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ATA 08
ATA 09
7. Mooring/securing lines are designed to be used when ground winds are expected not to be
more than:
a. 45 knots
b. 60 knots
c. 65knots
ATA11
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Prince Aviation
10. Standard practices that apply to the basic engine are given in Chapter:
a. 61
b. 20
c. 70
ATA 50-57
11. Since the baggage door net is a mandatory item, it has tie-down straps installed at:
a. Four Position
B. Six Position
C. Eight Position
12. The ceiling and sidewall Cargo comp. panels are made of :
a. Of plastic sandwich panels with Nomex core.
b. Of dual aluminium panels with poliamid core.
c. Of fiberglass sandwich panels with Nomex core.
13. External drain holes and internal drain paths are provided to:
a. Prevent different types of fluids from collecting within the airplane which could become a
possible fire or corrosion hazard
b. Prevent ice creation and hydraulic fluids collecting within the airplane, which could become
a possible corrosion hazard
c. Prevent water and other fluids from collecting within the airplane which could become a
possible fire or corrosion hazard
16. Why is stainless steel used in the construction for frame 2 and 3 in the engine pylon?
a. due to strength required
b. due to possiblity of dis-similar metal corrosion
c. because of the possibility of skydrol
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Prince Aviation
17. The trailing edge and elevator hinge structure is attached at the :
a. Rear spar.
b. Middle spar
c. Front spar
18. The construction of control cabin windows No. 1 and No. 2 consists of a glass pane laminated
to each side of a polyvinyl butyral (vinyl) interlayer or core. The inner glass pane is the thicker
of the two and is the:
a. Secondary load carrying member
b. Primary load carrying member
c. Fail-safe load carrying member
19. How many sensor is necessary to operate the windshield heat system:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
ATA 31/31A
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Prince Aviation
26. The power requirement for the MAU (Modular Avionics Unit) is :
a. 350 watts at maximum rated output load.
b. 300 watts at maximum rated output load.
c. 250 watts at maximum rated output load.
27. Generic I/O modules in MAU (Modular Avionics Unit) contain a standard mix of :
a. Discrete and analog I/O interfaces.
b. ARINC 429, discrete and analog I/O interfaces.
c. ARINC 429 and analog I/O interfaces.
29. The MWF (Monitor Warning Function)s controls all avionics aurals except :
a. EGPWS(Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System).
b. TCAS (Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System).
c. Cabin altitude
31. The automatic declutter function operates only if all the conditions are valid and satisfied for
more than;
a. 50 sec
b. 60 sec
c. 30 sec
ATA 24
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37. Under what circumstances is the Static Inverter commanded ON (but not actually supplying the
standby AC bus)
a. With all engines running and all generators on line
b. Only if all normal AC supplies fail
c. The SPDA1 will set the inverter to the ON status in case only one main AC source is available
38. The SSPCs (Solid State Power Contactors) or “virtual” circuit-breakers are controlled from:-
a. MFD CMC pages
b. MCDU
c. Laptop via LAN connection
39. Overcurrent protection will operate to de-energize the EPAC, GSTC, and the pin F output. The
pin F output will remain de-energized until the :
a. Software resets the pin F enable signal or until a power-up reset is applied to the EPM
b. Automatically restored when the overvoltage condition no longer exists.
c. Only power up reset
ATA 33
40. What prevents the light in the mid-avionic bay being left on in flight?
a. SPDA 2 will de-energise the system
b. A relay will de-energised controlled directly by the air/ground system
c. Directly from the MAU3
41. How many times does the ballast unit for the passenger lighting automatically restart?
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Three times
42. If the aircraft is on the ground with APU not running and no power available and aircraft de-
energized, will the courtesy lights operate?
a. No – Ground service bus must be energized
b. Yes - through the Hot bus protected by a 5 minute timer
c. Yes - through the Hot Bus but no
43. The power supply for the White Nav lights is:-
a. 7 VAC
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Prince Aviation
b. 8.3 VAC
c. 28 VDC
ATA 36
46. How is it guaranteed that no pressure from the bleed system will leak through the HP ground air
connection?
a.By a pressure regulated shut off valve.
b.By a mechanical check valve.
c.By an electrically operated shut off valve.
48. What happens if the crossbleed valve input signal will fail in an intermediate position?
a.It will open, as it is fail safe open.
b.It will close, as it is fail safe closed.
c.It will stop in the position of the failure
ATA 21/21A/21B/21C
50.How does the AMS (Air Master System) Controller within the SPDA communicate with the MAU’s
(Modular Avionic Unit) to drive torque motors for the ECS valves?
a.ARINC 429 Bus
b.Discrete signals to MAU’s
c.Discrete Signals and RS 232 to MAU’s.
