Teachers' Handbook - Total Geography - 10

1
Chapter 1 3 — 3
Chapter 2 4 — 5
Chapter 3 6 — 7
Chapter 4 8 — 8
Chapter 5 8 — 8
Chapter 6 9 — 10
Chapter 7 11 — 15
Chapter 8 16 — 19
Chapter 9 19 — 23
Chapter 10 23 — 26
Chapter 11 27 — 28
Chapter 12 28 — 30
Chapter 13 31 — 32
Chapter 14 33 — 35
Chapter 15 35 — 38
Chapter 16 38 — 39
Chapter 17 40 — 42
Chapter 18 42 — 45
Chapter 19 45 — 46
Chapter 20 47 — 50
Chapter 21 50 — 51
Chapter 22 52 — 52
CHAPTER 1 3
EXERCISES
I. Short Answer Questions
1. A map is defined as a representation of the earth’s surface or a part of it,
showing natural or man-made features drawn to scale on a flat surface.
2. The essential features of a map are:
(i) Title; (ii) Scale; (iii) Key; (iv) Direction; (v) Grid System.
3. ‘Key’ of a map explains the meanings of the symbols used on the map.
4. On the basis of scale the maps have been classified into two categories
– Large scale maps and Small scale maps. Large scale maps are further
classified into two categories–Topographical maps and Cadastral maps.
Small scale maps are also classified into two categories–Wall maps and
Atlas maps.
On the basis of their purpose and content maps are classified into three
categories Physical maps, Political maps and Thematic maps.
5. Maps that show natural features such as hills, rivers, etc. and man made
features such as buildings, canals, etc. are called topographical maps.
6. National Grid Reference is the map reference system used on all
Ordnance Survey maps to find the position of different features on the
maps.
II. Structured Questions
1. (a) Malgoan (6131), Pamera (6233); (b) Pamera (6233) Posintra (6032);
*(c) 6231; **(d) Hathal (6030); *** (e) 6232
2. (a) 627336; (b) 610311; (c) 616313]; **** (d) 611321
mmm
Corrigendum:
In the textbook read each as follows:
*(c) The Siphon
** (d) The confluence of the main river and Dior Nadi
*** (e) Area of Brackish water
****(d) The surveyed tree near Posintra.
4 TEACHERS’ HANDBOOK (TOTAL GEOGRAPHY-X)
I. Give the terms used in contours for each of the following:

1. Spot height 2. Contour Interval 3. Triangulated Height
4. Relative Height 5. Benchmark
II. Describe the following terms:
1. Contour Interval is the difference of height between two consecutive
contours.
2. Vertical Interval is the vertical distance between any two contour lines.
3. Horizontal Equivalent is the actual distance between two points on
two contour lines.
4. Gradient determines the steepness of a slope. It is ratio between the
vertical height and the horizontal distance measured along the ground, i.e.,
Gradient = Vertical Interval .

Horizontal Equivalent
III. Explain how would you distinguish between the following on the basis of contour:
1. Gentle Sloope Steep Sloope

1. In such a slope, the change 1. When the land suddenly slopes
of elevation is gradual usually up or down, it is known as a
1:25. steep slope.
2. The contours are placed wide 2. The contours are drawn close to
apart. one another.
2. Scarp Dip
1. Steep side of escarpment is 1. G r a d u a l / G e n t l e s i d e of
called Scarp. escarpment is called Dip.
2. Gradient of 1:3. 2. Gradient of 1:12.
3. Close contour lines. 3. Contour lines are farther apart.
3. Ridge Water Divide

1. It is a long and narrow 1. It is a ridge, which separates the
highland sloping steeply tributaries draining towards one
downwards on its sides. It side of it from those draining
has a number of summits. towards the other.
CHAPTER 2 5
2. Contours showing a ridge 2. The side on which the ridge is

are elongated and are closely steeper, the contours are drawn
spaced. closely together, whereas the side
on which the ridge is gentle, the
contours are drawn far apart.
IV. Short Answer Questions

1. A contour is an imaginary line joining places which have the same height
above mean sea level.
2. Bench Mark Spot Height
(i) Bench marks are marks (i) Spot height is the height of
etched on a stone or shown a point on the ground above
on a building to indicate mean sea level.
accurate height determined
by surveys.
(ii) It is indicated by BM followed (ii) It is indicated on a map by a
by a number. dot followed by a number.
(iii) It includes the height of the (iii) Spot height indicates only the
object on which a Bench height of a specific point only.
mark is etched. (Any two)
3. V.I. refers to Vertical Interval. It is the distance between any two contour
lines. H.E. refers to Horizontal Equivalent. It is the actual distance
between two points on two contour lines.
4. Contours give detail information of the relief features. They show
elevation of land, steepness of its slope and shape of land at various
heights whereas all these features are not shown by hachures and hill-
shading. The latter give no indication of the relative or actual height.
5. Two contours never intersect each other because a point on the surface
of the earth cannot have different elevations.
V. Structured Question
(a) Relief refers to actual configuration of land which includes its altitude
and slope. The relief features found on the earth’s surface include
mountains, valleys, hills, plains and plateaus.
(b) (i) Hachures; (ii) Hill-shading; (iii) Form-lines. For details refer to the
textbook.
(c) (i) Elevation of land; (ii) Steepness of its slope; (iii) Shape of land at
various heights.
(d) Contour lines show all the places that are at the same height above sea
level. The distance between contour lines is indicative of the slope of
the land. When contour lines are close together they depict steep slopes
and when they are far apart they show gentle slopes or level ground.

EXERCISES
1. The north direction is generally represented by an arrow head.
2. The Representative Fraction (RF) represents the scale as a ratio or
fraction, wherein the numerator (usually 1) is map distance and the
denominator is ground distance.
Map distance
RF = .
Ground distance
3. The main advantage of R.F. is that it is a fraction that is independent of
any particular unit of measurement, and thus has universal application.
4. Refer to Fig. 3.9 and its explanation in the textbook.
5. Grid North differs from the True North due to spherical shape of the
earth. To represent Grid North semi-circular lines of longitude are
assumed to be straight and hence a variation comes between True North
and Grid North.
6. (a) 1 cm to 10 metre. (b) 1 cm to 500 metre or 2 cm to 1 km.
(c) 1 cm to 5000 metre or 1 cm to 5 km.
7. (a) 1 : 10,000. (b) 1 : 20,00,000. (c) 1 : 2,50,000.
(d) 1 : 10,560. (e) 1 : 1,58,400. (f) 1 : 90,000.
II. Distinguish between
(a) Statement Scale Graphic Scale
1. Statement scale is stated in 1. Graphic scale is represented
words. by a straight line divided into
equal parts.
2. This scale requires unit of 2. In this scale distance can be
measurement. measured in any unit.
3. This scale changes when map 3. This scale remains unchanged
is reduced or enlarged from even when the map is enlarged or
the original map. reduced from the original map.
(b) True North Magnetic North

1. The direction indicated by the 1. The ‘North’ to which the
Pole star is True North. compass needle points is
called Magnetic North.
2. It is fixed. 2. It is not fixed but it moves
slowly from time to time.
CHAPTER 3 7
III. Answer the following questions:
1. (i) The scale is the ratio between the distance of any two points on the
map and the actual distance of the same points on the ground. It can
be expressed as:
Map distance between two points
Scale =
Ground distance between the same points
The main methods of representing the scale on a map:

(i) By a statement
(ii) By a linear or graphic scale
(iii) By representative fraction (RF)
(ii) (a) 1 : 20,000. (b) 1 : 1,26,720. (c) 1 : 9,00,000.
(d) 1:10,000 (e) 1: 40,000 (f) 1: 10,000
(g) 1: 6,00,000
2. (i) Thus, the statement is 1 inch to 1 mile.
(ii) The Statement is 1 cm to 10 km.
(iii) The Statement is 1 cm to 1 metre.
(iv) The statement is 10 cm to 1 metre.
(v) The statement is 1 cm to 2 km.
(vi) The statement is 2 cm to 1 metre or 1 cm to 50 cm.
4. RF is 1:571429.
5. The scale is 5 cm to 70 km or 1 cm = 14 km or RF is 1 : 14
6. Scale is 1 cm to 0.1 km.
(a) The distance of D’s house from the school is the least. D would
reach school first of all.
(b) D will have to walk a distance of 1.35 km to reach the village well.
(c) Distance of B’s house from the bus depot on the ground 1.15 km
(d) C will have to walk a distance of 750 m to reach the railway station.
(e) C’s house is in North-West direction from D’s house.
IV. Fill in the blanks

(a) 9 sq km; (b) (i) South west; (ii) South west; (c) 2.5 km.

EXERCISES
1. (a) Tanks and canals indicate that the land is used for agriculture.
(b) Open scrub indicates that the land is used for sheep and goat rearing
(c) Stony waste indicates uncultivable land.
(d) Causeway indicates an area of scanty or seasonal rainfall. A stream
with a causeway is motorable during the dry season.
2. The thickly settled areas are located in a village over fertile plains and
near rivers.
3. A dendritic drainage pattern indicate soft surface rock material suitable
for agriculture.
4. Topo-sheets do not provide any direct information about the climate of
a place. But climate can be inferred from the latitudinal extent of the
area covered by the topo-sheet and the type of vegetation found there. A
place at 10°N latitude would be warmer than the place at 35°N latitude.
Similarly, the presence of scanty growth of cactus, thorny bushes and
grass suggest arid and semi-arid climate.
5. Refer to ‘Factors Affecting Settlements’ in the textbook.
II. Match the following:
(i) — (f), (ii) — (e), (iii) — (d), (iv) — (a), (v) — (c), (vi) — (b).
III. What do the following diagrams indicate? Write short notes on the features
as indicated by each diagram.
(a) Diagram 1 indicates dispersed or scattered settlement — pattern
of rural settlement in which most of the population lives in farms,
houses, cottages scattered over a large area — generally associated
with regions of high lands, poor soils and an abundance of available
sources of water — large farms and sparse population.
(b) Diagram 2 indicates nucleated settlement — rural settlement in
which farms and other buildings are clustered together, often around
some central feature like a church or temple or police chowki, etc.

All the Answers are given in the textbook.

CHAPTER 6 9
EXERCISES
I. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Refer to Page 62 in the textbook.
(b) Himalayas are young fold mountains. Purvanchal Hills.
(c) The Northern plains were formed by the gradual filling of an initial
marine depression by the sediments brought down by the Indus,
the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
(d) (i) 1. The rivers of South India are — seasonal and mainly rainfed.
They remain dry during the summer and therefore, do not
provide water all year round; 2. Difficult to dig canals from
them due to the rocky surface.
(ii) The peninsular plateau is composed of old crystalline igneous
and metamorphic rocks showing it was a part of Gondwana
land that collided with the Eurasian Plate. This collision led
to the rise of the sea bed and to the folding of three successive
ranges of the Himalayas. The central part remained as a table
land called the Peninsula.
(iii) 1. Narmada and Tapi flow through hard rocks so they are not able
to form disturbutaries and deltas before they enter the Arabian
Sea; 2. They form estuaries.
Q.2 (a) Plains of North India Coastal Plains

1. They are drained by perennial 1. They are drained by seasonal
rivers. rivers.
2. They are formed by deposition 2. They are formed by igneous
of alluvial soil. rocks.
3. They are very fertile. 3. They are not as fertile as
Northern plains.
4. They are densely populated. 4. They are not densely populated.
(b) Narmada and Tapi.

Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauveri (Any two)
(c) (i) The Peninsular Plateau is divided into:
1. The Central Plateaus; 2. The Eastern Plateaus; 3. The
Kathiawar and Kutch; 4. The Deccan Plateau
(ii) 1. The north-west limit of the Peninsular Plateau is marked
by the Aravalli range. 2. Its northern extreme has the raised
Bundelkhand Plateau. 3. At its western and eastern ends are
the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats respectively.
(d) (i) 1. The width of west coast is less than east coast; 2. The area
is rocky. 3. The west flowing rivers do not form deltas; 4. The
west coast is uneven.
(ii) 1. The hills are continuous and can be crossed only through gaps
such as the Thalghat, or Palghat gap; 2. The hills are higher;
3. The hills rise steeply from the west coast;
(iii) 1. It is covered by a sheet of lava — volcanic eruptions
have brought forth the minerals deposited in the great depth
of the earth; 2. It is the oldest part of its kind thus it also has
minerals deposited in the sedimentary rocks.
Q.3 (a) Refer to Table on page 60 in the textbook.
(b) Gangotri; Haridwar in Uttarakhand.
(c) (i) Gomati, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi and Ramaganga. (Any two)
(ii) It is continuously fed with water in summers by melting of
snow and in monsoons by the South-West monsoon rains.
(d) (i) 1. Fertile soil due to flood plains — suitable for agriculture, —
occupation of 65 per cent of population of India; 2. Perennial
rivers provide water for the basic needs of the humans. 3. The
climate too is favourable.
(ii) The Deccan plateau is an example of a dissected plateau
i.e., a highly eroded plateau because it is eroded by: 1. many
rivers flowing to east and west direction; 2. There are many
streams flowing through the area.
(iii) 1. Presence of natural waterfalls. 2. They flow over igneous
rocks — less silt.
Q.4 (a) Refer to Table on page 58 in the textbook.
(b) Luni. Majuli.
(c) (i) Cultivation in these plains is carried out in small patches
where water is provided by small streams originating from the
Aravali range during the rainy season.
(ii) These fertile tracts are known as Rohi.
(d) (i) 1. Larger rivers. 2. Slope of the land towards Bay of Bengal.
3. Large catchment areas and formation of large deltas.
(ii) 1. Semi-arid plain with no significant or large river. 2. Rivers
dry up and disappear into the land—area of inland drainage.
(iii) The rivers of the area do not have sufficient water to reach the
sea and dry up or disappear into the sand.

CHAPTER 7 11
EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Tropical Monsoon Type of Climate. Two factors responsible:
l India lies in the tropical latitudes and experiences fairly high
temperature throughout the year, and
l It experiences seasonal rain accompanied by seasonal reversal
in the direction of winds.
(b) l There is rainfall over three months and the rest of the year is dry.
Seventy per cent of annual rainfall occurs in the rainy season.
l The monsoon rainfall is mainly of relief type. The windward
slopes of the mountains get more rain than the leeward side.
(c) (i) Monsoon refers to winds in South Asia that blow from the
South-west in summer and from north-east in winter.
(ii) Mawsynram in Meghalaya.
(d) (i) l Mumbai is located on the coast and enjoys a maritime
climate, while Kanpur is located in the interior of India and
experiences a continential climate; l In winter, it is very cold in
the continental interior, while the coastal regions have a much
warmer, moderate winter.
(ii) Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh get rain in winter because
of: l western disturbances; and l weak temperate cyclones
which originate in West Asia and the regions around the
Mediterranean sea.
(iii) The Indo-Gangetic Plain gets some rainfall in the months of
December and January due to the western disturbances
originating in West Asia and the regions near the Mediterranean
Sea.
Q.2 (a) l Position with reference to Latitude; l Relief features; l Winds;
l Upper air circulation.
(b) l The South-West monsoon brings rainfall to nearly 75 per cent
of India from June to September.
l These rains bring down temperature and provide respite from
heat but due to high humidity they also cause discomfort.
(c) (i) Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the month of July
because: l It is located parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of
the south-west monsoon; l It lies in the rain shadow area of the
Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon; l The Malabar
coast lies on the windward side of western ghats which receives
heavy rain from the Arabian Sea branch of the South-west
monsoon from June to September; l The Coromandel coast
receives rainfall from the Retreating Monsoon in winters as the
winds blow from the NE and pick up moisture from the Bay
of Bengal.
(ii) Because they are located far away from the sea.
(iii) Because it is located on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
(d) (i) 114.3 cm.
(ii) The station is probably Chennai or a station along coastal Tamil
Nadu because of low range of temperature and winter rainfall.
(iii) Retreating monsoon season.
Q.3 (a) North India South India
l Lies in the Temperate zone. l Lies in the Tropical zone.
l Mid-day sun not vertically l Mid-day sun almost vertically
overhead all year round. overhead all year round.
l Warm Temperate or l Tropical climate warmer than
Subtropical climate with hot the North and no clearcut
summers and cold winters. winter season.
(b) l Major source of moisture to the summer monsoons;

l Proximity to the sea ensures moderate climte despite being in
the Torrid Zone.
(c) Refer to ‘8. Jet Streams’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) The presence of the Himalayas in the north coupled with the
surrounding seas, varied relief and the monsoon mechanism
lead to variations in climatic conditions in India.
(ii) Under the influence of the moisture laden South West Monsoon
Winds.
(iii) In October the low pressure over the Ganga Plains becomes
weaker due to the apparent southward movement of the sun
and the low pressure shifts towards the Bay of Bengal.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘10. El-Nino Effect’ in the textbook.
(b) l Cold in the northern regions characteristic of continental
climates and snowfall in the Himalayan regions; l Presence of
Temperate cyclones; l Rainfall on the Eastern coast and scanty
rainfall in the Northern plains.
(c) Refer to ‘Rainfall’ in the textbook.
CHAPTER 7 13
(d) (i) Mumbai is along the western coast in the direct path of
the Arabian Sea Branch of the Monsoon Winds. It is on the
windward side of the Western Ghats whereas Pune is on the
leeward side of the Western Ghats.
(ii) Tropical Cyclones blow from the seas so they are moisture
laden and bring heavy rainfall. Temperate Cyclones originate
in West Asia (land) hence they bring light rainfall.
(iii) Kerala lies in the Tropical zone while Punjab lies in the
Temperate zone.
Q.5 (a) Burst of Monsoon refers to the sudden violent onset of rainfall
by the South-West Monsoon in the first week of June, whereas
the failure of the South-West Monsoon to bring rainfall for two
more weeks, causing a dry period in the rainy season is called the
Break of Monsoon.
(b) (i) l ‘Western disturbances’ are cyclones which originate in the
Mediterranean Sea region. They enter India from the north-
west to bring cyclonic rain in winter; l The winter rain is
specially beneficial for the wheat crop.
(ii) Mango showers or Cherry blossoms are pre-monsoon showers
in Karnataka, Kerala and Goa that are crucial to mango
cultivators as they help in early ripening of mangoes. They are
also important for tea and coffee plants.
(c) (i) Deccan Plateau and Rajasthan.
(ii) Kalbaisakhi and Bardoli Chheerha.
(d) (i) l Due to the different physiographic divisions; l The amount
of rainfall is determined by the direction of winds bearing
moisture and cyclonic depression. The monsoon winds change
their direction seasonally.
(ii) l North India experiences Continental Type of climate as it is
far away from the sea; l The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan
ranges create a cold wave situation; l In the month of February,
the cold winds from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring
cold waves over the north-western parts of India.
(iii) North-East monsoon winds blow from the land to sea, thus
they are dry. However, when these winds blow over the Bay
of Bengal they pick up moisture and bring some rainfall to
Coromandel Coast in India.
Q.6 (a) Retreating Monsoon refers to the withdrawal of the South-West
Monsoon from northern India in early October due to the weakening
of the monsoon trough of low pressure. Hence, the months of
October and November are known as the season of Retreating
Monsoon. This leads to clear skies and drop in night temperature.
(b) October and November.
(c) (i) North-East Trade Winds dominate during the cold weather
season.
(ii) These winds blow from land to sea and hence, for most parts of
the country it is dry season. However, when these winds pass
over Bay of Bengal they pick up some moisture and cause
some amount of rainfall on the Coromandal Coast.
(d) (i) Because the Northern Plains are protected by the Himalayas
from the cold winds of Central Asia and Siberia.
(ii) l The Aravalli range is parallel to the Arabian Sea branch of
the south-west monsoon and the moisture laden winds are not
obstructed and pass over the area without rainfall. l The Bay
of Bengal branch has to cross a large distance over land to
reach up to Rajasthan. Also, Rajasthan lies on the rain shadow
side of the Aravalli range.
(iii) Patna and Delhi receive rain from the Bay of Bengal branch of
the south west monsoon. But Patna lies to the east of Delhi and
gets more rain than Delhi as the winds dry up as they progress
towards Delhi.
Q.7 (a) Punjab — Weak Temperate Cyclones
Tamil Nadu — North-East Monsoon Winds.
(b) Rain shadow area is the area that lies on leeward side of a
mountain and therefore, receives little rainfall.
The Deccan Plateau gets less rainfall from the South-West
Monsoon Winds as it lies in the rain shadow area of the Western
Ghats.
(c) (i) The local winds that blow in Kerala in summer are called Mango
Showers. They bring rainfall that aid in ripening of mangoes
and prevent mangoes from dropping prematurely. They are
also beneficial for tea and coffee plantations.
(ii) The local winds that blow in West Bengal in summer are called
Kalbaisakhi. These winds bring rainfall that is beneficial for
growing jute and rice in West Bengal.
(d) (i) Refer to Q. No. 4(d) (ii).
(ii) Mangalore is located on the coast and enjoys maritime climate
and thus has a much warmer, moderate winter.
(iii) Because temperature decreases as we move to higher altitudes.
There is a decrease of 1°C for every 166m rise in height.
Q.8 (a) Refer to Table on Page No. 76 in the textbook.
(b) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
(c) (i) The Coromandel coast receives rainfall from the Retreating
Monsoon in winters as the winds blow from the NE and pick
up moisture from the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) Tamil Nadu.
CHAPTER 7 15
(d) (i) Refer to Q.No. 7(d) (i).
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 1(d) (i).
(iii) Refer to Q.No. 1(d) (ii).
Q.9 (a) Refer to Table on Page No. 77 in the textbook.
(b) The match had to be cancelled because of the cyclonic storm and
rain. This is a season of retreating monsoon. During this season
the low pressure conditions of the land are transferred to the
centre of the Bay of Bengal that give rise to cyclonic depressions.
These cyclonic storms move from north-east to the south-west
causing widespread damage and heavy rainfall.
(c) (i) East coast of India.
(ii) Windward side of the Western Ghats and North-East Hills
(Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills) of Meghalaya.
(d) (i) (i) Kanyakumari lies at the southern most tip of India — i.e., at
8° N latitude, near the Equator and has uniformly high
temperatures throughout the year; (ii) It has a coastal location,
so the temperature conditions are further moderated by the
sea.
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 1(d) (i).
(iii) Refer to Q.No. 1(d) (i).
Q.10 (a) Refer to Q.No. 1(d) (ii).
(b) Refer to Q.No. 7(c) (ii).
(c) (i) In the hot weather season, the Himalayas do not allow equatorial
maritime air masses to cross the Himalayas and force them to
curve around the north-west. Thus creating conditions for the
south-west monsoon.
(ii) Himalayas force moisture laden South West Monsoon Winds
to cause heavy rainfall on the Indo-Gangetic plains of India
during the south-west monsoon season.
(d) (i) Since Thiruvananthapuram lies on the windward side of the
Western Ghats, it receives heavy rainfall from the South-West
Monsoon winds while Chennai gets light rainfall from both
South-West Monsoon winds and North-West Monsoon winds.
(ii) Shillong lies on the leeward side of the Khasi hills and being in
the rain shadow area, gets less rainfall than Cherrapunji which
lies on the windward side of the Khasi hills and receives less
rainfall.
(iii) Mangalore lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats
and experiences more rainfall than Mysore which lies on the
leeward side of the Western Ghats.

EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Soil is the thin layer of loose mixture of small rock particles
and rotting organic matter that covers the surface of the earth.
Alluvial, Black, Red and Leterite.
(b) (i) Forces of nature-changing temperature, running water and
wind.
(ii) Chemical and organic changes in the soil.
(c) (i) The forces of nature coupled with chemical and organic changes
in the soil over a million years contribute to the evolution of
soil.
(ii) Humus.
(d) (i) The colour of the soil depends on the depth of deposition,
the texture of materials and the time taken for maturity.
(ii) Bhangar is older alluvium while Khadar comprises new
deposits replenished every year during monsoon floods hence
the latter is more fertile.
(iii) High clay content causes the soil particles to shrink during
the dry season leading to development of cracks which help in
air circulation.
Q.2 (a) Alluvial soils are mainly formed from the debris brought down
by the Himalayan rivers and from the silt left out by the ancient
retreating sea.
(b) Alluvial soils are (i) easily tillable (soft and porous); and (ii) fertile.
(c) (i) India is predominantly an agricultural economy and agriculture
is dependent on soil health.
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 3(a).
(d) (i) Soil type is dependent on the parent rock material and
weathering agents. India has many different physiographic
regions and different types of climate in different regions hence
different soil types for agriculture.
(ii) Alluvial soils are formed as a result of erosion, transportation
and deposition by rivers. In the upper course of the river soil
particles are large and non-uniform and as we move to down the
course of the river particles become smaller and more uniform.
CHAPTER 8 17
(iii) Riverine soils are soft and porous i.e. easily tillable and are
fertile so nearly all crops can be grown in them.
Q.3 (a) Regur or Black soil.
l It is fertile in most of the places.
l It is highly water retentive and stores moisture in the subsoil
during all seasons.
(b) Black soil. Cotton.
(c) (i) Laterite soils are formed by atmospheric weathering of rocks
under conditions of high rainfall and temperature with alternate
wet and dry periods.
(ii) Disadvantage — high acidity and low moisture retention.
(d) (i) l The coastal alluvium is mixed with sand so it cannot retain
water whereas deltaic alluvium retains water.
l The deltaic alluvium is enriched with fresh deposits of river
alluvium whereas the coastal alluvium is not refreshed.
(ii) Black soil is formed by the denudation of volcanic rocks, which
are found in the Deccan Trap region.
(iii) Cotton grows well in the well-drained clayey soils containing
lime and phosphates. These characteristics are present in the
Black Soils hence they are also called cotton soils.
Q.4 (a) Khadar and Bhangar. Khadar soil is formed of fine silt and
clay, whereas Bhangar soil comprises kankars and calcareous
structures. Khadar is very fertile and ideal for intensive cultivation,
whereas Bhangar is not very fertile.
(b) l Formed by the deposition of the river load as it flows from its
upper to its lower course. l Easily tillable — light and porous.
l Fertile soil — rich in minerals, especially potash and lime.
l Suitable for cultivation of rabi and kharif crops.
(c) (i) Coffee is grown on laterite soil.

(ii) Refer to Table on Page No-86 in the textbook.
(d) (i) Laterite soils are red in colour and acidic in nature due to the
presence of iron oxides and become hard when exposed to air.
This makes them useful for construction purpose.
(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats are mainly laterite soils which are
porous and loose; hence they are prone to wind erosion.
(iii) Soil at the foothills of the Himalayas forms a thin layer over
the rocks making it prone to erosion by water and wind. The
absence of vegetation due to deforestation and agricultural
practises contribute to the soil erosion.
Q.5 (a) Black (Regur) soil is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Uttar
Pradesh. (Any two)
(b) Refer to the Table on Page No-86 in the textbook.
(c) (i) Sugarcane and cereals.
(d) (i) Maharashtra has black clayey soil which is considered best for
the cultivation of jowar.
(ii) Bajra can be grown on poor light sandy soils which are found
in Rajasthan.
(iii) Sugarcane needs very fertile and well drained alluvial soil
found in Uttar Pradesh.
Q.6 (a) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Rice, Groundnuts.
(b) l It is ideal for dry farming as it is formed in poor rainfall areas.
l On the lower plains and valleys, it is rich, deep, dark coloured
fertile loam on which under irrigation, it can produce crops like
cotton, wheat, pulses, tobacco and jowar. l It is considered suitable
for building purposes because it becomes hard on drying. (Any two)
(c) (i) Red soil is formed as a result of prolonged weathering by rainfall
of ancient crystalline and metamorphic rocks of Peninsular
plateau.
(ii) It is not suitable for agriculture as it is poor in nitrogen,
potassium and organic matter and is not fertile. But responds
to fertilisers.
(d) (i) Refer to Q.No. 3(d) (ii).
(ii) The colour of the red soil is due to presence of iron oxides.
When the iron oxide in the soil is in the haematite (hydrous
ferric oxide) form the soil is red and when it is limonite (hydrate)
form the soil is yellow. Hence the variation in colour.
(iii) Jute grows best in new alluvium brought by river inundation
which is present in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta in West Bengal.
Q.7 (a) Soil erosion is the removal of top layer of soil by water, wind or
human activities.
Areas affected by soil erosion by water are: the badlands of the
Chambal and Yamuna rivers; the piedmont zone of the western
Himalayas.
Areas affected by soil erosion by wind are: the dry areas of
Rajasthan, Gujarat and Haryana.
(b) Refer to ‘Methods of Soil Conservation’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Soil conservation means prevention of soil loss from erosion
CHAPTER 9 19
or prevention of reduced fertility of soil caused by over usage,
acidification, salinisation or other types of soil contamination.
(ii) Terrace farming; Planting trees.
(d) (i) Shelter belts decrease wind speed within the shelter zone
preventing top soil from being carried by the winds.
(ii) l Rural development would increase awareness among the
rural people about the need to conserve soil.
l It would make available new technology that would help
them to increase production and conserve soil as well.
(iii) Water harvesting is the collection and storage of rain water with
the aim of conservation and effective utilisation of water. Rain
water run off is a major cause of soil erosion. Water harvesting
utilises this run off thus preventing soil erosion.
Q.8 (a) When forests are cut to provide land for constructing buildings
and for cultivation of crops, the soil is exposed to both agents of
erosion — water and wind.
(b) l By terrace farming which prevents the soil from being washed
away by running water. l By ploughing along the contours on a
slope.
(c) l Erosion by wind: By planting trees in several rows around
their fields to check wind erosion (shelter belts).
l Erosion by water: By practising terrace farming on
the hilly slopes.
(d) We need to prevent soil erosion because: l Loss of soil reduces
soil fertility and agricultural productivity. l Soil erosion lowers
the underground water table and decreases soil moisture. l Soil
erosion increases the frequency of droughts and floods.

EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Natural vegetation refers to the plant cover that has not been
disturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to
adjust themselves fully to the climate and soil conditions.
(b) Vegetation Forest

1. The assemblage of plant species A large tract of land covered
living in association with each by trees and shrubs.
other in an environmental set up.
2. Vegetation encompasses forests, Forests constitute a part of
coastal mangroves, roadside vegetation.
weed patches, wheat fields,
cultivated gardens and lawns.
(c) (i) Western slopes of the Western Ghats, hills of the north-eastern
region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(ii) l Tropical Evergreen Forests are dense, multi-layered and have
many types of trees and shrubs; l In these forests, trees reach
great heights of more than 45 m.
(d) (i) Because thick Evergreen forests thrive in areas of heavy rainfall
as is found in Western Ghats whereas deciduous forests develop
in areas of low to moderate rainfall between 100 to 200 cm.
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 4(b).
(iii) These forests are not as dense as the Tropical Evergreen
Forests, therefore, they are easily accessible. They have trees
of high commercial value.
Q.2 (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests Tropical Deciduous Forests

1. They are found where rainfall They are found where rainfall
is more than 250 cm. is 100-200 cm.
2. Trees do not have a fixed time Trees shed their leaves from six
to shed their leaves so they to eight weeks during spring
appear green all year round. and early summer.
3. They do not have an under- They have a dense undergrowth
growth because of the dense since the trees are not very tall.
canopy of trees.
4. They forests are not fully They forests are fully exploited
exploited because of tangled and are of immense economic
m a s s o f c a n e s , p a l m s , value.
bamboos.
5. Rosewood, ebony, mahogany, Sal, teak, shisham, mahua, etc.
toon, etc. are some trees found are some trees found in these
in these forests. forests. (Any Two)
(b) These forests develop at places where temperature ranges

