DATE : 13/05/2018 BOOKLET CODE

13-15

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 120 Mins.

Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 100

for
NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
(For Students of Class X)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES :

Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.

1. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 40 belong to
Sciences, 41 to 60 pertain to Mathematics and 61 to 100 are on Social Science subjects.

2. Please follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for marking the answers.

3. Write your eight-digit Roll Number as allotted to you in the admission card very clearly on the
test-booklet and darken the appropriate circles on the answer sheet as per instructions given.

4. Write down and darken Booklet Number in the appropriate circles on the answer sheet as per
instructions given.

5. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited and all questions carry equal marks,
you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any one question.

6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.

7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark.

8. There will be NO NEGATIVE marking.

1

1. Under which condition stated below, the six-
carbon glucose molecule is broken down into
three-carbon molecules pyruvate and lactic
acid?
(1) aerobic condition in muscle cells
(2) anaerobic condition in yeast cells
(3) aerobic condition in mitochondria
(4) anaerobic condition in muscle cells
Answer (4)
S o l . During vigorous muscular activity there is
lack of oxygen supply and thus anaerobic
respiration takes place in muscle cells. During
this process lactic acid is formed which gets
accumulated in the muscle cells leading to
cramps.
2. Which among the following is the correct
sequence regarding the flow of impulse in a
neuron?
(1) Dendrite  Axon  Cell body
(2) Axon Cell body  Dendrite
(3) Axon Dendrite  Cell body
(4) Cell body Axon  Nerve terminal
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Transmission of impulse through neurons is in
the form of electrical signals and occurs in
one direction only, i.e., Dendrite  Cell body
 Axon  Nerve terminal
3. In a hypertensive patient, the systolic pressure
increased to 150 mm of Hg. Which part of the
brain would be involved in the regulation of
blood pressure?
(1) Medulla (2) Cerebrum
(3) Cerebellum (4) Hypothalamus
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. All the involuntary actions including blood
pressure, salivation and vomiting are
controlled by the medulla in the hind brain.
4. Edward Jenner's contribution for the
eradication of small pox is
(1) his proposition that small pox had possibly
spread throughout the world from India
and China.
(2) his discovery of transformation
procedure.
(3) his finding that rubbing of the skin crust of
small pox victims on the arm of a healthy
person, would develop resistance against
small pox.
(4) his finding that the cow pox infection
protects the person from subsequent
infection from small pox.
2
NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Edward Jenner found that the cow pox
infection protects the person from
subsequent infection from small pox.
5. Four important events given below may have
led to the origin of life on the earth.
I. Formation of amino acids and nucleotides
II. Availability of water
III. Organization of cells
IV. Formation of complex molecules
Select the correct sequence of events.
(1) I, II, III and IV
(2) II, I, IV and III
(3) I, IV, II and III
(4) II, III, I and IV
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Origin of life on the earth evolved in the
following sequences :- First, water is
available, secondly formation of amino acids
and nucleotides occurs, thirdly formation of
complex molecules occurs, lastly organization
of cells occurs.
6. Read the following statements carefully.
I. Energy transfer in the biotic world always
proceeds from the autotrophs.
II. Energy flow is unidirectional.
III. Energy availability is maximum at the
tertiary level.
IV. There is loss of energy from one trophic
level to the other.
Select the relevant statements for the forest
ecosystem
(1) I, II and IV (2) I, II and III
(3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always
unidirectional i.e., the energy which passes
from the autotrophs to the herbivores does not
revert to the autotrophs. There is a loss of
energy from one trophic level to the other.
7. In a highly pesticide polluted pond, which of
the following aquatic organisms will have the
maximum amount of pesticide per gram of
body mass?
(1) Lotus
(2) Fishes
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Zooplanktons
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Pesticides gets accumulated at each trophic
level. As, fishes occupy the last trophic level
in pond. So, fishes will have the maximum
amount of pesticide per gram of body mass.
8. A farmer made an observation in a backwater
paddy field of coastal Kerala that the paddy
plants wilt during noon onwards everyday but
appear normal next morning. What would be
the possible reason for wilting?
(1) The rate of water absorption is less than
the rate of transpiration in the afternoon.
(2) The rate of water absorption is more than
the rate of transpiration in the afternoon.
(3) The changes in the rate of water
absorption and transpiration are not
associated with wilting.
(4) The rate of water absorption is not related
to the rate of transpiration.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . When rate of water absorption is less than the
rate of transpiration, plant cells loose water
and thus plants wilt in the afternoon.
9. Observe the experimental sets [A] & [B].
[A] [B]
Test tube
Water
Cotton Plug
Plant
Day 1 Day 5
Observe the test tube A & B. From the list
given below, choose the combination of
responses of shoot and root that are
observed in B.
(1) Positive phototropism and positive
geotropism
(2) Negative phototropism and positive
geotropism
(3) Positive phototropism and negative
geotropism
(4) Only negative phototropism
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Shoot bends towards light which shows
positive phototropism, while root bends
towards earth in response to gravity which
shows positive geotropism.
3
10. Raw banana has bitter taste, while ripe
banana has sweet taste. It happens because
of the conversion of
(1) starch to sugar
(2) sucrose to fructose
(3) amino acids to sugar
(4) amino acids to protein
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . During ripening, there is breakdown of starch
to simple sugars (such as glucose, fructose,
sucrose) which increases sweetness of
banana.
11. In the flowering plants sexual reproduction
involves several events beginning with the
bud and ending in a fruit. These events are
arranged in four different combinations.
Select the combination that has the correct
sequence of events.
(1) Embryo, zygote, gametes, fertilization
(2) Gametes, fertilization, zygote, embryo
(3) Fertilization, zygote, gametes, embryo
(4) Gametes, zygote, embryo, fertilization
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . The male and female gametes fuse to form
zygote. This process is called fertilization.
Zygote then divides to form embryo.
12. In pea plants, Round (R) and Yellow (Y)
features of seeds are dominant over wrinkled
(r) and green (y) features. In a cross between
two plants having the same genotypes (RrYy),
the following genotypic combinations of
offspring are noticed.
A. RrYY B. Rryy
C. rrYy D. rryy
The phenotypic features of A, B, C and D are
given below in an order in four combinations.
Select the correct combination of characters
that corresponds to the genotypes,
(1) Round & yellow; round & green; wrinkled
& yellow; wrinkled & green.
(2) Round & green; wrinkled & yellow;
wrinkled & green; round & yellow.
(3) Wrinkled & green; round & yellow;
wrinkled & yellow; round & green.
(4) Wrinkled & yellow; round & green;
wrinkled & yellow; round & yellow.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In heterozygous condition, dominant trait (i.e.,
round and yellow) will be expressed. So,
phenotypes will be
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
A – RrYY : Round and Yellow S o l . According to ideal gas equation,
B – Rryy : Round and Green PV = nRT
C – rrYy : Wrinkled and Yellow Volume and temperature are constant (given)
D – rryy : Wrinkled and Green  Pn
13. Eukaryotic organisms have different levels of 100
organization. Select the combination where Number of moles of O2 (n1 )   3.125 moles
32
the levels are arranged in the descending
order.
100
(1) DNA, chromosome, cell, nucleus, tissue Number of moles of He (n2 )   25 moles
4
(2) Tissue, cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA
As n2 > n1
(3) Nucleus, cell, DNA, chromosome, tissue
So, the pressure of He gas would be greater
(4) Tissue, cell, chromosome, nucleus, DNA than that of O2 gas
Answer ( 2 ) 16. At 298 K and 1 atm pressure, a gas mixture
contains equal masses of He, H2, O2 and NH3.
S o l . Chromosomes, present in nucleus, are made
Which of the following is correct for their
up of DNA and proteins. Nucleus is the
average molecular velocities?
control room of the cell. A group of cells that
are similar in structure and/or work together (1) He > H2 > NH3 > O2
to achieve a particular function forms a
(2) He < H2 < O2 < NH3
tissue.
(3) H2 < He < NH3 < O2
14. The gaseous byproduct of a process in plants
is essential for another vital process that (4) O2 < NH3 < He < H2
releases energy. Given below are four
Answer ( 4 )
combinations of processes and products.
Choose the correct combination Sol. Gases Molecular masses
(1) Photosynthesis and oxygen (u)
(2) Respiration and carbon dioxide Hydrogen (H2) 2

