Pahang Trial STPM 2008

CONFIDENTIAL
964/1
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL TINGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA
NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR 2008
BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
One hour and forty-five minutes
Instructions to candidates
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
There are fifty questions in this paper. For each question, four suggested
answers are given.
Choose one correct answer and indicate it on the multiple-choice

answer sheet provided.
Read the instructions on the multiple-choice answer sheet carefully.

Answer all questions. Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers
Pahang Trial STPM 2008

http://edu.joshuatly.com/
http://www.joshuatly.com/
1. Below are four statements about lipids. Which of the following combination of
statements is correct?
I. Lipids consist of glycerol combined with alcohol

II. Both fats and oils are triglycerides
III. Oils are more saturated with hydrogen than fats
IV. Lipids which has fatty acids with double bonds are unsaturated
A II only
B II and IV
C I and IV
D I, III and IV
2. A common feature of starch and glycogen is that molecules of both
A are water soluble polysaccharides

B contain repeated monomers of glucose and galactose
C are important structural components of plant cell walls
D are polymers of glucose
3. Each phosphodiester linkage in DNA or RNA includes a phosphate joined by

covalent bonds to
A two bases
B two sugars
C a sugar, a base and a phosphate
D a sugar and a base
4. Which of the following is not true of a mitochondrion?
A It is the site of Krebs cycle

B It contains DNA
C It possesses two layers of membranes
D The folded inner membrane is called thylakoid
5. The drawing below was made from macerated secondary tissue of a hardwood
tree. It represents a
A tracheid
B sieve element
C vessel element
D xylem parenchyma cell
6. Which of the following graphs shows the possible changes in the rate of a
reaction catalysed by an enzyme in the presence of a non-competitive
inhibitor?
With Without Without With

inhibitor inhibitor inhibitor inhibitor
1/V 1/V
1/[S] 1/[S]
A B
With Without Without With

inhibitor inhibitor inhibitor inhibitor
1/V 1/V
1/[S] 1/[S]
C D
7. The scheme below outlines the major steps in the industrial production of the
sweetener fructose syrup from starch.
Starch (step 1) (step 2) Glucose

suspension maltose Glucose and
in water fructose
What type of enzymes are involved in steps I and II?
A Hydrolases
B Oxidases
C Decarboxylase
D Dehydrogenase

8. Which of the following combinations correctly matches a description and a
process?
Description process
A The production of the amino acid sequence of Transcription
a protein as determined by the base
sequence of mRNA
B The semi-conservative replication of a DNA DNA synthesis
molecule to form two identical molecules
C The production of mRNA molecules by joining Translation
together of nucleotides
D The joining of nucleic acids in a specific Protein synthesis
sequence as determined by the base
sequence of DNA
9. Which of the following shows the correct match?
I uses RuBP; produces PGA (a) Cyclic photophosphorylation

II uses ATP and NADPH (b) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
III forms NADPH (c) Carbon dioxide fixation
IV produces ATP and NADPH (d) Formation of PGAL
V produces only ATP (e) Transfers H+ and electrons to NADP+
I II III IV V
A (c) (d) (a) (e) (b)
B (b) (a) (e) (d) (c)
C (d) (c) (a) (b) (e)
D (c) (d) (e) (b) (a)
10. Which of the following differences between chloroplasts of the mesophyll cell
and the bundle sheath cell of C4 plants are correct?
Chloroplast of mesophyll cell Chloroplast of bundle sheath cell
I Large grana Small grana
II The activity of photosystem II is low The activity of photosystem II is high
III Fixation of carbon dioxide is by Fixation of carbon dioxide is by

PEP carboxylase RuBP carboxylase
IV Less ATP, NADPH2 and oxygen More ATP, NADPH2 and oxygen are
are produced produced
V Few starch granules Many starch granules
A I, II and III B I, III and V

C II, IV and V D III, IV and V

11. In photorespiration, the two substrates that compete for the active sites in
RuBP are
A O2 and CO2
B CO2 and H2O
C H2O and O2
D H2O and NADPH
12. Where are the enzymes located which are involved in the chemical reactions
which occur during glycolysis?
A in the fluid matrix of cytoplasm

B in the mitochondrial matrix
C in the nuclear sap
D on the cristae of a mitochondrion
13. Aerobic respiration involves the following pathways:

I. Glycolysis
II. Link reaction
III. Krebs cycle
IV. Electron transport system
Which of the following are the products of the above pathway?
I II III IV
A 2 ATP 1 NADH 1 ATP 17 ATP

1 NADH 3 NADH
1 FADH2
B 2 ATP 1 NADH 1 ATP 20 ATP

1 NADH 3 NADH
1FADH2
C 2 ATP 2 NADH 2 ATP 34 ATP

2 NADH 6 NADH
2 FADH2
D 2 ATP 2 NADH 2 ATP 38 ATP

2 NADH 6 NADH
2 FADH2
14. What type of nutrition is shown by nitrifying bacteria in the soil?
A Photoautotrophic nutrition
B Chemoautotrophic nutrition
C Holozoic nutrition
D Saprotrophic nutrition

