MEWAR UNIVERSITY

END TERM EXAMINATION- 2013

BRANCH : ECE 2ND YEAR (4TH SEMESTER)

SUBJECT : ANALOG ELECTRONICS

UNIT 1
1. Intrinsic semiconductor material is characterized by a valence shell of how many
electrons?
A. 1 B. 2

C. 4 D. 6
2. Ionization within a P-N junction causes a layer on each side of the barrier called the:
A. Junction

B. depletion region

C. barrier voltage

D. forward voltage
3. What is the most significant development in electronics since World War II?
A. the development of color TV

B. the development of the diode

C. the development of the transistor

D. the development of the TRIAC

4. What causes the depletion region?
A. Doping

B. Diffusion

C. barrier potential
 D. Ions
5. What is an energy gap?
A. the space between two orbital shells

the energy equal to the energy acquired by an electron passing a 1 V

B.
electric field

C. the energy band in which electrons can move freely

D. an energy level at which an electron can exist

6. Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a:
A. covalent bond

B. Crystal

C. Semiconductor

D. valence orbit
7. In "n" type material, majority carriers would be:
A. Holes B. Dopants

C. Slower D. Electrons

8. Elements with 1, 2, or 3 valence electrons usually make excellent:

A. Conductors B. Semiconductors

C. Insulators D. Neutral
9. A commonly used pentavalent material is:
A. Arsenic B. Boron

C. Gallium D. Neon

10. Which material may also be considered a semiconductor element?

A. Carbon B. Ceramic

C. Mica D. Argon
11. In "p" type material, minority carriers would be:
 A. Holes B. Dopants

C. Slower D. Electrons

12. What can a semiconductor sense?

A. Magnetism

B. Temperature

C. Pressure

D. all of the above

13. When an electron jumps from the valence shell to the conduction band, it leaves a
gap. What is this gap called?
A. energy gap

B. Hole

C. electron-hole pair

D. Recombination
14. Forward bias of a silicon P-N junction will produce a barrier voltage of
approximately how many volts?
A. 0.2 B. 0.3

C. 0.7 D. 0.8
15. Which semiconductor material is made from coal ash?
A. Germanium B. Silicon

C. Tin D. Carbon
16. When and who discovered that more than one transistor could be constructed on a
single piece of semiconductor material:
A. 1949, William Schockley

B. 1955, Walter Bratten

C. 1959, Robert Noyce

D. 1960, John Bardeen

17. When is a P-N junction formed?
A. in a depletion region

B. in a large reverse biased region

C. the point at which two opposite doped materials come together

D. whenever there is a forward voltage drop

18. A P-N junction mimics a closed switch when it:

A. has a low junction resistance

B. is reverse biased

C. cannot overcome its barrier voltage

D. has a wide depletion region

19. Solid state devices were first manufactured during:
A. World War 2

B. 1904

C. 1907

D. 1960
20. Electron pair bonding occurs when atoms:
A. lack electrons

B. share holes

C. lack holes

D. share electrons
21. How many valence electrons are in every semiconductor material?
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
22. What is a type of doping material?
 A. extrinsic semiconductor material

B. pentavalent material

C. n-type semiconductor

D. majority carriers
23. Minority carriers are many times activated by:
A. Heat

B. Pressure

C. Dopants

D. forward bias
24. What is the voltage across R1 if the P-N junction is made of silicon?

A. 12 V

B. 11.7 V

C. 11.3 V

D. 0V
25. If conductance increases as temperature increases, this is known as a:
A. positive coefficient

B. negative current flow

C. negative coefficient

D. positive resistance
26. Which of the following cannot actually move?
A. majority carriers
 B. Ions

C. Holes

D. free electrons
27. What electrical characteristic of intrinsic semiconductor material is controlled by
the addition of impurities?
A. Conductivity

B. Resistance

C. Power

D. all of the above

28. What is a varistor?
A. a voltage-dependent resistor

B. a voltage-dependent diode

C. a current-dependent resistor

D. a current-dependent diode
29. Which type of transformer is required to create a 180 degree input to a rectifier?
A. center-tapped secondary

B. step-down secondary

C. stepped-up secondary

D. split winding primary

30. What circuit activity may shift a characteristic curve so that diode operating points
are different?
A. higher power (heat)

B. higher resistance

C. lower voltage
 D. lower current
31. Diode in forward bias ?

A. Open

B. Short

C. Nothing

D. not enough data

32. The dc current through each diode in a bridge rectifier equals:
A. the load current

B. half the dc load current

C. twice the dc load current

D. one-fourth the dc load current

33. When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential difference
(PD) is above 0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:
A. not working

B. forward biased

C. reverse biased

D. an open switch
34. In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a smooth dc output?
A. Transformer B. filter

C. Rectifier D. regulator
35. If a 169.7 V half-wave peak has an average voltage of 54 V, what is the average of
two full-wave peaks?
A. 119.9 V

B. 108.0 V

C. 115.7 V
 D. 339.4 V
36. What is the current through the LED?

A. 0 mA

B. 23 mA

C. 18 mA

D. 13 mA
37. The characteristic curve for the complex model of a silicon diode shows that
A. the barrier potential is 0 V

B. the barrier potential stays fixed at 0.7 V

C. the barrier potential increases slightly with an increase in current

D. the barrier potential decreases slightly with an increase in current

38. Since diodes are destroyed by excessive current, circuits must have:
A. higher voltage sources

B. current limiting resistors

C. more dopants

D. higher current sources

39. A diode for which you can change the reverse bias, and thus vary the capacitance is
called a
A. varactor diode

B. tunnel diode
 C. zener diode

D. switching diode
40. A filtered full-wave rectifier voltage has a smaller ripple than does a half-wave
rectifier voltage for the same load resistance and capacitor values because:
A. there is a shorter time between peaks

