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DOKUMEN MGMP

SANGAT RAHASIA
1

TRY OUT I

TAHUN PELAJARAN 2013/2014

BAHASA INGGRIS SMA/MA


PAKET A

DINAS PENDIDIKAN
KOTA BATAM
DOKUMEN MGMP

SANGAT RAHASIA
2

MATA PELAJARAN
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Jenjang : SMA / MA

WAKTU PELAKSANAAN
Hari/Tanggal :
Jam :

PETUNJUK UMUM

1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawaban Ujian Nasional (LJUN)


yang tersedia dengan menggunakan pensil 2B sesuai petunjuk di LJUN.
2. Hitamkan bulatan di depan nama mata ujian pada LJUN.
3. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
4. Jumlah soal sebanyak 50 butir dan pada setiap butir soal terdapat 5 (lima)
pilihan jawaban.
5. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
6. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang
jelas, rusak, atau tidak lengkap.
7. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
8. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat
bantu hitung lainnya.
9. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
10. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicoret-coret.

Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are
four parts to this section with special directions for each part.

PART I
Question 1 to 3.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The questions and the
dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide which one
would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.

You will hear:


Boy : Do you use the internet very often?
Girl : Yes, I do. I use it for communication.
Boy : How do you communicate with it?
Girl : I send and receive emails, and I speak with my friends using voice mail.
Narrator: What is the main topic of the conversation?
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Sample answer
You will read in your test book:
A. How to use email.
B. Receiving emails.
C. Communication.
D. Internet usage.
E. Voice mail.
The best answer to this question is “Internet usage”. Therefore you should choose answer (D)

1.
A. Parking area.
B. Looking for parking.
C. Parking the car in the lot.
D. Walking across the street.
E. Taking the car to the mechanic.

2.
A. To copy it.
B. To recheck it.
C. To throw it away.
D. To show it to Mrs. Hiroko.
E. To submit it to the director.

3.
A. Meat.
B. Butter.
C. Lettuce.
D. Tomato.
E. Mustard.

PART II
Questions: 4 to 8.

Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by five responses, also
spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text
book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response
to each question.
Now listen to a sample question.
Man : Where are we going to stay?
Woman : At the Sun Hotel, near the beach.
Man : Why there?
Woman : ….

Narrator: What will the woman most likely reply?


Sample answer
You will hear:
A. Staying there.
B. It’s on the beach.
C. Living in the hotel.
D. There’s a hotel there.
E. It provides excellent service.

The best answer to the question is choice E “It provides excellent service.” Therefore, you should choose answer E.

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.


5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
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PART III
Question: 9 to 11.

Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and a monologue spoken in English. The dialogues and
monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to a dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures
provided in your test book, and decide which one would be most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have
heard.

9.

1 2

3 4

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

10.
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1 2

3 4

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

11.

1 2

3 4
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

PART IV
Question 12 to 15.

Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be
printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard.

12.
A. Tropical regions.
B. Sunshine.
C. Bananas.
D. Rain.
E. Fruit.

13.
A. In the world.
B. In the regions.
C. In the high trees.
D. In the small root.
E. In tropical regions.

14.
A. How to get the gift.
B. How to make a doll.
C. How to make gift-wrap paper.
D. What boxless candies or chocolate is.
E. How to wrap a doll or some boxless candies.

15.
A. Dipping the bottom.
B. Stampping the crepe paper.
C. Spreading some crepe papers.
D. Cutting a piece of crepe paper.
E. Waiting until the bleach is dry.

This is the end of the listening section


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READING SECTION

Text 1
This text is for questions 16 to 18

To : Jason Sedgewick
From : Abe Forte
Re : September 12 Sales Meeting
The quarterly sales meeting will be hold on September 12 at the Radisson City Center. You are
cordially invited to participate in the interactive planning session at 10:00 a.m. Your insights will be
valuable as the sales team frames the plan for next year.
Please confirm your attendance by Friday by calling me at x5432 or by e-mailing me at
aforte@goodtobegreen.com.
Thanks in advance for your participation.
CC: Alena Adamonis
BCC: Justin Jankowski

16. What does text talk about?


A. Conducting the meeting.
B. Conforming the meeting.
C. Sending the invitation.
D. Attending the meeting.
E. Inviting the meeting.

17. “…by calling me at x5432 or….” What does the word ‘me’ refer to?
A. Alena Adamonis.
B. Jason Sedgewick.
C. Justin Jankowski.
D. Abe Forte.
E. Participation.

18. “You are cordially invited to participate in the interactive planning session at 10:00 a.m.”
The underlined word is the same meaning with….
A. join
B. share
C. follow
D. come
E. accompany

Text 2
This text is for questions 19 and 21
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19. The text is about . . . .


