Construction Project Phases, Processes and Challenges

This includes the physical process of building as well as all associated activities such as landscaping,
refurbishing, site clearance, and demolition.
a. Construction Phase
b. Closure Phase
c. Procurement Phase
d. None of the above
The construction phase is the industry's _________.
a. goal
a. main goal
b. process
c. backbone
What must be awarded through a competitive bidding process before construction can begin?
a. Money
b. Materials
c. Contracts
d. Certificate
Most companies do not purchase or order all the materials required to complete a construction project
all at once. Which of the following reason is true?
a. Limited space on site
b. Reducing the number of materials that must be stored.
c. Avoid spending all the money at once.
d. All of the above
If materials are not ordered on time or are forgotten about, the crew may be unable to complete the
current phase of construction. This may lead to a _____?
a. Continuation
b. Delay
c. Distraction
d. Completion
To meet the rising demand, some employers are being forced to hire __________ workers.
a. Well-trained
b. Less skilled
c. Experienced
Because of a shortage of skilled laborers on job sites, structures are taking _____ to complete.
a. Longer
b. Harder
c. Shorter
d. Easier
This can cause delays because it affects what construction work can and cannot be done on any given
day.
a. Thunder
b. Flood
c. Weather
A construction equipment failure could be caused by a product with a flawed design or by

______________ .
a. High quality manufacturing
b. Well-maintained
c. Poor manufacturing
Poor and _________ communication channels can slow down the transfer of information within a project
and cause information blocks where information is transferred to the incorrect person.
a. Effective
b. Clear
c. Good
d. Ineffective
This describes the scope of work, materials to be used, installation methods, and quality of
workmanship for a parcel of work to be placed under contract.
b. Specification
c. Contracts
d. Bid
e. None of the Above
It is a written or spoken agreement, especially concerning employment, sales, or tenancy, intended to
be enforceable by law.
b. Specification
c. Contracts
d. Bid
This requires compliance with certain formalities prescribed by law.

b. Specification
c. Contracts
d. Bid
Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. Issues in terms of Pricing
b. Issues in terms of Conditions
c. Issues in terms of Compliance
d. Issues in terms of Qualifications
e. Issues in terms of Performance Metrics
Confidentiality covers the suppliers’ discretion if needed. This issue falls under compliance.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
d. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
Unmanaged and mismanaged procurement spend aren’t the same. They are issues in terms of pricing.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
d. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
This quality of specification shows that the written specification is not too broad and general.
a. Consistent
b. Practical
c. Organized
d. Fair
e. Specific
This issue emphasizes that written specification is hard to understand due to variations in meaning and
interpretation.
a. Inconsistent
b. Too technical
c. Ambiguous
d. Incomplete
e. Out of date
One of the parties involved gained more than the other. What quality of specification isn’t applied?
a. Be fair.
b. Be complementary.
c. Be updated.
d. Be practical.
e. Be organized.
All the necessary details and information were written in the specification directly. What quality of written
specification was shown?
a. Be correct.
b. Be fair.
c. Be complementary.
d. Be objective.
e. Be concise.
It is an effective price result in realistic pricing and a fixed-price contract.

a. Price Competition
b. Price Analysis
c. Cost Analysis
d. Period of Performance
e. Allocation of Risks
It can provide a realistic pricing standard with or without competition.

a. Price Competiton
b. Price Analysis
c. Cost Analysis
d. Period of Performance
e. Allocation of Risks
The government provide the bases for negotiating contract pricing agreements and it is the absence of
effective price competition.
b. Cost Analysis
c. Price Analysis
d. Allocation of Risks
e. Urgency of Performnce
It is greater proportion of risk to performance outcomes to ensure timely contract performance.

b. Cost Analysis
c. Price Analysis
e. Urgency of the Requirement
A contracts extending over a relatively long period may require economic price adjustment or price
redetermination.
a. Allocation of Risks
b. Price Competition
c. Period of Performance
e. Urgency of the Requirement
The performance is under the proposed contract that involves operations under the other contracts.
a. Period of Performance
b. Allocation of Risks
c. Price Analysis
d. Cost Analysis
e. Concurrent Contracts
The contractor agrees to perform job for a fixed sum of money and responsible for preparing the Bill of
Quantities.
a. Unit Price Contract
b. Lump-Sum Contract
c. Rates Contract
d. Target Cost with Variable Fees
e. Cost Plus Percentage
Items of work of the contract are specified with estimated quantities in the Bill of Quantities. The client
or owner pays a fixed fixed sum for each completed unit of work.
a. Rate Contract
b. Target Cost with Variable Fees
c. Unit-Price Contract
d. Cost Plus Percentage
e. Guaranteed Maximum Price
The contractor will be reimbursed for all the actual cost plus agreed fee to cover his services.
a. Cost Plus Percentage
b. Taget Cost with Variable Cost
c. Guaranteed Maximum Price
d. Cost Plus Fixed Contracts
e. Overhead and Profit
The contractor guarantees that he will construct the project in full accordance with the drawing and
specifications. The price to the owner will noyt exceed some total upset price.
a. Cost Plus Percentage
b. Target Cost with Variable Cost
c. Guaranteed Maximum Price
d. Cost Plus Fixed Contracts
e. Overhead and Profit
1. These refer to the equipment used to process the materials into finished or semi-finished
products.
a. Money
b. Materials
*c. Machine
d. Project
2. They are group of people who work together, like a neighborhood association, a charity,
a union, or a corporation.
a. Staff
*b. Organization
c. Manpower
d. Project Team
3. Which of the following does not belong to the list of training objectives?
a. To orient new recruits or workers
b. To ensure that the project engineers and workers know exactly their tasks
c. To improve skills, productivity, job performance, and aptitude based on acceptable
standards
*d. To perform tasks poorly
4. The “A” in the functional chart, stands for _______.

*a. Project Manager
b. Technical Department
c. CEO
d. Owner
5. The organization structure reflects the vertical and horizontal working relationships
among the departments, _______ , and sections
a. Procurement
b. Development
*c. Divisions
d. Structures
6. It is the chart that has lists of employees’ names or titles, the positions they hold, and the
reporting relationships between them and their superiors.
a. Function
b. Organization
c. Bar
*d. Position
7. What organization structure is Organization Structure “C”?

*a. Interrelationship among project participants
b. Small Project Structure
c. Large Project Structure
8. This department recruit, select, hire, and place complement workers. They are also
responsible for security services and management.
*a. Administrative Department
b. Procurement Department
c. Accounting Department
d. Technical Department
9. They are responsible for procurement of construction materials, supplies, equipment,
and etc.
a. Accounting Department
*b. Procurement Department
c. Technical Department
d. None of the Above
10. They perform tasks that require skills not commonly available such as plumbing, glass
works, air conditioning, and elevator installation.
a. Foreman
b. Technical Operations
*c. Specialty Contractors
d. Civil Engineers
11. Allows the client to clarify what is required and the level of any budget limits
a. Designing
b. Commissioning
*c. Briefing
d. Tendering
12. __________ are conditions or tasks that must be completed to ensure the success or
completion of the project
*a. Project Requirements
b. Construction Requirements
c. Construction Project
d. Progress report
13. __________ is the starting point of the project and provides guidance for the other types
of requirements.
a. Stakeholders
*b. Business Requirements
c. Solution Requirements
d. Project Requirements
14. What does PCAB stand for?

a. Philippine Contract Association Board
b. Philippine Compounding Accreditation Board
c. Philippine Contracting Association Board
*d. Philippine Contractors Association Board
15. Every __________ has specific needs or requirements that they want to be fulfilled
*a. Individual Stakeholders
b. Contractors
c. Project Manager
d. Sub-contractors
16. This also applies to sub-contractors and specialty contractors to gain this license before
conducting any construction related business here in the Philippines.
a. Building Permit
b. Occupancy Permit
*c. PCAB License
d. Sanitary Permit
17. To ensure that works have been completed as per the contract and that everything
works as it should.
*a. Commissioning
b. Tendering
c. Contractor Retention
d. Designing
18. Which of the following is the benefit of effective gathering of business requirements?
a. Higher Project Success rate
b. Improved communication among stakeholders
c. Cost Reduction
*d. All of the above
19. __________ describe something that a product or service is required to do.

