FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JUNE, 2022

(Held On Sunday 26th June, 2022) TIME : 3:00 PM to 06:00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol.
1. The dimension of mutual inductance is :
(A) [ML2 T–2 A–1] (B) [ML2T–3A–1]
(C) [ML2T–2A–2] (D) [ML2T–3A–2]
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol. e2 : induced emf in secondary coil

i1 : Current in primary coil
M : Mutual inductance
di1
e2  M
dt
e2 Using costraint
M
di1
 T.a  0
dt
– 4Ta1 – 2Ta2 – Ta3 – Ta4 = 0
W 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 + a4 = 0
 q   ML T 
2 2

 e2 
 M  di  di    AT  3. Arrange the four graphs in descending order of total
 1  1 work done; where W1, W2, W3 and W4 are the work
 dt   dt   AT 1 
    done corresponding to figure a, b, c and d respectively.
= [ML2T–2A–2]
2. In the arrangement shown in figure a1,a2, a3 and a4
are the accelerations of masses m1,m2,m3 and m4
respectively. Which of the following relation is
true for this arrangement?

m1

F
F
m2
Figure-c
x0 x1 x2
–F x
F
m3 F
x1
m4 Figure-d
x0 x2 x3
(A) 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 + a4 = 0 –F
x
(B) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0
(A) W3 > W2 > W1 > W4
(C) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + 2a4 = 0
(B) W3 > W 2 > W4 > W 1
(D) 2a1 + 2a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0 (C) W2 > W3 > W4 > W1
Official Ans. by NTA (A) (D) W2 > W3 > W1 > W4
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

1
Sol. Work done = area under F – x curve. Area below x Sol. w
–axis is negative & area above x-axis is positive.
so r rw
2

W3 > W 2 > W1 > W 4 R g


4. Solid spherical ball is rolling on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface about its axis of
symmetry. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy of
the ball to its total kinetic energy is :-
2 2 1 7 Effective acceleration due to gravity is the
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 7 5 10
resultant of g & rw2 whose direction & magnitude
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
depends upon . Hence assertion is false.
Sol. Ktotal = Krotational + KTranslational When  = 0° (at equator), effective acceleration is
1 1
K total  I cm 2  mVcm
2
radially inward.
2 2
vcm = R for pure rolling 6. If  is the density and  is coefficient of viscosity
2 of fluid which flows with a speed v in the pipe of
I cm  mR 2
5
2
KRRot  1 I 2  1  2 mR2  vcm  1 mv2cm
2
diameter d, the correct formula for Reynolds
rat cm cm
2 2 5 R2 52
number Re is :
KRTotal 1 2 1 7
total  mvcm  mvcm
2
 mvcm
2
d v
5 2 10 Re  Re 
(A) v (B) d
1 2
mvcm
K Rot 5 2 vd 
 Re  Re 
K Total 7 7  vd
mv2cm (C) (D)
10
5. Given below are two statements : One is labelled Official Ans. by NTA (C)
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion A : If we move from poles to equator, Sol. Reynold’s number is given by
the direction of acceleration due to gravity of earth
7. A flask contains argon and oxygen in the ratio of
always points towards the center of earth without
any variation in its magnitude. 3:2 in mass and the mixture is kept at 27°C. The
Reason R : At equator, the direction of acceleration ratio of their average kinetic energy per molecule
due to the gravity is towards the center of earth. respectively will be :
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 9 : 4
answer from the options given below :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 1
explanation of A. Official Ans. by NTA (D)
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false Sol. Average K.E./molecule =
(D) A is false but R is true
Official Ans. by NTA (D) So,

2
8. The charge on capacitor of capacitance 15F in the A0
Sol. Coriginal 
d
figure given below is : C1 C2
10F 15F F
A A
K=3 = K

+ –
V
13V d/2 d/2 d/2 d/2

(A) 60c (B) 130c (C) 260 c (D) 585 c A0 2A0
C1   C
d/2 d
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
KA0 2KA0 6A0
C2     3C
d/2 d d
10F 15F F C1 & C2 are in series
C1C2 C  3C 3C
Cnew   
C1  C2 C  3C 4

– 3 2A0 3 A0
+
V    
Sol. 13V 4 d 2 d
3
1 1 1 1 12  8  6 26 Cnew  Coriginal
     2
Ceq 10 15 20 120 120
3
  4  6F
60 2
Ceq  F
13 10. Sixty four conducting drops each of radius 0.02 m

13  60
and each carrying a charge of 5 C are combined
Q  60C
13 to form a bigger drop. The ratio of surface density
of bigger drop to the smaller drop will be :
Charge on each capacitor is same
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 8 : 1
 they are in series. Official Ans. by NTA (B)

9. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and Sol. Let R = radius of combined drop
plate separation d=2 m has a capacitance of 4 F. r = radius of smaller drop
Volume will remain same
The new capacitance of the system if half of the
4 3 4
R  64  r 3
space between them is filled with a dielectric 3 3

material of dielectric constant K=3 (as shown in R = 4r

Q = 64q ;
figure) will be :
q : charge of smaller drop
Q : Charge of combined drop
Q
K=3
bigger Q r2
 4R  · 2
2

smaller q q R
4r 2
d
r2
 64 4
(A) 2F (B) 32F (C) 6F (D) 8F 16r 2
 bigger 4
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 
smaller 1

3
11. The equivalent resistance between points A and B 13. Two coils of self inductance L1 and L2 are
in the given network is : connected in series combination having mutual
5 inductance of the coils as M. The equivalent self
5 10 5 inductance of the combination will be :
10
5
10
5
A B 1 1 1
10
 
(A) 65 (B) 20 (A) L1 L2 M (B) L1 + L2 + M
(C) L1 + L2 + 2M (D) L1 + L2 – 2M
(C) 5 (D) 2
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol. Current on both the inductor is in opposite

Sol.
direction.
5
10
5 5 Hence :
= 5
10 10
5 A
10
Leq = L1 + L2 – 2M
10
10 5
A
10
B
14. A metallic conductor of length 1m rotates in a
B

5
10
vertical plane parallel to east-west direction about
5 A
A
10 
10
one of its end with angular velocity 5 rad/s. If the
10 10
5

B 5 horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is

B

10 5

0.2 × 10–4 T, then emf induced between the two
A A

10 10 5
ends of the conductor is :
B B
(A) 5V (B) 50V (C) 5mV (D) 50mV
RAB = 5 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
12. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2.0 ×
105 JT–1, is placed along the direction of uniform Sol. emf induced between the two ends =
–5
magnetic field of magnitude B= 14 × 10 T. The
0.2  10 4  5  1
 0.5  10 4  50  10 6 V  50V
work done in rotating the magnet slowly through 2

60° from the direction of field is : 15. Which is the correct ascending order of
(A) 14 J (B) 8.4 J (C) 4 J (D) 1.4 J wavelengths?