B. there is a longer time between peaks

C. the larger the ripple, the better the filtering action

D. none of the above

Testing a good diode with an ohmmeter should indicate
41.
A. high resistance when forward or reverse biased

B. low resistance when forward or reverse biased

high resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward
C.
biased

high resistance when forward biased and low resistance when reverse
D.
biased
42. The peak inverse voltage (PIV) across a nonconducting diode in a bridge rectifier
equals approximately:
A. half the peak secondary voltage

B. twice the peak secondary voltage

C. the peak value of the secondary voltage

D. four times the peak value of the secondary voltage

43. What is the current through the diode?
 A. 1 mA

B. 0.975 mA

C. 0.942 mA

D. 0.0 mA
44. Electrons in the outermost orbit or shell of an atom are called
A. free electrons

B. negative ions

C. valence electrons

D. conduction band electrons

45. Shunting the ac component away from the load is the task of a:
A. Transformer B. filter

C. Regulator D. rectifier
46. A pn junction allows current flow when
A. the p-type material is more positive than the n-type material

B. the n-type material is more positive than the p-type material

C. both the n-type and p-type materials have the same potential

D. there is no potential on the n-type or p-type materials

47. What is the current through the zener diode?

A. 0 mA
 B. 7 mA

C. 8.3 mA

D. 13 mA
48. When a diode is forward biased, the voltage across it
A. is directly proportional to the current

B. is inversely proportional to the current

C. is directly proportional to the source voltage

D. remains approximately the same

49. Why is heat produced in a diode?
A. due to current passing through the diode

B. due to voltage across the diode

C. due to the power rating of the diode

D. due to the PN junction of the diode

50. The arrow in the schematic symbol of a diode points to
A. the n-type material, which is called the anode

B. the n-type material, which is called the cathode

C. the p-type material, which is called the anode

D. the p-type material, which is called the cathode

51. The diode schematic arrow points to the:
A. trivalent-doped material

B. positive axial lead

C. anode lead

D. cathode lead
52. When checking a diode, low resistance readings both ways indicate the diode is:
 A. Open

B. Satisfactory

C. Faulty

D. not the problem

53. In a diode schematic, the anode is represented by a(n):
A. Triangle

B. vertical line

C. zig-zag line

D. element indicator
27. An IC regulator receives an overload; it will:
A. shut down

B. compensate for heat

C. provide more voltage

D. sample and adjust

54. With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be:
A. in opposite directions

B. to the external load

C. from the reverse biased diode

D. in the same direction

55. A characteristic curve is the result of a current versus voltage plot of diode activity,
which begins at the:
A. 3rd quadrant

B. current plot

C. graph origin
 D. voltage plot
56. Rectifier output polarity depends upon:
A. cycles of input

B. capacitor polarity

C. half or full wave

D. diode installation
57. With a 12 V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370-ohm resistor in series, what voltage
will be dropped across the diode?
A. 0.3 V

B. 0.7 V

C. 0.9 V

D. 1.4 V
58. If the frequency of the applied ac signal to a half-wave rectifier is 60 Hz, the
frequency of the pulsating dc output will be
A. 30 pps

B. 60 pps

C. 90 pps

D. 120 pps
59. What is the peak output voltage for this half-wave rectifier?

A. 1V

B. 7.8 V
 C. 10.9 V

D. 15.6 V
60. Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if:
A. power dissipation is too high

B. internal temperature is too high

C. current through the device is too high

D. load resistance increases

61. The conduction band is closest to the valence band in
A. Semiconductors

B. Conductors

C. Insulators

D. The distance is the same for all of the above.

62. With a 12 V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370-ohm resistor in series, what voltage
will be dropped across the diode?
A. 0.3 V

B. 0.7 V

C. 0.9 V

D. 1.4 V
63. If the frequency of the applied ac signal to a half-wave rectifier is 60 Hz, the
frequency of the pulsating dc output will be
A. 30 pps

B. 60 pps

C. 90 pps

D. 120 pps
64. What is the peak output voltage for this half-wave rectifier?
 A. 1V

B. 7.8 V

C. 10.9 V

D. 15.6 V
65. Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if:
A. power dissipation is too high

B. internal temperature is too high

C. current through the device is too high

D. load resistance increases

66. The conduction band is closest to the valence band in
A. Semiconductors

B. Conductors

C. Insulators

D. The distance is the same for all of the above.

67. What is the percent of regulation if Vnl = 20 V and Vfl = 19.8 V?
A. 0% B. 1%

C. .1% D. 5%
67. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows for
what part of a cycle?
A. 0 degrees

B. 90 degrees
 C. 180 degrees

D. 360 degrees
68. Which of the following circuits would require the least amount of filtering?
A. A half-wave rectifier

B. A full-wave rectifier

C. A bridge rectifier

D. A full-wave rectifier and a bridge rectifier

69. What is wrong with this circuit?

A. The zener is open.

B. The zener is shorted.

C. Nothing

D. not enough data

70. The voltage where current may start to flow in a reverse-biased pn junction is called
the
A. breakdown voltage

B. barrier potential

C. forward voltage

D. biasing voltage
71. Providing a constant output regardless of ac input or load resistance changes is the
function of a:
 A. Transformer B. filter

C. Regulator D. rectifier
72. When a diode is destroyed it has infinite impedance. When damaged by heat it will
probably:
A. Short

B. conduct more

C. conduct less

D. Open
73. The area at the junction of p-type and n-type materials that has lost its majority
carriers is called the
A. barrier potential

B. depletion region

C. n region

D. p region
74. DC power should be connected to forward bias a diode as follows:
A. – anode, + cathode

B. – cathode, – anode

C. + anode, – cathode

D. + cathode, + anode
75. At any given time in an intrinsic piece of semiconductor material at room
temperature
A. electrons drift randomly

B. recombination occurs

C. holes are created

d. All of the above

 76. In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating dc output?
A. transformer B. filter

C. Rectifier D. regulator
77. List three diode packages:
clip package, DIP, small
A.
current package

DIP, small current package,

B.
large current package

small current package, large

C.
current package, and SIP

small current package, large

D. current package, clip
package
78. The mimicking of an open/closed switch by a diode allows alternating
current to be:
A. Rectified B. regulated

C. Controlled D. attenuated

UNIT 2
1. The primary function of the bias circuit is to
A. hold the circuit stable at VCC

B. hold the circuit stable at vin

C. ensure proper gain is achieved

 D. hold the circuit stable at the designed Q-point
2. A JFET
A. is a current-controlled device

B. has a low input resistance

C. is a voltage-controlled device

D. is always forward-biased
3. A source follower has a voltage gain (Av) of
A. AV = gmRd

B. AV = gmRS

C.