*a. Functional Requirements
b. Solution Requirements
c. Non-Functional Requirements
d. Business Requirements
20. One of the final stages of a project is the handover after a commissioning exercise.
a. Designing
b. Briefing
*c. Contractor retention
d. Tendering
21. An organizational framework for how a business entity operates

*a.Legal Structure
b. C Corporation
c. S Corporation
d. Partnership Structure
22. A business entity that limits the liability of the owner(s) both financially and legally.
*a. Limited liability Company
b. Partnerships
c. S Corporation
d. C Corporation
23. Refers to a legal relationship between two or more people who are jointly identified in a
business contract as principals
a. Limited liability Company
*b. Partnerships
c. S Corporation
d. C Corporation
24. Are smaller entities with under 100 shareholders which don’t allow other corporations to
own stock in the entity
b. Partnerships
*c. S Corporation
d. C Corporation
25. Meaning that the business may issue stock publicly and company profit is taxed before it
is paid to shareholders
b. Partnerships
c. S Corporation
*d. C Corporation
26. Is the person for whose benefit the work is carried out.
*a. Employer
b. Contractor
c. Professional Consultant
d. Sub-contractors
27. Employed by the contractor, usually carry out the majority of the physical site works.
a. Employer
b. Contractor
*d. Sub-contractors
28. Also known as a constructor, builder or supplier
a. Employer
*b. Contractor
d. Sub-contractors
29. Builds the project but may also carry out design.
a. Employer
*b. Contractor
d. Sub-contractors
30. Also known as the client, the developer or the purchaser
*a. Employer
b. Contractor
d. Sub-contractors
Topic 3 - Construction Project Organization, Legal Structure, Construction Project
Requirements
1. _______ determines possible critical areas and forms a solution or prevention.

a. Planning Engineer
*b. Senior Project Engineer
c. Foreman
d. Quality Control Engineer
2. It is liable for the actions and finances of the business.

*a. Corporation
b. Sole Proprietorship
c. Partnership
d. Stocks
3. _______ is an aspect of construction-related activities concerned with

protecting construction site workers and others from death, injury, disease or
other health-related risks.
a. Workplace Safety
b. Construction Occupational Safety and Health
c. Protection At Work
*d. Construction Site Safety
4. A project manager conducts regular meetings with _______.

*a. Staff
b. Engineers
c. Architects
d. Foremen
5. It is the structure of the project.

a. Organizational Structure
b. Project Structure
c. Construction Project Organization
*d. Project Organization
6. Coordinates with different subcontractors and draftsmen.

a. Land Surveyor
b. Safety Officer
*c. Structural Engineer
d. Architectural Coordination Engineer
7. A technical drawing, also known as ________, is an approved detailed, precise

diagram or plan that conveys information about how object functions or is
constructed.
a. Mechanical Drawing
*b. Engineering Drawing
c. Blueprint
d. Technical Drafting
8. ________ are conditions or tasks that must be completed to ensure the success
or completion of the project.
*a. Project Requirements
b. Project Organizations
c. Legal Documents
d. Technical Documents and Plans
9. The reason for forming a partnership is based on the principle of division of risk
and _______ of management and financial resources.
*a. Pooling
b. Selecting
c. Sharing
d. Planning
10. What are the three types of legal structure?

*a. Sole Proprietorship, Partnership, and Corporation
b. Sole Partnership, Proprietorship, and Corporation
c. Sole Proprietorship, Partnership, and Company
d. Sole Proprietorship, Partnership, and Incorporation
11. Coordination between subcontractors for the preparation of shop drawings.

a. Planning Engineer
b. Quality Control
*c. Architectural Coordination Engineer
d. Electrical and Mechanical Engineer
12. Deals with the preparation and approval of the project schedule, updates, and
revisions.
a. Project Manager
b. Senior Project Engineer
c. Architectural Coordination Engineer
*d. Planning Engineer
13. Prepares cost load values for all activities.

a. Quality Control Engineer
b. Structural Engineer
c. Land Surveyor
*d. Quantity Surveyor
14. Coordinates with the senior project engineer to ensure safety control at site.
*a. Safety Officer
b. Quality Control Engineer
c. Architectural Coordination Engineer
d. Planning Engineer
15. In charge with the financial follow up, controls the cost of project, and the
duration execution.
a. Safety Officer
*b. Quality Control Engineer
c. Project Manager
d. Senior Project Engineer
16. Measures the depth and distance of points, and prepares the boundary lines
and mapping.
a. Structural Engineer
*b. Land Surveyor
c. Foreman
d. Planning Engineer
17. Manages labors at site and reports to the civil engineer.

a. Project Manager
b. Senior Project Engineer
*c. Foreman
d. Safety Officer
18. Project organization is a _______.

a. Cycle
*b. Process
c. Concept
d. Practice
19. In situations in which a single person owns and operates a construction firm
and makes all of the major decisions regarding the company’s activity, the
company is referred to as a ____________.
*a. Sole Proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Corporation
d. Stocks
20. In this legal structure, there are two or more partners, and the liability is spread
among several principals.
a. Corporation
b. Stocks
c. Sole Proprietorship
*d. Partnership
21. It is significant if you're planning to have a construction. Ensure that the

contractor abides by the law, standards, and code in construction.
*a. Legal Documents
b. Building Permit
c. Contract
d. Project Requirements
22. Which of the following is not a legal document?

a. Building Permit
b. Barangay Clearance for Construction
c. Contract
*d. Agreement
23. What does PPE stand for?

*a. Personal Protective Equipment
b. Personal Protective Essential
c. Personal Productive Equipment
d. Physical Protective Equipment
24. Engineers, electricians, and contractors all use drawings as guides when
constructing or repairing objects and buildings.
*a. True
b. False
25. Any stockholder who wishes to sell a block of stock must first offer the stock
for sale to the other stockholders.
*a. True
b. False
26. A corporation is a business entity that is owned by its shareholders, who elect
a board of directors to oversee the organization's activities.
*a. True
b. False
27. What does BOQ stand for?

*a. Bill of Quantities
b. Bill of Qualities
c. Body of Quantities
d. Bank of Quantities
28. Which of the following is not a PPE?

a. Gloves
b. Helmet
c. Safety shoes
*d. None of the above
29. Structural plan, architectural plan, electrical plan, and mechanical plan are all
considered technical documents and plans.
*a. True
b. False
30. One of the first problems confronting an entrepreneur who has decided to
become a construction contractor is that of deciding how best to organize the
firm to achieve the goals of profitability and control of business as well as
technical functions.
*a. True
b. False
1. Generally, the Critical Path Method is utilized for research‐oriented project. Program Evaluation
Review Technique is generally utilized for repetitive research‐oriented project types.
A. First statement is true, the second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
*D. Both statements are false
E. None of the above.

2. PERT is more appropriate than CPM for managing projects that are unfamiliar and for which we can
only estimate activity durations.
*A. True
B. False

3. In PERT, we assume that activity times are deterministic, while in CPM we assume that activity times
are probabilistic.
A. True
*B. False

4. Ensures the optimal use of resources and helps to control idle resources so that projects can be
effectively executed within the budgeted costs and scheduled time.
A. S‐curve
B. Schedule Deviation
*C. Network Analysis
D. Cost Loadings

5. In the S‐Curve, the Rate of work at that point in time is represented by the slope of the resulting
curve.
*A. True
B. False

6. Which of the following are benefits of the network analysis approach?
*A. Allows progress to be monitored against plan.
B. Derive error free forecasts.
C. Avoid need to use structured approach.
D. Eliminate need for management judgement.

7. In this method of network analysis, it is assumed that activity durations are deterministic, i.e.known
with certainty. Such projects are of repetitive and non‐ complex in nature.
A. Critical Chain Method
B. Program Evolution and Review Technique
*C. Critical Path Method
D. Metra Potential Method
8. In PERT, the path with the fewest activities is referred to as the critical path.
A. True
*B. False

9. The S‐Curve shows when to expect the greatest and smallest billings throughout the project.
*A. True
B. False

10. Program Evaluation and Review Technique is utilized when activity durations are already estimated.
The critical Path Method is used to estimate the time required to complete activities.
A. First statement is true, the second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
*D. Both statements are false
E. None of the above.

