Test ID : 831

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.UNIT TEST - 6 A
Std : Long term (Batch - A) Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 23.03.2023 CHEMISTRY & BOTANY Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. Picric acid is X
4. C6H5 –CH =CHCHO  → C6H5CH =CHCH2OH
In the above sequence X can be
1) H2/Ni 2) NaBH4
+
1) 2) 3) K2Cr2O7/H 4) Both (1) and (2)
5. In which of the following bond angles on sp3-
hybridized are not contracted due to lone pair
of electron?
1) OF2 2) H2O
3) 4) 3) CH3OCH3 4) CH3OH
6. Phenol can be converted to o-hydroxy
benzaldehyde by
2. 1-propanol and 2-propanol can be 1) Kolbe’s reaction
2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
distinguished by
3) Wurtz reaction
1) Oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed
4) Cannizaro reaction
by reaction with Fehling solution
7. An organic compound ‘X’ with molecular
2) Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed
formula, C7H8O is insoluble in aqueous
by reaction with Fehling solution NaHCO3 but dissolves in NaOH. When treated
3) Oxidation by heating with copper followed with bromine water ‘X’ rapidly gives ‘Y’
by reaction with Fehling solution C7H5OBr3. The compounds ‘X ’ and ‘Y’
4) Oxidation with concentrated H2SO4 respectively, are
followed by reaction with Fehling solution 1) Benzyl alcohol and 2, 4, 6-tribromo-3-
3. Propan-1-ol (major) can be prepared from methoxy benzene
propene by 2) Benzyl alcohol and 2, 4, 6-tribromo-3-
1) H2O/H2SO4 methyl phenol
2) Hg(OAc)2/H2O followed by NaBH4 3) m-cresol and 2, 4, 6-tribromo-3-methyl
phenol
3) B2H6 followed by H2O2/OH–
4) Methoxybenzene and 2, 4, 6-tribromo-3-
4) CH3CO2H/H2SO4
methoxy benzene
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8. On treatment with anhydrous zinc chloride in 1) Predominantly 2-butyne
concentrated HCl at room temperature, an 2) Predominantly 1-butene
alcohol immediately gives turbidity. The 3) Predominantly 2-butene
alcohol can be 4) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene
1) C6H5OH 2) CH3CHOHCH3 14. Which one of the following does not give
3) (CH3)3COH 4) Any of these iodoform test?
O
9. Strength of acidity is in the order
OH OH OH OH 1) C CH3