(3) Transpiration and water vapour Helium (He) 4

(4) Germination and carbon dioxide Ammonia (NH3) 17

Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Oxygen is a byproduct of photosynthesis
which occurs in plants. Oxygen is essential for
another vital process in organisms which
releases energy, i.e., respiration.
15. 100 grams of oxygen (O2) gas and 100 grams
of helium (He) gas are in separate containers
of equal volume at 100°C. Which one of the
following statement is correct?
17.
(1) Both gases would have the same pressure
(2) The average kinetic energy of O 2
molecules is greater than that of He
molecules
(3) The pressure of He gas would be greater
than that of the O2 gas
(4) The average kinetic energy of He and O2
molecules is same
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
Oxygen (O2) 32
8 RT
Average molecular velocity =
M
According to the above relation, greater the
molecular mass lesser will be the average
molecular velocity.
 The correct order is : O2 < NH3 < He < H2
A test tube along with calcium carbonate in it
initially weighed 30.08 g. A heating experiment
was performed on this test tube till calcium
carbonate completely decomposed with
evolution of a gas. Loss of weight during this
experiment was 4.40 g. What is the weight of
the empty test tube in this experiment?
(1) 20.08 g (2) 21.00 g
(3) 24.50 g (4) 2.008 g

4
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
S o l . On thermal decomposition of calcium Answer ( 4 )
carbonate. S o l . a lead nitrate + b aluminium chloride 
 c aluminium nitrate + d lead chloride
CaCO3   CaO  CO2
100 g 56 g 44 g a Pb (NO3)2 + b AlCl3  c Al(NO3)3 + d PbCl2
On balancing the above equation
44 g CO2 is formed from 100 g CaCO3
3Pb(NO3)2 + 2AlCl3  2Al(NO3)3 + 3PbCl2
100 So, a = 3, b = 2, c = 2, d = 3
4.40 g CO2 is formed from  4.4 = 10 g CaCO3
44 20. The correct order of increasing number of
Initial weight of (CaCO3 + test tube) = 30.08 g alpha particles passing undeflected through
the foils of Au, Ag, Cu and Al of 1000 atoms
Calculated weight of CaCO3 = 10 g
thickness each in a simulated alpha particle
Weight of empty test tube = 30.08 – 10 = 20.08 g scattering experiment of Rutherford would be
18. Match List-I (Mixture to be separated) with the (1) Au < Ag < Cu < Al (2) Al < Cu < Ag < Au
List-II (Method used) and select the correct
(3) Au < Cu < Al < Ag (4) Ag < Cu < Al < Au
option using the codes given below.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Number of -particles deflected  Z2
List-I List-II
(Mixture to be (Method used) Where Z = Atomic number
separated) Elements Au Ag Cu Al
A. Petroleum products I. Chromatography
Z 79 47 29 13
B. Camphor and rock salt II. Centrifugation
Lesser the value of Z, more will be the
C. Cream from milk III. Sublimation number of undeflected -particles
D. Coloured components IV. Fractional So, correct order is
in a dye distillation
Au < Ag < Cu < Al
21. The correct order of increasing pH values of
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV the aqueous solutions of baking soda, rock
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I salt, washing soda and slaked lime is
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (1) Baking soda < Rock Salt < Washing Soda
< Slaked lime
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) Rock Salt < Baking Soda <Washing soda<
Answer ( 4 )
Slaked lime
(3) Slaked lime < Washing soda < Rock salt <
Sol. (Mixture to be (Method used) Baking Soda
separated)
(4) Washing soda < Baking Soda < Rock Salt <
Petroleum products Fractional
Slaked lime
distillation
Camphor and rock salt Sublimation Answer ( 2 )
Cream from milk Centrifugation Sol. – NaCl (rock salt) does not undergo
hydrolysis hence pH remains 7
Coloured components
Chromatography – Baking soda and washing soda undergo
in a dye
hydrolysis as given below.

19. In the balanced chemical equation: NaHCO3 + H2O Na + H2CO3 + OH

(Baking
(a lead nitrate + b aluminium chloride  c soda)
aluminium nitrate + d lead chloride) Which of Na2CO3 + 2H2O 2Na + H2CO3 + 2OH
the following alternatives is correct? (Washing
soda)
(1) a = 1, b = 2, c = 2, d = 1
Both produce free OH ions but Na 2 CO 3
(2) a = 4 , b = 3, c = 3, d = 4
produces more OH ions than NaHCO 3
(3) a = 2, b = 3, c = 2, d = 3 resulting into higher pH of Aq. solution of
(4) a = 3, b = 2, c = 2, d = 3 Na2CO3.

