Aakash Modules Chemistry-01

Chapter 1
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Some Basic Concepts

of Chemistry
Chapter Contents
z Significant Figures
Matter
z Laws of Chemical
Combination
z Average Atomic Mass Mixture Pure substances
z Mole Concept
z Concentration Terms Heterogeneous Homogeneous Elements Chemical compounds
z Equivalent Concept
SIGNIFICANT FIGURES
z Percentage Composition
It is defined as all the certain digits plus one doubtful digit of that number
z Empirical and Molecular beginning with the first non-zero digit.
Formula z All digits are significant except the leading zeros.
z Chemical Stoichiometry z Zeros to the right of decimal point are significant.
z In scientific notation a number is written as N × 10x where N is a
number with a single non zero digit to the left of the decimal point
and x is an integer. Significant numbers in such a case are counted
in N only.
z In addition and subtraction the result should be reported to the same
numbers of decimal places as that of the term with the least number
of decimal places.
z In multiplication and division the result should be reported to the
same number of significant figures as the least precise term.
z An exact number (e.g. 3, 5, etc.) in an expression is considered to
have an infinite number of significant figures.
Example 1 : Express the following numbers to four significant figures.

(1) 6.608792 (2) 42.392800
Solution : (1) As the fifth digit 7 is greater than 5, therefore, the
result will be expressed as 6.609.
(2) It will be expressed as 42.39. The digit 2 is dropped
since it is less than 5 (the figure is not rounded off
to the next number).
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2 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry NEET
Example 2 : What is the sum of 3.368 kg and 2.02 kg?

Solution : 3.3 68
 2.0 2
5.38 8
The sum is rounded off to 2 decimal places. Therefore, the sum is 5.39 kg.
LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION

Law of Conservation of Mass (Lavoisier 1774)
It deals with the mass of reactants and products and states that in a chemical change the total mass of the
products is equal to the total mass of the reactants. e.g., C + O 2  CO2
12g + 32g = 44g
Example 3 : 10.0 g of CaCO3 on heating gave 4.4 g of CO2 and x g of CaO. Applying law of conservation
of mass, calculate the mass of CaO.
Solution : According to the law,
Mass of reactants = mass of product, here
CaCO3  CO2  CaO

10 g 4.4 g x
Hence, x = 10 g – 4.4 g = 5.6 g

which is mass of CaO.
Law of Constant Composition (Proust 1799)

A chemical compound always contains same elements combined together in same proportion by mass, e.g.,
H2O prepared from any source contains H and O in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass.
Example 4 : Copper oxide was prepared by two different methods. In one case, 1.75 g of the metal gave 2.19 g
of oxide. In the second case, 1.14 g of the metal gave 1.43 g of the oxide, show that the given
data illustrate the law of constant proportions.
Solution : In case I, mass of copper = 1.75 g
Mass of copper oxide = 2.19 g
Mass of copper
% of copper in the oxide  Mass of copper oxide  100
1.75
  100  79.9%
2.19
 % of oxygen = 100 – 79.9 = 20.1%
In case II, mass of copper = 1.14 g
Mass of copper oxide = 1.43 g
1.14
% of copper in the oxide   100  79.7%
1.43
% of oxygen = 100 – 79.7 = 20.3%
Thus, copper oxide prepared by any of the given methods contain copper and oxygen in the same
proportion by mass (within the experimental error). Hence, it proves the law of constant proportions.
NEET Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 3
Law of Multiple Proportion (Dalton 1804)
When two elements combine to form two or more compounds then the masses of one of which combines with
a fixed mass of the other element bears a simple whole number ratio to one another.
Example 5 : Hydrogen and oxygen are known to form two or more compounds. The hydrogen content in one
of these is 5.93% while in the other it is 11.2%. Show that this data illustrates the law of multiple
proportions.
Solution : In the first compound,
Hydrogen = 5.93%
Oxygen = (100 – 5.93)% = 94.07%
In the second compound,
Hydrogen = 11.2%
Oxygen = (100 – 11.2)% = 88.8%
In the first compound the number of parts by mass of oxygen that combine with one part by
94.07
mass of hydrogen   15.86 parts
5.93
In the second compound the number of part by mass of oxygen that combine with one part by
88.8
mass of hydrogen   7.93 parts
11.2
The ratio of masses of oxygen that combine with fixed mass (1 part) by mass of hydrogen is
15.86 : 7.93 or 2 : 1.
Since this ratio is a simple whole number ratio, hence the given data illustrates the law of multiple
proportions.
Gay Lussac’s Law of Combining Volumes

It states that at a given temperature and pressure, when the gases combine they do so in volumes which bear
a simple ratio to each other and also to the volume of gaseous product e.g.,
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g)  2HCl(g) The ratio of their volumes is 1 : 1 : 2
(1L) (1L) (2L)
Avogadro's law
Equal volume of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of
molecules, e.g., 22.4 lit of every gas at STP (standard temperature and pressure) T = 273 K, P = 1 atm
contains equal number of molecules, i.e., 6.022 × 1023.
EXERCISE
1. Add (0.001 + 0.02) upto correct number of significant figures
(1) 0.021 (2) 0.02
(3) 0.003 (4) 0.001
2. The multiple 5 × 0.2 after rounding off will be
(1) 1 (2) 1.0
(3) 1.00 (4) 1.000
3. Round off 0.1576 upto one digit after decimal
(1) 0.1 (2) 1.6 × 10–1
(3) 0.2 (4) 1.6
5.86  3.96
4. The value of will be equal to
2.86
(1) 8 (2) 8.1
(3) 8.11 (4) 8.113
5. The percentage of hydrogen in water and hydrogen peroxide is 11.1 and 5.9 respectively. These figures
illustrate
(1) Law of multiple proportions (2) Law of conservation of mass
(3) Law of constant proportions (4) Law of combining volumes
6. Element X forms five stable oxides with oxygen of formula X2O, XO, X2O3, X2O4, X2O5. The formation of these
oxides explains
(1) Law of definite proportions (2) Law of partial pressures
(3) Law of multiple proportions (4) Law of reciprocal proportions
7. Which of the following represents Avogadro's hypothesis?
(1) Gases react together in volumes which bear a simple ratio to one another
(2) Equal volumes of all gases under same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number
of molecules
(3) Equal volumes of all gases under same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number
of atoms
(4) The rates of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square root of their densities
8. The law of conservation of mass is valid for all the following, except
(1) All chemical reactions (2) Nuclear reactions
(3) Endothermic reactions (4) Exothermic reaction
9. Equal volume of different gases at any definite temperature and pressure have
(1) Equal atoms (2) Equal masses
(3) Equal densities (4) Equal molecules
10. Which of the following pairs of compound illustrate law of multiple proportions?
(1) KOH, CsOH (2) H2O, D2O
(3) Ethane, benzene (4) KCl, KBr
AVERAGE ATOMIC MASS

The average mass of various elements are determined by multiplying the atomic mass of each isotope by its
fractional abundance and adding the value thus obtained. For example, chlorine contains two types of atoms
having relative masses 35 u and 37 u. The relative abundance of these isotopes in nature is in the ratio 3 : 1.
Thus atomic mass of chlorine is the average of these different relative masses as described below:
(35  3)  (37  1)
Average atomic mass of chlorine   35.5u
4
Example 6 : Nitrogen occurs in nature in the form of two isotopes with atomic mass 14 and 15 respectively.
If average atomic mass of nitrogen is 14.0067, what is the % abundance of the two isotopes?
Solution : Let % abundance of N-14 isotope = x
Then % abundance of N-15 isotope = (100 – x)
x  14  (100  x)15
The average atomic mass 
100
14x  (100  x)15

Now,  14.0067
100
or –x = 1400.67 – 1500 = –99.33 or x = 99.33
Thus, % abundance of N-14 isotope = 99.33%
% abundance of N-15 isotope = 0.67%
MOLE CONCEPT
Mole
Mole is a unit which represents 6.022 × 1023 particles (atoms, molecules or ions, etc.) irrespective of their
nature. The number 6.022 × 1023 is called Avogadro’s number and is represented by NA. The calculation of
this number is based on the Faraday’s laws of electrolysis. A mole also represents gram molecular mass
(GMM) of the substance. For gases, a mole also stands for gram molecular volume (GMV), i.e., 22.4 L at
S.T.P.
1 Mole of atoms = 6.022 × 1023 atoms = GAM of element
1 Mole of molecules = 6.022 × 1023 molecules = GMM of substance
z Gram atom is defined as atomic weight expressed in gram. It contains 6.023 ×1023 atoms.
Gram atomic mass

z Mass of 1 atom =
6.022 1023
z 1 amu = 1.66 × 10-24 g ∵ 6.022 × 1023 amu = 1 g

z Atomicity is number of atoms present in a molecule.
Importance of mole concept :
(a) Actual weight of an atom or molecule = weight of one mole of the substance/Avogadro’s number (NA).
(b) Number of atoms or molecules in a given weight of an element or a compound = weight of
substance × NA/gram atomic weight or gram molecular weight.
(c) Number of molecules present in the given volume of gas at STP = Volume of the gas in
litres × NA/22.4.
(d) Weight of the given volume of a gas or vapour at STP = Volume of gas or vapour in litres × gram molecular
weight.
Example 7 : Calculate mass of one atom of nitrogen in gram.

Solution : Mass of 6.022 × 1023 atoms of nitrogen = gram atomic mass of nitrogen = 14 g
Mass of 1 atom = GAM/NA
14 g
 Mass of 1 atom of nitrogen =
6.022  1023
= 2.32 × 10–23 g
Example 8 : Calculate the actual mass of a water molecule in gram.

Solution : Molecular mass of H2O = 18 amu
Weight of 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water = 18 g
18
Weight of one molecule = = 2.99 × 10–23 g
6.022  1023
Example 9 : Calculate the number of molecules in 1 ml of O2 at NTP.
Solution : 22400 ml of O2 at NTP contains = 6.022 × 1023 molecules

23
1 ml of O2 at NTP contains = 6.022  10 molecules
22400
= 2.69 × 1019 molecules
Example 10 : Calculate the number of ions, number of oxygen atom and total charge in 3 gm CO32–.
Mass of species
Solution : Formula units =  6.022  1023
Formula mass
3
=  6.022  1023
60
= 3.0 × 1022 (approx.)
Number of oxygen atoms = Number of formula units × 3
= 3.0 × 3 × 1022 [because one unit has 3 oxygen atom]
= 9.0 × 1022
Charge = 3.0 × 1022 × 3.2 × 10–19
= 9.6 × 103 coulomb
(One formula unit has charge = 1.6 × 2 × 10–19 = 3.2 × 10–19 coulomb)
Example 11 : Calculate the mass of 2.5 g atom of oxygen.
Mass of an element
Solution : Number of g atoms =
Atomic mass
Mass of an element = 2.5 × 16 = 40.0 g
Example 12 : An enzyme contains 5.6% Fe, calculate number of Fe atoms present in 1g of enzyme.
5.6
Solution : Mass of Fe   5.6  10 2 g
100
5.6  102
Number of atoms =  6.022  1023
56
= 6.022 × 1020 atoms
CONCENTRATION TERMS
Molarity (M) :
Number of moles of the solute per litre of the solution.
WB 1000
M = ×
MB Vol. of solution in ml
Example 13 : A given solution of NaOH contains 4.00 g of NaOH per litre of solution. Calculate the molarity
of this solution.
Solution : Molar mass of NaOH = 40.00 g
4.00
4.00 g of NaOH  mole of NaOH = 0.1 mol NaOH
40.00
Mole of solute 0.1
Molarity    0.1 M
Volume of solution in litre 1
Example 14 : How many moles and how many grams of HCl are present in 250 cm3 of 0.5 M HCl solution?
Solution : Molecular mass of HCl = 36.5

Molarity = 0.5 M = 0.5 Mol L–1
Volume of solution = 250 cm3
0.5  250
So, number of mole in 250 cm3 = MV  = 0.5/4 = 0.125 mole
1000
Weight of HCl dissolved = number of moles of HCl × 36.5
= 0.125 × 36.5 = 4.5625 g
Percentage concentrations :
 weight 
z %  : It is amount of solute in gram present in 100 g of solution.
 weight 
w W (solute)
%  × 100
w W (solution)
weight
z % : It is amount of solute in gram present in 100 ml of solution.
volume
w W(solute)
%   100
v V(solution)
Example 15 : A solution is prepared by adding 5 g of a substance (x) to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass
percent of the solute.
Mass of substance (x)

Solution : Mass percent of x = × 100
Mass of solution
5g
= × 100 = 21.74%
5 g of x + 18 g of water
Normality (N) :
Number of gram equivalents of the solute per litre of the solution.
WB 1000
N= × where, WB is weight of solute, EB is Eq. Wt of solute.
EB Vol of solution (in ml)
N
Example 16 : How many gram equivalents of H2SO4 are present in 200 ml of H SO solution?
10 2 4
Solution : Gram equivalents = N × volume of solution in litre
1 200
= 
10 1000
1
=
50
= 0.02 gram equivalent.
Molality (m) :
Number of moles of the solute per 1000 gram of the solvent.
WB 1000
m= × where WB is weight of solute, MB is Mol. Wt of solute, WA is weight of solvent.
MB WA
Example 17 : A solution contains 10 moles of sucrose in 1 kg of solvent. Calculate the molality of solution.
No. of moles of solute 10 mol

Solution : Molality (m)    10 mol kg1
kg of solvent 1 kg
Example 18 : Calculate the molality of a solution containing 5.3 g of anhydrous Na2CO3 in 400 g of water.
5.3 / 106 0.05

Solution : m   0.125 m
400 / 1000 0.4
Mole fraction (X) :
Mole fraction of component 'A' is defined as ratio of number of moles of A to the total number of moles of A and
B in a solution.
nA
χA =
nA +nB
Example 19 : A solution is prepared by adding 360 g of glucose to 864 g of water. Calculate mole fraction of
glucose (molar mass of glucose = 180).
360
Solution : No. of moles of glucose  2
180
864
No. of moles of water   48
18
2 2 1
 Mole fraction of glucose     0.04
2  48 50 25
z Parts per million (ppm) It is defined as number of parts by mass of solute per million parts of solution.
EQUIVALENT CONCEPT
z Equivalent weight of a substance is defined as number of parts by weight of given substance which
combines or displaces 1 part by weight of hydrogen (11.2 L of H2 at STP), 8 parts by weight of oxygen
(5.6 L at STP), 35.5 parts by weight of chlorine (11.2 L at STP).
At.wt.
z Eq. wt. of element =
Valency
Mol. wt. of Acid

z Eq. wt. of Acid =
Basicity of acid
Basicity of acid is defined as number of replaceable hydrogen present in an acid e.g. H2SO4, H2CO3,
COOH and H3PO3 are dibasic acids.HCl, HBr and HNO3 are monobasic acids. H3PO4 is a tribasic acid.
COOH
H4P2O7 is a tetrabasic acid. In case of H3BO3, it can accept one OH– to form [B(OH)4]–. So, the basicity
is one.
Mol. wt.of Base

z Eq. wt. of base =
Acidity of Base
–
Acidity of base is number of OH produced in aqueous solution by base e.g. Al(OH)3 is triacidic base.
In case of NH3, it can accept one H+ to form NH4+. So, acidity is one.
Mol. wt.of salt 106

z Eq. wt. of salt = e.g., Eq. wt. of Na2CO3 = = 53.
Total charge on  ve ions or  ve ions 2
Mol. wt. of acid salt 84

z Eq. wt. of Acid salt = , e.g., Eq. wt. of NaHCO3 =  84 .
Replaceable H atom in it 1
Methods of determining Eq. wt.

