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FINAL COACHING
LAW ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for

each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by marking the
box corresponding to the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil
no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. It refers to the field of management which

involves planning, and controlling the efforts
of a group of individuals toward achieving a
common goal with maximum dispatch and
minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administration
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization

 Organization-a group of persons working

together for a common goal or objectives a
form of human association for the
attainment of a goal or objective.
 Police Organization- a group of trained
personnel in the field of public safety
administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives.
 Administration- an organizational
process concerned with the
implementation of objectives and plans
and internal operating efficiency.
 Police Administration- the process
involved in ensuring strict compliance,
proper obedience of laws and related
statutes focuses on the policing process.

2. The national headquarters of the PNP is

located in Quezon City. It was named after the
1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine
Constabulary.

A. Antonio Torres
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame

D. Lamberto Javalera

 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of

the Philippine National Police
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino
chief of police of the Manila Police
Department in 1935
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief
of police of the Manila Police
Department after the Philippine
Independence from the United States of
America in 1946

3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996.

She was 29 years old then. What year
Eugene retire if he wants to avail
the mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023
 Compulsory – upon reaching the age
FIFTY-SIX (56), the age of retirement
 Optional – upon completion of
TWENTY (20) YEARS of active service
4. The Role of the PNP on matters
involving the suppression of insurgency
and serious treats to national security?
A. The AFP operating through the area
commander is the one primarily
responsible on matters involving
insurgency and other serious treats
to national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary
role towards insurgency and other
serious treats to national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to
the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these
5. The procedure which is intended to be
used in situations of all kinds and outlined as
guide and by men in the field operations
relative to reporting, dispatching, raids,
arrest and investigation refers to:
Page 1 of 50
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure
 Headquarters Procedures - include the
procedures to be followed in the
headquarters, usually reflected in the duty
manual
 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
- procedures intended for specific
operations to ensure uniformity of action
6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall
be for a period ?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
 Attrition by Attainment of Maximum
Tenure
Those who have reached the
prescribed maximum tenure corresponding to
their position shall be retired from the service
 Chief 4 years
 Deputy Chief 4 years
 Director of Staff Services
years
 Regional Directors 6 years
 Provincial/District Directors 9 years
 Other positions higher than
Provincial Director 6 years
7. The law that empowered the police
commission to conduct entrance and
promotional examination for police members
refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA
5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765
 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of
Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947 and
later reorganized by R.A. 2678
 PD 765- otherwise known as the
Integration Act of 1975, enacted on August
8, 1975; established the Integrated
National Police (INP)
 R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law
8. The theory of police service which states
those police officers are servants of the people
or the community refers to:
A. Old
B. Home rule
C. Modern
D. Continental
 Continental - policemen are regarded as
servants of the higher authorities
o It exist in France, Italy and Spain-
countries with a decentralized form
of government
 Old Concept - measurement of police
competence is the increasing number of
arrests.
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is
measured by the decreasing number
of crimes
9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted
to join the Philippine National Police. What
would be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE
 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists,
nurses, engineers, graduates of forensic
sciences, graduates of the PNPA and
licensed criminologists
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains,
members of the bar and doctors of
medicine
10. The following are functions in a police
organization, EXCEPT:
4 A. primary functions
B. administrative functions
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions
 Primary or Line Functions- functions
that carry out the major purposes of the
organization, Patrolling, traffic duties,
and crime investigation
 Staff/Administrative Functions-
designed to support the line functions and
assist in the performance of the line
functions examples of the staff functions of
the police are Planning, research,
budgeting and legal advice
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving
the logistical operations of the
organization examples are communication,
maintenance, records management,
supplies and equipment management.
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest
the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
supervisor.
12. He is known as the father of modern
policing system?
A. August Vollmer C. Oliver
Cromwell
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare
Lombroso
 August Vollmer - recognized as the
Father of Modern Law Enforcement
 Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner
of Scotland Yard
 Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern
Criminology.
13. When responding to call for police
assistance due to planted or found explosives,
what immediate actions should the patrol
officer will do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive
or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid
further injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call
for Explosive Ordinance Disposal
Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center
for proper procedure to be followed,
after investigating the item.
Page 2 of 50
14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer 20. The word “police” was derived from the
of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is Greek word , which means
his equivalent rank in the PNP? government of the city.
A. politia C. politeia
A. Inspector C. Senior
B. polis D. Policy
Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent  Polis – Greek word which means
“City- State”.
 Inspector – Captain  Politia – Roman word which means
 Chief Inspector – Major “condition of the state or the
 Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel Government”.
15. How many Deputy Director General ranks 21. It is defined as the determination in
are there in the PNP? advance of how the objectives of the
A. 1 C. 3 organization will be attained.
B. 2 D. 4 A. planning C.
Advancement
Deputy Director General ranks B. police planning D. Development
 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)  Police Planning - it is an attempt by
 DDG for Operation (3rd in Command) police administration to allocate
 Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th anticipated resources to meet anticipated
in Command) service demands.
16. The highest rank in the BJMP is . 22. It is the premier educational institution
for the training, human resource development
A. Four star general C. Director and continuing education of all personnel of
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
General A. PPSC C. RTS
B. PNPA D. NPC
 Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the
rank of DIRECTOR GENERAL PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD
1184, premier educational institution for
17. What is the minimum police-to-population
future officers of the tri-bureaus.
ratio?

A. 1:000 C. 1:1500 23. It is the central receiving entity for any

citizen’s complaint against the police
B. 1:500 D. 1:7
officers.
Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to- A. IAS C. PNP
population ratio) B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM

o 1:500 – nationwide average  NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative

control and operational supervision over
18. What kind of force is needed during armed the PNP
confrontation?  IAS - investigate complaints and gather
evidence in support of an open
A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force investigation; conduct summary hearings
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded on PNP members facing administrative
Force charges;

19. The largest organic unit within a large 24. The following are the grounds for
department. Patrol officers to execute spot checks.
A. Bureau C. Section a. Questionable presence of the individual in
B. Division D. Unit the area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your
 Division- The primary subdivision of a superior;
bureau. c. The individual flees at the sight of a police
 Section- Functional units within a officer;
particular division. This is necessary for d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of
specialization. the suspect’s prior criminal record; and
 Units- Functional group within a section e. Visual indications suggesting that the
where further specialization is needed. suspect is carrying a pyrotechnics.
A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c,
d, e

Page 3 of
25. The provincial governor shall choose the
provincial director from a list of eligible’s
recommended by the PNP regional director:
A. six C. five
B. Three D. four
 MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5)
FIVE eligible’s recommended by the
PD.
26. The deployment of officers in a given
community, area or locality to prevent and
deter criminal activity and to provide day-to-
day services to the community.
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol
27. The head of the IAS shall have a
designation of ?
A. Director General C.
Solicitor General
B. Inspector General D. IAS General
28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there
should be how many PLEB for every 500 police
personnel?
A. one (1) C. more than one
B. at least one D. less than one
 there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for
every five hundred (500) city or municipal
police personnel
29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what
would be the immediate things to do when
accident occur?
A. Cordon the area
B. Go away and call your superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest
hospital
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
30. The following are the upgraded general
qualifications for appointment in the
Philippine National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five
(5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or
over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral
character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably
discharged from military services or civilian
position in the government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.
A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e
31. All of the following are members of the
People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community
B. A bar member chosen by the
Integrated Bar of the Philippines
Page 4 of 50
C. Any barangay captain of the
city/municipality concerned chosen by
the association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglunsod
32. Two or more persons forming an
organization must identify first the reason for
establishing such organization. They must
identify the organization’s :
A. strategy C. Goal
B. Tactic D. objective
 Strategy – is a broad design, method; a
major plan of action that needs a large
amount of resources to attain a major goal
or objectives.
 Goal- General Statement of intention
normally with time perspective. It is
achievable end state that can be measured
and observed.
 Tactic – it is a specific design, method or
course of action to attain a particular
objective in consonance with strategy.
33. To improve delegation, the following
must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
34. The number of subordinates that can
be supervised directly by one person tends
to:
A. Increase as the physical distance
between supervisor and subordinate as
well as between individual subordinate
increases
B. Decrease with an increase in the
knowledge and experience of the
subordinate
C. Increase as the level of supervision
progresses for the first line
supervisory level to the
management level
D. All of the above
35. This means controlling the direction and
flow of decisions through unity of command
from top to bottom of organization:
A. Audit C.
Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority
36. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. Performance evaluation measures
credibility of the police
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for
salary increases or promotion
C. Performance evaluation is done once a
year among police personnel
D. Performance evaluation is
implemented to determine
the
 quality of work performance 42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is
of personnel 1200. How many of the annual quota is
allocated for women?
A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to
the DILG for :  The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT
(10%) of its annual recruitment, training
A. Administrative control and education quota for women
B. Administration and control
C. Operational supervision 43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP
D. Policy and program coordination may be waived in the following order:
38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the A. age, height, weight & education
same supervisor. This is the principle of B. age, weight, height & education
: C. height, education, weight & age
D. in any order
A. delegation of authority
B. span of control
C. unity of command  Applicants who possess the least
D. chain of command disqualification shall take precedence over
those who possess more disqualification;
 Delegation of Authority- conferring of  The requirement shall be waived in the
certain specified authority by a superior to following order: Age, Height, Weight
a subordinate and Education. (AHWE)
 Chain of Command- the arrangement of
officers from top to bottom on the basis 44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on
of rank or position and authority the basis provided by law.
 Span of Control- the maximum number A. attrition C.
of subordinates that a superior can Specialization
effectively supervise B. promotion D. retirement
 Command Responsibility- dictates that
immediate commanders shall be  Specialization- the assignment of
responsible for the effective supervision particular personnel to particular
and control of their personnel and unit tasks which are highly technical and
require special skills and training
39. Who has the authority to promote Insp  Retirement - The separation of the police
Jhack T. Khole? personnel from the service by reason of
A. President C. Chief, reaching the age of retirement provided by
PNP law, or upon completion of certain number
B. CA D. of years in active service.
Regional Director  Promotion - It is a upgrading of
ranks and/or advancement to a
Promoting Authorities: position of leadership

Grade/Rank Promoting 45. The age requirement for new PNP

Authorities applicants must not be less than twenty-one
(21) years of age. The Maximum age
 Director General President requirement for PNP applicants using the
 Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President lateral entry program is .
 Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
 PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
PNP

40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? 46. A Field training Program for all PNP
uniformed members is required for
A. Standard operation procedures permanency of their appointment. Who among
B. Special operation procedures the following is exempted to undergo the Field
C. Standard operating procedures Training Program and issued a permanent
D. Special operating procedures appointment?
41. The following are the characteristics of a A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed
good plan, EXCEPT: Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
A. flexibility C. specific B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed
B. clear D. expensive Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.