between 25ºC and 27ºC; the annual rainfall is more than
250 cm and average annual humidity is more than 77 per cent.
CHAPTER 9 21
(c) (i) Refer to Q.No. 2(a) above.
(ii) Moist Deciduous; Dry Deciduous
(d) (i) l Trees do not grow as a single entity and there is a tangled
mass of canes, palms, bamboos, ferns and climbers; l Because
of dense canopy, there is little sunlight, which makes these
forests difficult to access.
(ii) The Sunderbans are so called because of the Sundari trees
found in these forests.
(iii) The forests are grown around the cities having the Iron and
Steel industries because: l these industries emit particulate
matter, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, hydrocarbons and
hydrogen flouride which pollute the air; l they emit significant
dust levels of about 20 kilograms per metric ton of steel.
Q.3 (a) Tropical Desert vegetation is found in south-western Punjab,
Haryana, UP, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.
(b) Littoral Forests develop in areas where temperature ranges
between 26ºC and 29ºC and rainfall is more than 200 cm.
(c) (i) l Trees have long roots spread in a radial pattern; l The trees
are scattered with large patches of coarse grasses in between;
The plants remain leafless for most part of the year.
Babool and Date.
(ii) Tropical Deserts have stunted trees because due to scarcity of
rainfall. There is not enough water for the growth of trees.
(d) (i) The forest area has greatly depleted in India due to l rapid
population growth and overexploitation of forest resources;
l overgrazing by animals; l conversion of forest land into
agricultural land and pasture land; l construction of multi-
purpose river valley projects.
(ii) Because this region remains warm and wet throughout the
year, with 200 cm of annual rainfall and average annual
temperature between 25°C and 27°C, which are ideal for the
growth of Tropical Evergreen forests.
(iii) Acacia has long roots that can reach deep ground water resources
and help the tree to survive under drought like conditions.
Q.4 (a) Tidal forests are found in wet marshy areas, in river deltas, in
saline or other swampy areas and along the sea coasts. These
forests have mainly evergreen species of varying density and
height. The tree trunks are supported by a number of stilt like
roots with tangle of climbers.
Trees include — Sundari and Keora.
(b) Tropical Evergreen Rain forests. They are so named because:
l trees in these forests do not have a fixed time to shed their leaves
and therefore, appear green all the year round; l these forests are
chiefly distributed in the areas of heavy rainfall.
(c) (i) Afforestation refers to the plantation of new forests. It is done to
meet the growing demand for wood. The newly planted forests
are carefully supervised to protect against forest fires.
(ii) Using Alternative Sources of Energy like solar energy, tidal
energy, biomass energy, etc. instead of conventional sources of
energy like firewood which deplete the forest resources.
(d) (i) l Forests provide a number of a natural resources like timber
fuel, fruits and vegetables, medicinal plants; l forests provide
habitation to a large variety of animals and birds; l forests
influence human environment by moderating climate, regulating
water supply, maintaining fertility of soil and purifying air.
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 5(b).
(iii) Tidal forests have profuse growth with tangle of climbers as an
adaptation to survive in soft and shifting mud in wet marshy
areas, river deltas and swampy areas along the sea coast.
Q.5 (a) Social Forestry refers to the management and protection of forests
and afforestation on barren lands with the aim of helping in the
environmental, social and rural development.
(b) Agro-Forestry Traditional Forestry
1. It is not vulnerable to It has been destroyed due to
population stresses as local population stress.
population is involved.
2. It is created in accordance It is not created but occurs
with the socio-cultural naturally.
practices of the population.
(c) l Increasing the area under forests and planting trees on
degraded land unsuitable for agriculture; l Putting a strict ban an
indiscriminate felling of trees; l Using alternative sources of energy
like solar energy and hydel energy to check the consumption of
wood for domestic and industrial uses.
(d) Refer to ‘Objectives of Agro-Forestry’ in the textbook.
Q.6 (a) The vegetation in Himalayas vary with altitude because the
temperature decreases with altitude and this has a corresponding
effect on the growth of vegetation. For example, at the foothills of
Himalayas, Deciduous forests are found whereas Moist Temperate
forests are found at an altitude between 1000 m to 2000 m.
(b) Inside Tropical Evergreen forests it appears dark because of the
CHAPTER 10 23
dense canopy of trees which do not allow enough sunlight to reach
the ground.
(c) Refer to Q.No. 3(d) (i).
(d) (i) Because of the region’s closeness to the tropics and height of
only 1500 m above sea level, the vegetation is temperate in the
higher regions and sub-tropical on the lower regions.
(ii) Because Sundari trees yield hard durable timber.
(iii) Because these forests are chiefly found in the deltas of large
rivers and exposed to tides. These forest can survive in both
fresh water and sea water.
Q.7 (a) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra.
(b) Because the conical shape allows snow to slide down and not
accumulate on the branches and leaves. It thus, helps the
coniferous trees to survive in extreme winters.
(c) Farm forestry refers to the practice of growing trees on farm land
to produce saleable products like timber and tannin.
Advantages of Farm forestry:
1. It enhances the income of the farmers from sales of products
like timber, tannin and charcoal.
2. It provides shade and shelter for stock and crops.
(d) (i) The breathing roots have pores which help the trees to breathe
when other roots remain submerged under water during high
tide.
(ii) As the human lungs purify the blood so do the forests by
absorbing a large amount of carbon dioxide, producing oxygen
and purifying the air.
(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated every year to raise awareness about
the depletion of forest cover and to encourage afforestation.

EXERCISES
I. Answer the following questions :
Q.1 (a) Water resource refers to any of the entire range of natural waters
that occur on the earth and are of potential use to living beings.
(b) Surface Water Ground Water

1. Water on land surface as Water collected under the
a result of precipitation or surface of land.
seepage from underground.
2. Lower mineral content so Higher mineral content (hard
soft water. water) due to the cover of
subsurface layer of soil or rock.
(c) (i) Rainwater harvesting refers to the system of collecting and storing
rainwater, preventing the loss of water through evaporation and
seepage with the aim of conservation and efficient utilisation
of water.
(ii) Khatri or Kul in Western Himalayas, Baolis or Dighis in the
Gangetic Plains, and Johads in Central India. (Any two)
(d) (i) l About 75 per cent of the total cultivated area depends
on rainfall for crop production. The rainfall is highly
irregular and uneven.
l The availability of surface and ground water, varied relief
features, soil and climatic conditions from place to place
require different means of irrigation.
l The dry period is very long in India as there is rainfall for
3 to 4 months only.
(ii) l Declining availability of fresh water; l irregular and uneven
distribution of rainfall; l increasing demand for water.
(iii) Refer to ‘Need to Conserve Water’ in the textbook.
Q. 2 (a) Irrigation refers to the process of watering of agricultural plants
through artificial means from wells, tanks, tubewells, canals, etc.
Different crops need different quantities of water at various stages
of growth. High yielding varieties of crops require higher input of
water. Thus to increase agricultural output irrigation is needed.
(b) Water scarcity is lack of fresh water resources to meet standard
water demand. It occurs in India because of:
l highly irregular and uneven distribution of rainfall; and
l rapidly increasing population.
(c) (i) Conventional methods of irrigation are those which have been
in use for centuries in India.
(ii) These include Tanks, Canals and Wells.
(d) (i) l Inundation Canals remain functional only during the rainy
season as they use excess water when the rivers are in flood.
l Inundation Canals can irrigate small areas whereas perennial
Canals can irrigate large areas.
CHAPTER 10 25
(ii) Tanks are most widely used in Peninsular India, in the states
of Maharashtra and Gujarat because:
l The rivers of the Deccan are not snow-fed and are mainly
dependent on the rainwater.
l There are many streams which become torrential during
the rainy season but dry up when the rain ceases.
l The natural hollows formed by the undulating surface
make tank building easy and cheap.
(iii) Ground water resources are depleting at a fast rate:
l due to increase in population, irrigation and
industrialisation, the demand for water has risen manifold,
resulting in overexploitation of underground water and
lowering of water table.
l the loss of vegetation causes drought and reduction of
rainfall, lowering of water table and depletion of ground
water resources.
Q.3 (a) Refer to ‘Disadvantages of Using Conventional System of Irrigation’
in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages of Well Irrigation’ and ‘Disadvantages of Well
Irrigation’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana.
(ii) Advantages of Tube Well Irrigation over surface wells:
l It is easier to bring up a large amount of water in a short time.
l They are a perennial means of irrigation as surface

wells might dry up.
Disadvantages of Tube Well Irrigation over surface wells:
l They are expensive as they require drilling.
l They require continuous supply of electricity. (Any one)
(d) (i) l The Alluvial plains are made up of soft soil in which it is easy
to dig wells; l The depth of the water table does not exceed
15m; l The ground water is available in plenty due to proximity
of perennial rivers.
(ii) Most parts of Tamil Nadu get winter rains while summers are
dry. Canals provide water during the dry season.
(iii) Drip irrigation reduces loss of water through evaporation as
it contains perforated pipes that are placed between rows of
crops which give water directly to the crops.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Canals’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Persian wheel method’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) Punjab, Haryana.
(ii) l Availability of plentiful groundwater due to proximity to
rivers; l availability of free electricity.
(d) (i) Water table is few feet below the ground causing alkaline salts
to come to the surface, mix with the soil making it infertile.
(ii) Because it requires continuous supply of electricity.
(iii) l Roots are unable to absorb water the plants require to grow;
l changes in the pH leads to change in the composition of
nutrients and hence their absorption by the plant.
Q.5 (a) Rainwater harvesting refers to the process of conserving water by
collecting and storing rainwater that can be stored for direct use
or can be used to recharge groundwater.
(b) l By collecting water from roof troops and storing it in tanks.
l By building Johads and Baolis.
(c) (i) Watershed management refers to the efficient management and
conservation of both the surface and groundwater resources.
It includes prevention of water run-off as well as storage and
recharge of groundwater.
(ii) Watershed management recharges both surface and
groundwater. Therefore, it is significant in maintaining the
water supply for agriculture in the long run.
(d) (i) Wells are cheap, simple and dependable source of water for
farmers.
(ii) Rainfall in India occurs in short spells of high intensity. Due to
such intensity and short duration, most of the rain flows away
rapidly and does not recharge the groundwater.
(iii) Due to over-withdrawal of the groundwater and lowering of the
water table.
Q.6 (a) Refer to ‘Drip Irrigation’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Need to Conserve Water’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Furrow Irrigation’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) They are scientific so ensure best utilisation of water minimising
wastage.
(ii) No loss of water due to seepage and evaporation.
(iii) Require installation of network of pipes with nozzles all over
the field so spray irrigation is expensive.

CHAPTER 11 27
EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) A mineral is a naturally occurring substance of organic or inorganic
origin having a definite chemical composition and structure. Their
characteristics include:
l Good quality minerals are less in quantity than low quality
minerals.
l Minerals are exhaustible over time and need to be conserved.
(b) Metallic minerals are the source of metals like iron, gold, copper
whereas Non-metallic minerals are either organic or inorganic in
origin like fossil fuels (coal and petroleum) and mica, limestone,
graphite.
(c) Haematite: Odisha, Jharkhand.
Magnetite: Tamil Nadu, Karnataka.
Limonite: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh.
(d) (i) Magnetite.
(ii) Odisha, Jharkhand
Q.2 (a) Copper is a non-ferrous metal found in nature in its native
form and also in three combinations — sulphides, oxides and
carbonates. Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
(b) Refer to ‘Uses of Alluminium’ in the textbook.
(c) Aluminium. The main reserves of Bauxite in India are found
in the states of Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Gujarat.
(d) (i) Manganese makes steel tough and resistant to rusting.
(ii) Aluminium is a good conductor of electricity.
(iii) Raw iron by itself is not strong or hard to be used for construction
etc. However, it becomes strong and hard when alloyed
with other elements making it then useful in construction,
automobiles and other industries.
Q.3 (a) Brass - alloy of copper and zinc; Bronze - alloy of copper and tin.
(b) (i) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
(ii) Refer to ‘Uses of Manganese’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) l Iron ore deposits occur as hill masses and are easily
extractable. l They are found in close proximity to areas with
other raw materials required for iron and steel plants like coal,
manganese etc.
(d) (i) It possesses magnetic property.
(ii) Copper is a good conductor of electricity.
(iii) Aluminium is light-weight and durable.