Official Ans. by NTA (A) (A) visible < X –ray < gamma-ray < microwave
(B) gamma-ray < X –ray < visible < microwave

Sol. Work done = MB (cos 1 – cos 2) (C) X-ray < gamma-ray < visible < microwave

 1 = 0°, 2 = 60° (D) microwave < visible < gamma-ray < X-ray

= 2 × 105 × 14 × 10–5 (1 – 1/2) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

= 14 J

4
Sol. From electromagnetic wave spectrum.
1.6 10 
2
19
 2  103  2  103
K
increases  2  9.1  1031
-ray x-rays ultra visible infrared microwave Radio
 6.4 
2
10 50
violet wave K
2  9.1 10 31
gamma-ray < X –ray < visible < microwave
K = 2.25 × 10–19 J
16. For a specific wavelength 670 nm of light coming
2.25  10 19
 eV  1.40eV
from a galaxy moving with velocity v, the 1.6  10 19
observed wavelength is 670.7 nm. 12400
E  2.76 eV
The value of v is : 4500

(A) 3 × 108 ms–1 (B) 3 × 1010 ms–1  = E – K = (2.76 – 1.40) eV = 1.36 eV

(C) 3.13 × 105 ms–1 (D) 4.48 × 105 ms–1 18. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different
Official Ans. by NTA (C) processes. Half-life for the first process is 3.0
hours while it is 4.5 hours for the second process.
Sol. emitted = 670 nm The effective half- life of the nucleus will be :

obs = 670.7 nm (A) 3.75 hours (B) 0.56 hours

v=? (C) 0.26 hours (D) 1.80 hours

c = 3 × 108 m/s Official Ans. by NTA (D)

If v << c
obs  emitted v Sol. eq = 1 + 2

emitted c ln 2 ln 2 ln 2
 
670.7  670 v  t1/2 eq  t1/2 1  t1/2 2

670 c
 t1/2 1   t1/2 2
V = 3.13 × 105 m/s  t1/2 eq 
 t1/2 1   t1/2 2
17. A metal surface is illuminated by a radiation of
3  4.5 3  4.5 3  3
    1.8 hr
wavelength 4500 Å. The ejected photo-electron 3  4.5 7.5 5
enters a constant magnetic field of 2 mT making an 19. The positive feedback is required by an amplifier
angle of 90° with the magnetic field. If it starts to act an oscillator. The feedback here means :
revolving in a circular path of radius 2 mm, the (A) External input is necessary to sustain ac signal
work function of the metal is approximately : in output.
(A) 1.36 eV (B) 1.69 eV (C) 2.78 eV (D) 2.23 eV (B) A portion of the output power is returned back
Official Ans. by NTA (A) to the input.
(C) Feedback can be achieved by LR network.
Sol.  = 4500 Å (D) The base-collector junction must be forward
B = 2mT, R = 2mm biased.
2Km Official Ans. by NTA (B)
R
qB
 qBR 
2

K Sol. When the amplifier connects with positive

2m feedback, it acts as the oscillator the feedback here
is positive feedback which means some amount of
voltage is given to the input.

5
20. A sinusoidal wave y(t) = 40sin(10 x 106 t) is Sol. Let they meet at t = t

amplitude modulated by another sinusoidal wave So first ball gets t sec.

& 2nd gets (t – 2) sec. & they will meet at same
x(t) = 20sin (1000t). The amplitude of minimum
height
frequency component of modulated signal is : 1
h1  50t  gt 2
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25 (C) 20 (D) 10 2
1
h 2  50  t  2   g  t  2 
2
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
2
h1 = h2
Sol. y(t) = 40 sin (10 × 106 t) 1 1
50t  gt 2  50  t  2   g  t  2 
2

2 2
x(t) = 20sin (1000t)
1
100  g  t 2   t  2  
2

c = 10  7 2  

10
m = 103  100 
2
 4t  4
AC = 40 5=t–1
Am = 20 t = 6 sec.

Equation of modulated wave = (AC + Am sin mt) 2. A batsman hits back a ball of mass 0.4 kg straight
in the direction of the bowler without changing its
sin ct
initial speed of 15 ms–1. The impulse imparted to
 A  the ball is _______________Ns.
 Ac 1  m sin m t  sin c t
 A c 
Official Ans. by NTA (12)
A
= Ac (1 +  sin mt) sin ct,  m
Ac
Sol. Impulse = change in momentum
A c = m[v – (–v)] = 2 mv
 Ac sin c t  cos  c  m  t  cos  c  m  t 
2  = 2 × 0.4 × 15 = 12 Ns
Amplitude of minimum frequency = 3. A system to 10 balls each of mass 2 kg are
Ac Am Ac Am connected via massless and unstretchable string.
    10
2 Ac 2 2 The system is allowed to slip over the edge of a

SECTION-B smooth table as shown in figure. Tension on the

string between the 7th and 8th ball
1. A ball is projected vertically upward with an initial
is_____________N when 6th ball just leaves the
velocity of 50 ms–1 at t = 0s. At t = 2s. another ball table.
is projected vertically upward with same velocity. th
10 ball

At t =________s, second ball will meet the first

ball (g =10 ms–2).

st
1 ball
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
Official Ans. by NTA (36)

6
Sol.
T
T QL = 180 J
Source
TH

QH

6mg 6g 3g W
a  
10m 10 5
T
taking 8,9,10 together
QL
T = 3 ma
3g TL
 3m  Sink
5
QL T
= 36 N 1 1 L
QH TH
4. A geyser heats water flowing at a rate of 2.0 kg per
QL TL
minute from 30°C to 70°C. If geyser operates on a 
QH TH
gas burner, the rate of combustion of fuel will be
QH 300
____________g min–1 TH   TL   324  540K
QL 180
[Heat of combustion = 8 × 103 Jg–1
6. A set of 20 tuning forks is arranged in a series of
Specific heat of water = 4.2 Jg–1 °C–1]
increasing frequencies. If each fork gives 4 beats
Official Ans. by NTA (42) with respect to the preceding fork and the
frequency of the last fork is twice the frequency of
Sol. m = 2000 gm/min the first, then the frequency of last fork is_____Hz.
Heat required by water/min = mST
Official Ans. by NTA (152)
= (2000) × 4.2 × 40 J/min
)
= 336000 J/min
Sol. f1 = f
The rate of combustion =  dm L   336000J / min
 dt  f2 = f + 4
dm 336000 f3 = f + 2 × 4
 g / min
dt 8  103 f4 = f + 3 × 4
= 42 gm/min f20 = f + 19 × 4
5. A heat engine operates with the cold reservoir at f + (19 × 4) = 2 × f
temperature 324 K. f = 76 Hz.
The minimum temperature of the hot reservoir, if Frequency of last tuning forks = 2f
the heat engine takes 300 J heat from the hot = 152 Hz
reservoir and delivers 180 J heat to the cold
7. Two 10 cm long, straight wires, each carrying a
reservoir per cycle, is ___________K.
current of 5A are kept parallel to each other. If
Official Ans. by NTA (540)
each wire experienced a force of 10–5 N, then
separation between the wires is _________cm.
Sol. Tc = 324 k
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
TH = ?
QH = 300 J
7
Sol. It should be mentioned, 10 cm wire is part of long 9. A travelling microscope is used to determine the
wire. refractive index of a glass slab. If 40 divisions are
Force experienced by unit length of wire there in 1 cm on main scale and 50 Vernier scale
0 I1I 2 divisions are equal to 49 main scale divisions, then
 , I1  I 2  5A
2d least count of the travelling microscope is
______×10–6 m.