Page 5 of
 C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is
appointed Inspector after
graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
and First Place in the Examination.
 Field Training Program. – All uniformed
members of the PNP shall undergo a Field
Training Program for twelve (12) months
involving actual experience and
assignment in patrol, traffic, and
investigation as a requirement for
permanency of their appointment.
47. Planning as a management function is to
be done in the various levels of PNP
organization. Broad policy based from laws
directives, policies and needs in general is the
responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans
B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B. Brigade General D. General
 Chief Superintendent – Brigade General
 Director – Major General
 Director General - General
49. The Philippine National Police will recruit
300 new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22,
1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August
10, 1991
 For a new applicant, must not be less than
twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty (30)
years of age
50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine
National Police on October 5, 1988.
Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
embalmer, he decided to file an optional
retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of
the gratifying PNP which he served with
extreme commitment and loyalty. When does
Bruno can retire?
A. October 5, 1998 C. October
6, 1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September
5, 2008
Page 6 of 50
51. Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory?
A. Dismissal C.
Forfeiture of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty
52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to SPOIV?
A. Officers Candidate Course
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
 SLC- SPOII to SPOIII
 JLC – POIII to SPOI
 PSBRC – POI to POII
53. The head of the National Capital Regional
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Superintendent D.
C/Inspector
 Regional Director -with the rank of Chief
Superintendent
 Provincial Director -with the rank of
Senior Superintendent
 NCR District Director -with the rank of
Chief Superintendent
 Chief of Police – with the rank of
Chief Inspector
54. Under the waiver program, who among the
following PNP applicants is the least priority
for appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units
in college
B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight
D. Philip who is overage
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as .
A. Department of Interior and Local
Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and
Local Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
D. Department of the Interior and the
Local Government Act of 1990
56. The following are the component agencies
that compose the Philippine National Police
(Sec. 23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command;
and
 e. National Action Committee on Anti-
Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27,
690.00 base pay since he was promoted.
After five years from promotion, what would
be his monthly base pay after adding his
longevity pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37,
690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31,
549.00
58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS
shall be appealed to the : authority?
A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission
 National Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered
by the PNP Chief and the IAS.
 Regional Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered
by the RD, PD, COP, the city or municipal
mayor and the PLEB except decision on
suspension.
NOTE:
 The PLEB decision of the suspension is
final and cannot be appealed.
 The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or
Regional Director is final and executory but
subject to appeal to RAB.
 Decision of Chief of Police is appealable
within 10 days to Provincial Director,
upon receipt of decision.
 Decision of Provincial Director is
appealable within 10 days to Regional
Director, upon receipt of decision.
 Decision of Regional Director is appealable
within 10 days to Chief, PNP upon receipt
of decision.
 The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are from
those cases concerning internal discipline.
 Cases involving internal discipline filed
with the Chief, PNP originally, the
decision is appealable to NAB which
decision is Final.
 Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed
ONCE.
59. Who shall administer the entrance and
promotional examinations for police officers on
the basis of the standards set by the
Commission as amended by RA 8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B. PRC D.
NAPOLCOM
 Police Entrance Examination – taken by
applicants of the PNP
 Police Promotional Examinations –
taken by in-service police officers as part
of the mandatory requirements for
promotion
NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed
Criminologists, no longer need to take the
Police Promotional Examinations as part of the
requirements for promotion. As PRC Board
Passers, they have already complied with the
eligibility requirement.
60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted,
if he is promoted who has the appointing
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP
for the national headquarters personnel
attested by the Civil Service
Commission.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by
immediate superiors and attested
by the Civil Service Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of
Chief PNP, endorsed by the Civil
Service and subject to
confirmation by the Commission of
Appointment.
D. President from among the senior
officers down to the rank of Chief
Superintendent, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointment.
Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel
 PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the
Regional Director for regional personnel or
by the Chief, PNP for the national
headquarters
 INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the
Chief, PNP
 SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the
President upon recommendation of the
Chief, PNP, subject to confirmation by
the Commission on Appointments
 DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by the
President from among the senior officers
down to the rank of C/Supt, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointments
61. It is known as the Professionalization act of
1966.
A. R.A. 4864 C. Act
255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for
the Organization and Government of an
Insular Constabulary”, enacted on July 18,
1901
Page 7 of
 Act No. 183 - created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31, 1901
 Act No 255 - The act that renamed the
Insular Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901
62. is given to any PNP member who
has exhibited act of conspicuous and
gallantry at the risk of his life above and
beyond the call of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position
B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
 Regular – promotion granted to
police officers meeting the
mandatory requirements for
promotion
 Promotion by virtue of Position- any
PNP personnel designated to any key
position whose rank is lower than what is
required for such position shall, after 6
months occupying the same, be entitled to
rank adjustment corresponding to position.
63. PNP members under the waiver program
but is dismissed for failure to comply with
the requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No
 PNP members under the waiver program
but is dismissed for failure to comply with
the requirements can RE-APPLY provided
he now have the minimum requirements.
64. The reason why police officer appears in
court as a witness has to be in complete
uniform is to show his respect to the court and
to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D.
Comrades
65. One having supervisory responsibilities
over officers to the lower rank, whether
temporary or permanent.
A. None C. Superior
officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
 Sworn Officer- The term referring to
personnel of the police department who
has taken oath of office and possesses the
power to arrest.
 Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers
having the highest rank or grade
according to their date of appointment to
that grade
66. Law that created the Manila
Police Department, enacted on July
31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175
Page 8 of 50
 RA 4864- otherwise known as the
Police Professionalization Act of
1966, enacted on September 8, 1966;
created the Police Commission
(POLCOM); later POLCOM was renamed
in Act No 255 - The act that renamed
the Insular Constabulary into
Philippine Constabulary, enacted on
October 3, 1901 to National Police
Commission (NAPOLCOM)
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing
for the Organization and Government
of an Insular Constabulary”, enacted
on July 18, 1901
67. The performance evaluation system is
conducted:
A. thrice a year C. Every 6
months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
 January to June Evaluation Report to
be submitted 1st week of July
 June to December Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of January of the
succeeding year.
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent
physical disability in the performance of his
duty and unable to further perform his duty
shall be entitled to a lifetime pension
equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
Retirement due To Permanent
Physical Disability
PNP uniformed personnel who are
permanently and totally disabled as a result of
injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the
performance of his duty shall be entitled to
ONE YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME
PENSION equivalent to EIGHTY PERCENT
(80%) of his last salary, in addition to other
benefits.
Should such PNP personnel die within
FIVE (5) YEARS from his retirement due to
physical disability, his legal spouse or
legitimate children shall be entitled to receive
the pension for the remainder of the five year-
period.
69. How many successive annual rating
periods before a police officer may be
separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A. 2 C. 4
 B.3 D. 1
Attrition by other Means
Those who have at least five (5) years
of active service shall be separated based on
any of the following:
 inefficiency based on poor
performance during the last two (2)
successive annual rating periods;
 inefficiency based on poor
performance for three (3)
cumulative annual rating periods;
 physical and/or mental incapacity to
perform police functions and duties; or
 failure to pass the required entrance
examinations twice and/or finish the
required career courses except for
justifiable reasons
70. Female detainees shall not be transported
in handcuffs but only with necessary restraint
and proper escort, preferably aided by a police
woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False
71. In this theory, management assumes
employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is
believed that employees enjoy their mental
and physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory
 Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity
whereby subjects improve or modify an
aspect of their behavior being
experimentally measured simply in
response to the fact that they are being
studied, not in response to any particular
experimental manipulation.
 X theory - management assumes
employees are inherently lazy and will
avoid work if they can and that they
inherently dislike work.
72. The theory X and Y is a human
motivation created and developed by?
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Henry A. Landsberger
D. Douglas McGregor
 Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York
City Police officer, who pioneer
fighting Organized Crime.
 Henry A. Landsberger – coined the
word Hawthorne Effect
 John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the
Federal Bureau of Investigation; he was
instrumental in founding the FBI in 1935.
73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to Senior
Superintendent.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Officers Advance Course
C. Officers Basic Course
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
 MNSA/Allied MA Degree – Chief
Superintendent - up.
 OAC – Chief Inspector
 OBC – Senior Inspector
 BSPS - Inspector
74. Who among the following have
summary dismissal powers?
A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All
of these
The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional
Directors have summary dismissal powers in
any of the following cases:
 when the charge is serious and the
evidence of guilt is strong
 when the respondent is a recidivist or
has been repeatedly charged and
there are reasonable grounds to
believe that he is guilty of the
charges; and
 when the respondent is guilty of
a serious offense involving
conduct unbecoming of a police
officer
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of
not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16
days, the citizen’s complaint against erring
PNP member shall be filed at the
A. Office of the chief of police
B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of them
 Chief of Police - for a period
not exceeding FIFTEEN (15)
DAYS
 PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY
(30) DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be
of the base pay and longevity pay of the
retired grade in case of 20 years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%
 Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY
PERCENT (50%) of the base pay in case
of twenty years of active service,
increasing by TWO AND ONE-HALF
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PERCENT (2.5%) for every year of
active service rendered beyond twenty
years.

Page 10 of
50
77. This type of plan is intended for specific
purpose such as drug crackdown, crime
prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up
campaign. It concludes when the objective is
accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan
D. time bound operational plan
 Functional Plan- includes the framework
for the operation of the major functional
unit in the organization Such as patrol and
investigation.
 Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which
are strategic or long range in application, it
determine the organization’s original goals
and strategy.
78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
members on routine and field operations and
some special operations
A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. policy or procedural plan
 Extra-Departmental Plans - which
require actions or assistance from persons
or agencies outside of the department
 Operational Plan - often called work
plan; the work program of the field
units
 Tactical Plans - concern methods of
action to be taken at a designated location
and under specific circumstances
79. What kind of appointment when the
applicant is under the waiver program due to
weight requirements pending satisfaction of
the requirement waived.
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special
 Permanent – when an applicant
possesses the upgraded general
qualifications for appointment in the PNP
 Probationary- All PNP members upon
entry level, before appointed to permanent
status shall undergo a mandatory 1 Year
probationary period.
80. The institution of a criminal action
or complaint against a police officer is
A. A ground for dismissal
B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
D. Not a bar to promotion
 Pursuant to RA 9708, “…In addition, the
institution of a criminal action or
complaint against a police officer shall not
be a bar to promotion
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or
elements of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement
Page 10 of
of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and
bringing the offenders to justice
A. Deployment C.
Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D.
Employment
 Deployment- shall mean the orderly and
organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province,
city or municipality for purposes of
employment
82. What is the first step in making a plan?
A. Frame of reference
B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Selling the plan
83. It identify the role of police in the
community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning
D. Incremental Planning
 STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to
meet the long-range, overall goals of the
organization.
 SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational
comprehensive approach) – is the
dominant tradition in planning. It is also
the point of departure for most other
planning approaches. It is base on “pure”
or “objective” rationality and attempts
to assure optimal achievement of desired
goals from a given situation. It relies
heavily on the problem identification and
analysis phase of planning process.
 INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this
approach disfavors the exclusive use of
planners who have not direct interest in
the problems at hand and favors a sort of
decentralized political bargaining that
involves interested parties.
84. The organizational structure of the PNP is
.
A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and
staff
 Line – oldest and simplest kind;
few departments
 Functional – according to functions of the
organization
85. It is the process of developing methods or
procedure or an arrangement of parts
intended to facilitate the accomplishment of a
definite objective.
A. Management C. Functioning
B. Budgeting D. Planning
86. Refers to any offense committed by a the heirs is for a maximum of how
member of the PNP involving and affecting many months?
order and discipline within the police
A. 1 year C. 2 months
organization.
B. 30 Days D. 12 months
A. Breech of Internal Discipline  Absence Without Official Leave
B. Citizens Complaint
(AWOL) - Failure to report for duty
C. Minor Offense
without official notice for a period of
D. Any of these
THIRTY (30) DAYS
 Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or 92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of
omission not involving moral turpitude number of hours of classroom training
but affecting the internal discipline of should be required for newly promoted
the PNP supervisory personnel
 Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any A. 72 hours C. 80
complaint initiated by a private citizen or hours
his duly authorized representative on B. 75 hours D. 85
account of an injury, damage or hours
disturbance sustained due to an irregular 93. It should be proactive, people
or illegal act committed by a member of oriented, based on individual need, and
the PNP. delivered in such a way as to motivate the
experienced officer to a higher degree of
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of professionalism/professionalization
police personnel unit? A. Recruit Training
A. Preparing policy statements and B. Specialized training
standard operating Procedures relating to C. In Service
all areas of the administration of human D. Field Training
resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and 94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade
other line officials regarding personnel possessing the entire mandatory and other
matters consideration in promotion, is what kind of
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning promotion?
officers to identify, and subsequently A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
correct, unsatisfactory working B. Regular Promotion
conditions C. Meritorious Promotion
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to D. Promotion
the exclusive ranks
95. It involves assistance and action by non
88. It refers to the process of screening out or police agencies such as Local Safety Council
eliminating undesirable applicants that do not for Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile
meet the organization’s selection criteria Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans
A. Promotion C. Recruitment and Civil defense plans
B. Transfer D. Selection A. Management Plans
B. Procedural plan
 Recruitment – it is the process of C. Tactical Plans
attracting candidates who have the D. Extra departmental plan
maximum qualifications to be eligible for
the selection procedure. 96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of
metal and ribbon, which constitute the
89. It is recognized as the best method of filing tangible evidence of an award:
A. Pigeon Hole A. Medal C. Awards
B. Retrieval operation B. Decorations D. Ribbons
C. Records Management
D. Chain of custody  Award — anything tangible granted to an
individual in recognition of acts of
90. It is considered to be the heart of any gallantry or heroism, meritorious service
identification system; it provides positive or skill and proficiency.
identification of the criminal  Decoration — a piece of metal/material
A. Arrest and booking report representing an award.
B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification records 97. For every letters of commendation,
D. Fingerprint Records a medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay
PNP member:
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed A. Six C. Four
Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for B. Five D. Three
Page 11 of
 103. An act or condition, which results in a
98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, situation conducive to a breach of the
unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive protection system, or that, could result to
use of authority: loss.
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty A. Hazards C. Human
B. Incompetency D. Oppression Hazards
B. Natural Hazards D. Security
 Misconduct generally mans wrongful, Hazards
improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated Kinds of Security Hazard
by premeditated, obstinate or intentional
purpose. It usually refers to transgressions  Human Hazard – is the act or
or some established and definite rule of condition affecting the safe operation
action of the facility caused by human action.
 Incompetency — is the manifest lack of  Natural Hazard – is the act or
adequate ability and fitness for the situation caused by natural
satisfactory performance, of police phenomenon, like floods, typhoons,
duties. earthquakes, etc.
 Dishonesty — is the concealment or
distortion of the truth in a matter or act 104. An inquiry into the character,
relevant to one’s office, or connected reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and
with the performance of his duties. loyalty of an individual in order to determines
person suitability for appointment or access
99. The operational support unit of the PNP to classified matter.
shall function as a mobile strike force or
reaction unit to augment police forces for A. Local Agency check
civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, B. Background Investigation
hostage taking, rescue operations and other C. National Agency Check
special operations: D. Personnel Security Investigation
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B. SWAT D. SOCO  National Agency Check- It consists of
LAC supplemented by investigation of the
100. The primary objective of records and files of the following agencies:
Philippine National Police: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
A. Law Enforcement C. Peace Immigration and Deportation and other
and Order agency.
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime  Local Agency Check- Refers to the
Prevention investigation of the records and files of
agency in the area of principal residence of
101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms the individual being investigated like
are not allowed to possess except when there Mayor, Police, Fiscal, Judge.
is an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as  Background Investigation – a check
determined by proper authority, but shall not made on an individual usually seeking
exceed of the total number of security employment through subjects records in
guards. the police files, educational institutions,
A. 50% C. 20% place of residence, and former employers.
B. 30% D. 10%
105. The importance of the firm or
102. The vault door should be made of steel installation with reference to the national
at least in thickness? economy security.
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative
B. 6 inches D. 20 program
feet or more B. Relative criticality D.
Relative security
Specifications of Vault
 Relative Vulnerability – is the
 Doors should be 6 inches thick made susceptibility of the plant or
of steel establishment to damage, loss or
 Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 disruption of operation due to various
inches thick hazards.
 Floor should be elevated by 4 inches
 Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size 106. Private security agencies have to be
 Vault door must be fire-resistive up to registered with the:
4 to 6 hours A. SEC C. DTI
B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD

 Trade name of the Security Agencies must

be registered at the Department of Trade
Page 12 of
and Industry

Page 13 of
107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a
certain facility what must be constructed.
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
B. Chain link fence D. Multiple
fences

 Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence

that provides visual access through the
fence.

108. A private security Guard who is escorting

a big amount of money or cash outside his
area of jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail
Order
B. Mission Order D. None of
These

109. What is the duration of the Basic

Security Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
B. 72 Hours D. 300
Hours

Classification and Duration Period of

training

 Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-

Licensing Training Course)- 150
Hours
 Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
 Security Officers Training Course- 300
Hours
 Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
 Security Supervisor Development Course
 Other Specialized Training Course

110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership

staff:

A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1

Line Leadership Staff

 Security Supervisor 3- Detachment
Commander- the field or area
commander of the agency.
 Security Supervisor 2- Chief
Inspector- responsible for inspecting
the entire area coverage by the
detachment.
 Security Supervisor 1- Inspector-
responsible for the area assigned by
the chief inspector or the detachment
commander.

111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is

twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4
point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed
wire fencing should not be less than high
excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet

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 a facility
Specifications

 Standard barbed wire is twisted double

strand, 12 gauge wires, with 4 point
barb spaced on equal distant part.
 Barbed wire fencing should not be less
than 7 feet high, excluding the top
guard.
 Barbed wire fencing must be firmly
affixed to post not more than 6 feet
apart.
 The distance between strands will not
exceed 6 inches and at least one wire
will be interlock vertical and midway
between posts.

112. Who exercises the power to remove,

for cause, license issued to security guards.

A. Any of these
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
D. C/PNP

113. What type of alarm is best suited

for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D.
Vibration Detection

 Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device

- A light beam connected by a wire to
control station and when an intruder
crosses the beam he breaks the contact
with the photoelectric coil which thus
activates the alarm.
 Audio Detection Device - It is a
supersensitive microphone speaker
sensor that is installed in walls, ceilings,
and floors of the protected area, Any
sound caused by attempted forced entry
is detected by file censor.
 Vibration detection device - Any
vibration caused by attempted force
entry is detected by the sensor.

114. Is the process of conducting physical

examination to determine compliance
with establishment security policies and
procedures?
A. Security Education C.
Security Inspection
B. Security Planning D.
Security Survey

Security Planning- Is a corporate and

executive responsibility. It involves knowing
the objectives of the security and the means
and the method to reach those objectives or
goal must then evolve.

