REV IEW TE ST-2

C
H E
M I
STRY
Class : XIII
Time : 2 hour PAPER CODE : A Max. Marks : 160
INSTRUCTIONS
1. The question paper contain 16 pages and 3-parts. Part-A contains 32 objective question, Part-B contains
3 questions of "Match the Column" type and Part-C contains 4 subjective type questions. All questions are
compulsory. Please ensure that the Question Paper you have received contains all the QUESTIONS
and Pages. If you found some mistake like missing questions or pages then contact immediately to
the Invigilator.
PART-A
(i) Q.1 to Q.16 have only one correct alternative and carry 3 marks each.
There is NEGATIVE marking. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
(ii) Q.17 to Q.25 have only one correct alternative and carry 4 marks each.
There is NEGATIVE marking. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
(ii) Q.26 to Q.32 have One or more than one is / are correct alternative(s) and carry 4 marks each.
There is NO NEGATIVE marking. Marks will be awarded only if all the correct alternatives are selected.
PART-B
(iii) Q.1 to Q.3 are "Match the Column" type which may have one or more than one match and carry 2 marks
for each correct match. There is NEGATIVE marking. 0.5 Marks will be deducted for each wrong
match. Marks will be awarded only if all the correct alternatives are selected.
PART-C
(iv) Q.1 to Q.4 are "Subjective" questions. There is NO NEGATIVE marking. Marks will be awarded only if
all the correct bubble are filled in you answer sheet.
2. Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.
3. Use only HB pencil for darkening the bubble.
4. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.
5. The answer(s) of the questions must be marked by shading the circles against the question by dark HB pencil only.
PART-A PART-B PART-C
For example if only 'B' choice is For example if Correct match for Ensure that all columns (3 before
correct then, the correct method for (A) is P, Q; for (B) is P, R; decimal and 2 after decimal) are filled.
filling the bubble is for (C) is P and for (D) is S then the Answer having blank column will be
A B C D correct method for filling the bubble treated as incorrect. Insert leading
is zero(s) if required after rounding the
For example if only 'B & D' choices P Q R S result to 2 decimal places.
are correct then, the correct method (A) e.g. 86 should be filled as 0086.00
for filling the bubble is (B) .
A B C D .
(C)
.
the wrong method for filling the (D) .
bubble are .
.
The answer of the questions in wrong .
or any other manner will be treated .
as wrong. .
.
 USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.4, Sn = 118.7,
Pb= 207.2 Radius of nucleus =10–14 m; h = 6.626 ×10–34 Js; me = 9.1 ×10–31 kg

PART-A
Select the correct alternative. (Only one is correct) [16 × 3 = 48]

Q.1 For the reaction

CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g)
The Kp for the reaction is 0.11. The reaction was started with 0.45 moles of CO2 and 0.45 moles of H2
at 700 K. Find the concentration of CO2 when 0.34 mole of CO2 and 0.34 moles of H2 are added after
the first equilibrium is attained.
(A) 0.52 M (B) 0.17 M (C) 0.34 M (D) None of these

Q.2 Which of the following compounds can exist in optically active form
(A) 1-butanol (B) 2-butanol (C) 3-pentanol (D) 4-heptanol

Q.3 "Solubility of Alkali metal fluorides increases down the group" Select correct explanation for given
statement.
(A) Hydration energy increases and lattice energy decreases down the group
(B) Both energy decrease down the group but decrease in hydration energy is rapid
(C) Both energy decrease down the group but decrease in lattice energy is rapid
(D) Both energy increase down the group but increase in hydration energy is rapid

Q.4 0.96 gm of HI was heated at 720 K till the equilibrium. The % dissociation of HI was found to be 21%.
The volume of hypo required for the liberated I2 is
(A) 10 ml of 0.1 N Na2S2O3 (B) 20 ml of 0.02 N Na2S2O3
(C) 6 ml of 0.3 M Na2S2O3 (D) none of these

ROUGH WORK
Q.5 Consider the following compounds

(I) (II) (III)

The correct order of acidic strength is

(A) III > II > I (B) I > II > III (C) III > I > II (D) none

Q.6 The crystal field splitting energy (CFSE) for octahedral (0) and tetrahedral (t) complex is related as
4 1
(A) t =  0 (B) t = 
9 2 0
4
(C) 0 = –2t (D) 0 =  t
9

