ZOOLOGY

14 Evolution

D) In the solar system of the Milky Way

PARA 7.1 AND 7.2
galaxy, earth was supposed to have
ORIGIN OF LIFE AND EVOLUTION OF been formed about 4.5 million years
LIFE FORMS back.
1. The study of the history of life forms of 5. Select the correct statement about early
the earth is called [Pg 126,E] Earth 4.5 billion year ago. [Pg 127,M]
A) Evolutionary Biology A) There was a thick atmosphere on
B) Ecology early Earth.
C) Environmental biology B) Water vapour, hydrogen,
D) Comparative anatomy carbondioxide and ammonia released
2. Match Column-I with Column-II. from molten mass covered the
[Pg 127,E] surface.
Column-I Column-II C) The UV rays from the sun brokeup
water into Hydrogen and Oxygen and
(a) Origin of the (1) 4.5 billion years the lighter O2 escaped. Oxygen
universe ago combined with ammonia and
(b) Origin of (2) 4 billion years ago methane to form water, CO2 and
earth others.
D) The ozone layer was formed. As it
(c) Origin of life (3) 2.7 billion years cooled, the water vapor fell as rain, to
ago fill all the depressions and form
(d) Origin of first (4) 20 billion years ago oceans.
eukaryotes 6. When did life appear on earth?
[Pg 127,E]
A) 500 billion years after the formation
Select the correct option.
of Earth
a b c d
B) Almost four billion years back.
A) 1 4 2 3
C) Both A and B
B) 4 1 2 3
D) Almost three billion years back
C) 4 2 1 3
7. Select the correct statement among the
D) 4 1 3 2
following. [Pg 127,M]
3. Select the correct statement among the
A) Some scientists believe that life came
following. [Pg 127,E]
from outside.
A) The universe is very old – almost
B) Early Greek thinkers thought units of
20000 million years old.
life called spores were transferred to
B) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise
different planets including earth.
the universe. Galaxies contain stars
C) ‘Panspermia’ is still a favourite idea
and clouds of gas and dust.
for some astronomers.
C) The Big Bang theory attempts to
D) All of these
explain to us the origin of universe.
8. For a long time it was also believed that
D) All of these.
life came out of decaying and rotting
4. Select the correct statement about the
matter like straw, mud, etc. This was the
Big Bang theory. [Pg 127,E]
theory of _________. [Pg 127,E]
A) It talks of a many huge explosions
A) Biogenesis
unimaginable in physical terms.
B) Spontaneous generation
B) The universe expanded and hence,
C) Non-Spontaneous generation
the temperature increased. Hydrogen
D) Both A and B
and Helium formed sometime later.
9. Select the incorrect statement among the
C) The gases condensed under
following. [Pg 127,M]
gravitation and formed the galaxies of
A) Louis Pasteur by careful
the present day universe.
experimentation demonstrated that
life comes only from pre-existing life.
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B) Louis Pasteur showed that in pre- molecules (RNA, Protein,