5

Slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) is an Arrhenius base
and gives free OH ions in solution, making
solution most basic among all four solutions.
So correct sequence of pH of solution is
Rock salt < Baking soda < Washing soda <
Slaked lime.
22. How many grams of oxygen gas will be
needed for complete combustion of 2 moles of
3rd member of alkyne series?
(1) 186 g (2) 256 g
(3) 352 g (4) 372 g
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . 2C4H6 + 11O2  8CO2 + 6H2O
For complete combustion of 2 moles of
butyne, 11 moles of oxygen is required
NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
S o l .  Highly reactive metals are extracted by
electrolysis.
 Moderately reactive metals are extracted
by reduction using reducing agents like
carbon etc.
 Less reactive metals are extracted by
heating alone
 Very less reactive metals (lies at the
bottom of the series) are found in native
state.
24. Which of the following statements can help a
chemistry student to predict chemical
properties of an element?
I. Position of element in the periodic table
II. Atomic number of the element
III. Number of shells in the atom

No. of moles of O2 IV. Number of electrons in the outer most

shell
Mass of required O2 in grams  (1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
= Molecular weight in grams 
(3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV

W Answer ( 2 )
11 =
32 S o l . Chemical properties of an element depends
upon the valency i.e. the combining capacity
W = 352 g
of an element and that can be found out from
 352 g of O2 is required for complete
– Position of elements in the periodic table
combustion of 2 moles of butyne
– Atomic number of the element
23. Match List I (Position of the Metal in the
Activity Series) with the List II (Related – Number of electrons in the outermost
Reduction Process) and select the correct shell (Valence shell)
option using the codes given below. 25. Consider the elements A, B, C and D with
atomic numbers 6, 7, 14 and 15, respectively.
Which of the following statements are correct
List I List II concerning these elements?
(Position of the Metal in (Related Reduction
the Activity Series) Process) I. D will lose electron more easily than C
A. The bottom of the I. Electrolysis II. B will gain electron more easily than C
series
III. The element with highest electro-
B. The top of the II Reduction by heat
series alone
negativity is D
C. The lower regions of III. Found in native state IV. The element with largest atomic size is C
the series (1) I and II (2) II and III
D. The middle of the IV. Reduction using
series carbon or some (3) II and IV (4) III and IV
other reducing agent Answer ( 3 )

Sol. Elements Atomic Electronic Actual symbol

(1) A-II B-III C-IV D-I
number configuration of element
(2) A-II B-I C-IV D-III A 6 2, 4 C
(3) A-III B-I C-II D-IV B 7 2, 5 N
C 14 2, 8, 4 Si
(4) A-III B-I C-IV D-II
D 15 2, 8, 5 P
Answer ( 3 )
6
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
I. As D and C both are non-metals so they 27. An organic liquid ‘A’ with acidified potassium
will not lose electrons and hence dichromate gave product ‘B’. The compound
statement I is incorrect ‘B’ on heating with methanol in presence of
concentrated sulphuric acid formed
II. 'B' is more electronegative than 'C'. It will
compound ‘C’ which on subsequent treatment
gain electron more easily. So statement II
with sodium hydroxide formed two products
is correct
‘D’ and ‘E’. The product ‘D’ is known to affect
III. As we move down the group, electro- the optic nerve causing blindness. Intake of
negativity decreases so D is not having ‘D’ in very small quantities can cause death.
the highest electronegativity because 'D' What are compounds ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’?
lies below the 'B' in the same group. Hence (1) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid,
statement III is not correct C = Methanol, D = Sodium acetate,
IV. According to the trends of periodic E = Methyl ethanoate
properties, as we move along the period (2) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid,
atomic size decrease whereas on moving C = Methyl ethanoate, D = Methanol,
down the group atomic size increases. So E = Sodium acetate
element 'C' has the largest atomic size. (3) A = Sodium acetate, B = Ethanoic acid, C
Hence statement IV is correct. = Methyl ethanoate, D = Methanol,
E = Ethanol
26. A hydrocarbon 'A' (C3H8) on treatment with
chlorine in presence of sunlight yielded (4) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid,
compound 'B' as major product. Reaction of 'B' C = Methyl ethanoate, D = Sodium
with aqueous KOH gave 'C' which on acetate, E = Methanol
treatment with concentrated H2SO4 yielded Answer ( 2 )
'D'. Hydrogenation of 'D' gave back 'A'. The S o l . Organic liquid (‘A’) is ethanol (CH3CH2OH)
sequence of reactions involved in above Acidified
conversion is : K2Cr2O7
CH3CH2OH CH3COOH
(1) Substitution, Substitution, Addition Ethanol Ethanoic
(A) acid
Conc. (B)
(2) Substitution, Substitution, Dehydration, H2SO4
Addition CH3COOH + CH3OH CH3COOCH3 + H2O
Ethanoic Methanol Methyl ethanoate
(3) Substitution, Dehydration, Addition, acid (B) (C)
Addition
NaOH
(4) Addition, Substitution, Dehydration,
Substitution CH3COONa + CH3OH
Answer ( 2 ) Sodium acetate Methanol
(E) (D)
S o l . C3H8(A) is propane. 28. Two nichrome wires A and B, each of length
5 cm and of radius 1 cm and 3 cm respectively
Sunlight
(i) CH3CH2 CH3 + Cl2 CH3CH2 CH2Cl + HCl are connected to each other in series. If a
Propane Chloropropane
(A) (B) current of 5 A flows through the combination
of wires, the ratio of potential difference
This is a substitution reaction. across wire A to that across wire B will be
(ii) CH3CH2 CH2Cl + aq. KOH CH3CH2 CH2OH + KCl (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
Chloropropane Propanol Potassium
(B) (C) chloride (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9
Answer ( 3 )
This is also a substitution reaction.
S o l . For resistance R1,
Conc. H2SO4
(iii) CH3CH2CH2OH CH3CH = CH2 + H2O V1 = R1 × i
Propanol Propene
(C) (D) 5  102
V1 =  i
This is a dehydration reaction. (1 102 )2
5  102
V2 =  i
Ni/Pt/Pd
(iv) CH3CH = CH2 + H2 CH3CH2CH3
Propene Propane (3  102 )2
(D) (A)
V1 9
This is an addition reaction.  
V2 1
7
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
29. Two convex lenses A and B, each of focal Answer ( 4 )
length 30 cm are separated by 30 cm, as
S o l . Apply conservation of momentum for each 'L'
shown in the figure. An object O is placed at a
distance
distance of 40 cm to the left of lens A.
A B For distance L to 2L

3M
Mu  v1
2
O
40 cm 30 cm 2
v1  u
What is the distance of the final image formed 3
by this lens system? For distance 2L to 3L
(1) 120 cm to right of lens A
M 2
(2) 90 cm to right of lens A 3  u  2Mv2
2 3
(3) 22.5 cm to right of lens B
(4) 45 cm to right of lens B u
v2 
Answer ( 3 ) 2
S o l . For lens A : For distance 3L to 4L
1 1 1
  u 5M
v1 u1 f1 2M   v3
2 2
1 1 1
 
v1 30 40 2u
v3 
1 1 5

v1 120
9L
v1 = 120 cm For distance 4 L to
2
For lens B :
Now image formed by lens A is behave as 5M 2u
  3Mv 4
virtual object for lens B and its distance from 2 5
lens B is 90 cm.
1 1 1 u
  v4 
v2 u2 f2 3