5A 5A
Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Sol. 50 VSD = 49 MSD

d
49
Force experienced by wires of length 10 cm 1VSD  MSD
50
0 I1I 2
  10  10 2 Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
2d
 49  1
5 2  10 7  5  5   1   MSD  MSD
10   10  10 2  50  50
d
1
d = 50 × 10–3 m 1MSD  cm
40
d = 50 × 10–1 cm = 5 cm. 1
Least count = cm
50  40
8. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank 1 1
 cm=  10 5 m
2000 2
containing water to a depth of 7 m. The
= 0.5 × 10–5 m
4 = 5 × 10–6 m
refractive index of water is 3 . The area of the
10. The stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted
surface of water through which light from the bulb
from a surface illuminated by light of wavelength
can emerge out is x m2. The value of x 6630 Å is 0.42 V. If the threshold frequency is x ×
is_______. 1013/s, where x is ______ (nearest integer).
Official Ans. by NTA (9) (Given, speed light = 3 × 108 m/s, Planck’s
constant = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
Sol. C : Criticle angle Official Ans. by NTA (35)
r
Sol. Stopping potential V0 = 0.42 V
C
h = 7m =4/3  = 6630 Å
C
E =  + eV0
E : energy of incident photon
r V0 : Stopping potential
tan C 
h
 = E – eV0
r = h tan C 12400
E eV  1.87 eV
1 3 6630
sinC  
 4  = (1.87 – 0.42) = 1.45 eV

tan C 
3  = hv0 ; v0 : threshold frequency
7 1.45 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 6.63 × 10–34 × v0
3 v0 = 0.35 × 1015
r  7 3
7 = 35 × 1013 sec–1
Area of surface = r2 = 9m2 = 35
8
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JUNE, 2022
(Held On Sunday 26th June, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 4. The role of depressants in Froth Flotation method*
1. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4d is to
orbital are. respectively (A) selectively prevent one component of the ore
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 2 from coming to the froth.
(C) 1 and 0 (D) 2 and 1 (B) reduce the consumption of oil for froth
Official Ans. by NTA (A) formation.
(C) stabilize the froth.
Sol. Radial node = n – l – 1
(D) enhance non-wettability of the mineral
=4–2–1
=1 particles.
Angular node (l) = 2 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
2. Match List I with List II.
List I List II Sol. Depressant prevent one component from coming to

Enzyme Conversion of the froth.

A. Invertase I. Starch into maltose For eg., in Galena ore, the depressant (NaCN)
prevents impurity (ZnS) from coming to the froth.
B. Zymase II. Maltose into glucose
5. Boiling of hard water is helpful in removing the
C. Diastase III. Glucose into ethanol
temporary hardness by converting calcium
D. Maltase IV. Cane sugar into glucose hydrogen carbonate and magnesium hydrogen
Choose the most appropriate answer from the carbonate to
options given below : (A) CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2
(A) A-III, B-IV. C-II. D-I (B) CaCO3 and M2CO3
(C) Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3
(B) A-III. B-II. C-I. D-IV
(D) Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2
(C) A-IV, B-IIL C-I. D-II
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(D) A-IV, B-II. C-III. D-I
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Sol. Mg(HCO3)2   Mg(OH)2 + 2CO2
Boil

Ca(HCO3)2   CaCO3 + H2O + CO2

Boil

Sol. Invertase : Cane sugar  Glucose and fructose

6. s-block element which cannot be qualitatively
Zymase : Glucose  Ethanol and CO2 confirmed by the flame test is
Diastase : Starch  Maltose (A) Li (B) Na (C) Rb (D) Be
Maltase : Maltose  Glucose Official Ans. by NTA (D)
3. Which of the following elements in considered as a
metalloid? Sol. Flame color
(A) Sc (B) Pb (C) Bi (D) Te
Li Crimson Red
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Na Yellow
Sol. Sc, Pb, Bi are metals Rb Red violet
Te is a metalloid Be No color

1
7. The oxide which contains an odd electron at the (A) A and B (B) A and D
nitrogen atom is (C) B and C (D) B and D
(A) N2O (B) NO2 (C) N2O3 (D) N2O5 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. Sol. Clean water  B.O.D. < 5 ppm

O O Highly polluted water  B.O.D. > 17 ppm

N N O N
N –N 11. The correct order of nucleophilicity is
O O
O
(A) F   OH  (B) H2 O  OH
O O
(C) R OH  RO (D) NH2  NH3
N N
O O O Official Ans. by NTA (D)
8. Which one of the following is an example of
disproportionation reaction? Sol. Nucleophilicity  electro density on donor atom
2    size of donor atom (in gas)
(A) 3MnO4  4H  2MnO4  MnO2  2H2O
1
2    ( for period)
(B) MnO4  4H  4e  MnO2  2H2O EN of atom
12. Oxidation of toluene to Benzaldehyde can be easily
(C) 10I  2MnO4  16H  2Mn2  8H2O  5I2
carried out with which of the following reagents?
(D) 8MnO4  3S2O32  H2O  8MnO2  6SO24  2OH (A) CrO3/acetic acid, H3O+
(B) CrO3/acetic anhydride, H3O+
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(C) KMnO4/HCl, H3O+
(D) CO/HCl, anhydrous AlCl3
Sol. Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol.
O
O – C – CH3
CH3 HC CHO
9. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid O – C – CH3
H2O/H+
CrO3/Acetic an hydride
O + 2 CH3COOH
elements is +3. Which of the following is likely to Hydrolysis

deviate easily from +3 oxidation state?

(A) Ce (At. No. 58) (B) La (At. No. 57) 13. The major product in the following reaction
(C) Lu (At. No. 71) (D) Gd (At. No. 64)
 i Hg OAc  ,H O

 ii NaBH4 ?
2 2

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

(A) (B)
Sol. Ce = [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2 OH O
3+ 1 0
Ce = [Xe] 4f 5d OH
+4 0 0
Ce = [Xe] 4f 5d (Noble gas configuration) (C) (D)
OH
10. The measured BOD values for four different water
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
samples (A-D) are as follows:
A = 3 ppm: B=18 ppm: C-21 ppm: D=4 ppm. The
water samples which can be called as highly
polluted with organic wastes, are
2
 ( 1) H g (O A2c ) ,2 H O Sol.
H
Sol. (2) NaBH4
O O O
OH MnO
C 6H 5 – C – OH + HO – C – C 6H5 C 6H 5 – C – C 6 H5 + CO2 + H2 O
Oxymercuration – Demercuration
Addition of H2O O O
MnO
O
C 6H 5 – C – OH + HO – C – H C 6H 5 – C – H + CO 2 + H2 O
Markovnikov’s addition without rearrangement
14. Halogenation of which one of the following will 16. The final product ‘A’ in the following reaction
yield m-substituted product with respect to methyl
sequence
group as a major product?
HCN 95% H2 SO4
CH3 CH3 CH2 – C – CH3 ? A
CH 3 Heat
NO2 O
(A) (B) CH3
CHO
(A) CH3 – CH = C – COOH
CH3 CH3
OH
(B) CH3 – CH = C – CN
(C) (D) CH3
NO2 OH

Official Ans. by NTA (C) (C) CH3 – CH – C – COOH

CH3

Sol. Electrophile will attack at ortho and para position (D) CH3 – CH = C – CONH2
with respect to better electron releasing group CH3

(ERG) Official Ans. by NTA (A)

ERG : – OH > – CH3
CH3 Sol.
O CN
OH HCN
CH3CH2 – C – CH3 CH3CH2 – C – CH3 95% H2SO4
Heat
OH
CH3
Para position with respect to – OH (+R) group and CH3 –CH = C – COOH
it will be meta position with respect to – CH3
17. Which statement is NOT correct for p-toluenesulphonyl
group.
chloride?
15. The reagent, from the following, which converts (A) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent.
benzoic acid to benzaldehyde in one step is (B) It is used to distinguish primary and secondary
CHO amines.
COOH
(C) On treatment with secondary amine, it leads to
a product, that is soluble in alkali.
(D) It doesn’t react with tertiary amines.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(A) LiAlH4 (B) KMnO4
(C) MnO (D) NaBH4 Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (C) CH3

