5.

The procedure which is intended to be used in situations

CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE EXAMINATION
========================================
FINAL COACHING
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
1. It refers to the field of management which involves
planning, and controlling the efforts of a group of
individuals toward achieving a common goal with maximum
dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administation
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization
of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field
operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest
and investigation refers to:
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure
 Headquarters Procedures - include the procedures to
be followed in the headquarters, usually reflected in
the duty manual
 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) - procedures
intended for specific operations to ensure uniformity of
action

 Organization-a group of persons working together for a 6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period
common goal or objectives a form of human association ______?
for the attainment of a goal or objective.
A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
 Police Organization- a group of trained personnel in the
B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
field of public safety administration engaged in the
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
achievement of goals and objectives.
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
 Administration- an organizational process concerned
with the implementation of objectives and plans and
 Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure
internal operating efficiency.
 Police Administration- the process involved in ensuring
Those who have reached the prescribed maximum
strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and related
tenure corresponding to their position shall be retired from
statutes focuses on the policing process. the service
2. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon  Chief 4 years
City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief of the
 Deputy Chief 4 years
Philippine Constabulary.
 Director of Staff Services 4 years
A. Antonio Torres  Regional Directors 6 years
B. Cesar Nazareno  Provincial/District Directors 9 years
C. Rafael Crame  Other positions higher than
D. Lamberto Javalera Provincial Director 6 years

 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of the Philippine

National Police
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief of police of 7. The law that empowered the police commission to
the Manila Police Department in 1935 conduct entrance and promotional examination for police
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of police of the members refers to:
Manila Police Department after the Philippine
Independence from the United States of America in A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
1946 B. RA 157 D. PD 765

3. Abdul Hakol joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years
old then. What year can Eugene retire if he wants to
avail the mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023
 Compulsory – upon reaching the age FIFTY-SIX (56),
the age of retirement
 Optional – upon completion of TWENTY (20) YEARS of
active service
4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression
of insurgency and serious treats to national security?
A. The AFP operating through the area commander is the
one primarily responsible on matters involving
insurgency and other serious treats to national
security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards
insurgency and other serious treats to national
security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in
insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these
 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of Investigation,
enacted June 19, 1947 and later reorganized by R.A.
2678
 PD 765- otherwise known as the Integration Act of
1975, enacted on August 8, 1975; established the
Integrated National Police (INP)
 R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law
8. The theory of police service which states those police
officers are servants of the people or the community refers
to:
A. Old
B. Home rule
C. Modern
D. Continental
 Continental - policemen are regarded as servants of
the higher authorities
o It exist in France, Italy and Spain- countries with a
decentralized form of government
 Old Concept - measurement of police competence is
the increasing number of arrests.
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is measured by the
decreasing number of crimes
9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the  Chief Inspector – Major
Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank  Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel
upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector 15. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, nurses, B. 2 D. 4
engineers, graduates of forensic sciences, graduates of
the PNPA and licensed criminologists Deputy Director General ranks
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains, members of the bar
 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)
and doctors of medicine
 DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
10. The following are functions in a police organization,  Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in Command)
EXCEPT:
16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
A. primary functions
A. Four star general C. Director
B. administrative functions
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions
 Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the rank of
DIRECTOR GENERAL
 Primary or Line Functions- functions that carry out the
major purposes of the organization, Patrolling, traffic 17. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
duties, and crime investigation
 Staff/Administrative Functions- designed to support the A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
line functions and assist in the performance of the line B. 1:500 D. 1:7
functions examples of the staff functions of the police
are Planning, research, budgeting and legal advice Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to-population
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving the logistical ratio)
operations of the organization examples are
communication, maintenance, records management, o 1:500 – nationwide average
supplies and equipment management.
18. What kind of force is needed during armed
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to confrontation?
disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
Patrol officer is:
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force
A. Conduct a complete search.
19. The largest organic unit within a large department.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
A. Bureau C. Section
C. No further search may be made. B. Division D. Unit
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
 Division- The primary subdivision of a bureau.
12. He is known as the father of modern policing system?  Section- Functional units within a particular division.
This is necessary for specialization.
A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell
 Units- Functional group within a section where further
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare Lombroso
specialization is needed.
 August Vollmer - recognized as the Father of Modern 20. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word
Law Enforcement _______, which means government of the city.
 Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of Scotland Yard A. politia C. politeia
 Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern Criminology. B. polis D. Policy

13. When responding to call for police assistance due to
planted or found explosives, what immediate actions should
the patrol officer will do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further
injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive
Ordinance Disposal Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
procedure to be followed, after investigating the
item.
 Polis – Greek word which means “City-State”.
 Politia – Roman word which means “condition of the
state or the Government”.
21. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the
objectives of the organization will be attained.
A. planning C. Advancement
B. police planning D. Development
 Police Planning - it is an attempt by police
administration to allocate anticipated resources to
meet anticipated service demands.

14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed 22. It is the premier educational institution for the training,
Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in the human resource development and continuing education of all
PNP? personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
A. PPSC C. RTS
A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector B. PNPA D. NPC
B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD 1184, premier
 Inspector – Captain educational institution for future officers of the tri-bureaus.

Page 2 of 37
23. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s
complaint against the police officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
 NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative control and
operational supervision over the PNP
 IAS - investigate complaints and gather evidence in
support of an open investigation; conduct summary
hearings on PNP members facing administrative
charges;
31. All of the following are members of the People’s Law
Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community
B. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the
Philippines
C. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality
concerned chosen by the association of barangay
captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod

24. The following are the grounds for Patrol officers to 32. Two or more persons forming an organization must
execute spot checks. identify first the reason for establishing such organization.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the area; They must identify the organization’s _________:
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your superior; A. strategy C. Goal
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police officer; B. Tactic D. objective
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the suspect’s prior
criminal record; and  Strategy – is a broad design, method; a major plan of
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect is carrying a action that needs a large amount of resources to attain
pyrotechnics. a major goal or objectives.
A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d  Goal- General Statement of intention normally with
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e time perspective. It is achievable end state that can be
measured and observed.
25. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial  Tactic – it is a specific design, method or course of
director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the action to attain a particular objective in consonance
PNP regional director: with strategy.
A. six C. five
B. Three D. four 33. To improve delegation, the following must be done,
EXCEPT:
 MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE eligible’s A. establish objectives and standards
recommended by the PD. B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work
26. The deployment of officers in a given community, area D. define authority and responsibility
or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to
provide day-to-day services to the community. 34. The number of subordinates that can be supervised
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol directly by one person tends to:
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol A. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor
and subordinate as well as between individual
27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of subordinate increases
____________? B. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and
A. Director General C. Solicitor General experience of the subordinate
B. Inspector General D. IAS General C. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for
the first line supervisory level to the management
28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be level
how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel? D. All of the above
A. one (1) C. more than one
B. at least one D. less than one 35. This means controlling the direction and flow of
decisions through unity of command from top to bottom of
 there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for every five organization:
hundred (500) city or municipal police personnel A. Audit C. Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority
29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the
immediate things to do when accident occur?
36. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Cordon the area
A. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the
B. Go away and call your superior
police
C. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
increases or promotion
C. Performance evaluation is done once a year among
30. The following are the upgraded general qualifications for
police personnel
appointment in the Philippine National Police.
D. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five (5) kilos;
the quality of work performance of personnel
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or over thirty
five (35) years of age;
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for
c. Applicant must be person of good moral character;
_______:
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably discharged
from military services or civilian position in the government; A. Administrative control
and B. Administration and control
e. Applicant must be eligible.
C. Operational supervision
D. Policy and program coordination
A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e
38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor.  Specialization- the assignment of particular personnel
This is the principle of __________: to particular tasks which are highly technical and
require special skills and training
A. delegation of authority  Retirement - The separation of the police personnel
B. span of control from the service by reason of reaching the age of
C. unity of command retirement provided by law, or upon completion of
D. chain of command certain number of years in active service.
 Promotion - It is a upgrading of ranks and/or
 Delegation of Authority- conferring of certain specified advancement to a position of leadership
authority by a superior to a subordinate
 Chain of Command- the arrangement of officers from 45. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be
top to bottom on the basis of rank or position and less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum age
authority requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry
 Span of Control- the maximum number of subordinates program is ____.
that a superior can effectively supervise A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
 Command Responsibility- dictates that immediate B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
commanders shall be responsible for the effective
supervision and control of their personnel and unit 46. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed
members is required for permanency of their appointment.
39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack T. Khole? Who among the following is exempted to undergo the Field
A. President C. Chief, PNP Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
B.CA D. Regional Director
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. Inspector
Promoting Authorities: via Lateral entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via
Grade/Rank Promoting Authorities Lateral entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector
 Director General President after graduation.
 Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and First
 Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP Place in the Examination.
 PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, PNP
 Field Training Program. – All uniformed members of
40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? the PNP shall undergo a Field Training Program for
twelve (12) months involving actual experience and
A. Standard operation procedures assignment in patrol, traffic, and investigation as a
B. Special operation procedures requirement for permanency of their appointment.
C. Standard operating procedures
D. Special operating procedures 47. Planning as a management function is to be done in the
various levels of PNP organization. Broad policy based from
41. The following are the characteristics of a good plan, laws directives, policies and needs in general is the
EXCEPT: responsibility of:
A. flexibility C. specific
B. clear D. expensive A. Directorate for Plans
B. President of the Philippines
42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many C. Chief, PNP
of the annual quota is allocated for women? D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200 48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy Director
General in the Armed Forces of the Philippines?
 The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT (10%) of its annual A. Lt. General C. Major General
recruitment, training and education quota for women B. Brigade General D. General
43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be  Chief Superintendent – Brigade General
waived in the following order:  Director – Major General
 Director General - General
A. age, height, weight & education
B. age, weight, height & education 49. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300 new
C. height, education, weight & age policemen on March 2012 to fill up its quota. Who among
D. in any order the following applicants is qualified to apply?

 Applicants who possess the least disqualification shall A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
take precedence over those who possess more B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
disqualification; C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
 The requirement shall be waived in the following order: D. Migz who was born on August 10, 1991
Age, Height, Weight and Education. (AHWE)
 For a new applicant, must not be less than twenty-one
44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis (21) nor more than thirty (30) years of age
provided by law.
A. attrition C. Specialization 50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine National Police on
B. promotion D. retirement October 5, 1988. Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career
as embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so that
he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he