EXERCISES

Q.1 (a) Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by
man for a long time and are still in use. They are coal, petroleum,
natural gas and hydel power.
(b) Deccan region and north-eastern region.
(c) Refer to ‘Distribution and Uses of Different Varieties of Coal in
India’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes because it has l high
calorific value; l carbon content of 90 per cent; l burns without
smoke.
(ii) The crude oil needs to be carried by pipelines to refineries for
refining. These oil refineries are located along the coast or near
the oilfields to minimise the cost of transport and to reduce the
risk of accidents due to its inflammable nature.
(iii) l Coal is used as a source of power in many industries.
l It is used as raw material in iron and steel industry.
Q.2 (a) Gondwana Coalfield Tertiary Coalfield

Location River valleys of Damodar, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh,
Mahanadi and Godavari. Meghalaya, Nagaland.
Quality Almost free from moisture, High moisture content and
low amounts of sulphur more sulphur.
and phosphorus.
(b) West Bengal: Raniganj; Jharkhand: Jharia.

(c) (i) Coal is easy to burn, abundant, inexpensive and reliable source
of energy. (Any two)
(ii) Digboi (Assam).
CHAPTER 12 29
(d) (i) A lot of substances like petrol, diesel, kerosene, petroleum jelly,
etc. are obtained during the refining process of petroleum. No
part of crude petroleum goes waste or remains unused. That is
why it is called ‘Liquid gold’.
(ii) Natural gas is a fossil fuel because it has been formed by
decomposing remains of dead animals and plants buried under
the earth.
(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly fuel because it is made up of methane
and results is less carbon emissions and therefore causes less
damage to the environment.
Q.3 (a) Natural Gas is the fossil fuel that occurs in association with
mineral oil. Two variants are LPG and CNG.
(b) Three fourths from Mumbai High.
Coastal Refineries: Chennai Refinery, Trombay Refinery.
Inland Refineries: Mathura Refinery, Panipat Refinery.
(c) (i) Because natural gas occurs in association with mineral oil and
therefore the oilfields also yield natural gas invariably.
(ii) Ethyl mercaptan is added to LPG so that any leakage of LPG
from the cylinder can be easily detected.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages’ and ‘Disadvantages’ under ‘Natural Gas’ in
the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Jharkhand: Jharia
West Bengal: Raniganj.
(b) The calorific value is low.
(c) (i) West Bengal, Jharkhand; (ii) Iron and Steel; power generation.
(d) (i) Maharashtra; (ii) Refer to ‘Advantages of Hydel Power’ in the
textbook.
Q.5 (a) India has very limited reserves of crude oil, whereas the demand
for oil in India is increasing rapidly at 10% per annum. To meet
this ever increasing demand for oil, India has to import oil from oil
rich countries.
(b) Private sector: The Reliance Petroleum Limited at Jamnagar in
Gujarat. Public sector: Mumbai High off the coast of Mumbai,
Maharashtra.
(c) Trombay Refinery (west coast) processes imported crude oil and
oil from Ankleshwar fields; Visakhapatnam Refinery (east coast)
processes imported crude oil; Digboi Refinery (inland) processes
crude oil from Moran and Naharkatiya fields.
(d) Petroleum is normally found in underground reservoirs in
sedimentary rock formations like sandstone, shale and limestone.
l Petroleum is used for the production of various petrochemical
products like synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, PVC, etc.
l It is used for generating power in thermal power stations.
Q.6 (a) Petrol, diesel, kerosene, tar, Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG),
lubricants and paraffin. (Any four)
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Petroleum’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Disadvantages’ under ‘Petroleum’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Disadvantages’ under ‘Hydel Power’ in the textbook.
Q.7 (a) Refer to ‘Mumbai High’ in the Textbook.
(b) l Coal is very bulky and cannot be transported easily.
l It is mainly used in iron and steel industries, these industries
have to be located in close proximity to the coal fields.
l Mineral oil can be easily transported through pipelines and
therefore the various processed products of mineral oil are
transported from oil refineries near the coast to far away
locations.
(c) India’s main coal resources are located in the Gondwana coal
fields that are largely confined to the river valleys like those of
Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari.
(d) Advantages of building a dam are:
l it provides water for irrigation, l it helps to generate hydro-
electricity, and l it prevents flooding from rivers.
Q.8 (a) Hydel power refers to the energy that is produced when water
falls from a high level with great force and moves the blades of a
turbine located at the bottom of a dam which in turn rotates the
generator to produce electricity.
(b) (i) Sutlej.
(ii) Punjab and Haryana.
(c) (i) It is located on Mahanadi river in Odisha.
(ii) l It irrigates 75,000 square kilometres of land.
l It helps control floods in the Mahanadi delta.
(d) Disadvantages of building a dam are:

l the cost of building a dam for producing hydroelectricity is
quite high.
l building a large dam alters the natural water-table level.
l building a large dam can cause serious geological damage like
triggering earthquakes in the area.
l building of a dam to produce electricity, displaces many people
from the area and disturbs their life physically, mentally and
psychologically. (any three)

CHAPTER 13 31
EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Non-conventional sources of energy are those which have been
developed in the recent past as an alternative to conventional
sources of energy.
(b) Conventional sources of Non-conventional sources
energy of energy
(a) The sources of energy (a) T h e r e s o u r c e s w h i c h
which have been in use are still in the process
for a long time, e.g., coal, of development over the
petroleum, natural gas and past few years, e.g., solar,
hydel power. wind, tidal, biomass and
geothermal.
(b) They are exhaustable except (b) They are inexhaustible.
for water.
(c) They cause pollution when (c) They are generally pollution
used, as they emit smoke free.
and ash (except hydel
power).
(d) They are very expensive to (d) Less expensive due to
be maintained, stored and local use and are easy to
transmitted. maintain. (Any two)
(c) India’s location on the Tropic of Cancer — Most parts of the country
have 300 clear sunny days in a year — per hour per square km
availability of solar energy is between 5 to 7 kW.
(d) (i) They are renewable and therefore, inexhaustible, l non- polluting,
l
l less expensive and l easy to maintain.
(ii) Refer to Q 1 (c).

(iii) Most
l manufacturers give 20-25 years warranty. No
l moving
parts hence low wear and tear.
Q.2 (a) Refer to ‘Solar cells’ in the textbook.
(b) Electricity generated by wind turbines present on farms can be
used for domestic consumption and surplus power can be sold to
the local grid resulting in an additional source of income for the
farmers.
(c) Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Solar Energy’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Generation of Wind Energy’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Tidal energy refers to the energy produced by the periodic rise and
fall of waters of the ocean.
Tidal energy is a clean energy as it does not generates any carbon
emissions and therefore no pollution and no effect on climate.
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages of Wind Energy’ in the textbook.
(c) Wind farms refer to a place where a number of windmills are
installed in a definite pattern in clusters. They are usually installed
in coastal regions, open grasslands or hilly regions.
(d) (i) Geothermal energy is the heat energy contained in the rock
and fluid that fills the fractures and pores within the rock in
the earth’s crust. It is clean and sustainable.
(ii) Refer to ‘Generation of Geothermal Energy’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Solar: Bhadla, Rajasthan.
Wind: Nagercoil to Madurai in Tamil Nadu.
Tidal: Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat.
Geothermal: Manikaran, Himachal Pradesh.
(b) Refer to ‘Advantages of Geothermal Energy’ in the textbook.
(c) Nuclear fission. Refer to ‘Advantages’ under ‘Nuclear Power’ in the
textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages of Biogas’ in the textbook.
Q.5 (a) Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of
atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like Uranium,
Thorium and Plutonium.
(b) Uranium and Thorium. Kaiga (Karnataka) and Kalpakkam (Tamil
Nadu).
(c) Biogas is composed of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and
hydrogen sulphide. It is produced by anaerobic degradation of
animal and plant wastes in the presence of water.
(d) l Nuclear fission produces 10 million times the energy produced
by burning fossil fuel or hydro or wind power. Thus producing
large quantities of power in short periods of time. l It is does not
release carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. l Cost of mining and
transportation are lower as compared to fossil fuels. l India has
good reserves of the raw materials. l Waste produced is very small
when compared to conventional sources.

CHAPTER 14 33
EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Agriculture means cultivation of the soil in order to grow crops
and rear livestock.
(b) l Two-third of India’s population depends on agriculture.
l Agriculture accounts for 25% of GDP, 16% of total exports.
l It provides employment to about 65 per cent of labour force.
l It provides food for the people, supplies raw material for agro-
based industries, and a large market for industrial goods.
(c) l Indian agriculture is dependent to a large extent on the monsoons,
which are uncertain, irregular and unequally distributed.
l Majority of landholdings in India are very small, which cannot
promote new improved scientific methods of agriculture.
l Mainly subsistence agriculture with old and in efficient
techniques is practised in India.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages of Cooperative farming’ in the textbook
Q.2 (a) Green Revolution refers to the introduction of high yielding
varieties of seeds and the increased use of fertilizers and modern
irrigation methods aimed at increasing food production carried
out since the 1960s in India.
(b), (c) and (d) Refer to ‘Green Revolution’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Extensive Farming Intensive Farming

1. It is practised in large farms. 1. It is practised in small farms.
2. Machines are used so it is 2. It is labour intensive.
capital intensive.
3. It is practised in the Terai 3. It is practised in plains
region of Sub-Himalayas of northern India and the
and in parts of North- coastal areas of South India.
western India. (Any two)
(b) l In commercial farming, small land holdings are consolidated

to make large farms. Since the land holdings are large they give
a considerable output; l Scientific methods and new technologies
can be implemented and thus quantity and quality of crops can
be improved; l Since the crops are grown mainly for sale this
improves the economic condition of the farmers. (Any two)
(c) (i) Extensive Farming.
(ii) Terai regions of Himalayas and parts of North-western India.
(d) (i) The large farm size and costs involved plantation farming are
high. So they are managed by large multinationals.
(iii) The total area under cultivation is high ensuring a large total
yield despite low per hectare yield.
Q.4 (a) Plantation Mixed Farming
1. One crop is cultivated. 1. Two or more crops are grown
together, and animals are
also raised simultaneously.
2. It is practised on large farms. 2. It is practised on small
farms.
3. M o d e r n a n d s c i e n t i f i c 3. Traditional methods are
methods of farming are employed along with some
applied. new techniques.
4. Crops are not sown every 4. Crops are sown every year.
year. (Any two)
(b) l Indian markets have been thrown open to the world.