15. Oxygen can easily dissociate from oxyhaemoglobin in conditions of
I. Low carbon dioxide concentration

II. Low blood pH
III. High H+ ion concentration
IV. High oxygen content
A I, II and III
B I, and III
C II, and III
D II, III and IV
16. Bohr effect is
A Too high urea concentration in the blood
B The affinity of haemoglobin to carbon dioxide
C The influence of carbon dioxide concentration on the dissociation of

oxyhaemoglobin
D The increase in rate of dissociation of carbon dioxide caused by Fe2+

ions
17. Which of the following statements about the control of heart beat is true
I The secretion of thyroxine increases the rate of heart beat
II Stimulation of chemoreceptors in the carotid artery increase

the rate of heart beat
III The propagation of impulse through the sympathetic nerve

towards the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes decreases
the rate of heart beat
IV The propagation of impulse through the parasympathetic

nerve towards the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes
increases the rate of heart beat
A I and II
B I, III and IV
C III and IV
D I, II, III and IV

18. The graph shows pressure changes in the aorta, the left ventricle and the left
atrium. Which statement is correct?
A At M a sound is heard
B At N the semilunar valves close
C At O nerve impulses from the pacemaker reach the ventricular wall
muscles
D At P the atrioventricular valves close
19. A researcher, who wants to study the composition of a plant’s sap, inserts a
capillary tube into the phloem. What causes the sap to flow out of the tube?
A Capillarity
B Hydrostatic pressure
C Root pressure
D Transpiration stream
20. Which of the following are functions of the mammalian liver?
I. Synthesis of plasma protein

II. Breakdown of digestive enzymes
III. Regulation of fat metabolism
IV. Storage of vitamin A
V. Regulation of plasma hydrogen carbonate
A I, II and III
B I, III and IV
C I, III, IV and V
D I, II, III, IV and V

21. The diagram below shows the changes in osmotic concentration in m0sm kg-1,
in the loop of Henle. Which of the following causes a lowering of the osmotic
concentration in the ascending limb?
300 100
Descending
limb Ascending
limb
1200
A Na+ and Cl- ions goes out of the ascending limb by active transport
B Water diffuses out of the descending limb by osmosis
C The descending limb is permeable to dissolved solutes
D The ascending limb is permeable to water
22. Which of the following reactions require addition of ammonia and carbon
dioxide in the formation of urea?
A arginine urea
B arginine ornithine
C ornithine citrulline
D citrulline arginine
23. The following events occur during muscle contraction. Which one of the
following shows the correct sequence of events during muscle contraction?
I. Hydrolysis of ATP molecules

II. Impulse transmission along the T-tubules to the sarcoplasmic vesicles
III. Formation of cross-bridges between myosin and actin filaments
IV. Ratchet mechanism action develops
V. Secretion of Ca2+ ions by the sarcoplasmic vesicles
VI. The intake of Ca2+ ions by sarcoplasmic reticulum
A I, V, II, VI, III, IV

B II, V, I, III, IV, VI
C II, III, I, V, IV, VI
D V, IV, III, I, II, VI
24. Among the following characteristics, which are true of the sympathetic system
of the autonomous nervous system?
I. The ganglia are located near the spinal cord, away from effectors
II. Preganglionic nerves are long and postganglionic nerves are short
III. Ganglia connect with large ganglion called plexus
IV. Its effect is more localized
V. Norepinephrine is used in postganglionic nerves
VI. One of its effect is dilation of the pupils
A I, II, IV and VI
B I, II, V and VI
C I, III, V and VI
D II, III and IV
25. How do steroid hormones alter the activity of specific target cells?
I. By transferring information to a particular molecule which acts as a

second messenger in the cell
II. by entering target cells and triggering specific gene activation
III. by digesting the plasma membrane of the target cells
IV. By digesting the lysosomes of the target cells
A I and III
B II only
C II and IV
D I, III and IV
26. Ovulation does not occur during pregnancy in the human female because
A the follicles are not influenced by the level of progesterone in the blood
B the corpus luteum and later the placenta produce large amounts of
progesterone
C the corpus luteum degenerates as luteinising hormone is no longer
produced
D menstruation does not occur during pregnancy

27. The diagram below shows the findings of an experiment on the effect of light on
the flowering of a plant
Treatment Result
Dark
P Light Flowering
Red light
Q Light Not flowering
Red light
R Light Flowering
Far-red light
24 hours
Which of the following are true of the plant?
I. The plant is a long day plant