NO2
2) CH3OH
3) CH3CH2OH
4) CH 3 − CH − CH 3
|
CH3 NO2 NO2 OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV) 15. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane is
1) II > I > III > IV 2) III > IV > I > II
3) I > IV > III > II 4) IV > III > I > II
Jones
10. CH3CH=CH−CH(OH)CH3 
reagent
→? How many structural isomers are possible
Product is when one of the hydrogen is replaced by a
chlorine atom?
1) CH3CH2CH2COCH3
1) 6 2) 4
2) CH3CH=CHCOCH3
3) 8 4) 7
3) CH3CH2CH2CH(OH)CH3
16. CH3Br + Nu– → CH3 – Nu + Br–
4) CH3CH2COOH
The decreasing order of the rate of the above
11. Identify X and Y in the following sequence reaction with nucleophiles (Nu–) A to D is
X
C2H5Br  Y
→ product → C3H7NH2 [Nu– = (A)PhO–, (B)AcO–, (C)HO–, (D)CH3O–]
1) X = Alcoholic KCN, Y = LiAlH4 1) D > C > A > B 2) D > C > B > A
2) X = Alcoholic KCN, Y = H3O+ 3) A > B > C > D 4) B > D > C > A
3) X = CH3Cl, Y = AlCl3/HCl 17. How many isomers (including stereo) are
4) X = CH3NH2, Y = HNO2 obtained by dichlorination of propane?
12. Which is best method of preparing pure alkyl 1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 5
chloride?
18. Which statement is correct?
1) ROH + SOCl2 →
1) C2H5Br reacts with alcoholic KOH to form
2) ROH + PCl5 →
C2H5OH
3) ROH + PCl3 → 2) C2H5Br when treated with metallic sodium
Anhy.ZnCl
2→
4) ROH + HCl  gives ethane
13. Dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane 3) C2H5Br when treated with sodium ethoxide
results in the formation of forms diethyl ether
4) C2H5Br with AgCN forms ethyl cyanide
 3 Test ID : 831[A]
o
19. Which one is most reactive towards SN1 26. At 40 C, the vapour pressure (in torr) of
reactions? methyl alcohol (A) and ethyl alcohol (B)
1) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br solution is represented by
2) C6H5CH(CH3)Br P = 120 XA + 138 ; where XA is mole fraction
3) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br of methyl alcohol. The value of
4) C6H5CH2Br PBo po
20. Which one is a colligative property? limit X A → 0, and limit X B → 0, A are:
xB XA
1) Boiling point 2) Vapour pressure 1) 138, 258 2) 258, 138
3) Osmotic pressure 4) Freezing point 3) 120, 138 4) 138, 125
21. 6 g urea is dissolved in 90 g water. The 27. The amount of ice that will separate out on
relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal cooling a solution containing 50 g of ethylene
to glycol in 200 g water to –9.3oC is :
1) 0.0196 2) 0.06 (K’f = 1.86 K molality–1)
3) 1.10 4) 0.0202
1) 38.71 g 2) 38.71 mg
22. Which one of the following is not correct for 3) 42 g 4) 42 mg
the formation of an ideal solution?
28. Percentage of free space in a body-centred
1) It must obey Raoult’s law cubic unit cell is
2) ∆H = 0
1) 32% 2) 34%
3) ∆V = 0
3) 28% 4) 30%
4) ∆G = 0
29. In a compound, atoms of element form ccp
23. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid
lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of
HX, the degree of ionisation is 0.3. Taking kf
tetrahedral voids. The formula of the
for water as 1.86, the freezing point of the
compound will be
solution will be nearest to
1) X4Y3 2) X2Y3
1) –0.483oC 2) –0.360oC
3) X2Y 4) X3Y4
3) –0.260oC 4) +0.480oC
30. The cubic unit cell of Al (molar mass 27 g
24. A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea
mol–1) has an edge length of 405 pm. Its
(mol. mass = 60) is isotonic with a 5% (wt.by
density is 2.7 g cm–3. The cubic unit cell is
vol.) solution of a non-volatile solute. The
molecular mass (in g mol–1) of non-volatile 1) Face centred 2) Body centred
solute is : 3) Primitive 4) Edge centred
1) 350 2) 200 31. How many number of atoms are there in a
3) 250 4) 300 cube based unit cell having one atom on each
25. The values of observed and calculated corner and two atoms on each body diagonal
molecular weights of calcium nitrate are of cube
respectively 65.6 and 164. The degree of 1) 8 2) 6
dissociation of calcium nitrate will be : 3) 4 4) 9
1) 25% 2) 50% 32. Which arrangement of electrons leads to anti-
3) 75% 4) 60% ferromagnetism?
 4 Test ID : 831[A]
1) ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ 2) ↑ ↓ ↑ ↓ 39. Statement I : Fluorine forms one oxoacid.
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) ↑ ↑ ↑ ↓ ↑ ↑ ↓ Statement II : Fluorine has the smallest size
33. The unit cell with dimensions α = β = γ = 90o, amongst all halogens and is highly
electronegative.
a = b ≠ c is
1) Both statements I and II are correct
1) Cubic 2) Triclinic 2) Both statements I and II are wrong
3) Hexagonal 4) Tetragonal 3) Statement I is correct, II is wrong
34. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic 4) Statement I is wrong, II is correct
systems : simple cubic, body-centred cubic 40. Bleaching powder contains a salt of an
and face-centered, then the ratio of radii of the oxoacid as one of its components. The
spheres in these systems will be respectively, anhydride of that oxoacid is
1 1 1) Cl2O 2) Cl2O7
1) a: 3a: a 3) ClO2 4) Cl2O6
2 2
41. Which one has the highest boiling point?
1 3 2
2) a : a: a 1) Kr 2) Xe
2 2 2
3) He 4) Ne
1
3) a : 3 a : 2 a 42. The shape of XeO2F2 molecule is
2
1) trigonal bipyramidal
1 3 1 2) square planar
4) a: a: a
2 4 2 2 3) tetrahedral
35. The number of non-ionisable hydrogen atoms 4) see-saw
present in the final product obtained from the 43. Match the catalysts (Column-I) with products
hydrolysis of PCl5 is (Column-II)
1) 0 2) 2 Column – I Column – II
3) 1 4) 3 (Catalyst) (Product)
36. Blue solid which is obtained on reacting A) V2O5 i) Polyethylene
equimolar amount of two gaseous oxides of B) TiCl4/Al(Me)3 ii) Ethanal
nitrogen is C) PdCl2 iii) H2SO4
1) NO2 2) N2O3 D) Iron oxide iv) NH3
3) N2O4 4) N2O5 1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
37. The incorrect statement(s) about O3 is/are 2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
1) O−O bond lengths are equal 3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
2) Thermal decomposition of O3 is 4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
endothermic 44. Find the incorrect statement.
3) O3 is diamagnetic in nature 1) Magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is 35
4) O3 has a bent structure 2) Ti4+ has purple colour.
38. A gas that cannot be collected over water is 3) 1 Bohr magneton (BM) = 9.27 × 10−24
1) N2 2) O2 J/Tesla
4) Zn, Cd do not show variable oxidation
3) SO2 4) PH3
states, Hg can show +1, +2 states
 5 Test ID : 831[A]