Q.7 A sample of hard water contains 305 ppm of HCO3– ions. What is the minimum mass of CaO required
to remove HCO3– completely from 1 Kg of such water sample.
(A) 56 mg (B) 140 mg (C) 130 mg (D) none of these

Questions No. 8 to 10 (3 questions)

Isomers which are nonsuper-imposable mirror images of each other are called enantiomers. All optically
active compounds exhibit enantiomerism. The stereoisomers which are not mirror images of each other
are called diastereomers. Enantiomers are always chiral molecules whereas diastereomers may or may
not be chiral, configuration of the compound having no element of symmetry is always chiral. Chiral
molecule may or may not contain chiral carbon.

ROUGH WORK
Q.8 Which of the following compounds are chiral?

(A) (B)

(C) (D) All of these

Q.9 Which of the following pairs are diastereomers ?

(A) and (B) and

(C) and (D) All of these

Q.10 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) enantiomers: (B) Diastereomers:

and and

ROUGH WORK
 (C) meso form (D) Enantiomer

and

Q.11 Which of the following have X–O–X linkage (where X is central atom)
(i) Cr2 O 72 (ii) S2O 32 (iii) Pyrosilicate (iv) Hyponitrus acid
(A) (i) (iii) (B) (iii) (iv) (C) (i) (iii) (iv) (D) (i) (ii)

Q.12 0.36g of iron pyrites (FeS2) is heated strongly in air. The SO2 produced is passed to acidified decimolar
K2Cr2O7. The volume of acidified K2Cr2O7 solution used in redox titration is
(A) 10 ml (B) 20ml (C) 30 ml (D) none of these
Q.13 A complex has sp3d2 hybridization, which of the d-orbitals is involved in hybridization
(A) dxy (B) dyz (C) dxz (D) d x 2  y 2
M
Q.14 In an experiment, 100 ml of 0.1 M solution of an element reacted exactly with 40 ml of solution of
10
sodium sulphite. In the reaction SO32– is oxidised to SO42–. If the original oxidation no. of the element
was 2, then what will be the new oxidation no. of the element.
(A) –6 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) none of these
Q.15 The correct increasing order of extent of hydrolysis is
(A) CCl4 < MgCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4 < PCl5
(B) CCl4 < AlCl3 < MgCl2< PCl5 < SiCl4
(C) CCl4 < SiCl4 < PCl5 < AlCl3 < MgCl2
(D) CCl4 < PCl5 < SiCl4 < AlCl3 < MgCl2
ROUGH WORK
Q.16 Match List I (Compound) with List II (Molecular shape) & select the correct answer using the codes
below:
List I List II
(a) XeF4 (1) Tetrahedral
(b) SeF4 (2) Square planar
(c) XeO3 (3) Pyramidal
(d) XeO4 (4) Triangular planer
(5) See-saw
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 5 (B) 2 5 3 1
(C) 3 5 4 1 (D) 2 1 3 5

Select the correct alternative. (Only one is correct) [9 × 4 = 36]

Q.17 If enthalpy of hydrogenation of C6H6(l) into C6H12(l) is –205 kJ & resonance energy of C6H6(l)
–152 kJ/mol then enthalpy of hydrogenation of 1,4-cyclohexadiene (l) is
Assume Hvap of C6H6(l), C6H8(l), C6H12(l) all are equal
(A) –535.5 kJ/mol (B) –238 kJ/mol (C) –357 kJ/mol (D) None

Q.18 Four Newman projection formula of compound CH2OH–CHOH–CHOH–CHO are shown below:

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

Which of the above represents erythro isomer?

(A) I and IV (B) I and II (C) II and IV (D) I and III

Q.19 Which of the following complex has different shape from others
(A)NiCl42– (B) Ni(CO)4 (C) Ni(CO)42– (D) [Zn(NH3)4]2+

ROUGH WORK
Q.20 4.617 × 10–3 moles of NaNO3 requires 4.04 moles of reducing agent to get reduced to NH3. What is
the n-factor of the reducing agent.
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) none of these
Q.21 An optically pure compound X gave an []25
D = + 20.0°. A mixture of X and its enantiomer Y gave

[]25
D = +10°. The ratio of X to Y in the mixture is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 2