II. The plant is a short day plant
III. Far-red light cancels off the action of red light
IV. Red light can replace the requirement of dark period
A I, and III
B I, and IV
C II, and III
D II and IV
28. Which of the following are true of T cell?
I. It forms immunity through the humoral response

II. It forms immunity through the cell mediated mechanism
III. It is produced and achieves maturity in the bone marrow
IV. It is produced in the bone marrow and chieves maturity in the thymus
gland
A I and III
B I and III
C II and IV
D III and IV

29. The table below lists the types of blood cells involved in the immune response
and their actions.
Type of blood cell Action

I T helper cell (a) Engulfs bacteria and virus
II Memory cell (b) Produces antibody
III Plasma cell (c) Activates T cells and B cells
IV T cytotoxic cell (d) Releases perforin to disintegrate affected
V Macrophage cells
(e) Divides rapidly to become clone cells when
encountering antigens
I II III IV V
A (a) (e) (d) (b) (c)
B (c) (e) (b) (d) (a)
C (c) (b) (e) (d) (a)
D (d) (a) (b) (c) (e)
30. HIV affects the immune system mainly by infecting
A B cell B suppressor T cells

C helper T cells D cytotoxic T cells
31. The diagram below shows the life cycle of Dryopteris.
Zygote Sorus
Sporangium
Egg cell Antherozoid
Q
Archegonium Antheridium
Spore
R
What do P, Q and R represent?
P Q R
A Gametophyte Meiosis Sporophyte
B Gametophyte Sporophyte Meiosis
C Sporophyte Gametophyte Meiosis
D Sporophyte Meiosis Gametophyte
32. The following are the stages of early development of vertebrate embryos
I. Cleavage
II. Organogenesis
III. Blastula formation
IV. Gastrula formation
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the early development of

vertebrate embryos?
A I, III, IV, II
B II, I, IV, III
C III, IV, II, I
D IV, I, II, III
33. Which of the statements below is incorrect?
A Ecdysone is a hormone that causes moulting in insects

B Ecdysone is produced by the corpus allata
C Juvenile hormone suppresses metamorphosis in insects
D Environmental factors like light and temperature can affect the development
of insects
34. The table below gives the types of growth and examples of growth in
organisms. Which of the following combination is true?
Type of growth Example

I allometric (a) increase in size of baby to become an
II isometric adult
(b) increase in size of zygote to become a
blastula
(c) increase in weight of a child
(d) increase in number of cells of a zygote
I II
A (b) (a)
B (d) (a)
C (a) (b)
D (c) (b)
35. Gregor Mendel crossed a purple-flowered plant with pollen of a white-flowered

plant. The resulting progeny are all purple-flowered plants. He then carried out
a series of crosses as follows.
I. F1 plant with any white flowered plant

II. F1 plant with purple-flowered parent
III. Pollen of homozygous purple-flowered plant with white-flowered plant
Which of the following are true of the above crosses?

I II III
A Test-cross Back cross Reciprocal cross
B Back cross Pahang Test Trial
cross STPM Reciprocal
2008 cross
C Back cross http://edu.joshuatly.com/
Reciprocal cross Test-cross
D http://www.joshuatly.com/
Reciprocal cross Test-cross Back cross
36. Gene pool consists of
A all the alleles exposed to natural selection

B the entire genome of a reproducing individual
C the total of all alleles present in a population
D all the gametes in a population
37. In a population in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of the individuals show the
recessive trait. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population?
A 0.4
B 0.6
C 0.32
D 0.84
38. Which is true of the examples of mutations as shown in the table?
Types of mutation Example

I Base deletion (a) Thalassemia
II Aneuploidy (b) Sickle-cell anaemia
III Base substitution (c) Klinefelter syndrome
IV Chromosomal deletion (d) Cri-du-chat syndrome
I II III IV
A (a) (c) (b) (d)
B (b) (c) (a) (d)
C (c) (a) (d) (b)
D (d) (a) (c) (b)
39. The bacterium E coli producers β-galactosidase only in the presence of

lactose.
β-galactosidase hydrolyses the lactose sugar into glucose and galactose. The
diagram below represents the section of DNA which controls the synthesis of β-
galactosidase
Promoter Operator
Structural genes
R Lac Y Lac Z Lac A
2 3 4
1
T- repressor molecule
T
Which of the arrows 1, 2, 3 and 4 from T correctly shows the new position of T
if lactose is absent?
A 1 B http://edu.joshuatly.com/
2 C 3 D 4
40. The diagram below shows how a genetically modified organism may be
produced by inserting a human gene into a bacterium
Extract mRNA from gene
Enzyme X
DNA for gene Plasmid
Enzyme Y
Double stranded Treat with endonuclease
Add sticky end sequence

and treat with endonuclease
Plasmid with sticky ends

cDNA with sticky ends
Combine and repair joints using enzyme Z
Recombinant DNA added to bacterium
Enzymes X, Y and Z respectively are
Enzyme X Enzyme Y Enzyme Z