D.

4. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a(n)

A. coupling capacitor

B. dc open

C. bypass capacitor

D. ac open
5. The formula used to calculate the approximate ac resistance of the base-emitter
diode (re) is

A.

B. re 25 mV × IC

C.
 D.

6. The signal voltage gain of an amplifier, Av, is defined as:

A.

B. A v = IC × R C

C.

D.

7. In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to
avoid
A. crossover distortion

B. unusually high efficiency

C. negative feedback

D. a low input impedance

8. The depletion-mode MOSFET
A. can operate with only positive gate voltages

B. can operate with only negative gate voltages

C. cannot operate in the ohmic region

D. can operate with positive as well as negative gate voltages

9. Three different points are shown on a dc load line. The upper point represents the
A. minimum current gain

B. quiescent point

C. saturation point

D. cutoff point
10. Which of the following conditions are needed to properly bias an npn transistor
amplifier?
Forward bias the base/emitter junction and reverse bias the base/collector
A.
junction.

Forward bias the collector/base junction and reverse bias the emitter/base
B.
junction.

Apply a positive voltage on the n-type material and a negative voltage on

C.
thep-type material.

D. Apply a large voltage on the base.

11. Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main function of
this stage is to
A. provide voltage gain

B. buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load

C. provide phase inversion

D. provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency response

12. In order for feedback oscillators to have any practical value, the gain has to be
A. <1

B. self-adjusting

C. Stabilized

D. Nonlinear
13. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit, you must use a
A. voltage divider

B. source resistor

C. Ground

D. negative gate supply voltage

14. Junction Field Effect Transistors (JFET) contain how many diodes?
A. 4 B. 3
 C. 2 D. 1
15. When an input delta of 2 V produces a transconductance of 1.5 mS, what is the
drain current delta?
A. 666 mA

B. 3 mA

C. 0.75 mA

D. 0.5 mA
16. When not in use, MOSFET pins are kept at the same potential through the use of:
A. shipping foil

B. nonconductive foam

C. conductive foam

D. a wrist strap
17. D-MOSFETs are sometimes used in series to construct a cascode high-frequency
amplifier to overcome the loss of:
A. low output impedance

B. capacitive reactance

C. high input impedance

D. inductive reactance
18. A "U" shaped, opposite-polarity material built near a JFET-channel center is called
the:
A. Gate

B. Block

C. Drain

D. heat sink
19. When testing an n-channel D-MOSFET, resistance G to D = , resistance G to S
= , resistance D to SS = and 500 , depending on the polarity of the ohmmeter,
and resistance D to S = 500 . What is wrong?
 A. short D to S

B. open G to D

C. open D to SS

D. Nothing
20. In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?
A. As VGS decreases ID decreases.

B. As VGS increases ID increases.

C. As VGS decreases ID remains constant.

D. As VGS increases ID remains constant.

21. A MOSFET has how many terminals?
A. 2 or 3

B. 3

C. 4

D. 3 or 4
22. IDSS can be defined as:
A. the minimum possible drain current

B. the maximum possible current with VGS held at –4 V

C. the maximum possible current with VGS held at 0 V

D. the maximum drain current with the source shorted

23. What is the input impedance of a common-gate configured JFET?
A. very low

B. Low

C. High

D. very high
24. When testing an n-channel D-MOSFET, resistance G to D = , resistance G to S
= , resistance D to SS = and 500 , depending on the polarity of the ohmmeter,
and resistance D to S = 500 . What is wrong?
A. short D to S

B. open G to D

C. open D to SS

D. Nothing
25. In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?
A. As VGS decreases ID decreases.

B. As VGS increases ID increases.

C. As VGS decreases ID remains constant.

D. As VGS increases ID remains constant.

26. A MOSFET has how many terminals?
A. 2 or 3

B. 3 ans 3 or 4

C. 4

D. 3 or 4
27. IDSS can be defined as:
A. the minimum possible drain current

B. the maximum possible current with VGS held at –4 V

C. the maximum possible current with VGS held at 0 V

D. the maximum drain current with the source shorted

28. What is the input impedance of a common-gate configured JFET?
A. very low

B. Low
 C. High

D. very high
29. JFET terminal "legs" are connections to the drain, the gate, and the:
A. Channel B. source

C. substrate D. cathode
30. A very simple bias for a D-MOSFET is called:
A. self biasing

B. gate biasing

C. zero biasing

D. voltage-divider biasing
31. With the E-MOSFET, when gate input voltage is zero, drain current is:
A. at saturation

B. Zero

C. IDSS

D. widening the channel

32. With a 30-volt VDD, and an 8-kilohm drain resistor, what is the E-MOSFET Q point
voltage, with ID = 3 mA?
A. 6V

B. 10 V

C. 24 V

D. 30 V
33. When an input signal reduces the channel size, the process is called:
A. Enhancement

B. substrate connecting

C. gate charge
 D. Depletion
34. Which JFET configuration would connect a high-resistance signal source to a low-
resistance load?
A. source follower