45. List – I List – II

A) Sphalerite I) FeCO3
B) Calamine II) PbS
C) Galena III) ZnCO3

x, y and z are respectively D) Siderite IV) ZnS

1) 1, 2, 3 2) 1, 5, 3 1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) 1, 3, 5 4) 5, 3, 1 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
46. Aqueous Cu+ undergoes disproportionation as
4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2Cu+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + Cu because
52. Statement I : Au and Ag ores cannot be
1) Cu+ has d10 configuration
concentrated by leaching
2) Cu2+ has d10 configuration Statement II : Zinc is oxidized during the
3) Hydration energy of Cu2+ is higher than that displacement reaction carried out for gold
of Cu+ which compensates second extraction.
ionization energy of Cu 1) Both statements I and II are correct
4) Size of Cu+ < Cu2+ 2) Both statements I and II are wrong
47. Which of the following is not a f-block 3) Statement I is correct, II is wrong
element? 4) Statement I is wrong, II is correct
1) La 2) Lu 53. The carbon based reduction is not used for the
3) Pr 4) Pm extraction of
48. Which one of the following statement is 1) Tin from SnO2
incorrect? 2) Iron from Fe2O3
1) All actinides are radioactive elements 3) Zn from ZnO
2) Lanthanides do not form oxo anions 4) Mg from MgCO3.CaCO3
3) Actinides form oxoanions 54. Copper is purified by electrolytic refining of
4) Lanthanides have more tendency to form blister copper. The incorrect statement(s)
complexes whereas actinides have less about this process is/are
tendency to form complexes. 1) impure Cu strip is used as cathode
49. Which of the following is the strongest base? 2) acidified aq. CuSO4 is used as electrolyte
3) pure Cu deposits at cathode
1) Ce(OH)3 2) La(OH)3
4) impurities settle as anode mud
3) Lu(OH)3 4) Yb(OH)
55. Which refining process is generally used in the
50. The metal that is not extracted from its
purification of low melting metals?
sulphide ore is
1) Chromatographic method
1) Al 2) Fe 2) Liquation
3) Pb 4) Zn 3) Electrolysis
51. Match the following. 4) Zone refining
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56. Select the graph that correctly describes the 60. Assertion (A) : Chloro benezene is more
adsorption isotherms at two temperatures T1 reactive than benzene towards electrophillic
and T2 (T1 > T2) for a gas (X-mass of the gas substitution
adsorbed, m-mass of adsorbent, p-pressure) Reason (R) : Resonance destabilizes the
carbocation
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
1) 2)
correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
61. Chronic chloroform exposure may cause the
3) 4) damage to kidney due to formation of
1) CH2Cl2 2) COCl2
57. Which of the following is/are example of 3) CCl4 4) POCl3
catalytic reaction? 62. Calculate molality (m) of the solution
1) Ostwalds process containing 25g of solute of molar mass 250 g
2) Hydrogenation of oils mol–1 in 100ml of aqueous solution whose
3) Habers process density is 1.25g/ml
4) All of the above 1) 1 m 2) 0.8 m
58. Give IUPAC name of 3) 1.25 m 4) 0.1 m
63. To get an elevation of boiling point of 0.05oC,
the amount of solute to be added to 100g H2O
(Kb = 0.5, GMWt. of solute = 100 g mol–1) is
1) 0.75 g 2) 0.5 g
3) 1.5 g 4) 1 g
1) 2, 2-Dimethylhept-3-ene-5-ol
64. Henry’s law constant of oxygen is 1.4 x 10–3
2) 6, 6-Dimethylhept-4-en-3-ol
mol Lit–1 atm–1 at 25oC. How much oxygen is
3) 6-ethylhept-4-ene-3-ol
dissolved in 1000 ml at 25oC. When the partial
4) 2, 2-Dimethylhept-4-ene-5-ol
pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm?
59. Among the following the correct order of
1) 22.4 mg 2) 2.24 mg
boiling point is
3) 3.2 g 4) 3.2 mg
a) n-butyl iodide
65. Which is/are correct statements about
b) Iso-propylchloride schottky defect in crystalline solids?
c) Tertiary butyl iodide
a) There is much difference in size of cations
d) isobutyl iodide
and anions
1) a > b > c > d 2) a > d > c > b b) Equal number of cations and anions are
3) d > c > b > a 4) b > d > a > c missing from the crystal lattice
 7 Test ID : 831[A]
+3
c) There is a decrease in density of crystal 71. Assertion (A) : Fe can be used for
lattice coagulation of As2S3 solution.