1 1 1 Object covers first L distance with speed u

 
v2 30 90 L u
and last with .
1 4 2 3

v2 90 Time = t1 + t2 + t3 + t4 + t5
v2 = 22.5 cm to right of lens B.
L
30. A cart of mass M moves at a speed u on a
L L L L
frictionless surface. At regular intervals of =    2
u 2 u 2u u
M u
length L, blocks of mass m  drops 3 2 5 3
2
vertically into the cart. How much time is
L 3 5 3
9 =  1  2   
taken to cover a distance of L ? u 2 2 2
2
9L 5L L 5
(1) (2) = 6  
2u 2u u 2

19L 17L 17L

(3) (4) =
2u 2u 2u
8
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
31. A ball is thrown vertically up from the point A 32. A ray of light of pure single colour is incident
(see figure). A person, standing at a height H on the face of a prism having angle of the
on the roof atop a building, tries to catch it. prism 30° at an angle of incidence 45°. The
He misses the catch, the ball overshoots and refracted ray does not change its direction as
simultaneously the person starts a stop- it crosses the other face and emerges out of
watch. The ball reaches its highest point and the prism. The refractive index of the material
he manages to catch it upon its return. By this of the prism is
time, a time interval T has elapsed as
(1) 2 / 3 (2) 2
recorded by the stop watch. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity at this place, the (3) 2 (4) 3
speed with which the ball was thrown from Answer ( 3 )
point A will be
S o l . By using Snell's law
sini n2 30°

sinr n1 60°
90°

sin 45 n2 45° 30°

H 
sin30 1
Prism
A
1
2 n
(1) gH  gT 1 2

2
(2)  
g2 T 2  4gH / 2
n2 
2

2
2 2
(3)  g T  8gH / 2
2 2
 n2  2
33. A metallic cubical solid block of side L is
(4)  g2 T 2  2gH  slowly lowered continuously in a large vessel,
filled with water. Let d be the depth of the
Answer ( 3 ) lower surface of the block, measured from
the surface of the water, at some instant. The
S o l . As we know
graph which represents correctly the
v = u + at variation of the buoyant force F with depth d
is
gT
0  v1 
2
gT
v1 
2 B v1
d
For AB H
Water

v2 = u2 + 2gs A

2
 gT 
 2   u  2gH
2
F F
  (1) (N) (2) (N)
2
 gT 
u 
2
  2gH
 2  d (cm) d (cm)

(gT)2  8gH
u
4 F F
(3) (N) (4) (N)

u
 g2 T 2  8gH 
2 d (cm) d (cm)
9
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
Answer ( 3 )
vB2  vBH
2 2
 vBV
S o l . Buoyancy force, FB  Vw g
vB2  u2  2gH
where, volume V = AL
FB  (AL)w g vB  u2  2gH
FB  L vA = vB = vC

Where, Aw g  cons tan t 35. Four blocks of different masses (m1 = 1 kg, m2
= 2 kg, m3 = 1 kg and m4 = 5 kg) are connected
But when the block immersed completely with light, inextensible strings, as shown in
then buoyancy force will be constant. figure. This system is pulled along a
frictionless surface by a horizontal force of 36
N. The force pulling the block of mass m1 will
be
F
(N) m2 m4
m1 m3
36 N
d (cm)
34. Three balls A, B and C of same size but of (1) 2 N (2) 4 N
different masses are thrown with the same (3) 12 N (4) 36 N
speed from the roof of a building as shown in
figure. Let v A, v B and v C be the respective Answer ( 2 )
speeds with which the balls A, B and C hit the S o l . m = 9 kg
ground. Neglecting air resistance, which one
of the following relations is correct? F 36
a  = 4 m/s2
m 9
A
Force on block m1 = 1 × 4 = 4 N
B 36. The velocity-time graph of motion of two cars
A and B is shown in the figure
C
Car B
Car A

Velocity
(1) vA > vC > vB (2) vC > vA > vB (v)

(3) vA > vB > vC (4) vA = vB = vC

Answer ( 4 ) t
time (t) 0
S o l . v2A  u2  2(–g)(–H)
Choose the correct statement.
v2A  u2  2gH (1) Accelerations of two cars are equal to
each other at time t = t0
vA  u2  2gH (2) Accelerations of two cars are equal to
each other at an instant greater than t0
v2C  u2  2gH
(3) Accelerations of two cars are equal to
each other at an instant earlier than t0
vC  u2  2gH
(4) At no instant in the interval 0  t  t0, the
vBH = u two accelerations are equal

2 Answer ( 3 )
vBV  2gH
10
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
39. Two long current-carrying parallel wires are
Car B placed as shown.
Car A
i
2
Velocity (v)

3i
2
Sol.
Which of the following figures will represent
t t0 the magnitude and direction of the forces
time (t) exerted on the wires?

Slope of two graphs at an instant t is same F F

before time t0. i
(1) 2
37. Three electric bulbs of rating 40 W-200 V;
50 W-200 V and 100 W-200 V are connected in 3i
series to a 600 V supply. What is likely to 2
happen as the supply is switched on?
(1) Only 50 W bulb will fuse
(2) Both 40 W and 50 W bulbs will fuse 3F F
i
(3) All the three bulbs will emit light with (2) 2
their rated powers
3i
(4) 100 W bulb will emit light of maximum 2
intensity
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Let I 1 , I 2 and I 3 are the maximum current F F
rating of bulbs. i
(3) 2
I1 = 0.2 A
I2 = 0.25 A 3i
2
I3 = 0.5 A
R1 = 1000 
R2 = 800  F 3F
i
R3 = 400  (4) 2
38. A sound wave is sent simultaneously through
3i
a long hollow pipe AB and a solid pipe CD of
2
same length and having same cross-sectional
area. A person standing at point P as shown
in the figure will hear the sound Answer ( 1 )
A B
Sol. 1 2
P
i 3i
2 2
C D
(1) at the same time from pipes, AB and CD
F12 F21
(2) first from pipe CD and then from pipe AB d
(3) first from pipe AB and then from pipe CD
(4) from pipe AB only and not from pipe CD Current in opposite direction, wire will repel
each other and experiences force of same
Answer ( 2 ) magnitude.
S o l . Velocity of sound in solid > Velocity of sound
 |F12| = |F21|
in air