 Security Survey- Is the process of

conducting an exhaustive physical
examination and thorough inspection of
all operation system and procedures of

Page 15 of
 Security Education - The basic goal is to
acquaint all the employees the
justification behind the security measures
and to insure cooperation at all times.
115. What is the last phase of
Security Education?
A. Initial Interview C.
Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security
promotion
Phases of Security Education
 Initial Interview
 Training Conference
 Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Security Promotion
 Special Interview
 Debriefing
116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
electronic device designed to prevent entry
into a building, room container, or hiding
place, and to prevent the removal of items
without the consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination
Locks
 Padlock- A portable and detachable lock
having or sliding hasp which passes
through a staple ring or the like and is then
made fast or secured.
 Code-Operated Locks - They are open
by pressing a series of numbered
buttons in the proper sequence.
 Combination Locks - A lock that requires
manipulation of dials according to a
predetermined combination code of
numbers or letters
117. A type of protective alarm system where
the protective alarm located outside the
installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central
Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
 Local Alarm by chance System - This is
a local alarm in which a siren or bell is
sounded with no predicable Response.
 Auxiliary System - In this system
installation circuits are led into local
police or fire department by lease
telephone line
 Proprietary System - It is the same as
the central station system except that it is
owned by, operated and located in the
facility
118. In which the badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific areas issued to
an employees who keeps it in the possession
Page 16 of
until his authorization is change or until he
terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass
exchange system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass
System
 Pass Exchange System- Which he
exchange one-color coded pass at the
entrance to the controlled area is issued to
an employee who keeps it in his
possession until his authorization or until
he terminates.
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of
passes are issued to an individual with the
same photograph. The individual exchange
his badge for another color or markings at
the entrance. Once inside, if he needs to
enter a restricted area, he exchanges it for
another color acceptable in that area.
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position
that tellers may activate the alarm by placing
the front of their foot to engage the
activation bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh
Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze
Button
 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency
Activation, when currency is removed from
the devices, the alarm is activated.
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed
inside the deck or teller station so they can
be activated by knee or thigh pressure.
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires
pressure on both side of the device and
therefore the probability of accidental
alarm is reduced.
120. These are wide beam units, used to
extend the illumination in long, horizontal
strips to protect the approaches to the
perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow,
horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the
vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C.
Floodlights
B. Street Lights D. Search
lights
 Floodlights - projects light in a
concentrated beam. Best used in
boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
 Searchlights - highly focused
incandescent lamps used in pinpointing
potential
 Street Lights - produced diffused light
rather than direction beam.
121. The following Firearms are allowed to
be issued to a private security guard under
normal condition:
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45; 128. A lock which is commonly installed in
III. Cal .38; safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof
IV. Magnum .22; and since it is operated by utilizing combinations
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun. by means of a dial.
A. None C. Card Operated
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V Locks
B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler
III, IV, V locks
122. What is the required capital investment  Card-Operated Locks - Coded card
for organization of private security agency? notched, embossed or containing an
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000 embedded pattern of copper flocks.
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000  Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as
wafer tumbler type, has flat metal
New applicants to operate shall be required tumblers with open center fitted into lock
to obtain a minimum capitalization of case, commonly used for Automobile
ONE MILLION (P1, 000, 000.00) pesos Industry which affords delay up to 7 to 10
with a minimum bank deposit of FIVE minutes.
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00)
pesos in order to start its business 129. The maximum number of
operations. firearms allowed to possess by a PSA
123. One who steals with preconceived plans should not exceed by units.
and takes away any or all types of items or A. 30 C. 500
supplies for economic gain? B. 70 D. 1000
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic Use of Firearms
pilferer
 Number of firearms shall not exceed one
 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to (1) for every two (2) Security Guard.
his inability to resist the unexpected (1:2)
opportunity and has little fear of  For Temporary licensed, one hundred
detection. (100) guards, an initial of at least 30
licensed firearms.
124. The metallic container used for securing  For regular licensed two hundred guards
documents or small items in an office or (200), at least 70 pieces of licensed
installation refers to: firearms.
A. Safe C. File room
B. Vault D. None of these 130. What type of gaseous discharge
lamp emits a blue- green color?
125. Chain link fences must be constructed
in material excluding the top guard? A. Sodium vapor lamp
A. Seven feet C. Four feet B. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Six feet D. Five feet C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
D. Quartz lamp
Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)  Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of
Specifications Gaseous Discharge lamp that
emit Yellow Light.
 Must be constructed in 7 feet material  Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very
excluding the top guard bright white light and instant on almost
 Must be of 9 gauge or heavier as rapidly as the incandescent lamp.
 Mesh opening must not be larger than  Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very
2 inches economical to use but for industrial
security it is not acceptable due to long
126. The following things are used as barrier, time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5
which serves as a deterrent to the possible minutes to light.
intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:  Incandescent Lamps- These are
A. Human C. Doors common light bulbs that are found in
B. Fences D. NONE every home. They have the advantage
of providing instant illumination
127. Vaults are storage devices which are
usually designed to be at least fire 131. What type of security deals with the
resistant. industrial plants and business enterprises
A. 3 hours C. 6 hours where personnel, processes, properties and
B. 24 hours D. 12 operations are safeguarded?
hours
Page 17 of
 A. Personal security C.
Operational security
B. industrial security D. bank
security
 Personal Security- Involves the
protection of top-ranking officials of
the government, visiting persons of
illustrious standing and foreign
dignitaries. Also called VIP security.
 Operational Security- This involves
the protection of processes,
formulas, and patents, industrial and
manufacturing activities from
espionage, infiltration, loss,
compromise or photocopying.
 School Security- Security involving
not only facilities but also the students
or pupils.
132. The following are principles of Physical
Security, EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously
entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous
security measures.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the
registration fee for each security guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo
Php
Payment of fees and licenses
 For Agency
 The sum of two thousand pesos (P
2,000.00) as national license fee
payable to the National Treasurer.
 The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as
payment for registration fee for each
security guard employed.
 For Individual
 One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per
year for Security Consultant,Security
Officer and Private Detectives
 Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for
Security Guard payable at the Chief
Finance Office, HQ PNP.
134. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person
described is cleared to access and classify
matters at appropriate levels. Interim
clearance will remain valid for a period of
from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years
 Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
Page 18 of
135. The term used in England for lock pickers,
safecrackers and penetrators of restricted
areas or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan
136. The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the
service contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
137. Which among the following is not
an advantage of a full-view fence,
except:
A. It allows visual access to the
installation which aids the intruder in
planning
B. It allows the intruder to become
familiar with the movements of persons
in the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could
prevent concealment of the
intruder.
D. None of these
138. Every registered PSA are mandatory
to give surety bond which shall answer for
any valid and legal claims against such
agency filed by aggrieved party. How
much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-
799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
 Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards –
P 50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards –
P100,000.00
o Agency with 500-799 guards –
P150,000.00
o Agency with 800-1000 guards –
P200,000.00
This bond shall answer for any valid and
legal claims against such agency filed by
aggrieved party.
139. What type of investigation involves all
aspect and details about the circumstances of
a person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
 Partial Background Investigation -
investigation of the background of the
individual but limited only to some of the
circumstances of his personal life.
140. The exposure and the teaching of agency, company guard force and
employees on security and its relevance to government security forces?
their work is: A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
A. Security Inspection C. B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487
Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. 146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain
Security Survey link or concertina. Chain link are for .
141. It is under physical security which A. Solid structure
provides sufficient illumination to areas during B. Permanent structure
hours of darkness. C. Least permanent structure
A. Protective Lighting C. D. Semi- permanent structure
Standby Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable  Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
Lighting  Concertina Wire Fences (Least
Permanent)
 Standby Lighting- This system is similar
to continuous lighting but it is turn on 147. It is more comprehensive investigation
manually or by special device or other than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough
automatic means. and complete investigation of all or some of
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s life
stationary or portable, manually operated is conducted?
searchlights. The searchlights may be
lighted continuously during the hours of A. Personnel Security Investigation
darkness nor only as needed, it is just a B. Background Investigation
supplementary to other protective or
security Lighting. C. Partial Background Investigation
 Emergency Lighting- This standby D. Complete Background Investigation
lighting may be utilized in the event of
electric failure, either due to local 148. The unobstructed area maintained on
equipment or commercial failure. both sides of a perimeter barrier on the
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common exterior and interior parallel area to afford
type consisting of series of fixed luminous better observation of the installation refers
flood a given area continuously with to:
overlap A. Clear zone C .Complimentary
zone
142. In order to be qualified as a Security B. Open zone D. Free zone
Consultant, you must have year/s
experience in the operation and management
of security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10
years
B. At least 1 year D. At least 149. The extension period for a license to
3 years operate issued upon a PSA that lacks
the required minimum number of
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to guards is:
their licensed firearm is needed after A. 1 month C. 6
operating for six months. months
A. 1:3 C. 1:2 B. 2 years D. 1 year
B. 1:5 D. 1:1
150. Which of the following types of lock is
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp generally used in car doors?
is useful in areas where insects A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
predominate? B. Disc tumbler lock D.
Combination lock
A. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Sodium vapor Lamp
151. Which among the following aspects of
C. Quartz lamp
Security is the weakest of them all?
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
A. Physical security
B. Personnel security
 Amber color does not attract insects at
C. Personal Security
night.
D. Document and information security
145. What is an act governing the organization
and management of private security 152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”.
The statement is-

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 A. Partially Correct C.
Partially Wrong

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 B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely 158. When are security guards deputized by
Wrong the PNP Chief or local mayor to have police
authority within their assigned area of
153. It refers to any structure or physical responsibility?
device capable of restriction, deterring or
delaying illegal access to an installation. A. When there is an employee’s strike
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter B. When the company is in retrenchment
Barrier C. During times of emergency
B. Barrier D. Energy D. When there is a crime committed inside the
Barrier establishment
 Perimeter Barrier- A medium or
159. It refers to records that are
structure which defines the physical limits
irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does
of an installation or area to restrict or
not have the same value as the original.
impeded access thereto
 Animal Barrier – Animals are used in A. Vital Documents
partially providing a guarding system B. Important Documents
like dogs and geese. C. Useful Documents
 Energy Barrier – It is the employment of D. Non- Essential Documents
mechanical, electrical, electronic energy
imposes a deterrent to entry by the Types of Documents
potential intruder.
 Class II – Important Documents- This
154. It is normally provided at main perimeter
includes records, the reproduction of which
entrances to secure areas located out of
will close considerable expense and labor,
doors, and manned by guards on a full time
or considerable delay.
basis.
 Class III – Useful Document- This
A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
include records whose loss might cause
B. Tower Guard D. Control inconvenience but could b readily replaced
Stations and which would not in the meantime
present an insurmountable obstacle
 Tower/Guard Tower – house-like
 Class IV – Non-essential Documents-
structures above the perimeter
These records are daily files, routine in
barriers. It gives a psychological effect
nature even if lost or destroyed, will not
to violators.
affect operation or administration. This
155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or class represents the bulk of the records
uniform member of the PNP honorably which should not be attempted to protect.
discharged/separated or retired from the
160. It is the importance of firm with
service are exempted from the requirements
reference to the national economy and
of a private detective. The statement is-
security.
A. False C. Absolutely
True A. Relative Operation
B. Partially True D. Maybe False B. Relative Security
C. Relative Vulnerability
156. The following are the areas to be lighted:
D. Relative Criticality of Operation
a. Parking Areas;
b. Thoroughfare; 161. A new Private security agency that has
c. Pedestrian Gates; been issued a temporary license to operate is
d. Vehicular Gates; and good for how many years?
e. Susceptible Areas. A. One C. Two
B. Three D. Four
A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c,  PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular
d, e license to operate good for two (2)
years
157. An additional overhead of barbed wire
placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing 162. The removal of the security classification
upwards and outward with a 45* angle with from the classified matter.
three to four strands of barbed wires spread 6” A. Segregation C. Declassify
apart. B. Reclassify D. Exclusion
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these

163. The form of security that employs

cryptography to protect information refers to:

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A. Document and information security

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 B. Operational security  Key control- is the management of keys
C. Communication security in a plant or business organization to
D. Industrial security prevent unauthorized individual access to
the keys.
164. The following are exempted from  Change key - A key to single lock within
Pre- licensing training. a master keyed system.
1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws  Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all
2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science the locks within a particular area or
in Criminology; grouping in a given facility.
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or  Master Key - A special key capable of
any PNP training school; opening a series of locks.
4. Veterans and retired  Grand Master Key - A key that will open
military/police personnel; and everything involving two or more master
5. Honorably discharged military/police key groups.
personnel.
171. PADPAO stands for:
A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5 A. Philippine Association of Detective
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
and 5 B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and
Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
165. The minimum age requirement for C. Philippine Association of Detective and
Security Manager or Operator of a security Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
agency is: D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and
A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
172. It refers to a protection against any type
 18 years Old- minimum age
of crime to safeguard life and assets by
qualification for SG.
various methods and device.
 50 years Old – Maximum age
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter
qualification for SG.
Security
166. The following are the categories of B. Operational Security D. Security
automatic alarm system, EXCEPT:
A. Photoelectric C. Electric 173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a
Eye Device security officer.
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps
A. Has graduated from a Security Officer
Training Course.
167. Which of the following is NOT a false key?
B. Holder of Masters Degree.
A. picklock or similar tool .
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
B. A duplicate key of the owner.
D. Physically or mentally fit.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
D. Any key other than those intended by
the owner. 174. These provides access within the
168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least: perimeter barrier and should be locked and
A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs. guarded.
B. 1000 lbs. D. 600
lbs. A. Gates and Doors
B. Side-Walk Elevator
169. The minimum number of guards required C. Utilities Opening
for a company security force is: D. Clear Zones
A. 1000 C. 30
B. 100 D. 200 175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of
 For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred security, with the corresponding
(200) and maximum of one recommendation is:
thousand (1,000). A. security inspection C. security
education
170. It refers to a system use in big B. security training D. security
installation whereby keys can open a group of survey
locks.
A. Key Control C. Master 176. What unit of PNP handles the processing
Keying and issuances of license for private security
B. Change Key D. Grand Master personnel?
Key A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED

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 B. PADPAO D. PNP  Controlled Lighting Type- The
SAGSD lighting is focused on the pile of
items, rather than the back ground.
177. What is the most common type of
human hazard? 183. What is the system of natural or man-
A. Sabotage C. Pilferage made barriers placed between the
B. Theft D. Subversion potential intruder and the object, person
and matter being protected?
178. What is the security force maintained and
operated by any private company/ corporation A. Communication security
for its own security requirements? B. Document security
A. GSU C. CSF C. Physical security
B. PSA D. PD D. Barrier

Types of Security Guard 184. The following are the purposes of

 Private Security- A security guard hired
by client belonging to private security
agency.
 Government Security- A security guard
recruited and employed by the
government
Security Survey, EXCEPT:
A. To ascertain the present
economic status
B. To determine the protection needed
C. To make recommendations to improve the
overall security
D. None of these

185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License

Certificate document which is issued by
179. What type of controlled area requires authorizing a person to engage in
highest degree of security? employing security guard or detective, or a
A. Limited C. Restricted juridical person to establish, engage, direct,
B. Special D. Exclusive manage or operate a private detective agency.
A. Secretary of DILG
 Restricted Area - It refers to an area in B. Chief, PNP
which personnel or vehicles are controlled C. Security and Exchange Commission
for reasons of security. D. President
 Limited Area - It is a restricted area in
which lesser degree of control is required 186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire
than in an exclusion area but which the fence is that the distances between strands
security interest would be compromised will not exceed and at least one wire
by uncontrolled movement. will be interlock vertical and midway between
posts.
180. File room is a cubicle in a building A. 3 inches C. 6
constructed a little lighter than a vault but inches
bigger size. One of the specifications of file B. 4 inches D. 7 inches
room should be feet high.
A. 12 C. 36 187. Clear Zone of must be established
B. 24 D. 48 between the perimeter barrier and structure
within the protected areas.
Specifications of File Room A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet
or more
 Should be 12 feet high B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet
 Interior cubage should not be more than or more
10,000 cubic feet
 Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour 20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier
and exterior structure. (Outside)
181. Concertina wire should be feet
long and 3 feet diameter.
188. Which among the following statements
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
is FALSE?
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet
A. Protective Lighting diminish
182. What type of security lighting is focused visibility so that intruders can be
to the intruder while the guard remains in seen, identified or apprehend.
the comparative darkness? B. Protective Lighting makes easier for
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light guards to identify employees during
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- night time.
projection C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological
fear, which serves as a deterrent.