SO2 Cl
Hinsberg's reagent
3
 O 19. Which of the following is NOT an example of
H3 C S – Cl + 1° Amine Soluble in alkali synthetic detergent?
O
– +
CH3 – (CH2)11 SO3 Na
(A)
O
(B) CH3 – (CH2)16 –COO– Na+
H3 C S – Cl + 2° Amine insoluble in alkali
+
O CH3
O
CH3 – (CH2)15 – N – CH3 –
Br
H3 C S – Cl + 3° Amine No reaction
CH3
O (C)
(D) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH
18. The final product ‘C’ is the following series series Official Ans. by NTA (B)
of reactions
NO2 Sol. Refer NCERT (Page No. 452)
 Naphthol

Sn/HCl NaNO2
A   B  C 20. Which one of the following is a water soluble
HCl NaOH is
vitamin, that is not excreted easily?
(A) Vitamin B2 (B) Vitamin B1

N=N
(C) Vitamin B6 (D) Vitamin B12
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
OH
(A)
OH
Sol. Refer NCERT (Page No. 426)
SECTION-B
N=N 1. CNG is an important transportation fuel. When 100
(B)
g CNG is mixed with 208 oxygen in vehicles, it
OH
leads to the formation of CO2 and H2O and
N=N
produces large quantity of heat during this
combustion, then the amount of carbon dioxide,
(C) produced in grams is________. [nearest integer]
OH
N=N [Assume CNG to be methane]
Official Ans. by NTA (143)
(D)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Sol. CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
NO 2 NH 2 N2 Cl 100 208
Sn/HCl NaNO2 Mole 16 32
Sol. HCl
= 6.25 = 6.5
Diazonium salt
Mole 6.25 6.5
OH  3.25
N2 Cl OH Stoi. Coeff. 1 2
N=N–
So, O2 is limiting reagent
–napthol NaOH
Diazonium salt Mole – Mole analysis

4
 n O2 n co2 [Assume steam to be an ideal gas. Given AvapH

2 1
for water at 373 K and 1 bar is 41.1 kJ mol–1 ; R =
6.5
 nco2 8.31 JK–1mol–1]
2
Official Ans. by NTA (38)
6.5
Mass of CO2 = × 44 = 143 gm
2
2. In a solid AB. A atoms are in ccp arrangement and
Sol. H2O (l)  H2O(g)
B atoms occupy all the octahedral sites. If two
36
atoms from the opposite faces are removed, then n= = 2 mol
18
the resultant stoichiometry of the compound is
U = H – ng RT
AxBy. The value of x is_______. [nearest integer]
1 8.31 373
= 41.1 – kJ / mol
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 1000
= 38 kJ/mol

Sol. A  4 –  2  1  = 3 5. The osmotic pressure exerted by a solution

 2 prepared by dissolving 2.0 g of protein of molar
B  12 × 1 + 1 × 1 = 4 mass 60 kg mol–1 in 200 mL of water at 27°C is
4 _______ Pa. [integer value]
So, Compound is A3B4
(use R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1)
The value of x is 3.
Official Ans. by NTA (415)
3. Amongst SF4, XeF4, CF4 and H2O, the number of
species with two lone pairs of electrons ______ .
Sol.  = iCRT
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
1 2
=  0.083  300
60000  0.2
Sol. = 0.00415 bar ( 1 bar = 105 Pa)
So, 0.00415 × 105 Pa = 415 Pa
6. 40° of HI undergoes decomposition to H2 and I2 at
300 K. G for this decompostion reaction at one
atmosphere pressure is________ J mol–1. [nearest
integer]
(Use R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1; log 2 = 0.3010. In 10 =
2.3, log 3 = 0.477)
Official Ans. by NTA (2735)

1 1
Sol. HI H2 + I2
2 2
4. A fish swimming in water body when taken out ti 1
from the water body is covered with a film of
0.4 0.4
water of weight 36 g. When it is subjected to teq 1 – 0.4 
 2  2
cooking at 100°C, then the internal energy for 1 1
–1
vaporization in kJ mol is ________. (0.2) 2 (0.2) 2 0.2 1
 Kp =  
1  0.4 0.6 3
[nearest integer]
5
 G  G  RT ln K  0 Sol.
1  Ea
G  RT ln K  8.31 300  2.3  log   K  Ae RT
3
Ea1 Ea
= 2735 J/mol  
K cat  Ae RT
, K uncat.  Ae RT

2+ 2+
7. Cu(s) + Sn (0.001M)  Cu (0.01M) + Sn(s) K cat Ea  Ea1 101000
e RT
 e 8.31300  e 4.009  e x
The Gibbs free energy change for the above K uncat.
reaction at 298 K is x × 10–1 kJ mol–1;  x4
The value of x is______. [nearest integer]
9. Reaction of [Co(H2O)6]2+ with excess ammonia
Given : E Cu2 /Cu  0.34V; E Sn2 /Sn  0.14V; F  96500C mol 
–1

and in the presence of oxygen results into a

Official Ans. by NTA (983) diamagnetic product. Number of electrons present
in t2g–orbitals of the product is _______ .
Sol. Cu(s) + Sn2+ (0.001 M)  Cu2+ (0.01 M) + Sn(s)
E°cell = E°cathode – E°anode Official Ans. by NTA (6)
= – 0.14 – (0.34)
= – 0.48 V
0.059 [Cu2 ] Sol. [Co(H2O)6]2+ +NH3(excess)  [Co(NH3)6]3+ +
Ecell  Ecell  log
2 [Sn 2 ] 6H2O
0.059 0.01 Diamagnetic
 0.48 – log
2 0.001

 0.509
Low spin complex
G = – nF Ecell
3+ 6 0
Co  3d 4s
= – 2 × 96500 × (–0.5095)
 t2g6 eg0
= 98333.5 J/mol
Total number electrons = 6
= 98.335 kJ/mol
= 983.35 × 10–1 kJ/mol 10. The moles of methane required to produce 81 g of
Nearest Integer : 983 water after complete combustion is ______ × 10–2
mol. [nearest integer]
8. Catalyst A reduces the activation energy for a
Official Ans. by NTA (225)
reaction by 10 kJ mol–1 at 300 K. The ratio of rate
k
T,Catalysed
k
T, Uncatalysed is ex. The value of x is Sol. CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
constants,
POAC on H atom
_______. [nearest integer]
nCH4 × 4 = nH2O × 2
[Assume theat the pre-exponential factor is same in 81 1 81
nCH4  2 
both the cases. 18 4 36
nCH4  2.25
–1 –1
Given R = 8.31 J K mol ]
= 225 ×10–2

Official Ans. by NTA (4) Nearest Integers = 225

6
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JUNE, 2022

(Held On Sunday 26th June, 2022) TIME : 03 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A a 1 1
1. Let f : ¡ ® ¡ be defined as f(x) = x-1 and Sol. D= 1 2 3 =0
2 1 3 5
g : ¡ - {1, –1} ® ¡ be defined as g ( x ) = 2x .
x -1 Þ a(10 – 9) – 1 (5 – 3) + 1 (3 – 2) = 0
Then the function fog is :
Þ a–2+1=0
(A) one-one but not onto function
(B) onto but not one-one function Þ a=1
(C) both one-one and onto function 511
(D) neither one-one nor onto function Dx = 4 2 3 = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (D) b 3 5