A Restriction endonuclease DNA polymerase DNA ligase
B Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase DNA ligase
C Restriction endonuclease DNA ligase DNA polymerase
D DNA ligase Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase
41. Which of the following is / are the use(s) of recombinant DNA?
I. Produce sheep clone

II. Produce agriculturally important plants and animals which have better
nutritional values
III. Produce plants that have bacterial genes to destroy pathogenic insects
IV. Produce microbes which secrete enzymes to overcome the problems of
oil spillage in the sea
A III only
B I and IV
C III and IV
D II, III and IV

42. Which of the following are true regarding the plants from the phylum
Angiospermatophyta.
I. They have vascular tissues, produce pollen grains and seeds

II. Their sporophytes are dominant and they are homosporous
III. Their gametophytes are very small in size
IV. Their xylems have vessel elements
V. They bear no fruits because their ovaries are absent
A I, II and III B I, III and IV

C I, II and V D II, III and V
43. The diagram below is a cross section of the body plan of an animal
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Intestinal
lumen
Pseudocoelom
Endoderm
One example of an animal with the above body plan is
A Hydra B Planaria
C Ascaris D Pheretima
44. Which of the following statement(s) is / are true about taxon in taxonomy?
I. Division is equivalent to phylum

II. Organisms of the same family belong to the same order
III. The species that interbreed are closely evolutionary related compared to
the organisms of the same genus
A I only
B III only
C II and III
D I, II, and III
45. The following events occurred in evolution. Which is true of the sequence of
events during evolution?
I. Change in allele frequency

II. Develop different chromosome numbers
III. Barrier to gene flow
IV. Mutations occur
V. Different selection pressures
A I, II, III, IV, V Pahang Trial STPM 2008

B III, IV, V, I, II
C IV, V, I, II, III
D V, IV, III, I, II http://www.joshuatly.com/
46. Based on the table below, match the evidence of evolution theory to its
example.
Evidence of evolution theory Example
I Palaeontology P Marsupials
II Geographical distribution Q Homologous structure
III Comparative anatomy R Fossil record
IV Comparative biochemistry S Cytochrome
I II III IV
A P Q S R
B P S R Q
C R P Q S
D R Q P S
47. Phosphorus recycles in the form of
A HPO3-
B P2 (a gas)
C PO43-
D AlPO4
48. The figure below represents energy flow through a terrestrial food chain. P and
Q represent energy values.
Reflection Respiration Respiration Respiration

6
0.99 x 10 5000 1006 66
Solar energy Q 1200

6 Green P
1.0 x 10
plants Herbivores Carnivores
200
Units of energy – 102
kJ m-2 year-1
Death Death
What is the percentage of directed light energy that will be converted into net
primary production?
A 0.1%
B 0.5%
C 1.0%
D 5.0%

49. Which of the following statements explain natality?
I. The number of births per thousand individuals in the population in a year

II. The number of mortality per thousand individuals in the population in a
year
III. The number of eggs produced in a reproductive cycle
IV. The number of offspring produced by the individual female per unit time
A I and II
B II and IV
C I, III and IV
D II, III and IV
50. Which statement is true of K-selected species?
A The body size is small

B The development period to achieve maturity is short
C It involves parental care
D The lifespan is short.

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL TINGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA
NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR
2008
BIOLOGY
Papaer 2
Two and half hours
Instruction to candidates: For examiner’s use
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION PAPER UNTIL YOU

ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
1
Answer all questions in Section A. Write your answers in the
spaces provided. 2
Answer any four questions in Section B. Write your answers 3

on your own answer sheets. Begin each answer on a fresh
sheet of paper. Answers should be illustrated by large and 4
clearly labelled diagrams wherever suitable.
5
Answers may be written in either English or Bahasa
Malaysia. 6
Arrange your answers in numerical order and tie the answer 7