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 D. Protective Lighting can reduce the department.
number of stationary guards.

189. The highest rank in security agency

organizational structure:

A. Security Executive Director

B. Chief Security Director
C. Security Staff Director

D. Security Staff Director

Security Management Staff

 Security Director (SD)-Agency

Manager/Chief Security officer-
responsible for the entire operation and
administration/management of the
security agency
 Security Executive Director (SED) -
Assistant agency manager/Assistant
chief security officer- automatically the
security executive director, assists the
agency security director and takes
operational and administrative
management when the manager is
absent.
 Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff
director for operation and
administration- He is also responsible for
the conduct of investigation and training.

190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar

resistance container usually a part of the
building structure use to keep, and
protect cash, documents and valuables
materials.
A. Vault C. Safe
B. File Room D. None
of these

191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after

his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his
Firearm?

A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in

the company’s Vault.
B. Turnover to the next
security guard on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for
easy responses.
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer
of the guards table.

192. Any physical structure whether natural or

man-made capable of restricting, deterring or
delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier

193. A company owned protective alarm with

unit in a nearest police station of fire

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 A. Proprietary Alarm C. I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches
Auxiliary Alarm thick;
B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm

194. It is Lighting equipment which produced

diffused light rather than direction beam.
They are widely used in parking areas
A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights

195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses

shall cease to operate, and with days
after having been duly notified of such
cease operation order, shall immediately
deposit all its firearms with the FEO.
A. 7 days C. 21 days
B. 3 days D. 30 days

196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the

sudden rise in temperature will not cause the
safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand
2000 0F for 30 minutes without cracking or
opening then it has passed the test.

A. Fire Endurance Test

B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard
Test Test for Fire

Resistance

 Fire Endurance Test- A safe

should not have any one time a
temperature 350 0F.
 Fire and Impact Test- Its objective
is to determine the strength of a safe
to resist the collapse of a building
during fire.

197. Services of any security personnel

shall be terminated on the following
grounds:

1. Expiration of contract;
2. Revocation of license to
exercise profession;
3. Conviction of crime involving
moral turpitude;
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and
5. Physical and mental disability.

A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4,
and 5

198. For every security guard the basic load

of their Firearm is-
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds
B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited

 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm

199. The following are the specifications of

a Vault:
Page 26 of
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;  Patrol Components - include the air
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made patrols; the line beat patrols, mobile
of steel; and patrols and detective repressive
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches. patrols.
 Auxiliary Components - include the
A. I, III, IV C. I, II, security guards deployed in area, the
III traffic enforcer, barangay tanods,
B. I, II, IV D. I, II, volunteers and NGO’s.
III, IV
204. Report prepared by the patrol officer
200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or upon reaching the end of the line beat, and
any activities to test its validity. before returning to the point of origin.
A. Practice C. Dry run A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation
B. Rehearsal D. Trial Report
B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
201. A fixed point or location to which
an officer is assigned for duty: Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
A. Post C. Beat
B. Area D. Route 205. The ideal police response time is:
A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
 Route - the length of street or streets, B. 7 minutes D. 10
designated for patrol purposes also minutes
referred to as line beat.
 Beat - an area designed for patrol 206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or
purposes, whether foot or motorized. condition possessing a high potential for
 Sector - an area containing two or criminal attack or for the creation of problem
more beats, routes or posts. necessitating a demand for immediate police
 District - a geographical subdivision of service:
a city for patrol purposes, usually with A. Hazard C. Opportunity
its own station. B. Perception of Hazard D. Police
 Area - A section or territorial division of Hazard
a large city.
 Hazard – it refers to any person, place,
202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or thing, situation, or condition which, if
distracter to in order to catch criminals is allowed to exist may induce an accident or
known as: cause the commission of a crime.
A. High visibility patrol
C. Target Oriented patrol 207. The most expensive patrol method and
B. Low visibility patrol gives the greatest opportunity to develop
D. Decoy patrol sources of information is:
A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
 Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter
designed to increase the number of Patrol
apprehension of law violator to engage
in certain types of crimes 208. Walking closed to the building at night is
 High Visibility – Marked police Car and a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen
Poilce inj Uniform. Primary objective is less visible during the night. The primary
Crime Prevention. purpose is:

 Target Oriented Patrol - It is A. To surprise criminals in the

patrol strategy which is directed act of committing a crime
towards specific persons or places. B. To have sufficient cover
C. To attract less attention
203. Barangay Tanod is included in what D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
component of Integrated Patrol System?
209. The following are included in the cause
A. Fixed Component and effect of team policing.
B. Auxiliary Component
C. Secondary Component a. Reduce public fear on crime;
D. Patrol Component b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
 Fixed Components - include the d. Diminish police morale; and
different police station headquarters, e. Improve police community relation.
PCP, police visibility points, and
traffic post. A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e

Page 27 of

210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional
patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol
officers perform specific predetermined
preventive functions on a planned systematic
basis:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s
area can be best penetrated by the police
through.
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter
patrol
212. Integrated patrol system is the total
system used to accomplish the police visibility
program of the PNP. The Police officers in
Police Community Precincts render 24 hours
duty with prescribed divisions of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. every
other day shift.
213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce
or totally prevent the desire of human being to
commit crime.
A. Preventive C. Proactive
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol
personnel in their respective Area of
Responsibility with definite objectives.
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in
patrolling wherein officers and units drive
around their area of responsibility
waiting for something to happen or
waiting for a call that they will respond.
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined
advantage of since they can
be operated very quietly and without
attracting attention.
A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
B. Reduced speed and greater
area covered.
C. Shorter travel time and faster
response.
D. Mobility and stealth
215. What is the most excellent method of
Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
216. When was the first automobile patrol
initiated in the Philippines and the First
Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila
Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
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A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917
217. As a Patrol officer, when checking
suspicious persons, places, buildings/
establishments and vehicles especially during
night-time, be prepared to use your service
firearm and Flashlight should be-
A. Nearby the body, to have an
easy searching of a possible target.
B. Tightly away from the body to
avoid making you a possible
target.
C. Close at hand to your firearm to
threaten possible adversary.
D. None of these
218. What is your priority as a Patrol
officer when responding to Calls for
Police Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals C.
Securing the area
B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money
219. The following are the duties of
Patrol Supervisors:
Make a patrol plan;
Designate and select the members of the
patrol team/s;
Inspect the members of the patrol on the
completeness;
Render hourly report of location and
situation; and
Resolve conflicts/differences between
neighbours.
A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be
fired upon, except when its occupants pose
imminent danger of causing death or injury to
the police officer or any other person, and that
the use of firearm does not create a danger to
the public and outweighs the likely benefits of
its non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle,
the following parameters should be considered
EXCEPT:
A. Accessibility or the proximity of the
fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and
other persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
harm in certainty the police officer or
other persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
the police officer or other p
D. The kind of vehicle of the
fleeing suspect/s to avoid traffic
accident.
 221. When Patrol officer visually observe a
weapon during pat-down search, a more
secure search position may be:
A. Standing position
B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary
object, and feet spread apart.
D. All of these
222. All except one are the types of
specialized patrol method:
A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
B. Canine Patrol D. Foot
Patrol
223. A uniformed patrol officers work
in generally judged by his-
i. Knowledge of all problems in the
community
ii. Residents developed good public relations
iii. Ability
iv. His capability to solve crimes that
happened in his area
224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful
assemblies?
A. True C. False
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No
225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is
needed in the police department?
A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds
B. 30 – 300 MHz
C. Above 30 MHz
D. NONE
 Radio waves- The radio or
electromagnetic waves travel as fast as
the speed of light at 186, 000 miles per
second or 300, 000 kilometers per second.
 30 – 300 MHz – intended for
short distances transmission.
226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the
police department that can be eliminated
227. It is usually used for traffic,
surveillance, parades and special events.
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot
Patrol
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat
Patrol
 Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when
then there is considerable foot movement
such as business and shopping center,
family dwellings and the like.
o Line beat patrol – it is used in
securing certain portion of the road.
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in
checking residential buildings,
business establishments, dark alley,
and parking lots.
228. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
229. This type of patrol maintains better
personal contact with the members of the
community ideal in gaining the trust and
confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle
Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot
Patrol
 Automobile Patrol - It separates
public from the Police.
230. The patrol pattern which is usually done
at the last hour of duty to ascertain that
nothing happened in the area of
responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
 Clockwise Patrol Pattern -
Rectangular/square size of beat; done in
the start of 8 hours tour of duty.
 Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern -
Done by patrolling the streets within the
perimeter of the beat not at random but
with definite target location where he
knows his presence is necessary.
 Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol
Pattern - Hazard oriented patrol; Easiest
to observe the movement of the patrol
officer.
 Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway
intersection designed to route traffic
without interference, by means of a
system of curving ramps from one level to
another, in the form of a Four (4) leaf
clover
231. The following are the advantages of Foot
Patrol. EXCEPT:
A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
232. Dogs are of great assistance in
search and rescue as well as in smelling
out drugs
Page 29 of
and bombs. What do you call the large dog
with drooping ears and sagging jaws and
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used
for tracking purposes?
A. German shepherd C.
Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
 German Shepherd- the most
frequently used and high scoring dog
for police work
 WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link
and Video Exploration System) – It is
the system of attaching miniature
camera and transmitter to a search
dog which makes the dogs the eyes
and ears of his handler.
233. The best method of patrol to be done in
sector is:
A. Foot C. Automobile
B. Bicycle D. Helicopter
234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually
computed in terms of number of:
A. Superiors to whom he reports
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
C. Subordinates directly reporting to
him
D. Any of these
235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police
officer from becoming with people,
hazards, and facilities on his beat.
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar
236. The patrol pattern to be followed
after the clockwise and before the counter-
clockwise?
A. Straightway C. Crisscross
B. Sector D. Zigzag
237. The two-man patrol became
to increase attack of police officer by militant,
dangerous section to be patrolled and many
riots demonstration in the street.
A. Unnecessary C. Necessary
B. Voluntary D. Redundant
238. A police strategy which aims to directly
involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
C. Detective Beat System
B. Comparative Police System
D. Community Oriented
Policing System
Integrated Patrol System
 Considered as the best way of
immersing policemen in various
activities of a particular area and to
demonstrate to the populace the
commitment of the Police to serve and
protect the community.
 It is response to the requirement of
Police Visibility.
Detective Beat System - enhancing the
efficiency and effectiveness of the PNP’s
investigation capability
239. Which among the following routine patrol
duties, is the least likely to become completely
a function of automobile patrol is the checking
of-
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages.
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other
advertisement.
240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post
for patrolmen in areas where police hazards
are serious is that, it usually-
A. Encourages laxness on the part of
Patrolman.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted
charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the
patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick
mobilization is needed.
241. Patrol weaken the potential
offenders belief in the-
A. Opportunity for graft.
B. Existence of an opportunity to
effectively violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use
specialized squads.
due 242. Team Policing is said to be originated
in :
A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
B. Vienna, Austria D. London,
England
243. They are considered as the first to utilize
dogs for patrolling:
A. Egyptians C. English
B. Chinese D.
American
244. Psychology of Omniprescense
means .
A. Low Visibility C. High
Visibility
B . Reactive D. Proactive
245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping
in a 13th floor building. Which of the
following should be the first thing to do by
the Patrol officer who first arrived at the
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scene?

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 A. Urge no to jump B. The Patrol officer shall arrest
B. Call nearest relative the suspect.
C. Clear the area C. No further search may be made.
D. Report immediately to Station
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
46. What is the most realistic advantage of the supervisor.
motorcycle patrol over the other patrol
methods? 252. During Civil Disturbances, what may
A. Low cost C. Visibility be utilized when demonstrators become
B. Speed D. Security unruly and aggressive forcing troops to fall
back to their secondary positions?
247. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol A. Tear Gas C. Water
officers are different from ordinary Police Cannon
Officer. B. Truncheon D. Shield
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes
of Police Organization.  Tear gas - may be utilized to break
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in up formations or groupings of
determining the quality of justice to be served demonstrations who continue to be
in a community. aggressive and refused to disperse
4th Statement- All police function had been despite earlier efforts.
vested to the patrol division.
253. The factors to be considered in
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct determining the number of patrol officers to
B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are be deployed in an area are the following:
correct a. Size of the area;
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect. b. Topography;
D. All statements are correct c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.
248. The basic purpose of patrol is most
effectively implemented by police activity A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
which- B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
A. Provides for many types of specialized
patrol, with less emphasis on routine. 254. The patrol strategy which is best on
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker populous areas such as markets, malls,
aspiration to commit crime.C. Influences and ports is:
favorable individual and group attitudes in A. Blending patrol C.
routine daily associations with the Reactive patrol
police. B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes
D. Intensifies the potential patrol
offender’s expectation of
apprehension. 255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching
every intersection until reaching the point of
249. What is the new concept, police strategy origin is following what pattern?
which integrates the police and community A. Clockwise C. Zigzag
interests into a working relationship so as to B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
produce the desired organizational objectives
of peacemaking? 256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle
A. Preventive patrol C. Community Patrol:
Relation A. Can report regularly to the command
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing center.
B. Can operate quietly and without
250. What is the appropriate patrol method attracting attention.
that is most ideally suited to evacuation and C. C. It is inexpensive to operate .
search-and-rescue operations?
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile D. It can cover areas that are not
B. Helicopter D. Horse accessible by patrol cars.
 Automobile – To carry an Extra 257. The following are advantages of the use
equipment by the Patrol Officers of Radio in Police Work:
251. If the external patting of the suspect’s
I. Simple Installation Process;
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
II. Cost of transceivers has relatively
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
gone down;
A. Conduct a complete search. III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;

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IV. Availability of safeguards in the D. Canine Patrol
transmission of classified operational
information.