11. It is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the start of its successor activity.
A. Total Float
*B. Free Float
C. Early start
D. Early finish

12. It is the amount of time a scheduled activity can be delayed without delaying the overall project
completion date.
*A. Total Float
B. Free Float
C. Early start
D. Early finish

13.To calculate this float is subtracting the Late Finish to the Early Finish
*A. Total Float
B. Free Float
C. Early start
D. Early finish

14. A network diagram that uses various boxes or "nodes" is connected from beginning to end with
arrows. depict a logical progression of the dependencies between the scheduled activities.
*A. Activity on Node
B. Activity on arrow
C. Critical path diagram
D. Project management diagram
15. It is a project management tool for mapping and scheduling activities, such as tasks or events where
each node has sections that denote the earliest and latest start of the project.
A. Activity on Node
*B. Activity on Arrow
C. Critical path diagram
D. Project management diagram

16. A physically identifiable part of a project which consumes both time and resources.
*A. Activity
B. Event
C. Dummy Activity
D. Duration

17. Beginning or ending points of one or more activities, instantaneous point in time
A. Activity
*B. Event
C. Dummy Activity
D. Duration

18. Combination of all project activities and the events
A. Activity
B. Event
*C. Network
D. Connection

19. Used to identify precedence relationships correctly and to eliminate possible confusion about two or
more activities having the same starting and ending nodes.
A. Activity
B. Event
C. Network
*D. Dummy Activities

20. This is the estimated time it takes an activity to be finished
*A. Duration
B. Time
C. Estimation
D. Activity

21. It is the earliest starting time plus the duration of an activity
A. ES
*B. EF
C. LS
D. LF
22. Time that an activity may be started without delaying the completion of a project.
A. ES
B. EF
*C. LS
D. LF

23. This is the earliest time that an activity can be started
*A. ES
B. EF
C. LS
D. LF

24. Activities along the critical path, any delay in their completion would result in a delay of a project
completion.
A. Critical Formulas
B. Critical Events
C. Critical Damage
*D. Critical Activity

25. These are the two types of scheduling computation used in Network Analysis
*A. Activity‐on‐Node
*B. Activity‐on‐Arrow
C. Activity‐on‐Line
D. Activity‐on‐Comma

26. A management tool that is suited for research and development projects which are generally non‐
repetitious in nature and are therefore sometimes called "once‐through" projects.
A. Professional Evaluation Review Technique
B. Program Evaluating Review Technique
C. Program Evaluation Ready Technique
*D. Program Evaluation Review Technique

27. CPM stands for
*A. Critical Path Method
B. Critical Plain Method
C. Critical Path Memo
D. Critical Poll Method

28. Widely used because it can display real‐time cumulative data from various project elements and
compare it with the projected data.
*A. S‐Curve
B. C‐Curve
C. Z‐Curve
D. None of the Above

29. The following shows the importance of the S‐Curve except for
A. Track project progress
B. Enable to predict when resources will be heavily utilized.
C. Helps to manage stakeholder expectations.
*D. Disable the plan for the same schedule scenarios

30. Critical Path is the longest path in the network of activities representing a project.
*A. True
B. False
QUIZ FOR MODULE 4 : Question and Answer
1. What is the meaning of network analysis AOA?
A. Activity on Node
*B. Activity on Activity
C. Activity on Arrow
D. Activity on Analysis
2. Project planning is a part of construction project management ?
*TRUE
FALSE
3. What is the meaning of network analysis AON?
*A. Activity on Node

B. Activity on Network
C. Activity on Arrow
D. Activity on Construction
4. A part of construction project management which is a procedural steps that defines project
goal, objectives and specify project tasks / work within a certain time frame.
A. Project Construction
B. Project Scheduling
C. Project Management
*D. Project Planning
5. What does PERT stand for?
A. Project Engineer and Review Technique

B. Program Equivalent and Review Technique
C. Project Evaluation and Review Technique
*D. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
6. A process that includes managing a schedule to have an organize tasks, deliverables, and
milestones on a project timeline.
A. Project Construction
*B. Project Scheduling
C. Project Management
D. Project Planning
7. In network analysis AOA, what does the arrow represent ?
A. Activity
B. Project
*C. Duration
D. Planning
8. This technique is used to analyze how long it will take to complete the project
A. Gantt Chart
B. Critical Path Method
*C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
D. None of the Above
9. This assumes that all resources are available and all predecessor activities are to be
completed on time which results in the fastest time an activity can be completed.
*A. Optimistic Time Estimation

B. Pessimistic Time Estimation
C. Most Likely Time Estimation
D. All of the Above
10. A PERT time estimate technique that assumes all resources are unavailable and there will
be an error on the progress of the project.
A. Optimistic Time Estimation

*B. Pessimistic Time Estimation
C. Most Likely Time Estimation
D. All of the Above
11. This project management method also refers to a precedence diagramming method
in which it uses boxes/ nodes to denote scheduled tasks.
A. Activity On Notepad
*B. Activity On Node
C. Activity On Arrow
D. Assistance On Activity
12. This technique is used as a tool for mapping a specific activity and used for scheduling
events and tasks in project management.
A. Activity On Node
B. Activity On Acme
*C. Activity On Arrow
D. Assistance On Activity
13. In AOA what are the nodes represented for?
*A. Milestones
B. Duration
C. Time Frame
D. Tasks
14. In AON what are the arrows represented for?

A. Activity Name
B. Activity Duration
C. Time Frame
*D. To know the logical progression of the activities
15. Is it possible to use circles/ boxes in AON?
*A. True
B. False
16. What is the correct formula for Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)?
A. PERT= (4*M + OP + D)/6

B.PERT= (O + 4*M + OP)/6
C.PERT= (O+ 4 + P)/6
*D.PERT= (O + 4*M + P)/6
17. __________ is a form of bar chart that depicts a project schedule and demonstrates the
dependencies between activities and current schedule status.
A. Critical Path Method

*B. Gantt Chart
C. Flow Chart
D.Organizational Chart
18. It refers to tasks that must be finished or begun before another job may begin.
*A. Predecessors
B. Successors
C. PERT
D. Critical Path Method
19. It refers to tasks that come after the predecessor.
A. Predecessors
*B. Successors
C. PERT
D. Critical Path Method
20. Is it okay to refine the tasks that undergo slack/ float in a construction project?
*A. True
B. False
21. What is the meaning of ES ?
*A. Earliest Start Time

B. Earliest Finish Time
C. Latest Start Time
D. Latest Finish Time
22. What is the meaning of LS ?
A. Earliest Start Time

*C. Latest Start Time
23. What is the meaning of LF ?

*D. Latest Finish Time
24. What is the meaning of EF ?

*B. Earliest Finish Time
25. An activity that start at the earliest time possible ?
*A. ES
B. EF
C. LS
D. LF
26. If an activity has one or more immediate predecessor what is the value of ES?
*A. Max
B. Min
C. Both
D. None of the above
27. If an activity has one or more immediate predecessor what is the value of LF?
*A. Max
B. Min
C. Both
D. None of the above
28. It is the length of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project ?
A. Chill Time
B. Recess Time
*C. Float/Slack Time
D. Sleep Time
29. What is latest time by which an activity has to be finished (completed) so as to not delay the
completion time of the entire project ?