11
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
40. An electrical circuit, shown below, consists of
1
a battery, an ammeter, three resistors and two 41. Given that  0.142857, which is a repeating
keys. 7
decimal having six different digits. If x is the
A sum of such first three positive integers n
1
such that  0.abcdef, where a, b, c, d, e and
3 4 12  n
12 V f are different digits, then the value of
x is
K1 K2 (1) 20 (2) 21
(3) 41 (4) 42
Consider two cases :
Answer ( 3 )
(i) The key K 1 is closed and the key K 2 is
open. 1
Sol.  0.142857
(ii) The key K 2 is closed and the key K 1 is 7
open.
1
The ratio of respective currents in these two  0.076923
13
cases will be :
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 3 1
 0.047619
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4 21

Answer ( 4 )  x = 7 + 13 + 21

S o l . (i) When K1 is closed and K2 is open,  x = 41

A 42. Which of the following digits is ruled out in

the units place of 12n + 1 for every positive
integer n?
3 12  (1) 1 (2) 3
12 V (3) 5 (4) 7
K1 Answer ( 1 )
S o l . 12n + 1
12  3 36 Unit's digit of 12n + 1 can be 3, 5, 7, 9
 Req = 
12  3 15  1 cannot be the unit digit of 12n + 1
43. The rational roots of the cubic equation
V 12  15
 I1   5A x3 + 14kx2 + 56kx – 64k3 = 0 are in the ratio
Req 36 1 : 2 : 4. The possible values of k are
(ii) When K2 is closed and K1 is open, (1) 0 only (2) 1 only
A (3) 2, 0 (4) –2, –1
Answer ( * )
S o l . But ratio of roots is not valid when k = 0
4 12 
12 V  No correct option as technically it is wrong.
However, mathematically option (1) satisfies.
K2
44. The odd natural numbers have been divided in
groups as
12  4
 Req  3 (1, 3); (5, 7, 9, 11); (13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23); ...
12  4
Then the sum of numbers in the 10th group is
V 12 (1) 4000 (2) 4003
 I2   4A
Req 3
(3) 4007 (4) 4008
 I1 : I2 = 5 : 4 Answer ( 1 )

12
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
S o l . (1, 3), (5, 7, 9, 11), (13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23) .... 46. The values of k, so that the equations
2x2 + kx – 5 = 0 and x2 – 3x – 4 = 0 have one
Number of terms in Group 1 = 2
root in common, are
Number of terms in Group 2 = 4
27 27
Number of terms in Group 10 = 20 (1) 3, (2) 9,
2 4
Total number of terms before Group 10
= 2 + 4 + 6 + ...... + 18 27 4
(3) –3, (4) –3,
4 27
9
= (2  18)
2 Answer ( 3 )
= 90 S o l . x2 – 3x – 4 = 0 ... (i)
First term of 10th Group i.e., 91st odd number  4 and –1 are the roots of equation (i)
= 1 + (90)2 2x2 + kx – 5 = 0
= 181 When x = 4,
 181 is the first term of Group 10 2(4)2 + 4k – 5 = 0
 Sum of terms in group 10
27
 k
20 4
= (2  181  19  2)
2 When x = –1,
= 4000 2(–1)2 – k – 5 = 0
45. If the polynomial – x4+ 6x3 16x2
– 25x + 10 is  k=–3
divided by another polynomial x2 – 2x + k, the
remainder comes out to be x + a, then the 47. The value of cos x° – sin x° (0  x < 45) is
value of a is
(1) 0
(1) –1 (2) –5
(2) Positive
(3) 1 (4) 5
(3) Negative
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Sometimes negative and sometimes
Sol. positive
2
x – 4x + (8 – k) Answer ( 2 )
2
x – 2x + k x4 – 6x3 + 16x2 – 25x + 10
4 3 2 1
x – 2x + kx S o l . 1  cos x  , where 0  x  45
– + – 2
3 2
– 4x + (16 – k)x – 25x + 10
3 2
– 4x + 8x – 4kx 1
0  sinx  , where 0  x  45
+ – + 2
2
(8 – k)x + (–25 + 4k)x + 10
 cos x° – sin x° is always positive
2 2
(8 – k)x – (16 – 2k)x + 8k – k
48. A vertical pole of height 10 metres stands at
– + – +
2
one corner of a rectangular field. The angle of
(–25 + 4k + 16 – 2k)x + 10 – 8k + k elevation of its top from the farthest corner is
30°, while that from another corner is 60°. The
Remainder = (–9 + 2k)x + 10 – 8k + k2 area (in m2) of rectangular field is
– 9 + 2k = 1
200 2 400
 k=5 (1) (2)
3 3
a = 10 – 8k + k2
= 10 – 40 + 25 200 2 400 2
(3) (4)
=–5 3 3

13
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
Answer ( 1 ) 50. The surface of water in a swimming pool, when
S o l . In OAC, it is full of water, is rectangular with length and
breadth 36 m and 10.5 m respectively. The
10 O depth of water increases uniformly from 1 m at
tan30 
x one end to 1.75 m at the other end. The water
10 m in the pool is emptied by a cylindrical pipe
 x  10 3 60°
D y 0° C of radius 7 cm at the rate of 5 km/h. The time
In OCD, 3 (in hours) to empty water in the pool is
z 22
10 x (take   )
tan60  7
y A B

10 1 1
y (1) 6 (2) 6
3 4 2
In ADC, 3 4
y2 + z2 = x2 (3) 6 (4) 6
4 5
z2 = x2 – y2 Answer ( 3 )
800 Sol.
z2  A B
3
1m 1.75 m
20 2
z C
3
C
10 20 2 200 2
Required area  yz    Volume of water in tank =
3 3 3

49. A circle is inscribed in a square and the 3 1

36 × 10.5 × 1 + 36 × 10.5 × 
square is circumscribed by another circle. 4 2
What is the ratio of the areas of the inner
circle to the outer circle? 10.5  99 3
= m
2
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
Volume of water flows through pipe in one
(3)2:4 (4) 1 : 3 2
 7 
hour =     5000 m3
Answer ( 1 )  100 
Sol. Let time to empty water in pool is t hr
D S C
2
 7  10.5  99
    5000  t 
P R
 100  2

3
t= 6 hr
A Q B 4
51. There is a right circular cone of height h and
a vertical angle 60°. A sphere when placed
Radius of inner circle = [where a is the inside the cone, it touches the curved surface
2
length of side of square] and the base of the cone. The volume of
sphere is
a
Radius of outer circle = 4 3 4 3
2 (1) h (2) h
3 9
 Ratio of area of inner circle to outer circle
4 4
2
 a  a 
2 (3) h3 (4) h 3
=    :   27 81
 2 
=1:2
2
14
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In ADC A S o l . Condition (1)
30
R °
tan 30  (AD  h) E
h r
h O R
R h2
3
In ADC B C
2
D R
 h 
= h 
2
AC2
 3 
h1 15 cm
4h2