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53. How does the AMS(Air Management System) controller monitor the efficiency of the heat
exchanger?
a.By monitoring the temperature drop between the T1 & T2 Sensors
b.By monitoring the temperature drop between the T1 and T3 sensors
c.By monitoring the temperature drop between T1 and T5 sensors
54.How does the AMS (Air Master System) Controller within the SPDA communicate with the MAU’s
(Modular Avionic Unit) to drive torque motors for the ECS valves?
a. ARINC 429 Bus
b. Discrete signals to MAU’s
c. Discrete Signals and RS 232 to MAU’s
57.The CPCS has a fail-safe software logic to close the outflow valve if the cabin pressure altitude
reaches 14500 ft. This function overrides the:
a. Normal AUTO mode only
b. MANUAL mode only
c. AUTO and MANUAL mode
60.If the CPCS BIT logic detects a failure within a CPCS component:
a. CMC message is generated for later maintenance action.
b. CAS message is generated
c. No CMC or CAS message are generated
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ATA 25/25A
ATA 26
68.The fire detectors are electrically connected in two loops, A and B, with 4 detectors for each loop,
to the :
a. MAU 1 and MAU 2
b. MAU 2 and MAU 3
c. MAU 1 and MAU 3
69.If the aircraft is on the ground (WOW (Weight-on-Wheels) = true) and fire is detected in the APU
compartment, the MAU sends a shutdown command to the APU control system after:
a. 15 sec
b. 20 sec
c. 10 sec
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70.If an engine fire detection loop fails the changeover to the alternative loop is achieved:-
a. by pilot selection
b. automatically by the control module in the MAU
c. automatically by the SPDA
ATA 27
71.Which component in the system provides analogue outputs to the elevator and rudder actuators
a.Flight Control Modules
b.P-ACE’s
c.FS-ACE
72.For CAT II aircraft the Yaw Damper function of the autopilot is carried out by:-
a.A independent autopilot servo
b.An input from the AFCS to the FCM via the ASCB
c.An input into the trim actuator
73.What is the purpose of the pressure reducer valve in the rudder PCU?
a.Selects active/standby and damping mode
b.Reduces pressure when airspeed > 135 kts
c.Engages the Thrust Asymmetry Compensation
75. When going from Flap Position 3 to 0 what is the correct sequence?
a. Slats will fully retract followed by the flaps
b. Flaps will fully retract followed by slats
c. The flaps and slats will retract together and arrive at 0 at the same time
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Prince Aviation
81.In the roll control circuit there are the following main components controlling roll?
a.An Aileron P-ACE and Spoiler ACE within the Flight Control Modules
b.A Spoiler-ACE which is within the Flight Control Modules
c.An Aileron P-ACE which also contains a Spoiler-ACE
83. The pilot reports that the speedbrakes failed to deploy and an advisory SPD BRK LVR DISAG
message was presented. What is the most likely cause?
a.There is unlikely to be a fault. This is an operator problem. Check CMC for other messages not
reported by crew.
b.Failure of the Speed brake lever transducer or the Spoiler ACE
c.Failure of the Air Data input or Speed brake lever transducer failure
ATA 28/28A
84.The fuel message “FUEL EQUAL – X-FEED” will be illuminated when the fuel imbalance reaches;-
a.<45kgs for 4 secs
b.360 kgs
c.0 kgs
86.The output from the Fuel Conditioning Unit to the Generic I/O in the MAU is?
a.On an ARINC 429 Data bus
b.On the Controller Area Network Bus
c.On the ASCB bus
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b. AC auxiliary pump 2 pressure switch and transmits the data on the ASCB for EICAS display and
control functions.
c. AC auxiliary pump 3 pressure switch and transmits the data on the ASCB for EICAS display and
control functions.
90.The fuel message “FUEL IMBALANCE” will be illuminated when the fuel imbalance reaches;-
a. approximately 320 kg between the left and right wing tanks occurs for a period longer than
approximately 10 seconds
b. approximately 380 kg between the left and right wing tanks occurs for a period longer than
approximately 10 seconds
c. approximately 360 kg between the left and right wing tanks occurs for a period longer than
approximately 10 seconds
ATA 29/29A
91. What is the function of the pump unload valve in the No3 hydraulic system?
a. To switch off AC pump B
b. To reduce the pressure in pump A if the RAT is deployed
c. To reduce the load on the PTU
94. What would happen in the event of a hydraulic system 3 overheat >125˚C?
a. The 3A pump will stop running 3B will continue as normal
b. Both pumps will stop, they will automatically resume when the system temperature falls below
100˚C
c. Both pumps will stop and will remain isolated until aircraft power down.