(1) Hydrogen displacement method
Mass of metal Eq.wt.of metal E

 
Mass of H2 displaced Eq.wt.of hydrogen 1
(2) Oxide method
Mass of metal Eq. wt. of metal E

 
Mass of oxygen Eq. wt. of oxygen 8
(3) Chloride method
Mass of metal Eq. wt. of metal E

 
Mass of chlorine Eq. wt. of chlorine 35.5
(4) Double decomposition method
AB + CD  AD + BC
Mass of AB Eq. wt. of AB Eq. wt. of A  Eq. wt. of B

 
Mass of AD Eq. wt. of AD Eq. wt. of A  Eq. wt. of D
 Normality equation N1V1 = N2V2 where, V1 and V2 taken in ml or cc.
Law of Chemical Equivalence

Whenever two substances react with each other, their number of gram equivalents or number of gram milliequivalents
will always be equal.
For example,
A  2B  3C  5D
Number of Number of Number of Number of
g-Equivalents = g-Equivalents = g-Equivalents = g-Equivalents
of A reacting of B reacting of C formed of D formed
Example 20 : 100 ml decinormal HCl is mixed to 100 ml seminormal H2SO4 solution. Calculate normality of
resulting mixture.
Solution : NV = N1V1 + N2V2
1 1
N  200   100   100
10 2
60
N  0.3N
200
N N
Example 21 : 200 ml H2 SO4 is mixed into 300 ml NaOH . Calculate normality of resulting mixture.
10 100
1 1
Solution : N  500   200   300
10 100
i.e., N × 500 = 17
 N = 0.034
z Strength of solution is defined as amount of solute dissolved per litre of solution.

Strength = N × eq. wt, where N is normality.
Strength = M × Mol. wt, where M is molarity.
z In volumetric analysis, number of equivalents and milliequivalents of reactants is equal to number of
equivalents or milli equivalents of products.
weight of solute
z % by strength = 100
volume of solution
Volume of solute
% by volume = 100
Volume of solution
% by mass  d  10 % mass  d  10
z M and N 
M. wt of solute Eq. wt of solute
M  1000
m where d is density in g cm-3, M is molarity, m is molality.
1000  d – M  M.wt 
Density of the substance
z Specific gravity = (Reference : usually water)
Density of the reference substance
EXERCISE
11. Which of the following is correct?
(1) The sum of mole fractions of all the components in a solution is always unity
(2) Mole fraction depends upon temperature
(3) Mole fraction is always negative
(4) Mole fraction is independent of content of solute in solution
12. Which of the following methods of expressing concentration varies with temperature?
(1) Molality (2) Weight percent
(3) Molarity (4) Mole fraction
13. What is the molarity of NaOH solution if 250 mL of it contains 1 mg of NaOH?
(1) 10–1 M (2) 10–2 M
(3) 10–4 M (4) 10–3 M
14. How many moles of sodium chloride present in 250 mL of a 0.50 M NaCl solution?
(1) 0.125 mol (2) 0.150 mol
(3) 0.075 mol (4) 0.02 mol
15. A 5 M solution of H2SO4 is diluted from 1 litre to a volume of 100 litres, the normality of the solution will be
(1) 1N (2) 5N
(3) 0.1 N (4) 0.5 N
16. 12 g Mg (at. mass 24) react with dilute mineral acid to produce maximum hydrogen equal to
(1) 0.5 mol (2) 1.5 mol
(3) 1.5 g (4) 0.5 g
17. Volume at NTP of oxygen required to completely burn 1 kg of coal (100% carbon)
(1) 22400 L (2) 22.4 × 103 L
(3) 1.86 × 103 L (4) 1000 L
PERCENTAGE COMPOSITION
Percentage composition of the compound is the relative mass of the each of the constituent element in 100
parts of it.
Mass of that element in one mole of the compound
Mass % of an element   100
Molar mass of the compound
Example 22 : Find the percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate (CaCO3).

Solution : Molecular mass of CaCO3 = 40 + 12 + (16 × 3) = 100 u
Atomic mass of Ca = 40
40
 Percentage of Ca   100  40%
100
EMPIRICAL AND MOLECULAR FORMULA

z Empirical Formula of a compound is the simplest whole number ratio of the atoms of elements
constituting its one molecule. The sum of atomic masses of the atoms representing empirical formula is
called empirical formula mass.
z Molecular Formula of a compound shows the actual number of the atoms of the elements present in
its one molecule. The sum of atomic masses of the atoms representing molecule is called molecular
mass.
z Relationship between Empirical Formula and Molecular Formula

Molecular formula = n × empirical formula where n is a simple whole number having values of 1, 2, 3... etc.
Also, n = Molecular formula mass/Empirical formula mass.
z Mol. wt. = 2 × vapour density
Example 23 : What is the simplest formula of the compound which has the following percentage composition -
Carbon 80%, Hydrogen 20%, if the molecular mass is 30, calculate its molecular formula?
Solution : Calculation of empirical formula

Atomic Constant No. of Sample Simplest whole

Element % age
mass in sample moles ratio no. ratio
C 80 12 80 g 80 6.66 1
= 6.66 =1
12 6.66
H 20 1 20 g 20 = 20 20 3
=3
1 6.66
 Empirical formula is CH3

Calculation of molecular formula
Empirical formula mass = 12 × 1 + 1 × 3 = 15
Molecular mass 30
n  2
Empirical formula mass 15
Molecular formula = Empirical formula × 2

= CH3 × 2
= C2H6
Example 24 : A compound on analysis gave the following results C = 54.54%, H = 9.09% and vapour density
of the compound = 88. Determine the molecular formula of the compound.
Solution : Percentage of Oxygen
100 – (54.54 + 9.09) = 36.37%
Element Percentage Atomic weight Relative No. of atoms Ratio
C 54.54 12 54.54/12 = 4.53 4.53

2
2.27
H 9.09 1 9.09/1 = 9.09 9.09
4
2.27
O 36.37 16 36.37/16 = 2.27 2.27
1
2.27
Empirical formula C2H4O
Empirical formula weight = 44
176
Molecular weight = 2 × 88 =176, n = =4
44
So, molecular formula = 4 × E.F.
= 4 (C2H4O)
= C8H16O4
CHEMICAL STOICHIOMETRY
Stoichiometry is for the determination of quantities of reactants and products involved in balanced chemical
reaction. e.g., H2 + Cl2  2HCl
H2 + Cl2  2HCl
i.e., 1 mole 1 mole 2 mole
NA molecules NA molecules 2NA molecules
2NA atoms 2NA atoms 4NA atoms
(M.wt.)H2 (M.wt.)Cl2 2 × (M.wt.)HCl
Note : For a given balanced equation, information of reactant or product can be determined if information
of one of the species is given either in terms of moles, molecules,weight or atoms.
Example 25 : How many gram of oxygen (O2) is required to completely react with 0.2 g of hydrogen (H2) to yield
water (H2O)? Also calculate the amount of water formed.
Solution : The balanced equation for the reaction is
2H2  O2  2H2 O

2mol 1mol 2mol
4g 32g 36 g
Now, 4 g of H2 require oxygen = 32 g
32
0.2 g of H2 require oxygen   0.2  1.6 g
4
Again, 4 g of H2 produce H2O = 36 g
36
0.2 g of H2 produce H2O   0.2  1.8 g
4
Example 26 : How many moles of lead nitrate is needed to produce 224 litre of oxygen at NTP?
Solution : 2Pb(NO3)2  2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
1 mol or 22.4 L O2 at NTP  2 mol Pb(NO3)2
2  224
224 L O2 at NTP   20 mol Pb(NO3 )2
22.4
Limiting Reagent
In the given reaction if number of quantities (either in gm/mole/molecules) if are present with exact
co-efficients then it is referred as, reactants are present in exact molar proportions required by chemical
equation.
However if exact proportion is not present then the one which gets totally consumed is known as
limiting reagent (Limiting reagent decides the product quantity for given information).
e.g., 2H2 + O2  2H2O
In above e.g., 2 moles of H2 reacts exactly with 1 mole of O2 to give 2 moles of H2O. If given moles of H2
are 4 moles and that of O2 are 0.5, then 0.5 O2 will act as limiting reagent as it is in minimum amount and
product formation is given w.r.t. O2 i.e., 1 mole of H2O.
Example 27 : How much magnesium sulphide can be obtained from 2.00 g of magnesium and 2.00 g of sulphur
by the reaction, Mg + S  MgS? Which is the limiting agent? Calculate the amount of one
of the reactants which remains unreacted. [Mg = 24, S = 32]
Solution : We shall convert the masses into moles
2.00
2.00 g of Mg = = 0.0833 moles of Mg
24
2.00
2.00 g of S = = 0.0625 moles of S
32
From the equation,
Mg + S  MgS
It follows that one mole of Mg reacts with one mole of S. We are given more mole of Mg than
S, therefore, S is the limiting reagent.
From equation, one mole of S gives one mole of MgS, so, 0.0625 mole of S will react with 0.0625
mole of Mg to form 0.0625 mole of MgS.
Molar mass of MgS = 56 g
 Mass of MgS formed = 0.0625 × 56.0 g = 3.5 g of MgS
Mole of Mg left unreacted = 0.0833 – 0.0625 mole of Mg = 0.0208 mole of Mg
Mass of Mg left unreacted = moles of Mg × molar mass of Mg
= 0.0208 × 24 g of Mg
= 0.4992 g of Mg  0.5 g Mg
EXERCISE
18. How many grams of calcium oxide is obtained on heating 100 g of CaCO3(s)?
(1) 50 g (2) 40 g
(3) 56 g (4) 44 g
19. The volume of O2 at STP required for the complete combustion of 4 g CH4 is
(1) 5.6 litre (2) 2.88 litre
(3) 22.4 litre (4) 11.2 litre
20. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) 28 g CO contains 12 g carbon and 16 g oxygen
(2) One mole of CO reacts completely with half mole of O2 to form CO2
(3) N2 and CO have same molar mass
(4) All of these
21. Limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is that reactant which
(1) Left some amount unreacted after the completion of reaction
(2) Reacts completely in the reaction
(3) Does not react in the reaction
(4) All of these
22. 10 g of MnO2 on reaction with HCl forms 2.24 L of Cl2(g) at NTP, the percentage impurity of MnO2 is
MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(1) 87% (2) 25%
(3) 33.3% (4) 13%