3
2h
AC 
3
h Let the height of cylinder having radius 3 cm
CE = R  and 1.5 cm are h1 and h2 respectively
3
 Volume of water in condition (1)
 AE = AC – CE
 × (32)h1 + (1.5)2(15 – h1)
h

3  27 h1  15  9  3

Now in AOE
= 
4  cm
 
r Condition (2)
tan 30 
AE
1 h
r = AE  
3 3
3
4 3 4  h
 Volume of sphere = r =   
3 3  3
4
h3 =
81
52. A sealed bottle containing some water is 24 cm
made up of two cylinders A and B of radius 1.5
cm and 3 cm respectively, as shown in the
figure. When the bottle is placed right up on a
table, the height of water in it is 15 cm, but
when placed upside down, the height of water
is 24 cm. The height of the bottle is Volume of water in condition (2)
= (1.5)2h2 + (24 – h2)9

36 24  27h2 
=   cm3
 4 
Volume of water in both condition must be
same

27 h1  15  9 36    24  27 h2
 
4 4
27(h1 + h2) = 36 ×  × 24 – 15 × 9

9 81
h1  h2  
(1) 25 cm (2) 26 cm 27 
(3) 27 cm (4) 28 cm  h1 + h2 = 27 cm

15
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
53. Let l be the length of each equal side of an Answer ( 4 )
isosceles triangle. If the length of each equal
Sol. A
side is doubled, keeping its height unchanged,
then the difference of the squares of bases of
the new triangle and the given triangle is x

(1) 0 (2) 4l 2 x
(3) 9l 2 (4) 12l 2
3 F 3 3
Answer ( 4 ) M
S o l . In ABC, 3 3 G
1
BC  2 l 2  h 2 C
B 3 D E

Given triangle 3 3
A FG = FM + MG
=3+1
=4
GC = 2 cm [ ∵ FDC  GEC]
B C
D
 DC  3 3 cm
In PQR,
In ABC
QR  2 4l 2  h 2
x  3 3   
2 2
  x  3  3  3 3
2

New triangle
P
 x 63 3
AB = x + 3
2 2
= 63 3 3
Q R
= 93 3
Now
55. In ABC, AB = AC, P and Q are points on
QR2 – BC2 = 4(4l 2 – h 2) –4(l 2 – h 2) AC and AB respectively such that BC = BP = PQ
= 16l 2 – 4l 2 = AQ. Then AQP is equal to (use  = 180°)
= 12l 2 2 3
(1) (2)
54. In the adjoining figure, ABC is a triangle in 7 7
which B = 90° and its incircle C1 has radius 3.
A circle C2 of radius 1 touches sides AC, BC 4 5
and the circle C1. Then length AB is equal to (3) (4)
7 7
A Answer ( 4 )

A
Sol.
C1 z

C2 Q 180°– y z P
3 y 180°– 2y
1 x
C
B

(1) 3  6 3 (2) 10  3 2 y
B
180°– 2x x C
(3) 10  2 3 (4) 9  3 3
16
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
In ABC PQ2 = BQ × QC – BP × PC
AB = AC = 4 × 3 – 4k × 3k
y + 180º – 2x = x = 12(1 – k2)

 180º = 3x – y ...(i)  37 
= 12  1 
In AQP  49 

2z = y ...(ii) 12  12
=
49
∵ APC is a straight line
 z + x + 180º – 2y = 180º 12
PQ = cm
 2x = 3y ...(iii) (from (ii)) 7
57. How many points (x, y) with integral co-
From (i) and (iii)
ordinates are there whose distance from
360º (1, 2) is two units?
y
7 (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
360º
AQP = 180º  Answer ( 4 )
7
S o l . Let the points A(1, 2), B(x, y) are at the
900º 5 
=  distance 2 units.
7 7
56. A line from one vertex A of an equilateral   x – 12   y – 2 2 2
ABC meets the opposite side BC in P and the
circumcircle of ABC in Q. If BQ = 4 cm and
CQ = 3 cm, then PQ is equal to   x – 12   y – 2 2  4
x and y can take only integral values.
4
(1) 7 cm (2) cm  (x – 1)2 = 0 and (y – 2)2 = 4 gives (1, 4), (1, 0)
3
Further, (y – 2) 2 = 0 and (x – 1) 2 = 4 gives
12 (3, 2), (–1, 2)
(3) cm (4) 2 cm
7 Hence four such points are possible.
Answer ( 3 ) 58. If the vertices of an equilateral triangle have
integral co-ordinates, then
A
(1) Such a triangle is not possible
Sol.
(2) The area of the triangle is irrational
(3) The area of the triangle is an integer
(4) The area of the triangle is rational but not
an integer
Answer ( 1 )
P
B C S o l . Option (1) is correct.
60° 60°
4 3
59. A box contains four cards numbered as 1, 2, 3
Q and 4 and another box contains four cards
numbered as 1, 4, 9 and 16. One card is
PQ is a bisector of BQC drawn at random from each box. What is the
probability of getting the product of the two
42  32  BC2 numbers so obtained, more than 16?
cos120 
2 43
5 1
BC2 = 37 (1) (2)
8 2
BC  37 ...(i)
3 1
(3) (4)
We know that 8 4

17
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
Answer ( 3 ) 61. The Swaraj flag designed by Mahatma Gandhi
had the spinning wheel in it. What did it
S o l . Number of possible outcomes = 16
symbolize?
Number of favourable outcomes = (1) Ideal of self-help.
{(2, 9), (2, 16), (3, 9), (3, 16), (4, 9), (4, 16)} (2) Symbol of defiance to the British rule.
6 3 (3) Greatness of India in pre-colonial time.
P E   
16 8 (4) Ahimsa (non-violence) in contemporary
world.
60. The mean of a group of eleven consecutive
natural numbers is m. What will be the Answer ( 1 )
percentage change in the mean when next six 62. Which of the following statements regarding
consecutive natural numbers are included in the Silk Routes are correct?
the group?
I. They also meant cultural links.
(1) m%
II. They spread over land and by sea.
m III. They connected Asia with Europe and
(2) % Africa.
3
IV. Besides textiles, gold and silver got
m exported from Asia to Europe through
(3) %
300 these routes.
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
300
(4) % (3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
m
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
63. Which of the following statements regarding
S o l . Let the 11 consecutive natural numbers be the impact of Depression of 1929 are correct?
n, n + 1, n + 2,..., n + 10. I. India’s exports increased but imports
decreased.
n  n  1  n  2  ...  n  10
 Mean = II. India’s export of gold increased.
11
III. Urban India suffered more than the rural
10  11 India.
11n 
2  n  5  m(Given) IV. Industrial investment grew in India
=
11 (1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
Further, mean of 17 consecutive natural (3) II, III and IV (4) II and IV
n  n  1  ...  n  16 Answer ( 4 )
numbers =
17 64. Which of the following statements about the
French in Vietnam are correct?
16(17)
17n  I. The Vietnamese teachers generally
= 2 twisted the school curriculum given by
17 the French.