sterilised flasks, life did not come Polysaccharides, etc.). These
from killed yeast while in another capsules reproduced their molecules
flask open to air, new living perhaps.
organisms arose from ‘killed yeast’. C) The first cellular form of life did not
C) Spontaneous generation theory was possibly originate till about 2 million
dismissed by Louis Pasteur. years ago. These were probably
D) Louis Pasteur answered how the first single-cells.
life form came on earth. D) All life forms were in water
10. How many statements are incorrect environment only. This version of
among the following? [Pg 127,M] biogenesis, i.e., the first form of life
i. Oparin of England and Haldane of arose slowly through evolutionary
Russia proposed that the first form of forces from non-living molecules is
life could have come from pre-existing accepted by majority.
non-living organic molecules (e.g. 14. Chemical evolution refers to- [Pg 128,E]
RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation A) Formation of diverse inorganic
of life was preceded by chemical molecules from organic constituents
evolution B) Formation of diverse organic
ii. The conditions on earth were – high molecules from radioactive
temperature, volcanic storms, constituents
reducing atmosphere containing CH4 C) Formation of diverse organic
, O2 , etc. molecules from inorganic
iii. In 1952, S.L. Miller, an American constituents
scientist created similar conditions in D) Formation of diverse non-reducing
a laboratory scale molecules from inorganic
iv. S.L. Miller created electric discharge constituents
in a closed flask containing CH4, H2, 15. Conventional religious literature tells us
NH3 and water vapour at 8000C. about the theory of – [Pg 128,E]
v. With limited evidence, the first part of A) Religious Creation
the conjectured story, i.e., chemical B) Abiogenetic creation
evolution was more or less accepted. C) Spontaneous creation
A) 2 B) 3 D) Special creation
C) 4 D) 5 16. Special creation theory has three
11. In S.L. Miller’s electric discharge connotations. Select the correct
experiment, he observed formation of connotation among the following.
_______. [Pg 127,E] [Pg 128,E]
A) Amino sugar A) All living organisms (species or types)
B) Glucosamine that we see today were created as
C) Amino acid such.
D) Proteins B) The diversity was always the same
12. In experiments similar to S.L. Miller’s since creation and will be the same in
discharge experiment others observed, future also.
formation of how many of the following C) Earth is about 40000 years old
substances. [Pg 127,E] D) Both (A) and (B)
Sugars, Nitrogen gas, Pigment, Fats, 17. Select the correct statement among the
Nitrogen bases, Amino sugar following. [Pg 128,M]
A) 3 B) 4 A) All the ideas of Special creation theory
C) 5 D) 6 were strongly challenged during the
13. Select the incorrect statement among the eighteenth century.
following. [Pg 127,128,M] B) Based on observations made during a
A) We have no idea about how the first sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S.
self replicating metabolic capsule of Beagle round the world, Charles
life arose. Darwin concluded that existing living
B) The first non-cellular forms of life forms share similarities to varying
could have originated 3 billion years degrees not only among themselves
back. They would have been giant but also with life forms that existed
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millions of years ago. Many such life
forms do exist anymore.
C) There had been extinctions of
different life forms in the years gone
by just as new forms of life arose at
same periods of history of earth.
D) Any population has built in variation
in characteristics.
18. How many statements among the
following are incorrect? [Pg 129,M]
i. Those characteristics which enable
some to survive better in natural
conditions (climate, food, physical
factors, etc.) would outbreed others
that are less-endowed to survive
under such natural conditions.
ii. The fitness, according to Darwin,
refers ultimately and only to
reproductive fitness.
iii. Those who are better fit in an
environment leave more progeny than
others. These, therefore, will survive
more and hence are selected by
nature. Darwin called it natural
selection and implied it as a
mechanism of evolution.
iv. Alfred Wallace, a physicist worked in
Malay Archipelago.
v. The geological history of earth closely
correlates with the physical history of
earth.
A) 3 B) 4
C) 2 D) 1
19. The history of Earth can be studied in
terms of- [Pg 129,E]
A) Epochs
B) Periods
C) Eras
D) All of these
20. Select the correct option about the given
figure. [Pg 128,E]
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A) The given figure represents
diagrammatic representation of
Miller’s Experiment.
B) X- Vacuum pump
C) Y – Water containing inorganic
compounds
D) Z – Spark discharge
PARAGRAPH- 7.3
THE EVIDENCES FOR EVOLUTION
21. Fossils are _____ [Pg 129,E]
A) The preserved remains of the past life
forms.
B) Mineralized form of hard body parts
such as bones, teeth, etc.
C) Found mainly in the layers of
sedimentary rocks.
D) all of these
22. Consider the following statements about
fossils: [Pg 129,M]
(a) Rock sediments of different ages
contain fossils of life forms that died
during the formation of that
particular layer of sediment.
(b) Fossil records are based on the
sequence of occurrence of fossils in
various strata of sedimentary rocks.
Select the correct option.
A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
23. Which of the following represents the
paleontological evidence of evolution?
[Pg 129,M]
A) Preserved remains of Dinosaurs
obtained from sedimentary rocks.
B) Presence of homologous structures.
C) Presence of analogous structures.
D) Presence of vestigial parts.
24. Fossils serve as one of the evidence of
evolution because [Pg 129,M]
(a) Fossil records show that various
groups of organisms dominated earth
during the different course of
evolution.
(b) Many organisms are extinct today.
(c) Certain groups of organisms are
restricted to a certain geological time
period.
Select the option with all correct
statements.
A) Only a B) Only b
C) Both b and c D) a, b and c
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25. Given below is the family tree of (b) The same structures in different
dinosaurs and their living present day organisms are derived from a
counterpart organisms. Which of the common ancestor.
given options correctly name A, B and C? Choose the correct option.
[Pg 130,E] A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
30. The similar structures with different
functions present in different species
because of their common ancestry is
known as _____ [Pg 130,E]
A) Analogous structures
B) Homologous structures
C) Vestigial organs
D) Homoplasy
31. Presence of homologous structures in
different but related organisms is the
A) A: Triceratops; B: Archaeopteryx; C: result of _______ [Pg 130,E]
Crocodilian A) Common ancestry
B) A: Triceratops; B: Crocodilian; C: B) Divergent evolution
Archaeopteryx C) Convergent evolution
C) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Triceratops; C: D) Both A and B
Crocodilian 32. The image shows the forelimbs of a
D) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Crocodilian; C: whale, bat, cheetah and human (all
Triceratops mammals). Choose the correct option
26. Embryological support for evolution was regarding the same. [Pg 131,E]
proposed by ______ based upon the
observation of certain features during
embryonic stage common to all
vertebrates that are absent in adult.
[Pg 129,E]
A) Ernst Mayr B) JBS Haldane
C) Ernst Haeckel D) Charles Lyell
27. Sweet potato is a ___(I)___ modification
whereas potato is a ___(II)___
modification. [Pg 131,E]
A) (I)- Stem B) (II)- Root
C) Both A and B D) None of these
28. Which of the given statement is incorrect
about radiometric dating? [Pg 131,M]
A) A method to determine the absolute
age of the fossils.
B) It is based on the process of decay of A) The basic similarities in the
radioactive isotopes. arrangement of bones in forelimbs of
C) A method to determine the relative whales, bats, cheetahs and humans
age of the fossils. reflect their common ancestry.
D) Organisms accumulate isotopes of B) The forelimbs of whales, bats,
substances during their lifetime. cheetahs and humans are analogous
29. Consider the following statements: structures.
[Pg 129,130,H] C) The image represents structures that
(a) Comparative anatomical and evolved from convergent evolution.
morphological details of different but D) The image represents vestigial
related organisms demonstrate a structures.
basic similarity. 33. Which of the following structures
represent homology? [Pg 131,H]
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A) Wings of butterflies and birds A) homologous structures and represent