Þ 5(10 – 9) – 1(20 – 3b) + 1(12 – 2b)

Sol. f(x) = x – 1 ; g(x) =
Þ 5 – 20 + 3b + 12 – 2b
f(g(x)) = g(x) – 1
Þ –3 + b = 0
x2 x2 - x2 + 1
= -1 =
x -1
2
x2 - 1 Þ b=3
f(g(x))= ; x ¹ ±1, even function ( -1)
n
¥ ¥
1
3. If A = å and B = å n , then
® Hence f(g(x)) is many one function n =1
(3 + ( -1) )
n n
( ( ))
n =1 3 + -1
n

1
y= A is equal to :
x -12

B
y · x2 – y = 1
11 11 11
= (A) 9 (B) 1 (C) - 9 (D) -
3
æ1+ y ö Official Ans. by NTA (C)
ç ÷³0
è y ø
+ – +
–1 0 æ1 1 1 1 ö
A = ç + 2 + 3 + 4 + ......¥ ÷
Range:- y Î (–¥, –1] È (0, ¥) Sol. è 2 4 2 4 ø
Hence, Range ¹ Co-domain Þ f(g(x)) is into
æ1 1 ö æ 1 1 ö
function A = ç + 3 + .....¥ ÷ + ç 2 + 4 + ......¥ ÷
è 2 2 ø è 4 4 ø
2. If the system of equations ax + y + z = 5, x + 2y +
æ 1 1 ö
3z = 4, x + 3y + 5z = b, ç 2 ÷
A=ç + 16
has infinitely many solutions, then the ordered pair ÷
çç 1 - 1 1 - 1 ÷÷
(a, b) is equal to : è 4 16 ø
(A) (1,–3) (B) (–1, 3) 1 4 1 16 11
ÞA= ´ + ´ Þ A=
(C) (1, 3) (D) (–1, –3) 2 3 16 15 15
Official Ans. by NTA (C) -1 1 -1 1
B= + + + + .....¥
2 42 23 44
For infinitely many solutions, æ -1 -1 ö æ 1 1 ö
B = ç + 3 + ....¥ ÷ + ç 2 + 4 + .....¥ ÷
D = 0 = D x = D y = Dz è 2 2 ø è4 4 ø

1
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session
1 1 Sol.
-
B= 2 + 16
1 1
1- 1-
4 16
1 4 1 16
ÞB=- ´ + ´
2 3 16 15
9
B=-
15 No. of non-differentiable points = 1 (m)
A 11 15 No. of not continuous points = 0 (n)
= ´
B 15 ( -9 ) (m, n) = (1, 0)
A 11 6. Consider a cuboid of sides 2x, 4x and 5x and a
=-
B 9 closed hemisphere of radius r. If the sum of their
cos ( sin x ) - cos x surface areas is a constant k, then the ratio x : r, for
4. lim is equal to :
x ®0 x4 which the sum of their volumes is maximum, is :
1 1 1 1 (A) 2 : 5 (B) 19:45 (C) 3 : 8 (D) 19 : 15
(A) 3 (B) (C) (D)
4 6 12 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

cos ( sin x ) - cosx æ 0 ö Sol. Surface area = 76 x2 + 3pr2 = constant (K)

Sol. lim ;ç ÷
x ®0 x4 è0ø 2
V = 40x 3 + pr 3
æ æ x + sin x ö æ x - sin x ö ö 3
ç 2·sin ç 2 ÷·sin ç 2 ÷÷
lim ç è ø è ø÷ [76 x2 + 3pr2 = K]
x ®0 ç x4 ÷ K - 76x 2
ç ÷ r2 =
è ø 3p
æ æ x + sin x ö öæ æ x - sin x ö ö æ x + sin x ö 1

ç sin ç ÷ ÷ç sin ç ÷÷ç ÷ æ K - 76x 2 ö 2

lim 2 ç è
2 ø ÷ç è 2 ø÷è 2 ø æ x - sin x ö r=ç ÷
x ®0 ç æ x + sin x ö ÷ç æ x - sin x ö ÷ x4 ç 2 ÷ è 3p ø
è ø
ç ç 2 ÷ ÷ç ç 2 ÷ ÷ 3
è è ø øè è ø ø 2 æ K - 76x 2 ö 2
V = 40x + p ç
3
÷
æ x 2 - sin 2 x ö æ 0 ö 3 è 3p ø
lim ç 4 ÷ :ç ÷
x ®0
è 2x ø è0ø 1

Apply L-Hopital Rule : dV 2 3 æ K - 76x 2 ö 2 æ -76 ( 2x ) ö

= 120x 2 + p. ç ÷ .ç ÷
2x - 2 sin x cos x dx 3 2 è 3p ø è 3p ø
lim
x ®0 2.4.x 3 Put
2x - sin 2x 0 : Again apply L-Hopital rule
lim ;
x ®0 8x 3 0 1

2 - 2 cos ( 2x )
dV 2 3 æ K - 76x 2 ö 2 æ -76 ( 2x ) ö
= 0 Þ 120x 2 + p. ç ÷ .ç ÷=0
lim dx 3 2 è 3p ø è 3p ø
x ®0 8 ( 3) x2
1
2 (1 - cos ( 2x ) ) 2 1 1 152x æ k - 76x 2 ö 2
lim ´4 Þ ´ ´4Þ Þ 120x =2
ç ÷
x ®0
(
24 4x 2 ) 24 2 6 3 è 3p ø

Let f (x) = min {1, 1 + x sin x}, 0 £ x £ 2p. If m is

1
5. 45 æ k - 76x 2 ö 2
Þ x2 = x ç ÷ ;x¹0
the number of points, where f is not differentiable 19 è 3p ø
and n is the number of points, where f is not 1
45 æ k - 76x 2 ö 2 2

÷ Þ æç 45 ö÷ x2 = k - 76x
2
continuous, then the ordered pair (m, n) is equal to Þ x =ç
19 è 3p ø è 19 ø 3p
(A) (2, 0) (B) (1, 0) 2 2
æ 45 ö
2
x æ 19 ö
(C) (1, 1) (D) (2, 1) Þ ç ÷ x2 = r 2 Þ 2 = ç ÷
è 19 ø r è 45 ø
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
x 19
Þ =
r 45
2
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session
7. The area of the region bounded by y2 = 8x and y2 = 1 1- x
òx dx = g ( x ) + c
16 (3 – x) is equal to :- Sol. 1+ x

32 40 Put x = cos 2q
(A) (B) (C) 16 (D) 19
3 3
dx = – 2sin2q · dq
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
1
=ò tan q ( -4 sin q ·cos q ) dq
cos2 q
Sol. y2 = 8x ; y2 = 16(3 – x) 1
y2 = –16(x – 3)
=ò
cos2 q
(
-4 sin 2 q dq )
1 - cos2 q
4 = -2 ò dq
xL xR cos2q
dy
2
= - ln sec 2q + tan 2q + 2q + c
2

–4 = ln |sec 2q - tan 2q| + 2q + c

x=2 1 - sin 2q
= ln + cos-1 x + c
cos 2q
finding their intersection pts.
y2 = 8x & y2 = –16(x – 3) 1 - 1 - x2
= ln + cos -1 x + c
8x = –16x + 48 x
1444 424444 3
24x = 48 g( x )

x = 2; y = ±4 \ g(1) = 0
4
A = 2.ò ( x R - x L ) dy g ( x ) = ln
1 - 1 - x2
+ cos-1 x
# Required Area 0 x