Page 4 of 37
served with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does 58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed
Bruno can retire? to the__________:
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September 5, 2008 A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
51. Which of the following administrative penalties is C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
immediately executory? D. National Police Commission
A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty  National Appellate Board - shall decide cases on appeal
from decisions rendered by the PNP Chief and the IAS.
52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be  Regional Appellate Board - shall decide cases on appeal
promoted to SPOIV? from decisions rendered by the RD, PD, COP, the city or
municipal mayor and the PLEB except decision on
A. Officers Candidate Course
suspension.
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course NOTE:
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
 The PLEB decision of the suspension is final and cannot
 SLC- SPOII to SPOIII be appealed.
 JLC – POIII to SPOI  The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or Regional
 PSBRC – POI to POII Director is final and executory but subject to appeal to
RAB.
53. The head of the National Capital Regional Police Office  Decision of Chief of Police is appealable within 10 days
shall assume the position of NCR director with the rank of: to Provincial Director, upon receipt of decision.
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
 Decision of Provincial Director is appealable within 10
B. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
days to Regional Director, upon receipt of decision.
 Regional Director -with the rank of Chief  Decision of Regional Director is appealable within 10
Superintendent days to Chief, PNP upon receipt of decision.
 Provincial Director -with the rank of Senior  The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are from those cases
Superintendent concerning internal discipline.
 NCR District Director -with the rank of Chief  Cases involving internal discipline filed with the Chief,
Superintendent PNP originally, the decision is appealable to NAB which
 Chief of Police – with the rank of Chief Inspector decision is Final.
 Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed ONCE.
54. Under the waiver program, who among the following
PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment? 59. Who shall administer the entrance and promotional
examinations for police officers on the basis of the standards
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college set by the Commission as amended by RA 8551?
B. Renz who is under height A. PLEB C. CSC
C. Justine who is underweight B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM
D. Philip who is overage
 Police Entrance Examination – taken by applicants of
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known the PNP
as____________.  Police Promotional Examinations – taken by in-service
police officers as part of the mandatory requirements for
A. Department of Interior and Local Government Act promotion
of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed Criminologists, no
Act of 1990 longer need to take the Police Promotional Examinations as
C. Department of Interior and the Local Government part of the requirements for promotion. As PRC Board
Act of 1990 Passers, they have already complied with the eligibility
requirement.
D. Department of the Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted, if he is
56. The following are the component agencies that compose promoted who has the appointing authority?
the Philippine National Police (Sec. 23, RA 6975).
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for the
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
national headquarters personnel attested by the
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary; Civil Service Commission.
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and B. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate superiors
e. National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking. and attested by the Civil Service Commission.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c C. President, upon recommendation of Chief PNP,
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e endorsed by the Civil Service and subject to
confirmation by the Commission of Appointment.
57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00 base pay D. President from among the senior officers down to
since he was promoted. After five years from promotion, the rank of Chief Superintendent, subject to the
what would be his monthly base pay after adding his confirmation of the Commission on Appointment.
longevity pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37, 690.00 Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31, 549.00
  PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the Regional Director for
regional personnel or by the Chief, PNP for the
national headquarters
 INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the Chief, PNP
 SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the President upon
recommendation of the Chief, PNP, subject to
confirmation by the Commission on Appointments
 DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by the President
from among the senior officers down to the rank of
C/Supt, subject to the confirmation of the Commission
on Appointments
61. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for the
Organization and Government of an Insular
Constabulary”, enacted on July 18, 1901
 Act No. 183 - created the Manila Police Department,
enacted on July 31, 1901
 Act No 255 - The act that renamed the Insular
Constabulary into Philippine Constabulary, enacted on
October 3, 1901
62.________ is given to any PNP member who has
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position
B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
 Regular – promotion granted to police officers meeting
the mandatory requirements for promotion
 Promotion by virtue of Position- any PNP personnel
designated to any key position whose rank is lower
than what is required for such position shall, after 6
months occupying the same, be entitled to rank
adjustment corresponding to position.
63. PNP members under the waiver program but is
dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements can
re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
 PNP members under the waiver program but is
dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements
can RE-APPLY provided he now have the minimum
requirements.
64. The reason why police officer appears in court as a
witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his respect
to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D. Comrades
65. One having supervisory responsibilities over officers to
the lower rank, whether temporary or permanent.
A. None C. Superior officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
 Sworn Officer- The term referring to personnel of the
police department who has taken oath of office and
possesses the power to arrest.
 Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers having the
highest rank or grade according to their date of
appointment to that grade
66. Law that created the Manila Police Department, enacted
on July 31.
Page 6 of 37
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175
 RA 4864- otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization Act of 1966, enacted on September
8, 1966; created the Police Commission (POLCOM);
later POLCOM was renamed in Act No 255 - The act
that renamed the Insular Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901 to National
Police Commission (NAPOLCOM)
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for the
Organization and Government of an Insular
Constabulary”, enacted on July 18, 1901
67. The performance evaluation system is conducted:
A. thrice a year C. Every 6 months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
 January to June Evaluation Report to be submitted 1st
week of July
 June to December Evaluation Report to be submitted
1st week of January of the succeeding year.
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical
disability in the performance of his duty and unable to
further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
Retirement due To Permanent Physical Disability
PNP uniformed personnel who are permanently and
totally disabled as a result of injuries suffered or sickness
contracted in the performance of his duty shall be entitled to
ONE YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME PENSION
equivalent to EIGHTY PERCENT (80%) of his last salary,
in addition to other benefits.
Should such PNP personnel die within FIVE (5)
YEARS from his retirement due to physical disability, his
legal spouse or legitimate children shall be entitled to
receive the pension for the remainder of the five year-period.
69. How many successive annual rating periods before a
police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A. 2 C. 4
B.3 D. 1
Attrition by other Means
Those who have at least five (5) years of active
service shall be separated based on any of the following:
 inefficiency based on poor performance during the
last two (2) successive annual rating periods;
 inefficiency based on poor performance for three (3)
cumulative annual rating periods;
 physical and/or mental incapacity to perform police
functions and duties; or
 failure to pass the required entrance examinations
twice and/or finish the required career courses
except for justifiable reasons
70. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs
but only with necessary restraint and proper escort,
preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False

71. In this theory, management assumes employees may be
ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control. It is
believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical
work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory
 Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity whereby
subjects improve or modify an aspect of their behavior
being experimentally measured simply in response to
the fact that they are being studied, not in response to
any particular experimental manipulation.
 X theory - management assumes employees are
inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that
they inherently dislike work.
 Chief of Police - for a period not exceeding FIFTEEN (15)
DAYS
 PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS, or by
DISMISSAL
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of 20
years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%
 Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY PERCENT (50%)
of the base pay in case of twenty years of active service,
increasing by TWO AND ONE-HALF PERCENT (2.5%) for
every year of active service rendered beyond twenty
years.

72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation created and 77. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as
developed by? drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
B. John Edgar Hoover A. Strategic plan
C. Henry A. Landsberger B. Time Specific plan
D. Douglas McGregor C. Functional Plan
D. time bound operational plan
 Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York City Police
officer, who pioneer fighting Organized Crime.  Functional Plan- includes the framework for the
 Henry A. Landsberger – coined the word Hawthorne operation of the major functional unit in the
Effect organization Such as patrol and investigation.
 John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the Federal  Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which are strategic or
Bureau of Investigation; he was instrumental in long range in application, it determine the
founding the FBI in 1935. organization’s original goals and strategy.

78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on

73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be
routine and field operations and some special operations
promoted to Senior Superintendent.
A. Extra Departmental plan
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Tactical Plan
B. Officers Advance Course C. Operational Plan
C. Officers Basic Course D. policy or procedural plan
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
 Extra-Departmental Plans - which require actions or
 MNSA/Allied MA Degree – Chief Superintendent - up. assistance from persons or agencies outside of the
 OAC – Chief Inspector department
 OBC – Senior Inspector  Operational Plan - often called work plan; the work
 BSPS - Inspector program of the field units
 Tactical Plans - concern methods of action to be taken
74. Who among the following have summary dismissal at a designated location and under specific
powers? circumstances
A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of these 79. What kind of appointment when the applicant is under
the waiver program due to weight requirements pending
The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional Directors have satisfaction of the requirement waived.
summary dismissal powers in any of the following cases: A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special
 when the charge is serious and the evidence of
guilt is strong  Permanent – when an applicant possesses the
 when the respondent is a recidivist or has been upgraded general qualifications for appointment in the
repeatedly charged and there are reasonable PNP
grounds to believe that he is guilty of the charges;  Probationary- All PNP members upon entry level,
and before appointed to permanent status shall undergo a
 when the respondent is guilty of a serious offense mandatory 1 Year probationary period.
involving conduct unbecoming of a police officer
80. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding a police officer is
30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint A. A ground for dismissal
against erring PNP member shall be filed at the B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
A. Office of the chief of police D. Not a bar to promotion
B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office  Pursuant to RA 9708, “…In addition, the institution of a
D. any of them criminal action or complaint against a police officer
shall not be a bar to promotion
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the
PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the
offenders to justice
A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D. Employment
 Deployment- shall mean the orderly and organized
physical movement of elements or units of the PNP
within the province, city or municipality for purposes of
employment
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of police
personnel unit?
A. Preparing policy statements and standard operating
Procedures relating to all areas of the administration
of human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line
officials regarding personnel matters
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to
identify, and subsequently correct, unsatisfactory
working conditions
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to the exclusive
ranks

82. What is the first step in making a plan? 88. It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating
A. Frame of reference undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s
B. Analyzing the Facts selection criteria
C. Collecting all pertinent data A. Promotion C. Recruitment
D. Selling the plan B. Transfer D. Selection

83. It identify the role of police in the community and future  Recruitment – it is the process of attracting candidates
condition in state who have the maximum qualifications to be eligible for
A. Visionary Plans the selection procedure.
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning 89. It is recognized as the best method of filing
D. Incremental Planning A. Pigeon Hole
B. Retrieval operation
 STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to meet the long- C. Records Management
range, overall goals of the organization. D. Chain of custody
 SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational comprehensive
approach) – is the dominant tradition in planning. It is 90. It is considered to be the heart of any identification
also the point of departure for most other planning system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
approaches. It is base on “pure” or “objective” A. Arrest and booking report
rationality and attempts to assure optimal achievement B. Miscellaneous Records
of desired goals from a given situation. It relies heavily C. Identification records
on the problem identification and analysis phase of D. Fingerprint Records
planning process.
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly
 INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this approach disfavors the
salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of how
exclusive use of planners who have not direct interest in many months?
the problems at hand and favors a sort of decentralized A. 1 year C. 2 months
political bargaining that involves interested parties. B. 30 Days D. 12 months
84. The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.  Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) - Failure to
A. Line C. Staff report for duty without official notice for a period of
B. Functional D. Line and staff THIRTY (30) DAYS
 Line – oldest and simplest kind; few departments 92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of
 Functional – according to functions of the organization hours of classroom training should be required for newly
promoted supervisory personnel
85. It is the process of developing methods or procedure or A. 72 hours C. 80 hours
an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the B. 75 hours D. 85 hours
accomplishment of a definite objective. 93. It should be proactive, people oriented, based on
A. Management C. Functioning individual need, and delivered in such a way as to motivate
B. Budgeting D. Planning the experienced officer to a higher degree of
professionalism/professionalization
86. Refers to any offense committed by a member of the A. Recruit Training
PNP involving and affecting order and discipline within the B. Specialized training
police organization. C. In Service
D. Field Training
A. Breech of Internal Discipline
B. Citizens Complaint 94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the
C. Minor Offense entire mandatory and other consideration in promotion, is
D. Any of these what kind of promotion?
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
 Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or omission not B. Regular Promotion
involving moral turpitude but affecting the internal C. Meritorious Promotion
discipline of the PNP D. Promotion
 Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any complaint initiated
95. It involves assistance and action by non police agencies
by a private citizen or his duly authorized
such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD
representative on account of an injury, damage or
for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness
disturbance sustained due to an irregular or illegal act
plans and Civil defense plans
committed by a member of the PNP. A. Management Plans
B. Procedural plan

Page 8 of 37
 C. Tactical Plans B. Natural Hazards D. Security Hazards
D. Extra departmental plan Kinds of Security Hazard

96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and  Human Hazard – is the act or condition affecting
ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an award: the safe operation of the facility caused by human
A. Medal C. Awards action.
B. Decorations D. Ribbons  Natural Hazard – is the act or situation caused by
natural phenomenon, like floods, typhoons,
 Award — anything tangible granted to an individual in earthquakes, etc.
recognition of acts of gallantry or heroism, meritorious
service or skill and proficiency. 104. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion,
 Decoration — a piece of metal/material representing integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to
an award. determines person suitability for appointment or access to
classified matter.
97. For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya
ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member: A. Local Agency check
A. Six C. Four B. Background Investigation
B. Five D. Three C. National Agency Check
D. Personnel Security Investigation
98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction,
domination, or excessive use of authority:  National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty supplemented by investigation of the records and files
B. Incompetency D. Oppression of the following agencies: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau
of Immigration and Deportation and other agency.
 Misconduct generally mans wrongful, improper, or
 Local Agency Check- Refers to the investigation of the
unlawful conduct, motivated by premeditated,
records and files of agency in the area of principal
obstinate or intentional purpose. It usually refers to
residence of the individual being investigated like
transgressions or some established and definite rule of
Mayor, Police, Fiscal, Judge.
action
 Background Investigation – a check made on an
 Incompetency — is the manifest lack of adequate
individual usually seeking employment through
ability and fitness for the satisfactory performance, of
subjects records in the police files, educational
police duties.
institutions, place of residence, and former employers.
 Dishonesty — is the concealment or distortion of the
truth in a matter or act relevant to one’s office, or 105. The importance of the firm or installation with
connected with the performance of his duties. reference to the national economy security.
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative program
99. The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as B. Relative criticality D. Relative security
a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police
forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency,  Relative Vulnerability – is the susceptibility of the plant
hostage taking, rescue operations and other special or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
operations: operation due to various hazards.
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B. SWAT D. SOCO 106. Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
A. SEC C. DTI
100. The primary objective of Philippine National Police: B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD
A. Law Enforcement C. Peace and Order
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime Prevention  Trade name of the Security Agencies must be
registered at the Department of Trade and Industry
101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not
allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of 107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper facility what must be constructed.
authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number of A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
security guards. B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences
A. 50% C. 20%
B. 30% D. 10%  Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence that provides
visual access through the fence.
102. The vault door should be made of steel at least
__________ in thickness? 108. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches of money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
B. 6 inches D. 20 feet or more issued with a-
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail Order
Specifications of Vault B. Mission Order D. None of These