B) Eyes of octopus and mammals divergent evolution
C) Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea B) phylogenetic structures and
and Cucurbita represent divergent evolution
D) Flippers of penguins and dolphins C) analogous structures and represent
34. Which of the following structures is convergent evolution
homologous to the wing of a bird? D) homologous structures and represent
[Pg 131,M] convergent evolution
A) Wing of a moth 40. Which of the following examples does not
B) Hind limb of the rabbit represent analogous organs? [Pg 131,M]
C) Flipper of the whale A) Eyes of octopus and mammals.
D) The dorsal fin of a shark B) Sweet potato and potatoes.
35. Independent evolution of structures with C) The spine of barberry and thorns of
similar functions but different anatomy hawthorn.
in distantly related organisms is known D) Eyes of cave-dwelling animals.
as _____ [Pg 131,E] 41. Match Column-I with Column-II.
A) Convergent evolution [Pg 131,132,M]
B) Divergent evolution Column-I Column-II
C) Homology (a) Common proteins (1) Artificial
D) Mutation and genes present selection
36. The process of _____ evolution develops in diverse
similar features in organisms with organisms
separate ancestries. [Pg 131,E] (b) (2) Anatomical
Vertebrates heart
A) Divergent B) Convergent or brain evidence of
C) Homology D) Speciation
evolution
37. Analogous structures are a result of
______ [Pg 131,M] (c) Animal husbandry (3) Natural
A) stabilizing selection and plant breeding selection
B) divergent evolution (d) Industrial (4) Biochemical
C) convergent evolution melanism evidence of
D) shared ancestry evolution
38. Match Column-I with Column-II.
[Pg 130,131,M] Select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II a b c d
A) 1 4 2 3
(a) Cactus spine and (1) Analogous
B) 4 1 2 3
pea tendril structures
C) 4 2 1 3
(b) Wings of insects (2) Vestigial structures D) 4 1 3 2
and birds 42. Select the incorrect match from the
following options. [Pg 131,M]
A) Tendrils and passionflower and
(c) Hind limb bones (3) Natural selection thorns of pomegranate - homologous
of whales organs.
B) Tendrils of Vitis and thorns of Carissa
(d) Darwin’s finches (4) Homologous – homologous organs.
structures C) Tendrils of balloon vine and bulbils of
Agave – homologous organs.
D) Scale leaves of onion and spines of
Select the correct option.
Opuntia – analogous organs.
a b c d 43. Industrial melanism is an example of
A) 1 4 2 3 [Pg 132,E]
B) 4 1 2 3
A) Neo Darwinism
C) 4 2 1 3 B) Natural selection
D) 4 1 3 2 C) Mutation
39. The wings of a bird and the wings of an
D) Neo Lamarckism
insect are [Pg 131,M]

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44. The given image shows white-winged and 48. Assertion: Evolution is not a directed
dark-winged moths. [Pg-132,M] process in the sense of determinism.
Reason: Evolution is based on chance
events that occur in nature. [Pg-132,H]
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
(a) Image I represents the survival
but Reason is not the correct
advantage of white winged moths in
explanation of Assertion.
unpolluted areas.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(b) Image II represents the survival
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
advantage of dark winged moths in
49. Select the correct order of extinction of
polluted areas.
following dinosaurs? [Pg-130,E]
Select the correct option.
I. Stegosaurus
A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
II. Brachiosaurus
B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
III. Pteranodon
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
IV. Triceratops
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
V. Tyrannosaurus
45. Which of the following serves as an
A) II, I, III, V, IV
indicator of atmospheric pollution?
B) II, I, V, IV, III
[Pg-132,E]
C) III, V, IV, II, I
A) Lichens B) Rhizopus
D) None of these
C) Penicillin D) Lycopodium
46. Match Column-I with Column-II. PARAGRAPH-7.4
[Pg-30,M] ADAPTIVE RADIATION
Column-I Column-II
Herbicide (1) A herbivore 50. The mechanism of adaptive radiation
A) resistant sauropod was first explained by [Pg-132,E]
varieties
A) Darwin
B) Brachiosaurus (2) Bony plates on the B) Morgan
back
C) Lamarck
C) Stegosaurus (3) A flying reptile D) Hugo de Vries
D) Pteranodon (4) Evolution by 51. Consider the following statements.
anthropogenic [Pg-132,133,M]
action
(a) Darwin compared the animals and
plant species of Galapagos Islands
Select the correct option. with those of mainland of South
a b c d America.
A) 1 4 2 3 (b) He found observable and distinct
B) 4 1 2 3 similarities and differences among
C) 4 2 1 3 them.
D) 4 1 3 2 (c) Flora and fauna of the Galapagos
47. Assertion: Archaeopteryx is a dead Islands do not exhibit resemblances
connecting link between reptiles and to that of the South American
birds. mainland.
Reason: Archaeopteryx is the earliest Select the correct option.
known bird. [Pg-130,H] A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) (a) is true but (b and c) are false.
and Reason is correct explanation of C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Assertion. D) All are false.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, 52. Lamarck was a ________. [Pg-134,E]
but Reason is not the correct A) French zoologist
explanation of Assertion. B) German botanist
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) French naturalist
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) British botanist

