs. 8560 4) Gain of Rs. 8500

Q.93 Find the possible value of sin x if 8 sin x – cos x = 4.

3 5 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 1 and 2 Both
5 13 5

p2 1
Q.94 If sec  + tan  = P than =?
p2  1
cot 
1) cos  2) 3) sin 4) 1 and 2 both
cos ec

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 13 of 14

Q.95 if sec  + tan  = K then cos  =?
1 2k k2 1
1) 2) 3) 4) None
k k 1
2
k
Q.96 In the figure, points B and C lie on the tangent to the circle drawn at point A.
1
Chord AD  chord ED. m (arc EPF) = m (arc AQD) and m (arc DRE) = 84 . Find FDA
0

0 0 0 0
1) 168 2) 84 3) 75 4) 150

In the figure,  DEFG is a square and BAC = 90 . Then

0
Q.97

2
1) DE = BD x EC 2) DE = BD x EC 3) GF.GD = AG.AF 4) GD = GB.BD
2
Q.98 If ‘-4’ is a root of the quadratic equation x + px – 4 = 0 and the quadratic equation
2
x + px + k = 0 has equal roots than find out the value of k.
9
1) 2) – 3 3) 2 4) 2 and 3 both
4

Q.99 The equation x  1  x  1  4 x  1 has

1) no solution 2) one solution
3) two solution 4) more than two solutions

2
Q.100 If ‘’ and ‘’ are the roots of the quadratic equation 2x – 4x + 1 = 0, then find the value of
1 1
 .
  2    2
12 1
1) -10 2) 3) 4) None
17 4
Q.101 Three circles are mutually tangent externally. Their centres form a triangle whose side are of
length 3, 4 and 5. The total area of the three circles (in square units), is :
1) 9  2) 16 3) 21  4) 14

Q.102 The circle and the square have the same centre and the same area. If the circle has radius 1, the
length of AB, is :

1) 4 -  2) 4 - 2  3) 2   4) 4 

Q.103 The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is

1) the process of charging a body .
2) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
3) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
4) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.

Q.104 Current element is the source of

1) Static electric charge 2) isolated magnetic pole
3) magnetic field 4) none of the above

TEST PAPER – 1 Page 14 of 14