B. common-source

C. common-drain

D. common-gate
35. How will electrons flow through a p-channel JFET?
A. from source to drain

B. from source to gate

C. from drain to gate

D. from drain to source

36. When VGS = 0 V, a JFET is:
A. Saturated

B. an analog device

C. an open switch

D. cut off
37. When applied input voltage varies the resistance of a channel, the result is called:
A. Saturization

B. Polarization

C. Cutoff

D. field effect
38. When is a vertical channel E-MOSFET used?
A. for high frequencies

B. for high voltages

 C. for high currents

D. for high resistances

39. When the JFET is no longer able to control the current, this point is called the:
A. breakdown region

B. depletion region

C. saturation point

D. pinch-off region
40. With a JFET, a ratio of output current change against an input voltage change is
called:
A. transconductance B. Siemens

C. Resistivity D. Gain
41. Which type of JFET bias requires a negative supply voltage?
A. Feedback

B. Source

C. Gate

D. voltage divider
42. How will a D-MOSFET input impedance change with signal frequency?
A. As frequency increases input impedance increases.

B. As frequency increases input impedance is constant.

C. As frequency decreases input impedance increases.

D. As frequency decreases input impedance is constant.

43. The type of bias most often used with E-MOSFET circuits is:
A. constant current

B. drain-feedback

C. voltage-divider
 D. zero biasing
44. The transconductance curve of a JFET is a graph of:
A. IS versus VDS

B. IC versus VCE

C. ID versus VGS

D. ID × RDS
45. The common-source JFET amplifier has:
A. a very high input impedance and a relatively low voltage gain

B. a high input impedance and a very high voltage gain

C. a high input impedance and a voltage gain less than 1

D. no voltage gain
46. Using voltage-divider biasing, what is the voltage at the gate VGS?

A. 5.2 V

B. 4.2 V

C. 3.2 V

D. 2.2 V
47. The overall input capacitance of a dual-gate D-MOSFET is lower because the
 devices are usually connected:
A. in parallel

B. with separate insulation

C. with separate inputs

D. in series
48. What is the transconductance of an FET when ID = 1 mA and VGS = 1 V?
A. 1 kS

B. 1 mS

C. 1k

D. 1m
49. Which component is considered to be an "OFF" device?
A. transistor B. JFET

C. D-MOSFET D. E-MOSFET

50. In an n-channel JFET, what will happen at the pinch-off voltage?

the value of VDS at which further increases in VDS will cause no further
A.
increase in ID

the value of VGS at which further decreases in VGS will cause no further
B.
increases in ID

the value of VDG at which further decreases in VDG will cause no further
C.
increases in ID

the value of VDS at which further increases in VGS will cause no further
D.
increases in ID
51. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:
A. active region

B. breakdown region

C. saturation and cutoff regions

 D. linear region
52. Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The upper Q point represents
the:
A. minimum current gain

B. intermediate current gain

C. maximum current gain

D. cutoff point

53. A transistor has a of 250 and a base current, IB, of 20 A. The collector
current, IC, equals:

A.
500 A

B. 5 mA

C. 50 mA

D. 5A

54. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:
A. Beta B. theta

C. Alpha D. omega
55. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other
transistor terminals should be:
A. open

B. infinite

C. low resistance

D. high resistance
56. In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:
A. Stabilization

B. ac signal bypass
 C. collector bias

D. higher gain
57. Voltage-divider bias provides:
A. an unstable Q point

B. a stable Q point

C. a Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor's current gain

a Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the transistor’s
D.
current gain
58. To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward biased
with reverse bias applied to which junction?
A. collector-emitter B. base-collector

C. base-emitter D. collector-base
59. The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine:
A. saturation and cutoff

B. the operating point

C. the power curve

D. the amplification factor

60. If VCC = +18 V, voltage-divider resistor R1 is 4.7 k , and R2 is 1500 , what is the
base bias voltage?
A. 8.70 V

B. 4.35 V

C. 2.90 V

D. 0.7 V
61. The C-B configuration is used to provide which type of gain?
A. Voltage B. current

C. resistance D. power
62. The Q point on a load line may be used to determine:
 A. VC B. VCC

C. VB D. IC
63. A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a:
A. fixed resistor

B. tuning device

C. Rectifier

D. variable resistor
64.
If an input signal ranges from 20–40 A (microamps), with an output signal
ranging from .5–1.5 mA (milliamps), what is the ac beta?
A. 0.05 B. 20

C. 50 D. 500
65. Which is beta's current ratio?
A. IC/IB B. IC/IE

C. IB/IE D. IE/IB
66. A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing:
emitter current (IE) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base
A.
bias voltage held constant

collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base
B.
bias voltage held constant

collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VC) with (VBB) base
C.
bias voltage held constant

collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCC) with (VBB)

D.
base bias voltage held constant
67. With low-power transistor packages, the base terminal is usually the:
A. tab end

B. Middle

C. right end
 D. stud mount
68. When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is VBE for a C-E configuration?
A. voltage-divider bias

B. 0.4 V

C. 0.7 V

D. emitter voltage
69. What is the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2 mA and
IC = 4.0 mA?
A. 16.80 B. 1.05

C. 0.20 D. 0.95
70. With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably:
A. ground B. VC

C. VBE D. VCC
71. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage gain?
A. 0.001 B. 0.004

C. 100 D. 1000
72. The symbol hfe is the same as:

A.
1

B.

C. hi-fi

D.

UNIT 3
1. Voltage-divider bias has a relatively stable Q-point, as does
A. base bias.

B. collector-feedback bias.

C. both of the above

D. none of the above

2. Refer to this figure. Assume IC IE. Determine the value of RC that will allow
VCE to equal 10 V.

A. 1k

B. 1.5 k

C. 2k

D. 2.5 k
3. The linear (active) operating region of a transistor lies along the load line below
________ and above ________.
A. cutoff, saturation

B. saturation, cutoff

4. The input resistance of the base of a voltage-divider biased transistor can be

neglected
 A. at all times.

only if the base current is much smaller than the current through R2 (the
B.
lower bias resistor).