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53. Diversification of single ancestral species B) in Darwin’s finches

into many species in a relatively short C) in Australian marsupials
period of time is called [Pg-133,E] D) in a habitat with a large number of
A) Artificial selection existing species
B) Adaptive radiation 60. Select the incorrect statement among the
C) Homology following. [Pg-134,135,M]
D) Natural selection A) Lamarck said that evolution of life
54. Adaptive radiation occurs when forms had occurred but driven by use
[Pg-133,E] and disuse of organs.
A) lineages of an ancestral species B) Lamarck gave the examples of
encounter an empty niche. Giraffes who in an attempt to forage
B) populations of a species exhibit leaves on tall trees had to adapt by
random mating. elongation of their necks.
C) gene flow between the populations of C) Giraffes passed on this acquired
a species continues. character of elongated neck to
D) adaptive radiation does not occur in succeeding generations, Giraffes,
nature. slowly, over the years, came to
55. Darwin’s finches are an example of acquire long necks.
[Pg-133,E] D) Everybody believes Lamarck’s
A) adaptive radiation conjecture today.
B) microevolution 61. Which of the following statements does
C) genetic drift not reflect adaptive radiation in
D) gene flow marsupials? [Pg-134,135,M]
56. Evolution of different species in a given A) Australia was geographically isolated
area starting from a point and spreading from the rest of the world during the
to other geographical areas is known as continental drift.
[Pg-133,E] B) The geographical isolation of
A) Adaptive radiation Australia prevented the immigration
B) Natural selection option of placental mammals to the
C) Migration option continent.
D) Divergent evolution C) Marsupials were the dominant
57. Consider the following statements: mammals on the land of the
[Pg-133,H] Australian continent.
(a) Adaptive radiation occurs when D) Geographical isolation of Australia
numerous unexploited ecological followed the migration of placental
opportunities are available. mammals to the continent.
(b) Islands have a large number of empty 62. Select the correct option for the given
ecological niche as compared to the image: [Pg-133,M]
mainland present in the same
geographical location.
Choose the correct answer.
A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
B) (a) is true but (b and c) are false.
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
D) All are false.
58. _______ and ___________ are the two key
concepts of Darwinian theory of
Evolution. [Pg-134,E]
A) Branching descent
B) Natural Selection
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
59. The evolution of multiple species by the A) Convergent evolution in Australian
process of adaptive radiation cannot marsupials
occur [Pg- 133,E] B) Gene flow
A) on remote islands
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C) Adaptive radiation in Australian a b c d

marsupials A) 1 4 2 3
D) Both a and c are correct B) 4 1 2 3
63. A population of a species invades a new C) 4 2 1 3
area. Which of the following condition D) 4 1 3 2
will lead to adaptive radiation? 67. Match the placental mammals given in
[Pg-133,H] column-I to their corresponding
A) Area with many habitats occupied by Australian marsupials given in column-
a large number of species. II. [Pg-134,M]
B) Area with large number of habitats Column-I Column-II
having very low food supply. (a) Flying squirrel (1) Tasmanian tiger
C) Area with a single type of vacant cat
habitat (b) Bobcat (2) Tasmanian wolf
D) Area with many types of vacant (c) Wolf (3) Long-eared
habitats. bandicoot
64. When more than one (i) appeared to have (d) Rabbit (4) Flying phalanger
occurred in an isolated geographical area
(representing different habitats), one can Select the correct option.
call this (ii). [Pg-133,134,M] a b c d
Select the correct option regarding the A) 1 4 2 3
given statement. B) 4 1 2 3
A) (i) Adaptive radiation; (ii) Divergent C) 4 2 1 3
evolution D) 4 1 3 2
B) (i) Adaptive radiation; (ii) Convergent PARAGRAPH-7.5 AND 7.6
evolution
C) (i) Convergent evolution; (ii) Adaptive BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION AND
radiation MECHANISM OF EVOLUTION
D) (i) Divergent evolution; (ii) Adaptive
radiation 68. According to Darwin, the driving force of
65. Australian marsupials correspond to the evolution is [Pg-134,E]
placental mammals present in North A) mutation
America because [Pg-133,M] B) natural selection
A) gene flow occurred between C) gene flow
Australian marsupials and North D) migration
American placental mammals. 69. Evolution by natural selection requires
B) adaptive radiation in Australian [Pg-134,E]
marsupials paralleled the evolution of A) presence of acquired variations
placental mammals in North America. among the individuals
C) some North American placental B) presence of genetic variations among
mammal served as founder the individuals
population for Australian marsupials. C) isolated habitat
D) some Australian marsupials served D) constant environmental conditions
as founder population for North 70. Consider the following statements:
American placental mammals. (a) Evolution by natural selection
66. Match the placental mammals given in started with the origin of cellular
Column-I to their corresponding life forms with differences in
Australian marsupials given in Column- metabolic capability.
II. [Pg-134,M] (b) The theory of natural selection
Column-I Column-II was given by Lamarck.
Select the correct option. [Pg-134,M]
(a) Mole (1) Marsupial mole
A) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(b) Anteater (2) Marsupial mouse B) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(c) Mouse (3) Spotted cuscus C) Both (A) and (B) is false.
(d) Lemur (4) Numbat D) (A) is false but (B) is true.