sheets to this question paper
8
10
Total

This question paper consists of 10 printed pages
CONFIDENTIAL* 2
Section A [ 40 marks ]
answer all questions in this section.
1 (a)Part of the DNA base sequence coding for a protein is shown below.
ATGGCCTAAGTG
(i) state the corresponding base sequence of mRNA . [1 mark]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Name the process by which the DNA code is transferred to mRNA . [1 mark]
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(b) Fig 1.1 is a diagram that shows the stage in protein synthesis when amino acids are joined in
the correct sequence to make the primary structure of the protein.
Fig 1.1
(i) Name J ,K,L and M [4 marks]
The group of bases at J ……………………………………………………………………………….
K……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
L ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
The group of bases at M ………………………………………………………………………………
964/2 http://www.joshuatly.com/
This Question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over.
CONFIDENTIAL* 3
(ii) Using the information in fig 1.1 to help you ,explain how amino acids become arranged into the
correct sequence in the primary structure of the protein . [4 marks]
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CONFIDENTIAL* 4
2 Warfarin is a substance which inhibits blood clotting.Rats which eat warfarin are killed due to
internal bleeding. Some rat are resistant to warfarin as they have the allele W R . Rats have three
possible genotypes :
W RWR resistance to warfarin
W RWS resistance to warfarin
WSW S susceptible (not resistant) to warfarin.
In addition, rats with genotype W RW R require very large amounts of vitamin K in their diets. if they
do not receive this they will die within a few days due to internal bleeding.
(a) How can resistance suddenly appear in an isolated population of rats which has never before
been exposed to warfarin ? [1 mark]
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(b) a population of 240 rats was reared on a laboratory. they were all fed on a diet containing an
adequate amount of vitamin K. in this population, 8 rats had the genotype W SWS , 176 had the
genotype W RW S and 56 had the genotype W RWR .
(i) use these figures to calculate the actual frequency of the allele W R in this population . Show
your working. [2 marks]
Answer .............................
(ii) The diet of the rats was then changed to include only small amount of vitamin K. The rats were
also given warfarin . How many rats out of the population of 240 would be likely to die within a few
days ? [1 mark]
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CONFIDENTIAL* 5
(c) In a population of wild rats , 51% were resistant to warfarin.
(i) Use the Hardy-weinberg equation to estimate the percentage of rats in this population which
would be heterozygous for warfarin resistance. Show your working. [3 marks]
Answer ..............................
(ii) The graph shows the change in the frequency of the W s allele in an area in which warfarin was
regularly used. Describe and explain the shape of the curve. [3 marks]
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CONFIDENTIAL* 6
3 Fig. 3.1 shows the oxygen dissociation curve for adult haemoglobin at different partial pressures
of carbon dioxide (pCO2/ kPa).
(a) (i) Explain how the properties of the haemoglobin molecule cause the oxygen dissociation
curves shown in Fig. 3.1 to be sigmoid (S-shaped). [3 marks]
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(ii) Using the information shown in Fig. 3.1, describe the effect of the increase in the partial
pressure of carbon dioxide on the percentage saturation of haemoglobin. [2 marks]
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CONFIDENTIAL* 7
(iii) Explain how the increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will cause the effect shown in
Fig. 3.1. [3 marks]
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(iv) During exercise, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases. Explain the importance of
the effect of this increase. [ 2 marks]
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CONFIDENTIAL* 8
4 (a) The diagrams shows two types of natural classification of mammals. Figure 4a shows a
phenetic classfication . Figure 4b shows a phylogenetic classification.
Figure 4a Figure 4b
(i) What is meant by a taxonomy ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………… [1 mark]
(ii) By reference to Figures 4a and 4b, explain how a phylogenetic classification differs from a
phenetic classification. [3 marks]
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CONFIDENTIAL* 9
(b) The drawings show three cells . Two of these cells are from multicellular organisms and one is
a single-celled organism. The three organisms belong to different kingdoms.
Name the kingdom too which each organism belongs. In each case , give one feature of the cell,
visible in the drawing, which is characteristics of the kingdom and which helps to distinguish it from
cells of organisms belonging to the other two kingdoms. [6 marks]
Cell A
kingdom
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Feature…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Cell B
kingdom
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Feature…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Cell C
kingdom
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Feature…………………………………………………………………………………………………

CONFIDENTIAL* 10
Section B [60 marks]
Answer any four questions in this section.
5 (a) Distinguish between each of the following.

(i) Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.
(ii) Myoglobin and haemoglobin. [4 marks]
(b) State two structural differences between each of the following molecules.
(i) Cellulose and Glycogen
(ii) Collagen and Insulin
[4 marks]
(c) NAD, FAD and NADP are important molecules in plant cells. Describe, in detail, the role of
these molecules within a palisade mesophyll cell . [7 marks]
6 (a) What are the benefits of transpiration to the plant [3 marks]
(b) Describe the pathways and explain the mechanisms by which water is absorbed from the
soil and transported across the root and up to the leaves . [12 marks]
7 (a) The control of flowering in some plants involved phytochrome. Describe the role of
phytochrome in the flowering of short day plant. [6 marks]
(b) Describe the functions of these hormones during and after parturition.
(i) Oxytocin
(ii) Prolactin [9 marks]
8 (a) Describe how the kidney removes metabolic wastes from the body. [7 marks]
(b) Man can produce urine which is more concentrated than their blood plasma. Explain the role
of the loop of Henle in the reabsorption of water from filtrate. [8 marks]
9 (a) Describe the sequence of events occurring during muscle contraction. [9 marks]
(b) Describe the roles of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering. [6 marks]
10 (a) Explain how energy is transferred through food chains and food webs in an
ecosystem. [9 marks]
(b) Describe the role of natural selection in evolution. [6 marks]