nt
me nment
sigAnssig
Assignment
As
Assignment
7. Counting numbers of objects, for example 4 balls
SECTION - A
and 10 eggs have [NCERT Pg. 12]
NCERT Based MCQs
(1) One and two significant figures respectively
1. Number of atoms present in 120 a.m.u. of Ca is (2) One significant figures in both
[NCERT Pg. 16] (3) Infinite significant figures in both
(1) 3 NA (2) 6 NA (4) Two significant figures in both
(3) 3 (4) 6
 w
2. How many moles of aluminium sulphate, Al2(SO4)3 8. Molarity of 29%   H 2 SO 4 solution whose
w
will contain 0.24 mole of oxygen atoms?
density is 1.22 g ml–1, is [NCERT Pg. 23]
[NCERT Pg. 20]
(1) 1.8 M (2) 3.6 M
(1) 2.0 × 102 (2) 2.0 × 10–2 (3) 2.4 M (4) 1.2 M
(3) 3.0 × 103 (4) 1.5 × 10–2 9. In a reaction 3A + B2  A3B2 [NCERT Pg. 20]
3. Which of the following molecule has highest If 180 atoms of A and 100 molecules of B react,
percentage of oxygen by mass? [NCERT Pg. 18] then
(1) H2O (2) CO2 (1) B is limiting reactant and 100 molecules of
(3) CaCO3 (4) C2H5OH A3B2 will be formed
4. How many moles of ethane are required to produce (2) A is limiting reactant and 60 molecules of A3B2
44 g of CO2(g), after the combustion of ethane? will be formed
(3) A is limiting reactant and 180 molecules of
[NCERT Pg. 20]
A3B2 will be formed
(1) 2 (2) 1
(4) B is limiting reactant and 60 molecules of A3B2
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.25 will be formed
5. What is mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) 10. Copper has two naturally occurring isotopes 63Cu
required to make 200 ml of 0.245 molar aqueous and 65Cu. If the average atomic mass of copper is
solution? (Molar mass of CH3COONa = 82 g mol–1) 63.546 u, then natural abundance of lighter isotope
of Cu will be [NCERT Pg. 17]
[NCERT Pg. 23]
(1) 46.4% (2) 27.3%
(1) 3 g (2) 4 g
(3) 54.2% (4) 72.7%
(3) 5 g (4) 6 g
11. Out of the following statements choose an incorrect
6. Which of the following is not related to Dalton’s statement regarding compounds [NCERT Pg. 5]
atomic theory? [NCERT Pg. 16]
(1) Constituents of compound can be separated by
(1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms physical methods
(2) All the atoms of a given element have identical (2) They can be decomposed by chemical
chemical properties methods
(3) Matter can be classified into elements and (3) Properties of a compound are different from
compounds those of its constituent elements
(4) Compounds are formed when atoms of different (4) Elements combine in a fixed proportion by
elements combine in fixed ratio mass in a compound
12. Which of the following are correct statements? 4. Number of carbon atoms present in 22g CO2 is
[NCERT Pg. 13] (1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 3.01 × 1023
(a) Precision refers to closeness of various (3) 3.01 × 10–23 (4) 6.02 × 10–23
measurements for the same quantity. 5. Mass of 1 amu in g is
(b) Accuracy is the agreement of particular value (1) 1.66 × 1024 (2) 1.66 × 10–24
to the true value of the result.
(3) 1.008 (4) 9.1 × 10–28
(c) Accuracy is closeness of various
measurements for the same quantity. 6. The actual mass of a molecule of carbon dioxide is
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (b) & (c) only (1) 7.3 × 10–23 g (2) 6.02 × 10–23 g
(3) (a) & (c) only (4) (a), (b) & (c) (3) 44 g (4) 3.65 × 10–23 g
13. Numerical prefix used for 1012 is [NCERT Pg. 9] 7. How many grams of H 2 SO 4 are contained in
0.05 litres of 0.5 M solution?
(1) Giga (2) Tera
(1) 4.90 g (2) 9.80 g
(3) Peta (4) Exa
(3) 2.45 g (4) 3.98 g
14. The number, 0.00001465 can be correctly
expressed in scientific notation as 8. Volume at NTP of oxygen required to completely
burn 1 kg of coal (100% carbon)
[NCERT Pg. 11]
(1) 22400 L (2) 22.4 × 103 L
(1) 146.5 × 10–6 (2) 146.5 × 10–3
(3) 1.86 × 103 L (4) 1000 L
(3) 1.465 × 10–5 (4) 1.465 × 10–4
9. Avogadro’s number represents the number of
15. 28 g of N2 and 6 g of H2 react to give 34 g of NH3. molecules present in
This statement illustrates the law of
(1) 1 cc gas at STP
[NCERT Pg. 14]
(2) 11.2 L of a gas at STP
(1) Conservation of mass
(3) 1 L of a gas at STP
(2) Definite proportion
(4) 22.4 L of a gas at STP
(3) Multiple proportion
10. Number of moles of NaOH in 27 cm3 of 0.15 M
(4) Reciprocal proportion NaOH solution is
(1) 0.15 (2) 27
SECTION - B (3) 0.00405 (4) 0.0405 M
Objective Type Questions 11. Which of these weighs most?
1. The correct answer of 2.2120 × 0.011 should be (1) 32 g oxygen
reported as
(2) 2 g atom of nitrogen
(1) 0.024332 (2) 0.0243
(3) 0.5 mole of iron
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.024 (4) 3.01 × 1023 atoms of carbon
2. Cu forms two oxides cuprous and cupric oxides 12. Which contains greater number of oxygen atoms?
which law can be proved by the weights of Cu and O
(1) 1 gm of O
(1) Constant composition
(2) 1 gm of O2
(2) Multiple proportions
(3) 1 gm of O3
(3) Conservation of mass (4) All have same number of oxygen atoms
(4) Definite proportions 13. Number of atoms in 1 ml of ammonia gas at STP is
3. The law of conservation of mass is valid for all of the (1) 2.7 × 1019 (2) 1.08 × 1020
following except
(3) 10.8 × 1020 (4) 5.4 × 1019
(1) Oxidation reactions
14. Calculate the number of gram-atoms in a sample of
(2) Nuclear reactions lead (at. wt. 207) weighing 100 grams
(3) Endothermic reactions (1) 0.0483 (2) 0.24
(4) Exothermic reaction (3) 4.8 (4) 0.48
15. Compute the mass in grams of KClO3 necessary to 24. Equivalent mass of H3PO4 for the given reaction,
produce 67.2 litres of oxygen at S.T.P. according H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2  CaHPO4 + 2H2O
to the reaction
M M
2KClO3 (s)  2KCl (s) + 3O2 (g) (1) (2)
1 2
[Molecular weight of KClO3 = 122.5]
M
(1) 96 (2) 2 (3) 2 M (4)
4
(3) 122.5 (4) 245 25. 1 atom of an element weighs 1.792×10–22 g. The
16. Concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in normal blood atomic weight of element is
is approximately 90 mg per 100 mL. What is the (1) 107.92 (2) 17.92
molarity of the glucose solution in blood?
(3) 1.192 (4) 64
(1) 5 M (2) 0.005 M
26. How many moles of Al2O3 will be formed when a
(3) 0.05 M (4) 1 M mixture of 5.4 g of Al and 3.2 g of O2 is heated?
17. How many grams of KCl must be added to 1 1
75.0 grams of water to produce a solution that is (1) (2)
10 15
2.25 molal (m)? [Molecular weight of KCl = 74.5]
(1) 126 g (2) 63 g 1 1
(3) (4)
(3) 45 g (4) 12.57 g 5 20
18. What is the mass of 0.5 moles of ozone (O3) 27. 2 litres of N2 and 2 litres of H2 on complete reaction
molecules? would give ................. litre of NH3
(1) 8 g (2) 16 g (1) 0.665 L (2) 1.0 L
(3) 1.00 L (4) 1.33 L
(3) 24 g (4) 48 g
28. 5.6 L of gas at STP weighs equal to 8 g. The
19. The ratio of Fe3+ and Fe2+ in Fe0.9S1.0 is
vapour density of the gas is
(1) 0.28 (2) 0.5 (1) 32 (2) 16
(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) 64 (4) 8
20. Which of the following is correct according to 29. 2 g of base ‘X’ requires 100 ml of 0.4 N acid for
equivalent concept? complete neutralisation. The equivalent weight of
W1 E1 W base is
(1)  (2) NV(ml) =  1000 (1) 50 (2) 100
W2 E2 E
(3) 5 (4) 150
W
(3) E (4) All of these 30. The normality of 1 M solution of H3PO4
NV(L)
(1) 0.5 N (2) 1 N
21. 3g of H2 react with 29.0 g of O2 to give water. The
(3) 2 N (4) 3 N
maximum amount of H2O formed is
31. A metal oxide MO contains 40% oxygen. The
(1) 32 g (2) 7.30 g equivalent weight of metal is
(3) 0.73 g (4) 27 g (1) 12 (2) 24
22. The number of atoms in 52 a.m.u. of He are (3) 36 (4) 48
(1) 13 atoms N N
(2) 13 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms 32. 10 ml of HCl, 30 ml of HNO 3, 75 ml of
2 10
(3) 52 atoms N
H SO 4, are mixed together. The normality of
(4) 52 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms 5 2
resulting solution is
23. 4 g of solid NaOH was dissolved in water and the
solution was made up to 1000 ml. The whole of (1) 0.02 N (2) 0.5 N
this will neutralized completely (3) 0.2 N (4) 0.025 N
(1) 100 ml of 1 M H2SO4 33. A solution of NaOH is 4 g L–1. What volume of HCl
gas at STP will neutralize, 50 ml of the alkali
(2) 20 ml of 2.5 M H2SO4
solution?
(3) 20 ml of 1.5 M H2SO4 (1) 224 ml (2) 112 ml
(4) 30 ml of 5 M H2SO4 (3) 11200 ml (4) 22.4 ml
34. Conc. H2SO4 is 98% by mass and has density of 3. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid
1.84 g cm -3. What volume of the conc. acid is is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved gaseous
required to make 5.00 litre of 0.5 M H2SO4 solution? mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in
(1) 250 cm3 (2) 136 cm3 g) of the remaining product at STP will be
(3) 13.6 cm3 (4) 136 L [NEET-2018]
35. 1 g mixture of CaCO3 and NaCl reacts completely (1) 1.4 (2) 3.0
N
with 100 ml of HCl. The % of CaCO3 in the (3) 4.4 (4) 2.8
10
mixture is 4. In which case is number of molecules of water
(1) 40% (2) 60% maximum? [NEET-2018]
(3) 50% (4) 80% (1) 18 mL of water
36. 74.5 g of metal chloride contains 35.5 g of chlorine. (2) 0.18 g of water
The equivalent weight of metal is (3) 10–3 mol of water
(1) 74.5 (2) 39 (4) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
(3) 35.5 (4) 7.45 5. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form
37. B has two isotopes 10B (19%), 11B (81%). The two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of
atomic mass of B is XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs
(1) 10.81 (2) 105 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are
(3) 11 (4) 10.5 [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
38. The volume of one lit. water upon vapourisation at (1) 40, 30 (2) 60, 40
STP is nearly (3) 20, 30 (4) 30, 20
(1) 124.3 L (2) 1244.4 L
6. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when
(3) 1 L (4) 22.4 L
50 mL of 16.9% (w/v) solution of AgNO3 is mixed
39. Gram equivalent volume of O2 at STP is with 50 mL of 5.8% (w/v) NaCl solution?
(1) 11.2 L (2) 5.6 L (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
(3) 22.4 L (4) 2.8 L [Re-AIPMT-2015]
40. Equivalent weight of B(OH)3 is (1) 7 g (2) 14 g
Mol.mass Mol.mass (3) 28 g (4) 3.5 g
(1) (2)
3 2
7. If Avogadro number N A , is changed from
Mol.mass M.mass
(3) (4) 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 10 20 mol–1, this
1 4
would change [Re-AIPMT-2015]
SECTION - C (1) The ratio of chemical species to each other in

a balanced equation
Previous Years Questions
1. The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is 1.28 (2) The ratio of elements to each other in a
g/cm3. The molality of the solution is [Given that compound
molecular mass of NaOH = 40 g mol–1] (3) The definition of mass in units of grams
[NEET-2019 (Odisha)]
(4) The mass of one mole of carbon
(1) 1.32 m (2) 1.20 m
8. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample
(3) 1.56 m (4) 1.67 m
decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and
2. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the
required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the
Haber's process is : [NEET-2019]
sample? (At. wt. : Mg = 24) [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 10 (2) 20 (1) 60 (2) 84
(3) 30 (4) 40 (3) 75 (4) 96
9. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in 17. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved
the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If
the two gases in the mixture? [AIPMT-2015] sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar
concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
ions, CO32 are respectively (Molar mass of
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 Na2CO3 = 106 g mol–1) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
10. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a (1) 0.955 M and 1.910 M
closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
(2) 1.910 M and 0.955 M
and how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
(3) 1.90 M and 1.910 M
[AIPMT-2014]
(4) 0.477 M and 0.477 M
(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g
18. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in
(3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
11. When 22.4 litres of H2 (g) is mixed with 11.2 litres produced in this reaction will be
of Cl 2(g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
formed is equal to [AIPMT-2014] (1) 3 mol (2) 4 mol
(1) 1 mol of HCl (g) (2) 2 mol of HCl (g) (3) 1 mol (4) 2 mol
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl (g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl (g) 19. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed
12. 6.02 × 10 20molecules of urea are present in from a reaction between 6.5g of PbO and 3.2 g of
HCl? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution
is [NEET-2013] (1) 0.029 (2) 0.044
(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.001 M (3) 0.333 (4) 0.011
(3) 0.1 M (4) 0.02 M 20. Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density
= 1 g cm–3) is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
13. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid
solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2 M (1) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% (w/w) HNO3. (2) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
[NEET-2013] (3) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3
(1) 90.0 g conc. HNO3 (2) 70.0 g conc. HNO3 (4) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 (4) 45.0 g conc. HNO3 21. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0C
and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of
14. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous
propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same
solution is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
conditions? [AIPMT ((Prelims)-2008]
(1) 1.7700 (2) 0.1770
(1) 10 L
(3) 0.0177 (4) 0.0344 (2) 7 L
15. Which has the maximum number of molecules (3) 6 L
among the following? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(4) 5 L
(1) 8 g H2 (2) 64 g SO2
22. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen
(3) 44 g CO2 (4) 48 g O3 and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71%
16. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the
is (NA=6.02 × 1023 mol–1) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] compound would be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) 6.026 × 1022 (1) CH4O
(2) 1.806 × 1023 (2) CH3O

(3) 3.600 × 1023 (3) CH2O
(4) 1.800 × 1022 (4) CHO
23. An element, X has the following isotopic 30. Change in volume when 100 mL PH3 decomposed
composition; 200X:90%; 199X:8.0%; 202X:2.0%. to solid phosphorus and H2 gas.
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally (1) Increase in 50 mL (2) Decrease in 50 mL
occurring element X is closest to :
(3) Increase in 150 mL (4) Decrease in 200 mL
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
31. In the reaction,
(1) 199 amu
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(l )
(2) 200 amu
when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are
(3) 201 amu
made to react to completion
(4) 202 amu
(1) All the oxygen will be consumed
24. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4
(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL–1. Volume
of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 (3) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced
is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (4) All the ammonia will be consumed
(1) 5.55 mL 32. An organic compound containing C, H and N gave
(2) 11.10 mL the following analysis C = 40%, H = 13.33%,
N = 46.67%. Its empirical formula would be
(3) 16.65 mL
(1) CH4N (2) CH5N
(4) 22.20 mL
(3) C2H7N2 (4) C2H7N
Questions asked prior to Medical Ent. Exams. 2005
33. How many g of dibasic acid (mol. weight 200)
25. How many grams of CH3OH should be added to
water to prepare 150 ml solution of 2 M CH3OH? should be present in 100 ml. of the aqueous
solution to give strength of 0.1 N?
(1) 9.6 × 103 (2) 2.4 × 103
(1) 10 g (2) 2 g
(3) 9.6 (4) 2.4
(3) 1 g (4) 20 g
26. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of
N3– ion is (NA is the Avogadro’s number) 34. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH 3 is
approximately
(1) 2.1 NA (2) 4.2 NA
(1) 4 × 1023 (2) 2 × 2023
(3) 1.6 NA (4) 3.2 NA
(3) 1 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1023
27. The number of mole of oxygen in one litre of air
containing 21% oxygen by volume, under standard 35. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete
conditions, is decomposition of 9.85 gm BaCO3 is (Mol. wt. of
BaCO3 = 197)
(1) 0.0093 mole (2) 2.10 moles
(3) 0.186 mole (4) 0.21 mole (1) 2.24 litre (2) 1.12 litre
28. The amount of zinc required to produce 224 ml of (3) 0.85 litre (4) 0.56 litre
H2 at STP on treatment with dilute H2SO4 will be 36. Percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme
(Zn = 65) is 0.5% by weight (at. wt. = 78.4) then minimum
(1) 65 g (2) 0.065 g molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme
is
(3) 0.65 g (4) 6.5 g
29. Given the numbers : 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm. (1) 1.568 × 104 (2) 1.568 × 103
The number of significant figures for the three (3) 15.68 (4) 2.136 × 104
numbers is
37. 2.5 litre of 1 M NaOH solution mixed with another
(1) 3, 3 and 4 respectively 3 litre of 0.5 M NaOH solution. Then find out
(2) 3, 4 and 4 respectively molarity of resultant solution.
(3) 3, 4 and 5 respectively (1) 0.80 M (2) 1.0 M
(4) 3, 3 and 3 respectively (3) 0.73 M (4) 0.50 M
38. Which has maximum molecules? 45. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas
is (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(1) 7 gm N2 (2) 2 gm H2
(1) 1.800 × 1022
(3) 16 gm NO2 (4) 16 gm O2
(2) 6.026 × 1022
39. In Haber process 30 litres of dihydrogen and
30 litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which (3) 1.806 × 1023
yielded only 50% of the expected product. What (4) 3.600 × 1023
will be the composition of gaseous mixture under 46. The total number of electrons in 2.0 g of D2O to that
the aforesaid condition in the end? in 1.8 g of H2O
(1) 20 litres ammonia, 20 litres nitrogen, 20 litres (1) Double
hydrogen
(2) Same
(2) 10 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 litres
(3) Triple
hydrogen
(4) One fourth
hydrogen 47. From 200 mg of CO2 when x molecules are removed,
2.89 × 10–3 moles of CO2 are left. x will be
(1) 1020 molecules
hydrogen
(2) 1010 molecules
40. The maximum number of molecules is present in
(3) 21 molecules
(1) 15 L of water at STP
(4) 1021 molecules
(2) 15 L of H2O gas at STP
48. If the weight of metal oxide is x g containing y g of
(3) 15 g of ice oxygen, the equivalent weight of metal will be
(4) Same in all
8x
41. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 (1) E 
y
(w/v) and has a density of 1.80 gmL–1. Molarity of
solution 8(y  x)
(2) E 
(1) 1 M (2) 1.8 M x
(3) 10 M (4) 1.5 M
y
(3) E 
42. An element, X has the following isotopic 8
composition 56X : 90% 57X : 8% 59X : 2.0%. The
weighted average atomic mass of the naturally 8(x  y)
(4) E 
occurring element X is closest to y
(1) 56.14 amu (2) 56.8 amu
49. The number of significant figures in 2.653 × 104 is
(3) 60 amu (4) 55 amu
(1) 8
43. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in
(2) 4
a steel vessel and exploded. Volume of gaseous
product after reaction (3) 7
(1) 1 × 22.4 L (2) 2 × 22.4 L (4) 1
(3) 3 × 22.4 L (4) 4 × 22.4 L 50. Mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution of 30%
NaOH is
44. What is the [OH–] in the final solution prepared by
mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of (1) 0.16
0.10 M Ba(OH)2? (2) 0.05
(1) 0.12 M (2) 0.10 M (3) 0.25
(3) 0.40 M (4) 0.0050 M (4) 0.95
7. Na 2 SO 4 is added in water to make 12% w/w