Select the correct option.

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71. The rate of evolution of new species in (d) Inheritance of (4) Tendency of organisms
fishes is slower than that of in bacterial acquired to become adapted to
populations because [Pg-134,M] features the environment
A) the evolution of new species is linked Select the correct option.
to their lifespan. a b c d
B) evolution of new species is linked to A) 4 1 3 2
the habitat. B) 1 4 2 3
C) both fishes and bacteria exhibit the C) 4 1 2 3
same rate of evolution. D) 4 2 1 3
D) species do not evolve at all. 78. The first scientist to propose that
72. Evolution of antibiotic-resistant bacterial evolution is a natural process rather
population represents the fact that than a divine intervention was
[Pg-134,E] [Pg-135,E]
A) acquired traits are inherited. A) Darwin B) Lamarck
B) nature selects for fitness. C) Pasteur D) Hugo de Vries
C) genetic variations are not a 79. Select the correct option regarding
prerequisite factor for natural Lamarck’s principles of evolution
selection. [Pg-134,135,E]
D) the theory of spontaneous generation A) Use and disuse; inheritance of
of life holds true. acquired characters.
73. Fitness refers to [Pg-134,E] B) Natural selection; fitness.
A) the ability of some organisms to C) Mutation; inheritance of acquired
survive under hostile conditions due characters.
to the presence of adaptive genetic D) Inheritance of acquired characters;
features. gene flow.
B) the ability of an organism to survive 80. Evolution of long and muscular neck of
hostile conditions due to acquired present day giraffe occurred as giraffes
features with no genetic basis. stretched their necks higher to reach the
C) the ability of organisms to migrate. higher canopy of tall trees. The given
D) both a and b are true. statement represents the view of …………
74. _____ is the end result of the ability to about evolution. [Pg-135,E]
adapt and get selected by nature. A) Darwin B) Lamarck
[Pg-134,E] C) Louis Pasteur D) Cuvier
A) Mutation B) Fitness 81. Match Column-I with Column-II.
C) Adaptation D) Acclimatization [Pg-134,135,M]
75. Which of the following options correctly Column-I Column-II
represent the two key features of
Darwin’s theory of evolution? [Pg-134,E] (a) Innate drive to (1) Use and disuse
A) Mutation and natural selection. become complex
B) Artificial and natural selection. (b) An Essay on the (2) Thomas
C) Branching descent and natural Principle of Malthus
selection. Population
D) Branching descent and mutation. (c) Evolution of long- (3) Natural
76. Saltation is referred as- [Pg-135,E] necked giraffe selection
A) Single step small mutation population
B) Multiple step small mutation (d) Industrial (4) Lamarck
C) Single step large mutation melanism
D) None of these
77. Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the correct option.
[Pg-134,135,M] a b c d
Column-I Column-II A) 4 1 3 2
(a) Branching (1) Unity and diversity of B) 4 1 2 3
descent life
C) 1 4 2 3
(b) Natural (2) Source of new genes
selection
D) 4 2 1 3
(c) Mutation (3) Lamarck

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82. Natural selection is based on certain D) mutation, acquired variations

observations whish are factual. Such 87. Mutations are random and directionless
observations are- [Pg-134,M] while Darwinian variations are
A) Natural resources are limited. [Pg-135,M]
B) Populations are stable in size except A) small and directional
for seasonal fluctuation. B) large and directional
C) Members of a population vary in C) small and directionless
characteristics (infact no two D) large and directionless
individuals are alike) even though 88. Consider the following statements
they look superficially similar, most of [Pg-135,H]
variations are inherited. (a) For Darwin, evolution was gradual
D) All of these and driven by small genetic
83. Match the aspects of Darwin’s theory of variations.
natural selection in Column-I with the (b) For de Vries, evolution was a single
correct description in Column-II. step process driven by large
[Pg-134,M] mutation.
Column-I Column-II Select the correct option.
(a) Variation (1) A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
Competition for
limited available B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
resources C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
(b) Overproduction (2) Increases the 89. The mutation is directionless as
survival [Pg-135,H]
A) it can change any DNA sequence and
(c) Struggle for (3) More offspring is always beneficial for the individual.
existence B) it can change any DNA sequence and
(d) Differential (4) Geometric may be beneficial or harmful for the
reproductive increase in individual.
success population size C) mutation imparts small variations.
D) mutation imparts large variations.
90. Which of the following statements is
Select the correct option.
incorrect? [Pg-133-135,M]
a b c d
A) No variant is completely wiped out in
A) 2 4 1 3
the case of dark-winged and white-
B) 4 1 3 2
winged moths in England.
C) 4 1 2 3
B) The essence of Darwinian theory
D) 4 2 1 3
about evolution is natural selection.
84. Hugo Devries explained mutations as a
C) Microbes that divide fast have the
source of genetic variations while
ability to multiply and become
working on [Pg-135,E]
millions of individuals within hours.
A) evening primrose
D) When we say that fitness of B is better
B) garden pea
than that of A under the new
C) finches
conditions, it means that A is better
D) fruit fly
adapted than B under new
85. Variations caused by mutation, as
conditions.
proposed by Hugo de Vries, are
91. According to Hugo de Vries, large
[Pg-135,E]
differences among the individuals evolve
A) random and directional
by ______ without any intermediate
B) random and directionless
forms. [Pg-135,E]
C) small and directional
A) gradual and small changes
D) small and directionless
B) natural selection
86. According to Hugo Devries and Darwin,
C) saltation
the driving factor for evolution is _____
D) gene flow
and _____ respectively. [Pg-135,M]
92. Assertion: Evolution refers to
A) minor variations, mutation
modification in the lines of descent.
B) natural selection, mutation
C) mutation, minor variations
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Reason: Natural selection is the equal A) gene pool B) genotype