*D. Latest Finish Time
30. It is the earliest time at which an activity can be completed

*B. Earliest Finish Time
1. Direct Cost are those directly associated with project activities, such as salaries, travel, and direct
project materials and equipment
a. True
b. False
2. Cost required to procure all the needed products, services and resources to deliver the project
successfully.
a. Project Cost
b. Time‐Related Cost
c. Fixed Cost
d. Variable Cost
3. Indirect Cost are those overhead cost that are not directly associated with specific project activities
such as office space, administrative staffs, and taxes.
a. True
b. False
3. It is the sum of direct and indirect cost.
a. Project Cost
b. Time‐Related Cost
c. Fixed Cost
d. Variable Cost
4. It is the lowest cost of completing an activity in the minimum time employing the normal resources
available.
a. Fixed Cost
b. Variable Cost
c. Normal Cost
d. Crash Cost
5. It is the cost of completing an activity by employing all possible means (overtime, extra resources,
special materials).
a. Fixed Cost
b. Variable Cost
c. Normal Cost
d. Crash Cost
6. Crash Time is the minimum time required to complete an activity at the normal cost.
a. True
b. False

7. Normal Time is the absolute minimum possible time associated with the crash cost. It cannot be
further reduced even after expending the extra resources to any extent.
a. True
b. False
8. It is a method of shortening project duration by reducing one or more critical activities to a time less
than the normal activity time.
a. Project Crashing
b. Cost Slope
c. PERT/CPM
d. Work Breakdown Structure
9. Cost slope is the _____ cost for expediting an activity per unit time.
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Fixed
d. Variable
10. Cost slope is the sum of the crash cost and normal cost divided by the sum of the normal and crash
duration.
a. True
b. False
11. The objective of Time‐cost trade off analysis is to compress the project to an acceptable duration
with the maximum total project cost.
a. True
b. False
12. Time‐cost trade off analysis is the _______ of the project schedule to achieve a more favorable
outcome in terms of project duration, cost, and projected revenues.
a. Compression
b. Extension
c. Depression
d. Optimum
13. Which of the following is not an objective of project crashing?
a. To finish the project in a predefined deadline date.
b. To recover early delays.
c. To obtain liquidated damages.
d. To avoid adverse weather conditions that might affect productivity.

14. Which of the following is not a method in reducing project duration?
a. Applying multiple‐shifts work.
b. Working extended hours.
c. Offering incentive payments to increase the productivity.
d. Laying off workers.
15. Activities that are relatively low cost to crash are best suited for crashing.
a. True
b. False
16. It is a particular value of project duration at which the total project cost is minimum.
a. Normal Time
b. Optimum Duration
c. Crash Time
d. Project Duration
17. The cost slope formula:
a. (crash cost + normal cost) / (normal duration + crash duration)
b. (normal cost – crash cost) / (crash duration – normal duration)
c. (crash cost – normal cost) / (normal duration – crash duration)
d. (normal cost + crash cost) / (crash duration + normal duration)
18. Which of the following is not a potential problem with crashing?
a. Increased risk of failure to complete project on time
b. Creates realistic expectations for future projects
c. Raises activity‐based costs
d. Raises potential for poor quality
19. One of the activities that are best for crashing is any activities that are on the critical path.
a. True
b. False
20. Which of the following is not a method in reducing project duration?
a. Activities with relatively short durations
b. Bottleneck activities (that appear on the critical paths)
c. Activities that relatively low cost to crash
d. Activities that are not likely to cost quality problems if crashed
21. The step 8 in project crashing is to continue until no further shortening is possible, and then the
crash point is reached.
a. True
b. False
22. In project crashing, the results may be represented graphically by plotting project completion time
against cumulative cost increase.
a. True
b. False
23. Based on the project time‐cost relationship, longer project duration results to a higher indirect cost.
a. True
b. False
24. Based on the project time‐cost relationship, longer project duration results to a lower direct cost.
a. True
b. False
25. Example/s of direct cost
a. Salaries
b. Direct project materials and equipment
c. Only B
d. Both A & B
26. Example/s of indirect cost
a. Rental of office space
b. Taxes
c. Administrative staffs
d. All of the above
27. One of the reasons to apply project crashing to receive an early completion‐bonus.
a. True
b. False
28. The first step on project crashing is to perform CPM calculations and identify the critical path, use
normal durations and costs for all activities.
a. True
b. False
29. The slope of the line connecting the normal point (lower point) and the crash point (upper point) is
called the cost slope of the activity.
a. True
b. False
30. During project crashing, direct cost _______.
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Constant
d. None of the above.

QUIZ FOR MODULE 5: Question and Answer
1.) Choose one example of direct cost.
*A. Manufacturing supplies
B. Rent
C. Security expenses
D. Utilities
2.) Choose one example for indirect cost.
A. Fuel
B. Power Consumption
*C. Rent
D. Wages
3.) Choose one example for options for crashing activities.
*A. Brainstorming
B. Overtime
C. Hiring
D. Subcontracting
4.) Choose one example for methods to reduce durations.
A. Adding resources
B. Temporary Fixes
C. Late Penalties
*D. Use of Advance Technology
5.) Choose one reason to reduce project duration.
A. To add Resources
B. To have advance technology

C. To understand the process of crashing
*D. To realize incentive pay
6.) What is the shortest possible time to complete an activity?
A. Normal Cost
*B. Crash Time
C. Crash Cost
D. Normal Time
7.) It is the cost of activity associated with Crash time.
*A. Normal Cost
B. Crash Time
C. Crash Cost
D. Normal Time
8.) It is the cost of activity associated with Normal Time
A. Normal Cost
B. Crash Time
*C. Crash Cost
D. Normal Time
9.) It is the necessary time to complete an activity under normal conditions.
A. Normal Cost
B. Crash Time
C. Crash Cost
*D. Normal Time
10.) It is the expenses that has direct impact on the project or activity.
*A. Direct Cost

B. Indirect Cost
C. Time Cost
D. Trade off
11.) From the following data, develop an optimum time cost plan assuming that the indirect cost is Php
40,000 per week. Activity A has a Normal Time of 7, Crash time 0f 4 and Cost per day to crash of 25,000.
Activity B has a Normal Time of 13, Crash time 0f 10 and Cost per day to crash of 18,500. Activity C has a
Normal Time of 5, Crash time 0f 3 and Cost per day to crash of 21,000. Activity D has a Normal Time of
10, Crash time 0f 7 and Cost per day to crash of 19,000. Activity E has a Normal Time of 4, Crash time 0f
2 and Cost per day to crash of 20,000. Lastly Activity F has a Normal Time of 8, Crash time 0f 8 and Cost
per day to crash is blank. What is the first critical path?
*A. C-D-E-F
B. A-B-C-D
C. B-C-D-E
D. D-E-B-F
per day to crash is blank. What is the second critical path?
A. A-B-C-D
B. B-C-D-E
C. D-E-B-F
*D. A-B-F
per day to crash is blank. What is the longest project length for the crashing plan?
A. 25 weeks
*B. 28 weeks
C. 30 weeks
D. 38 weeks
per day to crash is blank. Determine the optimum crashing duration of the project.
A. 22 weeks
B. 15 weeks
*C. 25 weeks
D. 28 weeks
per day to crash is blank. For the project length of 26 weeks, what would be the cumulative crashing
cost?
A. 18,500
*B. 56,000
C. 93,500
D. 182,500
per day to crash is blank. Determine the indirect cost from the project length of 28 weeks.
A. 1,080
B. 1,040
*C. 1,120
D. 1,000
per day to crash is blank. What is the lowest project total cost?
*A. 1,093.5
B. 920.3
C. 770.2
D. 1,050
per day to crash is blank. What is the total project cost from the project length of 28 weeks?
A. 1,121
B. 1,122
*C. 1,120
D. 1,123
per day to crash is blank. From the project length of 22 weeks, what is the project total cost?
A. 1,098.5
B. 1,102.5
*C. 1,107.5
D. 1,093.5
per day to crash is blank. Which among the choices does not belong to crashed activities.
*A. A&B
B. B
C. A&D
D. A&E
per day to crash is blank. Determine the project total cost from the project length of 27 weeks.
*A. 1,098.5
B. 1,102.5
C. 1,107.5
D. 1,093.5
per day to crash is blank. What is the duration of the first critical path?
*A. 27
B. 28
C. 29
D. 26
per day to crash is blank. What is the duration of the second critical path?
A. 27
*B. 28
C. 29
D. 26
per day to crash is blank. Which activity has the highest cost per day to crash?
*A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
per day to crash is blank. What is the lowest indirect cost?
*A. 880
B. 870
C. 860
D. 850
per day to crash is blank. What will be the indirect cost for the project length of 25 weeks?
A. 1010
*B. 1000
C. 1040
D. 1080
per day to crash is blank. What is the highest cumulative crashing cost?
A. 182,500
*B. 227,500
C. 137,500
D. 325,500
E. 326,500
per day to crash is blank. For the project length of 23 weeks, what would be the cumulative crashing
cost?
A. 18,500
B. 56,000
C. 93,500
*D. 182,500
per day to crash is blank. The highest project total cost that was determined was 1120.
*A. TRUE
B. FALSE
per day to crash is blank. The lowest cumulative crashing cost is 820.
A. TRUE
*B. FALSE
1. The actual and the best time required to complete the task assuming everything goes in
a usual way.
a. Optimistic Time
b. Pessimistic Time
*c. Most Likely TIme
d. Expected Time
2. A graphical representation of the activities of a project, showing the sequence that has to
be performed continuously.
a. S Curve
*b. PERT Chart
c. Goal Setting
d. Gantt Chart
3. ___________ the specific activities and milestones of a project is the first step in the
PERT Planning Process.
*a. Identifying
b. Overlooking
c. Guessing
d. Suppressing
4. The minimum possible time required to complete the task anticipating that every event
has occurred better than usually expected.
*a. Optimistic Time
b. Pessimistic Time
c. Most Likely Time
d. Expected Time
5. __________ are a commonly used unit of time for activity completion.