SECTION - D
solution having density 1.2 g/mL. Correct statement
NEET Booster Questions for resulting solution is/are
1. H2 gas and Fe3O4 are produced by the action of (a) Nearly 0.96 mole of Na2SO4 dissolved per kg
27 g of steam on excess of iron. Further H 2 of H2O
gas reacts with excess of N2 to produce NH3.
Number of molecules of NH 3 formed will be (b) Normality of Na ion is equals to normality of
[N0 = Avogadro's constant] SO24  ion
(1) N0 (2) 2N0
(c) Molarity of solution is less than molality
N0
(3) (4) 4N0 (1) (a) & (b)
2
(2) (b) only
2. Consider the following statements.
(3) (c) only
(a) 1 g of N2 and 1 g of O2 contain same number
of nucleons (4) (a) only
(b) Non-stoichiometric compounds do not follow 8. 2 g atom of A reacts with 2 g molecule of B4
law of definite proportions according to following reaction
(c) Equivalent weight of Cu is same in Cu2O and 2A 2 (g)  3B4 (g)  4C
CuO
Correct statement is
Correct statement(s) among the following is/are
(1) A2 will be the limiting reagent
(1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) only
(2) B4 will be the limiting reagent
(3) (a) & (b) (4) (a) only
(3) 2 × N0 atom of C will be formed
3. Equivalent volume of CO2 in the following reaction
will be (4) Both (1) & (3)
Na2CO3  HCl  NaCl  H2O  CO2 9. What volume of water is to be added to 100 cm3
of 0.5 M NaOH solution to make it 0.1 M solution?
(1) 2.24 L (2) 11.2 L
(1) 200 cm3
(3) 44.8 L (4) 5.6 L
(2) 400 cm3
4. Weight of metal and chlorine in a metal chloride are
in 1 : 5 mass ratio. The equivalent weight of the (3) 500 cm3
metal will be (4) 100 cm3
(1) 14.2 (2) 7.1 10. In which of the following measurements, the
(3) 24 (4) 5 number of significant figures is infinite?
5. Incorrect statement among the following is/are (1) A sample of orange juice contains 0.0108 g of
vitamin C
(a) 1 g atom of oxygen is N0 times heavier than
1 atom of oxygen (2) A single hair has mass 0.0050060 g
(b) 1 m3 of H2 (g) at STP weighs 89.2 g (3) The distance between two points was found to
be 5.030 × 102 m
(c) Blue vitrol and green vitrol are isomorphous
substances (4) In a bicycle race, 110 riders started but only
60 finished
(1) (a) only (2) (b) & (c) only
11. What is the amount of H2SO4 (in gram), required
(3) (b) only (4) (c) only
to react completely with 100 L of NH3(g) at NTP?
6. CaSO4.xH2O looses 6.2% of water upon heating.
(1) 218.75 g
The value of x will be
(2) 980.15 g
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 340.50 g
1
(3) 4 (4) (4) 170.25 g
2
12. Consider the following reaction sequence: 17. In a sample of calcium phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2,
CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O  CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) 0.432 mole of phosphorous is present, what is
amount of calcium phosphate is present in the
heat
CaCO3(s)   CaO(s) + H2O(g). sample if the sample is 100% pure? [Ca = 40,
If the percentage yield of the 1st step is 80% and P = 31, O = 16]
that of the 2nd step is 75%, then what is the
(1) 98 g (2) 120 g
expected overall percentage yield for producing
CaO from CaCl2? (3) 67 g (4) 34 g
(1) 50% (2) 70% 18. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. The
(3) 55% (4) 60% molecular formula of the compound cannot be
13. Consider the following reaction of sodium (1) CH2O (2) C6H12O6
thiosulphate with Cl2 : (3) C12H22O11 (4) CH3COOH
Na2S2O3 (aq) + 4Cl2(g) + 5H2O(l) 
19. Select the correct statement(s) :
2NaHSO4(aq) + 8 HCl(aq)
(I) All molecules of a compound have same type
Choose the correct statement of atoms.
(1) 0.3 mole of Na 2S 2 O 3 is required to react
(II) A compound retains the physical properties of
completely with 0.12 mole of Cl2
its constituent elements.
(2) 0.24 mole of HCl will form from 0.12 mole of
(III) The ratio of atoms of different elements in a
Cl2 on complete reaction
compound is fixed.
(3) 1.5 mole of water is required for the reaction of
0.12 mole of Cl2 Select the correct option :
(4) All are correct (1) Only (I) & (II)

14. Which of the following has maximum percentage of (2) Only (II)
nitrogen by mass?
(3) Only (III)
(1) Morphine : C17H19NO3
(4) (I), (II) & (III)
(2) Heroin : C21H23NO5
20. The number of molecules of CaCO3 present in
(3) LSD : C20H25N3O
100 mL of 0.01M CaCO3 solution is
(4) Phencyclidine : C17H25N
(1) 6.022 × 1022 (2) 6.022 × 1020
15. In a synthesis of phosphorous trichloride by mixing
12.0 g of phosphorous with 35.0 g chlorine gas, (3) 6.022 × 1026 (4) 6.022 × 1018
45.2 g of solid phosphorous trichloride is obtained: 21. The concentration of glucose in blood is 0.8 g L–1,
2P(s) + 3Cl2(g)  2PCl3(s) the molarity of glucose in the blood should be
Choose the correct statement (1) 5.5 × 10–3 M (2) 4.4 × 10–5 M
(1) Cl2 is the limiting reagent (3) 5.5 × 10–5 M (4) 4.4 × 10–3 M
(2) The percentage yield of the reaction is 90% 22. Which of the following contains maximum number
(3) 10 g of P is remained unreacted of atoms?
(4) All are correct (1) 1.6 g CH4 (2) 1.7 g NH3
16. Chlorophyll, the green pigment in plants has the (3) 1.8 g H2O (4) 3.4 g H2O2
molecular formula C55H72MgN4O5. If 0.012 g of Mg
23. Equal amounts of solutions of NaOH having
is available to a plant for chlorophyll synthesis,
how many grams of carbon will be required to concentration 10% (wt/wt) and 20% (wt/wt) are
completely use up the magnesium? [C = 12, mixed. What will be molality of the NaOH in the
H = 1, Mg = 12, N = 14, O = 16] resulting solution?
(1) 0.33 g (2) 0.66 g (1) 1.5 m (2) 4.4 m
(3) 0.99 g (4) 1.35 g (3) 3.0 m (4) 0.15 m
24. The mole fraction of carbon in diamond is 32. If x g of a solute having molar mass M g/Mole is
present in y g of solution, then molality of x in the
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.3
solution should be
(3) 0.2 (4) 1
1000x
25. An organic compound is composed of 4.58% H, (1) M y
40.92% C and 54.50% oxygen. What would be the
empirical formula of the compound? 1000x
(2) M(y  x)
(1) C3H4O3 (2) C3H5O
(3) C4H8O (4) CH2O 1000y
(3)
26. A solid element forms gaseous oxide without M x
change in volume. If vapour density of oxide is 32, 1000y
what is the equivalent weight of solid element? (4) M(x  y)
(1) 8 (2) 12
33. Consider the following two unbalanced reactions:
(3) 16 (4) 24

KClO3   KCl + O2
27. A solution is prepared by adding 4 g of a
substance ‘A’ and 6g of a substance ‘B’ to 30 g of 
Mg + O2   MgO
water. What is the mass percentage of ‘B’ in the
solution? The number of moles of MgO produced when
oxygen produced by 1 mole of KClO3 is completely
(1) 10% (2) 20% reacted with Mg is
(3) 15% (4) 13.33% (1) 1 mole
28. Molarity of NaOH in 200 mL of an aqueous solution (2) 2 mole
of it is 1M, find the change in molarity if 2g of
(3) 3 mole
NaOH is added to it.
(4) 4 mole
(1) 1.25 M (2) 0.25 M
34. The vapour density of a mixture of NO2 and N2O4
(3) 0.50 M (4) 0.75 M
is 39 at 25ºC. What is the mass of NO2 present
29. An organic compound contains 50% oxygen and in 100 g of the mixture?
12.5% hydrogen by mass, then mole fraction of
(1) 17.9 g
hydrogen in the compound would be
(2) 8.4 g
4 2
(1) (2) (3) 33.2 g
5 3
(4) 66.4 g
3 1
(3) (4) 35. A compound contains 0.5% of S. If the number of
4 5
‘S’ atom present per molecule is 2, then the
30. Calcium carbonate reacts with HCl to give CaCl2
molecular mass of the compound is
and CO2 according to the reaction:
(1) 1600
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq)  CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) +
H 2 O(l) What mass of 20% impure CaCO 3 is (2) 12800
required to react completely with 250 mL of 0.50 (3) 6400
M HCl?
(4) 3200
(1) 6.25 g (2) 5 g
36. Which of the following will contain maximum
(3) 4.75 g (4) 7.8 g
number of molecules?
31. What volume of 63% HNO3 (wt/wt) having density
(1) 100L CO2(g) at NTP
1.4g mL–1 is required to prepare 200 mL of 0.7M
HNO3 solution? (2) 10g of H2(g) at NTP
(1) 20 mL (2) 40 mL (3) 1L of H2O(l)
(3) 15 mL (4) 10 mL (4) 1000 g of C12H22O11(s) at NTP
37. Which of the following is correct for concentrated 44. The number of mole of nitrogen in one litre of air
and diluted solution of same substance? containing 10% nitrogen by volume, under standard
(1) M1V1 + M2V2 = M(V1 + V2) conditions, is
(2) M1V1 = M2V2 (1) 0.03 mole

(3) 2M1V1 = (V1 + V2)M (2) 2.10 moles
(4) M1V1 – M2V2 = M(V1 + V2) (3) 0.186 mole
38. Volume of 1 equivalent of O2(g) at STP is (4) 4.46 × 10–3 mole
(1) 5.6 L (2) 11.2 L 45. Number of significant figures in 6.62 × 10–34.
(3) 22.4 L (4) 20 L
(1) Two
39. The total number of electrons in 4.2 g of N3– ion is
(2) Three
(NA is the Avogadro’s number)
(3) Four
(1) 2.1 NA (2) 4.2 NA
(3) 3 NA (4) 3.2 NA (4) One
40. Suppose that A and B form the compounds B2A3 46. Liquid benzene (C6H6) burns in oxygen according
and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 9 g and to 2C6H6 (l) + 15O2(g)  12CO2(g) + 6H2O(g)
0.1 mole of B2A weighs 10 g, the atomic weight of How many litres of O 2 at STP are needed to
A and B respectively are complete the combustion of 39 g of liquid benzene?
(1) 30 and 40 (1) 74 L
(2) 40 and 30 (2) 11.2 L
(3) 20 and 5 (3) 22.4 L
(4) 15 and 20 (4) 84 L
41. Number of Fe atoms in 100 g Haemoglobin if it
47. 1 mol of KClO 3 is thermally decomposed and
contains 0.33% Fe. (Atomic mass of Fe = 56)
excess of aluminium is burnt in the gaseous
(1) 0.035 × 1023 product. How many moles of Al2O3 are formed?
(2) 35 (1) 1
(3) 3.5 × 1023 (2) 2
(4) 7 × 108 (3) 1.5
42. The number of electrons in 1.6 g of CH 4 is (4) 3
approximately
48. The amount of zinc required to produce 1.12 ml of
(1) 25 × 1024 H2 at STP on treatment with dilute HCl will be
(2) 1.5 × 1024 (1) 65 g
(3) 6 × 1023 (2) 0.065 g
(4) 3.0 × 1024 (3) 32.5 × 10–4 g
43. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is
(4) 6.5 g
6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm whose radius and length are
7 Å and 10 Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023, 49. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete
find molecular weight of virus. decomposition of 9.85 g Na2CO3 is
(1) 15.4 kg/mol (1) 2.24 litre
(2) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol (2) Zero

(3) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol (3) 0.85 litre
(4) 3.08 × 103 kg/mol (4) 0.56 litre
50. One litre of CO2 is passed through red hot coke. M

56. When 100 ml of H SO is mixed with 500 ml of
The volume becomes 1.4 litres at same 10 2 4
temperature and pressure. The composition of M
NaOH then nature of resulting solution and
products is 10
normality of excess of reactant left is
(1) 0.8 litre of CO2 and 0.6 litre of CO
N
(2) 0.7 litre of CO2 and 0.7 litre of CO (1) Acidic,
5
(3) 0.6 litre of CO2 and 0.8 litre of CO
N
(4) 0.4 litre of CO2 and 1.0 litre of CO (2) Basic,
5
51. An organic compound containing C and H gave the N
(3) Basic,
following analysis C = 40%, H = 6.7%. Its 20
empirical formula would be N
(4) Acidic,
(1) CH4 (2) CH2O 10
(3) C2H4O2 (4) C2H4 57. Mole fraction of solvent in aqueous solution of
NaOH having molality of 3 is
52. How many litre of oxygen at STP is required to burn
60 g C2H6? (1) 0.3 (2) 0.05
(1) 22.4 L (2) 11.2 L (3) 0.7 (4) 0.95
(3) 22.4 × 7 L (4) 8.5 L 58. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4
by mass and has a density of 1.80 gmL–1. Volume
53. For the formation of 3.65 g of HCl gas, what volume
of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4
of hydrogen gas and chlorine gas are required at solution is
NTP conditions?
(1) 16.65 mL (2) 22.20 mL
(1) 1 L, 1 L (2) 1.12 L, 2.24 L
(3) 5.55 mL (4) 11.10 mL
(3) 3.65 L, 1.83 L (4) 1.12 L, 1.12 L
59. Ammonia gas is passed into water, yielding a
54. The crystalline salt Na2SO4·xH2O on heating loses solution of density 0.93 g/cm 3 and containing
55.9% of its mass and becomes anhydrous. The 18.6% NH3 by weight. The mass of NH3 per cc of
formula of crystalline salt is the solution is
(1) Na2SO4·5H2O (2) Na2SO4·7H2O (1) 0.17 g/cm3 (2) 0.34 g/cm3
(3) Na2SO4·2H2O (4) Na2SO4·10H2O (3) 0.51 g/cm3 (4) 0.68 g/cm3
55. A certain amount of a metal whose equivalent mass 60. 6.025 × 1020 molecules of acetic acid are present
is 28 displaces 0.7 L of H2 at S.T.P. from an acid in 500 ml of its solution. The concentration of
hence mass of the element is solution is
(1) 1.75 g (2) 0.875 g (1) 0.002 M (2) 10.2 M
(3) 3.50 g (4) 7.00 g (3) 0.012 M (4) 0.001 M