 Doors should be 6 inches thick made of steel 109. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard
 Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick Course?
 Floor should be elevated by 4 inches A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
 Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size B. 72 Hours D. 300 Hours
 Vault door must be fire-resistive up to 4 to 6 hours
Classification and Duration Period of training
103. An act or condition, which results in a situation
conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that, could  Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-Licensing Training
result to loss. Course)- 150 Hours
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards  Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
  Security Officers Training Course- 300 Hours
 Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
 Security Supervisor Development Course
 Other Specialized Training Course
110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff:
A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1
Line Leadership Staff
 Security Supervisor 3- Detachment Commander- the
field or area commander of the agency.
 Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector- responsible for
inspecting the entire area coverage by the detachment.
 Security Supervisor 1- Inspector- responsible for the
area assigned by the chief inspector or the detachment
commander.
111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double
strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal
part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___ high
excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet
Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
Specifications
 Standard barbed wire is twisted double strand, 12
gauge wires, with 4 point barb spaced on equal distant
part.
 Barbed wire fencing should not be less than 7 feet high,
excluding the top guard.
 Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to post not
more than 6 feet apart.
 The distance between strands will not exceed 6 inches
and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and
midway between posts.
112. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license
issued to security guards.
A. Any of these
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
D. C/PNP
113. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and
windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. Vibration Detection
 Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device - A light beam
connected by a wire to control station and when an
intruder crosses the beam he breaks the contact with
the photoelectric coil which thus activates the alarm.
 Audio Detection Device - It is a supersensitive
microphone speaker sensor that is installed in walls,
ceilings, and floors of the protected area, Any sound
caused by attempted forced entry is detected by file
censor.
 Vibration detection device - Any vibration caused by
attempted force entry is detected by the sensor.
114. Is the process of conducting physical examination to
determine compliance with establishment security policies
and procedures?
Page 10 of 37
A. Security Education C. Security Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey
Security Planning- Is a corporate and executive
responsibility. It involves knowing the objectives of the
security and the means and the method to reach those
objectives or goal must then evolve.
 Security Survey- Is the process of conducting an
exhaustive physical examination and thorough
inspection of all operation system and procedures of a
facility
 Security Education - The basic goal is to acquaint all
the employees the justification behind the security
measures and to insure cooperation at all times.
115. What is the last phase of Security Education?
A. Initial Interview C. Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security promotion
Phases of Security Education
 Initial Interview
 Training Conference
 Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Security Promotion
 Special Interview
 Debriefing
116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device
designed to prevent entry into a building, room container, or
hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items without the
consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination Locks
 Padlock- A portable and detachable lock having or
sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring or the
like and is then made fast or secured.
 Code-Operated Locks - They are open by pressing a
series of numbered buttons in the proper sequence.
 Combination Locks - A lock that requires manipulation
of dials according to a predetermined combination
code of numbers or letters
117. A type of protective alarm system where the protective
alarm located outside the installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
 Local Alarm by chance System - This is a local alarm in
which a siren or bell is sounded with no predicable
Response.
 Auxiliary System - In this system installation circuits are
led into local police or fire department by lease
telephone line
 Proprietary System - It is the same as the central
station system except that it is owned by, operated and
located in the facility
118. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to
enter specific areas issued to an employees who keeps it in
the possession until his authorization is change or until he
terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass System
 Pass Exchange System- Which he exchange one-color
coded pass at the entrance to the controlled area is
 issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession 124. The metallic container used for securing documents or
until his authorization or until he terminates. small items in an office or installation refers to:
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of passes are A. Safe C. File room
issued to an individual with the same photograph. The B. Vault D. None of these
individual exchange his badge for another color or
markings at the entrance. Once inside, if he needs to 125. Chain link fences must be constructed in______
enter a restricted area, he exchanges it for another material excluding the top guard?
color acceptable in that area. A. Seven feet C. Four feet
B. Six feet D. Five feet
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers
may activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)
engage the activation bar Specifications
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze Button  Must be constructed in 7 feet material excluding the
top guard
 Must be of 9 gauge or heavier
 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency Activation, when  Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 inches
currency is removed from the devices, the alarm is
activated. 126. The following things are used as barrier, which serves
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed inside the deck or as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial
Complex, EXCEPT:
teller station so they can be activated by knee or thigh
A. Human C. Doors
pressure.
B. Fences D. NONE
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires pressure on both
side of the device and therefore the probability of 127. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed
accidental alarm is reduced. to be at least _______fire resistant.
A. 3 hours C. 6 hours
120. These are wide beam units, used to extend the B. 24 hours D. 12 hours
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, 128. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit
horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
A. Fresnel Lights C. Floodlights utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
B. Street Lights D. Search lights A. None C. Card Operated Locks
B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler locks
 Floodlights - projects light in a concentrated beam. Best
used in boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise  Card-Operated Locks - Coded card notched, embossed
known as reflectorized or spotlight. or containing an embedded pattern of copper flocks.
 Searchlights - highly focused incandescent lamps used  Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as wafer tumbler type,
in pinpointing potential has flat metal tumblers with open center fitted into
 Street Lights - produced diffused light rather than lock case, commonly used for Automobile Industry
direction beam. which affords delay up to 7 to 10 minutes.
121. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a 129. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess
private security guard under normal condition: by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
I. Cal .50; A. 30 C. 500
II. Cal .45; B. 70 D. 1000
III. Cal .38;
IV. Magnum .22; and Use of Firearms
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.
 Number of firearms shall not exceed one (1) for
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V every two (2) Security Guard. (1:2)
B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III,  For Temporary licensed, one hundred (100) guards,
IV, V an initial of at least 30 licensed firearms.
 For regular licensed two hundred guards (200), at
122. What is the required capital investment for organization
least 70 pieces of licensed firearms.
of private security agency?
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000 130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000 green color?
New applicants to operate shall be required to obtain a A. Sodium vapor lamp
minimum capitalization of ONE MILLION (P1, 000, B. Mercury vapor lamp
000.00) pesos with a minimum bank deposit of FIVE C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00) pesos in order
D. Quartz lamp
to start its business operations.
 Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of Gaseous Discharge
123. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes
away any or all types of items or supplies for economic lamp that emit Yellow Light.
gain?  Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very bright white
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer light and instant on almost as rapidly as the
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer incandescent lamp.
 Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very economical to
 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to his inability to use but for industrial security it is not acceptable
resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of due to long time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5
detection. minutes to light.
  Incandescent Lamps- These are common light
bulbs that are found in every home. They have the
advantage of providing instant illumination
131. What type of security deals with the industrial plants
and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
properties and operations are safeguarded?
A. Personal security C. Operational security
B. industrial security D. bank security
 Personal Security- Involves the protection of top-
ranking officials of the government, visiting
persons of illustrious standing and foreign
dignitaries. Also called VIP security.
 Operational Security- This involves the protection
of processes, formulas, and patents, industrial and
manufacturing activities from espionage,
infiltration, loss, compromise or photocopying.
 School Security- Security involving not only
facilities but also the students or pupils.
132. The following are principles of Physical Security,
EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous security
measures.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the registration fee
for each security guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo Php
Payment of fees and licenses
 For Agency
 The sum of two thousand pesos (P 2,000.00) as
national license fee payable to the National
Treasurer.
 The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as payment
for registration fee for each security guard
employed.
 For Individual
 One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per year for
Security Consultant,Security Officer and Private
Detectives
 Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for Security Guard
payable at the Chief Finance Office, HQ PNP.
134. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
authority that the person described is cleared to access and
classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will
remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years
 Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
135. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers
and penetrators of restricted areas or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan
136. The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
137. Which among the following is not an advantage of a
full-view fence, except:
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A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids
the intruder in planning
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the
movements of persons in the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could prevent
concealment of the intruder.
D. None of these
138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety
bond which shall answer for any valid and legal claims
against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is
the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
 Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards – P100,000.00
o Agency with 500-799 guards – P150,000.00
o Agency with 800-1000 guards – P200,000.00
This bond shall answer for any valid and legal claims against
such agency filed by aggrieved party.
139. What type of investigation involves all aspect and
details about the circumstances of a person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
 Partial Background Investigation - investigation of the
background of the individual but limited only to some
of the circumstances of his personal life.
140. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security
and its relevance to their work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security Survey
141. It is under physical security which provides sufficient
illumination to areas during hours of darkness.
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable Lighting
 Standby Lighting- This system is similar to continuous
lighting but it is turn on manually or by special device
or other automatic means.
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of stationary or
portable, manually operated searchlights. The
searchlights may be lighted continuously during the
hours of darkness nor only as needed, it is just a
supplementary to other protective or security Lighting.
 Emergency Lighting- This standby lighting may be
utilized in the event of electric failure, either due to
local equipment or commercial failure.
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common type consisting
of series of fixed luminous flood a given area
continuously with overlap
142. In order to be qualified as a Security Consultant, you
must have ____ year/s experience in the operation and
management of security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 years
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed
firearm is needed after operating for six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2
B. 1:5 D. 1:1
 A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas B. Barrier D. Energy Barrier
where insects predominate?
 Perimeter Barrier- A medium or structure which
A. Mercury vapor lamp defines the physical limits of an installation or area to
B. Sodium vapor Lamp restrict or impeded access thereto
C. Quartz lamp  Animal Barrier – Animals are used in partially providing
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp a guarding system like dogs and geese.
 Energy Barrier – It is the employment of mechanical,
 Amber color does not attract insects at night. electrical, electronic energy imposes a deterrent to
entry by the potential intruder.
145. What is an act governing the organization and
management of private security agency, company guard 154. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to
force and government security forces? secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards on
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587 a full time basis.
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487 A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations
146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or
concertina. Chain link are for ______.  Tower/Guard Tower – house-like structures above
the perimeter barriers. It gives a psychological
A. Solid structure effect to violators.
B. Permanent structure
C. Least permanent structure 155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or uniform
D. Semi- permanent structure member of the PNP honorably discharged/separated or
retired from the service are exempted from the requirements
 Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent) of a private detective. The statement is-
 Concertina Wire Fences (Least Permanent) A. False C. Absolutely True
B. Partially True D. Maybe False
147. It is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC &
LAC since it includes thorough and complete investigation 156. The following are the areas to be lighted:
of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s a. Parking Areas;
life is conducted? b. Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
A. Personnel Security Investigation d. Vehicular Gates; and
B. Background Investigation e. Susceptible Areas.
C. Partial Background Investigation
D. Complete Background Investigation A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
148. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a
perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel area to 157. An additional overhead of barbed wire placed on
afford better observation of the installation refers to: vertical perimeter fences fencing upwards and outward with
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary zone a 45* angle with three to four strands of barbed wires spread
B. Open zone D. Free zone 6” apart.
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these

158. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief

or local mayor to have police authority within their assigned
149. The extension period for a license to operate issued area of responsibility?
upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of
guards is: A. When there is an employee’s strike
A. 1 month C. 6 months B. When the company is in retrenchment
B. 2 years D. 1 year C. During times of emergency
D. When there is a crime committed inside the
150. Which of the following types of lock is generally used establishment
in car doors?
A. Warded lock C. Lever lock 159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction
B. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination lock of this record does not have the same value as the original.

151. Which among the following aspects of Security is the A. Vital Documents
weakest of them all? B. Important Documents
A. Physical security C. Useful Documents
B. Personnel security D. Non- Essential Documents
C. Personal Security
D. Document and information security Types of Documents

152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-
A. Partially Correct C. Partially Wrong
B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely Wrong
153. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of
restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an
installation.
 Class II – Important Documents- This includes records,
the reproduction of which will close considerable
expense and labor, or considerable delay.
 Class III – Useful Document- This include records whose
loss might cause inconvenience but could b readily
 replaced and which would not in the meantime present 169. The minimum number of guards required for a
an insurmountable obstacle company security force is:
 Class IV – Non-essential Documents- These records are A. 1000 C. 30
daily files, routine in nature even if lost or destroyed, B. 100 D. 200
will not affect operation or administration. This class
represents the bulk of the records which should not be  For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred (200) and
attempted to protect. maximum of one thousand (1,000).

160. It is the importance of firm with reference to the 170. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby
national economy and security. keys can open a group of locks.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying
A. Relative Operation B. Change Key D. Grand Master Key
B. Relative Security
C. Relative Vulnerability  Key control- is the management of keys in a plant or
D. Relative Criticality of Operation business organization to prevent unauthorized
individual access to the keys.
161. A new Private security agency that has been issued a  Change key - A key to single lock within a master keyed
temporary license to operate is good for how many years? system.
A. One C. Two  Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all the locks
B. Three D. Four within a particular area or grouping in a given facility.
 Master Key - A special key capable of opening a series
 PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular license to of locks.
operate good for two (2) years  Grand Master Key - A key that will open everything
involving two or more master key groups.
162. The removal of the security classification from the
classified matter. 171. PADPAO stands for:
A. Segregation C. Declassify A. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective
B. Reclassify D. Exclusion Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency
Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency
163. The form of security that employs cryptography to Operators, Inc.
protect information refers to: D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective
A. Document and information security Associations Operators, Inc.
B. Operational security
C. Communication security 172. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to
D. Industrial security safeguard life and assets by various methods and device.
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter Security
164. The following are exempted from Pre-licensing B. Operational Security D. Security
training.
1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws 173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a security
2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science in officer.
Criminology;
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or any PNP A. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training
training school; Course.
4. Veterans and retired military/police personnel; and B. Holder of Masters Degree.
5. Honorably discharged military/police personnel. C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
D. Physically or mentally fit.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
174. These provides access within the perimeter barrier and
165. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or should be locked and guarded.
Operator of a security agency is:
A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old A. Gates and Doors
B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old B. Side-Walk Elevator
C. Utilities Opening
 18 years Old- minimum age qualification for SG. D. Clear Zones
 50 years Old – Maximum age qualification for SG.
175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and
166. The following are the categories of automatic alarm deficiency in all aspects of security, with the corresponding
system, EXCEPT: recommendation is:
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye Device A. security inspection C. security education
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps B. security training D. security survey

167. Which of the following is NOT a false key? 176. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances
A. picklock or similar tool . of license for private security personnel?
B. A duplicate key of the owner. A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner. B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
D. Any key other than those intended by the owner.
168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least: 177. What is the most common type of human hazard?
A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs. A. Sabotage C. Pilferage
B. 1000 lbs. D. 600 lbs. B. Theft D. Subversion

Page 14 of 37
178. What is the security force maintained and operated by person to engage in employing security guard or detective,
any private company/ corporation for its own security or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage or
requirements? operate a private detective agency.
A. GSU C. CSF A. Secretary of DILG
B. PSA D. PD B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission
Types of Security Guard D. President

 Private Security- A security guard hired by client 186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that
belonging to private security agency. the distances between strands will not exceed _______and at
 Government Security- A security guard recruited and least one wire will be interlock vertical and midway between
employed by the government posts.
A. 3 inches C. 6 inches
B. 4 inches D. 7 inches

179. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of 187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established between the
security? perimeter barrier and structure within the protected areas.
A. Limited C. Restricted A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or more
B. Special D. Exclusive B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet or more

 Restricted Area - It refers to an area in which
personnel or vehicles are controlled for reasons of
security.
 Limited Area - It is a restricted area in which lesser
degree of control is required than in an exclusion area
but which the security interest would be
compromised by uncontrolled movement.
180. File room is a cubicle in a building constructed a little
lighter than a vault but bigger size. One of the specifications
of file room should be ___feet high.
A. 12 C. 36
B. 24 D. 48
20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier and exterior
structure. (Outside)
188. Which among the following statements is FALSE?
A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that
intruders can be seen, identified or apprehend.
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for guards to
identify employees during night time.
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological fear, which
serves as a deterrent.
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the number of
stationary guards.