A. Reimbursement program
B. Four seasons of fitness
C. A month free tanning
D. United health care
E. Shower facilities

20. There are … providers in the text above.


A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
E. 3

21. “Include full use of fitness equipment, racquetball court, expert…..”


The underlined word is closest in meaning to ….
A. triangle
B. square
C. room
D. field
E. pool

Text 3
This text is for questions 22 and 23

ATTENTION!!

A unique entertainment awaits you!


A special show 3.30 p.m.
for an hour.
 Crocodiles cleaned up, pacified and persuaded
To dance to music.

 A python grappling with a man, coiling round,


trying to crush him, but defeated and help us high!

Come all, come and see it now.


You can gather at the poolside.
You can visit Ghost later.
DON’T MISS THIS OPPORTUNITY!!

22. The announcement is about ….


A. A unique entertainment
B. A grappling python
C. A music dance
D. A poolside
E. Crocodiles
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23. The show ended at ….


A. 3.00 a.m.
B. 3.30. p.m.
C. 4.00 a.m.
D. 4.00 p.m.
E. 4.30 p.m.

Text 4
This text is for questions 24 to 26
Supreme Court rejects Dicky’s appeal
Jakarta: Conviction The Supreme Court has upheld the 2006 graft of Dicky Iskandar Dinata, the
former president director of PT. Brocolin International Dick Was found guilty by the South Jakarta
Distric Court of missuing Rp. 1.9 trillion in funds from Bank BNI, which he claimed was a “grant
from an Israel investor”. The court sentenced him to 20 years in prison.
“We have rejected Dicky’s appeal. Therefore,he must serve his 20-years prison and pay a fine of
Rp.500 million (US $ 55,000), “presiding justice Artidjo Alkostar was quoted by Detic. Com news
portal as saying Thursday-JP.

24. The text tells us about....


A. Dicky, the former president director of PT.Brocolin Inter.Dick
B. Dicky must pay of Rp. 500 million
C. Dicky’s 20 years in prison
D. Dicky’s appeal
E. Dicky’s guilty

25. Dicky must pay a fine of ....


A. Rp. 1.9 trillion
B. Rp. 20 trillion
C. US $ 55,000
D. US $ 550,000
E. US $ 500 million

26. We have rejected Dicky’s appeal. (paragraph 2, line 1)


The synonym of the underlined word is....
A. welcome
B. accepted
C. refused
D. took
E. gave

Text 5
This text is for questions 27 to 30

The Journalist
After graduating in tourism from the University of Texas, Pat Crown was unemployed for almost
a year. During that period, she visited many countries around the world and took notes of special
attractions, traditions, cultures, and environments of those countries.
When an advertisement was published by a leading local newspaper looking for a journalist, she
applied for the post and was employed by the company. With her travelling experience, she was assigned
to the Tour and Travel Department.
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Needless to say, her new job required that she travel extensively from one country to another. Her
degree in Tourism and her recent trips to various countries helped her get along.
Well with the job. She has written many remark able articles and short stories about tour and travel
ever since she started working there.
Within two years, Pat was promoted from journalist to deputy editor. At this new post, she no
longer traveled as much as another journalist too over her position. Pat focused more on planning as well
as consolidating activities and writing at the request of the heads of state.
Under her leadership, the Tour and Travel Department has expanded tremendously, from a one-
room office to half a floor, and from three staff to thirty.

27. What did Pat conduct after graduation?


A. She joined her father’s firm.
B. She continued her studies for a master’s degree.
C. She took a job as a sales supervisor in a large company.
D. She traveled to many countries to gain special experience.
E. She took a job as a part-time teacher in her neighborhood.

28. Paragraph two tells us about. . .


A. Pat wrote so many articles and short stories.
B. Pat traveled extensively around the world.
C. Pat experience by visiting many countries.
D. Pat promoted as a deputy editor.
E. Pat applied for a journalist.

29. Why was Pat promoted to be a deputy editor?


A. She had a good talent of a writer.
B. She expanded experiences.
C. She traveled extensively.
D. She was fond of tourism.
E. She was as a journalist.