FOR MORE MATERIAL CLICK HERE
Chapter 2
Structure of Atom
Chapter Contents
z Fundamental Particles FUNDAMENTAL PARTICLES
z Atomic Models
Name Symbol Absolute Relative Mass/kg Mass/u Approx.
z Electromagnetic Radiation charge/C charge mass/u
z Max Planck Theory Electron e –1.6022 × 10–19 –1 9.10939 × 10–31 0.00054 0

–19 –27
Proton p +1.6022 × 10 +1 1.67262 × 10 1.00727 1
z Photoelectric Effect
–27
Neutron n 0 0 1.67493 × 10 1.00867 1
z Bohr Atomic Model
z The Spectrum of Hydrogen
ATOMIC MODELS
z Dual Behaviour of Matter
z The atomic model of matter was proposed by John Dalton, theory
z Heisenberg’s Uncertainty
Principle named as ‘Dalton’s Atomic Theory’.
z Atom is made up of small particles i.e. three fundamental
z Quantum Numbers
particles called electron, proton and neutron discarded the
z Filling of Obritals in Atom indivisible nature of the atom proposed by John Dalton.
z J.J. Thomson and Ernst Rutherford laid the foundation of the
modern picture of the atom.
z J.J. Thomson, the discoverer of electron, proposed in 1898, in
which he assumed an atom to consist of a uniform sphere of
positive electricity, with electrons embedded into it in such a way
that it gives most stable electrostatic arrangement, model known
as “plum pudding”.
z Rutherford Nuclear Model of Atom was given by projecting
alpha particles which have very high energy. The results of
Rutherford’s experiment were quite unexpected.
(i) Most of the -particles passed through the gold foil
undeflected.
(ii) A small fraction of the alpha particles was deflected by small
angles.
(iii) A very few alpha particles bounced back.
28 Structure of Atom NEET
Nucleus Slightly deflected

Largely deflected -particles
-particles
Alpha Undeflected
particles -particles
Slightly deflected
-particles
z The alpha-particle - scattering experiment proposed the nuclear model of atom, according to which
(i) An atom consists of nucleus at centre
(ii) The positive charge is due to proton
(iii) The total mass is centered at nucleus.
(iv) Electron move around the nucleus in circular path
(v) Number of electrons in an atom is equal to the number of protons in it.
z Drawbacks of Rutherford model is due to the fact that it can’t explain the atomic model according to
classical electromagnetic theory.
Note:
z The radius, r of the nucleus of an atom is related to its mass number A, according to the relation.
r = R0A1/3
R0 = 1.4 × 10–15 m and A is mass number
1
z The nuclear radius is about of the atomic radius.
10,0000
z The radii of nuclei are usually expressed in terms of Fermi (1 fermi = 10–15 m)
EXERCISE
1. The charge to mass ratio of electron was found to be
(1) 1.6022 × 10–19 C kg–1 (2) 1.925 × 1012 C kg–1
(3) 1.758 × 1011 C kg–1 (4) 1.869 × 1013 C kg–1
2. When -rays strike a thin gold foil then
(1) Most of the -rays do not pass through the gold foil
(2) Most of the -rays get deflected back
(3) Most of the -rays get deflected through small angles
(4) Most of the -rays pass through without any deviation
NEET Structure of Atom 29
3. Nucleus was discovered by
(1) Rutherford (2) Chadwick
(3) Bohr (4) Thomson
4. Metal of which foil was used in Rutherford experiment?
(1) Silver (2) Gold
(3) Platinum (4) Iron
ELECTROMAGNETIC RADIATION
J.C. Maxwell (1864) suggested that radiant energies (the energy which is radiated such as heat, light,
X-rays etc) travel in space with the velocity of light (3.0 × 108 ms–1) in the form of wave. These waves are
known as electromagnetic waves or radiations. The characteristics of wave motion are :
Wavelength ()
Peak
Amplitude
Trough
z Wavelength () : The distance between two nearest crests or troughs is known as wavelength.
It is expressed in meters, picometers (pm), nanometers (nm) or Angstrom (Å) units (1 pm = 10–3 nm
= 10–2 Å = 10–10 cm = 10–12 m).
z Frequency () : The number of times a wave passes a given point in one second is known as frequency
of the wave. It is expressed in Hz (hertz) or cps (cycles per second) units (1 Hz = 1 cps).
z Velocity (c) : The distance travelled by the wave in one second is known as velocity of the wave. It is
expressed in ms–1 and related to  and  as : c = 
or v = c/ ... (1)
z Wave number ( v ) : It is reciprocal of wavelength i.e., the number of wavelengths per metre or
v = 1/ m–1 ... (2)
v = /c m (cf. Eq. 1)
–1
... (3)
z Amplitude (a) : It is the height of the crests or depth of the trough of a wave. It determines the intensity
(brightness) of the beam of light.
Electromagnetic Spectrum : The arrangement of the various types of electromagnetic radiations in the order
of their increasing wavelengths or decreasing frequencies is known as electromagnetic spectrum.
(a)
(b)
(c) Cosmic rays -rays X-rays UV visibble IR microwave radiowave

Wavelength increases
Frequency decreases
MAX PLANCK THEORY
Max Planck (1901) introduced Quantum theory. According to this theory the radiation energy is emitted or
absorbed not continuously but discontinuously in the form of small packets or bundles of energy known as
quanta. Einstein (1905) extended this theory and postulated that the energy like light, is not only emitted
or absorbed in the form of bundles but also propagated in the form of bundles in space. Each bundle is called
a photon, which is considered to be a massless bundle of energy. The energy (E) of the photon is given by
the expression:
E = h
where h is Planck’s constant. Its value is equal to 6.626 × 10–34 J s (in S.I. units) or 6.626 × 10–27 erg s
(in C.G.S. units).
Example 1 : Calculate the frequency and wavelength of photon with energy 3.98 × 10–15 J.
Solution : Energy of photon = 3.98 × 10–15 J
(a) Frequency of photon :
E = h (Planck’s quantum theory)
3.98 × 10–15 J = 6.626 × 10–34 Js × 
3.98  10 15 J

6.626  10 34 Js
Frequency = 6.0  1018 s 1(Hz)

(b) Wavelength of photon :
c


3  10 8 ms 1

6.0  1018 s 1
= 0.5 × 10–10 m
Wavelength  0.5 Å (1 Å = 10 10 m)
Example 2 : A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm. Calculate the number of
photons emitted per second by the bulb.
Solution : Power of bulb = 100 watt = 100 Js–1
Energy
Power 
Time
hc 6.626  10 34 Js  3  10 8 ms 1
Energy of photon (E) = h =   4.969 × 10 19 J
 400  10 9 m
Power of the bulb 100 Js 1

Number of photons emitted = 
Energy of one photon 4.969  10 19 J
= 2.012 × 1020 photons per second
PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT
This phenomenon of ejection of electrons from the surface of a metal when light of suitable frequency strikes
on it is called photoelectric effect. The emitted electrons are called photoelectrons.
Incident light Electron
h 1 mv2 = h – h
Metal 2 0
1
` Therefore, h  h 0  me v 2
W0 = Work 2
Function = h 0 Work (K.E.)
function
The kinetic energy of the ejected electrons (photoelectrons) depend upon the frequency of the light used.
KE of ejected
KE of ejected
electron
electron
0 = Threshold
frequency
0
Frequency of light () Intensity of light
(Frequency constant)
(a) (b)
Number of Photoelectrons : The number of electrons ejected is proportional to the intensity or brightness
of light striking the metal but do not depend upon the frequency of light.
Higher intensity light

Number of electrons
Lower intensity light

ejected
Energy
threshold
0
Frequency
Example 3 : What is the work function (w0) of the metal whose threshold frequency (0) is 5.2 × 1014 s–1?
Solution : Threshold frequency of metal (0) = 5.2 × 1014 s–1
Work function (w0) = h0
w0 = 6.626 × 10–34 Js × 5.2 × 1014 s–1
Work function (w0) = 3.44 × 10–19 J
Example 4 : Calculate the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted when a light of frequency
2 × 1016 Hz is irradiated on a metal surface with threshold frequency (0) equal to 8.68 × 1015 Hz.
Solution : h  h 0  KE
Threshold frequency (0) = 8.68 × 1015 Hz (s–1)

Frequency of light () = 2 × 1016 Hz
KE = h( – 0)
= 6.626 × 10–34 (2 × 1016 – 8.68 × 1015)
KE = 7.5 × 10–18 J
Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons = 7.5 × 10–18 J
BOHR ATOMIC MODEL
The model is based on the quantum theory of radiation and the classical law of physics.
Postulate
z The path of electron is circular. The force of attraction between nucleus and electron is equal to centrifugal
force of the moving electron.
h
z Electron can revolve only in those orbits whose angular momentum is an integral multiple of . i.e.,
2
nh . (m = mass of electron, v = velocity of electron, r = radius of orbit)
mvr 
2
z Electron remains in stationary orbit where it does not lose or gain energy.
z Each stationary orbit is with definite amount of energy (E) and E1 < E 2 < E 3 .......... and also
(E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3).
The Energy of Electron :
Total energy (E) = K.E. + P.E.
22 Z2me 4
En  
n2h2
where, n = 1, 2, 3 .......
E = energy of electron in nth orbit
Z = nuclear charge
e = charge of electron
m = mass of electron
h = planck’s constant
Z2
i.e., En  E1  for H-like atom
n2
21.79  10 19 Z2
i.e., E   J per atom
n2
13.6
 Z2 eV per atom
n2
313.6  Z 2
=  kcal/mol
n2
1312
=  kJ/mol
n2
Radii of Orbits :
n2h2
r
4 mkZe2
2
By putting value of h, , m, e and k

n2
r  0.529  Å
Z
n2
r  0.529   1010 m
Z
n2
r  0.529  108  cm
Z
Velocity of Electron :
Z
v = 2.188 × 108 × cm/sec
n
Example 5 : Calculate the radii of 2nd Bohr orbit of Li2+.
52.9 (n2 )
Solution : Radii (rn) = pm
Z
Z of Li2+ =3
52.9  (2)2
r2  pm
3
r2  70.53 pm
Example 6 : Calculate the energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of He+.
 Z2  Z2
Solution : En = –2.18 × 10–18  2
n  J = –13.6 2 eV = 54.4 eV
  n
Z=2
n=1
2.18  10 18  (2)2

E1 =
(1)2
E1 = –8.72 × 10–18 J
THE SPECTRUM OF HYDROGEN
When energy is supplied, the electron moves to higher energy shells depending on the amount of energy
absorbed, when it comes back it emits the energy.
For e.g. : If electron comes back from energy level having energy E2 to energy level having energy E1, then
energy of emitted radiation is given as E = E2 – E1 = h.
Thus, different spectral lines in the spectra of atoms corresponds to different transition of electrons from higher
energy level to lower energy levels.
Spectral Series n1 n2 Region
(i) Lyman Series 1 2, 3, 4... UV
(ii) Balmer Series 2 3, 4 .... Visible
(iii) Paschen Series 3 4, 5, 6... IR
(iv) Brackett Series 4 5, 6, 7 .... IR
(v) Pfund Series 5 6, 7, .... IR
(vi) Humphrey Series 6 7, 8 ..... Far IR
0 n=
Interpretation of Hydrogen Spectrum n=6
n=5
n=4
Paschen series (infrared)
n=3
Rydberg Equation
Balmer series (visible)
The wavelength (), wave number (  ) for the electromagnetic n=2
Green
Red
Blue
Violet
radiation can be calculated by Rydberg equation.
1 1 1
  R  Z2  2  2 
  n1 n2 
Z = Atomic number
R = 109677 cm–1 = Rydberg constant
Energy
n2 = higher orbit Lyman series (ultraviolet)
n1 = lower orbit
Total number of spectral lines
n(n  1)
(i)  when electron jumps from nth level to
2 n=1
ground level.
(ii) (n2  n1)(n2  n1  1)  when electron returns from n2 to n1.

2
Example 7 : Calculate the frequency of the spectral line corresponding to n1 = 2 and n2 = 4. To which spectral
series does this line belong?
 1 1
Solution :   R 2  2 
n 
 1 n2 
n1 = 2
n2 = 4
1


R = Rydberg constant = 109677 cm–1
Substituting the values in the equation
1  1 1  1
 109677  2   cm
2 
  (2) (4) 
1
= 20,564.43 cm–1

 = 4.86 × 10–5 cm
  4.86  10 7 m
c
Frequency () =

3  10 8 ms 1

4.86  10 7 m
 = 6.172 × 1014 s–1
So, the frequency of spectral line is 6.172 × 1014 s–1.
Since ni = 2, so it belongs to Balmer series.
Failures of Bohr’s Theory :
 It cannot explain the spectra of atoms having more than one electron.
 It failed to explain fine structure i.e. why there are number of component lines lying close together when
the spectra of hydrogen is examined by a powerful spectroscope.
 Since there is uncertainty of the position and velocity of the electron hence the concept of electron
jumping from one orbit to another is not justified.
 It does not throw light on the distribution and arrangement of electrons in atoms as well as shape of
the molecules, formed by the combination of atoms.
 It could not explain the spilliting of spectral lines in magnetic field (zeeman effect) and spilliting of spectral
lines in the strong electric field (Stark effect).
EXERCISE
5. The correct sequence of frequency of the electromagnetic radiations in electromagnetic spectrum is
(1) X-rays > UV rays > Microwaves > Radio waves
(2) Radio waves > Microwaves > UV rays > X-rays
(3) UV rays > X-rays > Radio waves > Microwaves
(4) Radio waves > Microwaves > X-rays > UV rays
6. The value of n1 for Paschen series of hydrogen spectrum is (n1 = orbit number in which electron falls)
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
7. Bohr theory is not applicable for
(1) He+ (2) Li2+
(3) Be+ (4) H
8. What is the energy associated with 3rd energy shell of hydrogen atom?
(1) –2.18 × 10–18 J (2) –0.342 × 10–19 J
(3) –0.726 × 10 J–18 (4) –2.42 × 10–19 J
9. Find out the incorrect match.
(1) Electron – Dual nature
(2) Rainbow – Discontinuous spectra
(3) Atoms – Line spectra
(4) Particle nature – Photoelectric effect
10. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least
energetic photon?
(1) n = 6 to n = 5 (2) n = 5 to n = 3
(3) n = 6 to n = 1 (4) n = 5 to n = 4
DUAL BEHAVIOUR OF MATTER