C. at no time.

only if the base current is much larger than the current through R2 (the
D.
lower bias resistor).
5. Refer to this figure. The value of IC is

A. 10 A.

B. 10 mA.

C. 5 mA.

D. 50 mA.
6. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement provides good Q-point stability, but
requires both positive and negative supply voltages?
A. base bias

B. collector-feedback bias

C. voltage-divider bias
 D. emitter bias
7. Refer to this figure. Calculate the current I2.

32 mA 320micro amp;;ans
A.

B. 3.2 mA

C. 168 A
8. Refer to this figure. In the voltage-divider biased npn transistor circuit, if R1 opens,
the transistor is

A. saturated. B. cutoff.

C. nonconducting.
View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum
9. Changes in DC result in changes in
A. IC.
 B. VCE.

C. the Q-point.

D. all of the above

10. The current gain for the Darlington connection is ________.
A.

B.

C.

D.
11. Which of the following configurations has the lowest output impedance?
A. Fixed-bias

B. Voltage-divider

C. Emitter-follower

D. None of the above

View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum
12. Which of the h-parameters corresponds to re in a common-base configuration?
A. HI b B. hfb

C. hrb D. hob
13. Refer to this figure. Find the value of IE.

A. 2 Ma
 B. 4 Ma

C. 5 mA

D. 6 Ma
14. Which of the following is referred to as the reverse transfer voltage ratio?
A. hi B. hr

C. hf D. ho
15. Which of the following conditions must be met to allow the use of the approximate
approach in a voltage-divider bias configuration?
A. re > 10R2

B. RE > 10R2

C. RE < 10R2

D. re < 10R2
16. Refer to this figure. Determine the value of Av.

49.6 B. 5
A.

C. 100 D. 595

17 For a common-emitter amplifier, the purpose of swamping is

A. to minimize gain.

B. to reduce the effects of r'e

 C. to maximize gain.

D. no purpose.
18. What is the typical value of the current gain of a common-base configuration?
A. Less than 1

B. Between 1 and 50

C. Between 100 and 200

D. Undefined
19. What is the most important r parameter for amplifier analysis?
A. rb′ B. rc′

C. re′
20. An emitter-follower is also known as a
A. common-emitter amplifier.

B. common-base amplifier.

C. common-collector amplifier.

D. Darlington pair.
21. The ________ model fails to account for the output impedance level of the device
and the feedback effect from output to input.
A. hybrid equivalent

B. re

C.

D. Thevenin

22. Refer to this figure. Calculate the value of VB.

 A. 5V

B. 3.7 V

C. 20 V

D. 3V
23. You have a need to apply an amplifier with a very high power gain. Which of the
following would you choose?
A. common-collector B. common-base

C. common-emitter D. emitter-follower
24. What is the voltage gain of a feedback pair connection?
A. 1 B. –1

C. 100 D. –100

25.What is the scale multiplier (factor) of a basic integrator?

(a) R/C (b) C/R (c) –RC (d) –1/RC

26. Which of the following is (are) the result of gain reduction by a feedback?

(a) The amplifier voltage gain is a more stable and precise value.

(b) The input impedance of the circuit is increased over that of the op-amp alone.

(c) The output impedance is reduced over that of the opamp alone.

(d) all of the above

27. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation decreases with increase in

(a) gate voltage (b)drain voltage (c)source voltage (d)body voltage

28.A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000 . CMRR=80 dB. The common
mode gain is given by

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 1/2 (d) 0

29. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/µ S .The largest sine wave O/P voltage possible at
frequency of 1MHZ is

(a) 10 volts (b) 5 volts (c) 5/ volts (d)5/2volts

30. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all OP-AMPs.This is done

basically to provide the OP-AMPs with a very high

(a)CMRR (b)bandwidth (c) slew rate (d)open-loop gain

31. The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to

(a)resistor (b)inductor (c)capacitor (d)battery

32.Negative feedback in an amplifier

a) Reduces gain b) Increase frequency &phase distortion

c) Reduces bandwidth d) Increases noise

33. The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics.

a) Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=0 b) Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=0

c) Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=∞ d) Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=∞

34. 8. In the differential voltage gain & the common mode voltage gain of a differential
amplifier are 48db &2db respectively, then its common mode rejection ratio is

a)23dB b)25dB c) 46dB d) 50dB

35. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a

a) Current controlled Current source b) Current controlled voltage source

c) Voltage controlled voltage source d) voltage controlled current source

36. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

a) Current controlled Current source b) Current controlled voltage source

 c) Voltage controlled voltage source d) voltage controlled current source.

37. Assume that the op-amp of the fig. is ideal. If Vi is a triangular wave ,then V0 will be

a) square wave b) Triangular Wave C) Parabolic Wave d) Sine Wave

38Which of the following amplifier is used in a digital to analog converter

a. non inverter b. voltage follower c. Summer d. difference amplifier.

39. Differential amplifiers are used in

a. instrumentation amplifiers b. voltage followers
c. voltage regulators d. Buffers

40. For an ideal op-amp, which of the following is true?

a. The differential voltage across the input terminals is zero
b. The current into the input terminals is zero
c. The current from output terminal is zero
d. The output resistance is zero

41. The two input terminals of an opamp are labeled as

a. High and low b. Positive and negative
c. Inverting and non inverting d. Differential ans non differential

42When a step-input is given to an op-amp integrator, the output will be

a. a ramp b. a sinusoidal wave.
c. a rectangular wave. d. a triangular wave with dc bias.