A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV

B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV

258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing

after patrol is-
A. To integrate the police and the
community interest into a working
relationship.B. To remind the patrol on the
strict observance of the PNP Operational
Procedures.
C. To assess its conduct and make
necessary corrective measures on
defects noted.
D. All of the Above

259. The members of the Patrol teams shall

form and assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least before the start
of their shift for accounting-
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. 15
minutes

260. The police must make an effort to

ascertain and amaze upon the law abiding
citizens and would be criminals alike that the
police are always existing to respond to any
situation at a moment’s notice and he will just
around the corner at all times. This statement
refers to:

A. Police Omnipresence

B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion
D. Integrated Patrol

261. A patrol beat refers to a:

A. Number of crimes to be solved

B. Location of police headquarters
C. Number of residence to be protected
D. Geographical area to be protected

262. Team members of the decoy may dress

themselves in a manner designed to help
them blend the neighborhood where they are
deployed.
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely
True
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No

263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is

the advantage of:

A. One Man Patrol Car

B. Two Man Patrol Car
C. Foot Patrol

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264. The least desirable of all police shifts Headquarters files
due to lack of activities:
A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
B. Night Shift D. None of these

265. Time between the call of the Police

to arrival at the scene of an incident:
A. Response Time C. Call Time
B. Duration Time D. Critical Time

 Response time - It refers to the

running time of the dispatched patrol
car from his position where the
assignment was received and the arrival
at the scene.

266. The percentage of police

officers assigned in patrol is:
A. 20% C. 40%
B. 25% D. 50%

 Criminal Investigation – 15%

 Traffic Function – 10%
 Vice and Juvenile Related
Functions – 10%
 Administrative Function – 10%
 Auxilliary Functions – 5%

267. Refers to the actual stopping or

accosting of armed and dangerous person or
persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot,
including the power to use all necessary and
legal means to accomplish such end.

A. Dragnet Operation
B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. High-Risk Arrest

D. High Risk Stop

 Dragnet Operation - is a police
operation purposely to seal-off the
probable exit points of fleeing
suspects from the crime scene to
prevent their escape.
 High Risk Arrest - is the actual
restraint of armed persons following
a high-risk stop.
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate
response to block the escape of
lawless elements from a crime scene,
and is also established when nearby
checkpoints are ignored or during hot
pursuit operations.

268. Which among the following activities

during post-patrol or post-deployment phase
is not included?

A. Formation & Accounting

B. Inspection & recall of Equipment
C. Debriefing/Report Submission
D. Briefing

269. It refers to a computer that is installed

inside a patrol car which allows patrol
officer to have an access from the

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and other Law Enforcement Agencies which
are used in order to expedite their operation. 275. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. No one should have more than one
A. Mobile Data Terminal
boss.
B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan effectively supervise.
D. CCTV D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates.
 Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a
Video Camera which is attached 276. Which among the following Patrol Method
and installed in a patrol car with a is appropriate when responding to quick
high- resolution and wide angle emergency call?
lens. A. Motorcycle Patrol C.
 High Intensity Emergency Lighting Automobile Patrol
Plan – It refers to a heavy duty light B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol
that can provide two (2) million candle
power of light. 277. The following are the advantages of
Regular post.
270. The first organized patrol for policing
purposes was formed in London. This patrol I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly
pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty familiar with the various post
to ascertain that nothing happened in the area conditions;
of responsibility of the patrol? II. Patrol officer takes more pride and
A. Straight C. Crisscross interest in improving the conditions
B. Clockwise D. Counter on his post resulting in better public
clockwise relations and cooperation from the
residents;
271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the III. Favoritism will be lessened because
outer garments of an individual for weapons of transitory assignments; and
only. IV. The patrol officer moral is
A. Frisking C. Search enhanced, since a steady post is an
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down indication of public acceptance of
Search his work.
 Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief A. I, II and III C. I, II, and
stopping of an individual, whether on foot IV
or in a vehicle, based on reasonable B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III,
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose and IV
of determining the individual’s identity and
resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning 278. Detective Beat System is one of the
criminal activity. concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing
the field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within
Chief who introduces this DBS?
the perimeter of the beat not at random but
A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo
with definite target location where he knows
Pena
his presence is necessary.
B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir.
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag
Rene Sarmiento
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross
 Dir. Almajose – First Chief of
273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of Mobile Patrol in Manila.
patrol; the following are the advantages of
Foot patrol, EXCEPT: 279. The type of Patrol which requires
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for special skills and training:
action taken. A. TV C. Air
B. It enables patrol officers to cover a B. Automobile D. Foot
considerable area
C. Inspire more Public confidence. 280. Traditional foot patrolling in
D. The officer can actually get to know the the Philippines was initiated on:
physical layout of his beat better. A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7,
1901
274. The word Patrol was derived from the B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17,
French word which means to go 1901
through paddles.
A. Patroulier C. Patroul
B. Politeia D. Politia 281. In police communication, 10-74 means:

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 A. Negative C. Need offense while fleeing from one police
Assistance jurisdictional boundary.
B. Caution D. Unable to  Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or
copy projected spot where the armed and
dangerous person or persons would pass
Some APCO TEN SIGNALS or likely to pass and so tactically located
as to gain calculated advantage against
 10 – 0 Caution
said person or persons.
 10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
 10 – 50 Accident 287. The advisable cruising speed in
 10 – 70 Fire Alarm automobile patrol ranges from:
 10 – 78 Need Assistance A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
 10 – 90 Bank Alarm B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph
282. This patrol tactic would result to
improvement of police omnipresence:

A. Target Oriented Patrol 288. It is the primary objective of police

patrol operations:
B. High-Visibility Patrol
A. Crime Prevention
C. Low-Visibility Patrol B. Preservation of Peace and Order
D. Directed deterrent Patrol C. Law enforcement
D. All of these
283. Police Community Precincts are
mandatorily led by an officer with the rank of
with a minimum of 30 personnel  Preservation of peace and order - It
including the commander divided into 3 shifts. is the fundamental obligation of the
Police and it is the most important
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent function performed by the patrol
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt. service
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt.
D. C/Insp. To Supt. 289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a
patrol strategy called:
284. The smelling sense of dog is up to A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed
how many times more sensitive than Patrol
human’s sense of smell? B. Preventive Patrol D.
A. One thousand times C. One Proactive Patrol
hundred times
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten 290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a
million times crime incident faster but undetected, then
the best patrol method that he should employ
285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to is:
another through common medium and A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile
channel. patrol
A. Information C. B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
Communication
B. Police Communication D. Radio 291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to
the act of a person that enables another to
286. Refers to a location where the search, victimize him:
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is A. Instrumentality C.
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of Opportunity
crimes, enforce the law, and for other B. Motive D. Capability
legitimate purposes.
A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place  Motive - It is the basis why the people
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre- will commit crime or it is what induces the
Determined Area people to act.
 Instrumentality - it is the means used in
 Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional executing the crime
Pursuit) - (also termed in the US as
fresh pursuit) immediate, recent chase 292. The factors to be considered in
or follow-up without material interval for determining the number of patrol officers to
the purpose of taking into custody any be deployed in an area are the following,
person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or except:
one suspected to have committed a A. Size of the area
recent B. Topography
C. Possible problems to be encountered

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D. Neither of them

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293. The patrol strategy which brings the
police and the people together in a
cooperative manner in order to prevent crime:
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive
patrol
294. The theory in patrol which states that
police officers should conduct overt police
operations in order to discourage people from
committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low police visibility theory
C. Low profile theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
295. The principle of patrol force
organization which states that patrol officers
should be under the command of only one
man refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Command responsibility
Organization Principles
 Span of Control - refers to the
number of officers or subordinates that
a Superior supervises without regard to
the effectiveness or efficiency of the
supervision.
 Delegation of Authority - is the
assignment of tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates while at
the same time giving them the power
or right to control, command, make
decisions, or otherwise act in
performing the delegated
responsibilities.
 Chain of Command - the
arrangement of officers from top to
bottom on the basis of rank or
position and authority
 Command Responsibility - dictates
that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective
supervision and control of their
personnel and unit.
296. The elimination of the opportunity of
people to commit crime as a result of
patrol.
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression
D. Crime deterrence
297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate
when mobility is needed in small alleys?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV
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B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area
298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the
primary objective of patrol activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the
community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.
299. The following are benevolent services
performed by the Patrol officers:
I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
300. All but one are the dogs best suited for
police work except:
A. Askals C. Chihuahua
B. Rottweiler D. All of these
301. What law provides for the creation of the
National Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
A. EO 389 C. EO 1012
B. EO 1040 D. EO 246
 EO 389- ordered that the Philippine
Constabulary be one of the four services of
the Armed Forces of the Philippines,
enacted on December 23, 1940
 EO 1012- transferred to the city and
municipal government the operational
supervision and direction over all INP units
assigned within their locality; issued on
July 10, 1985
 EO 1040- transferred the administrative
control and supervision of the INP from the
Ministry of National Defense to the
National Police Commission
302. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker
 Cryptography- It is defined as an art
and science of codes and ciphers.
 Cryptographer- It refers to a person
who is highly skilled in converting
message from clear to unintelligible
forms by use of codes and cipher.
303. Agent who is a member of paramilitary
group organized to harass the enemy in a hot
war situation.
A. Guerilla C.
Propagandist
B. Provocateur D. Strong Arm
Kinds of Action Agent
  Espionage Agent- Agent who
clandestinely procure or
collect information.
 Propagandist- Agents who molds the
attitudes, opinions, and actions of an
individual group or nation.
 Saboteur- Agents who undertakes
positive actions against an unfriendly
power, resulting in the loss of use
temporarily or permanently of an article
or others.
 Strong Arm- Agent who is made to
provide special protection during
dangerous phase of clandestine
operations.
 Provocateur- Agent who induces an
opponent to act to his own detriment
304. It is a type of Cover which alters the
background that will correspond to the
operation.
A. Multiple C. Natural
B. Artificial D. Unusual
 Multiple- Includes different cover
 Natural- Actual or True Background.
305. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
i. Intelligence Officer can submit his
information report any time since it is to
processes.
ii. All intelligence information’s are
collected by clandestine method.
iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in
a medium size police station.
iv. Patrol Officers can help collect
intelligence information by initiating
good public relations.
306. Wire tapping operations in our country is
strictly prohibited but it can be done at the
commander’s discretion since it tends to
collect intelligence information.
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Wholly True D. Wholly False
307. If information comes with a low
reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this
information be discarded or refused
acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes C. Yes
B. No D. Maybe No
308. In selection and recruitment of informers
the best factor to be considered is:
A. Age C. Access
B. Educational AttainmentD. Body built
309. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
Wiretapping Act” which prohibits wiretapping
in our country.
A. RA 1700 C. RA
4200
B. RA 7610
D. CA 616
 RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act
 CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and
other Offenses against National
Security
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of
Children Against Abuse, Exploitation
and Discrimination Act
310. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person
described is cleared to access and classify
matters at appropriate levels. Interim
clearance will remain valid for a period of
from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 5 years
B. 2 years D. 4
years
 Final Clearance – 5 years
311. How will you evaluate the intelligence
report of Agent Buanko with an evaluation
rating of D2?
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true
information
B. Unreliable source – probably true
information
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true
information
D. Not Usually reliable source – probably
true information
312. It is a process or method of obtaining
information from a captured enemy who is
reluctant to divulge information.
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging
B. Elicitation D. Tactical
Interrogation
 Elicitation - The process of extracting
information from a person believes to be in
possession of vital information without his
knowledge or suspicion.
 Bugging - The use of an equipment or
tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
 Wiretapping - A method of collecting
information thru interception of
telephone conversation.
313. The term of office of the members of
the PLEB is
A. 6 years
B. 3 years
C. 6 years without re-appointment
D. None of the above
314. He directs the organization in conducting
the clandestine activity.
A. Target C. Sponsor
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 B. Agent D. Support Agent
 Target- Person, place or things against
which the clandestine activity is to be
conducted.
 Agent- It refers to a person who conducts
the clandestine Operations to include
Principal Agents, Action Agents, and
Support Agents.
315. It refers to an associate of the subject
who follows him to detect surveillance.
A. Convoy C. Decoy
B. Subjct D.
Surveillant
 Decoy- A person or object used by the
subject in attempt to elude Surveillant
 Surveillant – is the plainclothes
investigator assigned to make
the
observation.
 Subject – is who or what is observed. It
can be a person, place, property, and
vehicle, group of people, organization or
object.
316. It is a type of Agent used in collecting
information who leaks false information to the
enemy.
A. Double Agent C. Expendable
Agent
B. Agent of Influence D. Penetration
Agent
Types of Agent used in collecting of
Information
 Agent of Influence- Agent who uses
authority to gain information
 Agent in Place- Agent who has been
recruited within a highly sensitive
target
 Penetration Agent- Agent who have
reached to the enemy, gather
information and able to get back
without being caught.
 Double Agent- An enemy agent, who
has been taken into custody, turned
around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors.
317. It is one of the Functional Classification of
Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of
crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Public Safety Intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
 Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT)
– refers to the knowledge essential to the
maintenance of peace and order.
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 Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) –
refers to the knowledge essential to ensure
the protection of lives and properties
318. Intelligence is the end product resulting
from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration, and interpretation of all available
information. What is considered as the core of
intelligence operations?
A. Dissemination C. Analysis
B. Mission D. Planning
319. He is regarded as the "Father
of Organized Military Espionage".
A. Alexander the Great
B. Frederick the Great
C. Karl Schulmeister
D. Arthur Wellesley
 Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the
"Greatest Military Spymaster at All
Time".
 Karl Schulmeister- famous as
"Napoleon's Eye". He was credited for
establishing counter intelligence
conducted against spies.
 Alexander the great - He was able to
identify those disloyal ones by ordering
the communication letters opened and
was successful in curtailing the decline
of esprit de corps and morale of his
men.
320. There are four categories of classified
matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and
restricted. To distinguish one against the
other, their folder consists of different colors.
What will be the color of the document which
requires the highest degree of protection?
A. Red C. Black
B. Blue D. Green
 Secret (RED)
 Confidential (BLUE)
 Restricted (BLACK)
321. What verse of the Holy Bible that
includes the biblical indication of the
beginning of Intelligence?
A. Number 13:17 C. Number
3:17
B. Number 17:13 D. Number
17:3
322. A certain locality is identified to be a
major source of illicit drugs, to resolve this
issue intelligence officer was deployed to live
in the area for a considerable amount of time
to find out the authenticity of such reports.
A. Social assignments
B. Work assignments
C. Organizational assignments
D. Residential assignments
 Work Assignment – getting employed
where the investigator can observe the
 activities of the subject at his place REMINDER: You should LEARN
of work. BY HEART this Evaluation Guide
 Social Assignments – Frequent places of
entertainment and amusement habitually 325. It is a form of investigation in which the
being visited by the subject. operative assumes a cover in order to obtain
 Personal Contact Assignment – the information
investigator required to develop the A. Overt operation C. Undercover
friendship and trust of the subject. assignment
 Multiple Assignment – The investigator B. Covert operation D. clandestine
is tasked to cover two (2) or more of the operation
above specific assignments
simultaneously, it can produce extensive 326. What is evaluation of the intelligence
information with minimum expenses but report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto
more prone to compromise. which is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully
true information?
323. It is a type of intelligence activity which
A. D C. C-4
deals with defending the organization against
B. C-5 D. D-5
its criminal enemies?
A. Line Intelligence C. Counter-
327. The following must be observed during
Intelligence
surveillance:
B. Strategic Intelligence D.
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
Tactical Intelligence
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
 Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is c. Recognize fellow agent;
the intelligence information which d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
directly contributes to the e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
accomplishment of specific objectives
A. a, c, d C. b, d, e
and immediate in nature.
B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
 Strategic Intelligence - This is
intelligence information which is not 328. In surveillance, the following are done to
immediate operational but rather long alter the appearance of the surveillance
range. vehicle, EXCEPT:
A. Changing license plates of surveillance
324. What is the evaluation of an intelligence
vehicle
report which is “usually from a reliable source
B. Putting on and removing hats,
and improbable information”?
coats and sunglasses
A. C-5 C. B-5
C. Change of seating arrangement within the
B. B-3 D. C-3
surveillance vehicle
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
EVALUATION GUIDE FOR
COLLECTED
329. A is usually for the purpose of waiting
INFORMATION
for the anticipated arrival of the
Accuracy of suspect who is either wanted for
Reliability of Information Source of the Information investigation or who is expected to
Informati CODE: CPPDIT commit a crime at a certain location.
on A. Stake out C. Rough
CODE: CUFNUR Shadowing
B. Shadowing D. surveillance
A – Completely Reliable 1 – Confirmed By T – Direct Observation by