30. “...her new job required that she traveled extensively from one country to another”.
The underlined word has the same meaning as ....
A. Requested
B. Promoted
C. Wanted
D. Got
E. took

Text 6
This text is for questions 31 to 34

How Bread is Made


Almost everyone eats bread daily, especially for breakfast. Bread making is not a complicated task.
You only need flour, water, yeast, sugar, salt, oil, butter, and an oven.
Choosing good flour is the step in making bread. There are two kinds of flour, soft and hard. Hard
flour, made of winter wheat, is a better choice for making bread because it produces bread that has a
better texture and taste.
Then, lukewarm water, yeast, sugar and salt are mixed with the flour to make dough. Yeast is a
microscopic organism that is capable of producing carbon dioxide. It can make the dough rise or expand.
Both sugar and salt give flavor to the bread so that it tastes nice. They, however, have different effects on
yeast. After that, oil (such as olive oil, corn oil, peanut oil) and butterbare added because they are essential
to make the bread tender. After mixing the ingredients, the dough is sent to the oven.
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31. According to the text, how many kinds of flour are there?
A. Many kinds of flour.
B. One kind of good flour.
C. Two kind of flour, soft and hard.
D. One kind of flour made of wheat.
E. Two kinds of flour, good and bad.

32. The text mainly talks about . . .


A. The process of baking a good loaf of bread.
B. Why bread is served as breakfast.
C. How to select the correct wheat.
D. The importance of bread.
E. How to make bread.

33. Why is hard flour a better choice for making bread?


A. It can produce bread with better texture and taste.
B. It is capable of producing carbon dioxide.
C. It can make the dough rise or expand.
D. It can make the bread tender.
E. It gives flavor to the bread.

34. “ It can make the dough rise or expand.” (Paragraph 3)


The underlined word can be replaced with ....
A. add
B. enlarge
C. increase
D. decrease
E. develop

Text 7
This text is for questions 35 to 39

In 1982 Lindy Chamberlain was convicted of murdering her baby Azaria while camping at Ayer’s
Rock. In my opinion, Lindy should have been convicted of Azaria’s murder as there is too much
conflicting evidence.
Firstly, there is the question of the blood found in the car. It was claimed that it was the baby’s
blood. However, the tests used to identify the blood were later found to be unreliable and the blood
could have come from an adult.
Another piece of conflicting evidence concerns the dingo. Lindy claimed that Azaria was taken by
stray dingo. Some of the other campers said that they saw no dingo, but there were several who
confirmed Lindy’s story, and who stated that they heard a dingo’s cry just before Azaria went missing.
And finally, there is the matter of the baby’s jumpsuit which was later found with holes in it. The
prosecution maintained that these holes could only have be made by a pair of nail scissors – the ones
they claimed Lindy used to kill her baby. The defense on the other hand demonstrated that the holes
could just as easily have been made by a dingo’s teeth.
In the light of such conflicting evidence, I believe that it was wrong to convict Lindy Chamberlain
without finding more definite proof of her guilt.
35. Who was killed during camping at Ayer’s Rock?
A. Azaria.
B. Dingo.
C. Mother.
D. Camper.
E. Lindy Chamberlain.
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36. What is the text about ?


A. Azaria’s murder.
B. Evidence of Azaria’s murder.
C. Accusation on Azaria’s murder.
D. A daughter killed by her mother.
E. Lindy Chamberlain’s murder.

37. The main idea of the second paragraph is about ....


A. Proving the baby’s blood
B. Arguing the baby’s murder
C. Doutbing the baby’s murder
D. Finding the baby’s blood in the car
E. Finding the adult’s blood in the car

38. There are too much conflicting evidence in Lindy Chamberlain’s case is caused by….
A. her suspects
B. more definite proofs
C. unreliable proof on that case
D. the evidence only aimed at her
E. the baby’s jumpsuit found with hole in it

39. “Another piece of conflicting evidence concerns the dingo.” (Paragraph 3 line 1)
The synonym of the underline word is ….
A. notification
B. guarantee
C. direction
D. reason
E. proof

Text 8
This text is for questions 40 to 42
Video games become a controversial issue for parents and educators. Those who are in favor of
video games believe that video games have some benefits. However, people who are against video games
consider these games have several negative effects.
In the proponents’ point of view, video game functions as a form of light entertainment. As part of a
balanced entertainment diet, the games can provide stress relief for kids, they can help with aspects of
coordination and concentration on visual details, and they help kids relate to one another in some forms of
healthy competition.
On the contrary, the opponents of video games think that video games have some disadvantages. The
video game players are prone to aggressive thoughts, attitudes, and actions. Video games labeled as first
person shooting games cause children to be less sensitive to the pain and suffering others. Study also
shows that these children are more fearful of the world around them. In addition, video games make the
players addicted. The games provide a high level of quick gratification. Children are almost constantly
being rewarded and, when they lose, they get to easily start over to work on their goal. Furthermore, too
much time on any video entertainment takes away from time spent on school work. As a result, the games
cause children to weaken their school achievement.
In conclusion, parents should limit their children's time on video games. It is helpful to consider a
child's leisure time diet and parents should think about how well balanced it is. Video games that are
violent or of limited instructional value can be thought of as treats.