43. For an op-amp having differential gain Av and common-mode gain Ac the CMRR is
given by
a. Av + Ac b. Av / Ac
c. 1 + [Av / Ac] d. Ac / Av

44.
 The output voltage Vo of the above circuit is
a. -6V b. -5 d. -0.2V
45.In the above circuit the current ix is
a. 0.6A b. 0.5A c. 0.2A d. 1/12A

46. FET is a
a) Bipolar device b) Current controlled device
c)Three terminal semiconductor device d) none of the above

47. In Enhancement mode the MOSFET operates when

a) Gate voltage is negative b) Drain voltage is negative
c) Source Voltage is positive d) Gate voltage is positive

48 MOSFET operates in
a) only in enhancement method b) only in depletion method
c) a and b are correct d) None of the above

49. 1. A BJT is a ________-controlled device. The JFET is a ________ - controlled device

a. voltage, voltage
b. voltage, current
c. current, voltage
d. current, current
50. MOSFET has how many number of terminals?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 3 or 4
52. Which of the following applies to MOSFETs?
a. No direct electrical connection between the gate terminal and the channel
b. Desirable high input impedance
c. Uses metal for the gate, drain, and source connections
d. All of the above

53. How will electrons flow through a n-channel MOSFET?

a. from source to drain
b. from source to gate
c. from drain to gate
d. from drain to source

54. When an input signal reduces the channel size, the process is called:
a. Enhancement
b. substrate connecting
c. gate charge
d. Depletion

55. Which of the following is true for an nmos transistor operating in its linear or triode
mode? (Vgs = gate to source voltage, Vds = drain to source voltage, Vt = threshold voltage)
(a) Vds< (Vgs - Vt)
(b) Vds> (Vgs - Vt)
(c) Vgs<Vt
(d) Vgs = 0v

56. The capacitance of a transistor gate is proportional to what?

(a) The width of the gate
(b) The length of the gate
(c) The area of the gate
(d) The depth of the channel

57. When an Op-Amp is used as a non-inverting amplifier, the input signal is fed into the
_________ input and the ________ input is grounded through a resistor.
a) Non-inverting, inverting
b) Inverting, non-inverting
c) Feedback, slewrate
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

58. What type of n-channel MOSFET can be biased using a negative gate-source voltage?
a). Depletion type
b). Enhancement type
c). both a and b
d). None of these

59. What is the foundation of a MOSFET called?

a). Base
b). Substrate
c). Channel
d). None of these

60. With the E-MOSFET, when gate input voltage is zero, drain current is:
a). at saturation
b). Zero
c). IDSS
d) widening the channel

61. Calculate the input voltage for this circuit if Vo = –11 V.

Ans=a
a. 1.1 V
b. –1.1 V
c. –1 V
d. 1 V
62. When VGS = 0 V, a n- channel MOSFET is:
a). Saturated
b). linear
c). cut off
d) none of these

63.The area depleted of charge carrier and having only ions is called
a)space charge region
b)transition region
c)both a & b
d)none

64. When no Gate Signal is applied to a MOSFET;

a. High R exist between Source and Drain and no current flows
b. Two Back-to-Back Diodes exist in Series between Drain and Source
c. Both a. and b.
d. A Channel is Created between Source and Drain

65. For a small value of VDS the channel in MOSFET is;

a. Not formed
b. a linear resistor whose value is controlled by VGS.
c. Pinched off
d. Enhanced

67. Which of the following processing techniques would be used to create

the source and drain regions of a transistor?
(a) Oxidation
(b) Ion implantation
(c) Sputtering
(d) Polysilicon deposition

68. Substrate material for NMOS and PMOS is of:

a. N-type
b. P-type
c. Either of two
d. Intrinsic semiconductor

69. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation decreases

with increase in
(a) gate voltage
(b)drain voltage
(c)source voltage
(d)body voltage
70. Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction
(a) junction capacitance
(b)charge storage capacitance
(c)depletion capacitance
(d)channel length modulation

71. The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to

(a)resistor (b)inductor
(c)capacitor (d)battery
72. MOSFET can be used as a
(a) current controlled capacitor
(b) voltage controlled capacitor
(c) current controlled inductor
(d) voltage controlled inductors

73. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all OP-
AMPs.This is dome
basically to provide the OP-AMPs with a very high
(a)CMRR
(b)bandwidth
(c) slew rate
(d)open-loop gain

74. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation decreases

with increase in
(a) gate voltage
(b)drain voltage
(c)source voltage
(d)body voltage

75. Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction

(a) junction capacitance
(b)charge storage capacitance
(c)depletion capacitance
(d)channel length modulation

76. .The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to

(a)resistor
(b)inductor
(c)capacitor
(d)battery

77. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a
a) Current controlled Current source
b) Current controlled voltage source
c) Voltage controlled voltage source
d) voltage controlled current source

78. The most commonly used amplifier in sample & hold circuits is
a) A unity gain non-inverting amplifier
b) A unity gain inverting amplifier
c) An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10
d) An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100

79. . The most commonly used amplifier in sample & hold circuits is
a) A unity gain non-inverting amplifier
b) A unity gain inverting amplifier
c) An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10
d) An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100

80. Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential
amplifier because of its
(a) input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristic
(b) high voltage gain (c) high input resistance (d) high CMRR
81. Which of these may appear on the data sheet of an enhancement-mode
MOSFET?
a. VGS(th)
b. ID(on)
c. VGS(on)
d. All of the above

82. The VGS(on) of an n-channel E-MOSFET is

a. Less than the threshold voltage
b. Equal to the gate-source cutoff voltage
c. Greater than VDS(on)
d. Greater than VGS(th)

83. An ordinary resistor is an example of

a. A three-terminal device
b. An active load
c. A passive load
d. A switching device