a. Seconds
b. Hours
c. Days
*d. Weeks
6. An event that precedes some other event, it can be single or multiple.

a. Controlled event
*b. Predecessor event
c. Successor event
d. Completed event
7. The accurate or the actual time required to complete the task, it is the most reliable and
valid time estimated to complete a task.
a. Optimistic Time
b. Pessimistic Time
c. Most Likely Time
*d. Expected Time
8. It is the amount of time that can be floated without causing delay in the total completion
of the work.
a. Lead Time
b. Lag Time
*c. Slack Time
d. Very Best Time
9. Critical total float activity is an activity that has a total float equal to __________.
*a. Zero
b. One
c. Five
d. Ten
10. An event that immediately follows some other events, it can have single multiple
successor events.
a. Controlled event
b. Predecessor event
*c. Successor event
d. Completed event
11. Project management planning tool used to calculate the amount of time it will take to
realistically finish a project.
a. Progress Evaluation Renew Technique
b. Program Evaluation Renew Time
c. Progress Evaluation Review Time
*d. Program Evaluation Review Technique
12. The PERT is a ___________ estimation technique.

a. two-point
*b. three-point
c. five-point
d. ten-point
13. PERT charts were created to manage the creation of weapons and defense projects for
the __________.
a. Government
b. Citizens
*c. US Navy
d. Businessman
14. PERT was developed in ________ to plan and control a missile program.
*a. 1957
b. 1955
c. 1952
d. 1947
15. PERT is developed to successfully plan the schedule for the _________ Project.
a. Justice
b. Hope
c. Fund
*d. Polaris
16. PERT helps you find a duration estimate of activities when there are uncertainties, which
is why it is called a ____________ technique.
a. deterministic
*b. probabilistic
c. statistical
d. possibilistic
17. Below are other project estimation techniques except:

a. analogous
b. parametric
*c. projector
d. bottom-up
18. PERT is similar to critical path in that they are both used to visualize the timeline and the
work that must be done for a project.
*a. True
b. False
19. This refers to the time taken by the predecessor to complete the task.
*a. Lead Time
b. Lag Time
c. Slack Time
d. Very Best Time
20. The earliest time taken by the successor event to take place, which follows the specific
PERT activity.
a. Lead Time
*b. Lag Time
c. Slack Time
d. Very Best Time
21. One of the advantages of PERT chart is that it allows a manager to evaluate the time
and resources necessary to complete a project
*a. True
b. False
22. The information that goes into a PERT chart can be highly objective.
a. True
*b. False
23. There can be potentially hundreds or thousands of activities and individual dependency
relationships.
*a. True
b. False
24. It illustrates the effects of technical procedural changes on overall schedules.

a. S-curve graph
*b. PERT chart
c. S-Curve graph
d. Bar chart
25. This combining of information encourages department responsibility and identifies all
responsible parties across the organization.
*a. PERT analysis
b. PERM analysis
c. S-Curve analysis
d. Bar chart analysis
26. To determine the allowable delay to without increasing the project completion time
(Slack time)
*a. LS - ES
b. LS + ES
c. LF - ES
d. LS - EF
27. It is the the longest task sequence of a project

a. Earliest start path
b. Latest start path
*c. Critical path
d. Slack path
28. PERT charts are used to determine the critical path of a project to estimate its duration.
*a. True
b. False
29. PERT is determined using three points: Optimistic (O), Most Likely (M), and Pessimistic
(P).
*a. True
b. False
30. The critical path is the shortest path from Start to Finish.
a. True
*b. False
Module 6: Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
1. In what year did the U.S Navy introduce the network scheduling techniques?
a. 1985
b. 1955
*c. 1958
d. 1965
2. This is the best estimated of the time to complete a task and to assume everything goes as
planned
a. Optimistic Time
*b. Most likely Time
c. Pessimistic Time
d. Dummy Activity
3. This is represented in a graphic form known as a network diagram.

*a. Project Evaluation Review Technique
b. Critical Path Method
c. Time Estimates
d. Free time
4. PERT is important in project planning because it allows project managers to

anticipate project completion time, costs, and resource usage with accuracy.
a. True
*b. False
5. It is the maximum amount of time that can be required to complete a task if

everything goes wrong.
a. Optimistic Time
b. Most likely Time
*c. Pessimistic Time
d. Dummy Activity
6. Assuming that everything goes as planned, it is the shortest amount of the time
required to complete a task.
*a. Optimistic Time
b. Most likely Time
c. Pessimistic Time
d. Dummy Activity
7. Dummy Activity is to prevent any possibility of misinterpretation between two or more

activities with the identical beginning and finishing nodes.
*a. True
b. False
8. Earliest time can be start at time “1”.

a. True
*b. False
9. Is to determine by tracing back from the end of the network and compute the latest
start time for each activity
*a. Latest finish
b. Latest start
c. Earliest start time
d. Earliest finish time
10. Float is the amount of time an activity may be prolonged without compromising the
overall project completion deadline.
a. True
*b. False
11. To determine slack time it can be expressed as LF - ES - t

*a. True
b. False
12. LS = LF – t can be used to calculate the latest start time for each activity.
*a. True
b. False
13. All of these are the Advantages of Program Evaluation and Review Technique
except one:
a. Show potential risk with activities
b. Help to set priorities among activities & resource allocation as per priority.
*c. The cost of setting up such system are extensive
d. Provide good documentation of the project activities
14. All of these are the Disadvantages of Program Evaluation and Review Technique
except one:
a. The system will not help managers to solve all their problems.
b. It is difficult to estimate accurate time and cost of various activities involved in a
project errors in estimation makes the PERT charts unreliable as a control aid.
c. PERT has been its emphasis only on time, not on costs.
*d. Show potential risk with activities
15.The latest finish time for an activity entering a certain node is not equal to the earliest
start time for all activities leaving the node.
a.True
*b.False
Activity Immediate Predecessor Completion Time
A - 7
B - 5
C - 7
D A 3
E B 5
F C 8
G C 4
H E,F 7
I D 8
J H,G 4
16. Compute the Earliest Start Time (ES) for Activity C

*a. 0
b. 7
c. 5
d. 10
17.Compute the Earliest Start Time (ES) for Activity G

a. 0
*b. 7
c. 5
d. 10
18.Compute the Earliest Start Time (ES) for Activity E

a. 0
b. 7
*c. 5
d. 10
19. Compute the Earliest Start Time (ES) for Activity I
a. 0
b. 7
c. 5
*d. 10
20.Compute the Earliest Finish Time (EF) for Activity J

a. 15
b. 18
*c. 26
d. 10
21. Compute the Latest Finish Time (LF) for Activity J

*a. 26
b. 18
c. 10
d. 15
22. Compute the Latest Start Time (LS) for Activity I

a. 26
*b. 18
c. 10
d. 15
23. Compute the Latest Start Time (LS) for Activity D

a. 26
b. 18
c. 10
*d. 15
24. Compute the Latest Start Time (LS) for Activity B

a. 26
b. 18
*c. 10
d. 15
25. Compute the Latest Start Time (LS) for Activity C

a. 5
*b. 7
c. 10
d. 0
26. Compute for the Free Float of Activity I
a. 5
b. 0
*c. 8
d. 10
27. Compute for the Free Float of Activity C

a. 5
*b. 0
c. 8
d. 10
28. Compute for the Free Float of Activity E

*a. 5
b. 0
c. 8
d. 10
29. What is the critical path

*a. C - F - H - J
b. B - E - H - J
c. A - D - I
d. C - G - J
30. What is the estimated time of completion

a. 22
b. 18
c. 22
*d. 26
MODULE 7 (QUIZ)
1. The Surveyor’s Club was established in ________ with 16 members.

a. 1922
b. 1868
*c. 1794
d. 1785
2. Type of estimation which depends on finished design papers and how much work the contractor will have to
pay for.
*a. Detailed estimate
b. Preliminary estimate
c. Bid cost estimate
d. Quantity estimate
3. This estimating method utilized when a comparable project has already been completed and it is simple to
link it to other projects.
a. Parametric estimate
*b. Analogous estimating
c. Top-down estimate
d. Bottom-up estimate
4. Which of the following characteristics must a good quantity surveyor possess?

a. They need to have expertise in building materials and construction, as well as trade
customs
b. Their skills and calculations must be precise
c. They must be able to properly describe the Architect's requirements in suitable simple
language and arrange his bill of quantities (BoQ)
5. It is a cost estimation based on specific material and labor prices.