40. Which one of the following statements is the benefit of video games?
A. Video games stress the relief for kids.
B. Video games can coordinate the kids’ help.
C. Video games do not function as a form of light amusement.
D. Video games can help the kids’ coordination and concentration.
E. Video games can’t help kids relate to each other in forms of healthy competition.
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41. The main idea of paragraph 3 is …


A. the benefits of video games.
B. the weakness of video games.
C. the advantages of video games.
D. the amusement of video games.
E. the advantages and disadvantages of video games.

42. We imply that parents …


A. should bound their kids’ time on video games.
B. shouldn’t limit their children’s time to play video games.
C. cannot control their children’s leisure time on video games.
D. have to play games with their children because it is helpful.
E. mustn’t control their children in spending their time on video games.

43. Which statement is TRUE based on the text above?


A. Parents should limit their children’s time on video games
B. Children are not almost constantly being rewarded
C. The opponents of video games think that video games do not have any disadvantages
D. The games provide a low of quick gratification
E. It is not helpful to consider a child’s leisure time diet

Text 9
This text is for questions 44 to 48
Antibiotic is a drug produced by certain microbes. Antibiotics destroy other microbes that damage
human tissues. They are used to treat a wide variety of diseases, including gonorrhea, tonsillitis and
tuberculosis. Antibiotics are sometimes called ‘wonder drugs’ because they can cure diseases such as
meningitis, pneumonia and scarlet fever. But when the antibiotics are overused, or misused, these drugs
make a person sensitive being attacked by a super bug.
Antibiotics do not always distinguish between harmless and dangerous microbes. If a drug destroys
too many harmless micro-organisms, the pathogenic ones-the dangerous microbes-will have a greater
change to multiply. This satiation often leads to the development of a new infection called super infection.
Extensive use of some antibiotics may damage organs and tissues. For example, streptomycin which
is used to treat tuberculosis has caused kidney damage and deafness.
Resistance to antibiotics may be acquired by pathogenic microbes. The resistant microbes transfer
genetic material to non-resistant microbes and cause them to become resistant, non-resistant microbes are
destroyed, but resistant types survive and multiply.
To avoid the side effect of antibiotics, you’d better not urge your doctor to prescribe antibiotics. Keep
in mind that antibiotics are only useful for bacterial infections and have no effect on viruses, so they
cannot be used for chicken pox, measles and other viral diseases.

44. What are discussed in paragraph two and four?


A. Both paragraphs describe how antibiotics work.
B. Both paragraphs tell about the effects of misusing antibiotics.
C. Both paragraphs explain how antibiotics damage organ and tissues.
D. Paragraph two tells what causes the pathogenic microbes multiply and paragraph four tells how
the non-resistant microbes become resistant.
E. Paragraph two tells how antibiotics destroy harmless microbes and paragraph four describes how
the pathogenic microbes transfer genetic material to non-resistant microbes.

45. Which one of the following is NOT the effect of using antibiotics improperly?
A. Organs and tissues are damaged.
B. The pathogenic microbes multiply.
C. Harmless micro-organisms are destroyed.
D. Pathogenic microbes become non-resistant.
E. New infection which is called super infection develops.
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46. ‘Antibiotics do not always distinguish between harmless and dangerous microbes’. The bold word
has the opposite meaning with . . .
A. dangerous
B. safe
C. vary
D. compare
E. useful

Arrange these sentences to make an application letter


1. I am 19 years old and
2. That I read in the Republika, dated 24 May 2001
3. Dear Sir,
4. I would be very happy to come from an interview
5. I have graduated from London University
6. I’d like to apply for the post of secretary
7. At anytime suitable to you
8. I am looking forward to hear from you

47. The best arrangement for the paragraph above is . . . .


A. 3-1-5-4-6-2-7-8
B. 1-6-5-2-8-4-7-8
C. 3-6-2-1-5-4-7-8
D. 3-6-2-5-8-1-4-7
E. 1-5-6-2-4-7-8-3

Text 10
This text is for questions 48 to 50
Cancer is a group name of over 100 diseases………. (48) affect different parts of the body. It
happens when a group of cells starts to grow and reproduce too fast, making a lump called a tumor. Some
tumors are ‘benign’ or harmless. But if cancer tumors are ‘malignant’ this means they are………. (49).
They can spread around the body and invade different organs, stopping them from working.
Cancers are caused by genes inside cells going wrong. This can happen because the cells are …...
(50) or damaged by something like cigarette smoke or asbestos. It’s also possible for people to inherit
cancer-causing genes from their parents.

48. A. that
B. who
C. whom
D. where
E. of which

49. A. important
B. permanent
C. curable
D. complicated
E. dangerous

50. A. irritate
B. irritates
C. irritating
D. irritated
E. irritation

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