Other Sources a commander or Unit  Surveillance – is the covert,

discreet observation of people and
B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration places for the purpose of obtaining
or resident agent information concerning the identities
or activities of subjects.
C - Fairly Reliable 3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper  Moving Surveillance or
or PNP personnel in operation Shadowing or tailing – simply the
act of following a person.
D – Not Usually Reliable 4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a  Rough Shadowing – employed
captured enemy or agent without special precautions, the
subject maybe aware of the
E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable X – Observation by a government surveillance; employed also when
or civilian employee or official the subject is a material witness and
must be protected from harm or
F – Reliability Cannot 6 – Truth Cannot Y – Observation by a member other undesirable influences.
Be Judged Be Judged of populace

Z - Documentary Page 33 of
330. In the Intelligence function, the black
list includes forces.
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
B. Neutral D. Unfriendly
331. They are responsible for foreign
intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also
referred as Box 850 because of its old post
office box number.
A. Security Service (MI-5)
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6)
C. Government Communication
Headquarters
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
UK Intelligence Agency
• Security Service (MI-5 or Military
Intelligence Section 5) – Internal Counter-
Intelligence and Security agency also
responsible for internal Security of United
Kingdom.
• Government Communications
Headquarters (GCHQ) - responsible for
providing signals intelligence (SIGINT) and
information assurance to the UK government
and armed forces.
• Defense Intelligence Staff (DIS) - is a
collector of intelligence through its
Intelligence Collection Group (ICG)
332. Known as the Prussia's "King of
Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he
studied the use of propaganda and
censorship as well as utilizing statistical
intelligence accounting.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte C.
Wilhem Steiber
B. AKBAR D. Delilah
 Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the
right place is worth 20,000 men in the
field". He organized two Bureau of
Interest.
 Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise
master of Hindustan employed more
than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose
of bringing him the truth that his throne
might rest upon it.
 Delilah- A biblical personality who was
able to gain information by using her
beauty and charm.
333. If the information or documents are
procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
 Covert Operation – Information are
procured clandestinely
Page 34 of
334. Investigation of the records and files of
agencies in the area and residence of the
individual being investigated.
A. CBI C. NAC
B. PBI D. LAC
 National Agency Check- It consists of
LAC supplemented by investigation of the
records and files of the following agencies:
PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
Immigration and Deportation and other
agency.
 Background Investigation – a check
made on an individual usually seeking
employment through subjects records in
the police files, educational institutions,
place of residence, and former employers.
 Complete Background Investigation- it
is a type of BI which is more
comprehensive, that consist of detailed
information regarding the subject.
335. The end product resulting from the
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration,
and interpretation of all available information
regarding the activities of criminals and other
law violators for the purpose of affecting
their arrest, obtaining evidence, and
forestalling plan to commit crimes.
A. Police Intelligence
B. National Intelligence
C. Miltary Intelligence
D. Departmental Intelligence
 National Intelligence- integrated
product of intelligence developed by all
government departments concerning the
broad aspect of national policy and
national security.
 Department of Intelligence – the
intelligence required by department or
agencies of the government to execute
its mission and discharge its
responsibilities.
 Military Intelligence – refers to the
knowledge by the military institution
essential in the preparation and execution
of military plans, policies and programs.
336. It is considered as the most secured
method of disseminating the information to
the user of classified matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing C. Conference
B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
337. It refers to the combination of all
analyzed data to form a logical picture or
theory.
A. Integration C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
 Recording – is the reduction of
information into writing or some
other form of graphical
representation and the arranging of
this information into groups related
items.

Page 33 of
  Evaluation – is the determination of classification after determining that
the pertinence of the information to
the operation, reliability of the source
of or agency and the accuracy of the
information.

 Analysis- This is the stage in which

the collected information is subjected
to review in order to satisfy significant
facts and derive conclusion there from.
 Interpretation- Process of
determining the significance of new
information in the possible alternatives.

338. It refers to the person who conducts the

clandestine Operation.
A. Agent C. Support Agent
B. Action Agent D.
Principal Agent

 Principal Agent- Leader or

management Agent in clandestine
operation usually undertaken by the
case officer.
 Support Agent- Agent who is
engaged in activities which supports
the clandestine operations and or the
action agent in his operations

339. It is claimed that 99% of information is

obtained from conspicuous sources and 1%
of information is obtained from clandestine
sources. Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B. Visible
D. Covert
340. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from
completely reliable sources and Improbable
true.
B. The information comes from
Unreliable sources and probably true.
C. The information comes from Fairly
Reliable sources and doubtfully true.
D. The information comes
from Unreliable sources and possibly
true.
341. The following are methods of Surveillance
Detection, EXCEPT:
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace
B. Convoy and Watching Procession
C. Entering Crowded buildings
and concealment to movement
D. Retracting the cause and Window
Shopping
343. The process of assigning higher category
of document or information according to the
degree of security needed.
A. Reclassify
C. Classify
B. Upgrading
D. Declassify

 Classify – Assigning of Information or

material to one of the four security

Page 35 of
 such information requires security clandestine sources and covert action.
as prescribed by PNP regulation 200-
012.
 Reclassify – The act of changing
the assigned classification of a
document or material.
 Declassify – The removal of the
security classification from
classified document or material.
 Compartmentation – The granting of
access to classified document or
information only to properly cleared
persons when such classified
information is required in the
performance of their official duties,
and restricting it to specific physical
confines when feasible.

345. The purpose of evaluation and analysis

is to determine if the information is true and-
A. Reliable C.
Accurate
B. Correct D. Probably true

347. It refers to a place, building or

enclosed area where police undercover
men meet for debriefing or reporting
purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B. Live Drop D. Decoy

 Log – chronological records of activities

that took place in the establishment
under surveillance.
 Live Drop- Refers to a place where
agents or informants leave their messages
to the other Agents.

348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC

or LAC, which includes some or all of the
circumstances.
A. National Agency Check
B. Background Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation

349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant

is encouraged. The statement is –
A. Yes C. NO
B. Absolutely Correct D. False

350. What specialist group of CIA that was

established to research, create and manage
technical collection discipline and
equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service
B. Directorate of Intelligence .
C. Directorate of Support
D. Directorate of
Science and Technology

 National clandestine Service

(Formerly known as Directorate of
Operations)- responsible for
collecting intelligence mainly from
Page 36 of
  Directorate of Intelligence (DI)-
Responsible for providing timely and
accurate all source of intelligence
analysis.
 Directorate of Support- Provides
everything that the CIA needs to
accomplish its mission.
351. The persons listed in are allowed
to enter a certain establishment or building.
A. Access list C.
Black List
B. Blue Print D.
Silver list
352. The deliberate destruction, disruption,
or damage of equipment, a public service, as
by enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion C.
Sabotage
B. Espionage D. None
of these
 Subversion - acts designed to
destabilize or overthrow the authority
of a ruling power.
 Espionage - the secret collection of
information, or intelligence, that
the source of such information
wishes to protect from disclosure.
353. In order to secure the intelligence the
surveillance Operation center, the stationary
surveillance must before leaving.
A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
B. Conduct Debriefing
C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
354. It deals with the demographic and
psychological aspects of groups of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence
B. Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
D. Political Intelligence
 Political Intelligence – deals with
Domestic and Foreign affairs and relation
of government operations
 Economic Intelligence – deals with the
extent and utilization of Natural and
Human resources to the industrial
potential of the Nations
 Biographical Intelligence – deals with
individual personalities who have actual
possession of power
 Geographical Intelligence – deals with
the natural as well as manmade features
of the physical environment of man
considered from the point in view of
military operations
 Scientific Intelligence – deals with the
progress of the research and
development as it affects the economic
and military potential of a nation.
355. Which among the following principles of
intelligence deemed to be the most
important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous security
measures
B. Intelligence and operation are
interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
356. It is the careful inspection of a place
to determine its suitability for a particular
operational purpose.
A. Casing C.
Loose Tail
B. Close Tail D. Stakeout
 Loose tail – employed where a
general impression of the subject’s
habits and associates is required.
 Close tail – extreme precautions are
taken against losing the subject is
employed where constant surveillance
is necessary.
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means
that –
A. Termination of Surveillance
B. Actual Surveillance
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. On target Requirements and Instruction
358. It refers to the most dangerous type of
informant.
A. Women C. Double
Crosser
B. False D. Anonymous
 Anonymous-Unidentified or unknown
informants
 False Informant- reveals information
of no consequences, value or stuff
connected within thin air.
 Frightened Informants- weakest link
in criminal chain, motivated by
anxiety.
 Self-Aggrandizing- moves around the
center of criminals delight in surprising
the police about bits of information.
 Mercenary- Information for sale
needed something for exchange of
information.
 Double-Crosser- He wants to get
more information from the police more
than he gives.
 Legitimate- operators of business
desire to give information for legitimate
reasons.
359. It is the transforming of coded message
into plain text.
A. Coding C. Encrypting
B. Decoding D. Reclassify
Page 37 of
  Coding-It is the changing of message
from plain clear text to unintelligible
form also known as “Encrypting”.
360. After the planning on how intelligence is
to be collected, the intelligence officer must
have thorough knowledge of the
A. The strength of the area where the
information will be gathered
B. Where they will be collecting
the information
C. Available sources of information
D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of
intelligence
361. He often dresses as a beggar & went
to the street of Rome to gather first hand
information, he is considered as the greatest
military strategist.
A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal
B. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
362. If information comes with a low
reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this
information be discarded or refused
acceptance?
A. Yes C. True
B. No D. False
363. It is one of the Functional Classification
of Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of
crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Criminal Intelligence
C. Public Safety Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
364. If the information or documents are
procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C.
Clandestine
B. Surveillance D. Covert
Operation
365. Which of the following is the most
common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
B. Revenge D. As a good
citizen
366. A method of collecting information thru
interception of telephone conversation.
A. Bugging C. Wire
Tapping
B. Code name D. NONE
367. Is the condition, situation, and
circumstance the enemy’s’ area of
consideration that render the criminal groups
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat
by the police organization.
A. Conclusion C. Capabilities
.
B. Vulnerabilities D.
Evaluation
368. It is the general statement describing the
current police internal defense, internal
development, psychological operation and
responsibilities of the organization
A. Area of operation
B. Capabilities of organized crime
C. the crime situation
D. the mission
369. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted
information concerning organized crime and
other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence C. Military
Information
B. Police Intelligence D. Police
Investigation
370. The term appropriate for someone who
gives information in exchange for a reward is:
A. Informer C. Informant
B. Special informer D. Confidential
Informant
 Informants- Any person who hand over
information to the agents which is
relevant to the subject. The informant
may openly give the information
clandestinely and choose to remain
anonymous.
371 Developing security consciousness among
policemen forms part of enhancing .
A. Line intelligence C. strategic
intelligence
B. counter intelligence D. artificial
intelligence
372. It is a type of Support Agent who obtains
money when needed for operational use.
A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe
house Keeper
B. Communication Agent D. Surveillant
 Surveillant- Agent who observes persons
and places of operations of interest.
 Safe house Keeper- Agents who
manages and maintains a safe house for
clandestine operations like meetings, safe
heavens, training, briefing, and
debriefing.
 Communication Agent- Agent who is
detailed as securing of clandestine
communications.
Page 38 of
373. What is the evaluation rating of C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and
Unreliable and Possibly true? Escape Routes
A. C-2 C. E-2 D. Operational Technical Requirements
B. E-3 D. C-3

374. Phase of intelligence covering the activity 386. Which of the following statement is
devoted in destroying the effectiveness of FALSE?
hostile foreign activities and the protection of A. Classified information must not be
information against espionage, subversion and discussed with friends and members of
sabotage. the family.
A. Passive Intelligence B. Classified information should be
B. Counter Intelligence known only by one person.
C. Line Intelligence C. Cabinets with classified documents
D. Demographic Intelligence must be secured with padlocks and
security measures at all times.
379 All except one are interrelated to one D. All classified documents must be
another. safeguarded.
A. Fixed Surveillance
B. Stakeout Surveillance 387. It refers to the person who conducts the
C. Stationary Surveillance surveillance.
D. Active Surveillance A. Surveillant C.
Subject
380. The agent will gain access to the subject B. Interrogator D. Interviewee
by going to the different hang out places of
the subject.  Interrogator- person who conduct
A. Social Assignment Interrogation
B. Residential Assignment
C. Work Assignment 388. The following are objectives of Casing
D. None of these EXCEPT:
A. Security of an Agent
381. A person who informs solely for the B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation
pecuniary or other material gain he is to of Search
receive. C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
A. Gratitude C. Repentance D. Verification
B. Remuneration D.
Vanity 389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is
to determine if the information is true and-
382. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency A. Reliable C.
is led by a- Correct
A. Director C. General B. Probably true D. Accurate
B. President D.
Director-General 390. It refers to those measures, which seek
actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain
383. Integrated product of intelligence information or engage in espionage,
developed by all government departments subversion, and sabotage.
concerning the broad aspect of national policy A. Counter Intelligence
and national Security. B. Passive Counter Intelligence
A. National Intelligence C. Active Counter Intelligence
B. Departmental Intelligence D. Intelligence
C. International Intelligence
D. Social Intelligence  Passive CI Measures – protection of
classified and sensitive information to the
384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means: unauthorized through secrecy,
A. Actual Surveillance communication security, and other various
B. Collation of Report and Analysis of safeguards.
Significant Observation
C. Preparation of reports and its submission 391. All EXCEPT one should be considered in
D. Observe time conducting stationary surveillance.
A. Preparation
385. Factors to be considered in choosing B. Financial Requirement
a “Safe House” EXCEPT: C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and
A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability Security
B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and D. Coverage of Operation
location of Police Outpost
392. Undercover operation is also known as;
A. Roping C. Bait