*a. Quantity surveying
b. Quantity Takeoff
c. Estimation
6. When was The Standard Method of Measuring (SMM) for construction projects developed?
*a. 1922
b. 1867
c. 1794
d. 1921
7. Control cost estimate consists of three independent estimates that are used for project monitoring during
construction, EXCEPT:
a. Budget estimate
b. Budgeted cost
*c. Bid cost
d. Expected cost
8. This method makes use of separate, measurably different project-related factors. This technique increases
project estimating accuracy.
*a. Parametric estimate
b. Analogous estimating
c. What-if analysis
d. Three-point estimating
9. Establishes how much money, time, effort, and other resources will be required to create a certain system or
product.
a. Quantity Takeoff
b. Quantity Surveying
*c. Estimation
d. PERT
10. They are the ones who are active in the construction process at several phases, often prior to construction,
during construction, and after the project is completed.
a. Estimators
*b. Quantity Surveyors
c. Contractor
d. Project Engineer
11. The following are the common clients of Quantity Surveyors except
a. Architects
b. Building owners
c. Contractors
*d. Investors
12. _______ depends on the actual quantity of units or labor required to be completed.
a. Parametric estimate
b. Preliminary estimate
c. Control cost estimate
*d. Quantity estimate
13. Some of the services provided by quantity surveyors are _____

a. Cost management
b. Project procurement
c. Contract administration
14. Construction software which is solutions for residential, specialized, commercial, and industrial building
make it an obvious choice for builders with a wide range of clientele.
a. Contractor Foreman
b. Planswift
*c. UDA Construction Online
d. Redteam
15. In 1785 Henry Cooper & Sons of Reading, the first QS company, was founded in _______
*a. England
b. France
c. USA
d. Germany
16. A construction estimating software which enables for cooperation on the job site without requiring
participants to check in, which goes beyond simply estimating from takeoffs.
*a. Redteam
b. Planswift
c. Contractor Foreman
d. Buildxact
17. An accurate estimation saves money and ensures that supplies are used efficiently. It requires
understanding of _______
a. Structural design
b. Practical experience
c. technical materials
18. Preliminary estimate is also known as, EXCEPT:
a. Abstract cost estimates
*b. Rough cost estimate
c. Approximate cost estimates
d. Budget estimates
19. This method of project estimate makes assumptions about a range of variables
a. Three-point estimating
*b. What-if analysis
c. Top-down estimate
d. Bottom-up estimate
20. Quantity surveyors known as _______

a. cost engineers
b. cost planners
c. cost controllers
*d. all of the above
21. Quantity takeoff consider labor costs, permits, and equipment.

a. True
*b. False
22. Takeoff refers to taking information off ___.

a. Drawing
b. Blueprint
c. Model
23. Quantity takeoff should be done ___.

a. During
*b. Early
c. After
d. All of the above
24. The accuracy of quantity takeoff is reflected in the overall construction costs.
*a. True
b. False
25. Clients always want ways whereby they can optimize their ___.
a. Idea
b. Time
*c. Money
26. Quantity takeoff helps in decision-making and avoiding budget overruns.

*a. True
b. False
27. A type of quantity takeoff measurement that is a two-dimensional task.

a. Unit Count
b. Linear Length
*c. Surface Area
d. Cubic Volume
28. A type of quantity takeoff measurement that is a three-dimensional task.
a. Unit Count
b. Linear Length
c. Physical Weight
*d. Cubic Volume
29. They are usually purchased in a standard amount and an overestimation is needed to ensure enough quantity
is ordered.
*a. Physical Weight
b. Linear Length
c. Unit Cost
d. Surface Area
30. This is the oldest and simplest material takeoff form.

a. Digital Quantity Takeoff
*b. Manual Quantity Takeoff
1. This refers to the process of calculating the quantities and costs of the various items
required in connection with the work
*a. Estimating
b. Quantity Surveying
c. Quantity Take-Off
d. Quantity Estimate
2. This is a type of estimating that includes the detailed particulars for the quantities, rates,
and costs of all the items involved for the satisfactory completion of a project.
a. Preliminary or Rough Estimate
*b. Detailed Estimate
c. Revised Estimate
3. A _________________ is a detailed estimate of the revised quantities and rates of items

of works originally provided in the estimate without material deviations of a structural
nature from the design originally approved for a project.
a. Preliminary or Rough Estimate
b. Supplementary Estimate
*c. Revised Estimate
4. A/an ________________________ has a detailed and comprehensive knowledge of

construction activities and methods, as well as the laws relating to construction projects
and accounting, in order to provide cost and financial advice.
*a. Professional Quantity Surveyor
b. Field Engineer
c. Architect
d. Scheduler
5. This is a type of estimating that is related to the work in addition to the main contract or
to the 'detailed estimate.’
a. Repair Estimate
b. Detailed Estimate
*c. Complete Estimate
6. The advantages of _____________ are it is most accurate and efficient therefore it has
largely decrease the risk of human error, and simply scan the blueprint into the software.
a. Quantity Surveying
b. Manual Quantity Take-off
*c. Digital Quantity Take-off
d. BOM
7. A waste factor is often added to the quantities to account for avoidable waste, not for
unavoidable waste.
a. True
*b. False
8. It is one of the most straightforward takeoff tasks.

a. Linear Length
b. Weight
*c. Unit Count
d. Surface Area
9. The following are included in Quantity Takeoff except

a. Volume
b. Surface Area
*c. Transportation Cost
d. Linear Length
10. This is one of the areas in quantity surveying that can be covered by a carpet or the net
usable area is known as the carpet area.
*a. Carpet Area
b. Built-Up Area
c. Super Built-Up Area
d. Quantity Takeoff
11. What is Quantity Takeoff?

a. Necessary to complete a project
b. Easy to estimate and measure
c. Dividing project components into small units
*d. A detailed measurement of the materials, equipment, and labor necessary to
complete a project.
12. One disadvantage of this is that if any errors here can therefore result in either an
overestimation or an underestimation.
*a. Manual Quantity Take-Off
b. Digital Quantity Take-Off
c. Quantity Surveying
d. Quantity Takeoff
13. This is a general form of listing and taking off types, sizes and quantities of material
required in a bidding process of any construction work.It includes ductwork, piping, labor,
risk cost and summation of all the estimated expenditure.
a. Manual Quantity Take-Off
b. Digital Quantity Take-Off
c. Drawings
*d. Quantity Takeoff Sheets
14. This is one of the types of areas in quantity surveying that is the saleable area, which
includes the carpet area, along with the terrace, balconies, areas occupied by walls, and
area occupied by common/shared construction.
a. Carpet Area
b. Built-Up Area
*c. Super Built-Up Area
d. Quantity Takeoff
15. This is one of the types of areas in quantity surveying that has the presence of buildings
(roofed structures).
a. Carpet Area
*b. Built-Up Area
c. Super Built-Up Area
d. Quantity Takeoff
16. Manual quantity take off is a take off that does not rely on the assistance of digital
software. While digital quantity take off is it goes without saying that a digital take off is
more beneficial than the manual take off.
*a. True
b. False
17. BOMs help ensure third-party contract manufacturers are using efficient and accurate
when production methods.
*a. True
b. False
18. _________ is also useful for companies that run lean production and continuous
improvement-based processes. One goal of lean manufacturing is to minimize waste.
*a. BOM
b. BOQ
c. Quantity Surveying
d. Quantity Take-off
19. Quantity Take-off is broadly concerned with the estimation, planning and control oÿ the
cost on construction projects.
a. True
*b. False
20. This is a type of estimating that is accompanied by a comparative statement abstract