d) An ion leaves its normal site and occupies Reason (R) : Fe+3 reacts with As2S3 to give
and interstitial site Fe2S3
1) a & b only 2) b & c only 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
3) c & d only 4) b & d only correct explanation of the (A)
66. Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
packed lattice (C.C.P). The cubic unit cell of
correct explanation of the (A)
mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions one
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
fourth of tetrahedral void occupied by divalent
metal ‘A’ and all the octahedral voids 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
occupied monovalent metal ‘B’. The formula 72. Find out the false statement among the
of the oxide is following
1) ABO2 2) AB3O4 1) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect are
3) AB2O2 4) A3B2O4 shown by colloidal systems
67. Which is incorrect statement about 2) Gold number is a measure of protective
amorphous solids? power of a lyophilic colloid
1) They have wide range of melting point 3) Hard-schulz rule is related with coagulation
2) They is no orderly arrangement of particles 4) The colloidal solution of a liquid in liquid is
3) They are rigid and incompressible called aerosol
4) They show anisotropy property
73. Which of the following properties are
Conc.H 2SO4
68. C12H22O11 → A + B characteristic of lyophobic solutions?
A and B are i) Can be coagulated on the addition of small
1) CO2 & H2O 2) C & H2O amount of electrolyte
3) CO & H2O2 4) CO2 & H2O2 ii) Reversible
69. Nitrogen does not show property of catenation
iii) Needs stabilizing agents
because
1) i, ii and iii are correct
1) Nitrogen has very high ionization enthalpy
2) i and ii only are correct
2) It has no ‘d’ orbital in the valence shell
3) i and iii only are correct
3) Inter electronic repulsion between non
4) ii and iii only correct
bonding electrons is greater
4) Nitrogen belongs to second period 74. The product in the reaction is
P + I2 Mg HCHO HO
70. Mn+2 compounds are more stable than Fe+2 C2H5OH  → A  2
Ether→ B → C → D
compounds towards oxidation to their +3 1) propanal 2) butanal
state, because 3) n-butanol 4) n-propanol
1) Mn+2 has bigger size 75. Gadalonium belongs to 4f-series, its atomic
2) Mn+2 does not exist number is 64. Which of the following is
3) Mn+2 has completely filled d-orbitals
correct electronic configuration?
4) Mn+2 is more stable with high 3rd ionization
1) [Xe]4f95s1 2) [Xe]4f75d16s2
energy
3) [Xe]4f65d26s2 4) [Xe]4f86s2
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76.
From the above Ellingham graph on carbon,
which of the following is false?
1) CO2 is more stable than CO at less than 983K
2) At low temperature CO is good reducing
agent for Fe2O3
3) CO is less stable than CO2 at more than 983K
4) CO reduces Fe2O3 to Fe in the reduction
zone of blast furnace
77. Which is correct about the nature of colloid
formed when FeCl3 added to excess of hot
water (case – I) and added to excess of NaOH
(case – II)?
1) In both cases positive colloids
2) In both cases negative colloids
3) In case – I positive colloids & in case – II
negative colloid
4) In case – I negative colloids & in case – II
positive colloid
78. What is the final product in the following reaction?
1) Formation of ammonia in Haber’s process
2) Formation of NO in Ostwald process
3) Formation of SO3 in lead chamber process
4) Formation of SO3 in contact process
80. Generally inter halogen compounds are more
reactive than the individual halogens because
1) Two halogens are present in place of one
2) They are non polar
3) Their bond energy is less than the bond
energy of the halogen molecule
4) All of the above
81. The centripetal order of different layers in
antherwall in angiosperms is
1) Endothecium → Epidermis → Tapetum ←
Middle layers
2) Tapetum → Middle layers → Epidermis ←
Endothecium
3) Middle layers → Endothecium →
epidermis ← Tapetum
4) Epidermis → Endothecium → Middle
layers → Tapetum
82. Select the odd one w.r.t adaptations found in
wind pollinated flowers
1) feathery stigma
2) well exposed stamens
3) sticky pollen grains
4) presence of single ovule in a ovary
83. The number of types of gametes formed from
a plant with genotype AaBBccdd
1) 8 2) 2