æ ö æ1ö p
ç
4
y2 y2 ÷ g ç ÷ = ln 2 - 3 +
= 2.ò ç 3 - - ÷ dy è2ø 3
0ç{
16 {8 ÷
è (xR xL ) ø
æ1ö 3 -1 p
4 g ç ÷ = ln +
æ y3
y ö 3
è2ø 3 +1 3
= 2 ç 3y - - ÷
è 3 ´ 16 3 ´ 8 ø0
9. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential
æ 4´ 4´ 4 4´ 4´ 4´2 ö
= 2ç 3´ 4 - - dy
è 3 ´ 16 3 ´ 8 ´ 2 ÷ø equation x
dx
+ 2y = xe x ,y (1) = 0 then the local
,
æ 4 8ö æ 1ö 2 maximum value of the function z(x) = x2y(x)-ex,
= 2 ç 12 - - ÷ = 2 ´ 12 ç 1 - ÷ = 2 ´ 12 ´ = 16
è 3 3ø è 3ø 3
xÎR is :
8. If ò 1 1 - x dx = g ( x ) + c,g (1) = 0, then g æç 1 ö÷ is equal 1 4
x 1+ x è2ø -e
(A) 1 – e (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) e
to :
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
æ 3 -1 ö p æ 3 +1ö p
loge ç + loge ç +
(A) ç 3 + 1 ÷÷ 3 (B) ç 3 - 1 ÷÷ 3
è ø è ø
dy
x + 2y = xe x
æ 3 +1ö p 1 æ 3 -1 ö p Sol. dx
(C) log ç -
ç 3 - 1 ÷÷ 3 (D) 2
log e ç
ç ÷÷ -
è 3 +1ø 6
e
è ø dy 2y
+ = ex
dx x
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
I.F. = x2
y.x 2 = ò x 2 e x dx

3
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session
(
= ò e x x 2 + 2x - 2x - 2 + 2 dx ) 11. If m is the slope of a common tangent to the curves
x2 y2
yx2 = ex (x2 – 2x + 2) + c + =1
16 9 and x2+y2 = 12, then 12m2 is equal to :
y(1) = 0
(A) 6 (B) 9
0 = e(1 + 0) + c
(C) 10 (D) 12
c = –e Official Ans. by NTA (B)
z(x) = x2 y(x) – ex
= ex(x2 – 2x + 2) – e – ex x 2 y2
x 2 + =1
= e (x – 1) – e Sol. 16 9
equation of tangent to the ellipse is
dz
= e x .2 ( x - 1) + e x ( x - 1) = 0
2

dx y = mx ± a 2 m 2 + b 2

xx (x – 1) (2 + x – 1) = 0 y = mx ± 16m 2 + 9 ….(i)
x
e (x – 1) (x + 1) = 0 x2 + y2 = 12
x = -1,1 equation of tangent to the circle is

+ – + y = mx ± 12 1 + m 2 ….(ii)
–1 1
for common tangent equate eq. (i) and (ii)
x = –1 local maxima. Then maximum value is
Þ 16m2 + 9 = 12(1 + m2)
4
z ( -1) = - e 16 m2 – 12 m2 = 3
e
10. If the solution of the differential equation 4 m2 = 3
dy 12 m2 = 9
dx
( ) (
+ e x x 2 - 2 y = x 2 - 2x x 2 - 2 e 2x )( ) satisfies
12. The locus of the mid point of the line segment
y(0) = 0, then the value of y(2) is _______ . joining the point (4, 3) and the points on the ellipse
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) e x2 + 2y2 = 4 is an ellipse with eccentricity :
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
3 1
(A) (B)
2 2 2
Sol. . .= ∫ = ∫ 1 1
(C) (D)
2 2
=
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
. = e ( e x x 2 -2x )e x x 2 - 2x x 2 - 2 e x dx
( )( )
ò x 2 y2
Sol. + =1
Let ( −2 ) = 4 2

So,
y.e
(
e x x 2 - 2x ) = e t .t dt
ò
P(4,3)
D (
Q 2cos q, 2 sin q )
At x = 0, t = 0 Coordinate of D is
x = 2, t = 0 æ 2 cos q + 4 2 sin q + 3 ö
çç , ÷÷ º (h, k)
= t·et – et + c è 2 2 ø

x=0;0·1=0–1+cÞc=1 2h - 4
= cos q
2 ….(i)
for x = 2; y · 1 = 0 – 1 + 1 = 0
y(2)= 0 2k - 3
= sin q
2 ….(ii)
2 2
(i) + (ii) , then we get

4
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session

æ
2
3ö 30 = 15 l
2 2
( x - 2)
2 çy - ÷
2ø
æ 2h - 4 ö æ 2k - 3 ö Þ +è =1 l= 2
ç 2 ÷ +ç ÷ =1 1 æ1ö
è ø è 2 ø ç2÷ Required plane :- 8x – y + 3z – 14 = 0
è ø
Check options
\ Required eccentricity is
r ˆ ˆ ˆ
1 1 15. If the lines ( ) (
r = i - j + k + l 3ˆj - kˆ ) and
e = 1- =
r
2 2
( ) ( )
r = aˆi - ˆj + m 2iˆ - 3kˆ are co-planar, then distance
x 2 y2
13. The normal to the hyperbola 2 - = 1 at the of the plane containing these two lines from the
a 9
point (•, 0, 0) is :
( )
point 8,3 3 on it passes through the point :
2 2
(
(A) 15, -2 3 ) ( )
(B) 9,2 3 (A) 9 (B) 11
4
(C) ( –1,9 3 ) (D) ( –1,6 3 )
(C) 11 (D) 2
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

r ˆ ˆ ˆ
x2 y2
- = 1 8,3 3 ( ) Sol.
( ) (
r = i - j + k + l 3ˆj - kˆ ) ….. L1
Sol. a2 9 : lie on Hyperbola then
r
64 27 64 ( ) (
r = aˆi - ˆj + m 2iˆ - 3kˆ ) ….. L2
- = 1 Þ a 2 = = 16
a2 9 4
• L1 and L2 are coplanar
(
equation of normal at 8,3 3 : ) 0 3 –1
\ 2 0 –3 = 0
16x 9y
8
+ = 16 + 9 (1 - a ) 0 1
3 3
–3 (2 + 3 (1 – •)) = 0
2x + 3y = 25
2 + 3 – 3• = 0
Check options.
• 3• = 5
14. If the plane 2x + y – 5z = 0 is rotated about its line
5
Þa=
of intersection with the plane 3x – y + 4z – 7 = 0 3
p Now,
by an angle of , then the plane after the rotation
2 ˆi ˆj kˆ
r
passes through the point : n = 0 3 -1 = ˆi ( -9 ) - ˆj ( 2 ) + k ( -6 )
(A) (2, –2, 0) (B) (–2, 2, 0) 2 0 -3

(C) (1, 0, 2) (D) (–1, 0, –2) = (9, 2, 6)

Official Ans. by NTA (C) Equation of plane :
9 (x – 1) + 2(y + 1) + 6(z – 1) = 0
9x + 2y + 6z – 13 = 0
Sol. (2x + y – 5z) + l(3x – y + 4z – 7) = 0
Perpendicular distance from (•, 0, 0)
Rotated by p/2
æ 5 ö
ç 9· + 0 + 0 - 13 ÷
(2 + 3 l)x + (1 – l)y + (–5 + 4l)z – 7l = 0 = è 3 ø = 2 = 2
81 + 36 + 4 121 11
2x + y – 5z = 0
2(2 + 3 l) + (1 – l) – 5(–5 + 4 l) = 0
Þ 4 + 6 l + 1 – l + 25 – 20 l = 0