Consequently, India can export its agricultural products to the
other countries and also import foreign products.
l Indian agriculture has to bear the adverse effect of competition
from developed countries which use sophisticated farm
machinery and therefore, have lower cost of production.
l Reduction in import duties on agricultural products have
proved detrimental to agriculture in India.
(c) l Introduction of land reforms such as abolishment of
Zamindaries and all intermediaries.
l Consolidation of fragmented land holdings to prevent
subdivision of land beyond a certain limit.
l Provision of better irrigation facilities..
(d) Refer to ‘Environmental factors’ under ‘Indian Agriculture:Problems’.
Q.5 (a) Shifting cultivation is a primitive agricultural practice in which a
patch of forest is cleared which is then cultivated for a few years
until the fertility of soil is reduced. Then after two or three years
CHAPTER 15 35
the cultivators abandon this piece of land and move to a new land
and then the same process is repeated.
(b) Shifting cultivation is practised in some hilly regions of North-east
India and in the Himalayan region.
l It accelerates soil erosion and causes floods and silting in lower
reaches of the riverine flood plains; l It results in deforestation;
l It affects the ecosystem. l It causes air pollution. (Any one)
(c) Government is encouraging settled cultivation and social forestry

to discourage shifting cultivation.
(d) Refer to ‘Subsistence Farming’ in the textbook.
Q.6 (a) Organic farming helps l to reduce the burden an chemical
fertilisers; l to ensure effective utilisation of farm resources; l to
prevent loss of fertility of soil, which decreases with the use of
chemical fertilisers.
(b) Refer to ‘Cooperative Farming’ in the textbook.
(c) and (d) Refer to ‘Organic Farming’ in the textbook.

EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Kharif, Rabi, Zayad or Zaid.
(b) Japanese Method. It ensures high yield.
(c) Punjab and Haryana. Rice is a major food supplement and
predominant source of energy that is consumed by about 65% of
world population making it a cash crop.
(d) The Upland Rice The Lowland Rice

1. Grown on mountainous 1. Grown in low-lying regions.
regions.
2. Sown in March-April and 2. Sown in June and harvested
harvested in September- in October.
October.
3. Produce used for local 3. Produce used for local
consumption only. consumption and surplus
for other regions.
Q.2 (a) ‘Cereals’ refer to all kinds of grass-like plants which have starchy,
edible seeds. For example, rice, wheat, maize, barley, etc.
(b) Tropical crop. Mean temperature of 24°C; annual rainfall 150 cm
and deep fertile clayey or loamy soils.
(c) (i) West Bengal.
(ii) Rice requires plenty of water during sowing and harvesting
which is easily available in the lowlands.
(d) (i) Refer to Q.No. 6(b).
(ii) Refer to Q.No. 3(c) (ii).
(iii) Refer to Q.No. 4(b).
Q.3 (a) Wheat requires well drained loams and clay loams.
(b) l Temperature in the range of 10°C-15°C for sowing and
20°C-25°C during harvesting.
l Annual rainfall of about 80 cm with about 12.5 cm of rainfall
in winter months.
(c) (i) Uttar Pradesh and Punjab.
(ii) About 12.5 cm of rainfall in winter months is a boon for
l
wheat cultivation.
l Wheat requires about 10°C of temperature at the time of
sowing, 15°C for plant growth and 20°C for the maturity
of grains. These temperature ranges are available in
these states.
(d) l Wheat grows best in cool, moist climate and ripens in a warm,
dry climate whereas rice grows best in warm and humid climate.
l Wheat requires temperature in the range of 10°C-15°C for
sowing and 20°C-25°C during harvesting whereas rice requires
temperature in the range of 16°C-20°C for flowering and
fertilization and 18°C-32°C during ripening.
l Also, wheat requires about 80 cm of annual rainfall with about
12.5 cm of rainfall in winter months whereas rice requires good
rainfall in the range of 150 -300 cm. It also requires 5-10 cm of
standing water.
Q.4 (a) Transplantation is a method of cultivating rice. In this method,
seedlings are first grown in nurseries and after 4 to 5 weeks when
saplings attain 25 to 30 cm of height they are transplanted into
prepared rice fields.
Advantages: l Only healthy plants are picked and sowed in the
field. l less wastage of seeds.
(b) Pulses are leguminous crops that have a bacteria called rhizobium
in their root nodules that fix the atmospheric nitrogen in the soil
and this process helps in increasing the fertility of the soil.
CHAPTER 15 37
(c) (i) Pulses are useful rotation crops as they have nitrogen fixing
bacteria, rhizobium, in their root nodules and thus they help
in increasing soil fertility.
(ii) Pulses are a good source of vegetable protein and compliment
the dietary requirements for Indians who mostly consume
starchy vegetarian diets. They serve as excellent forage and
grain concentrates in cattle feed.
(d) l Broadcasting Method: In this method, seeds are scattered all
over the field after ploughing. This is done before the onset of
monsoon. This method is prevalent where labour is scarce and
soil is infertile.
l Drilling Method: In this method, seeds are sown in the furrows
with the help of a drill normally made of bamboo. This method
is followed in the peninsular India.
l Dibbling Method: In this method seeds are sown at regular
intervals in the furrows with an implement called dibble.
Q.5 (a) Millets is a term that is applied to a number of inferior grains.
These include jowar, bajra, ragi, etc.
(b) Millets do not require much input and can grow in arid in fertile
land with little water. Also, their straw makes valuable cattle
fodder. Since, millets are easily cultivated and available at a
cheaper price, these serve as foodgrains for the poorer sections of
the society.
(c) Millets are dry crops as they do not need much rainfall. Rainfall
in the range of 50 cm to 120 cm is adequate for millets whereas
rice is a water intensive crop which requires heavy rainfall in the
range of 150-300 cm and standing water of 5 to 10 cm.
(d) Millets are grown where the soil is rather infertile owing to its
rocky or sandy character whereas rice is grown in well drained,
deep fertile clayey or loamy soils.
Q.6 (a) Ragi is grown in drier parts of South India and in some areas of
northern India. It is one of the hardiest crops and can grow under
conditions of very low rainfall and can withstand very severe
drought.
(b) Wheat is a winter crop in India because wheat grows in a cool
climate. It requires temperature in the range of 10°C-15°C for
sowing and 20°C-25°C during harvesting. These temperature
ranges are available in the northern plains of India during winters.
(c) Eastern and extreme southern parts of India have excessive
heat and high rainfall which is not suitable for the wheat crop.
Therefore, wheat is not grown in these parts. Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Refer to Q.No. 4(c) (i).
Q.7 (a) In the given picture, rice is being planted, by the puddled or wet
method of cultivation.
The main advantage of this method is that is provides the essential
requirements of 5 to 10 cm of standing water for the rice to grow.
(b) The other method of planting rice is called the dry system of
cultivation of rice. It is practised in areas which depend on rains
and do not have supplementary irrigation facilities.
(c) Refer to Q.No. 2(b).
(d) (i) l Rice grows best in clayey alluvial soil which is not present
in large tracts in Deccan Plateau; l The Deccan area receives
moderate rainfall whereas for cultivation of rice heavy rainfall
is required.
(ii) Despite deficient rainfall rice is grown in Punjab with the help
of irrigation from the network of canals and tubewells.
(iii) Wheat requires sufficient soil moisture during germination of
the plant. Since the loamy soil can retain water for long time
wheat grows best in it.

EXERCISES
I. Copy the chart and fill in the details
Refer to Table on page 162 in the textbook.
II. Answer the following questions:

Q.1 (a) Uttar Pradesh (North India); Tamil Nadu (South India).
(b) Sugarcane production is increasing in Maharashtra because of the
favourable maritime climate free from the effects of summer loo
and winter frost, sufficient irrigation and new farming techniques.
(c) Sett method of planting sugarcane is the one in which cuttings
called setts from old plants are taken and planted in the furrrows.
These setts quickly take root and after a few days buds sprout to
form new stalks.
(d) Ratooning is the method of obtaining a successive crop of
sugarcane from the little bit of stalk which is left in soil with roots
after the first harvest.
l Ratoons mature early;
CHAPTER 16 39
l The cost of production is much lower since there is less
expenditure on preparing the fields and planting.
Q.2 (a) Heavy rains reduce the sucrose content of sugarcane.
(b) It is labour intensive because: l the crop has to be irrigated
frequently as the deficiency of water produces a fibrous crop;
and l it takes eight months to mature and therefore, requires
continuous monitoring and care.
(c) The greatest accumulation of sucrose is at the base of the stem.
(d) Refer to ‘Problems of Sugarcane Cultivators’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Sugarcane exhausts the fertility of the soil so soil requires addition
of manures and nitrogenous fertilizers to be productive.
(b) l Temperature between 20ºC and 26ºC.
l Short dry season during ripening and harvesting.
l Rainfall between 100-150cm, well distributed throughout the
year.
(c) l South India has favourable maritime climate free from North
India’s summer loo and winter frost.
l It has sufficient irrigation facilities and new farming techniques.
(d) l Planting seeds; l ratooning. (Refer to the textbook for details)
Q.4 (a) Refer to Table on Page 162 in the textbook.
(b) Gujarat and Telangana. Groundnut is highly susceptible to frost
and thrives well in tropical climates so it is grown extensively in
peninsular India.
(c) l Groundnut is used to manufacture hydrogenated oil.
l It is used in cooking.
l It is used in making margarine, medical emulsions and soap.
(d) Oil Cake. It is used as l cattle feed and l manure.
Q.5 (a) Groundnuts, mustard and soyabean. Groundnut.
(b) Refer to Table on Page 162 in the textbook.
(c) (i) It grows well on slightly heavy loams. Sutluj Ganga plains.
(ii) Uses: l cooking oil; l cattle feed; l leaves eaten as vegetable;
l manure.
(d) Refer to Table on page 162 in the textbook. Uses l as a substitute

animal protein as soya milk and tofu and; l cooking oil.

EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Fibre crops are the crops that yield fibre which is used as raw
material in textile industry. Cotton and jute are plant fibre crops.
(b) Cotton grows well in the well-drained clayey soils containing lime
and phosphates. The deep and medium black soils of the Deccan
and the Malwa Plateau are ideal for cotton cultivation.
(c) (i) Deccan Plateau and Upper Ganges Valley.
(ii) The deep and medium black soils of Gujrat and Maharashtra
are conducive to cotton cultivation.
(d) (i) Frost kills the cotton plant and destroys the crop.
(ii) Dry weather is required because: (i) The cotton balls will be
destroyed by water; (ii) Rainfall during harvesting makes the
plant vulnerable to pests and diseases.
Q.2 (a) Long staple cotton has long cotton fibres. The longer the fibre the
resulting fabric is strong, soft, durable and fades less.
(b) They have black cotton soil, 1.5 metres deep in some parts and
80-100 cm of annual rainfall, the pre-requisites for growing short
staple variety of cotton.
(c) Refer to ‘Processing’ in the textbook.
(d) Problems faced by cotton farmers:
l Late spring or early autumn frosts kill the plant.
l Rainfall of more than 85 cm destroys the crop.
l Rainfall during harvesting makes plants vulnerable to pests
and diseases.
l Regular weeding and irrigation is essential for the crop.
l Rising costs of seeds fertilizers and labour.
l Cotton picking is completely manual.
Q.3 (a) Jute grows best on the soil enriched by new alluvium brought by
river inundation. Loamy soils are most suitable for jute production
as water sinks quickly into it.
(b) Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is enriched regularly by fresh deposits
of silt during floods which are well suited for the crop as jute
depletes the soil fertility.
(c) (i) Jute is retted to soften the outer bark so that the fibre within can
be easily removed.
CHAPTER 17 41
(ii) Retting of Jute is done by: (i) submerging the jute in special
tanks; (ii) chemical additives are added in the water; and (iii)
the fleshy part of the stem is decomposed and the fibre is scraped.
(d) Refer to ‘Processing’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Mesta fibre is coarser than jute. Assam, Bihar, Odisha, Kerala.
(b) Golden fibre. Brings high revenue due to its extensive use in
packaging materials and utility products.
(c) (i) Floods ensure new top soil which is good for the jute crop. Floods
also provide water for the process of retting.
(ii) Advantage: Higher yield.
Disadvantage: Coarse fibre.
(d) Uses: l Packaging materials like sacks; l carpets and rugs;
l tarpaulins.
Q.5 (a) l Good rainfall (150 cm) well distributed throughout the year.
l Adequate hours of sunshine due to location in the tropical zone.
l Hill slopes conducive to growth of tea plants. (Any two)
(b) Tea is cultivated on hill slopes so that annual inundations and
stagnant water during the rainy season do not harm the crops.
The hills also provide the shade required by the crops. Tea grown
at higher elevation tastes well and gives a better flavour.
(c) (i) 1. Black Tea; 2. Green Tea; 3. Oolong Tea.
(ii) Tea obtained from different gardens have different flavours
depending on soil, temperature and rainfall. So, to ensure
consistency of flavour a number of teas are blended together.
(d) (i) Assam. l The summer temperature is 30°C and winter
temperature never falls below 10°C. The weather is frost free
throughout the year; l The tea estates are on slightly elevated
areas where suitable slope for proper drainage is available;
l There is about 300–400 cm of annual rainfall extended over
four months; l The soil is deep and moderate in texture.
(Any two)
(ii) Clonal planting is the method by which cuttings are taken from
the mother plant to get the desired characteristics. Pruning is
the process where the planter selectively removes parts of a
plant to encourage production of fresh leaves and shoots.
Q.6. (a) l Coffee needs temperature between 15°C to 28°C through the
year. It is grown in shade as direct sun rays are harmful for the
crop; l It needs heavy rainfall ranging between 125–250 cm. It can
also grow in areas having 325 cm of rainfall if the rainfall is well
distributed. Dry weather is required during ripening.
(b) Coffee Robusta, Coffee Liberica and Coffee Arabica. Karnataka.
(c) Refer to ‘Processing of Coffee’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) Coffee is a typical highland crop of tropics and grows well on
the slopes of hills. There is no stagnation of water on hill slopes
as stagnation is harmful for coffee plants.
(ii) To protect the coffee plants from direct sunlight; to generate
extra income.
(iii) Frequent pruning encourages rapid production of fresh leaves
and shoots.

EXERCISES
I. Give the difference between the following:
1. Large-Scale Industries Small-Scale Industries

1. These industries require huge 1. These industries require small
infrastructure. capital investment.
2. They employ large number of 2. They employ only a few
workers. workers.
3. They produce machinery and 3. They produce goods on a small
goods on a large scale. scale.
4. Iron and steel, shipbuilding 4. Weaving, food processing, etc.
automobile, etc.
2. Heavy Industries Light Industries

1. These industries produce 1. These industries produce goods
capital goods and consumer which are light in weight.
durables which are quite bulky.
2. They require huge capital, large 2. They require less capital, raw
quantity of raw material and material and labour.
labour.
3. These industries require 3. These industries require simple
sophisticated machinery. machinery.
4. For example ship, building, 4. C y c l e i n d u s t r y , s e w i n g
iron and steel, cement, etc. machine, electronic goods, etc.
CHAPTER 18 43
3. Basic Industries Secondary Industries

1. These industries form the core 1. These industries process
industries on which other the basic raw materials into
industries depend for their primary goods for direct use
manufacturing. by consumers.
2. These industries require huge 2. These industries require less
infrastructure. infrastructure than basic
industries.
3. For example, iron and steel, 3. For example, textiles, sugar
and petroleum. and paper making.
II. Answer the following questions:
Q.1 (a) Agro-Based Industries Mineral-Based Industries

1. They are industries that use 1. They are industries that use
agricultural products as raw minerals as raw materials.
materials.
2. The products are mainly 2. The products industries
consumer goods. are either consumed by
consumers or they serve
as raw materials for other
industries.
3. They are mainly small-scale 3. They require heavy infra-
or cottage. structure.
4. Eg. Cotton and jute textile 4. Eg. Iron and steel, heavy
industries, sugar, tea, coffee engineering and machine
industry, etc. tool, cement industry, etc.
(b) Refer to ‘Classification of Industries on the basis of finished
product’ in the textbook.
(c) (i)
Small scale industries provide employment to more than
l
30 million people.
l They help the farmers to generate extra income.
l They help in development of rural areas. (Any two)
(ii) Public Sector Private Sector

1. These are owned and 1. These are owned and
managed either by the managed by an individual
Central government or the or group of individuals.
State Government.
2. For example, BHEL, GAIL, 2. For example, Reliance
IOC. Indian Limited (RIL), Infosys
and Wipro.
(d) (i) It is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours because its
sugar content goes on decreasing with the passage of time.
(ii) Cottonopolis is a city with highest concentration of cotton
textile mills. Mumbai is a port city providing transport and
market facilities. It also has high humidity conditions to ideal
for cotton textile mills.
(iii) Competition from artificial silk as it is cheaper and better in
quality than raw silk.
Q.2 (a) l Bagasse: It is the leftover cane after crushing. It is used for
making cardboard, paper and insulation board.
l Molasses: It is a thick brown liquid obtained by repeated
crystallization and centrifugation of the sugar. It is used in the
alcohol industry for the distillation of liquor, power alcohol, etc.
(b) The sugar industry is highly dispersed in India because sugarcane
is grown in north as well as south India. As the sugarcane needs
to be processed within 24 hours of harvesting the mills need to be
located near the sugar producing areas.
(c) l Due to marine impact, the climate of Maharashtra is ideal for
cultivation of sugarcane as a result of which the recovery rate
of sucrose is higher. l Crushing season is longer. l Excellent
transport facilities.
(d) (i) A fair amount of sugarcane is used to make by products such
as gur and khandsari thus reducing sugar production.
(ii) Refer to ‘Tendency to Migrate to the South’ in the textbook.
(iii) Karnataka is an important centre of silk because it has
favourable climate for rearing of silkworms and a large part of
land is under mulberry cultivation.
Q.3 (a) l India is third largest exporter of cotton textiles. Thus, export of
cotton textiles generates foreign currency.
l Cotton textile industry supports directly or indirectly more
than 40 per cent of the country’s labour force.
l It provides the basic raw material for manufacturing
cotton clothes.
(b) Mumbai and Ahmedabad. Refer to ‘The Main Cotton Manufacturing
Centres’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Problems of cotton textile industry’ in the textbook.
(d) Rearing of silkworms on mulberry leaves for silk production
is called sericulture. Refer to ‘Problems of Silk Industry’ in the
textbook.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Factors affecting the Location of Industries’ in the textbook.
(b) Karnataka: Bengaluru, Mysore.
West Bengal: Murshidabad, Malda.
CHAPTER 19 45
(c) (i) Assam; (ii) Assam: Muga ; Bihar: Tasar
(d) (i) Sugarcane needs to be processed within 24 hours of cutting to
preserve sugar content. After 24 hours the sugar content is lost
rapidly.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to second place because of old
mills, poor management, labour problems and shorter crushing
period.
(iii) Manchester of the famous cotton textile centre of Great
Britain is located on river Mersey with temperate climatic
conditions. Similarly Ahmedabad is a leading cotton textile
centre located on the bank of Sabarmati River whose water is
good for dying thread. It has climatic conditions suitable for
spinning thread.

EXERCISES
I. Answer the following questions
Q.1 (a) Iron and steel industry. Key industry because it provides raw
material for making industrial machines, defence equipment,
railway tracks, railway engines, bridges, dams, automobiles, etc.
(b) All the three processes of steel making—iron ore reduction, steel
making and rolling are done at one place in an integrated Steel
Plant. TISCO at Jamshedpur.
(c) l Availability of raw materials l Abundant water supply
l Power supply l Cheap labour
l Transport facilities l Market. (Any three)
(d) (i) Mini steel plants produce steel from ferrous scrap, pig iron
or sponge iron. Therefore, they do not require big furnaces.
They work through electric furnaces which are quick and less
polluting.
(ii) Mini steel plants do not produce steel from iron ore rather they
use ingots, scrap from big steel plants, etc. Therefore, they
don’t need to be near the raw material.
Q.2 (a) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant, Rourkela Steel Plant, Vishakhapatnam
Steel Plant. Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant in Chhattisgarh.
(b) Mini Steel Plants have electric furnaces — do not have all the
facilities at one place — require separate units for completing the
process of steel making.
(c) Refer to ‘Tata Iron and Steel Company’ in the textbook.
(d) Vishakhapatnam steel plant.
l Latest technology with large size units.
l Location at deep land locked port of Vishakhapatnam facilitates
import of raw material and export of finished products.
Q.3 (a) Petrochemicals are important organic chemicals derived from
petroleum products, LPG and coal.
(b) l Petrochemical products are cost effective, economically
stable, cheaper because they are produced on a mass scale;
l They are easily available as they do not depend on agricultural
raw materials.
(c) (i) Fertilizers and Resins.
(ii) Because transportation of petroleum and its products is always
dangerous hence expensive.
(d) Entertainment: Due to the progress in electronic industry,
the television and audio industries have developed providing
wholesome entertainment to the people.
Education: Electronic industry has enabled digitalisation of
education by making available all types of information available
through the internet.
Q.4 (a) Jamshedpur and Durgapur.
(b) Mini steel plants cause less pollution than intrgrated steel plants
because they do not use coal and are dependent on electric power.
(c) l Heavy Investment.
l Government Controlled Prices.
l Non-availability of Raw Materials.
l Old Techniques.
l Sick Mini-Steel Plants.
l Under Utilisation of Capacity.
(d) Refer to Chapter 18 ‘Distribution of Industrial Regions’ in
the textbook.

CHAPTER 20 47
EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Roads Maintained by
National Highways Central Government (NHAI)
Expressways and Freeways Central Government (NHAI)
State Highways State Government
District Roads State Government
Rural Roads State Government
Other Roads (Border Roads and Border Road Organisation
International Highways
(b) l Golden Quadrilateral; l North-South and East-West Corridors.
(c) l An efficient transport system helps better utilisation resources by
linking backward areas with more advanced areas.
l It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
l It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.
l It helps in minimising the effects of natural disasters.
l It brings homogeneity in thought and culture through easy
movement of people.
(d) l In the Northern Plains it is easy to construct roads;
l The cost of construction of roads is lower that of the railway line;
l The movement of goods is safer, easier and economical through
road transport.
Q.2 (a) An expressway is a highway that has cemented six-lane roads,
designed to provide smooth high speed movement without any
on-road obstacles like traffic or speed brakers. Eg. Delhi-Gurgaon
Expressway.
(b) Expressway Highway
Controlled access to expressway Multiple roads to access the
highway
Facilities like access ramps, Most of these facilities are not
lane dividers, CCTV cameras for there.
high speed and greater safety
and convenience.
(c) Refer to ‘Advantages of Railways’ and ‘Disadvantages of Railways’.