survival success of individuals of a C) phenotype D) mutation
population. [Pg-134,H] 97. Consider the following statements:
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true [Pg-136,M]
and Reason is correct explanation of (a) Allele frequencies are supposed to
Assertion. remain constant over generations.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, (b) Hardy Weinberg equation is the
but Reason is not the correct algebraic representation of the allele
explanation of Assertion. frequencies of a population.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Select the correct option.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
93. Assertion: Darwin’s theory of evolution B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
was based on the inheritance of adaptive C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
genetic variations. D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Reason: He could not recognize the 98. Genetic equilibrium represents that
mechanism of inheritance. [Pg-136,M]
[Pg-133,134,H] A) the population is not evolving for the
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true locus under study.
and Reason is correct explanation of B) the allele frequencies and genotype
Assertion. frequencies remain constant over
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, generations.
but Reason is not the correct C) the allele frequencies remain
explanation of Assertion. constant over generations but
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. genotype frequencies change.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) both (A) and (B) are correct.
99. The sum total of all allele frequencies for
PARAGRAPH-7.7
a particular locus is always
HARDY-WEINBERG PRINCIPLE __________________ [Pg-136,E]
A) 0
94. Select the incorrect statement among the B) 1
following. [Pg-136,M] C) more than 1
A) p + 2pq + q = 1. This is binomial D) cannot be determined
expansion of (p + q) . 100. The frequency of an allele in a population
B) When frequency measured, differs ranges from [Pg-136,E]
from expected values, the difference A) 0 to 1
(direction) indicates the extent of B) more than 1
evolutionary change. C) less than 0
C) Hardy-Weinberg principle says that D) can be any number
phenotype frequencies in a 101. Select the incorrect match: [Pg-137,E]
population are stable and is constant A) Frequency of a dominant allele in the
from generation to generation. population – p.
D) The gene pool (total genes and their B) Frequency of a recessive allele in the
alleles in a population) remains a population – q.
constant. This is called genetic C) Frequency of heterozygous dominant
equilibrium. Sum total of all the genotype – 2pq.
allelic frequencies is 1. D) Frequency of homozygous dominant
95. How many of the following factors are genotype – q2.
known to affect Hardy-Weinberg 102. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the
equilibrium? [Pg-137,M] frequency of heterozygous individual is
Gene migration, gene flow, genetic drift, represented by [Pg-137,E]
mutation, genetic recombination, A) 𝑝 B) 2𝑝𝑞
natural selection C) 𝑝𝑞 D) 𝑞2
A) 4 B) 5 103. The binomial expansion of (p + q)2 is
C) 6 D) 3 [Pg-137,E]
96. Total genes and their alleles in a A) 𝑝 + 2𝑝𝑞 + 𝑞 = 1
population make [Pg-137,E] B) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 1
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C) 𝑝 + 2𝑝𝑞 = 1 B) Mutation: Migration of individuals of

D) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 1 the population.
104. Differences between expected and C) Random mating: Equal chances of
observed allele frequencies in a each individual in a population to
population represent that [Pg-137,M] mate with any other individual.
A) the population is at hardy-Weinberg D) Natural selection: Selection of mate
equilibrium. on the basis of morphological
B) the population is evolving. features.
C) the population is deviating from 110. Addition or removal of alleles from the
hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. gene pool of a population due to
D) both (B) and (C) are correct. migration of individuals is known as
105. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the [Pg-137,E]
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, A) genetic drift
then what will be the frequency of B) gene flow
homozygous dominant, heterozygous C) natural selection
and homozygous recessive individuals in D) artificial selection
the population? [Pg-137,H] 111. Genetic drift operates in [Pg-137,E]
A) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa) A) a small isolated population
B) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa) B) large isolated population
C) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa) C) non-reproductive population
D) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa) D) slow reproductive population
106. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg 112. Match the terms in Column-I with the
equilibrium, the frequency of correct description in Column-II.
homozygous dominant genotype is 0.36. [Pg-137,M]
What are the frequencies of dominant Column-I Column-II
and recessive alleles for the locus? (a) Genetic drift (1) Genetic drift due to
[Pg-137,H] small colonizing
A) p = 0.4; q = 0.6 population
B) p = 0.6; q = 0.4
C) p = 0.36; q = 0.4 (b) Founder (2) Change in allele
D) p = 0.4; q = 0.36 effect frequency by a
107. A population will not exist in Hardy- chance event
Weinberg equilibrium if [Pg-137,M]
A) there is no migration (c) Bottleneck (3) A major factor to
B) the population is large effect introduce variations
C) individuals mate selectively in sexually
D) there are no mutations reproducing
108. Consider the following statements: populations
[Pg-137,M]
(a) Gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, (d) Genetic (4) Adverse
natural selection and genetic combination environmental
recombination deviate the population factors
from the Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium. Select the correct option.
(b) Small population size is required to a b c d
maintain constant allele frequencies A) 1 4 2 3
over generations. B) 2 1 4 3
Select the correct option. C) 3 2 4 1
A) Both (a) and (b) are true. D) 4 1 3 2
B) (A) is true but (B) is false. 113. A small number of finches from the
C) Both (A) and (B) are false. mainland were blown by a cyclone to a
D) (A) is false but (B) is true. new island. The resultant new
109. Select the correctly matched option. population of finches had distinct gene
[Pg-137,M] pool from the source population. It
A) Gene flow: Changes in allele represents the [Pg-137,E]
frequencies by a chance event. A) gene flow
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B) mutation C) Stabilizing selection