5
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session
r r
16. ˆ b = 2iˆ - 3ˆj + kˆ and cr = ˆi - ˆj + kˆ be
Let a = ˆi + ˆj + 2k, Given x1 + x’1 = 70

three given vectors. Let vr be a vector in the plane x=

x1 + x 2 + .... + x 50
= 15 ( given )
50
r 2 rˆ
of ar and b whose projection on rc is . If v. j = 7, Þ x1 + x2 + …..x50 = 750 ….(i)
3 Now
r
then v. ( ˆi + kˆ ) is equal to : Mean of correct observation is 16
x '1 + x 2 + .... + x 50
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 = 16
50
Official Ans. by NTA (D) x’1 + x2 + x3 + …. x50 = 16 × 50 ….(ii)
eq. (ii) – eq. (i)
r r r Þ x’1 – x1 = 16 × 50 – 15 × 50
Sol. v = la + mb x’1 – x1 = 50 & x1 + x’1 = 70
r
v = l (1,1,2 ) + m ( 2, –3,1) x’1 = 60
r x1 = 10
v = ( l + 2m, l - 3m,2l + m )
x12 + x22 + .... + x50
2

r Þ4= - 152
r r c 2 50 ….(iii)
v.jˆ = 7 v. r =
c 3 x'12 + x 22 + ....x 50
2

rr Þ s2 = - 16 2
v.c = 2 50 ....(iv)
l – 3m = 7
from (iii)
l + 2m – l + 3 m + 2l + m = 2
(10 )
2
x 22 + x32 + .... + x 50
2

2l + 6m = 2 Þ4= + - 225
50 50
l + 3m = 1
Þ 4 = 2 - 225 +
(x 2
2 + x 32 + .... + x 50
2
)
l - 3m = 7 50

2l = 8 Þ 227 =
(x 2
2 + x + ....x
2
3
2
50 )
50
l=4 From (iv)

ss2 =+ ( 60 ) + æç x2 + x3 + .... + x 50 ö÷ - (16 )2

2
m = –1 2 2 2

r 50 è 50 ø
We get v = ( 2,7,7 )
ss =+ 60 ´ 60 + 227 - 256
2

17. The mean and standard deviation of 50 50

observations are 15 and 2 respectively. It was s2 = 72 + 227 - 256

found that one incorrect observation was taken s 2 = 43

18. 16sin(20°) sin(40°) sin(80°) is equal to :
such that the sum of correct and incorrect
observations is 70. If the correct mean is 16, then (A) 3 (B) 2 3 (C) 3 (D) 4 3

the correct variance is equal to : Official Ans. by NTA (B)

(A) 10 (B) 36 (C) 43 (D) 60
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol. 16 sin20° sin 40° sin 80°
= 16 sin 40° sin 20° sin 80°

Sol. No. of observations: - 50 = 4(4 sin (60 – 20) sin (20) sin (60 + 20))
= 4 × sin (3 × 20°)
mean ( x ) = 15
[Q sin 3q = 4 sin(60 – q) × sin q × sin (60 + q)]
Standard deviation (s) = 2
Let incorrect observation is x1 & correct = 4 × sin 60°
observation is (x’1) 3
= 4´ =2 3
2

6
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session
19. If the inverse trigonometric functions take (2)
principal values, then p ~p r Ú (~ p) q=r ( p Ù q ) ( p Ù q ) Ú r r Ú (~ p)
Þ
æ 3 æ æ 4 öö 2 æ æ 4 ööö
cos -1 ç cos ç tan -1 ç ÷ ÷ + sin ç tan -1 ç ÷ ÷ ÷ is equal
10 3 5
(p Ù q) Ú r
è è è øø è è 3 øøø
TF T T T T T
to :
FT T T F T T
(A) 0 (B) p (C) p (D) p
4 3 6 TF F F F F T

Official Ans. by NTA (C) FT T F F F F

Sol. Let (3)

4 4 p q r = ~p r Ú (~ p) ( p Ù q ) ( p Ù q ) Ú r r Ú (~ p)
tan -1 = q Þ tan q = Þ
3 3
(p Ù q) Ú r
5
T TF F T T T
4
F TT T F T T
q
3 T F F F F F T

æ 3 2 ö F F T T F T T
E = cos-1 ç cos q + sin q ÷
è 10 5 ø

æ 3 3 2 4ö (4)
= cos -1 ç ´ + · ÷
è 10 5 5 5 ø ~p p q r Ú (~ p) r=~q ( p Ù q ) ( p Ù q ) Ú r r Ú (~ p)
æ 9 8 ö æ 25 ö æ1ö p Þ
= cos-1 ç + ÷ = cos-1 ç ÷ = cos-1 ç ÷ =
è 50 25 ø 50
è ø è2ø 3 (p Ù q) Ú r
20. Let r Î {p, q, ~p, ~q} be such that the logical F TTF F T T T

statement r Ú ( ~ p ) Þ ( p Ù q ) Ú r is a tautology. F TFT T F T T

T FTT F F F F
Then ‘r’ is equal to :
T FFT T F T T
(A) p (B) q (C) ~p (D) ~q
Now final answer is option no. 3.

Official Ans. by NTA (C) SECTION-B

1. Let f : ¡ ® ¡ satisfy f(x + y) = 2xf(y) + 4yf(x),"x,

Sol. By options f '( 4)
y Î ¡ . If f(2) = 3, then 14. is equal to _____.
(1) f '(2 )

p=r q ~p r Ú (~ p) ( p Ù q ) ( p Ù q ) Ú r r Ú (~ p) Official Ans. by NTA (248)

Þ
(p Ù q) Ú r
T F F T F T T Sol. Put y = 2
F TT T F F F f(x + y) = 2x.f(y) + 4y.f(x).

T TF T T T T f(x + 2) = 2x.3 + 16f(x)

F F T T F F F f’(x + 2) = 16f’(x) + 3.2x ln2

f’(4) = 16f’(2) + 12ln2 ….(i)
y
f(y + 2) = 4f(y) + 3·4

7
2

Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session

f¢ (y + 2) = 4f¢(y) + 3.4y ln4 æ n n 1 ö
15 2

3. If z + z + 1 = 0, z Î £ , then å ç Z + ( -1) Z n ÷
2

f¢(4) = 4f¢(2) + 96 ln2 ….(ii) n =1 è ø

solving eq. (i) and (ii), we get is equal to ______ .

f¢(2) = 7 ln2 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
from equation (i), we get
f’(4) = 124 ln2
Sol. z2 + z + 1 = 0 Þ z = w, w2
( )
Now, Þ 14.
( ) 2
15
æ n 1ö 15
æ 1 n ö
å ç z + ( -1) z n ÷ =
n =1 è ø
å çè z 2n
+
z 2n
+ 2 ( -1) ÷
ø
14 × n =1

= 248. 15
1
åw + 2 ( -1)
n
= 2n
+
n =1 w2n
2. Let p and q be two real numbers such that p + q =
-2 1 æ 1 ö
1 - 30
3 and p4 + q4 = 369. Then ç + ÷
æ1 1ö
is equal to (
w 2 1 - w30 )+ w 2 ç
è w
÷
ø + 2 -1
èp qø =
1
( )
1 - w2
1- 2
_______. w