OH
3) 6 4) 16
1) 2) 84. The percentage of phenotypic recombinant
progeny formed during F2 generation in
Mendels dihybrid cross is
3) 4)
1) 37.50 2) 62.50
79. The example of homogeneous catalysis is 3) 56.25 4) 31.25
 9 Test ID : 831[A]
85. Mendel’s law of segregation is occurs in 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
which phase of meiosis the correct explanation of (A).
1) Anaphase 2) Anaphase I 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
3) Metaphase I 4) Zygotene correct explanation of (A)
86. Identify the ploidy of given cells / structures
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
respectively in angiosperms
4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Polar nuclei, Endosperm, Secondary nucleus
92. The spermatogenous cell of male gametophyte
of embryosac, synergid, generative cell of
male gametophyte in angiosperms is

1) 2n, 3n, n, n, n 2) n, 2n, 2n, n, 2n 1) Vegetative cell 2) Generative cell

3) n, 3n, 2n, n, n 4) 2n, 3n, n, 2n, n 3) Synergid 4) Tube cell
87. Largest cell in embryo sac is 93. The common weed plant that causes pollen
1) Synergids 2) Egg allergy is
3) Central cell 4) Antipodals 1) Wheat 2) Water hyacinth
88. Statement – I : Only xenogamy is possible in 3) Parthenium 4) Chrysanthemum
dioecious plants.
94. The viable period of pollengrains in cereals
Statement – II : Male and female flowers are
like paddy is
present on different plants in dioecious plants
1) Both the statements are correct 1) 30 seconds 2) 30 minutes
2) Both the statements are incorrect 3) 30 hrs 4) 30 days
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is 95. The cryopreservation of pollengrains is
incorrect usually occurs in
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is 1) Liquid N2 at – 196°F
correct
2) Gaseous N2 at - 196°C
89. hnRnA is processed to mRNA by
a) Capping b) Tailing 3) Liquid N2 at - 196°C
c) Splicing 4) Gaseous N2 at - 196°F
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 96. The inheritance of flower colour in
3) a and c only 4) a, b and c snapdragon is
90. Pick out the true statement from the following
1) Co-dominance
1) RNA is better genetic material than DNA
2) Dominance
2) DNA is more stable than RNA
3) Multiple alleles
3) Most of the phytophages contain dsRNA
4) RNA is more stable due to the presence of 4) Incomplete dominance
thymine 97. The genotypic ratio of parental combinations
91. Assertion (A) : Pollengrians of plants can be in F2 of dihybrid cross conducted by Mendel is
preserved as fossils. 1) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Reason (R) : Sporopollenin is present in
3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 4) 9 : 1
intine.
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98. Mendel’s law of dominance explains 1) Artificial selection
1) One of the phenotypes of both parents 2) Domestication
expressed in monohybrid cross 3) Hybridisation
2) Appearance of recombinations in F2 of 4) Both (1) and (2)
dihybrid cross 105. The number of double dominant phenotypic

3) Both phenotypes of parents expressed in F2 progeny in F2 generation of Mendel’s dihybrid