Page 39 of
 B. Clandestine D. Loose 402. First Female Filipino commissioned
officer in a UN integral mission.
393. It is defined as an art and science A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa
of codes and ciphers. I. Mitra
A. Cryptography C. B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
Cryptanalysis D. None of these
B. Decipher D. Coding
 SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non-
394. The protection resulting from the Commissioned officer in a UN integral
application of various measures which prevent Mission
or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in  P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First
gaining information through communication. Commissioned officer in UN Integral
A. Communication Security Mission
B. Physical Security
C. Document Security 403. New York Police Department (NYPD) have
D. Internal Security limited jurisdiction on :
A. USA C. New York
397. It is a certification by a responsible B. None of these D. Los
authority that the person described is cleared Angeles
to access and classify matters at appropriate
levels. 405. In the etymology of the word police the
A. Security Clearance ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person
B. Document Clearance who ?
C. Interim Clearance A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy
D. Nome of these B. Guarding a City D.
Citizenship
398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual
or eminent threat to the life, limb, or right 406. During the middle ages, there were two
of the person claiming self-defense. guard officer of the kingdom of France with
A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful police responsibilities those are the Marshal of
Aggression France and :
B. Just Cause D. None of these A. Constable of France C. Queens
Royal Guard
399. The police officer may stop an individual B. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
for the purpose of conducting a spot
check/accosting only when- 408. The typical number of Detectives roughly
A. Probable Cause Exist of police service personnel:
B . Notion to commit crime A. 75% C. 5 to 10%
C. Rational Grounds B. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10%
D. Reasonable Suspicion
409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over
399. X evaluates the information as federal crimes or those with an interstate
usually reliable and probably true. components. The statement is:
A. C-4 C. B-3 A. Correct C. Partially
B. B-2 D. C-5 Correct
B. False D. partly False
400. Mossad is the National Intelligence
agency of . 410. This pertains to all those forms of policing
A. Russia C. Philippines that, in some sense transgress national
B. Israel D. Pakistan borders:
A. International Policing
 Russia - Federal Security Service B. Global Policing
of Russian Federation C. National Policing
 Philippines- National Intelligence D. Transnational Policing
Coordinating Agency
 Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence 411. In US, he introduced police reforms to
include educational requirement for police
officer:
401. Law enforcement in China was carried A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir
out by which developed in both chu Robert Peel
and jin kingdom of the Spring and Autumn B. August Volmer D.
period. O.W. Wilson
A. Watch man C. Prefect
B. Gendemarie D. Constabulary  Robert Peel – Father of
Modern policing System

Page 40 of
  O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing  Director General – Philippine National
corruption and introduced Police
professionalism in Winchita, Kansas  Director – BJMP and BFP
and Chicago Police Department  Commissioner General - highest
position in Japan Police
412. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
Organization
A. Law and Order
B. Knowledge is Safety 420. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
C. Serve and Protect A. Omerta C. Morse
D. We serve with pride and Care B. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra
413. Where do you can find the so called 421. INTERPOL stands for:
Police Ombudsman? It’s outside review
organization for police officer whose are A. International Police
changed of committing any form of B. International Organization of Police
misconduct: C. International criminal Organization
A. Northern Ireland C. England D. International Criminal Police
B. China D. Japan Organization

414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank 422. The supreme governing body of
structured of police force is identical up to the the INTERPOL is the:
rank of? A. Executive Assembly C. Major
A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector Assembly
B. Chief Superintendent D. B. National Assembly D. General
Inspector Assembly

415. In USA, what state are among the first to 423. The general Secretariat office of
hire women and minorities as police officer. the INTERPOL is run by the:
A. Massachusetts C. California A. Director General C. Supervisor
B. New York D. B. Inspector General D. Secretary
Washington General

416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is 425. The police rank in Japan that is
the comparable rank to inspector or sub- called Keishi:
lieutenant? A. Policeman C. Chief
A. Police Rank 4 Superintendent
B. Police Supervisor Rank 4 B. Superintendent D. Senior
C. Police Officer Rank 1 Superintendent
D. Police Supervisor Rank 1
426. It is the counterpart of Police Community
417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what Precinct in Japan:
is the lowest possible rank of its police A. Keishi C. Koban
personnel? B. Omerta D.
A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer Keiban
Rank 1
B. Investigator 1 D. Constable 427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but
it is the highest position in Japan Police
418. It is being acknowledge by Federal Organization:
Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be the A. Commissioner Secretariat
“Asia’s Finest” police force and in having, set B. Commissioner
up the foundation for the social stability of C. Chairman
Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as D. Commissioner General
one of the safety cities in the world.
A. Philippine National Police 428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed
B. Hong Kong Police Force by a Commissioner General who is appointed
C. Japan Police Department by:
D. National Police Agency A. Japans Emperor
B. Prime Minister
419. It is the highest possible rank in Australia C. National Public Safety Commission
Police Force: D. Japan Commission
A. Commissioner General C. Director
General 429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police
B. Commissioner D. Director Force:
A. Junsa C. Constable
B. Sergeant D.
Police Officer

Page 41 of
430. Irish Police are called:
A. Militsiya C.
Constable
B. Police Force D. Garda
Socha
431. The following are the language of
communication used by the Gen. Secretariat:
a. French;
b. Mandarin;
c. English;
d. Arabic; and
e. Spanish.
A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e
B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
432. It States that the yardstick of police
proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
A. Home rule C. Continental
B. Old police service D. Modern police
service
433. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald
K. Noble
B. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen
Scotland
Johann Schober - The first president of the
Interpol
435. Group of highly specialized armed men
who inflict fear and uses violence to
accomplish their objectives with a usual
international scope of activity.
A. Organized Crime
B. Transnational Crime
C. Transnational Organized crime
D. Terrorist
 Organized Crime - Group activities of
three or more persons, with
hierarchical links or personal
relationships, which permits their
leaders to earn profits or control
territories or markets, internal or
foreign, by means of violence,
intimidation or corruption, both in
furtherance of criminal activity and to
infiltrate the legitimate economy.
 Transnational Crime - a continuing
illegal activity of group of person which
is primarily concerned with the
generation of profits, irrespective of
national boundaries as a result of
globalization.
 Transnational Organized crime - is a
crime perpetuated by organized
criminal group which the aim of
committing one or more serious crimes
or offenses in order to obtain directly or
indirectly, a financial or other material
benefits committed through crossing of
borders or jurisdictions
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436 Is the terrorist group which was
founded by Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
 Mafia – is a term used to describe a
number of criminal organizations
around the world.
 Jihad - refers to the holy war by
members of the Islamic religion against
the Jews
438. It is the category of terrorist organization
which is aimed in achieving political autonomy
or religious freedom.
A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
B. Ethnocentric D. Political
 Ethnocentric - is the category of
terrorist organization which is aimed at
establishing a dominant or superior
race that will be looked upon by the
entire populace in the world.
 Revolutionary - is the category of
terrorist group which is dedicated to
overthrow an established order and
replacing it with a new political or
social structure.
 Political - is the category of terrorist
group which aims in restructuring the
society.
 Nationalistic - those who commit acts
of violence due to their loyalty or
devotion to their country.
439. It is the anchor of the investigation of all
crimes committed via the internet:
A. Dynamic IP Address
B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address
D. Website
 ISP – stands for Internet Service
Provider. It provides internet service
to internet users.
 IP Address – series of numbers
assigned by an Internet Service
Provider to an internet user when it
connects to the Internet
 Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP
Address that changes every time the
internet user accesses his Internet
Service Provider. It is usually
assigned to dial-up or base speed
broadband service subscribers
 Static IP Address – a type of IP
Address that is constant regardless of
the time or number of attempts the
internet user accesses the internet. It is
usually assigned to High-Speed
Internet Users.
 Website – a portfolio of a person /
organization / entity / company which is
 posted on the Internet for accessibility 444. Considered as the major concerns of
worldwide. the PCTC, EXCEPT:
440. It is the act of illegally accessing the A. Information Exchange
computer system or network of an individual,
group or business enterprise without the B. Strategic studies and capacity building
consent of the party’s system:
C. Law enforcement coordination
A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking
D. none of these
B. Cracking D. Theft
445. A decree codifying the law on
 Hacking - is the act of illegally Illegal/unlawful Possession,
accessing the computer manufacture, Dealing in, acquisition or
system/network of an individual, group disposition of firearms, ammunitions or
or business enterprise without the explosions
consent or approval of the owner of
A. RA 9165 C. RA
the system.
9372
 Cracking - is a higher form of hacking B. RA 8294 D. RA
in which the unauthorized access
8792
culminates with the process of
defeating the security system for the
purpose of acquiring money or  RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act
information and/or availing of free  R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive
services Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
 RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007
441. It refers to a Code written with  PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 -
the intention of replicating itself. Illegal Possession of Firearms and
A. Trojan Horse Explosive
C. Worm  RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009
B. Logic Bomb
 RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and
D. Computer Virus Video Voyeurism Act of 2009
 RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act
 Worm spread itself to other computers
of 2009
without needing to be transferred as
part of a host.  RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of
2010
 Trojan horse - is a file that appears
harmless until executed. Trojan horses
446. What is the highest rank of police officer
do not insert their code into other
in Japan?
computer files
A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI
 Logic bomb - a set of instructions
SO
secretly inserted into a program that is
B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO
designed to execute if a particular
program is satisfied.
447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and
known to be the “Father of Texas”.
442. It is a center created by Executive Order
A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon
No. 62 to establish a shared database among
Knell
concerned agencies for information on
B. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
criminals, methodologies, arrests and
convictions on transnational crime 449. The following have summary dismissal
powers over errant police members.
A. Philippine Center on a. District Director;
Transnational Crimes (PCTC) b. Chief of Police;
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking c. Regional Director;
(NACAH) d. Chief, PNP;
C. International Criminal e. PLEB; and
Police Organization (ICPO) f. NAPOLCOM.
D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f
443. An order strengthening the operational, B. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f
administrative and information support system
of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall 450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She
exercise general supervision and control over was 29 years old then. What year will Amado
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG will retire?
A. EO 100 C. EO 465 A. 2016 C. 2023
B. EO 465 D. EO 789 B. 2012 D. 2031

451. It refers to a kind of retirement

where PNP commissioned and non-

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commissioned

Page 44 of
officer may retire and be paid separation B. 6 years D. 2 years
benefits corresponding to a position two ranks
higher than his/her rank: 458. Specific Qualifications may be waived like
A. Retirement in the next higher grade Age, Height, Weight and Education, only when
B. Compulsory retirement the number of qualified applicants falls below
C. Early retirement program the minimum annual quota. Appointment
D. Optional Retirement status under a waiver program is .
A. Temporary C. Probationary
452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an B. Permanent D. Regular
independence from the PNP. It has an
investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP 459. No officer who has retired or is retirable
members. within from his compulsory retirement
A. Internal Affairs Service age be appointed as chief of the PNP.
B. National Police Commission A. Three months C. Six months
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board B. One year D. Two
D. National Appellate Board years
453. In police operational planning the use of 460. is given to any PNP
the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line member who has exhibited act of
would be probable used for: conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of
A. Arm confrontation C. Relief his life above and beyond the call of duty.
Operation A. Meritorious Promotion
B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of D. On-the-Spot Promotion
carrying the regulations of the Department of
State; this was armed and considered as the 461. Which among the following has no
mounted police. promotional authority over the members of
A. Carabineros De Seguridad the PNP?
Publica B. Guadrilleros A. Deputy Director General
C. Guardia Civil B. Director General
D. Metropolitan Police Force C. President of the Philippines
D. Regional Director
454. What is the appropriate training course
for POIII to SPOI? 462. The establishment of a formal structure
A. Officers Senior Executive Course of authority through which works and divisions
B. Officer Basic Course are arranged, defined and coordinated refers
C. Senior Leadership Course to:
D. Junior Leadership Course A. Planning C.
Organizing
455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of B. Staffing D. Directing
deputation of local chief executives as
representative of the NAPOLCOM: 463. In regard to the police planning function,
I. Repeated unauthorized absences; it may be said that:
II. Abuse of authority; A. Planning is essentially order giving.
III. Habitual tardiness; B. Planning is essentially decision
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and making in advance of action.
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national C. Policemen must plan carefully than their
security. supervisors.
D. The higher the job in the organization, the
A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I shorter the time-lag between planning
B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, and execution.
III, IV, V
464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was
456. Planning for emergencies of a specific patterned by the Federal Bureau Investigation,
nature at known locations. it was organized by R.A. 157. What law
A. Functional Plan C. Time reorganized the NBI?
Specific Plans A. R.A 9708 C. R.A
B. Tactical Plans D. 6040
Operational Plans B. R.A. 2678 D. R.A.
9262
457. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can
get the lump sum of his retirement benefits for 465. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
the period of the first . members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
A. 10 years C. 5 years

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personnel to any key position. The statement
is: Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of
A. Partly True C. Partly False Internal Discipline
B. Absolutely True D.
Absolutely False  Chief of Police- NOT
EXCEEDING FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
466. The following are the offenses for which a  Provincial Directors- NOT
member of the PNP may be charged EXCEEDING THIRTY (30) DAYS
administratively:  Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING
I. Oppression; SIXTY (60) DAYS
II. Misconduct;
III. Neglect of Duty; 471. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
IV. Violation of law; and members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
V. Incompetence. personnel to any key position. The statement
is-
A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, A. YES C. NO
IV B. Wholly Correct D. Wholly
B. V, II, III, I D. IV, III, False
IV, I, II
472. Who has the disciplinary authority in
467. The police function in which citizen’s complaint when the penalty imposed
patrol belong is: is not exceeding fifteen (15) days?
A. Line function C. Administrative A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of
function Police
B. Staff function D. Auxiliary B. Provincial Director D. PLEB
function
 City/Municipality Mayors- not less
468. The planning responsibility of the PNP than SIXTEEN but not exceeding
chief and other high ranking PNP officials is THIRTY (30) DAYS
known as:  People’s Law Enforcement Board
A. Broad external policy planning (PLEB)- exceeding THIRTY (30)
B. Incremental planning DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
C. Internal policy planning
D. Radical planning 473. The law that governs the Code of
Conduct and Ethical Standards for officials and
469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed employees of the Government – National or
persons following a high-risk stop. Local.
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610
Checkpoint B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263
B. High -Risk Arrest D. High
Risk Stop  RA 7160 – Local Government Code
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of
Children against Abuse, Exploitation
 Dragnet Operation - police operation and Discrimination
intentionally to seal-off the probable  RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP
exit points of fleeing suspects from the Professionalization Act of 2004
crime scene to prevent their escape.
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate 474. How vacancy filled up in the commission,
response to block the escape of lawless except through expirations of term?
elements from a crime scene, and is A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired
also established when nearby term only with the capacity for regular
checkpoints are ignored or during hot appointment for another full term.
pursuit operations. B. It shall be filed up for the
 High Risk Stop - actual stopping of unexpired term only without re
armed and dangerous persons, aboard appointment.
a vehicle or on foot, including the C. It shall be filed up by another person with
power to use all necessary and legal full term
means to accomplish such end. D. None of these