Official Ans. by NTA (4) 1

2 (
w 2 (1 - 1) 1 - 1)
= + w -2
1 - w2 1
1- 2
Sol. p + q = 3 p4 + q4 = 369 w
-2 = |0 + 0 – 2| = 2
æ1 1ö
ç + ÷
èp qø 0 1 0
4. Let = 0 0 1 , = + + and
(p + q)2 = 9 0 0 0
p2 + q2 = 9 – 2pq
(
Z = a 2 I - ab X + b 2 - ag X 2 , a, b, g Î ¡ ) . If Y–1 =
( qp ) ( qp )
2 2
1
= = é1 -2 1 ù
(q + p )
2 2
æ1 1ö 9
ê5 5ú
ç + ÷ ê
5
ú
èp qø 1 -2 ú
ê0
ê , then (a – b + g)2 is equal to _____ .
p4 + q4 = (p2 + q2)2 – 2p2q2 5 5ú
ê ú
ê0 1 ú
369 = (9 – 2pq)2 – 2(pq)2 0
2 2 2 2
ëê 5 ûú
369 = 81 + 4p q – 36pq – 2p q
288 = 2p2q2 – 36pq Official Ans. by NTA (100)

144 = p2q2 – 18pq

(pq)2 – 2 × 9 × pq + 92 = 144 + 92 é0 1 0 ù é0 0 1 ù
2
(pq – 9) = 225 X = êê0 0 1 úú , X 2 = êê0 0 0 úú
êë0 0 0 úû êë0 0 0 úû
pq – 9 = ± 15 Sol.
pq = ± 15 + 9 éa b g ù éa 2 -ab b 2 - ag ù
ê ú ê ú
pq = 24, – 6 Y=
ê0 a bú, Z =ê0 a2 -ab ú
êë 0 0 a úû ê0 0 a 2 úû
(24 is rejected because p2 + q2 = 9 – 2pq is negative) ë

(qp) 2 1(–6) 2 Y·Y–1 = I

= =4
9 9

8
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session
é1 –2 1ù 3 + 41 43 +…….
· C3
ê5 5 5ú 41
éa b g ù ê ú é1 0 0 ù
ê0 a bú 1 –2 ú ê
ê ú
ê0 = 0 1 0 úú Similarly :
ê 5 5ú ê 20 + 41
êë 0 0 a úû ê ú ê0 0 1 úû
ê0 1ú ë
0 41
ëê 5 ûú
Þ m = 61 ; n = 41
a m + n = 102
=1 Þ a = 5
5
7. If a1(> 0), a2, a3, a4, a5 are in a G.P., a2 + a4 = 2a3 + 1
2 b
- a + = 0 Þ b = 10 and 3a2 + a3 = 2a4, then a2 + a4 + 2a5 is equal to
5 5
____.
a 2b g
- + =0 Þ g = 15 Official Ans. by NTA (40)
5 5 5

Þ (a – b + g)2 = (5 – 10 + 15)2 = 100

Sol. a1 > 0, a2, a3, a4, a5 ® G.P.
5. The total number of 3–digit numbers, whose 3a2 + a3 = 2a4
greatest common divisor with 36 is 2, is ______ . 3ar + ar2 = 2ar3
Official Ans. by NTA (150) 3 + r = 2r2
2r2 – r – 3 = 0
r=–1&r=
Sol. 36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
a2 + a4 = 2a3 + 1
Number should be odd multiple of 2 and does not
ar + ar3 = 2ar2 + 1
having factor 3 and 9
a (r + r3 – 2r2) = 1
Odd multiple of 2 are
+ − =1
102, 106, 110, 114 ……998 (225 no.)
=
No. of multiples of 3 are
102, 114, 126 ……. 990 (75 no.) When r = –1, a = - 1 (rejected, a1 > 0)
4
Which are also included multiple of 9
2 8
r = ,a = (selected)
Hence, 3 3
Required = 225 – 75 = 150 Now
m
a2 + a4 + 2a5
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
60
40
C0 + 41
C1 + 42
C2 + ... + 60
C 20 = C20
6. If , m
n = × + × +2× ×
and n are coprime, then m + n is equal to ____ . = 4 + 9 + 27 = 40
Official Ans. by NTA (102)
24 2 2 - x2 dx ( )
The integral p ò0 is equal to ___.
8.
(
2 + x2 4 + x4 )
40
C0 + 41 C1 + 42 C2 + .......59 C19 + 60 C20
Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
æ 1 ö 41
ç 41 + 1 ÷ C1 + C2 + ......
42

è ø
é 42 æ 2 ö ù 42
ê 41 ç 42 ÷ + 1ú C 2 + C3 + .....
43 24
2
(2 - x ) 2

ò x +2 4+x dx
ë è ø û Sol. p 0( )2 4

æ 2 ö 42
ç 41 + 1÷ C2 + C3 + .....
43
æ 2 ö
è ø 2 x 2 ç 2 - 1 ÷ dx
24 èx ø
æ 43 3 ö 43 p ò æ 2ö 4
ç 41 ´ 43 + 1÷ C3 + C4 +…….
44

è ø
0
x ç x + ÷ ´ x 2 + x2
è x ø x

9
 Final JEE-Main Exam June 2022/26-06-2022/Evening Session
æ 2 ö k sec q
ç x 2 - 1 ÷ dx · = -1
24
2
è ø h 2 tan q
p ò 2
0 æ 2ö æ 2ö k
çx + ÷ çx + ÷ - 4 m = = -1
è x ø è xø 2h sin q

2 -k 4h2 - k 2
x+ =t sin q = cos q =
x 2h 2h
æ 2 ö also
dt = ç 1 - 2 ÷ dx
è x ø h secq k tan q
- =1
24 dt 4 2
p ò t t2 - 4
I=–
h 2h kæ -k ö
- ç ÷ =1
2 4 4h2 - k 2 2 è 4h 2 - k 2 ø
æ 2ö
x+ ÷
24 1 -1 ç x
= - ´ sec ç ÷ h 2 + k 2 = 2 4h 2 - k 2
p 2 çç 2 ÷÷
è ø0 (x2 + y2)2 = 4(4x2 – y2)
(x2 + y2)2 = 16x2 – 4y2
12 é -1 æ 2 2 ö ù
= - p êsec çç 2 ÷÷ - sec ( ¥ )ú
-1
a = 16, b = –4
ëê è ø ûú
a + b = 16 – 4 = 12
= - 12 éê p - 2p ùú = - 12 éê - p ùú
p ë4 2´2û p ë 4û 10. If the probability that a randomly chosen 6-digit
=3 number formed by using digits 1 and 8 only is a
9. Let a line L1 be tangent to the hyperbola multiple of 21 is p, then 96 p is equal to _____ .

x 2 y2 Official Ans. by NTA (33)

- =1
16 4 and let L2 be the line passing through
the origin and perpendicular to L1. If the locus of Sol. 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 64
the point of intersection of L1 and L2 is (x2 + y2)2 = Divisible by 21 when divided by 3.
ax + by , then a + b is equal to ______ .
2 2
Case – I : All 1 ® (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (12) Case – II : All 8 ® (1)
Case – III : 3 ones & 3 eights
6!
(0,2) = 20
3!´ 3!

22
(4,0) Required probability \ p =
Sol. 64
(0,0)
(h,k) 22
96p = 96 ´ = 33
64
L2

x sec q y tan q
- =1
4 2
sec q ´ 2 sec q
m1 = =
4 ( tan q ) 2 tan q

k
m2 =
h
m1m2 = –1

10