form showing the probable variations for quantity, rate, and amount for each item of work
of the project compared with the original estimate
*a. Revised Estimate
b. Supplementary Estimate
c. Complete Estimate
d. Rough Estimate
21. Quantity Take-off considers labor costs, permits, overheads, equipment, or other
incidentals.
a. True
*b. False
22. The difference between BOM and BOQ is that BOM is a detailed list of material required
in a project, while BOQ is brief abstract of a particular item.
*a. True
b. False
23. The detailed estimate is accompanied by:

a. Specifications
b. Report
c. Detailed drawings showing plans
*d. All of the choices
24. A detailed estimate is prepared for technical sanction, administrative approval, and also
for the execution of a contract with the contractor.
*a. True
b. False
25. The following are the purpose of estimation except:

a. To ascertain the necessary amount of money required by the owner to complete the
proposed project.
b. Ascertain quantities of materials required to program their timely procurement.
*c. Justify the investment from the cost-time ratio.
*d. Calculate the number of workers that are to be employed to complete the work within
the scheduled time of completion.
26. The following are the things to prepare for an estimate:

a. Drawings
b. Specifications
c. Rates
d. All of the choices
27. The purpose of the Bill of quantities is to provide a complete list of quantities necessary
for the completion of any engineering project, and when priced, it gives the estimated
cost of the project
*a. True
b. False
28. After completion of a work, it is necessary to keep the ______________ aspect in view
for its proper functioning.
*a. Maintenance
b. Monitoring
c. Site
d. Plan
29. Surveyors use their knowledge of construction methods and advise the owners on the
most economical way of achieving their requirements at low costs.
*a. True
b. False
30. When the project is in progress, quantity surveyors keep track of any variations to the
contract that may affect costs and create reports to show profitability.
*a. True
b. False
1.A trencher is under what classification of construction equipment
a.) Earth Moving *
b.) Pumping & Dewatering
c.) Pile-Driving
d.) Hoisting
2.A dump truck is under what classification of construction equipment

a.) Conveying
b.) Hoisting
c.) Hauling*
d.) Earth Moving
3. A Micro Tunner Boring Machine is under what classification of construction equipment

a.) Tunnel and Rock Drilling*
b.) Pumping and Dewatering
c.) Pile-Driving
d.) Aggregate & Concrete Production
4.What are the 2 types of Excavator Operation Patterns

a.) ISO & SAE Pattern*
b.) ABC & BAC Pattern
c.) MBC & TBM Pattern
d.) XYZ & LMN Pattern
5.) This turns the actual trenching mechanism on and off.

a.) Speed Control
b.) Safety
c.) Steering mechanism
d.) Chain or Wheel Control*
6.) Typically get around 3.2 gallons per hour for short hauls, and 6.2 mpg for highway hauling.
a.) Crane
b.) TBM
c.) Dump Trucks*
d.) Conveyor Belt
7.) Typically used for excavation of many vital utility facilities such as fresh water, wastewater,
oil, gas, communications and electricity.
a.) Concrete Mixer
b.) Road Header
c.) Micro Tunnel Boring Machine*
d.) Pile Driver
8.) It can move dirt, backfill, dig trenches and place smaller pipes into place.
a.) Backhoe*
b.) Compactors
c.) Asphalt Paver
d.) Motor Graders
9.) Which of the following is not a type of tower crane

a.) Structural Steel
b.) Concrete & Steel
c.) Glazing
d.) Structural Concrete*
10.) A lever to raise and lower your trencher boom as needed.

a.) Depth Control*
b.) Steering Mechanism
c.) Safety
d.) Chain Control
11.) Most electric hoists have a ___ duty cycle

a.) 10%
b.) 15%
c.) 20%
d.) 25% *
12.) It is a type of machine, generally equipped with a hoist rope, wire ropes or chains, &
sheaves. It is mainly used for lifting heavy things and transporting them to other places.
a.) Crane *
b.) Chain Hoist
c.) Tower Crane
d.) Conveyor Belt
13.) One of the preventative measure of Crane is major inspection. These major inspections
should occur every _______.
a.) Daily
b.) 1-12 months *
c.) Every Week
d.) Every after use
14.) It is a common piece of mechanical handling equipment that moves materials from one
location to another.
a.) Backhoe
b.) Crane
c.) Conveyor Belt*
d.) Chain Hoist
15.) It is a device that homogeneously combines cement, aggregate such as sand or gravel,
and water to form concrete.
a.) Excavator
b.) Dump Truck
c.) Asphalt Paver
d.) Concrete Mixer *
16.) Ready-mix trucks burn _____ gallons per hour.

a.) 4 to 4-½ *
b.) 56-to-75
c.) 100 to 120
d.) 200 to 250
17.) Which of these considered a benefits of maintaining a construction equipment.

a.) Proper maintenance of construction equipment can reduce your operating costs significantly,
both indirectly and directly.
b.) Equipment maintenance is an effective way of getting the most out of your investment.
c.) Maintenance adds resale value.
d.) All of the above *
18.) For an expense to be classified as an ____, it must be incurred through use of the
equipment.
a.) Book Value
b.) Operating Cost *
c.) Ownership Cost
d.) Depreciation
19.) Assessing risk and overseeing the overall lifting operation.

a.) Crane Coordinator
b.) Project Engineer
c.) Person in Charge *
d.) Safety Officer
20.) Operator’s eyes and ears, using crane hand signals to communicate.
a.) Project Engineer
b.) Crane Coordinator
c.) Person in Charge
d.) Signal Person *
21.) It is a mechanical device used to provide foundation support for buildings or other
structures.
a.) Roadheader
b.) Pile Driver *
c.) Boring Machine
d.) Excavator
22.) This equipment is mainly used to level the soil surface.

a.) Asphalt Paver
b.) Compactor
c.) Motor Graders *
d.) Pile Driver
23.) Which among the choices is not included in advantages of having an equipment.
a.) Increase the rate output through work progress
b.) Maintain the planned rate of production
c.) Eliminate the heavy manual work by human
d.) Increase the overall construction cost *
24.) This equipment is used to compact the material or earth surface.

a.) Roller *
b.) Paver
c.) Motor Graders
d.) Pile Driver
25.) An equipment that contains a feeding bucket in which asphalt is continuously loaded by the
dump truck and it distributes the asphalt evenly on the road surface with slight compaction.
a.) Roller
b.) Paver *
c.) Motor Graders
d.) Pile Driver
26.) Time period that maximizes the profit over the equipment life.
a.) Physical Life
b.) Profit Life
c.) Economic Life *
d.) Equipment Life
27.) Age at which the machine worn out and can no longer reliably produce.
a.) Physical Life *
b.) Profit Life
c.) Economic Life
d.) Equipment Life
28.) The life over which the equipment can earn a profit.
a.) Physical Life
b.) Profit Life *
c.) Economic Life
d.) Equipment Life
29.) Which factor is the shortage of manpower in some situations that may lead to a decision in
favor of procuring equipment that is highly automated.
a.) Labor Consideration *
b.) Manufacturer Specific
c.) Client Specific
d.) Project Specific
30.) Construction companies may prefer to buy equipment from the same manufacturer again
and again.
a.) Labor Consideration
b.) Manufacturer Specific *
c.) Client Specific
d.) Project Specific
Topic 8 – Construction Equipment Operation, Productivity, and Maintenance
SECTION: 50120
31. _______ works on construction sites and operates the heavy machinery
required to build structures and roads
e. Construction Equipment Operation
*b. Construction Equipment Operator
e. Construction Equipment Maintenance
f. Construction Equipment Supervisor
32. What do you call the preparation of every individual or operator to operate and
maintain a variety of heavy equipment?
*a. Construction Equipment Operation
f. Construction Equipment Operator
g. Construction Equipment Maintenance
h. Construction Equipment Supervisor
33. _______ is a heavy equipment, typically heavy-duty vehicles designed for

construction operations which involve earthworks.
d. Construction Equipment
e. Material Handling Equipment
f. Construction Vehicles
*d. Earth Moving Equipment
34. They are used to move large amounts of earth, to dig foundations for
landscaping and so on.
*a. Earth Moving Equipment
e. Construction Equipment
f. Construction Vehicles
g. Material Handling Equipment
35. Which of the following is not an Earth Moving Equipment

e. Dump Trucks
f. Bulldozer
g. Excavator
*d. Crane
36. Refers to equipment designed to move, control, protect or store material

through various processes at warehouses and facilities.
e. Construction Equipment
f. Earth Moving Equipment
*c. Material Handling Equipment
h. Construction Vehicles
37. Which does not belong to the group?

e. Crane
*b. Grader
g. Forklift
h. Conveyors
38. ________ is a type of Crane that has forklift-like mechanisms.