n8 II. The students protested the undue

dominance by the colons.
n8–n–5 III. The Annanese Student was a French
% difference =  100%
m journal for enlisting the students support.
IV. The French had to counter the Chinese
3 influence.
=  100
m
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
300 (3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV
 %
m Answer ( 2 )

18
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
65. Read the statements about the impact of Direction (Questions 69–74)
forest rules on tribal communities in the 19th
century. Which of the following statements are Read the statements and select the correct
incorrect? answer from the options given below.
I. Jhum cultivators could carry out their 1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
activities in village forests.
2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
II. Jhum cultivators took to plough cultivation
with ease. 3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II
III. Tribal people could collect wood and provides explanation to Statement I.
graze cattle in the forests. 4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does
IV. Tribal people had access to protected not provide explanation of Statement I.
forests for collecting wood for fuel and
house building. 69. Statement I : In the 19th century, London
was a colossal city.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) II and III (4) III and IV Statement II : London had grown as an
industrial city.
Answer ( 1 )
66. Which of the following statements about the Answer ( 3 )
Non-Cooperation Movement are correct?
70. Statement I : Indians not taking off their
I. The Justice Party participated in the turban before colonial officials was
elections in Madras. considered offending.
II. The nationalist lawyers did not join back
the courts. Statement II : Turban was a sign of
respectability in India.
III. The taluqdars were targeted.
IV. The import of foreign cloth declined and Answer ( 4 )
the export of Indian textiles increased 71. Statement I : Louis Blanc built a cooperative
manifold. community.
(1) I and III (2) I and IV
Statement II : He believed the community
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV
could produce goods together and divide the
Answer ( 1 ) profits among the members.
67. Which of the following regarding the
Constitution of 1791 and the status of women Answer ( 2 )
in France are correct? 72. Statement I : Hand printing developed in
I. It made them active citizens. China.
II. Provisions were made for schools for both Statement II : The Chinese state printed
boys and girls. textbooks in vast numbers.
III. Divorce rules were made stringent.
Answer ( 4 )
IV. Provisions were made for training women
for jobs. 73. Statement I : Rainfall is low in the western
(1) I, II and III (2) II and IV parts of Deccan Plateau and East of
(3) III and IV (4) II, III and IV Sahyadris.
Answer ( 2 ) Statement II : Western Ghats causes
68. Arrange the following historical developments convectional rainfall.
in a chronological sequence Answer ( 1 )
I. Rowlatt Act
74. Statement I : A large part of the Deccan
II. Kheda Satyagraha
plateau is occupied by black soil.
III. Champaran Movement
Statement II : Black soil in this part was
IV. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
formed by denudation of basaltic rocks
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, I, III, IV overtime.
(3) III, I, IV, II (4) III, II, IV, I
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
19
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
75. If the local time at Varanasi, located at 83°E (1) Montane Forest – Tropical Deciduous
longitude is 23:00 hour then what will be the Forests – Tropical Evergreen Forests
local time at Kibithu located at 97°E longitude (2) Tropical Evergreen Forests – Tropical
(Arunachal Pradesh) and Jodhpur, located at Thorn Forests – Tropical Deciduous
73°E longitude? Forests
(1) 00:00 hour, 22:00 hour (3) Tropical Deciduous Forests – Tropical
(2) 22:20 hour, 23:56 hour Evergreen Forests – Mangrove Forests
(3) 23:56 hour, 22:20 hour (4) Tropical Evergreen Forests – Tropical
Deciduous Forests – Mangrove Forests
(4) 22:56 hour, 23:20 hour
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
80. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true
76. Which one of the following statements are
with respect to monsoons in India?
true about latitudes and longitudes?
A. The Southwestern Monsoon takes longer
I. All latitudes are angular distances duration as compared to retreating
measured towards the Pole from the Monsoon in covering India.
Equator.
B. The Southwestern Monsoon has a shorter
II. All longitudes do not join at poles duration as compared to retreating
III. All Parallels and Meridians are imaginary Monsoon in covering India.
lines C. Both the Monsoons take almost the same
IV. Latitudes are used to determine the time duration in covering India.
of a place D. The Southwestern Monsoon is propelled
(1) I and II (2) I and III by the depressions while retreating
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV Monsoon results from the movement of Air
Masses.
Answer ( 2 )
(1) A and D (2) B only
77. If the current climatic condition of Srinagar
(3) C only (4) B and D
(J&K) with average annual temperature of
13.5°C and annual average precipitation Answer ( 2 )
710 mm get modified and become similar to 81. Which one of the following regions marked on
that of Ranchi (Jharkhand) with annual the sketch is an ideal representation with the
average temperature 23.7°C and precipitation following characteristics?
1430 mm., which one of the following types of I. The approximate date for arrival of the
vegetation will become predominant in Southwestern Monsoon is June 15th.
Srinagar?
II. Well developed in Thermal and Nuclear
(1) Tropical Semi Evergreen energy production
(2) Tropical Moist Deciduous III. Rich in the production of oil and natural
(3) Tropical Dry Deciduous gas
(4) Tropical Dry Evergreen IV. Well developed Textile Industry
Answer ( 2 )
78. On a school field trip, a student spotted tigers,
turtles, gharials and snakes in their natural
habitats. Name the ecological region (delta)
where that student had gone.
(1) Cauvery
(2) Mahanadi
(3) Godavari
(4) Ganga - Brahmaputra
Answer ( 4 )
79. A person travelling by road (shortest distance)
(1) A (2) B
from Mangaluru to Machilipatnam will be able
to observe natural vegetation types in which (3) C (4) D
of the following sequences? Answer ( 3 )
20
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
82. With increasing urbanization, the main
activity which leads to loss of bio-diversity is
I. rural-urban migration.
II. rapid increase in built-up area.
III. increased vehicular pollution.
IV. development of big industrial complexes.
(1) I and III (2) I and IV
85. Consider the following statements about the
United Nations Security Council (UNSC):
I. UNSC consists of 15 members.
II. US, Russia and Germany are among the
permanent members.
III. China is the only Asian nation among the
permanent members.

