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Aviation questionnaire

This assessment consists of 30 multiple-choice questions. The questions cover aviation subjects
studied for the issue of the commercial pilot's licence and general aircraft handling. The questions are
answered by pointing and clicking the required answer using the mouse. To move to the next
question click on the 'next' button. To go back to a question click on the 'previous' button. To change
your answer point and click at another answer. The assessment is not timed. You should expect to
take about 20 minutes to answer all the questions.

1)Jet airliners like the 737 or A320 have swept wings. The reason for this sweep back is?

To reduce drag at the design cruise mach number."/> To enable these aricraft to use less space
when parking at airport gates."/> To counter the aerodynamic pitch down effect at high mach
numbers."/>

2)Airbrakes are most effective"/> On the runway immediately after touchdown"/> In the landing
configuration [Wheels down / full flap]"/> In a rapid descent from high altitude"/>

3)Some modern airliners are fitted with slotted flaps. The purpose of these slots is to"/ Enable the
flaps to be curved into an aerofoil section"/> Re-energise the upper surface airflow to prevent flow
separation at high angles of attack"/> Increase the wing area and reduce the wing loading on takeoff
and landing"/> 4)Dutch roll at high altitude is prevented in modern airliners by? Fitting full time yaw
dampers"/>

Automatically decreasing the rudder authority above 250kts IAS"/> Fitting swept up winglets at the
wing tips"/>

5)If an airliner is flown faster than its MMo.? The handling characteristics may change above Mmo"/>
The drag rise due to compressibility will slow the aircraft down"/> The aircraft must be slowed
immediately as any speed in excess of Mmo will overstress the airframe"/>

6)When calculating takeoff performance speeds"/> Vmcg should be greater than V1"/> Vmcg should
be less than or equal to V1"/> Vmcg must be greater than V1 by 30%"/>

7)On the runway taking off in a strong crosswind from the right a swept wing jet airliner will tend to"/>
Yaw (weather vane) to the right"/> Yaw (weather vane) to the left"/> Drift off the centreline
downwind"/>

8)Immediately after takeoff in a swept wing airliner such as the 737 the left engine fails. The aircraft
will tend to"/> Yaw and roll to the right"/> Yaw right and pitch nose up"/> Yaw left and roll left"/>
9)After landing in rain on a runway promulgated as 'Slippery when wet' your aircraft starts to diverge
from the runway centreline. What action do you take to stop the drift?"/> Cancel reverse thrust"/>

Use full opposite rudder to control the drift"/> Use differential reverse thrust until the nosewheel
steering becomes effective"/>

10)After landing on a dry runway which is the most effective retardation device?"/> The airbrakes /
spoilers"/> Reverse thrust"/> The antiskid brakes

11) To accelerate from idle to full thrust a typical turbofan engine will take about"/> 4 seconds"/> 8
seconds"/> 12 seconds"/>

12)The use of high pressure bleed air from the compressor for anti-icing will"/> Decrease engine
operating temperatures and thrust"/> Increase fuel consumption"/> Have no effect on jet engine
performance"/>

13)Engine icing is most likely to occur"/> At any time when the outside air temperature is 1 degrees
celsius or below"/> When flying if visible moisture such as rain or fog is present"/> When visible
moisture is present and the total air temperature is 10 degrees celsius or below"/>

14)Ice Contamination of the wing upper and lower surface may cause"/ A reduction in stall margins
and possible poor lateral control on takeoff"/> A loss of lift and pitch control on the ground"/>

An increase in the calculated thrust setting required for takeoff"/> >

15)The symptoms of windshear may include"/> Loss of altitude, airframe buffet, a high rate of descent
combined with excessive pitch attitudes"/> A significant change of airspeed, divergence from the
required flight path, normal control inputs insufficient to maintain the flight path"/> Loss of airspeed,
increasing rate of descent and pre-stall buffet"/>

16)An aircraft flies through the base of an active cumulonimbus cloud. The pilot might expect it to
experience"/> A strong updraught only under the cloud base"/> A downdraft followed by an updraught
and then another downdraft"/> An updraft followed by a downdraft and then another updraft"/>

17) In calm winter conditions in NW Europe dense fog is cleared most effectively by"/> A change of
airmass"/> Solar radiation"/> An increase in wind speed"/> 18)Flying at 33000 feet the aircraft cabin
rapidly depressurises. What period of useful consciousness can you expect?"/> About 25 seconds"/>
About 50 seconds"/> About 120 seconds"/>

19)When making a visual landing on a runway with a 1 degree slope up you may experience A visual
illusion of being high on the required glidepath"/> A visual illusion of being low on the glidepath"/>

Neither of these as the visual effect of the runway slope is insignificant"/>

20)In the cruise at high altitude when flying into an area of known turbulence you would"/> Stop the
cabin service and fly at the turbulence speed"/> Secure the cabin and cockpit, select turbulence
speed and maintain a constant attitude"/> Secure the cabin and cockpit and descent at Mmo / Vmo"/>
21)Approximately how far will a jet airliner travel in still air when descending clean from FL370 toFL70
?"/> 50 nm / 88 km"/> 75 nm / 132 km"/> 100 nm / 176 km"/>

22)While in a descent under radar control you receive a TCAS resolution advisory (RA). You would"/>
Continue with the descent, advise ATC of the RA and look out for other aircraft"/> Continue the
descent but turn 90 degrees off the assigned heading and advise ATC"/> "Manoeuvre following the
RA guidance and advise ATC"/>

23)Before starting the final descent on an NDB approach you would"/> Tune the beacon and
calculate the required rate of descent"/> Monitor the beacon identification and descend when on the
runway heading"/> Ensure that you are within +/- 5 degrees of the inbound QDM"/>

24) At 1700 feet on an ILS approach the GPWS sounds 'Whoop, whoop, pull up, pull up'. Would
you"/> Check the ILS glideslope is within one dot and cross check altitude with the radio altimeter"/>
Immediately go around following the standard missed approach procedure, inform ATC"/> Cancel the
GPWS, check on the glidepath and increase thrust as a precaution"/>

25)At what distance from the stop end of the runway do the centre line lights change from red/white to
red ?"/> 900m"/> 600m"/> 300m"/>

26)Taxyway lighting consists of"/> Green centre line lights with blue edge lighting"/> Green centre line
lights with green edge lights on corners"/> White centre line lights with red edge lights on corners"/>

27)While in the holding pattern waiting to land you notice that the total fuel in tanks has fallen below
company minimum reserves. What action would you take ?"/> Declare a 'Fuel emergency' and set the
transponder to 7600"/> Declare an emergency and request assistance from ATC"/>

Advise ATC and your company that you are immediately diverting to your designated alternate"/>

28)In the air a loss of situational awareness is most likely to arise if"/> Both pilots are engaged in
programming the FMC"/> The non-handling pilot fails to use airways charts to check the aircraft's
position"/> ATC are talking to one pilot while the other is flying the aircraft manually"/>

29) At 900 feet on a manually flown ILS approach you notice the handling pilot has let the aircraft
drop below the glidepath. Would you"/> Verbally warn the handling pilot, monitor the response and
look for a correction"/> Verbally warn the handling pilot and take control immediately"/> Verbally warn
the handling pilot, increase thrust and lightly cover the controls"/>

30)When dealing with a complex emergency the first officer should"/> Carry out all the captain's
orders without further discussion"/> Carry out only orders that are in accordance with company
standard operating procedures"/> Try to discuss with the captain any orders that are unclear or
confusing"/>

END OF SET 1

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