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Prince Aviation
a. CAUTION message
b. WARNING message
c. ADVISORY message
ATA 32/32A
96. What happens when electrical overide for gear extension is selected?
a. The overide switch signals an alternative PSEM (Proximity Switch Electronic Module) module to
control the gear
b. A direct electrical link is established between the bus bar and the normal gear selector handle
c. A direct electrical is established between the bus bar and the gear selector valve
97. What is the range of movement of the NWS through the hand-tiller
a. 86 degrees with a speed limitation.
b. 7 degrees with a speed limitation.
c. 76 degrees with a speed limitation.
98. The Touch Down Protection System allows brake pressure to be applied only when.
a. The brake pedals position is greater than 20% input.
b. The Auto-Brake control system has been selected ON.
c. Wheel spin-up has exceeded 50 knots or 3 seconds after ground mode has been established.
ATA 35
103.Caution message OXY CREW LO PRESS indicated if the 50 cubic feet pressure falls below:
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a. 849psi
b. 749psi
c. 562psi
104.When the switch measures the increasing cabin altitude of 14000 +/- 500ft, a signal is sent to the
:
a. SPDA (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly) 1
b. SPDA (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly) 2
c. MAU ( Modular Aviaonocs Unit) 1
ATA 30
106. Which slat temp sensor is used for normal system control?
a. The middle skin temperature sensor.
b. The outboard skin temperature sensor.
c. The inner skin temperature sensor.
ATA 38
109. The vacuum blower barometric switch opens when the altitude is above :
a. 16,000 feet
b. 14,000 feet
c. 10,000 feet
110. If the FCU is enabled, a flush cycle starts with the operation of :
a. Flush switch.
b. Toilet bowl.
c. Waste tank.
ATA 45
111. If the ARINC 429 Bus fails between a member system LRU and another member system LRU,
how does the CMC detect this?
a. A smart member system LRU will report that another smart (or non smart) member system has
failed via its own data bus
b. The CMC monitors the ARINC bus and it will detect it itself
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Prince Aviation
c. It is possible that the fault will go undetected (by the CMC). The engineer must therefore not
assume a fault does not exist.
112. When using the ADMS (Aircraft Diagnostic Maintenance System) where can Fault Isolation
Manual be accessed?
a. Via the MFD if it is loaded onto the aircraft CMC application system
b. Via the laptop if it is loaded onto the laptop
c. Via the MCDU providing it is loaded onto the aircraft
113. Where is CMC System Database installed, if NIC + PROCESSOR is equipped with Pentium II?
a. In MAU 2.
b. In NIC+PROCESSOR 4, in MAU 2.
c. In CMC module
ATA 49
115. For starting the APU, the minimum battery voltage must be:
a.Both batteries at 21Vdc.
b.At least one battery at 24 Vdc.
c.Both batteries at 24 Vdc.
116. When the master control knob on the APU control panel is selected to off, what sequence of
events follows?
a.The APU is immediately shut down and FADEC remains energised for a further two minutes.
b.The AC generator will be taken off-line, the oil pump de-prime valve will be energised closed and
the engine will shut-down after a two minute cool down period.
c.The AC generator will remain on-line until the three minute cool down period has finished, then the
de-prime valve is de-energised open as the FADEC shuts down the engine
117. What inputs are required by FADEC to control the anti-surge valve for compressor stall
protection?
a.Turbine gas temperature, altitude and compressor P3 pressure.
b.Engine RPM, turbine gas temp and airspeed.
c.Total air temperature, altitude and airspeed from the air data computers.
118. What happens if the fuel filter on the APU fuel module becomes clogged?
a.At 8 PSID a message is triggered by the FADEC only.
b.At 8 PSID a message is triggered by the FADEC and the bypass valve will open.
c.At 8 PSID a message is triggered by the FADEC and at 12 PSID the bypass valve will open.
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120. The FADEC non-volatile memory (NVM) stores APU faults and engine data. Data is retrieved by
downloading the NVM into a:
a.Personal Computer (PC) or a Laptop Computer.
b.Hand hald loader
c.PC only
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