of monohybrid cross cross is
4) Both (1) and (3) 1) 1 2) 6
3) 9 4) 4
99. Find the correct reasons for selection of
106. The ratio between double homozygous and
Drosophila as Morgan’s experimental
double heterozygous progeny formed in F2
organism.
generation of a typical dihybrid cross
1) presence of more number of chromosomes conducted by Mendel is
2) could be grown in simple synthetic medium 1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2
3) both male and female reproductive 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 4
structures present in same flies 107. Statement – I : Water pollination is rare
4) single mating could produce less number of method and limited to about 30 genera, mostly
flies of monocots.
100. The percentage of F2 progeny that resembles Statement – II : Flowers pollinated by water
F1 genotypically in Mendel’s monohyrbird do not produce coloured flowers with nectar.
cross is Statement – III : In majority of the
hydrophytes pollination takes place by insects
1) 75% 2) 25%
and air
3) 50% 4) 80% 1) All the statements are correct
101. The recombination percentage of y and w 2) All the statemnts are incorrect
genes in female Drosophila is 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II and
1) 18.6 2) 0.65 III are incorrect
3) 1.3 4) 37.2 4) Statement – I and II are incorrect, statement
102. The probability of phenotypes and genotypes III is correct
of a cross can be studied by using a method 108. The number of true breeding pea plant
which was developed by varieties selected by Mendel for his
1) Mendel 2) Punnett experiments
3) Morgon 4) Sutton 1) 7 2) 14
3) 6 pairs 4) 14 pairs
103. Genotype of a dominant phenotype can be
109. The bisexual flowers with self incompatibility
determined by
exhibits
1) Test cross 2) Reciprocal cross
1) Self - Pollination
3) Selfing 4) Pedigree analysis
2) Cross - Pollination
104. The well known Indian breed sahiwal cows in
3) Only self - Fertilization
Punjab are obtained through
4) Both (1) and (2)
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110. Cellsof embryosac associated with filiform 116. Match the following
apparatus is List – I List – II
1) Antipodals 2) Synergids A) TT x tt I) F1 selfing
3) Egg cell 4) Central cell
B) Tt x tt II) Parental cross
111. The number of meiotic and mitotic divisions
C) Tt x Tt III) Back cross
required for the formation of one embryosac
from its mother cell, respectively is D) Tt x TT IV) Test cross
1) 1 and 8 2) 4 and 8 1) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3) 1 and 7 4) 2 and 8 2) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
112. Thetype of ovary present in flowers of 3) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
Michelia is 4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
1) Multicarpellary, Syncarpus 117. Ifthe RNA polymerase – II is removed from
2) Tricarpellary, Apocarpus the cell then it will effect the synthesis of
3) Bicarpellary, Apocarpus 1) tRNA 2) hnRNA
4) Multicarpellary, Apocarpus 3) rDNA 4) DNA
113. The experimental verification for 118. To prove the DNA as genetic material,
chromosomal theory was done by Hershey and Chase use radio labelled
1) G.J. Mendel 2) Sutton 1) Bacteriophage 2) Bacteria
3) T.H. Morgan 4) Sturtevant 3) Fungus 4) Eukaryote
114. Identify the correct statement from the 119. The processes like capping and tailing occurs
following in
1) Flowers pollinated by flies and beetles do 1) mRNA of prokaryotes
not produce nectar 2) rRNA of eukaryotes
2) In less than 30% of angiosperms the pollen 3) hnRNA of eukaryotes
grains are liberated at two celled stage 4) tRNA of prokaryotes
3) Tapetum is the nutritive layer and supplies 120. Statement – I : In lac operon the enzyme
food material to the developing embryosac permease change the permeability of bacterial
4) Seed is the final product of sexual cells towards β-galactosidase.
reproduction in angiosperms Statement – II : In the absence of lactose, the
115. Thereason for the appearance of non-parental repressor bind to operator thus prevents the
gene combinations in F2 generation of transcription of lac mRNA
Mendel’s dihybrid cross is 1) Both the statements are correct
1) Independent assortment of genes 2) Both the statements are incorrect
2) Linkage of genes 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
3) Segregation of alleles in a gene incorrect
4) Dominance of genes 4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
correct
 12 Test ID : 831[A]
121. Viruses having RNA genome 127. The RNA transcribed from the following