Peperiksaan Percubaan STPM 2008
Marking scheme
Biology Paper 1
Biology STPM Trial 2008

Paper 1
1. B 11.A 21. A 31. D 41. D

2. D 12. A 22. C 32. A 42. B
3. D 13. D 23. B 33. B 43. C
4. D 14. B 24. C 34. C 44. D
5. C 15. C 25. B 35. A 45. B
6. C 16. C 26. B 36. C 46. C
7. A 17. A 27. C 37. B 47.C
8. B 18. A 28. C 38. A 48. B
9. D 19. B 29. B 39. C 49. C
10. B 20. B 30. C 40. B 50. C

1
Peperiksaan Percubaan STPM 2008

Marking scheme
Biology Paper 2
Question Answer Marks Note
1(a)i UACCGGAUUCAC;; 1
1 error = 1, 2 errors = 0
(a)ii transcription / transcribed ; R transcriptase 1 R=reject

(b)i J anticodon ; R anticodons 4
K transfer RNA / tRNA ;
L ribosome / rRNA ;
M codon ; R codons
(b)ii -DNA triplet / codon / M / mRNA triplet , codes for 4 max
specific amino acid ; 1
-order of , triplets / bases , determines the order of

amino acids ; 1
-tRNA / K , has , corresponding / complementary ,

triplet /anticodon ; 1
-(tRNA / K) attached to specific amino acid

complementary to codon 1
-codon and anticodon bind ; 1
-adjacent amino acids join by peptide 1

total 10
2(a) Mutation/(spontaneous) change in a gene/change in 1

DNA;
(b) (176+(56x2))/ 240x2 1 2
= 0.6 1
(ii) 64 1
Correct answer = 42%;;; (only if q2 = 0.49)
q2 = 0.49
(c)(i) q=0.7 1
p :1-0.7=0.3 1 3
2pq=2(0.3)(0.7)=0.42 1

2
(c)ii -Description: decrease + rate of decrease slows with 3 max

time; 1
Explanation: Any two from:
-Resistant rats/rats with WR allele survive OR

susceptible / WSW S rats killed 1
-(more likely) to pass on WR allele to offspring/less

likely to pass on W S /higher proportion of next
generation has WR allele/lower proportion has WS;
1
-Chance of mating with WSWS is reduced / W SWS

becomes rare; 1
-Rate of selection against WS slows because W S

allele is in heterozygotes; 1
total 10
3(a)i -oxygen binds to the haem groups; R iron 1 3 max R=reject
-first, oxygen molecule, binds slowly / harder to bind /

; 1
-distorts shape of molecule / allosteric; 1
-easier for next oxygen to bind / next oxygen

molecule, binds faster; 1
-curve therefore steep in middle; 1
(ii) -as the partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases, 2 max

the saturation of Hb with oxygen decreases /
desaturation increases; 1
-curve shifts to the right; 1

(iii) -increased CO2 levels release hydrogen / 3 max
hydrogen carbonate form 1
-decreases pH in the plasma; 1
-causes the release of the oxygen by the Hb / lowers

affinity for oxygen / AW; 1
(iv) -during exercise rate of respiration increases; 1 2 max

-as demand for oxygen increases; 1
3
-more oxygen released (from Hb) ; 1
total 10
4(a) Science of naming,describing and classifying 1

organisms 1
(b) Any two : 3 max
-(phylogenetic) based on evolutionary history;1
-shows ancestry of groups / points of divergence;

1
-example, e.g. reptiles and birds separated after

mammals / reptilesand birds more closely related
than mammals; 1
And
-(hierarchical) based on shared characteristics (seen
today); 1
(c) A = Animalia 1 6
No cell wall/has microvilli; (NOT .villi.) 1
B = Plantae ; [ALLOW Proctoctista ] 1

Has vacuole/has chloroplasts; 1
C = Prokaryotae ; [ALLOW Monera .] 1

No Nucleus/DNA free in cytoplasm/single-stranded
DNA/circular DNA; 1
total 10
Mark Scheme STPM Biology Paper 2 section B(2008)
6(a)i 2 max
cardiac striated
1.In heart 1 Attached to {bones /
skeleton} ;
2. Intercalated discs / 2 No intercalated discs /

gap junctions no gap junctions
/sacromeres irregularly sacromeres regularly
arranged arranged ;
3. Branched ; 3. Not branched ;
4. One nucleus per cell 4. Multinucleate / fibres

/ individual cells /eq ;
5. Myogenic / 5. Neurogenic /
Pahang Trial
involuntary / eq
STPM 2008
voluntary/eq
4