Light possesses both wave and particle character i.e., dual character. de-Broglie proposed that just like light,
all the matter should exhibit both particle and wave-like properties i.e., dual behaviour.
de-Broglie gave an expression for the wavelength and momentum of all material particles.
h 1 h
Wavelength   ; mv 2  K.E.   
mv 2 2(K.E.)m
where, ‘m’ is the mass of the particle

h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10–34 Js
‘v’ is the velocity of the particle
Example 8 : Calculate the wavelength associated with cricket ball of mass of 150 g travelling with a velocity
of 25 ms–1.
Solution : According the de-Broglie equation,
h

mv
h = Planck’s constant
= 6.626 × 10–34 Js
m = 150 g
150
= kg
1000
v = 25 ms–1
Putting in equation, we get
6.626  10 34 Js

 150 
 kg  25 ms 1
1000 
  1.766  10 34 m (J = kg m2 s 2 )
Example 9 : If the KE of electron is 2.5 × 10–24 J, then calculate its de-Broglie wavelength.
1
Solution : Kinetic energy = mv 2
2
1/2
 2 KE 
v 
 m 
Since, mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Then substituting the values
1/2
 2  2.5  10 24 J 
v , (1 J = kg m2 s 2 )
 9.1 10 31 kg 
 
v = 2.34 × 103 ms–1
h
Wavelength () =
mv
6.626  10 34 Js
=
(9.1 10 31 kg)(2.34  10 3 ms 1 )
= 311.1 × 10–9 m, (1 nm = 10–9 m)
  311.1 nm
HEISENBERG’S UNCERTAINTY PRINCIPLE
It states that the position and momentum of microscopic moving particles cannot be determined
simultaneously with accuracy or certainty. Mathematically, this law is expressed as
h
x  p 
4
where, x = Uncertainty in the position

p = Uncertainty in the momentum
h = Planck’s constant
Example 10 : Calculate the uncertainty in the position of a cricket ball of mass 150 g if the uncertainty in its
velocity is 3.52 × 10–24 ms–1.
Solution : Mass of the ball = 150 g = 0.150 kg
Uncertainty in velocity (v) = 3.52 × 10–24 ms–1
h
x  mv 
4
6.626  10 34 kg m2 s 1
x 
4  3.142  (0.150 kg)  (3.52  10 24 ms 1 )
x = 10–10 m
x  1 Å (1 Å = 10 10 m)
QUANTUM NUMBERS
The set of four integers required to define the state of electron in an atom are called quantum numbers.
The set of quantum numbers are
(1) Principal quantum number (n)
(2) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
(3) Magnetic quantum number (m)
(4) Spin quantum number (s)
(1) Principal quantum number, (n) : It has integral values of 1, 2, 3, 4 ...... etc., also denoted as K, L,
M, N .... etc.
(2) Azimuthal quantum number, (l) : tells us about the subenergy shell of electron. For each main energy
shell there can be ‘n’ number of subenergy shells. These subenergy shells are designated by different
values of l. For each value of n, l can have values from 0, 1, 2, 3 ... n – 1.
(3) Magnetic quantum number, (m) : explains the behaviour of an electron in the external magnetic field
or in other words it tells us about orbitals of the electrons. The values of m gives the number of orbitals
associated with a particular sub shell in shell. For each value of l, m can have values from –l to +l
including zero.
e.g., when l = 1, m = -1, 0, +1; l = 2, m = -2, -1, 0, +1, +2
(4) Spin quantum number, (s) : gives an idea about the electron spinning on its axis. Each spinning
electron can have two values of + 1/2 (clockwise spin) and – 1/2 (anticlockwise spin).
Number of Number of
Orbital
n l m Orbitals in Orbitals in
Notation
Subshell Shells
1 0 0 1s 1 1
2 0 0 2s 1 4
2 1 –1, 0, +1 2p 3 4
3 0 0 3s 1 9
3 1 –1, 0, +1 3p 3 9
3 2 –2, –1, 0, +1, +2 3d 5 9
4 0 0 4s 1 16
4 1 –1, 0, +1 4p 3 16
4 2 –2, –1, 0, +1, +2 4d 5 16
–3, –2, –1, 0, +1,

4 3 4f 7 16
+2, +3
FILLING OF ORBITALS IN ATOM
The electrons in various orbitals are filled according to certain rules.
An understanding of these rules/principles enables us to write electronic configuration of the elements.
z Aufbau principle : It states that electrons are filled in the orbitals in order of increasing energy. The
energy of the orbitals is governed by (n + l) rule. In simple words, orbitals of lower energy are filled first
followed by orbitals of higher energy.
(n + l) rule : Orbitals having lowest value of (n + l) will be filled first. If two orbitals have same value of
n + l, the one having lower value of n will be filled first.
The energy of atomic orbitals for hydrogen like atom is
1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p = 4d = 4f
The energy of orbitals other than H atom depend upon (n + l) value and varies as
1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s < 4d < 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d < 6p < 7s < 5f < 6d
z Pauli’s exclusion principle : It states that no two electrons can have the same value of the four
quantum numbers. This implies that no two electrons are alike in an atom or in other words an orbital
can accommodate a maximum of two electrons.
z Hund’s rule : This rule states that pairing of the electrons in degenerate orbitals, belonging to a particular
sub shell (i.e. p, d and f), does not take place till each orbital is occupied by a single electron with
parallel spin. The anomalies are observed occuring in a few configurations (particularly transition elements)
for example (i) chromium has a configuration of 3d5 4s1 and not 3d4 4s2 and (ii) copper has a configuration
of 3d10 4s1 and not 3d9 4s2. This is attributable to the extra stability of half filled or completely filled set
of degenerate orbitals.
Causes of Stability of Completely Filled and Half-filled Subshells
The reasons for the stability of completely filled and half-filled subshells are as follows :
1. Symmetrical distribution of electrons : It is a known fact that the symmetry leads to stability. So, the
half-filled and fully-filled orbitals are symmetrical, hence stable. Moreover this type of electronic configuration
is even favoured by energy factor. The electrons in the 3d subshell have equal energy, but they just differ
in their spacial distribution. This results in less shielding of one another. Due to small shielding, the
electrons are pulled closer to the nucleus. And as the electrons move closer to the nucleus, their energy
decreases (more negative). Further this decrease in energy leads to stability.
2. Exchange energy : Electrons with the same spin have a tendency to exchange their positions when they
are present in the degenerate orbitals of a subshell. The energy released during this exchange is called
exchange energy.
More are the number of electrons with identical spin, more are the number of ways of exchanging with
other electrons, more will be the energy released called exchange energy. Moreover, we know that decrease
in energy leads to stability.
Example :
Case I : If the electronic configuration of chromium was [Ar]3d 4 4s 2, then electrons could be exchanged
in only six ways as shown below :
1 2 3
3 exchanges by 2 exchanges by 1 exchange by

electron 1 electron 2 electron 3
3  2  1  6 ways
Possible exchanges for a d 4 configuration
Case II : Actual configuration of chromium is [Ar]3d 5 4s1
1 2 3 4
4 exchanges by 3 exchanges by 2 exchanges by 1 exchange by

electron 1 electron 2 electron 3 electron 4
Possible exchange for a d 5 configuration
So, in total 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 ways of exchange
Here, we conclude that in actual half-filled configuration of chromium more are the number of exchanges
i.e., 10 in contrast to 6 exchanges in the expected configuration.
Similarly, the exchange energy of d 10 electronic configuration is more than for d 9 configuration. Therefore,
the d 10 electronic configuration of copper is stable.
Example 11 : Give the possible values of l, ml and ms for electrons having n = 2.

Solution : For ‘n’ = 2, the permitted values of ‘l’ are 0 to (n – 1)
i.e., 0, 1
So, the ‘l’ values are 0 and 1.
ml has values –l through 0 to +l.
1 1
ms : There are two ms values for each value of ml i.e.,  and –
2 2
l ml ms
0 0 ±1/2
1 –1 ±1/2
0 ±1/2
+1 ±1/2
Example 12 : From the following sets of quantum numbers, state which are possible?
(i) n = 0, l = 0, ml = 1, ms = +1/2 (ii) n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = –1/2

(iii) n = 2, l = 0, ml = 3, ms = +1/2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = –1/2
Solution : (i) n = 0, l = 0, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
These set of quantum numbers are not possible as ‘n’ cannot have value ‘0’.
(ii) n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = –1/2
n=2
l = 0 to (n – 1)
l = 0, 1
For l = 1, ml = –1, 0, +1
So, these quantum numbers are possible.
(iii) n = 2, l = 0, ml = 3, ms = +1/2
Not possible, as ml = 3 value here is not permissible.
ml has values = –l, 0, ....., + l
Possible values of ml = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
(iv) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = –1/2
Possible
Note:
z Number of subshells in nth shell = n

Number of orbitals in nth shell = n2
Number of electrons in nth shell = 2n2
Number of orbitals in subshell = 2l + 1
Number of electrons in subshell = 2(2l + 1)
h
z Orbital angular momentum = l (l  1)
2
SHAPES OF ATOMIC ORBITALS
1. s-orbitals : Spherical shape
2. p-orbitals : Dumb-bell shape
3. d-orbitals : Double dumb-bell shape (Except dz2 which has baby soother like shape)
Nodal Point : Point where probability of electron reduces to zero is called nodal point.
Calculation of Nodes :
z Number of Radial nodes = n – l – 1
z Number of Angular nodes / Nodal planes = l
z Total number of nodes = n – 1
Example 13 : Calculate the following for 3px orbital

(1) Number of Radial nodes
(2) Number of Angular nodes
Solution : (1) Number of Radical nodes = n – l – 1 = 3 – 1 – 1 = 1
(2) Number of Angular nodes = l = 1
EXERCISE
11. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a matter particle is
(1) Directly proportional to the momentum of the particle
(2) Directly proportional to the velocity of the particle
(3) Inversely proportional to the momentum of the particle
(4) Inversely proportional to Planck’s constant
12. The wavelength associated with an electron moving with velocity 1010 ms–1 is
(1) 6.62 × 10–10 m (2) 7.27 × 10–14 m
(3) 3.69 × 10–12 m (4) 4.92 × 10–11 m
13. The possible values of magnetic quantum number for p-orbital are
(1) 0 (2) –1, 0, +1
(3) –2 , –1, 0, +1, +2 (4) –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
14. The notation of orbital with n = 5 and l = 3 is
(1) 2p (2) 5s
(3) 5f (4) 3d
15. Shape of an orbital is given by
(1) Principal quantum number (2) Spin quantum number
(3) Azimuthal quantum number (4) Magnetic quantum number
16. Orientation of orbitals is given by
(1) Magnetic quantum number (2) Spin quantum number
(3) Azimuthal quantum number (4) Principal quantum number
17. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is
h 1 h h 1 h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 2m  2 m 

t
en
nm nment
ssigAssig
Assignment
Assignment
A
7. The number of electrons ejected from the metal

SECTION - A
surface after a light wave of certain minimum
NCERT Based MCQs frequency strikes on the metal surface is
1. The wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is proportional to the [NCERT Pg. 41]
400 nm. Thus, the wave number will be equal to (1) Frequency of light (2) Brightness of light
[NCERT Pg. 38]
(3) Velocity of light (4) Wavelength of light
(1) 2.5 × 104 cm–1 (2) 2.5 × 103 cm–1
8. “Kinetic energy (energy content of beam of light)
(3) 2.5 × 105 cm–1 (4) 2.5 × 102 cm–1 should depend upon the intensity of light” is a
2. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the statement related with [NCERT Pg. 41]
size of the [NCERT Pg. 34] (1) Classical mechanics (2) Photoelectric effect
(1) Nucleus (2) Atom (3) Black body radiation (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Neutron (4) Electron 9. Which of the following is an incorrect graphical
3. When atoms are bombarded with -particles, only representation based on photoelectric effect?
a few in million suffer deflection, others pass out [NCERT Pg. 41]
undeflected. This is because [NCERT Pg. 34]
KE of ejected
(1) The force of repulsion on the moving -particle

electrons
is small
(2) The force of attraction on the -particle to the (1)
oppositely charged electron is very small
0
(3) There is only one nucleus and large number of Frequency of light ()
electrons
incident photons
(4) The nucleus occupies much smaller volume

Number of
compared to the volume of the atom

4. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons (2)
237
respectively in the element 93Y are
[NCERT Pg. 35] Intensity of light
(1) 93, 93, 93 (2) 144, 93, 93
KE of ejected
(3) 93, 93, 144 (4) 93, 144, 93

electrons
5. The ratio of “charge to mass (e/m)” would be

(3)
greater for [NCERT Pg. 36]
(1) Proton (2) Electron
Intensity of light
(3) Neutron (4) Alpha particle
KE of ejected
6. Isobars have [NCERT Pg. 35]

electron
(1) Same number of protons

(2) Same number of neutrons (4)
(3) Same number of nucleons Intensity of light
(4) Same number of electrons (Frequency constant)
10. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, if atomic radius 2. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum
of the first orbit is x, then the radius of the 3rd orbit for an electron of fifth orbit is
will be [NCERT Pg. 46]
h h
(1) 5 (2) 2.5
x  
(1) (2) 3x
3
 25h
(3) 5 (4)
(3) 9x (4) 6x h 
11. Values of n, l, m and s for electron of 4s1 orbital 3. The no. of photons of light of wavelength 7000 Å
will be respectively [NCERT Pg. 54] equivalent to 1J are
1 1 (1) 3.52 × 10–18 (2) 3.52 × 1018

(1) 4, 1, 0, + (2) 4, 0, 1, +
2 2 (3) 50,000 (4) 100000
1 1 4. It has been found that gaseous iodine molecule