Q.22 Cyanogen when reacts with sodium metal, the product is

(A) NaCN (B) Na2C & N2 (C) NaN3 (D) [Na(CN)2]–

Q.23 (a) Et3N (b) (c) Et2NH

Compare basic strength of following:
(A) a > b > c (B) b > a > c (C) b > c > a (D) c > b > a

Q.24 In which of the following compound enolic content is less

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.25 Stereoisomers possible for following compound is

(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64

ROUGH WORK
 Select the correct alternative. (More than one are correct) [7 × 4 = 28]

Q.26 For the gas phase reaction C2H4(g) + H2(g) C2H6(g); H = -32.7 kcal carried out in a
vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by
(A) increasing temperature (B) decreasing pressure
(C) removing some H2 (D) adding some C2H6

Q.27 Which of the following statement are correct?

(A) & are chain isomer

(B) & are position isomer

(C) & are tautomers

(D) & (enantiomer)

Q.28 The correct order of acidic strength is

(A) NO2+ > CO2 > N2O > N3– (B) AlCl3 > AlBr3 > AlI3
(C) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 (D) None of these

ROUGH WORK
Q.29 Which of the following compounds is optically active?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.30 Select the correct statement

(A) Dipole moment of POCl3 is greater than SO2Cl2
(B) Dipole moment of aniline is less than Nitrobenzene
(C) Acetone has more dipole moment than COCl2
(D) All optically active compounds contains stereocentre

Q.31 Which of the following double bond will not exhibit geometrical isomerism.

(A) (B) (C) (D) Me–N=N–Me

Q.32 If NB is the number of bonding electrons and NA is the number of antibonding electrons of a molecule.
Then choose the incorrect statement(s) for the given relationship,
NB > NA
(A) Molecule may be stable or unstable
(B) Molecule may have any integral, fractional or zero value of bond order
(C) Molecule is only paramagnetic species
(D) Molecule does not exist

ROUGH WORK
 PART-B
MATCH THE COLUMN [3 × 8 = 24]
INSTRUCTIONS:
Column-I and column-II contains four entries each. Entries of column-I are to be matched with some
entries of column-II. One or more than one entries of column-I may have the matching with the some
entries of column-II.

Q.1 Column I Column II

(A) ClF3 & XeF3+ (P) Isoelectric valence electrons
(B) PF5, AlF52– (Q) Octahedral
(C) IF5 and XeF5+ (R) Square pyramidal
(D) Sn(OH)62–, SF6 (S) Trigonal by pyramidal

Q.2 Column I Column II

(A) [Ni(CN)4]2– (P) Centre of symmetry
(B) [Fe(CN)6]4– (Q) axis of symmetry
(C) BF3 (R) plane of symmetry
(D) CH2 = C = O (S) all symmetry are absent

ROUGH WORK
Q.3 Column I Column II

(A) (P) Chiral

(B) (Q) Plane of symmetry

(C) (R) S

(D) (S) E (Entagegen)

ROUGH WORK
 PART-C
SUBJECTIVE: [4 × 6 = 24]
Q1. A piece of plumber's solder weighing 3 gm was dissolved in dilute HNO 3, then treated with dilute
H2SO4. This precipitated the lead as PbSO4, which after washing and drying weighed 2.93 gm. The
solution was then neutralised to precipitate the stannic acid, which was decomposed by hetaing, yielding
1.27 gm of SnO2. What is the analysis of the solder as % of Pb.
Q2. The calcium contained in a solution of 1.048 gm of the substance being analysed was precipitate with 25
ml of H2C2O4. The excess of C2O42– in one fourth of the filterate was back titrated with 5 ml of 0.1025
N KMnO4 solution. To determine the concentration of the H2C2O4 solution taken, it was diluted four
fold, the titration of 25 ml of the dilute soluition used up 24.1 ml of KMnO4 solution. What is percentage
of CaO in the substance being analysed.
Q3. PCl5 dissociates into PCl3 and Cl2
PCl5 (g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
The total pressure of the system in P at a density  and temperature T. If the vapour density of the gas
mixture at equilibrium has the value of 62 when the temperature is 2300C, what is the value of P/
Q4. Ammonia under a pressure of 15 atm at 270C is heated to 3470C in a closed vessel in the presence of
catalyst. Under these conditions, NH3 partially decomposes to H2 and N2. The vessel is such that the
volume remains effectively constant, whereas the pressure increases to 50 atm. Calculate the % of NH3
actually decomposed.