6. Does not fatigue /eq 6. Does fatigue /eq
6a(ii) myoglobin haemoglobin 2 max

1Muscle 1 Red blood cells/eq ;
2. Stores oxygen 2.{Transports/eq} oxygen

;
3. Higher affinity / eq
3.Lower affinity / eq ;
4. One sub-unit/eq
4.Four sub-units/eq ;
5. One {oxygen
molecule/ haem} 5. Four {oxygen
molecules/haem groups}
;
6. Cannot {carry /eq} 6. Can {carry /eq} CO2

CO2
6(b)i cellulose glycogen 2 max

1. β-glucose 1 α-glucose
2. 1-4 glycosidic bonds 2.1-4 and 1-6 glycosidic
3. Unbranched / straight bonds
/ linear 3. Branched / compact /
eq
6b(ii) collagen insulin 2 max

1. Fibrous 1.Globular
2. Three (polypeptide) 2.Two (polypeptide)

chains / triple helix chains
3. Chains held together

by hydrogen bonds / 3. Chains held together
chains not held by disulphide bonds
together by di-sulphide ,ionic bond,hydroforbic
bonds interaction (van der waal
force)
4. Large / about 1000
amino acids OR length
can be variable 4. Small / 51 amino
acids
OR fixed / precise length

5
-NAD / FAD, involved in cellular respiration ; 1

6(c) 7 max
-2 molecules of reduced NAD/NADH produce in
glycolysis ; 1
-link reaction producing 1 molecule of reduced NAD

/NADH or 2NADH ;
And
-Krebs cycle produces 3 reduced NAD (per turn of
cycle) /6 NADH ; 1
-Krebs cycle produces 1 reduced FAD (per turn of

cycle) /2 FADH2 ; 1
carriers / transfers, hydrogen to, inner

mitochondrialmembrane / cristae / cytochromes /
ETC ; 1
-mitochondrial shuttle (bringing NAD reduced from

glycolysis into matrix) ; 1
-NADP involved in photosynthesis ; 1
-NADPH produced in non-cyclic

(photo)phosphorylation ; 1
-hydrogen and electron comes from photolysis water

1
-NADPH used in Calvin cycle / light independent

stage/ NADPH use in reduction of CO2 1
-forming triose phosphate and subsequently

carbohydrate ,protein 1

6
total 15
6(a) -giving cooling effect 1 max 3
-help uptake of water and mineral ions by roots 1
-transport and distribution water and mineral ions

through xylem 1
-distribution of water and mineral ions 1
6(b) -water is absorbed by root hairs following it Max

concentration gradient 1 12
-by osmosis 1
-water move via cortex ,endodermis and pericycle 1
-by symplast,from cytoplasm into the cytoplasm of

the next cell 1
-by apoplast pathway-water move along the cellulose

cell wall 1
-by vacuolar pathway-water move into the sap

vacuole and out into the vacuole of the next cell 1
-during transpiration/evaporation water loss from the

mesophyll 1
-transpiration lower the water potential of leaf

cells/mesophyll cells 1
-water is absorb by osmosis from the neighboring

mesophyll cell
1
-down water potential gradient via apoplast ,symplast

and vacuolar pathways in the leaves 1
-Creates transpiration pull along the xylem vessel of

the stem/ creates a negative pressure in the xylem
vessel 1
-water in the xylem is supported by continues water

column 1
-due to adhesion and cohesion forces/capillarity
7

1
-root pressure 1
total 15
7(a) Points could be taken from a diagram
-two forms or PFR / P730, and, PR/ P660;

1
-red light / 660nm / daylight changes PR to PFR;

1 8 max
-far red light / 730nm / dark changes PFR to PR;

slowly in dark or at night 1
-PFR is the biologically active form; 1
-SDP's flower, if day length below / dark above, a

critical night length ;
1
-SDP’s really long night plants; 1
-PFR inhibits flowering in SDP's; 1
-therefore SDP flower when PFR converted to PR; a

high concentration of PR promote flowering in SDP’s
1
-a decrease in the level of PFR and increase level

of PR stimulated conversion of inactive precursor to
florigen. This induced flowering in SDP’s.
1
7(b) Oxytocin Max 4 R=reject

-at the end of pregnancy higher level of estrogen
increases sensitivity of uterus muscle to oxytocin;1
- released from posterior pituitary 1
-causes contraction of uterine muscle / myometrium;

1
-contractions become stronger / more frequent;

help push baby, down / out; R ‘give birth’, aids
delivery of the placenta; 1
-positive feedback / further release of oxytocin is