Specifications of File Room
 Should be 12 feet high
 Interior cubage should not be more than 10,000
cubic feet
 Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour
181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet long and 3 feet
diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet
182. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder
while the guard remains in the comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection
 Controlled Lighting Type- The lighting is focused on
the pile of items, rather than the back ground.
183. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers
placed between the potential intruder and the object,
person and matter being protected?
189. The highest rank in security agency organizational
structure:
A. Security Executive Director
B. Chief Security Director
C. Security Staff Director
D. Security Staff Director
Security Management Staff
 Security Director (SD)-Agency Manager/Chief Security
officer- responsible for the entire operation and
administration/management of the security agency
 Security Executive Director (SED) - Assistant agency
manager/Assistant chief security officer- automatically
the security executive director, assists the agency
security director and takes operational and
administrative management when the manager is
absent.
 Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff director for
operation and administration- He is also responsible for
the conduct of investigation and training.

A. Communication security 190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance

B. Document security container usually a part of the building structure use to keep,
C. Physical security and protect cash, documents and valuables materials.
D. Barrier A. Vault C. Safe
B. File Room D. None of these
184. The following are the purposes of Security Survey,
EXCEPT:
A. To ascertain the present economic status
B. To determine the protection needed
C. To make recommendations to improve the overall 191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of
security Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
D. None of these
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate company’s Vault.
document which is issued by ____________ authorizing a B. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
 D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the 200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any activities to
guards table. test its validity.
A. Practice C. Dry run
192. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made B. Rehearsal D. Trial
capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
unauthorized access. 201. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned
A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences for duty:
B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier A. Post C. Beat
B. Area D. Route
193. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a
nearest police station of fire department.  Route - the length of street or streets, designated
A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary Alarm for patrol purposes also referred to as line beat.
B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm  Beat - an area designed for patrol purposes,
whether foot or motorized.
194. It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light  Sector - an area containing two or more beats,
rather than direction beam. They are widely used in parking routes or posts.
areas  District - a geographical subdivision of a city for
A. Street Lights C. Search Lights patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights  Area - A section or territorial division of a large
city.
195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall cease to
operate, and with ____ days after having been duly notified 202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to
of such cease operation order, shall immediately deposit all in order to catch criminals is known as:
its firearms with the FEO. A. High visibility patrol
A. 7 days C. 21 days C. Target Oriented patrol
B. 3 days D. 30 days B. Low visibility patrol
D. Decoy patrol
196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in
temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe can  Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is designed to increase
withstand 2000 0F for 30 minutes without cracking or the number of apprehension of law violator to engage
opening then it has passed the test.
in certain types of crimes
A. Fire Endurance Test  High Visibility – Marked police Car and Poilce inj
B. Fire and Impact Test Uniform. Primary objective is Crime Prevention.
C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard Test  Target Oriented Patrol - It is patrol strategy which
is directed towards specific persons or places.
Test for Fire Resistance
203. Barangay Tanod is included in what component of
 Fire Endurance Test- A safe should not have any Integrated Patrol System?
one time a temperature 350 0F.
A. Fixed Component
 Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is to determine
B. Auxiliary Component
the strength of a safe to resist the collapse of a
C. Secondary Component
building during fire.
D. Patrol Component
197. Services of any security personnel shall be terminated
on the following grounds:  Fixed Components - include the different police
station headquarters, PCP, police visibility points,
1. Expiration of contract; and traffic post.
2. Revocation of license to exercise profession;  Patrol Components - include the air patrols; the
3. Conviction of crime involving moral turpitude; line beat patrols, mobile patrols and detective
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and repressive patrols.
5. Physical and mental disability.  Auxiliary Components - include the security guards
deployed in area, the traffic enforcer, barangay
A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 tanods, volunteers and NGO’s.
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
204. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the
end of the line beat, and before returning to the point of
198. For every security guard the basic load of their Firearm origin.
is- A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation Report
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited
Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm
205. The ideal police response time is:
199. The following are the specifications of a Vault: A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick; B. 7 minutes D. 10 minutes
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of steel; and 206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches. a high potential for criminal attack or for the creation of
problem necessitating a demand for immediate police
A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III service:
B. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV A. Hazard C. Opportunity

Page 16 of 37
 B. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard B. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
 Hazard – it refers to any person, place, thing, situation, D. Mobility and stealth
or condition which, if allowed to exist may induce an
accident or cause the commission of a crime. 215. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San
Juanico Bridge?
207. The most expensive patrol method and gives the A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is: B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol 216. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the
Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau
208. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
patrol which makes the policemen less visible during the A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
night. The primary purpose is: B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917

A. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a 217. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons,
crime places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles especially
B. To have sufficient cover during night-time, be prepared to use your service firearm
C. To attract less attention and Flashlight should be-
D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
A.Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
209. The following are included in the cause and effect of possible target.
team policing. B. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a
possible target.
a. Reduce public fear on crime; C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
b. lessen the crime rate; adversary.
c. Facilitate career development; D.None of these
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.

A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
218. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when
210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific A. Arrest criminals C. Securing the area
predetermined preventive functions on a planned systematic B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money
basis:
219. The following are the duties of Patrol Supervisors:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol Make a patrol plan;
C. Low-Visibility Patrol Designate and select the members of the patrol team/s;
D. Directed deterrent Patrol Inspect the members of the patrol on the completeness;
Render hourly report of location and situation; and
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best Resolve conflicts/differences between neighbours.
penetrated by the police through.
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,

212. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to
accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The
Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24
hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. every other day shift.
213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally
prevent the desire of human being to commit crime.
A. Preventive C. Proactive
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol personnel in
their respective Area of Responsibility with definite
objectives.
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in patrolling wherein
officers and units drive around their area of
responsibility waiting for something to happen or
waiting for a call that they will respond.
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of
________________ since they can be operated very quietly
and without attracting attention.
A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon,
except when its occupants pose imminent danger of causing
death or injury to the police officer or any other person, and
that the use of firearm does not create a danger to the public
and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use. In firing
upon a moving vehicle, the following parameters should be
considered EXCEPT:
A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing suspect/s
with the police officer and other persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm in certainty
the police officer or other persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the police
officer or other p D.
The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to avoid traffic
accident.
221. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during
pat-down search, a more secure search position may be:
A. Standing position
B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet
spread apart.
D. All of these
222. All except one are the types of specialized patrol C. Counter clockwise pattern
method: D. Crisscross pattern
A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
B. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol  Clockwise Patrol Pattern - Rectangular/square size of
beat; done in the start of 8 hours tour of duty.
223. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged  Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern - Done by
by his- patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beat
not at random but with definite target location where
i. Knowledge of all problems in the community he knows his presence is necessary.
ii. Residents developed good public relations  Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol Pattern - Hazard
iii. Ability oriented patrol; Easiest to observe the movement of
iv. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area the patrol officer.
224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?  Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway intersection designed to
A. True C. False route traffic without interference, by means of a
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No system of curving ramps from one level to another, in
the form of a Four (4) leaf clover
225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is needed in
231. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol.
the police department?
EXCEPT:
A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. 30 – 300 MHz B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. Above 30 MHz C. It insures familiarization of area
D. NONE D. It promotes easier detection of crime

232. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as

 Radio waves- The radio or electromagnetic waves
well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call
travel as fast as the speed of light at 186, 000 miles per the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and
second or 300, 000 kilometers per second. keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking
 30 – 300 MHz – intended for short distances purposes?
transmission. A. German shepherd C. Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
 German Shepherd- the most frequently used and
A. It is the backbone of the police department
high scoring dog for police work
B. It is the essence of police operation
 WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and Video
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
Exploration System) – It is the system of attaching
D. It is the single largest unit in the police department that
can be eliminated miniature camera and transmitter to a search dog
which makes the dogs the eyes and ears of his
227. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance, parades and handler.
special events.
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot Patrol 233. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol A. Foot C. Automobile
B. Bicycle D. Helicopter
 Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when then there is
considerable foot movement such as business and 234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in
shopping center, family dwellings and the like. terms of number of:
o Line beat patrol – it is used in securing certain A. Superiors to whom he reports
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
portion of the road.
C. Subordinates directly reporting to him
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in checking
D. Any of these
residential buildings, business establishments,
dark alley, and parking lots. 235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from
becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities on
228. The following are patrol activities, except:
his beat.
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
B. Responding to emergency calls
B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
236. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise
and before the counter-clockwise?
229. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact
A. Straightway C. Crisscross
with the members of the community ideal in gaining the
B. Sector D. Zigzag
trust and confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol
237. The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
attack of police officer by militant, dangerous section to be
patrolled and many riots demonstration in the street.
 Automobile Patrol - It separates public from the
A. Unnecessary C. Necessary
Police.
B. Voluntary D. Redundant
230. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour
of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of
responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern

Page 18 of 37
238. A police strategy which aims to directly involve 3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in determining the
members of the community in the maintenance of peace and quality of justice to be served in a community.
order by police officers. 4th Statement- All police function had been vested to the
A. Integrated Police System patrol division.
C. Detective Beat System
B. Comparative Police System D. A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct
Community Oriented Policing System B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
Integrated Patrol System D. All statements are correct

 Considered as the best way of immersing 248. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively
policemen in various activities of a particular area implemented by police activity which-
and to demonstrate to the populace the A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less
commitment of the Police to serve and protect the emphasis on routine.
community. B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to
 It is response to the requirement of Police commit crime.C. Influences favorable individual and group
Visibility. attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of
Detective Beat System - enhancing the efficiency and apprehension.
effectiveness of the PNP’s investigation capability
249. What is the new concept, police strategy which
239. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the integrates the police and community interests into a working
least likely to become completely a function of automobile relationship so as to produce the desired organizational
patrol is the checking of- objectives of peacemaking?
A. Security of business establishment. A. Preventive patrol C. Community Relation
B. Street light outrages. B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement. 250. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most
ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue
240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen operations?
in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it usually- A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
A. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman. B. Helicopter D. Horse
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the patrolman out of  Automobile – To carry an Extra equipment by the
sight or hearing when quick mobilization is needed. Patrol Officers

241. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the- 251. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
A. Opportunity for graft. disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
B. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law. Patrol officer is:
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads. A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
242. Team Policing is said to be originated in________: C. No further search may be made.
A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
B. Vienna, Austria D. London, England
252. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when
243. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing troops
patrolling: to fall back to their secondary positions?
A. Egyptians C. English A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
B. Chinese D. American B. Truncheon D. Shield

244. Psychology of Omniprescense means______.  Tear gas - may be utilized to break up formations
A. Low Visibility C. High Visibility or groupings of demonstrations who continue to
B . Reactive D. Proactive be aggressive and refused to disperse despite
earlier efforts.
245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 13th floor
building. Which of the following should be the first thing to 253. The factors to be considered in determining the number
do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene? of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the following:
A. Urge no to jump a. Size of the area;
B. Call nearest relative b. Topography;
C. Clear the area c. Crime rate and;
D. Report immediately to Station d. Possible problems to be encountered.

46. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle A. a, c, d C. a, b, d

patrol over the other patrol methods? B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
A. Low cost C. Visibility
B. Speed D. Security 254. The patrol strategy which is best on populous areas
such as markets, malls, and ports is:
247. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol officers are A. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol
different from ordinary Police Officer. B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes patrol
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of Police
Organization.
255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every 264. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of
intersection until reaching the point of origin is following activities:
what pattern? A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag B. Night Shift D. None of these
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
265. Time between the call of the Police to arrival at the
256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol: scene of an incident:
A. Can report regularly to the command center. A. Response Time C. Call Time
B. Can operate quietly and without attracting B. Duration Time D. Critical Time
attention.
C. C. It is inexpensive to operate .  Response time - It refers to the running time of the
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol dispatched patrol car from his position where the
cars. assignment was received and the arrival at the scene.

266. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is:

257. The following are advantages of the use of Radio in
A. 20% C. 40%
Police Work:
B. 25% D. 50%
I. Simple Installation Process;  Criminal Investigation – 15%
II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down;
 Traffic Function – 10%
III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;
 Vice and Juvenile Related Functions – 10%
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission of
 Administrative Function – 10%
classified operational information.
 Auxilliary Functions – 5%
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
267. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot,
including the power to use all necessary and legal means to
258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after patrol is-
accomplish such end.
A. To integrate the police and the community interest into a
working relationship.B. To remind the patrol on the strict A. Dragnet Operation
observance of the PNP Operational Procedures.
B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. To assess its conduct and make necessary corrective
C. High-Risk Arrest
measures on defects noted.
D. All of the Above D. High Risk Stop
 Dragnet Operation - is a police operation purposely
259. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and to seal-off the probable exit points of fleeing
assemble at the police unit headquarters at least _______ suspects from the crime scene to prevent their
before the start of their shift for accounting- escape.
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour  High Risk Arrest - is the actual restraint of armed
B. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes persons following a high-risk stop.
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate response to
block the escape of lawless elements from a crime
scene, and is also established when nearby
checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit
260. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze operations.
upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals alike
that the police are always existing to respond to any situation 268. Which among the following activities during post-
at a moment’s notice and he will just around the corner at all patrol or post-deployment phase is not included?
times. This statement refers to:
A. Formation & Accounting
A. Police Omnipresence B. Inspection & recall of Equipment
B. Police Patrol C. Debriefing/Report Submission
C. Police Discretion D. Briefing
D. Integrated Patrol
269. It refers to a computer that is installed inside a patrol
261. A patrol beat refers to a: car which allows patrol officer to have an access from the
Headquarters files and other Law Enforcement Agencies
A. Number of crimes to be solved which are used in order to expedite their operation.
B. Location of police headquarters
C. Number of residence to be protected A. Mobile Data Terminal
D. Geographical area to be protected B. Vehicle-Mounted TV
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan
262. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a D. CCTV
manner designed to help them blend the neighborhood
where they are deployed.  Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a Video Camera
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely True which is attached and installed in a patrol car with a
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No high-resolution and wide angle lens.
 High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan – It refers to a
263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:
heavy duty light that can provide two (2) million
A. One Man Patrol Car candle power of light.
B. Two Man Patrol Car
270. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was
C. Foot Patrol
formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done at the
D. Canine Patrol

Page 20 of 37
last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the 279. The type of Patrol which requires special skills and
area of responsibility of the patrol? training:
A. Straight C. Crisscross A. TV C. Air
B. Clockwise D. Counter clockwise B. Automobile D. Foot

271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments 280. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was
of an individual for weapons only. initiated on:
A. Frisking C. Search A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7, 1901
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down Search B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17, 1901

 Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief stopping of an

individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on 281. In police communication, 10-74 means:
reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose A. Negative C. Need Assistance
of determining the individual’s identity and resolving B. Caution D. Unable to copy
the officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
Some APCO TEN SIGNALS
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of
the beat not at random but with definite target location  10 – 0 Caution
where he knows his presence is necessary.  10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag  10 – 50 Accident
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross  10 – 70 Fire Alarm
 10 – 78 Need Assistance
273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following  10 – 90 Bank Alarm
are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken. 282. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police
B. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area omnipresence:
C. Inspire more Public confidence.
D. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout A. Target Oriented Patrol
of his beat better. B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
274. The word Patrol was derived from the French word D. Directed deterrent Patrol
________which means to go through paddles.
A. Patroulier C. Patroul 283. Police Community Precincts are mandatorily led by an
B. Politeia D. Politia officer with the rank of _______ with a minimum of 30
personnel including the commander divided into 3 shifts.
275. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. No one should have more than one boss. A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent
B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom. B. Supt. To Sr. Supt.
C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can effectively C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt.
supervise. D. C/Insp. To Supt.
D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
to subordinates. 284. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times
more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
276. Which among the following Patrol Method is A. One thousand times C. One hundred times
appropriate when responding to quick emergency call? B. Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. Automobile Patrol
B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol 285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another
through common medium and channel.
277. The following are the advantages of Regular post. A. Information C. Communication
B. Police Communication D. Radio
I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly familiar with
the various post conditions; 286. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
II. Patrol officer takes more pride and interest in authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
improving the conditions on his post resulting commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
in better public relations and cooperation from legitimate purposes.
the residents; A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place
III. Favoritism will be lessened because of B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area
transitory assignments; and
IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced, since a  Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit) - (also termed
steady post is an indication of public in the US as fresh pursuit) immediate, recent chase or
acceptance of his work. follow-up without material interval for the purpose of
taking into custody any person wanted by virtue of a
A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV warrant, or one suspected to have committed a recent
B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV offense while fleeing from one police jurisdictional
boundary.
278. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses  Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or projected spot
of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation. Who is where the armed and dangerous person or persons
the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS? would pass or likely to pass and so tactically located as
A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo Pena to gain calculated advantage against said person or
B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene Sarmiento persons.

 Dir. Almajose – First Chief of Mobile Patrol in 287. The advisable cruising speed in automobile patrol
Manila. ranges from:
 A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph  Span of Control - refers to the number of officers
B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph or subordinates that a Superior supervises without
regard to the effectiveness or efficiency of the
supervision.
 Delegation of Authority - is the assignment of
288. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations: tasks, duties, and responsibilities to subordinates
while at the same time giving them the power or
A. Crime Prevention
right to control, command, make decisions, or
B. Preservation of Peace and Order
otherwise act in performing the delegated
C. Law enforcement
responsibilities.
D. All of these
 Chain of Command - the arrangement of officers
from top to bottom on the basis of rank or position
 Preservation of peace and order - It is the
and authority
fundamental obligation of the Police and it is the
 Command Responsibility - dictates that immediate
most important function performed by the patrol
commanders shall be responsible for the effective
service
supervision and control of their personnel and
289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a patrol strategy unit.
called:
A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol 296. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit
B. Preventive Patrol D. Proactive Patrol crime as a result of patrol.
A.Crime prevention
290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident B. Crime intervention
faster but undetected, then the best patrol method that he C. Crime suppression
should employ is: D.Crime deterrence
A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol 297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate when
mobility is needed in small alleys?
291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a
person that enables another to victimize him: A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV
A. Instrumentality C. Opportunity B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
B. Motive D. Capability
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area
 Motive - It is the basis why the people will commit
crime or it is what induces the people to act. 298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary
 Instrumentality - it is the means used in executing the objective of patrol activity is:
crime A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the community
292. The factors to be considered in determining the number C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the following, D. Visibility and Omniprescence.
except:
A. Size of the area 299. The following are benevolent services performed by the
B. Topography Patrol officers:
C. Possible problems to be encountered I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
D. Neither of them II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
293. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the
people together in a cooperative manner in order to prevent
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
crime:
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
300. All but one are the dogs best suited for police work
except:
294. The theory in patrol which states that police officers
A. Askals C. Chihuahua
should conduct overt police operations in order to
B. Rottweiler D. All of these
discourage people from committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
301. What law provides for the creation of the National
B. Low police visibility theory Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
C. Low profile theory A. EO 389 C. EO 1012
D. Maximum deterrence theory B. EO 1040 D. EO 246

295. The principle of patrol force organization which states  EO 389- ordered that the Philippine Constabulary be
that patrol officers should be under the command of only one of the four services of the Armed Forces of the
one man refers to: Philippines, enacted on December 23, 1940
A. Span of control  EO 1012- transferred to the city and municipal
B. Unity of command government the operational supervision and direction
C. Chain of command over all INP units assigned within their locality; issued
D. Command responsibility on July 10, 1985
 EO 1040- transferred the administrative control and
supervision of the INP from the Ministry of National
Defense to the National Police Commission
Organization Principles 302. A person who breaks intercepted codes.

Page 22 of 37
A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer  CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and other
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker Offenses against National Security
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children Against
 Cryptography- It is defined as an art and science of Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act
codes and ciphers.
 Cryptographer- It refers to a person who is highly 310. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
skilled in converting message from clear to authority that the person described is cleared to access and
unintelligible forms by use of codes and cipher. classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will
remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
303. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group A. 1 year C. 5 years
organized to harass the enemy in a hot war situation. B. 2 years D. 4 years
A. Guerilla C. Propagandist
B. Provocateur D. Strong Arm  Final Clearance – 5 years

Kinds of Action Agent 311. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent
 Espionage Agent- Agent who clandestinely procure or Buanko with an evaluation rating of D2?
collect information. A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true information
 Propagandist- Agents who molds the attitudes, B. Unreliable source – probably true information
opinions, and actions of an individual group or C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
nation. D. Not Usually reliable source – probably true information
 Saboteur- Agents who undertakes positive actions
312. It is a process or method of obtaining information from
against an unfriendly power, resulting in the loss of
a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
use temporarily or permanently of an article or
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging
others. B. Elicitation D. Tactical Interrogation
 Strong Arm- Agent who is made to provide special
protection during dangerous phase of clandestine  Elicitation - The process of extracting information from
operations. a person believes to be in possession of vital
 Provocateur- Agent who induces an opponent to act information without his knowledge or suspicion.
to his own detriment  Bugging - The use of an equipment or tool to listen and
record discreetly conversations of other people.
304. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that  Wiretapping - A method of collecting information thru
will correspond to the operation.
interception of telephone conversation.
A. Multiple C. Natural
B. Artificial D. Unusual 313. The term of office of the members of the PLEB is
_______
 Multiple- Includes different cover
A. 6 years
 Natural- Actual or True Background. B. 3 years
C. 6 years without re-appointment
305. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
D. None of the above
i. Intelligence Officer can submit his information report
any time since it is to processes.
ii. All intelligence information’s are collected by
314. He directs the organization in conducting the
clandestine method. clandestine activity.
iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium A. Target C. Sponsor
size police station. B. Agent D. Support Agent
iv. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information
by initiating good public relations.  Target- Person, place or things against which the
clandestine activity is to be conducted.
306. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly  Agent- It refers to a person who conducts the
prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s discretion clandestine Operations to include Principal Agents,
since it tends to collect intelligence information. Action Agents, and Support Agents.
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Wholly True D. Wholly False 315. It refers to an associate of the subject who follows him
to detect surveillance.
307. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful A. Convoy C. Decoy
accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused B. Subjct D. Surveillant
acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes C. Yes  Decoy- A person or object used by the subject in
B. No D. Maybe No attempt to elude Surveillant
 Surveillant – is the plainclothes investigator assigned to
308. In selection and recruitment of informers the best factor make the observation.
to be considered is:  Subject – is who or what is observed. It can be a
A. Age C. Access person, place, property, and vehicle, group of people,
B. Educational Attainment D. Body built
organization or object.
309. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act” 316. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who
which prohibits wiretapping in our country. leaks false information to the enemy.
A. RA 1700 C. RA 4200 A. Double Agent C. Expendable Agent
B. RA 7610 B. Agent of Influence D. Penetration Agent
D. CA 616
Types of Agent used in collecting of Information
 RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act
  Agent of Influence- Agent who uses authority to letters opened and was successful in curtailing the
gain information decline of esprit de corps and morale of his men.
 Agent in Place- Agent who has been recruited
within a highly sensitive target 320. There are four categories of classified matters; top
 Penetration Agent- Agent who have reached to the secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish one
enemy, gather information and able to get back against the other, their folder consists of different colors.
without being caught. What will be the color of the document which requires the
highest degree of protection?
 Double Agent- An enemy agent, who has been
A. Red C. Black
taken into custody, turned around and sent back
B. Blue D. Green
where he came from as an agent of his captors.
 Secret (RED)
317. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
 Confidential (BLUE)
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
 Restricted (BLACK)
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
321. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical
A. Internal Security Intelligence
indication of the beginning of Intelligence?
B. Public Safety Intelligence
A. Number 13:17 C. Number 3:17
C. Intelligence
B. Number 17:13 D. Number 17:3
D. Preventive Intelligence
322. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of
 Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT) – refers to the
illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was
knowledge essential to the maintenance of peace and
deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of
order.
time to find out the authenticity of such reports.
 Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) – refers to the A. Social assignments
knowledge essential to ensure the protection of lives B. Work assignments
and properties C. Organizational assignments
D. Residential assignments
318. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and  Work Assignment – getting employed where the
interpretation of all available information. What is investigator can observe the activities of the subject at
considered as the core of intelligence operations? his place of work.
A. Dissemination C. Analysis
 Social Assignments – Frequent places of entertainment
B. Mission D. Planning
and amusement habitually being visited by the subject.
319. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military
 Personal Contact Assignment – the investigator
Espionage".
A. Alexander the Great required to develop the friendship and trust of the
B. Frederick the Great subject.
C. Karl Schulmeister  Multiple Assignment – The investigator is tasked to
cover two (2) or more of the above specific
Reliability of Information Accuracy of Information Source of the Information assignments simultaneously, it can produce
CODE: CUFNUR CODE: CPPDIT
extensive information with minimum expenses but
more prone to compromise.
A – Completely Reliable 1 – Confirmed By Other T – Direct Observation by a commander
Sources or Unit
323. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with
defending the organization against its criminal enemies?
A. Line Intelligence C. Counter-Intelligence
B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration or resident
B. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical Intelligence
agent

 Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is the intelligence

C - Fairly Reliable
D – Not Usually Reliable
E – Unreliable
3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper or PNP
information which directly contributes to the
personnel in operation accomplishment of specific objectives and
immediate in nature.
4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a captured enemy or
 Strategic Intelligence - This is intelligence
agent information which is not immediate operational
but rather long range.
5 – Improbable X – Observation by a government or

civilian employee or official 324. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report

which is “usually from a reliable source and improbable
F – Reliability Cannot Be 6 – Truth Cannot Be Y – Observation by a member of information”?
Judged Judged populace
A. C-5 C. B-5
B. B-3 D. C-3
Z - Documentary
EVALUATION GUIDE FOR COLLECTED
INFORMATION
D. Arthur Wellesley
REMINDER: You should LEARN BY
 Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the "Greatest
HEART this Evaluation Guide
Military Spymaster at All Time".
 Karl Schulmeister- famous as "Napoleon's Eye". He 325. It is a form of investigation in which the operative
was credited for establishing counter intelligence assumes a cover in order to obtain information
conducted against spies. A. Overt operation C. Undercover assignment
 Alexander the great - He was able to identify those B. Covert operation D. clandestine operation
disloyal ones by ordering the communication

Page 24 of 37
326. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered
by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and
doubtfully true information?
A. D C. C-4
B. C-5 D. D-5
327. The following must be observed during surveillance:
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
A. a, c, d C. b, d, e
B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
328. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
A. Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
B. Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
C. Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance
vehicle
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
329. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the
anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted for
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a
certain location.
A. Stake out C. Rough Shadowing
B. Shadowing D. surveillance
 Surveillance – is the covert, discreet observation of
people and places for the purpose of obtaining
information concerning the identities or activities of
subjects.
 Moving Surveillance or Shadowing or tailing – simply
the act of following a person.
 Rough Shadowing – employed without special
precautions, the subject maybe aware of the
surveillance; employed also when the subject is a
material witness and must be protected from harm
or other undesirable influences.
330. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes
________ forces.
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
B. Neutral D. Unfriendly
331. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United
Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of its old
post office box number.
A. Security Service (MI-5)
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6)
C. Government Communication
Headquarters
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
UK Intelligence Agency
•Security Service (MI-5 or Military Intelligence Section 5) –
Internal Counter-Intelligence and Security agency also
responsible for internal Security of United Kingdom.
• Government Communications Headquarters (GCHQ) -
responsible for providing signals intelligence (SIGINT) and
information assurance to the UK government and armed
forces.
•Defense Intelligence Staff (DIS) - is a collector of
intelligence through its Intelligence Collection Group (ICG)
332. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as
minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and
censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence
accounting.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte C. Wilhem Steiber
B. AKBAR D. Delilah
 Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the right place is
worth 20,000 men in the field". He organized two
Bureau of Interest.
 Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise master of
Hindustan employed more than 4,000 agents for the
sole purpose of bringing him the truth that his throne
might rest upon it.
 Delilah- A biblical personality who was able to gain
information by using her beauty and charm.
333. If the information or documents are procured openly
without regard as to whether the subject of the investigation
becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
 Covert Operation – Information are procured
clandestinely
334. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the
area and residence of the individual being investigated.
A. CBI C. NAC
B. PBI D. LAC
 National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
supplemented by investigation of the records and files
of the following agencies: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau
of Immigration and Deportation and other agency.
 Background Investigation – a check made on an
individual usually seeking employment through
subjects records in the police files, educational
institutions, place of residence, and former employers.
 Complete Background Investigation- it is a type of BI
which is more comprehensive, that consist of detailed
information regarding the subject.
335. The end product resulting from the collection,
evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of all
available information regarding the activities of criminals
and other law violators for the purpose of affecting their
arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan to commit
crimes.
A. Police Intelligence
B. National Intelligence
C. Miltary Intelligence
D. Departmental Intelligence
 National Intelligence- integrated product of intelligence
developed by all government departments concerning
the broad aspect of national policy and national
security.
 Department of Intelligence – the intelligence required
by department or agencies of the government to
execute its mission and discharge its responsibilities.
 Military Intelligence – refers to the knowledge by the
military institution essential in the preparation and
execution of military plans, policies and programs.
336. It is considered as the most secured method of
disseminating the information to the user of classified
matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing C. Conference
B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
337. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form
a logical picture or theory.
A. Integration C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
  Recording – is the reduction of information into
writing or some other form of graphical
representation and the arranging of this
information into groups related items.
 Evaluation – is the determination of the pertinence
of the information to the operation, reliability of
the source of or agency and the accuracy of the
information.
 Analysis- This is the stage in which the collected
information is subjected to review in order to
satisfy significant facts and derive conclusion there
from.
 Interpretation- Process of determining the
significance of new information in the possible
alternatives.
338. It refers to the person who conducts the clandestine
Operation.
A. Agent C. Support Agent
B. Action Agent D. Principal Agent
 Principal Agent- Leader or management Agent in
clandestine operation usually undertaken by the
case officer.
 Support Agent- Agent who is engaged in activities
which supports the clandestine operations and or
the action agent in his operations
339. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained from
clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B. Visible
D. Covert
340. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from completely reliable
sources and Improbable true.
B. The information comes from Unreliable sources
and probably true.
C. The information comes from Fairly Reliable
sources and doubtfully true.
D. The information comes from Unreliable sources
and possibly true.
341. The following are methods of Surveillance Detection,
EXCEPT:
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace
B. Convoy and Watching Procession
C. Entering Crowded buildings and concealment to
movement
D. Retracting the cause and Window Shopping
343. The process of assigning higher category of document
or information according to the degree of security needed.
A. Reclassify
C. Classify
B. Upgrading
D. Declassify
 Classify – Assigning of Information or material to
one of the four security classification after
determining that such information requires
security as prescribed by PNP regulation 200-012.
 Reclassify – The act of changing the assigned
classification of a document or material.
 Declassify – The removal of the security
classification from classified document or material.
 Compartmentation – The granting of access to
classified document or information only to
properly cleared persons when such classified
information is required in the performance of their
official duties, and restricting it to specific physical
confines when feasible.
Page 26 of 37
345. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine
if the information is true and-
A. Reliable C. Accurate
B. Correct D. Probably true
347. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where
police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting
purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B. Live Drop D. Decoy
 Log – chronological records of activities that took place
in the establishment under surveillance.
 Live Drop- Refers to a place where agents or informants
leave their messages to the other Agents.
348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which
includes some or all of the circumstances.
A. National Agency Check
B. Background Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is encouraged. The
statement is –
A. Yes C. NO
B. Absolutely Correct D. False
350. What specialist group of CIA that was established to
research, create and manage technical collection discipline
and equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service
B. Directorate of Intelligence .
C. Directorate of Support
D. Directorate of Science and Technology
 National clandestine Service (Formerly known as
Directorate of Operations)- responsible for
collecting intelligence mainly from clandestine
sources and covert action.
 Directorate of Intelligence (DI)- Responsible for
providing timely and accurate all source of
intelligence analysis.
 Directorate of Support- Provides everything that the
CIA needs to accomplish its mission.
351. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a
certain establishment or building.
A. Access list C. Black List
B. Blue Print D. Silver list
352. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of
equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or
dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion C. Sabotage
B. Espionage D. None of these
 Subversion - acts designed to destabilize or
overthrow the authority of a ruling power.
 Espionage - the secret  collection of information, or
intelligence, that the source of such information
wishes to protect from disclosure.
353. In order to secure the intelligence the surveillance
Operation center, the stationary surveillance must
_________ before leaving.
A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
B. Conduct Debriefing
C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
354. It deals with the demographic and psychological
aspects of groups of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence
B. Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
D. Political Intelligence
 Political Intelligence – deals with Domestic and
Foreign affairs and relation of government operations
 Economic Intelligence – deals with the extent and
utilization of Natural and Human resources to the
industrial potential of the Nations
 Biographical Intelligence – deals with individual
personalities who have actual possession of power
 Geographical Intelligence – deals with the natural as
well as manmade features of the physical
environment of man considered from the point in view
of military operations
 Scientific Intelligence – deals with the progress of the
research and development as it affects the economic
and military potential of a nation.
355. Which among the following principles of intelligence
deemed to be the most important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous security measures
B. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
356. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its
suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Casing C. Loose Tail
B. Close Tail D. Stakeout
 Loose tail – employed where a general impression
of the subject’s habits and associates is required.
 Close tail – extreme precautions are taken against
losing the subject is employed where constant
surveillance is necessary.
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means that –
A. Termination of Surveillance
B. Actual Surveillance
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. On target Requirements and Instruction
358. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
A. Women C. Double Crosser
B. False D. Anonymous
 Anonymous-Unidentified or unknown informants
 False Informant- reveals information of no
consequences, value or stuff connected within thin
air.
 Frightened Informants- weakest link in criminal
chain, motivated by anxiety.
 Self-Aggrandizing- moves around the center of
criminals delight in surprising the police about bits
of information.
 Mercenary- Information for sale needed something
for exchange of information.
 Double-Crosser- He wants to get more information
from the police more than he gives.
 Legitimate- operators of business desire to give
information for legitimate reasons.
359. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.
A. Coding C. Encrypting
B. Decoding D. Reclassify
 Coding-It is the changing of message from plain
clear text to unintelligible form also known as
“Encrypting”.
360. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
knowledge of the __________.
A. The strength of the area where the information will be
gathered
B. Where they will be collecting the information
C. Available sources of information
D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
361. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of
Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered as
the greatest military strategist.
A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal
B. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
362. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
acceptance?
A. Yes C. True
B. No D. False
363. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Criminal Intelligence
C. Public Safety Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
364. If the information or documents are procured openly
without regard as to whether the subject of the investigation
becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Clandestine
B. Surveillance D. Covert Operation
365. Which of the following is the most common reason
why an informer gives information to the police?
A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
B. Revenge D. As a good citizen
366. A method of collecting information thru interception of
telephone conversation.
A. Bugging C. Wire Tapping
B. Code name D. NONE
367. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal
groups susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the
police organization.
A. Conclusion C. Capabilities
B. Vulnerabilities D. Evaluation
368. It is the general statement describing the current police
internal defense, internal development, psychological
operation and responsibilities of the organization
A. Area of operation
B. Capabilities of organized crime
C. the crime situation
D. the mission
369. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information
concerning organized crime and other major police
problems.
A. Military Intelligence C. Military Information
B. Police Intelligence D. Police Investigation
370. The term appropriate for someone who gives
information in exchange for a reward is:
 A. Informer C. Informant
B. Special informer D. Confidential Informant
 Informants- Any person who hand over information
to the agents which is relevant to the subject. The
informant may openly give the information
clandestinely and choose to remain anonymous.
371 Developing security consciousness among policemen
forms part of enhancing _______.
A. Line intelligence C. strategic intelligence
B. counter intelligence D. artificial intelligence
372. It is a type of Support Agent who obtains money when
needed for operational use.
A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe house Keeper
B. Communication Agent D. Surveillant
 Surveillant- Agent who observes persons and places of
operations of interest.
 Safe house Keeper- Agents who manages and
maintains a safe house for clandestine operations like
meetings, safe heavens, training, briefing, and
debriefing.
 Communication Agent- Agent who is detailed as
securing of clandestine communications.
A. Actual Surveillance
B. Collation of Report and Analysis of Significant
Observation
C. Preparation of reports and its submission
D. Observe time
385. Factors to be considered in choosing a “Safe House”
EXCEPT:
A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability
B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and location of
Police Outpost
C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and Escape
Routes
D. Operational Technical Requirements
386. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
A. Classified information must not be discussed with
friends and members of the family.
B. Classified information should be known only by one
person.
C. Cabinets with classified documents must be secured
with padlocks and security measures at all times.
D. All classified documents must be safeguarded.
387. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
A. Surveillant C. Subject
B. Interrogator D. Interviewee

373. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and Possibly  Interrogator- person who conduct Interrogation
true?
A. C-2 C. E-2 388. The following are objectives of Casing EXCEPT:
B. E-3 D. C-3 A. Security of an Agent
B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation of Search
374. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and D. Verification
the protection of information against espionage, subversion
and sabotage. 389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine
A. Passive Intelligence if the information is true and-
B. Counter Intelligence A. Reliable C. Correct
C. Line Intelligence B. Probably true D. Accurate
D. Demographic Intelligence
390. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to block
379 All except one are interrelated to one another. the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in
A. Fixed Surveillance espionage, subversion, and sabotage.
B. Stakeout Surveillance A. Counter Intelligence
C. Stationary Surveillance B. Passive Counter Intelligence
D. Active Surveillance C. Active Counter Intelligence
D. Intelligence
380. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the
different hang out places of the subject.  Passive CI Measures – protection of classified and
A. Social Assignment sensitive information to the unauthorized through
B. Residential Assignment secrecy, communication security, and other various
C. Work Assignment safeguards.
D. None of these
391. All EXCEPT one should be considered in conducting
381. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other stationary surveillance.
material gain he is to receive. A. Preparation
A. Gratitude C. Repentance B. Financial Requirement
B. Remuneration D. Vanity C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and Security
D. Coverage of Operation
382. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
A. Director C. General 392. Undercover operation is also known as;
B. President D. Director-General A. Roping C. Bait
B. Clandestine D. Loose
383. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all
government departments concerning the broad aspect of 393. It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers.
national policy and national Security. A. Cryptography C. Cryptanalysis
A. National Intelligence B. Decipher D. Coding
B. Departmental Intelligence
C. International Intelligence 394. The protection resulting from the application of various
D. Social Intelligence measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
person in gaining information through communication.
384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means: A. Communication Security