84. Diffusion in n-channel MOSFET is of which type?

a. N-type
b. P-type
c. Either of two
d. Both a and b

85. 7. An E-MOSFET that operates at cutoff or in the ohmic region is an

example of
a. A current source
b. An active load
c. A passive load
d. A switching device
86. VGS(on) for n-channel MOSFET is always
a. Less than VGS(th)
b. Equal to VDS(on)
c. Greater than VGS(th)
d. Negative

87. With active-load switching, the upper E-MOSFET is a

a. Two-terminal device
b. Three-terminal device
c. Switch
d. Small resistance

88. CMOS devices use

a. Bipolar transistors
b. Complementary E-MOSFETs
c. Class A operation
d. DMOS devices

89. The main advantage of CMOS is its

a. High power rating b. Small-signal operation
c. Switching capability d. Low power consumption

90. With CMOS, the upper MOSFET is

a. A passive load
b. An active load
c. Nonconducting
d. Complementary

91. An n-channel E-MOSFET conducts when it has

a. VGS> VP
b. An n-type inversion layer
c. VDS> 0
d. Depletion layers
d. None of the above

92. Voltage gain of an ideal op-amp is:

a) Infinite
b) Very high
c) Low
d) Very low
93. Bandwidth of an ideal op-amp is:
a. Infinite
b. Very high
c. Low
d. Very low

94. Output impedance of an ideal op-amp is:

a. Infinite
b. Very high
c. Low
d. Zero

95. CMRR of an ideal op-amp is:

a. Infinite
b. Very high
c. Low
d. Very low

96. Slew rate of an ideal op-amp is:

a. Infinite
b. Very high
c. Low
d. Very low

97. Op-amp is a:
a. Voltage-controlled voltage source (VCVS)
b. Voltage-controlled current source (VCCS)
c. Current-controlled voltage source (CCVS)
d. Current-controlled current source (CCCS)

98. Op-Amp uses:

a. Only +ve Voltage
b. Only –ve voltage
c. Dual supply, i.e., ± Vcc
d. None of the above

99.Virtual ground of an op-amp means:

a. Terminal is grounded directly

b. The terminal is not physically grounded but terminal voltage is zero due
to the other terminal is connected to the ground due to op-amp properties.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

100. Common-mode gain signifies:

a. The ability to reject the common mode signals like noise and interference
b. Increase the noise
c. Increase the distortion
d. All of the above
 UNIT-4

1. The purpose of providing negative feedback in amplifiers is to

(a) Reduce bandwidth
(b) Reduce nonlinear distortion
(c) Increase gain
(d) Increase oscillation
2. The desensitivity factor is given by
(a) 1 + AB
(b) 1 – AB
(c) 1
(d) AB
3. When an amplifier of gain A and Feedback factor B is given a negative
feedback then bandwidth
(a) Increases by a factor by (1 – AB)

(b) Decreases by a factor by (1 – AB)

(c) Increases by a factor by (1 + AB)
(d) Decreases by a factor by (1 + AB)
4. A suitable topology for voltage amplifier is
(a) Voltage series feedback
(b) Voltage shunt feedback
(c) Current Series feedback
(d) Current Shunt feedback
5. A suitable topology for current amplifier is
(a) Voltage series feedback
(b) Voltage shunt feedback
(c) Current Series feedback
(d) Current Shunt feedback
6. A suitable topology for transconductance amplifier is
(a) Voltage series feedback
(b) Voltage shunt feedback
(c) Current Series feedback
(d) Current Shunt feedback
7. A suitable topology for transresistance amplifier is
(a) Voltage series feedback (b) Voltage shunt feedback
(c) Current Series feedback (d) Current Shunt feedback
8. The input impedance of Series Shunt network is
(a) Ri(1 + AB)
(b) Ri(1 - AB)
(c) Ri(AB)
(d) Ri/ (1 + AB)

9. The output impedance of Series Shunt network is

(a) Ro(1 + AB)
(b) Ro(1 - AB)
(c) Ro(AB)
(d) Ro / (1 + AB)
10. The input impedance of Shunt Series network is
(a) Ri(1 + AB)
(b) Ri(1 - AB)
(c) Ri(AB)
(d) Ri/ (1 + AB)
11. The output impedance of Shunt Series network is
(a) Ro(1 + AB)
(b) Ro(1 - AB)
(c) Ro(AB)
(d) Ro / (1 + AB)
12. The input impedance of Series Series network is
(a) Ri(1 + AB)
(b) Ri(1 - AB)
(c) Ri(AB)
(d) Ri/ (1 + AB)
13. The output impedance of Series Series network is
(a) Ro(1 + AB)
(b) Ro(1 - AB)
(c) Ro(AB)
(d) Ro / (1 + AB)

14. The input impedance of Shunt Shunt network is

(a) Ri(1 + AB)
(b) Ri(1 - AB)
(c) Ri(AB)
(d) Ri/ (1 + AB)

15. The output impedance of Shunt Shunt network is

(a) Ro(1 + AB)
(b) Ro(1 - AB)
(c) Ro(AB)
(d) Ro / (1 + AB)

16.
Gain Xo/Xs is
(a) A/ (1 – AB)
(b) AB
(c) A/ (1 + AB)
(d) (1 + AB)

17. Voltage series feedback (also called series shunt feedback) results in
(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance

18. Shunt series feedback results in

(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance

19. Series series feedback results in

(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance

20. Shunt shunt feedback results in

(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance
21. In an amplifier with negative feedback
(a)only the gain of the amplifier is affected
(b)only the bandwidth of the amplifier is affected
(c)only the input and output impedances are affected
(d)All of the four parameters mentioned above would be affected

22.An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input resistance
of 1KΩ and output resistance of 2.5 KΩ. The input resistance of the
current-shunt 17. Voltage series feedback (also called series shunt
feedback) results in
(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance

18. Shunt series feedback results in

(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance

19. Series series feedback results in

(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance

20. Shunt shunt feedback results in

(a) Increase in both input & output impedances
(b) Decreases in both input & output impedances
(c) Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
(d) Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance

21. In an amplifier with negative feedback

(a)only the gain of the amplifier is affected
(b)only the bandwidth of the amplifier is affected
(c)only the input and output impedances are affected
(d)All of the four parameters mentioned above would be affected

22.An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input resistance
of 1KΩ and output resistance of 2.5 KΩ. The input resistance of the
current-shunt 17. Voltage series feedback (also called series shunt
feedback) results in
(a) 1/11KΩ
(b) 1/5 KΩ
(c) 5 KΩ
(d) 11K Ω

23. Negative feedback in an amplifier

(a) Reduces the voltage gain.
(b) Increases the voltage gain.
(c) Does not affect the voltage gain.
(d) Converts the amplifier into an oscillator

24.Open loop of a amplifier is given by

(a) A
(b)AB
(c) B
(d) None of these

25.Loop gain is given by

(a) A
(b)AB
(c) B
(d) None of these

26.Negative feedback in an amplifier improves

(a) The signal to noise ratio at the output
(b) Reduces distortion
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

27. The input impedance of a ideal voltage amplifier is

(a) 0
(b) infinite
(c) medium
(d) small

28. The output impedance of a ideal voltage amplifier is

(a) 0
(b) infinite
(c) medium
(d) large

29.Positive feedback is also known as

(a) regenerative feedback (b) degenerative feedback
(c) loop feedback (d) return feedback
30.The product of feedback factor B and amplification factor A is called
(a) return difference
(b) return ratio
(c) series ratio
(d) shunt ratio

31.With voltage feedback series or shunt output resistance RO is

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) none of these

32.Expression for the feedback factor B is

(a)VO/Vf
(b) VO/ VS
(c) VS/ VO
(d) Vf/V O
33.The gain bandwidth product of an amplifier after the inclusion of
negative feedback
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) none of these

34.given figure is

(a)Colpit ossc. (b).hartely ossc. (c) wien bridge (d)sift ossc.

35. Only the condition βA = _must be satisfied for self-sustained oscillations to result.
a) 0 b) –1 c) 1 d) None of the above
36. The given figure is

. a
37. . For
sustaining oscillations in an oscillator
a) Feedback factor should be unity
b) Phase shift should be
c) Feedback should be negative
d) Both (a) and (b)

38. The feedback signal in a(n) ________ oscillator is derived from an

inductive voltage divider in the LC circuit.
a) Hartley
b) Armstrong
c) Colpitts
d) None of the above

39.. What is the minimum frequency at which a crystal will oscillate ?

a) seventh harmonic
b) third harmonic
c) fundamental
d) second harmonic
40.crystal is also called
(a)solo (b)quartz (c)cell (d)cellular
41.In oscillator we will use
(a) +ve feedback (b)-ve feedback (c) both (d) none.

42. oscillator produced

(a) frequency (b) function(c)both (d)none.

43.In phase shift ossc.total phase shift is

(a) 0 (b)180 (c)360 (d)all

44. In phase shift oscillator total phase shift produced by feedback is

(a) 0 (b)180 (c)360 (d)all

45. phase shift oscillator is.

(a) RC (b)LC (c)both (d) none.

46. phase shift oscillator produce.

(a) sin signal(b)cos signal (c)both (d)none

47.wien bridge oscillator is

(a) RC (b)LC (c)both (d)none.

48. .wien bridge oscillator produce

(a) sin signal(b)cos signal (c)both (d)none

49.hartely oscillator is a
(a) RC (b)LC (c)both (d)none.

50.colpit oscillator produced

(a) sin signal(b)cos signal (c)both (d)none.

51.colpit oscillator is a
(a) RC (b)LC (c)both (d)none.

52.crystal is written by
(a) XPAL (b)XTAL (c)XCAL (d)XXAL

53.In colpit oscillator Leqq. Is given by L1+L2+2M.

The above statement is
(a) write (b)wrong (c)both (d)none.
54. .In colpit oscillator both L are in
(a) parallel (b) series (c)both (d) none.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

55. In hartely oscillator capacitors are in

(a) parallel (b) series (c)both (d) none.

56.Crystal is
(a) element (b)paper (c)gold (d)silver.

57.The crystal ossc. Frequency is very stable due to

(a) rigidity (b)size (c)structure (d)high Q value.

58.positive feedback is the same as

(a) constant frequency of ossc. (b) suitability for low voltages
(c) high efficiency (d) frequency synthesis.

59.LC ossc. Is used to produce

(a) audio freq. (b)radio freq. (c)both (d) none.

60.Hartely ossc. Produce frequency in the range of

(a) KHZ (b)MHZ (c)HZ (d)None

61 The . phase shift oscillator is designed using

(a) opamp (b)BJT (c)FET (d)all.

62.which of the following produce frequency 10 MHZ

(a) phase shift (b)hartely (c)both (d)none.

63The unit of gain is

(a) ohm (b)mho (c)unitless (d)hennery.

64.Theunit of product of RC is
(a) m (b)l (c)sec (d)h

65.A phase shift ossc. Is a combination od

(a) RC (b)RL (c)LR (d)LC

66.Z is minimum in crystal ossc when

(a)series resonance (b)parallel resonance (c)both (d) none.
67. .Z is minimum in crystal ossc when
(a)series resonance (b)parallel resonance (c)both (d) none.

68. .Z is maximum in crystal ossc when

(a)series resonance (b)parallel resonance (c)both (d) none.

69.LC ossc.may produce

(a) sin (b) cos(c)saw tooth (d)all.

70.If R=10ohm.C=5f then time constant is

(a) 50f (b)50sec (c)500sec (d)50ohm.
71. . A wien bridge oscillator uses wien bridge for --
a) Tuning and phase shift.
b) Tuning.
c) Phase shift.
d) Either tuning or phase shift.