1) mutate and evolve slowly segment of DNA is

2) mutate fastly and evolve slowly 3′ATGATGCATGC5′ Template strand
3) mutate and evolve faster 5′TACTACGTACG3′ Coding strand
4) mutate slowly and evolve fastly 1) 5′TACGTACGTACG3′
122. When a DNA molecule with one radioactive 2) 5′UACGUACGUAC3′
strand undergoes repeated replications in a 3) 5′UACUACGUACG3′
medium without radioactivity for five times
4) 3′UACGUAGCUACG5′
then the number of radio labelled strands in
128. Which type of RNA provides template for
the daughter DNA molecules is
protein synthesis?
1) 2 2) 1
1) mRNA 2) sRNA
3) 32 4) 16
3) rRNA 4) tRNA
123. Ina replication fork, DNA replication is
129. Thestructural gene in a transcription unit
continuous
could be said as ploycistronic
1) On the template strand with polarity
1) mostly in eukaryotes
5′ → 5′
2) mostly in prokaryotes
2) On the template strand with polarity
5′ → 3′ 3) only in fungi
4) Both (1) and (2)
3) On the template strand with polarity
130. The inducer of lac operon binds to
3′ → 5′
1) operator gene 2) promoter gene
4) On both the templates with polarity 5′ → 3′
and 3′ → 5′ 3) repressor protein 4) regulatory gene
131. Match the following
124. In their experiment, Hershey and Chase
incorporated 35S into List – I List – II
1) Phage DNA A) RNA I) DNA
2) Bacterial DNA polymerase III
3) Cytoplasm of bacteria B) RNA II) Precursor of
4) Protein capsid of phage polymerase I mRNA
125. Taylorproved that the DNA replication is C) DNA III) tRNA
semi conservative by using polymerase
1) Vinca rosea 2) Vicia faba D) RNA IV) rRNAs
3) E.coli 4) Drosophila polymerase II
126. The replication occurs within a small opening A B C D
of the DNA helix referred to as 1) IV III II I
1) Cloning site 2) Ori site 2) III IV I II
3) Molecular scissors 4) Replication fork 3) II I IV III
4) I II III IV
 13 Test ID : 831[A]
132. InHGP, identifying all the genes which are 140. When true breeding pea plant with yellow and
expressed as RNA is referred as round seeds is crossed with green and
1) Microsatellites 2) VNTRs wrinkled seeds then the genotype of F1
progeny will be
3) ESTs 4) SNPs
1) YYRR 2) yyRr
133. High degree of polymorphism in a gene due to
3) YyRR 4) YyRr
1) Sexual recombination 2) Natural selection
141. Theratio of phenotypic and genotypic
3) Mutations 4) Both (1) and (2)
recombinance in Mendel’s dihybrid cross is
134. Number of nucleosomes in a typical
1) 1 : 2 2) 3 : 7
mammalian cell
3) 5 : 6 4) 1 : 1
1) 3.3 x 109 2) 3.3 x 107
142. Theprocess of removal of intron and joining
3) 1.65 x 109 4) 3.4 x 109 of exon in the hnRNA is called
135. Thefirst translated codon in any mRNA of 1) RNA splitting 2) RNA translation
eukaryotes binds to an anticodon of tRNA is
3) RNA polymerase 4) RNA splicing
1) UAG 2) UAU 143. Which of the following pair have a double
3) UAC 4) UCA function in genetic code?
136. Generallythe total number of start codons and 1) GAA 2) AUG
stop codons in a genetic code of eukaryotes is 3) UAA 4) UGA
1) 2 2) 3 144. Thenumber of glycosidic bonds present in a
3) 5 4) 4 helix of B-DNA is
137. Ina Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of 1) 16 2) 18
phenotypic recombinants is 36 in F2 3) 20 4) 10
generation the number of organisms with the 145. Transcriptionally active chromatin is
genotype that itself accounts for 1/4th of F2 1) Satellite 2) Heterochromatin
generation is 3) Euchromatin 4) Both (1) and (2)
1) 18 2) 24 146. The postulate of Mendel that cannot be
3) 48 4) 12 explained with monohybrid cross is
138. A couple has only A and O blood group 1) dominance or recessive
children in 3 : 1 ratio if fathers blood group is 2) unit factors in pairs
A then mothers blood group is 3) independent assortment of unit factors
1) A or O 2) O 4) segregation of unit factors
3) B 4) A 147. Theratio of the number of kinds of double
139. The trait that is expressed in homozygous and homozygous and double heterozygous
heterozygous condition is genotypes of F2 generation of a Mendel’s
1) Co-dominant trait 2) Dominant trait dihybrid cross is
3) Recessive trait 4) Both (1) and (2) 1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1
3) 4 : 4 4) 4 : 2
 14 Test ID : 831[A]
148. Incomplete dominance is exemplified by 1) Both the statements are correct
1) flower colour in snapdragon 2) Both the statements are incorrect
2) starch grain size in pea 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
3) blood groups incorrect
4) both (1) and (2) 4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
149. Kinds of RNA polymerases in the nucleus of correct
eukaryotes 155. A segment of ds DNA of 85 Å length contains
1) 4 2) 2 10, 6 aminopurines, then how many H-bonds
3) 3 4) 1 are present in that DNA?
150. Among the given below amino acids, 1) 80 2) 65
degeneracy is not applicable to 3) 60 4) 40
1) Serine 2) Leucine 156. Milky water of tender coconut is
3) Proline 4) Tryptophan 1) liquid nucellus
151. Statement – I : The central dogma of
2) liquid perisperm
molecular biology represents the way of flow
3) liquid endosperm
of genetic information from DNA to protein.
Statement – II : Reverse of central dogma is 4) liquid of female gametophyte
found in some viruses 157. In angiosperms, how many male gametes are