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 B. Physical Security 408. The typical number of Detectives roughly ________ of
C. Document Security police service personnel:
D. Internal Security A. 75% C. 5 to 10%
B. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10%
397. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the
person described is cleared to access and classify matters at 409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes
appropriate levels. or those with an interstate components. The statement is:
A. Security Clearance A. Correct C. Partially Correct
B. Document Clearance B. False D. partly False
C. Interim Clearance
D. Nome of these 410. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in some
sense transgress national borders:
398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or eminent A. International Policing
threat to the life, limb, or right of the person claiming self- B. Global Policing
defense. C. National Policing
A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful Aggression D. Transnational Policing
B. Just Cause D. None of these
411. In US, he introduced police reforms to include
399. The police officer may stop an individual for the educational requirement for police officer:
purpose of conducting a spot check/accosting only when- A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir Robert Peel
A. Probable Cause Exist B. August Volmer D. O.W. Wilson
B . Notion to commit crime
C. Rational Grounds  Robert Peel – Father of Modern policing System
D. Reasonable Suspicion  O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing corruption
and introduced professionalism in Winchita,
399. X evaluates the information as usually reliable and Kansas and Chicago Police Department
probably true.
A. C-4 C. B-3 412. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
B. B-2 D. C-5 A. Law and Order
B. Knowledge is Safety
400. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of C. Serve and Protect
_____________. D. We serve with pride and Care
A. Russia C. Philippines
B. Israel D. Pakistan 413. Where do you can find the so called Police
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for police
 Russia - Federal Security Service of Russian Federation officer whose are changed of committing any form of
 Philippines- National Intelligence Coordinating Agency misconduct:
 Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence A. Northern Ireland C. England
B. China D. Japan

401. Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______ 414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of
which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of the Spring police force is identical up to the rank of?
and Autumn period. A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector
A. Watch man C. Prefect B. Chief Superintendent D. Inspector
B. Gendemarie D. Constabulary
415. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women
402. First Female Filipino commissioned officer in a UN and minorities as police officer.
integral mission. A. Massachusetts C. California
A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra B. New York D. Washington
B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
D. None of these 416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank
to inspector or sub-lieutenant?
 SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non-Commissioned A. Police Rank 4
officer in a UN integral Mission B. Police Supervisor Rank 4
 P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First Commissioned officer in C. Police Officer Rank 1
UN Integral Mission D. Police Supervisor Rank 1

403. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited 417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest
jurisdiction on _______: possible rank of its police personnel?
A. USA C. New York A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer Rank 1
B. None of these D. Los Angeles B. Investigator 1 D. Constable

405. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word 418. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
“Polisoos” referred to a person who_____? Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest”
A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy police force and in having, set up the foundation for the
B. Guarding a City D. Citizenship social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good reputation
as one of the safety cities in the world.
406. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer of A. Philippine National Police
the kingdom of France with police responsibilities those are B. Hong Kong Police Force
the Marshal of France and ________: C. Japan Police Department
A. Constable of France C. Queens Royal Guard D. National Police Agency
B. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
419. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force:
A. Commissioner General C. Director General 433. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
B. Commissioner D. Director A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald K. Noble
B. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen Scotland
 Director General – Philippine National Police
 Director – BJMP and BFP Johann Schober - The first president of the Interpol
 Commissioner General - highest position in Japan
Police Organization 435. Group of highly specialized armed men who inflict fear
and uses violence to accomplish their objectives with a usual
420. The code of secrecy of Mafia: international scope of activity.
A. Omerta C. Morse A. Organized Crime
B. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra B. Transnational Crime
C. Transnational Organized crime
421. INTERPOL stands for: D. Terrorist

A. International Police  Organized Crime - Group activities of three or more

B. International Organization of Police persons, with hierarchical links or personal
C. International criminal Organization relationships, which permits their leaders to earn
D. International Criminal Police Organization profits or control territories or markets, internal or
foreign, by means of violence, intimidation or
422. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the: corruption, both in furtherance of criminal activity
A. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly and to infiltrate the legitimate economy.
B. National Assembly D. General Assembly
 Transnational Crime - a continuing illegal activity of
group of person which is primarily concerned with
423. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run
by the: the generation of profits, irrespective of national
A. Director General C. Supervisor boundaries as a result of globalization.
B. Inspector General D. Secretary General  Transnational Organized crime - is a crime
perpetuated by organized criminal group which the
425. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi: aim of committing one or more serious crimes or
A. Policeman C. Chief Superintendent offenses in order to obtain directly or indirectly, a
B. Superintendent D. Senior Superintendent financial or other material benefits committed
through crossing of borders or jurisdictions
426. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in
Japan: 436 Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin
A. Keishi C. Koban Laden in 1980?
B. Omerta D. Keiban A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the
highest position in Japan Police Organization:  Mafia – is a term used to describe a number of
A. Commissioner Secretariat criminal organizations around the world.
B. Commissioner  Jihad - refers to the holy war by members of the
C. Chairman Islamic religion against the Jews
D. Commissioner General
438. It is the category of terrorist organization which is
428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious freedom.
Commissioner General who is appointed by: A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
A. Japans Emperor B. Ethnocentric D. Political
B. Prime Minister
C. National Public Safety Commission  Ethnocentric - is the category of terrorist
D. Japan Commission organization which is aimed at establishing a
dominant or superior race that will be looked upon
429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force: by the entire populace in the world.
A. Junsa C. Constable  Revolutionary - is the category of terrorist group
B. Sergeant D. Police Officer which is dedicated to overthrow an established
430. Irish Police are called: order and replacing it with a new political or social
A. Militsiya C. Constable structure.
B. Police Force D. Garda Socha  Political - is the category of terrorist group which
aims in restructuring the society.
431. The following are the language of communication used  Nationalistic - those who commit acts of violence
by the Gen. Secretariat:
due to their loyalty or devotion to their country.
a. French;
b. Mandarin; 439. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes
c. English; committed via the internet:
d. Arabic; and A. Dynamic IP Address
e. Spanish. B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address
A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e D. Website
B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
 ISP – stands for Internet Service Provider. It
432. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies provides internet service to internet users.
on the absence of crime.  IP Address – series of numbers assigned by an
A. Home rule C. Continental Internet Service Provider to an internet user when
B. Old police service D. Modern police service
it connects to the Internet

Page 30 of 37
  Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP Address that
changes every time the internet user accesses his
Internet Service Provider. It is usually assigned to
dial-up or base speed broadband service
subscribers
 Static IP Address – a type of IP Address that is
constant regardless of the time or number of
attempts the internet user accesses the internet. It
is usually assigned to High-Speed Internet Users.
 Website – a portfolio of a person / organization /
entity / company which is posted on the Internet
for accessibility worldwide.
440. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system
or network of an individual, group or business enterprise
without the consent of the party’s system:
A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking
B. Cracking D. Theft
445. A decree codifying the law on Illegal/unlawful
Possession, manufacture, Dealing in, acquisition or
disposition of firearms, ammunitions or explosions
A. RA 9165 C. RA 9372
B. RA 8294 D. RA 8792
 RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act
 R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of
2002
 RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007
 PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 - Illegal
Possession of Firearms and Explosive
 RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009
 RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video Voyeurism Act of
2009
 RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009
 RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of 2010

 Hacking - is the act of illegally accessing the 446. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
computer system/network of an individual, group A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI SO
or business enterprise without the consent or B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO
approval of the owner of the system.
 Cracking - is a higher form of hacking in which the 447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be the
unauthorized access culminates with the process “Father of Texas”.
of defeating the security system for the purpose of A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon Knell
acquiring money or information and/or availing of B. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
free services 449. The following have summary dismissal powers over
errant police members.
441. It refers to a Code written with the intention of a. District Director;
replicating itself. b. Chief of Police;
A. Trojan Horse c. Regional Director;
C. Worm d. Chief, PNP;
B. Logic Bomb e. PLEB; and
D. Computer Virus f. NAPOLCOM.

 Worm spread itself to other computers without A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f

needing to be transferred as part of a host.
 Trojan horse - is a file that appears harmless until
executed. Trojan horses do not insert their code
into other computer files
 Logic bomb - a set of instructions secretly inserted
into a program that is designed to execute if a
particular program is satisfied.
442. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to
establish a shared database among concerned agencies for
information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and
convictions on transnational crime
A. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
C. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
443. An order strengthening the operational, administrative
and information support system of the PCTC. Under this
EO, the centre shall exercise general supervision and control
over NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
A. EO 100 C. EO 465
B. EO 465 D. EO 789
444. Considered as the major concerns of the PCTC,
EXCEPT:
A. Information Exchange
B. Strategic studies and capacity building
C. Law enforcement coordination
D. none of these
B. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f
450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years
old then. What year will Amado will retire?
A. 2016 C. 2023
B. 2012 D. 2031
451. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP
commissioned and non-commissioned officer may retire and
be paid separation benefits corresponding to a position two
ranks higher than his/her rank:
A. Retirement in the next higher grade B.
Compulsory retirement
C. Early retirement program
D. Optional Retirement
452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence
from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory power
over PNP members.
A. Internal Affairs Service
B. National Police Commission
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Appellate Board
453. In police operational planning the use of the wedge,
squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable used for:
A. Arm confrontation C. Relief Operation
B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security
453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the
regulations of the Department of State; this was armed and
considered as the mounted police.
A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica
B. Guadrilleros
C. Guardia Civil D.
Metropolitan Police Force
 464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was patterned by
454. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to the Federal Bureau Investigation, it was organized by R.A.
SPOI? 157. What law reorganized the NBI?
A. Officers Senior Executive Course A. R.A 9708 C. R.A 6040
B. Officer Basic Course B. R.A. 2678 D. R.A. 9262
C. Senior Leadership Course
D. Junior Leadership Course 465. The IAS can recommend promotion of the members of
the PNP or the assignment of PNP personnel to any key
455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of position. The statement is:
local chief executives as representative of the NAPOLCOM: A. Partly True C. Partly False
I. Repeated unauthorized absences; B. Absolutely True D. Absolutely False
II. Abuse of authority;
III. Habitual tardiness; 466. The following are the offenses for which a member of
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and the PNP may be charged administratively:
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security. I. Oppression;
II. Misconduct;
A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I III. Neglect of Duty;
B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV, V IV. Violation of law; and
V. Incompetence.
456. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known
locations. A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV
A. Functional Plan C. Time Specific Plans B. V, II, III, I D. IV, III, IV, I, II
B. Tactical Plans D. Operational Plans
467. The police function in which patrol belong is:
457. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump A. Line function C. Administrative function
sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the first B. Staff function D. Auxiliary function
_____.
A. 10 years C. 5 years 468. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief and other
B. 6 years D. 2 years high ranking PNP officials is known as:
A. Broad external policy planning
458. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, B. Incremental planning
Height, Weight and Education, only when the number of C. Internal policy planning
qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual quota. D. Radical planning
Appointment status under a waiver program is ________.
A. Temporary C. Probationary 469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons
B. Permanent D. Regular following a high-risk stop.
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty Checkpoint
459. No officer who has retired or is retirable within B. High -Risk Arrest D. High Risk Stop
_______ from his compulsory retirement age be appointed
as chief of the PNP.  Dragnet Operation - police operation intentionally
A. Three months C. Six months to seal-off the probable exit points of fleeing
B. One year D. Two years suspects from the crime scene to prevent their
escape.
460. __________ is given to any PNP member who has  Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate response to
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his block the escape of lawless elements from a crime
life above and beyond the call of duty. scene, and is also established when nearby
A. Meritorious Promotion checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit
B. Special Promotion
operations.
C. Regular Promotion
 High Risk Stop - actual stopping of armed and
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
dangerous persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot,
461. Which among the following has no promotional including the power to use all necessary and legal
authority over the members of the PNP? means to accomplish such end.
A. Deputy Director General
B. Director General 470. Maximum period wherein a police officer may be
C. President of the Philippines suspended from service by the Chief PNP:
D. Regional Director A. 180 days C. 60 days
B. 90 days D. 30 days
462. The establishment of a formal structure of authority
through which works and divisions are arranged, defined and Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of Internal Discipline
coordinated refers to:
 Chief of Police- NOT EXCEEDING FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
A. Planning C. Organizing
 Provincial Directors- NOT EXCEEDING THIRTY (30)
B. Staffing D. Directing
DAYS
463. In regard to the police planning function, it may be said  Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING SIXTY (60)
that: DAYS
A. Planning is essentially order giving.
B. Planning is essentially decision making in advance of 471. The IAS can recommend promotion of the members of
action. the PNP or the assignment of PNP personnel to any key
C. Policemen must plan carefully than their supervisors. position. The statement is-
D. The higher the job in the organization, the shorter the A. YES C. NO
time-lag between planning and execution. B. Wholly Correct D. Wholly False