(3) 4, 0, 0, + (4) 4, 2, 0, + just dissociates into iodine atoms after absorption
2 2
of light at wavelengths 4995 Å. The energy required
12. Which of the following sub-shell has l = 1 value? to dissociate 1 mole of iodine molecules is
[NCERT Pg. 54]
(1) 52.2 kcal/mole (2) 93.4 kcal/mole
(1) s (2) p
(3) 63.4 kcal/mole (4) 57.3 kcal/mole
(3) d (4) f
5. If the energy difference between the ground state of
13. What is the maximum number of emission lines
an atom and excited state is 4.4 × 10–19 J. The
obtained when the excited electron of a hydrogen
wave length of photon required to produce this
atom in n = 5 drops to ground state?
transition is
[NCERT Pg. 45]
(1) 4.5 × 10–7 m (2) 4.5 × 10–7 nm
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 4.5 × 10–7 Å (4) 4.5 × 10–7 cm
(3) 15 (4) 8
14. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a 6. The radius for the Bohr orbit is given by
material particle is [NCERT Pg. 49]
Z2 n2
(1) Directly proportional to its energy (1) r  0.529  Å (2) r  0.529  Å
n Z2
(2) Inversely proportional to its energy
Z n2
(3) Inversely proportional to momentum (3) r  0.529  Å (4) r  0.529  Å
n2 Z
(4) Directly proportional to momentum 7. Bohr’s radius for first orbit of hydrogen atom is
15. Kinetic and potential energy (in eV) of electron (1) 0.529 Å (2) 5.29 Å
present in second Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom are
respectively [Energy of first Bohr’s orbit = –13.6 eV] (3) 52.9 Å (4) 529 Å
[NCERT Pg. 46] 8. If r1 is the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom,
then the radii of second, third and fourth orbits in
(1) –13.6, –27.2 (2) –1.51, –3.02
term of r1 are
(3) 3.4, –6.8 (4) 3.02, –1.51
(1) r12 , r13 , r14 (2) 4 r1, 9 r1, 16 r1
SECTION - B
(3) 8 r1, 27 r1, 64 r1 (4) 2 r1, 6 r1, 8 r1
Objective Type Questions
9. The ionisation energy of H-atom (in the ground
1. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum state) is x kJ. The energy required for an electron
wavelength is to jump from 2nd to 3rd orbit will be
(1) UV (2) Radiowaves (1) x/6 (2) 5x
(3) X-rays (4) Infrared (3) 7.2x (4) 5x/36
10. E n = –313.6/n 2 kcal/mole. If the value of 20. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine
E = –34.84 kcal/mole, to which value does 'n' times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
correspond? associated with it would become
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 3 times (2) 9 times
(3) 2 (4) 1 1 1
(3) times (4) times
11. The de-Broglie relationship in between  of a moving 3 9
particle with K.E. is 21. The electronic configuration of Cu (29) is
h 2m(K.E.) (1) [Ar]4s13d5 (2) [Ar]4s13d10
(1)   (2)  
2m(K.E.) h (3) [Ar]4s03d4 (4) [Ar]4s03d9
h h 22. According to Aufbau principle which of the three 4d,

(3)   (4)   5p and 5s will be filled first?
2m(K.E.) 2m KE
12. The third line in the Balmer series corresponds to (1) 4d
an electronic transition between which Bohr orbit in (2) 5p
hydrogen? (3) 5s
(1) 5  2 (2) 4  2 (4) 4d and 5s simultaneously
(3) 3  2 (4) 6  2 23. If n and l are respectively the principle and
13. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic azimuthal quantum numbers, then expression for
orbitals is calculating total number of electrons in any energy
(1) 5p < 4f < 6s < 5d (2) 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d level is
ln ln 1
(3) 4f < 5p < 5d < 6s (4) 5p < 5d < 4f < 6s
(1)  2(2l  1) (2)  2(2l  1)
14. Number of spectral line in Balmer series when an l1 l1
electron return from 7th orbit to 1st orbit of hydrogen ln 1 ln 1
atom are (3)  2(2l  1) (4)  2(2l  1)
l0 l0
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 21 (4) 8 24. For which one of the following set of quantum
number an electron will have the highest energy?
15. Which shell would be the first to have g subshell?
(1) 3, 2, 1, 1/2 (2) 4, 2, –1, 1/2
(1) L (2) M
(3) 4, 1, 0, –1/2 (4) 5, 0, 0, 1/2
(3) N (4) O
25. The magnetic quantum number is related to
16. A ‘d’ orbital can accomodate upto
(1) Size (2) Orientation
(1) 5 electrons (2) 10 electrons
(3) Spin (4) Shape
(3) 2 electrons (4) 6 electrons
26. The maximum no. of eletrons in a subshell is given
17. Which of the following electronic configuration is not by
possible?
(1) 4l – 2 (2) 4l + 2
(1) 2p3 (2) 2d5
(3) 2l + 2 (4) 2n2
(3) 4s1 (4) 5f 8
27. The energies of orbitals of H-atom are in the order
18. Which of electronic level would allow the hydrogen
to absorb a photon but not emit a photon? (1) 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p
(1) 3s (2) 2p (2) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s < 4p
(3) 2s (4) 1s (3) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p
19. Maximum number of spectral lines emitted when (4) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s < 4p
electrons jump from n = 5 to n = 1 in hydrogen 28. The circumference of second orbit of H–atom, if the
atom sample is wavelength of electron is 5 × 10–9m
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 50 × 10–9m (2) 10–8m
(3) 10 (4) 6 (3) 10–10m (4) 10–18m
29. The number of waves in the third orbit of H–atom is
SECTION - C
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 3
1. Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes
30. In hydrogen atom energy of electron in 2nd Bohr's is [NEET-2019 (Odisha)]
orbit is –3.4 eV. The kinetic energy of electron in (1) 6d (2) 5p
this orbit is
(3) 3d (4) 4f
(1) –3.4 eV (2) +3.4 eV 2. In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of an
(3) –6.8 eV (4) +1.7 eV electron in the second Bohr orbit is
31. The spectrum of He+ is expected to be similar to [Given that Bohr radius, a0 = 52.9 pm]
that of [NEET-2019 (Odisha)]
(1) H (2) Li+ (1) 105.8 pm (2) 211.6 pm
(3) 211.6  pm (4) 52.9  pm
(3) Na (4) He
3. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order
32. Bohr’s model is based upon of decreasing energy. The correct option is
(1) Heisenberg’s principle [NEET-2019]
(2) de Broglie’s concept (1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d (2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
(3) Schrodinger’s wave equation (3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p (4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
4. Which of the following series of transitions in the
(4) Plank’s quantum theory spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible region?
33. No two electrons in an atom can have [NEET-2019]
(1) The same principal quantum number (1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series
(2) The same azimuthal quantum number (3) Paschen series (4) Brackett series
(3) The same magnetic quantum number 5. Which one is a wrong statement? [NEET-2018]
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in
(4) The same set of all 4 quantum numbers 's' orbital is equal to zero
34. Which of the following are isoelectronic with each (2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
other? numbers while an electron in an atom is
(1) Na+, Ne (2) K+,O designated by four quantum numbers
(3) Ne, O (4) Na+, K+ (3) The value of m for dz2 is zero
(4) The electronic configuration of N atom is
35. In third principal quantum number, the total number
1 1 1
of orbitals will be 1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
(1) 16 (2) 9
(3) 4 (4) 1
6. Which one is the wrong statement? [NEET-2017]
36. If threshold wavelength (°) for ejection of electron
from metal is 330 nm, then work function for the h
(1) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by   ,
photoelectric emission is mv
where m = mass of the particle, v = group
(1) 6 × 10–10 J (2) 1.2 × 10–18 J
velocity of the particle
(3) 3 × 10–19 J (4) 6 × 10–19 J
37. A certain metal when irradiated with light h
(2) The uncertainty principle is E  t 
( = 3.2 × 1016 Hz) emits photo electrons with 4
twice kinetic energy as did photo electrons (3) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
when the same metal is irradiated by light stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
( = 2.0 × 1016 Hz). Calculate 0 of electron? symmetry and more balanced arrangement
(1) 1.2 × 1014 Hz (2) 8 × 1015 Hz
(4) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
(3) 1.2 × 1016 Hz (4) 4 × 1012 Hz of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
7. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which 15. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10-34Js.
n = 3 and l = 1? [NEET-Phase-2-2016] The speed of light is 3×1017 nm s–1. Which value is
(1) 2 (2) 6 closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum
of light with frequency of 6 × 1015 s–1? [NEET-2013]
(3) 10 (4) 14
(1) 25 (2) 50
8. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have
(3) 75 (4) 10
electron density along the axes?
 Z2 
[NEET-Phase-2-2016] 16. Based on equation, E = –2.178×10–18 J  2  certain
n 
(1) d z 2 , d xz (2) dxz, dyz conclusions are written. Which of them is not
correct ? [NEET-2013]
(3) d z 2 , d x 2  y 2 (4) d xy , d x 2  y 2
(1) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius
9. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are (2) Equation can be used to calculate the change
distinguished by [NEET-2016] in energy when the electron changes orbit
(1) Spin quantum number (3) For n = 1, the electron has a more negative
(2) Principal quantum number energy than it does for n = 6 which means that
the electron is more loosely bound in the
(3) Magnetic quantum number smallest allowed orbit
(4) Azimuthal quantum number (4) The negative sign in equation simply means that
10. The angular momentum of electron in 'd' orbital is the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is
equal to [AIPMT-2015] lower than it would be if the electrons were at
the infinite distance from the nucleus
(1) 0 (2) 6 17. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
(3) 2 (4) 2 3
11. What is the maximum number of orbitals than can 1
be identified with the following quantum numbers? (1) 5,0,0 +
2
n = 3, l = 1, m = 0 [AIPMT-2014]
1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) 5,1,0 +
2
(3) 3 (4) 4 1
(3) 5,1,1 +
12. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light 2
of wavelength 45 nm: (Planck's constant 1
h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3×108 ms–1) (4) 6,0,0 +
2
[AIPMT-2014] 18. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with
(1) 6.67 × 1015 (2) 6.67 × 1011 l = 3 and n = 4 is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) 10
(3) 4.42 × 10–15 (4) 4.42 × 10–18
(2) 12
13. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following
ions ? [AIPMT-2014] (3) 14
(1) H+ (2) Li+ (4) 16

19. The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given
(3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
as [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
14. What is the maximum number of electrons that can
be associated with the following set of quantum h h
(1) (2) 3
numbers? n = 3, l = 1 and m = –1 [NEET-2013] 2 2
(1) 6 (2) 4 3h h
(3) (4) 6
(3) 2 (4) 10 2 2
20. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy 26. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an
level of an atom is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] atom is determined by the following
(1) 4 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(2) 8 (1) 2 + 1
(3) 16 (2) 4 – 2
(4) 32 (3) 2n2

(4) 4 + 2
21. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV
and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their 27. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement
wavelengths i.e. 1 and 2 will be of electrons in an atom? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] 1
(1) n = 5, = 3, m = 0, s = 
2
1
(1) 1  2 1
2 (2) n = 3, = 2, m = –3, s = 
2
(2) 1 = 2
1 = 22 1
(3) (3) n = 3, = 2, m = –2, s = 
2
(4) 1 = 42
22. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons 1
will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (4) n = 4, = 0, m = 0, s = 
2
(1) ns  np (n – 1)d  (n – 2)f
28. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band
(2) ns (n – 2)f (n – 1)d  np gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation
(3) ns (n – 1)d (n – 2)f np that can be absorbed by the material is nearly
(4) ns (n – 2)f  np (n–1) d [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
23. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following (1) 20 × 1014 Hz
transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the (2) 10 × 1014 Hz
least energetic photon? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(3) 5 × 1014 Hz
(1) n = 6 to n = 5
(4) 1 × 1014 Hz
(2) n = 5 to n = 3
29. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal,
(3) n = 6 to n = 1
then uncertainty in velocity is
(4) n = 5 to n = 4
24. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s.
The associated wavelength will be h 1 h
(1) (2)
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]  2m 
(1) 6.6 × 10–32 m
(2) 6.6 × 10–34 m h 1 h
(3) (4)
2 m 
(3) 1.0 × 10–35 m
(4) 1.0 × 10–32 m 30. The measurement of the electron position is
associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which
25. The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a
is equal to 1 × 10–18 g cm s–1. The uncertainty in
substance is 4.4 × 10–19J and bond energy per
molecule is 4.0 × 10–19 J. The kinetic energy of the electron velocity is, (Mass of an electron is
molecule per atom will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] 9 × 10–28 g) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) 2.2 × 10–19 J (1) 1 × 1011 cm s–1
(2) 2.0 × 10–19 J (2) 1 × 109 cm s–1
(3) 4.0 × 10–20J (3) 1 × 106 cm s–1
(4) 2.0 × 10–20J (4) 1 × 105 cm s–1
31. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers Questions asked prior to Medical Ent. Exams. 2005
n m s 35. Uncertainty in position of an electron (mass = 9.1 ×
10–28g) moving with a velocity of 3 × 104 cm/s
1 accurate upto 0.001% will be (Use h/(4) in uncertainty
(a) 3 0 0 
2 expression where h = 6.626 × 10–27 erg-s)
1 (1) 5.76 cm
(b) 2 2 1 
2 (2) 7.68 cm
(3) 1.93 cm
1
(c) 4 3 –2 
2 (4) 3.84 cm
36. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is
1
(d) 1 0 –1  0.53 Å. The radius of Li2+ ion (atomic number = 3) in
2
a similar state is
1 (1) 0.53 Å
(e) 3 2 3 
2 (2) 1.06 Å
Which of the following sets of quantum number is (3) 0.17 Å
not possible? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(4) 0.265 Å
(1) (a) and (c)
37. In a Bohr’s model of an atom, when an electron
(2) (b), (c) and (d) jumps from n = 1 to n = 3, how much energy will
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) be emitted or absorbed per atom?
(4) (b), (d) and (e) (1) 2.389 × 10–12 ergs
32. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 × 10–31 kg. (2) 0.239 × 10–10 ergs
Planck’s constant is 6.626 × 10–34 Js, the uncertainty (3) 2.15 × 10–11 ergs
involved in the measurement of velocity within a
(4) 0.1936 × 10–10 ergs
distance of 0.1 Å is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
38. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic
(1) 5.79 × 106 ms–1
No. 64) is
(2) 5.79 × 107 ms–1
(1) [Xe]4f 3 5d 5 6s2
8 –1
(3) 5.79 × 10 ms (2) [Xe]4f 6 5d 2 6d 2
5 –1
(4) 5.79 × 10 ms (3) [Xe]4f 8 5d 9 6s2
33. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by (4) [Xe] 4f 7 5d 1 6s 2
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] 39. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is
(1) Azimuthal quantum number (1) CN–
(2) Spin quantum number (2) N2+
(3) Magnetic quantum number (3) O2–
(4) Principal quantum number (4) N2–
34. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom 40. The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom (n = 1)
is –328 kJ mol–1; hence the energy of fourth Bohr is approximately 0.530 Å. The radius for the first
orbit would be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] excited state (n = 2) orbit is (in Å)
(1) –41 kJ mol–1 (1) 4.77
–1
(2) –1312 kJ mol (2) 1.06
–1
(3) –164 kJ mol (3) 0.13
(4) –82 kJ mol–1 (4) 2.12
41. The position of both, an electron and a helium atom 47. The frequency of radiation emitted when the
is known within 1.0 nm. Further the momentum of electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen
the electron is known within 5.0 × 10–26 kg ms–1. atom will be (Given ionization energy of
The minimum uncertainty in the measurement of the H = 2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js)
momentum of the helium atom is
(1) 1.54 × 1015 s–1
(1) 8.0 × 10–26 kg ms–1
(2) 1.03 × 1015 s–1
(2) 80 kg ms–1
(3) 3.08 × 1015 s–1
(3) 50 kg ms–1
(4) 2.00 × 1015 s–1
(4) 5.0 × 10–26 kg ms–1
42. Which of the following configuration is correct for 48. Which one of the following ions has electronic
iron? configuration [Ar]3d6?
(1) 1s 22s 22p63s23p64s23d 7 (1) Co3+
(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d 5 (2) Ni3+