1) Both the statements are correct produced by one meiosis in a pollen mother
2) Both the statements are incorrect cell?
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is 1) 1 2) 4
incorrect 3) 8 4) 2
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is 158. A flower on a dioecious plant would be
correct 1) Bisexual 2) Asexual
152. The approximate length of DNA in a typical 3) Complete 4) Unisexual
mammalian cell is 159. Endosperm is completely consumed by
1) 0.34 x 109 metre 2) 2.2 metre developing embryo in the seed of
9
3) 3.4 x 10 metre 4) 2.2 nm 1) coconut 2) pea
153. The packaging of DNA helix occurs in a
3) castor 4) maize
typical eukaryotic cell with the help of
160. Assertion (A) : Synergids are present at the
1) Histone proteins
micropylar end of embryosac.
2) Dietary proteins Reason (R) : Synergids are vegetative cells of
3) Non-histone chromosomal proteins embryosac and involved in triple fusion.
4) Both (1) and (3) 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
154. Statement – I : RNA is chemically active and the correct explanation of (A).
better suitable for storage of genetic
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
information.
correct explanation of (A)
Statement – II : RNA can directly code for
the synthesis of proteins thus DNA is 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
dependent on RNA for the synthesis of 4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
proteins
 15 Test ID : 831[A]
161. Termination of transcription in prokaryotes is 166. Monocarpic, perennial monocot is
done by 1) Paddy 2) Bamboo
1) ρ factor 2) σ factor 3) Mango 4) Raphanus
3) RNA Repressor 4) RNA Inducer 167. Assertion (A) : Dioecious animals contains
162. In eukaryotes, mostly a single mRNA is
male and female sex organs in the same body.
synthesised from
Reason (R) : Cross fertilization occurs in
1) A single structural gene
many hermaphrodite animals
2) Many structural genes
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
3) A cluster of structural genes
the correct explanation of (A).
4) Two structural genes
163. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
first studied in correct explanation of (A)
1) Diplococus pneumonia 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2) Drosophila melanogaster 4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) Escherichia coli 168. The ratio of egg cell and synergids in a typical
4) Neurospora crassa embryosac is
164. Match the following 1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1
List – I List – II 3) 1 : 1 4) 2 : 3
A) CCU I) Histidine 169. A few statements with regard to sexual
B) CAU II) Aspartic acid reproduction are given below
C) GAU III) Proline I) Sexual reproduction does not always
D) GUC IV) Valine require two individuals
A B C D II) Sexual reproduction generally involves
1) III I II IV gamete fusion
2) IV II III I III) Meiosis never occurs during sexual
3) I III II IV reproduction in angiosperms
4) II IV III I IV) External fertilization is a rule during
165. Identify the B, S and N in the below given
sexual reproduction.
diagram
Choose the correct statements from the given
list
1) II and III 2) I and IV

1) B – Coding strand, S – Template strand and 3) III and IV 4) I and II

N – Promoter 170. Selectthe monoecious and dioecious plants
2) B – Non template strand, S – Template respectively from given list
strand and N – Terminator 1) Cucumber, Date palm
3) B – Template strand, S – Coding strand and 2) Papaya, Cucumber
N – Promoter 3) Watermelon, Coconut
4) B – Coding strand, S – Template strand and
4) Datepalm, Coconut
N – Terminator
 16 Test ID : 831[A]
171. Which of the following is a post fertilization 1) Ovary − 2n
event in flowering plants 2) Nucellus − 2n
1) Transfer of pollen grains 3) Antipodals − 1n
2) Formation of flower 4) Synergids − 2n
3) Embryo development 177. Theportion of gene which is transcribed but
4) Formation of pollen grains not translated is
172. Which of the following vegetative propagules 1) Cistron 2) Exon
are found in Chrysanthemum and Strawberry 3) Intron 4) Codon
plant respectively 178. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
1) Offset and Sucker referred to as
2) Runner and Bulbil 1) feedback regulation
3) Sucker and Runner 2) negative regulation
4) Bulbil and Offset 3) positive regulation
173. Perisperm is 4) both (1) and (3)
1) Peripheral part of endosperm 179. What is the genotypic ratio of monohybrid
2) Disintegrated secondary nucleus cross?
1) 3 : 1 2) 4 : 1
3) Persistent nucellus
3) 1 : 3 4) 1 : 2 : 1
4) Remnant of endosperm
180. Statement – I : The genetic code is
174. The pollen tube is usually enters the
unambiguous and specific.
embryosac
Statement – II : Mutations helps in
1) by directly penetrating the egg understanding the relationships between
2) by knocking off the antipodals genes.
3) between one synergid and central cell Statement – III : rRNA is the adapter
4) through one of the synergids molecule that would on one hand read the
175. In
F2 progeny of Mendel’s dihybrid cross the code and other hand would bind to specific
amino acid.
expected proportions of individual
homozygous for both recessive characters is 1) All the statements are correct
2) All the statemnts are incorrect
3 1
1) 2) 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II and
16 16
III are incorrect
12 9
3) 4) 4) Statement – I and II are correct, statement
16 16
III is incorrect
176. Choose the mismatch from the following

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