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472. Who has the disciplinary authority in citizen’s C. One to six months
complaint when the penalty imposed is not exceeding fifteen D. Five months to one year
(15) days?
A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of Police 480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19, 870.00 base pay
B. Provincial Director D. PLEB since he was promoted. After five years from promotion,
what would be his monthly base pay after adding his
 City/Municipality Mayors- not less than SIXTEEN longevity pay?
but not exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS A. 21, 857.00 C. 19, 970.00
 People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)- exceeding B. 24, 870.00 D. 31, 549.00
THIRTY (30) DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
481. If the police plan of Municipality X can carry out the
473. The law that governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical purpose or goal of the police station then the plan is
Standards for officials and employees of the Government – considered_______.
National or Local. A. Feasible C. Acceptable
A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610 B. Suitable D. Adaptable
B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263
482. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed by a police
 RA 7160 – Local Government Code officer with the rank of __________ and a designation as
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children against Inspector-General.
Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination A. Deputy Director General C. General
 RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of B. Director D. C/Superintendent
2004
483. The shift that receives most of the call of the public
474. How vacancy filled up in the commission, except which are directly related to police function, it is considered
through expirations of term? as the busiest among them all.
A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only with the A. Afternoon shift C. Day shift
capacity for regular appointment for another full term. B. Midnight shifts D. Night Shift
B. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only without re
appointment.  Night Shift – Least Desirable shift
C. It shall be filed up by another person with full term
D. None of these 484. If we are seeking for an arrest of wanted person with a
view to extradition.
A. Blue Notice
C. Red Notice
475. Under the police reform and reorganization law, a Field B. Black Notice
training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required D. Purple Notice
for permanency of their appointment consisting of 12
months. Basic areas of actual experience and assignment Types of Notice by INTERPOL
during this period shall be on:  Yellow Notice- To help locate missing persons,
A. Patrol, traffic and investigation often minors, or to help identify persons who are
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence unable to identify themselves.
C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary services  Blue Notice- To locate, identify or obtain
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence information on a person of interest in a criminal
investigation.
476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the following are  Black Notice- To seek information on unidentified
the factors considered in promotion: bodies.
a. Educational Attainment;  Green Notice- To warn about a person's criminal
b. Personality traits; activities if that person is considered to be a
c. Potential; possible threat to public safety.
d. Service reputation; and  Orange Notice- To warn of an event, a person, an
e. Physical Fitness. object or a process representing an imminent threat
and danger to persons or property.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a  Purple Notice- To provide information on modi
B. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e operandi, objects, devices and concealment
methods used by criminals.
477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is due to be
promoted. Who has the authority to promote him to his next 484. What is the name of the acclaimed first formally
rank? organized modern police force in the world?
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC A. Interpol C. Scotland Yard
B. Secretary, DILG D. President B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers

478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December 11, 1964; He 485. The following are the law enforcement principles
opted to join the Philippine National Police in March 1999. enunciated by the Father of Modern Policing System,
Is he qualified to join the PNP? except:
A. Yes C. Wholly True A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the police
B. No D. Wholly False B. The police must have full respect of the citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are the police
479. In times of war or other national emergency declared by D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by final
the Congress the President may extend such term of office judgment
from __________________depending on the gravity of the E. None of the above
situation.
A. Six months to one year 487. The period of time elapsed since the oath of office was
B. One year to two years administered is termed
 A. Tour of duty C. Term of office B. Spot Report
B. On duty D. Length of service D. Area Coverage

488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or modify 498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is formerly included in
personnel disciplinary actions involving demotion or what terrorist group?
dismissal from the service imposed upon members of the A. MILF C. MNLF
PNP by the Chief PNP through the: B. Al Qaeda D. NPA
A.PLEB C. RAB
B. NAB D. C/PNP 499. The Koban policing system is adopted in:
A. Japan C. Malaysia
489. Promotion by virtue of position shall be granted after: B. Korea D. Thailand
A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. 1 year D. 18 months 500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-
A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base
490. Breach of internal discipline committed by any member B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah
of the PNP shall be brought to the office of the Chief of
Police or equivalent supervisor if the penalty imposed covers  Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic Congregation
the period of:  Al Qaeda – The Base
A. Not exceeding 15 days  Hezbollah – Party of God
B. Not exceeding 60 days
 Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present commander
C. Not exceeding 30 days
of Al Qaeda
D. Dismissal
501. PNP in-service training programs are under the
491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from
responsibility of the;
the service after due notice and summary hearings if it was
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous period of:
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
A. 30 days or more C. 15 days or more
Development
B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop an integrated
It is the total number of police officers assigned in patrol
community public safety plan pursuant to:
duties.
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903
B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551
502. Who is responsible in determining whether there is a
493. The Statute of Winchester introduced the system known permit for the holding of the public assembly?
as: A. Immediate Superior C. Ground Commander
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of the peace
503. The following are the things to be done after armed
494. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective confrontation, EXCEPT:
plan? A. Check whether the situation still poses imminent danger
A. give police department a clear direction B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP operatives
B. increase personnel involvement C. Submit the fact-finding report
C. clearly define objectives and goals D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital
D. contain a degree of flexibility for the unforeseen E. None of these

495. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot during day 504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio of the
time should walk ____ the curb: following cases:
A. Outside C. Inside
B. Near D. Far I. incidents where a police personnel discharges a
firearm;
496. The following are the duties and responsibilities of II. incidents where death, serious physical injury, or
Patrol officers: any violation of human rights occurred in the
a. Conduct home visitations when a circumstance warrants, conduct of a police operation;
dialogues with the residents in their beat; III. incidents where evidence was compromised,
b. Report occurrences and conditions which relate to crime, tampered with, obliterated, or lost while in the
public peace, order and safety; custody of police personnel;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings, prevent disorders IV. incidents where a suspect in the custody of the
and disperse unlawful assemblies; police was seriously injured; and
d. Assist personnel of responsible agencies/unit in V. Incidents where the established rules of
facilitating the flow of traffic at busy intersections/roads engagement have been violated.
within his Area of Responsibility (AOR) and;
e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various places of A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV, and V
business establishments and other installation and remove B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV and V
hazards to public safety.
497. The nature of which, the police officer is free from
A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b specific routine duty is the definition of
B. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
A. “on duty” C. “Active Service”
497. Which among the following is not included in a Patrol B. “Length of Service” D. “off duty”
Plan?
 Length of Service- The period of time elapsed since the
A. Organization Detail of Personnel
C. Stand-by points oath of office was administered.

Page 34 of 37
 Active Service- shall refer to services rendered as an
officer and non-officer, cadet, trainee or draftee in the
PNP
498. The first step a dispatcher must take when a felony-in-
progress call has been received through telephone or by
direct alarm signal is to?
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the witness
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
D. sends augmentation force
499. How many years of non-promotion before a PNP
Member can be attrited?
A. 5 years C. 2 years
B. 10 years D. 18 Months
 Attrition by Relief - Those who have been relieved for
just cause and have not been given an assignment
within TWO (2) YEARS after such relief shall be retired
or separated
 Attrition by Demotion in Position or Rank - who shall
not be assigned to a position commensurate to his or
her grade within EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS after such
demotion shall be retired or separated
500. What is the main purpose why police car or police
officers are not allowed to be sent in the scene of a Kidnap
for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
c. To avoid any indication that police have been informed of
the KFR incident
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the KFR activities
inside the warehouse
501.Which among the following, is not a applicable legal
parameter during rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other
public assemblies, under the pertinent provisions of the
Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas Pambansa Bilang 880),
the Labor Code of the Philippines, as amended and other
applicable laws.
A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance
B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or participant
shall be made during the public assembly, unless
he violates any pertinent law as evidence warrants.
C. In case of unlawful aggression, only reasonable
force may be employed to prevent or repel it.
D. Directly employment of tear gas and water
cannons.
502. Which of the following is considered as the most
important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. rank of the patrol commander
C. adequacy of resources of police station
D. salary rates of police personnel
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the
picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in
such manner that their presence may deter the commission
of criminal acts or any untoward incident from either side.
The members of the peace-keeping detail shall stay outside a
_______ radius from the picket line.
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter
B. 100 feet D. 100 meter
504. Police officers are required to give the suspect Miranda
Warning, during Spot checks and pat down searches. The
statement is-
A. Partially C. Correct
B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
505. The following are the circumstances which may justify
pat-down search, EXCEPT:
A. The appearance and demeanor of the suspect
B. The time of the day and the location where the pat-
down search took
C. Where the police officer handles several suspects
D. None of these
506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be
conducted by-
A. Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise attack.
B. At least two police officers, one to perform the
search while the other provides protective cover.
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness during the
search.
D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
507. Which of the following is not included in the patrol
function?
A. Respon.se for citizen calls for assistance
B. Investigation of crimes after this is reported to the
investigation section
C. Routine preventive patrol
D. Inspection of identified hazards
508. During police intervention operations, the duty to issue
a warning is not absolute before he could use force against
an offender.
A. Correct C. Partially Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially Wrong
509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a
patrol jeep, the subject must be-
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit
at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall
sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit
at the rear on the left side facing the subject
D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall
sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
510. Which among the following should be observed during
the patrol operations?
A. Render after-patrol report
B. Buddy System
C. Kabit System
D. Render Hourly Report
511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public
assemblies, employment of tear gas and water cannons shall
be made under the control and supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander C. Incident Commander
B. Immediate Commander D. Superior Officer
512. What should be the action of patrol officers, when
responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except?
A. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
C. Determine the crime committed.
D. None of these
513. Where should the patrol officer turnover the
information and pieces of evidence gathered at the crime
scene?
A. SOCO team C. Immediate Supervisor
B. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer

514. Request for police assistance in the implementation of
final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and of
administrative bodies on controversies within their
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual
implementation.
A. 3 days C. 10 days
B. 5 days D. 15 days
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein a suspect dies,
the Team Leader of the operating unit shall?
A. He shall immediately undertake the necessary
investigation and processing of the scene of the
encounter.
B. After the Investigation, He shall immediately
request the SOCO team to conduct Crime Scene
Processing.
C. He shall submit the incident for inquest before the
duty Inquest Prosecutor prior to the removal of the
body from the scene.
D. He shall report immediately to his superior for the
proper undertakings to be done.
516. PNP personnel who will point/profile suspected vehicle
subject for checkpoint:
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team
B. Spotter D. Investigation Sub-team
 Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take responsibility in
the conduct of checkpoint preferably an officer with
the rank of at least Police Inspector;
 Spokesperson - TL or member who is solely in charge
of communicating with the motorists subject for
checkpoint;
 Investigation Sub-team - in charge of investigation and
documentation of possible incidents in the checkpoint
to include issuance of Traffic Citation Ticket (TCT) or
Traffic Violation Report (TVR);
 Search/Arresting Sub-Team - designated to conduct
search, seizure and arrest, if necessary;
 Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide security in the
checkpoint area; and
 Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team tasked to
block/pursue fleeing suspects/vehicle.
517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to display high-
powered firearms and are positioned where they can best
provide security to the Checkpoint team including
themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team C. Search Sub-Team
B. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B
518. As much as practicable, who shall lead the PNP
contingent detailed to assist the Sheriff during the
demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground Commander
B. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police
519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a complaint or
report or information that a child has been or is being
abused, maltreated, discriminated, exploited, neglected, or
abandoned, or is under imminent danger of being abused or
exploited, shall take immediate action thereon, but under no
circumstance shall be beyond____?
A. 12 hours C. 36 hours
B. 24 hours D. 48 hours
520. In designating a “safe” assembly area, well away from
the threatened structure, out of line-of-sight of the building
and well clear of windows. A minimum distance of is
recommended.
Page 36 of 37
A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
B. 150 meters D. 300 meters
521. Provides for methods of apprehending a criminal by an
act of the complainant shout to call all male residents to
assemble and arrest the suspect.
A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
B. Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star Chamber
 Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) - The room set-up
is formed in a shape of a star and judges were given
great powers such as the power to force testimony
from a defendant leading to a great abuse of power or
brutality on the part of the judges.
 Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the beginning of
the curfew hours, which demanded the closing of the
gates of London during sundown.
 Tun Policing System - A system of policing emerged
during the Anglo-Saxon period whereby all male
residents were required to guard the town
522. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
legitimate purposes.
A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area
523. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was
accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the public in
general. What police office is using this kind of blotter?
A. Makati C. Cebu
B. Baguio D. Davao
524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of
Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near Josephine,
Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence of Insp.
Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
A. Ambition C. Intention
B. Motive D. Opportunity
525. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his
retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the rank of
__________:
A. Superintendent C. C/Superintendent
B. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
526. Which among the following terms is not related to each
other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright Pursuit
527. General rules on media relations, No information
regarding the incident shall be released without clearance
from the_________:
A. Chief of police C. Ground Commander
B. Incident Commander D. Immediate Superior
528. Which of the following is not true about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police department
that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police department
529. The low informers and unreliable renegades of
value chiefly in spreading false information to the
enemy.
A. Common Spies C. Double Spies
B. Spies of Consequences D. None
530. Refers to utilization of units or elements of the PNP for
purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of
laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes,
arrest of criminal offenders and etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B. Service D. Employment

Deployment- shall mean the orderly and organized

physical movement of elements or units of the PNP
within the province, city or municipality for purposes
of employment

-END-