C) founder effect D) Sexual selection
D) selective mating 118. Natural selection in which more
114. Name the types of natural selection as individuals acquire mean character
depicted in images I, II and III. Select the value is known as ________ while the one
correct option. [Pg-137,E] wherein more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends
of the distribution curve is ________
[Pg-137,M]
A) stabilizing selection; disruptive
selection
B) disruptive selection; stabilizing
selection
C) disruptive selection; directional
selection
D) stabilizing selection; directional
selection
119. Which of the given statement is
incorrect? [Pg-137,M]
A) The peak of the distribution curve
gets higher and narrower by
A) I-Stabilizing; II-Disruptive; III- stabilizing selection.
Directional B) Directional selection shifts the peak
B) I-Stabilizing; II-Directional; III- of the distribution curve in one
Disruptive direction.
C) I-Directional; II-Stabilizing; III- C) Disruptive selection does not affect
Disruptive the peak of the distribution curve.
D) I-Disruptive; II-Stabilizing; III- D) Stabilizing selection does not affect
Directional the mean of the phenotype.
115. In a species, the weight of the newborn 120. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding
ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of newborns higher milk output represents
with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 [Pg-137,H]
kg survive whereas 99% of the infants A) directional selection as it pushes the
born with weight from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 mean of the character in one
to 5 kg die. Which type of selection direction.
process is taking place? [Pg-137,M] B) disruptive selection as it splits the
A) Directional selection population into two, one yielding
B) Stabilizing selection higher output and the other lower
C) Disruptive solution output.
D) Cyclical Solution C) stabilizing selection followed by
116. Name the type of natural selection that disruptive selection as it stabilizes the
tends to reduce the genetic variations in population to produce higher-yielding
the population without affecting the cows.
mean. [Pg-137,M] D) stabilizing selection as it stabilizes
A) Disruptive selection this character in the population.
B) Directional selection 121. The northern elephant seal of North
C) Stabilizing selection America and nearby islands was nearly
D) Both a and b are correct hunted to extinction. The conservation
117. The black-bellied finches with large beak efforts restored the population size.
sizes are able to feed on the most However, the restored population is
abundant food types in the habitat while vulnerable to extinction due to
the finches intermediate and small beak [Pg-137,M]
size die at a young age due to starvation. A) Stabilizing selection
This represents: [Pg-137,H] B) Bottleneck effect
A) Disruptive selection C) Founders effect
B) Directional selection D) Natural selection
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128. Select the incorrect statement among the

PARAGRAPH-7.8
following. [Pg-140,M]
A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION A) Due to continental drift, when South
America joined North America, these
122. Sea weeds and few plants existed animals were overridden by North
probably around - [Pg-138,E] American fauna.
A) 0.32 bya B) 400 mya B) Due to continental drift pouched
C) 500 mya D) 3.2 bya mammals of Australia survived
123. Jawless fish probably evolved around - because of lack of competition from
[Pg-138,E] any other mammal.
A) 400 mya B) 350 mya C) Evolution of horse, elephant, virus,
C) 450 mya D) 600 mya etc., are special stories of evolution.
124. Select the correct statement among the D) The most successful story is the
following. [Pg-138,M] evolution of man with language skills
A) By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates and self-consciousness.
were formed but were not active. 129. Select the correct statement about cells
B) The first organisms that invaded land with a membranous envelope.
were plants. They were widespread on [Pg-139,M]
land when animals invaded land. A) The mechanism of how non-cellular
C) The amphibians evolved into reptiles. aggregates of giant macromolecules
They lay thin-shelled eggs which do could evolve into cells with
not dry up in sun unlike those of membranous envelope is not known.
amphibians B) Some of these cells had the ability to
D) After amphibians in the next 2000 release O2.
million years or so, reptiles of C) The reaction could have been similar
different shapes and sizes dominated to the light reaction in photosynthesis
on Earth. where water is split with the help of
125. ________ were present but they all fell to solar energy captured and
form coal deposits slowly. [Pg-140,E] channelised by appropriate light
A) Giant grass B) Giant ferns harvesting pigments.
C) Pteridophytes D) Both B and C D) All of these
126. Select the incorrect statement among the 130. Fish with stout and strong fins could
following. [Pg-139,140,E] move on land and go back to water. This
A) Some of these land reptiles went back was about - [Pg-138,E]
into water to evolve into amphibians A) 360 mya
like reptiles probably 200 mya (e.g. B) 350 mya
Ichthyosaurs). C) 0.4 bya
B) About 65 mya, the dinosaurs D) 3.5 bya
suddenly disappeared from the earth. 131. Select the correct statement about
C) The first mammals were like shrews. Coelacanth. [Pg-138,M]
Their fossils are small sized. A) In 1938, a fish caught in South
Mammals were viviparous and America happened to be a Coelacanth
protected their unborn young inside which was thought to be extinct
the mother’s body. B) Coelacanth called lobefins evolved
D) Mammals were more intelligent in into the first reptile that lived on both
sensing and avoiding danger at least. land and water.
When reptiles came down mammals C) There are no specimens of Coelacanth
took over this earth. left with us.
127. South America mammals resembled how D) Coelacanth were ancestors of modern
many of the following animals? day frogs and turtles.
[Pg-140,E] 132. Select the correct statement about
Horse, Cow, Monkey, Hippopotamus, Tyrannosaurus rex? [Pg-140,E]
Bear, Deer, Rabbit A) Tyrannosaurus rex had huge
A) 5 B) 4 fearsome dagger like teeth.
C) 3 D) 2 B) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet
in height.
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C) Tyrannosaurus rex was biggest of all a b c d