(3) II and IV (4) III and IV IV. All members of the UNSC have veto
power.
Answer ( 3 )
Which of the above statements are correct?
83. Which one of the following statements is NOT
correct about the shaded part on the given (1) I and II
outline of India?
(2) I and III
(3) I and IV
(4) III and IV
Answer ( 2 )
86. Which of these statements about the Election
Commission of India are true?
I. It conducts and controls the election
process in the country.
II. It gets the voters list updated before the
elections.
III. It also conducts the Panchayat elections
in the country.
IV. It approves the election manifestoes of
political parties.
(1) It has high potential for hydel-power
(1) I and II (2) II and III
generation.
(2) It has the lowest degree of urbanization. (3) II and IV (4) III and IV

(3) Ragi is an important millet grown here. Answer ( 1 )

(4) It is famous for religious tourism. 87. Consider the following statements about the
Indian Parliament
Answer ( 3 )
84. Chandimal, Jaysurya and Umesh left their I. It is the ultimate authority to make laws in
respective villages in Sri Lanka for Chennai in India.
India. Who among the following could be a II. It consists of the President, the Lok Sabha
refugee? and the Rajya Sabha.
I. Chandimal, who is an IT professional, III. It consists of only the Lok Sabha and the
could not find a job in Sri Lanka. Rajya Sabha.
II. Jaysurya, who left his village due to ethnic IV. Lok Sabha members are chosen by the
conflicts. people through elections.
III. Umesh, whose land and house were
Which of the above statements are correct?
destroyed due to Tsunami.
(1) Only Jaysurya (1) I only

(2) Only Chandimal (2) I and III

(3) Jaysurya and Umesh (3) II and III
(4) Chandimal and Jaysurya (4) I, II and IV
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 4 )

21
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
88. Which of the following is the inspiring 92. Read the following statements and select one
philosophy of the Constitution of India? of the four options given below.
I. Secularism, Equality, Communism, Statement I : Enjoyment of pollution-free
Democratic Republic water is a fulfilment of right to life.
II. Democratic Republic, Sovereignty, Statement II : Release from forced labour is a
Fraternity fulfilment of right to life.
III. Secularism, Equality, Justice (1) Only I is correct
IV. Equality, Fraternity, Communalism, (2) Only II is correct
Secularism (3) Both I and II are correct
(1) I and II (2) I and III (4) Both I and II are incorrect
(3) II and III (4) II and IV Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 ) 93. The daily wage of a person in urban areas is
` 300. The poverty line for a person is fixed at
89. Which of the following features of the Indian
` 1000 per month for the urban areas. The
Judiciary are true?
following table shows the details of
I. Integrated judicial system. employment of four families living in Mumbai
II. The Supreme Court is the highest court of city.
appeal.
Family Total Days of Members of
III. Only the Supreme Court can interpret the Employment got in a the Family
Constitution. Month by the family
IV. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed Hari 12 3
only in the Supreme Court and the High Tenzin 15 4
Courts. Bala 15 5
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV Phulia 20 5
(3) I, II and IV (4) II, III and IV Identify the family living below poverty line.
Answer ( 3 ) (1) Hari (2) Tenzin
90. Which of the following statements is NOT true (3) Bala (4) Phulia
about Indian federalism? Answer ( 3 )
(1) The Union government is vested with 94. In a particular year, the price of wheat in a
more financial powers than the state market is ` 15 per kg and a farmer produces
governments. 100 kgs of wheat. In the next year the price of
(2) Power to legislate on residuary subjects is wheat has fallen to ` 10 per kg and the farmer
vested in the Union government. produces 120 kgs. If the government wishes to
(3) The name and boundaries of a State can stabilize the income of the farmer, then what
be changed by the Union government will be the minimum support price?
without the consent of the concerned (1) ` 12 per kg (2) ` 12.5 per kg
State. (3) ` 13 per kg (4) ` 13.5 per kg
(4) The Union legislature can amend any Answer ( 2 )
provision of the Constitution without the 95. A country has four groups of people. The table
consent of the State governments. below describes some social indicators of
Answer ( 4 ) these groups. Identify the group that is the
91. Democracy promotes equality through the most vulnerable.
following: Groups Literacy Life Unemploy-
I. Universal adult franchise rate Expectancy ment rate
II. Equality before law and equal protection (%) (years) (%)
of law A 74 82 5
III. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, B 93 80 10
Scheduled Tribes and women C 63 78 15
IV. Independent and impartial media D 65 78 10
(1) I and II (2) I, II and III (1) A (2) B
(3) I, III and IV (4) II and IV (3) C (4) D
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )
22
 NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
96. Which of the following statements are 99. In a village Puranpur, 200 families are living.
correct? Eighty five families work on their own piece of
I. Bank deposits share the essential features land, 60 families work on the field of other
of money. farmers, 5 families run their own shops and
50 families work in a nearby factory to earn
II. Any depositor may demand his deposit at their livelihood. What percentage of Puranpur
any point of time from a bank. village depends on the secondary sector?
III. Bank must retain all deposits by itself.
(1) 20 (2) 25
(1) I and II are true, but III is false
(3) 35 (4) 55
(2) I is true, but II and III are false.
Answer ( 2 )
(3) I and II are false, but III is true.
(4) All statements I, II and III are true. 100. Identify the correct pairs from List-I (Rights)
and List-II (Violation of rights) and select the
Answer ( 1 ) correct option using the codes given below.
97. Bira and his wife Sheena have two daughters
aged 12 and 16. Sheena’s mother and father, List I List II
aged 65 and 72, also live with them. Bira is (Rights) (Violation of rights)
currently looking for work, but can’t find any. A Right to I Raman buys a packet of
His elder daughter completed class 10 and choose milk on which the
prefers to look for work. Sheena prefers to company’s name,
stay at home to look after house works. How manufacturing date, and
many unemployed members does Bira’s family expiry date were missing
have?
B Right II Sakina wants a particular
(1) 1 (2) 2 to be channel from her cable
(3) 3 (4) 4 informed operator but operator
offers some other channel
Answer ( 2 ) as part of a complete
98. Which of the following statements are package.
correct? C Right to III Joseph bought a
I. Globalization has led to increased flow of safety television from a shop. He
capital across countries. suffered electric shock
II. Increase in flows of labour across while using it.
countries has been larger than the D Right to IV Murli fell ill and was
increase in flows of capital. seek admitted in the hospital
redressal because of stale food
III. MNCs spread their production and work
served in the restaurant.
with local producers in various countries
across the globe. (1) A-I and C-III (2) B-II and C-III
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) B-II and D-IV (4) C-III and D-IV
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )

‰‰‰

23