470. Maximum period wherein a police officer

may be suspended from service by the Chief
PNP: 475. Under the police reform and
A. 180 days C. 60 days reorganization law, a Field training Program
B. 90 days D. 30 for all PNP uniformed members is required for
days permanency of their appointment consisting of
12 months. Basic areas of actual experience
and assignment during this period shall be on:
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A. Patrol, traffic and investigation 483. The shift that receives most of the call of
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence the public which are directly related to police
C. Patrol, Public Relations and function, it is considered as the busiest among
auxiliary services them all.
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence A. Afternoon shift C.
Day shift
476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the B. Midnight shifts D. Night
following are the factors considered in Shift
promotion:
a. Educational Attainment;  Night Shift – Least Desirable shift
b. Personality traits;
c. Potential; 484. If we are seeking for an arrest of wanted
d. Service reputation; and person with a view to extradition.
e. Physical Fitness. A. Blue Notice
C. Red Notice
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a B. Black Notice
B. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e D. Purple Notice

477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is Types of Notice by INTERPOL

due to be promoted. Who has the authority to  Yellow Notice- To help locate missing
promote him to his next rank? persons, often minors, or to help
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC identify persons who are unable to
B. Secretary, DILG D. President identify themselves.
 Blue Notice- To locate, identify or
478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December obtain information on a person of
11, 1964; He opted to join the Philippine interest in a criminal investigation.
National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified  Black Notice- To seek information on
to join the PNP? unidentified bodies.
A. Yes C. Wholly True  Green Notice- To warn about a
B. No D. Wholly False person's criminal activities if that
person is considered to be a
479. In times of war or other national possible threat to public safety.
emergency declared by the Congress the  Orange Notice- To warn of an event, a
President may extend such term of office from person, an object or a process
depending on the gravity of representing an imminent threat and
the situation. danger to persons or property.
A. Six months to one year  Purple Notice- To provide information
B. One year to two years on modi operandi, objects, devices and
C. One to six months concealment methods used by
D. Five months to one year criminals.

480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19, 484. What is the name of the acclaimed first
870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After formally organized modern police force in the
five years from promotion, what would be his world?
monthly base pay after adding his longevity A. Interpol C. Scotland
pay? Yard
A. 21, 857.00 C. 19, B. New York Police District D. Texas
970.00 rangers
B. 24, 870.00 D. 31,
549.00 485. The following are the law enforcement
principles enunciated by the Father of Modern
481. If the police plan of Municipality X can Policing System, except:
carry out the purpose or goal of the police A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of
station then the plan is considered . the police
A. Feasible C. Acceptable B. The police must have full respect of the
B. Suitable D. Adaptable citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are
482. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed the police
by a police officer with the rank of D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by
and a designation as Inspector-General. final judgment
A. Deputy Director General C. E. None of the above
General
B. Director D. 487. The period of time elapsed since the oath
C/Superintendent of office was administered is termed
A. Tour of duty C. Term of office

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 B. On duty D. Length of b. Report occurrences and conditions which
service relate to crime, public peace, order and
safety;
488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or c. Observe and monitor public gatherings,
modify personnel disciplinary actions involving prevent disorders and disperse unlawful
demotion or dismissal from the service assemblies;
imposed upon members of the PNP by the d. Assist personnel of responsible
Chief PNP through the: agencies/unit in facilitating the flow of traffic
A.PLEB C. RAB at busy intersections/roads within his Area of
B. NAB D. C/PNP Responsibility (AOR) and;
e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in
489. Promotion by virtue of position shall be various places of business establishments and
granted after: other installation and remove hazards to
A. 6 months C. 2 years public safety.
B. 1 year D. 18 months
A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b
490. Breach of internal discipline committed B. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
by any member of the PNP shall be brought to
the office of the Chief of Police or equivalent 497. Which among the following is not
supervisor if the penalty imposed covers the included in a Patrol Plan?
period of: A. Organization Detail of Personnel
A. Not exceeding 15 days C. Stand-by points
B. Not exceeding 60 days B. Spot Report
C. Not exceeding 30 days D. Area Coverage
D. Dismissal
498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is formerly
491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed included in what terrorist group?
immediately from the service after due notice A. MILF C. MNLF
and summary hearings if it was proven that he B. Al Qaeda D. NPA
went on AWOL for a continuous period of:
A. 30 days or more C. 15 days 499. The Koban policing system is adopted in:
or more A. Japan C. Malaysia
B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or B. Korea D. Thailand
more
500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic
492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop literally means-
an integrated community public safety plan A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base
pursuant to: B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903
B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551  Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic
Congregation
493. The Statute of Winchester introduced the  Al Qaeda – The Base
system known as:  Hezbollah – Party of God
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew  Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of commander of Al Qaeda
the peace
501. PNP in-service training programs are
494. Which of the following is a characteristic under the responsibility of the;
of effective plan? A. PNP Directorate for Plans
A. give police department a clear direction B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource
B. increase personnel involvement and Doctrine Development
C. clearly define objectives and goals C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
D. contain a degree of flexibility for Management
the unforeseen D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
It is the total number of police officers
495. As a general rule, a patrol officer on assigned in patrol duties.
foot during day time should walk the curb:
A. Outside C. Inside 502. Who is responsible in determining
B. Near D. Far whether there is a permit for the holding of
the public assembly?
496. The following are the duties and A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
responsibilities of Patrol officers: Commander
a. Conduct home visitations when a B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
circumstance warrants, dialogues with the
residents in their beat; 503. The following are the things to be done
after armed confrontation, EXCEPT:
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A. Check whether the situation still poses (2) YEARS after such relief shall
imminent danger be retired or separated
B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP  Attrition by Demotion in Position or
operatives Rank - who shall not be assigned to a
C. Submit the fact-finding report position commensurate to his or her
D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest grade within EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS
hospital after such demotion shall be retired or
E. None of these separated
504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio 500. What is the main purpose why police car
of the following cases: or police officers are not allowed to be sent
in the scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
I. incidents where a police personnel a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the
discharges a firearm; kidnappers
II. incidents where death, serious physical b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
injury, or any violation of human rights c. To avoid any indication that police
occurred in the conduct of a police have been informed of the KFR
operation; incident
III. incidents where evidence was d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the
compromised, tampered with, KFR activities inside the warehouse
obliterated, or lost while in the
custody of police personnel; 501. Which among the following, is not a
IV. incidents where a suspect in the applicable legal parameter during rallies,
custody of the police was seriously strikes, demonstrations or other public
injured; and assemblies, under the pertinent provisions of
V. Incidents where the established rules of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas
engagement have been violated. Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the
Philippines, as amended and other applicable
A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III,
laws.
IV, and V
B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance
and V B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or
497. The nature of which, the police officer is participant shall be made during the
free from specific routine duty is the public assembly, unless he violates any
definition of pertinent law as evidence warrants.
A. “on duty” C. “Active C. In case of unlawful aggression, only
Service” reasonable force may be employed to
B. “Length of Service” D. “off duty” prevent or repel it.
D. Directly employment of tear gas
 Length of Service- The period of time
and water cannons.
elapsed since the oath of office was
administered. 502. Which of the following is considered as
 Active Service- shall refer to services the most important factor in formulating an
rendered as an officer and non-officer, effective patrol strategy?
cadet, trainee or draftee in the PNP A. training of station commander
B. rank of the patrol commander
498. The first step a dispatcher must take
C. adequacy of resources of police
when a felony-in-progress call has been
station
received through telephone or by direct alarm
D. salary rates of police personnel
signal is to?
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be
witness
stationed in the picket line (or confrontation
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast
line) but should be stationed in such manner
C. call the investigators to report to crime
that their presence may deter the commission
scene
of criminal acts or any untoward incident from
D. sends augmentation force
either side. The members of the peace-
keeping detail shall stay outside a
499. How many years of non-promotion
radius from the picket line.
before a PNP Member can be attrited?
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter
A. 5 years C. 2 years
B. 100 feet D. 100 meter
B. 10 years D. 18 Months

 Attrition by Relief - Those who have 504. Police officers are required to give the
been relieved for just cause and have not suspect Miranda Warning, during Spot checks
been given an assignment within TWO and pat down searches. The statement is-
A. Partially C. Correct

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B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong

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505. The following are the circumstances
which may justify pat-down search, EXCEPT:
A. The appearance and demeanor of
the suspect
B. The time of the day and the location
where the pat-down search took
C. Where the police officer handles
several suspects
D. None of these
506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches
should be conducted by-
A. Day time to avoid ambush or
Surprise attack.
B. At least two police officers, one to
perform the search while the
other provides protective cover.
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness
during the search.
D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
507. Which of the following is not included in
the patrol function?
A. Respon.se for citizen calls for assistance
B. Investigation of crimes after this
is reported to the investigation
section
C. Routine preventive patrol
D. Inspection of identified hazards
508. During police intervention operations, the
duty to issue a warning is not absolute before
he could use force against an offender.
A. Correct C. Partially
Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially
Wrong
509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if
transported by a patrol jeep, the subject must
be-
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right
side facing the subject
B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a
PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the left side facing the subject
C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the left
side facing the subject
D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right
side facing the subject
510. Which among the following should
be observed during the patrol
operations?
A. Render after-patrol report
B. Buddy System
C. Kabit System
D. Render Hourly Report
511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or
other public assemblies, employment of tear
gas and water cannons shall be made under
the control and supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander C. Incident
Commander
B. Immediate Commander D. Superior
Officer
512. What should be the action of patrol
officers, when responding to Calls for
Police Assistance, except?
A. Stop the car at some distance away from
the scene.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
C. Determine the crime committed.
D. None of these
513. Where should the patrol officer turnover
the information and pieces of evidence
gathered at the crime scene?
A. SOCO team C. Immediate
Supervisor
B. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer
514. Request for police assistance in the
implementation of final decisions or orders of
the court in civil cases and of administrative
bodies on controversies within their
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the
appropriate police office. The request is filed
at least prior to the actual
implementation.
A. 3 days C. 10 days
B. 5 days D. 15 days
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein
a suspect dies, the Team Leader of the
operating unit shall?
A. He shall immediately undertake the
necessary investigation and processing
of the scene of the encounter.
B. After the Investigation, He shall
immediately request the SOCO team to
conduct Crime Scene Processing.
C. He shall submit the incident for
inquest before the duty Inquest
Prosecutor prior to the removal of
the body from the scene.
D. He shall report immediately to his
superior for the proper undertakings to
be done.
516. PNP personnel who will point/profile
suspected vehicle subject for checkpoint:
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team
B. Spotter D. Investigation
Sub- team
 Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take
responsibility in the conduct of checkpoint
preferably an officer with the rank of at
least Police Inspector;
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 Spokesperson - TL or member who is a star and judges were given great
solely in charge of communicating with powers such as the power to force
the motorists subject for checkpoint; testimony
 Investigation Sub-team - in charge of
investigation and documentation of
possible incidents in the checkpoint to
include issuance of Traffic Citation
Ticket (TCT) or Traffic Violation Report
(TVR);
 Search/Arresting Sub-Team -
designated to conduct search, seizure and
arrest, if necessary;
 Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide
security in the checkpoint area; and
 Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team
tasked to block/pursue fleeing
suspects/vehicle.

517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to

display high-powered firearms and are
positioned where they can best provide
security to the Checkpoint team including
themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team C. Search
Sub-Team
B. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B

518. As much as practicable, who shall lead

the PNP contingent detailed to assist the
Sheriff during the demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
Commander
B. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police

519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a

complaint or report or information that a
child has been or is being abused,
maltreated, discriminated, exploited,
neglected, or abandoned, or is under
imminent danger of being abused or
exploited, shall take immediate action
thereon, but under no circumstance shall be
beyond ?
A. 12 hours C. 36 hours
B. 24 hours D. 48
hours

520. In designating a “safe” assembly area,

well away from the threatened structure, out
of line-of-sight of the building and well clear
of windows. A minimum distance of is
recommended.
A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
B. 150 meters D. 300 meters

521. Provides for methods of apprehending a

criminal by an act of the complainant shout to
call all male residents to assemble and arrest
the suspect.
A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
B. Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star
Chamber

 Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) -

The room set-up is formed in a shape of

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 from a defendant leading to a great
abuse of power or brutality on the part of
the judges.
 Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the
beginning of the curfew hours, which
demanded the closing of the gates of
London during sundown.
 Tun Policing System - A system of
policing emerged during the Anglo-
Saxon period whereby all male residents
were required to guard the town

522. Refers to a location where the search,

which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission
of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
legitimate purposes.
A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D.
Pre- Determined Area

523. Electronic blotter is a computerized

system, which was accepted by the courts,
prosecutors’ office and the public in general.
What police office is using this kind of
blotter?
A. Makati C. Cebu
B. Baguio D. Davao

524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the

earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is
standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob
is not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales
but the for successful robbery is
prevented.
A. Ambition C. Intention
B. Motive D. Opportunity

525. Police personnel whose rank at the time

of his retirement is Superintendent shall
retire with the rank of :
A. Superintendent
C. C/Superintendent
B. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector

526. Which among the following terms is

not related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D.
Bright Pursuit

527. General rules on media relations, No

information regarding the incident shall be
released without clearance from the :
A. Chief of police C.
Ground Commander
B. Incident Commander D.
Immediate Superior

528. Which of the following is not true

about patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the

police department
B. It is the essence of police operation

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 C. It is the single largest unit in the
police department that can be
eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police
department
E. It is the operational heart of the
police department
529. The low informers and unreliable
renegades of value chiefly in spreading
false information to the enemy.
A. Common Spies C. Double Spies
B. Spies of Consequences D. None

530. Refers to utilization of units or elements

of the PNP for purpose of protection of lives
and properties, enforcement of laws,
maintenance of peace and order, prevention
of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and
etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B. Service D.
Employment

Deployment- shall mean the orderly and

organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province,
city or municipality for purposes of
employment

-END-

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