Pahang
trigger by uterus Trial1STPM 2008
contraction.
8

-suckling cause release of oxytocin,and contraction
of smooth muscle mammary ducts for milk ejection. 1
prolactin Max 3
-before birth secretion of prolactin is inhibited by
estrogen and progestron 1
-when these two hormone decreases at the end of

pregnancy prolactin is released 1
-prolactin releases milk from mammary gland 1
-prolactin produce from anterior pituitary 1
8(a) ultrafiltration ; 1 9 max
of blood in glomerulus ;afferent arteriole bigger in

diameter than efferent arterioles,high hydrostatic
pressure created 1
forming filtrate in Bowman’s capsule ; 1
reabsorption 1
soluble molecules ;glucose,amino acids ,urea ,

ammonium ions pass into filtrate ; 1
the metabolite waste are ammonia salts creatine

,excess water sodium& chloride ions , 1
-in proximal convoluted tubule 80% of water and

NaCl is reabsorbed. 1
In the loop of henle,Na+ move out of ascending limb

Pahang
into medulla tissue 1. Trial STPM 2008
This cause reabsorbtion of H2O from descending
9

limb. 1
-The remaining salt is reabsorb in the distal

convoluted tubule and the H2O is reabsorb in the
distal tubule and collecting duct. 1
-Active Secretion 1
-The urea is actively secreted into the tubule from the

surrounding capillaries 1
8(b) -In the ascending limb sodium(ions) actively removed 6 max

in the medulla tissue 1
-Ascending limb impermeable to water; 1
-In descending limb sodium(ions) diffuse in; 1
-Descending limb water moves out/permeable to

water; 1
-Low water potential/high concentration of ions in the

medulla/tissue fluid; 1
-The longer the loop/the deeper into medulla, the

lower the water potential in medulla/tissue fluid; 1
-Water leaves collecting duct/DCT; 1
By osmosis/down water potential gradient; 1
9(a) -Transmission of impulse along the T tubule to the 9

sacroplasmic vesicle 1 max
-secretion of Ca2+ ions by the sacroplasmic vesicle 1
calcium ions, bind to troponin 1
troponin displaces tropomyosin / troponin-

tropomyosin complex 1
-cause exposure of binding sites on actin 1
myosin heads attach to actin filament ; 1
myosin head contain ATPase ; 1
myosin head changes position / actin filaments slide

past myosin filaments ; 1
Pahang
myosin detaches Trial
from actin STPM
filament ; 2008 1
10

ATP cause this release /hydrolysis of ATP occurs to
release energy to form and reform cross bridge /
myosin head cocked ; 1
ratchet mechanism ; 1
process continues provided enough ATP / calcium

ions present ; 1
AVP ; e.g. I band shortens , Z lines closer together ,

H zone shortens / sarcomere shortens , A band
remain constant 1
-when there is no longer an impulse the Ca2+ ions

re-enter the vesicle and the sacromere stop
contraction 1
total 15
8(b) restriction enzyme to cut gene from genome ; 1 6 max
and, plasmid / artificial chromosome / DNA of vector

; 1
same restriction enzyme to cut same sequence of
bases both donor and vector DNA; 1
enzyme can cut to leave sticky ends ,example

:EcoRI / BamHI 1
or blunt ends example : HindII 1
(DNA) ligase needed to seal donor DNA to vector

DNA /plasmid ; 1
-restriction enzyme cut at palindromic site 1
-6-8 bases sequence 1
Total Max
15
10(a) -the sun is the energy source/input to the ecosystem Max 9

1
-only a fraction 1-5% of the total energy is absorbed

by plant/ producers 1
-95-99% energy of it lost through reflection ,radiation

Pahang
and evaporation 1 Trial STPM 2008
11

-the rate by which chemical energy is stored by plant
known as gross primary productivity(GPP) 1
-20%-25% of GPP is used for respiration 1
- net primary productivity(NPP)=gross

productivity(GPP)-respiration 1
-energy transferred to primary consumer by eating

plant /producer 1
-from the primary consumer ,energy passed to the

tertiary then quarternary consumer 1
-every time only 10% of energy is transferred from

one trophic level to another level , 1
-Balance of energy is lost as heat 1
-energy used in movement /metabolism/respiration/

inedible parts/reproduction is not available to the
next trophic level 1
- when the producers /consumers die ,the energy is

lost as heat when they are decomposed by
decomposers 1
-energy transfer /lost to decomposers /bacteria/fungi

/saprotrophs. 1
10(b) -Natural selection is a mechanism/raw material for Max 6
evolutionary change 1
-the agent of natural selection is environment 1
-the variation in the genotypes and phenotypes that

are best adapted to their natural environment will be
selected for survival and can reproduce 1
-the survival of the fittest occurs 1
-selection pressure increase the chances of certain

advantageous alleles being transmitted to
subsequent generation 1
-frequency of alleles in a population changing 1
-over several generations ,population may gradually

change and become better adapted to their
environmental conditions 1
-the types of natural selection are stabilizing

Pahang
selection /directional Trial
selection STPM 2008
/disruptive
selection/sexual selection /polymorphism 1
12

-any examples of natural selection/ melanism in
Biston betularia or other example 1
Total 15


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