*a. Stacker Crane
f. Tower Crane
g. Carry Deck Crane
h. Crawler Crane
39. Type of crane that is highly valuable as it uses a hydraulic cylinder for changing
lengths.
*a. Telescopic Crane
e. Crawler Crane
f. Tower Crane
g. Stacker Crane
40. Type of crane used for handling large amount of cargo and has a grabbing like
mechanism?
*a. Bulk-Handling Crane
e. Carry Deck Crane
f. Tower Crane
g. Crawler Crane
41. Type of crane with the ability to work in water.

e. Amphibian Crane
f. Hammerhead Crane
*c. Floating Crane
d. Bridge Crane
42. Refers to the tools, machinery, and vehicles used in the construction industry
to build, repair, and maintain various structures, such as buildings, roads,
bridges, and other infrastructure projects
d. Construction Vehicles
e. Earth Moving Equipment
f. Material Handling Equipment
*d. Construction Equipment
43. Road Paver is a Construction Equipment. Road Paver is also an Earth Moving
Equipment
d. Only Statement 1 is True
e. Only Statement 2 is True
f. Both Statements are False
*d. Both Statements are True
44. Rough Terrain Cranes have rubber tires to carry materials through rough
terrain. Bridge cranes are cranes used for sea works such as oil Rigs.
*a. Only Statement 1 is True
b. Only Statement 2 is True
g. Both Statements are False
h. Both Statements are True
45. Determines which equipment are needed and how much work each equipment
can be used based on their product specification.
e. Construction Equipment Operation
*b. Construction Equipment Productivity
c. Construction Equipment Maintenance
d. Construction Equipment Supervisor
46. Is computed by dividing the cycle capacity by the cycle time.

e. Standard Production Capacity
*b. Standard Production Rate
c. Daily Standard Production Rate
d. Loading Time
47. For Maximum Productivity of the Equipment disregard the manufacturer’s

instructions. To maximize productivity, the instruction can be handled by
whoever is available at the moment.
f. Only Statement 2 is True
*c. Both Statements are False
d. Both Statements are True
48. Site Productivity is reliant on the amount of work. Site Productivity is affected
by site safety.
*b. Only Statement 2 is True
g. Both Statements are False
h. Both Statements are True
49. A type of crane with the ability to travel in highways

*a. Truck Mounted Crane
f. Hammerhead Crane
g. Bridge Crane
h. Crawler Crane
50. Which does not belong to the group

d. Tankers
e. Tippers
f. Dumbers
*d. Excavators
51. It is important to determine _______ as it will help in creating a list of quantities
of equipment needed in order to ensure the estimated duration of work on the
Gantt Chart.
*a. Construction Equipment Productivity
f. Construction Equipment Operation
g. Construction Equipment Maintenance
h. Construction Equipment Supervisor
52. It is a proactive, scheduled approach to equipment repair, rather than a

reactive, unscheduled, post-breakdown approach.
a. Construction Equipment Operation
b. Construction Equipment Productivity
*c. Construction Equipment Maintenance
d. Construction Equipment Operator
53. A one cubic yard power shove has a cycle time of 30 seconds, find the daily
standard production rate. Ce=1 cu. Yard, Te = 30 sec, He = 8 hours. (Tip:
Conversion is 3600 sec / hr).
e. 760 yd3
f. 1060 yd3
g. 860 yd3
*d. 960 yd3
54. Type of maintenance that is carried out following detection of an anomaly and
aimed at restoring normal operating conditions.
*a. Corrective Maintenance
f. Preventive Maintenance
g. Risk-Based Maintenance
h. Condition-Based Maintenance
55. Type of maintenance that is carried out at predetermined intervals or according

to prescribed criteria, aimed at reducing the failure risk or performance
degradation of the equipment.
*a. Preventive Maintenance
b. Corrective Maintenance
c. Risk-Based Maintenance
d. Condition-Based Maintenance
56. Type of maintenance that works on the principle that maintenance resources
should go to the assets that carry the most risk if they fail.
a. Preventive Maintenance
*c. Risk-Based Maintenance
d. Condition-Based Maintenance
57. Type of maintenance that involves monitoring equipment performance and
asset management with visual inspections, scheduled tests, and sensor
devices to determine the most cost-efficient time to perform maintenance.
a. Preventive Maintenance
*c. Conditioned-Based Maintenance
d. Risk-Based Maintenance
58. Which of the following is not included in the importance of a regular

maintenance for construction Equipment.
a. Safety
b. Records and Insurance
c. Time-Saving Efficiency
*d. Cost-Effective
59. What is the fuel consumption of excavator per hour?

a. 20 Ltr (Diesel)
b. 16 Ltr (Diesel)
*c. 15 Ltr (Deisel)
d. 10 Ltr (Deisel)
60. What is the fuel consumption of Soil Compactor per hour?

a. 20 Ltr (Diesel)
b. 16 Ltr (Diesel)
*c. 22 Ltr (Deisel)
d. 10 Ltr (Deisel)

Construction Project Phases, Processes and Challenges

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Construction Project Phases, Processes and Challenges

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This includes the physical process of building as well as all associated activities such as landscaping,

refurbishing, site clearance, and demolition.

d. None of the above

The construction phase is the industry's _________.

a. Limited space on site

b. Reducing the number of materials that must be stored.

c. Avoid spending all the money at once.

d. All of the above

d. None of the above

d. None of the above

A construction equipment failure could be caused by a product with a flawed design or by

a. High quality manufacturing

d. None of the above

This requires compliance with certain formalities prescribed by law.

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

It is an effective price result in realistic pricing and a fixed-price contract.

It can provide a realistic pricing standard with or without competition.

It is greater proportion of risk to performance outcomes to ensure timely contract performance.

4. The “A” in the functional chart, stands for _______.

7. What organization structure is Organization Structure “C”?

14. What does PCAB stand for?

19. __________ describe something that a product or service is required to do.

21. An organizational framework for how a business entity operates

1. _______ determines possible critical areas and forms a solution or prevention.

2. It is liable for the actions and finances of the business.

3. _______ is an aspect of construction-related activities concerned with

4. A project manager conducts regular meetings with _______.

5. It is the structure of the project.

6. Coordinates with different subcontractors and draftsmen.

7. A technical drawing, also known as ________, is an approved detailed, precise

10. What are the three types of legal structure?

11. Coordination between subcontractors for the preparation of shop drawings.

13. Prepares cost load values for all activities.

17. Manages labors at site and reports to the civil engineer.

18. Project organization is a _______.

21. It is significant if you're planning to have a construction. Ensure that the

22. Which of the following is not a legal document?

23. What does PPE stand for?

27. What does BOQ stand for?

28. Which of the following is not a PPE?

1. What is the meaning of network analysis AOA?

2. Project planning is a part of construction project management ?

3. What is the meaning of network analysis AON?

*A. Activity on Node

5. What does PERT stand for?

A. Project Engineer and Review Technique

*A. Optimistic Time Estimation

A. Optimistic Time Estimation

13. In AOA what are the nodes represented for?

14. In AON what are the arrows represented for?

15. Is it possible to use circles/ boxes in AON?

A. PERT= (4*M + OP + D)/6

A. Critical Path Method

19. It refers to tasks that come after the predecessor.

21. What is the meaning of ES ?

*A. Earliest Start Time

22. What is the meaning of LS ?

A. Earliest Start Time

23. What is the meaning of LF ?

24. What is the meaning of EF ?

A. Earliest Start Time

A. Earliest Start Time

30. It is the earliest time at which an activity can be completed