(d) l Railways operate on different gauges and the shift from one to
another guage becomes a time-consuming and expensive affair.
l Rail traffic has increased and the old tracks are unable to carry
the increased load. This also cause frequent accidents.
l Perishable goods cannot tolerate a slow moving mode of rail
transport.
Q.3 (a) The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the
Central Government are known as the National Highways. These
are main highways running through the length and breadth of the
country connecting major ports, state capitals, large industrial
and tourist centres.
(b) and (c) Refer to ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Advantages of Roadways’ in the textbook.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Importance’ in the textbook.
(b) l Broad Gauge: The distance between rails is 1.676 metre.
Almost all the main routes are broad gauge. This system links
all major ports of India with the interior towns and industrial
centres as it is more suitable for transport of heavier and bulky
goods.
l Metre Gauge: The distance between rails is one metre. It is
suitable for passenger trains and accounts for 21.02 per cent
of the total route length.
l Narrow Gauge: The distance between rails is 0.762 metre and
0.610 metres. It is mainly confined to hilly areas. There is less
gap between tracks and hence can be given curves easily.
(c) l Transports over 18 million passengers and more than
2 million tonnes of freight daily.
l World’s largest employer with more than 1.4 million employees.
l Has 6,909 stations over a total route length of more than
63,327 kilometres.
(d) (i) Refer to ‘Advantages of Railways’ in the textbook.
(ii) Hilly terrain and thick forests — not conducive to laying railway
tracks.
(iii) Level ground is conducive to laying roadways and rail tracks.
Q.5 (a) Airport Authority of India.
l Creating, upgrading maintaining civil aviation infrastructure.
l Providing safe and efficient Air Traffic Services and
communication.
(b) Air India is the 16th largest airline in Asia, serving 50 domestic
destinations and 39 international routes, serving over 100 cities.
CHAPTER 20 49
(c) Advantage: l fastest; l comfortable mode of transport.
Disadvantage: Air transport is very costly.
(d) Advantages: l Operate in hilly and inaccessible areas; l Airdrop
food, medicines etc. in case of calamities.
Disadvantages: Small size so very low tonnage.
Q.6 (a)
India has extensive network of navigable rivers, canals,
l
backwaters and creeks.
l Presence of long coastline due to its peninsular shape making
it accessible through seas.
l Presence of natural harbours — converted into ports — along
coastline.
(b) Oceanic waterways constitute an important role in the transport
sector of India’s economy. Ocean routes handle 95 per cent of
India’s foreign trade by volume and 70 per cent by value.
Besides international trade these routes are also used for
transportation between the islands and the rest of the country.
(c) Refer to ‘Advantages of Waterways’ and ‘Disadvantages of
Waterways’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) Refer to the box on Page 206 of the Textbook.
(ii) (a) They are seasonal and rainfed. Thus, they have water
only in the rainy season and go dry during summer.
(b) They are swift flowing. (c) They have shallow basin. (d) They
are narrow and their beds have a generally steep gradient.
(e) They have a number of waterfalls and rapids.
(iii) Mumbai Port lies midway on West Coast of India on the natural
deep-water harbour of Mumbai. It opens in the south to the
Arabian Sea. It has all the port facilities with three wet docks, 63
anchorage points and four jetties for handling liquid chemicals
and petroleum products.
Q.7 (a)
Rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks should be deep enough
l
to allow boats and ships to navigate.
l These waterways must be free of barriers such as waterfalls
and rapids.
(b) Inland Waterways Oceanic Waterways
1. Inland waterways refer 1. Oceanic waterways refer
to using waterbodies like to using waterbodies like
rivers, canals, backwaters, ocean, sea, bays, etc. for
creeks, etc. for transporting transporting goods and
goods and people from one people from one place to
place to another. another.
2. These mainly connect places 2. These connect two or more
within the country. countries.
(c) (i) Refer to the table on page 208 in the textbook.
(ii) River Brahmaputra. Dhubri (Assam) to Kolkata port (West
Bengal).
(d) (i) Air transport is very costly.
(ii) Transport network provides easy access to raw materials, labour
and markets that are pre-requisites for industrial progress.
(iii) In times of calamities roads, railways and waterways may be
blocked. Evacuation and dropping of relief material can be
done by airways.

EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Waste is a term used to describe any material that is discarded
because it has served its purpose. Sources: Domestic and Industrial.
(b) Use and throw concept leads to accumulation of waste as people
do not use a product after one use and throw it as a waste.
(c) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur released by burning of coal, wood
or petroleum react with water vapour present in the atmosphere
to form acids like sulphuric acid and nitric acid. When these acids
precipitate together with rainwater, they form acid rain.
Impact: l The gypsum and calcium sulphate are washed away
by water causing damaging marks on statues and monuments.
l Limestone statues are destroyed because carbonic acid in
rainwater converts limestone into bicarbonate which is water
soluble and is washed away.
(d) Refer to ‘Ozone Layer Depletion’ in the textbook.
Q.2 (a) Refer to ‘Electronic Waste or e-waste’ in the textbook.
(b) Refer to ‘Industrial Waste’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to Box on page 213 in the textbook.
(d) Toxic Waste Non toxic Waste
l Pose a serious threat l Do not pose a serious threat
to human life and the to living organisms and the
environment. environment.
l Non-biodegradable. l Biodegradable.
CHAPTER 21 51
Q.3 (a) Refer to ‘Eutrophication’ in the textbook.
(b) When the waste is dumped near water bodies it enters water
bodies with rainwater and results in water pollution and the
natural cleansing process in the water bodies cannot function
properly. This leads to eutrophication.
(c) Refer to ‘Biomagnification’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) As a result of consuming plastic wastes that end up in the
ocean.
(ii) Radioactive wastes remain in the environment for a longer time
and are toxic to all living organisms.
(iii) Because it releases smoke and other air pollutants into
the atmosphere. Most of these substances are toxic to the
environment.
Q.4 (a) Refer to ‘Transmission of Diseases’ in the textbook.
(b) Asthma, Asbestosis, Lung Cancer.
(c) Refer to the box on Page 217.
(d) Refer to ‘Need for Waste Management’ in the textbook.
Q.5 (a) Handling solid waste is a problem because most disposal methods
cause harm to the environment. l Open dumps and landfills
contain toxins that seep into soil and water bodies causing
pollution. l Burning releases smoke and other air pollutants into
the atmosphere. l Scavengers and stray animals may spread the
waste over large areas leading to spoilage of landscape as well as
many diseases.
(b) Methane. It is highly inflammable and may cause explosions if not
handled properly.
(c) The increased concentration of Greenhouse Gases leads to the
increase in temperature on the earth, called Global Warming.
Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrogen oxide.
(d) (i) Refer to Q 1 (b).
(ii) Run-off from fields contains high amounts of nutrients causing
eutrophication of the waterbodies leading to death of aquatic life.
(iii) Agricultural wastes contain chemicals that are toxic to birds
feeding upon it leading to thinner and weaker eggshells and
increased mortality.

EXERCISES
Q.1 (a) Segregation of waste refers to separating waste into different
categories such as biodegradable and non-biodegradable. This
reduces the volume of wastes entering landfills and is key to
effective waste management.
(b) Refer to ‘Open Dumping’ in the textbook.
(c) (i) and (ii) Refer to ‘Sanitary Landfill’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) To prevent scattering of waste as well as exposure of waste to
environmental factors.
(ii) It allows for safe and effective waste disposal.
(iii) It allows for utilisation of plastic waste and reduction of bitumin
used in road construction.
Q.2 (a) Biodegradable wastes refer to those wastes which can be broken
down into carbon dioxide, water and simple organic molecules by
composting, aerobic or anaerobic digestion or similar processes.
Products: Compost; gobar gas.
(b) Rag-pickers segregate the biodegradable waste from the
non-biodegradable waste. Pieces of metal, glass, rubber, plastics
and polybags are separated and recycled.
(c) Refer to ‘Municipal Waste Management’ in the textbook.
(d) Refer to ‘Composting’ in the textbook.
Q.3 (a) Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
(b) Refer to ‘Reusing Waste’ in the textbook.
(c) Refer to ‘Recycling Waste’ in the textbook.
(d) (i) l Paper can be made from old and used wood, clothes and
paper. l Millions of trees are felled every year to make paper
pulp. These trees can be saved.
(ii) Bagasse can be used for manufacturing paper.
(iii) Because polythene carry bags and styrofoam are
non-biodegradable. l Plastic bags react chemically with the
food and other items carried in these bags and make the
food stuff poisonous. l Fumes from burnt plastic bags can
cause serious irritation in the eyes and throat and suffocation.
l Plastic bags can choke the drains and the entire sewage system.


Teachers&#39; Handbook - Total Geography - 10

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Teachers&#39; Handbook - Total Geography - 10

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1

I. Give the terms used in contours for each of the following:

Gradient = Vertical Interval .

1. Gentle Sloope Steep Sloope

3. Ridge Water Divide

2. Contours showing a ridge 2. The side on which the ridge is

IV. Short Answer Questions

(b) True North Magnetic North

The main methods of representing the scale on a map:

All the Answers are given in the textbook.

Q.2 (a) Plains of North India Coastal Plains

(b) Narmada and Tapi.

(b) l Major source of moisture to the summer monsoons;

(c) (i) Coffee is grown on laterite soil.

(b) Vegetation Forest

Q.2 (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests Tropical Deciduous Forests

(b) These forests develop at places where temperature ranges

(b) Surface Water Ground Water

l rapidly increasing population.

l They are a perennial means of irrigation as surface

l They require continuous supply of electricity. (Any one)

I. Answer the following questions:

Q.2 (a) Gondwana Coalfield Tertiary Coalfield

(b) West Bengal: Raniganj; Jharkhand: Jharia.

(d) Disadvantages of building a dam are:

(ii) Refer to Q 1 (c).

Q.3 (a) Extensive Farming Intensive Farming

(b) l In commercial farming, small land holdings are consolidated

(b) l Indian markets have been thrown open to the world.

(c) Government is encouraging settled cultivation and social forestry

(d) The Upland Rice The Lowland Rice

II. Answer the following questions:

(d) Refer to Table on page 162 in the textbook. Uses l as a substitute

1. Large-Scale Industries Small-Scale Industries

2. Heavy Industries Light Industries

3. Basic Industries Secondary Industries

Q.1 (a) Agro-Based Industries Mineral-Based Industries

l They help in development of rural areas. (Any two)

(ii) Public Sector Private Sector

(c) Refer to ‘Advantages of Railways’ and ‘Disadvantages of Railways’.

You might also like

Teachers' Handbook - Total Geography - 10

Teachers' Handbook - Total Geography - 10