dinosaurs. A) 1 4 2 3
D) All of these B) 4 1 2 3
133. The probable reason for disappearance of C) 2 4 1 3
dinosaur was/were- [Pg-140,E] D) 4 1 3 2
A) Climatic changes killed them 139. Consider the following statement.
B) Most of them evolved into birds. [Pg-140,M]
C) Both (A) and (B) (a) Homo habilis is also known as ‘handy
D) Dinosaurs did not disappear. man’ and could cook food using fire.
134. How many of the following animals live (b) Homo erectus was about 5 feet tall
wholly in water? [Pg-140,E] upright hominid and exhibited
Whales, Shark, Dolphins, Turtles, Seals, improved hunting skills. Select the
Sea cows correct option.
A) 5 B) 4 A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
C) 3 D) 2 B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
PARAGRAPH-7.9
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF MAN 140. Which of the following hominid has a
brain capacity of 1400cc and used hide
135. Consider the following statements: to protect their body. [Pg-141,E]
[Pg-140,M] A) Homo habilis
(a) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus B) Homo erectus
lived on Earth about 15 mya. C) Homo sapiens
(b) They were primates with a hairy D) The Neanderthal man
appearance and walked like gorillas. 141. The chronological order of human
Choose the correct option. evolution from early to the recent is
A) Both (a) and (b) are true. [Pg-140,141,E]
B) (a) is true but (b) is false. A) Australopithecus > Ramapithecus >
C) Both (a) and (b) are false. Homo habilis > Homo erectus
D) (a) is false but (b) is true. B) Ramapithecus > Australopithecus >
136. Ramapithecus was more _____ while Homo habilis > Homo erectus
Dryopithecus was more _____ [Pg-140,E] C) Ramapithecus > Homo habilis >
A) great ape-like; man-like Australopithecus > Homo erectus
B) man-like; ape-like D) Australopithecus > Homo habilis >
C) ape-like; man-like Ramapithecus > Homo erectus
D) both a and b are true 142. Match the hominids with their correct
137. Which of the following is the immediate brain size. [Pg-140,141,M]
ancestor of genus Homo? [Pg-140,E] Column-I Column-II
A) Dryopithecus (a) Homo habilis (1) 900 cc
B) Ramapithecus (b) Homo (2) 1350 cc
C) Australopithecines neanderthalensis
D) Sahelanthropus (c) Homo erectus (3) 650–800 cc
138. Match Column-I with Column-II. (d) Homo sapiens (4) 1400 cc
[Pg-140,141,M]
Column-I Column-II Select the correct option.
(a) Australopithecus (1) The oldest a b c d
africanus member of A) 4 1 3 2
genus Homo B) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 1 2 3
(b) Homo habilis (2) Java man D) 2 4 1 3
143. Which of the following had the smallest
(c) Homo erectus (3) Cave painting
brain capacity? [Pg-140,E]
(d) Neanderthal man (4) Lucy A) Homo neanderthalensis
B) Homo habilis
C) Homo erectus
Select the correct option. D) Homo sapiens
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144. Which of the following pair is incorrectly B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
matched? [Pg-141,E] but Reason is not the correct
A) Australopithecines – Fruit eater explanation of Assertion.
B) Pre-historic cave art –18000 years ago C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) Agriculture and human settlements – D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
10000 years back 146. Assertion: Evolution of modern humans
D) Origin of modern Homo sapiens – exhibited a gradual increase in brain
1,00,000–40,000 years back size.
145. Assertion: Ramapithecus was more man- Reason: Homo habilis had the smallest
like while Dryopithecus was more ape- brain capacity. [Pg-141,H]
like. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Reason: Ramapithecus had a thick layer and Reason is correct explanation of
of enamel. [Pg-140,H] Assertion.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
and Reason is correct explanation of but Reason is not the correct
Assertion. explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Answer Key
EVOLUTION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans A B D D D B D B D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A B C C D D B C D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A A D C C D C A B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A C C A B C B C D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C D B A A B D A A A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C B A A A A C D D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C D B B A B B B B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A B A B C C B B A B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D B A A B A A A B D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C C A C C A A D B A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D B A D C B C B C B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A B C B B C B A C A
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B A B B B D B C D B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans C D C B A B C B A D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans B B B D A B

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