(3) 1s22s22p63s 23p63d 5 (3) Mn3+
(4) 1s 22s 22p63s23p64s23d 6 (4) Fe3+
43. Which of the following has maximum number of (At. no. of Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
unpaired d-electrons?
49. Which of the following is not among shortcomings of
(1) N3+
Bohr’s model?
(2) Fe2+
(1) Bohr theory could not account for the fine lines
(3) Zn+ in the atomic spectrum
(4) Cu+
(2) Bohr theory was unable to account for the
44. Who modified Bohr’s theory by introducing elliptical splitting of the spectral lines in the presence of
orbits for electron path? magnetic field
(1) Rutherford (3) Bohr theory failed for He atom
(2) Thomson (4) It did not give information about energy level
(3) Hund
50. Number of spectral lines falling in Balmer series when
(4) Sommerfield electrons are de-excited from nth shell will be given
45. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass as
1 g and velocity 100 m/s is (1) (n – 2) in UV
(1) 6.63 × 10–35 m (2) (n – 2) in visible region
(2) 6.63 × 10–34 m
(3) (n – 3) in near IR
(3) 6.63 × 10–33 m
(4) (n – 3) in far IR
(4) 6.65 × 10–35 m
51. The ratio of the energy required to remove an electron
46. The following quantum numbers are possible for from the first three Bohr’s orbits of hydrogen is
how many orbitals : n = 3, l = 2, m = +2?
(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(1) 1
(2) 9 : 4 : 1
(2) 2
(3) 36 : 9 : 4
(3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 1 : 4 : 9
7. Consider the following statements

SECTION - D
NEET Booster Questions 1
(a) Velocity of electron is th velocity of light
137
31
1. Isotone of 15 P is (b) First line of Balmer series will be more intense
32 33 compared to second line
(1) 15 P (2) 16 S
(c) Radius of third orbit of Li2+ ion is 1.5 times
27 32 more than radius of second orbit of He  ion
(3) 13 Al (4) 16 S
2. The radius of which of the following orbit is same Correct among the following is/are
as that of second Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom? (1) (a) only
(1) He+ (n = 4) (2) (b) & (c) only
(2) Be3+ (n = 4) (3) (a) & (c) only
(3) Li2+ (n = 3) (4) (a), (b) & (c) are correct
(4) He+ (n = 2) 8. Energy of electron in orbit of H-atom is –1.51 eV.
3. Which one of the following does not represent a Wavelength produced by the electron in same orbit
right graph of radial distribution function versus if 1st orbit of H have radius x
distance r from nucleus? (1) 2x (2) 3x
(3) 6x (4) 9x
1s 2s
9. For which of the following orbital, ratio of orbit
A. B. angular momentum to orbital angular momentum is
r r 2 : 1 .?
(1) 2s (2) 2p
4d 3s
(3) 3p (4) 4s
C. D. 10. Heisenberg uncertainty principle will be valid for

r r v = change in velocity
(1) A & C (2) A only x = change in positions
(3) A, C & D (4) C only (1) v and x are on same axis
4.  320 represents [Z = internuclear axis] (2) v and x are on different axis
(1) 3px (2) 3dz 2 (3) Macroscopic particle
(3) 3d (4) 3d xy (4) Both (1) & (3)

x2 – y 2
5. Potential energy of the electron in Bohr’s orbit will 11. Possible number of orientations of subshell is
be (1) l (2) n
2 2
KZe KZe (4) n2
(1) (2)  (3) 2l + 1
2r 2r
12. Incorrect among the following is/are
KZe2 KZe2
(3)  (4) 2
r r (a) Number of electrons having m = 0 in Na are 7
6. Total number of lines emitted in infrared region (b) Energy of 4s orbital is more than 3d in H-atom
when electron de-excited from 5th excited state to
(c) Energy of 2s orbital in O is more than carbon
1st excited state will be
(1) 3 (2) 8 (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) 2 (4) 6 (3) (a) & (b) only (4) (c) only
13. Correct set of quantum numbers representing the 17. Which is the correct graphical representation
last electron of iron (Fe) will be based on photoelectric effect?
1
(1) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = 
2
K.E. K.E.
I. II.
1
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m =  2, s = 
2  0 
1
(3) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = 
No. of photons
2
(4) n = 3, l = 1, m = –2, s = 0 K.E.
14. In which of the following electronic arrangement all III. IV.

the three rules Aufbau principle, Pauli’s exclusion
Intensity of light Intensity of light
and Hund’s rule are invalid?
(1) I & II (2) II & III

(1)
(3) III & IV (4) II & IV
18. What will be the longest wavelength line in Balmer
(2) series of spectrum of H-atom?
(1) 546 nm (2) 656 nm
(3)
(3) 566 nm (4) 556 nm
19. In hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is
(4) –3.4 eV. Then find out KE of same orbit of
hydrogen atom
15. Total number of angular nodes present in 3d (1) +3.4 eV (2) +6.8 eV
x2 – y 2
(3) –13.6 eV (4) +13.6 eV
and 3d orbital respectively is
z2
20. Total number of spectral lines in UV region, during
(1) 2, 0 transition from 5th excited state to 1st excited state
(2) 2, 2 (1) 10 (2) 3
(3) 3, 2 (3) 4 (4) Zero
(4) 1, 1 21. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of

hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at
16. Incorrect electronic configuration is represented by
(At. No.: Gd: 64, W: 74, Pd: 46, Mo: 42) 5R 3R
(1) cm1 (2) cm1
36 4
(a) Gd  [Xe] 4f 7 5d 16s 2
7R 9R
(b) W = [Xe] 4f 14, 5d 4, 6s 2 (3) cm1 (4) cm1
144 400
(c) Pd = [Kr] 4d9, 5s1 22. In a hydrogen atom, if the energy of electron in the
(d) Mo = [Kr] 4d5, 5s1 ground state is –x eV., then that in the 2nd excited
state of He+ is
(1) (a) only
4
(2) (b) and (c) only (1) –x eV (2)  x eV
9
(3) (c) only
9
(4) (a) & (d) only (3) +2x eV (4)  x eV
4
23. The wavelength of radiation emitted, when in He+ 30. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is
electron falls from infinity to stationary state would 1 × 10–5 kg-m/s. The uncertainty in its position will
be (R = 1.097 × 107 m–1) be (h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg-m2/s)
(1) 2.2 × 10–8 m (2) 2.2 × 10–9 m (1) 5.27 × 10–30 m (2) 1.05 × 10–26 m
(3) 120 m (4) 22 × 107 m (3) 1.05 × 10–28 m (4) 5.25 × 10–28 m
24. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the 31. Two particles A and B are in motion. If the wavelength
third line from the red end corresponds to which associated with particle A is 5 × 10–8 m; calculate
one of the following inter-orbit jumps of the electron the wavelength associated with particle B if its
for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen? momentum is half of A.
(1) 3  1 (2) 5  2 (1) 5 × 10–8 m (2) 10–5 cm
(3) 2  5 (4) 3  2 (3) 10–7 cm (4) 5 × 10–8 cm

32. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with
25. The correct order of energy difference between
l = 3 and n = 4 is
adjacent energy levels in H atom
(1) 10 (2) 12
(1) E2 – E1 > E3 – E2 > E4 – E3
(3) 14 (4) 16
(2) E2 – E1 > E4 – E3 > E3 – E2
33. The total number of subshells in fourth energy level
(3) E4 – E3 > E3 – E2 > E2 – E1
of an atom is
(4) E3 – E2 > E4 – E3 > E2 – E1 (1) 4 (2) 8
26. Which of the following electronic transition in a (3) 16 (4) 32
hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of
energy? 34. For which of the following sets of four quantum
numbers, an electron will have the highest energy?
(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) n = 2 to n = 3
n l m s
(3) n = 1 to n =  (4) n = 3 to n = 5
(1) 3 2 1 +1/2
27. The time taken by the electron in one complete
(2) 4 2 –1 +1/2
revolution in the nth Bohr’s orbit of the hydrogen
atom is (3) 4 1 0 –1/2
(1) Inversely proportional to n2 (4) 5 0 0 –1/2
(2) Directly proportional to n3 35. A transition element X has a configuration (Ar)3d 4

in its +3 oxidation state. Its atomic number is
h
(3) Directly proportional to (1) 22 (2) 19
2
(3) 25 (4) 26
n
(4) Inversely proportional to
h 36. Among the following which one is not
28. What will be the ratio of the wavelength of the first paramagnetic? [Atomic numbers; Be = 4, Ne = 10,
line to that of the second line of Paschen series As = 33, Cl = 17]
of H atom? (1) Ne2+ (2) Be+
(1) 256 : 175 (2) 175 : 256 (3) Cl– (4) As+
(3) 15 : 16 (4) 24 : 27 37. Isoelectronic species are
29. For the transition from n = 2  n = 1, which of (1) CO, CN–, NO+, C22–
the following will produce shortest wavelength? (2) CO–, CN, NO, C2–
(1) H atom (2) D atom (3) CO+, CN+, NO–, C2
(3) He+ ion (4) Li2+ ion (4) CO, CN, NO, C2
38. Consider the following sets of quantum number 44. The orbital angular momentum of electron in 4s
orbital is
n I m s
(i) 3 0 0 +1/2 1 h
(1) .
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2 2 2
(iii) 4 3 –2 –1/2 (2) Zero
(iv) 1 0 –1 –1/2 h
(3)
(v) 3 2 3 +1/2 2
h
Which of the following sets of quantum number is (4) (2.5)
not possible? 2
45. Radial nodes present in 3s and 3p-orbitals are
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) respectively
(2) (ii), (iv) and(v) (1) 0, 2
(3) (i) and (iii) (2) 2, 1
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (3) 1, 1
39. Any f-orbital can accommodate upto (4) 2, 2
(1) 2 electrons with parallel spin 46. Quantum numbers for some electrons are given
(2) 6 electrons below
(3) 2 electrons with opposite spin A : n = 4, l = 1
(4) 14 electrons B : n = 4, l = 0
40. For principal quantum number n = 5, the total C : n = 3, l = 2
number of orbitals having l = 3 is
D : n = 3, l = 1
(1) 7 (2) 14
The correct increasing order of energy of electrons
(3) 9 (4) 18
(1) A < B < C < D
41. The four quantum numbers of valence electron of
(2) D < C < B < A
potassium are
(3) D < B < C < A
1 1
(1) 4, 0, 1, (2) 4, 1, 0,
2 2 (4) C < B < A < D
1 1 47. The number of lobes in most of the d-orbitals are
(3) 4, 0, 0, (4) 4, 1, 1,
2 2
(1) 6
42. In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons
in its M-shell. The element is (2) 8
(1) Manganese (2) Cobalt (3) 10
(3) Nickel (4) Iron (4) 4

43. Which combinations of quantum numbers n, l, m 48. For which of the following options m = 0 for all
and s for the electron in an atom does not provide orbitals?
a permissible solutions of the wave equation?
(1) 2s, 2px, 3dxy
1 1 (2) 3s, 2pz , 3d z2
(1) 3, 2,  2, (2) 3, 3, 1, 
2 2
(3) 2s, 2 pz , 3d x 2  y 2
1 1
(3) 3, 2, 1, (4) 3, 1, 1,  (4) 3s, 3px, 3dyz
2 2
49. In any sub-shell, the maximum number of 54. What is the wavelength (in m) of a particle of
electrons having same value of spin quantum mass 6.62 × 10–29 g moving with a velocity of
number is 103 ms–1?
(1) 6.62 × 10–4 (2) 6.62 × 10–3
(1) l (l  1) (2) l + 2
(3) 10–5 (4) 105
(3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l + 2 55. Calculate de-Broglie wavelength of an electron
50. If each orbital can hold a maximum of 3 electrons. (in m) travelling at 1% of the speed of light.
The number of elements in 2nd period of periodic (1) 2.73 × 10–24 (2) 2.42 × 10–10
table (long form) is
(3) 242.2 × 1010 (4) None of these
(1) 27 (2) 9 56. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js.
(3) 18 (4) 12 The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. Which value
is closest to the wavelength (in nanometer) of a
51. The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles,
quantum of light which frequency 8 × 1015 s–1?
A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms–1 respectively. The
mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. (1) 4 × 101 (2) 3 × 107
What is the ratio of uncertainties in their positions (3) 2 × 1025 (4) 5 × 10–18
 x A  57. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy

 x ? level of an atom is
 B 
(1) 4 (2) 8
(1) 2 (2) 0.25
(3) 16 (4) 32
(3) 4 (4) 1
58. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons
52. Which of the following statements is true? will be
(1) The kinetic energy of an electron is inversely (1) ns  np  (n – 1)d  (n – 2)f
proportional to square of its momentum (2) ns  (n – 2)f  (n – 1)d  np
(2) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a (3) ns  (n – 1)d  (n – 2)f  np
particle is directly proportional to its mass
(4) ns  (n – 2)f  np  (n – 1)d
(3) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a
59. Which of the following is correct for number of
particle is directly proportional to square of its
electrons, number of orbitals and type of orbitals
velocity
respectively in N-orbit?
(4) The kinetic energy of an electron is directly
(1) 4, 4 and 8 (2) 4, 8 and 16
proportional to accelerating potential
(3) 32, 16 and 4 (4) 4, 16 and 32
53. For an electron, if the uncertainty in velocity is v,
then the uncertainty in its position (x) is given by 60. The correct set of four quantum numbers for
outermost electron of potassium (Z = 19) is
hm 4
(1) (2) 1 1
4v hmv (1) 3, 1, 0,  (2) 4, 0, 0, 
2 2
h 4m 1 1
(3) (4) (3) 3, 0, 0,  (4) 4, 1, 0, 
4mv hv 2 2

Chapter 4
Chemical Bonding and

Molecular Structure
Chapter Contents
z Lewis Symbols Atoms combine with one another in different ways to form a large number of
molelcules. The attractive force which holds the constituents (atoms,
z Ionic or electrovalent bond
molecules or ions) in different chemical species, is called a chemical bond.
z Fazan’s Rule z As the atomic state is regarded as a state of higher energy therefore
z Lattice Enthalpy the atoms combine with one another in a number of ways, i.e., by
transference of electrons (ionic bond) or by sharing of electrons
z Covalent bond (covalent bond), etc.
z Dipole Moment z The basic cause of the combination of atoms is :-
z Coordinate or Dative Bond (i) Tendency to acquire the configuration of nearest noble gas. It is
known as octet rule. Though it could successfully explain the
z Formal Charge formation of many molecules e.g., CH4, H2O, H2S etc. yet it
z The Valence Shell Electron could not provide any answer for forces responsible for formation
Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) of molecules.
Theory (ii) According to modern views, a bond results between atoms
z Valence Bond Theory because of their tendency to acquire a state of minimum energy.
When the two atoms approach each other, new forces of attraction
z Hybridisation and repulsion come into play. The net resultant of these forces
may be attraction or repulsion. If attractive forces are more,
z Hydrogen Bond
decrease in potential energy takes place and a chemical bond is
z Resonance formed.
z Molecular Orbital Theory
LEWIS SYMBOLS
The electrons in the outer shell are represented by the dots surrounding
the symbol. For example, the Lewis symbols for some elements of 3rd
period are:
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
Types of Bonds
There are many different types of bonds, present in different molecules,
for example, (a) ionic, (b) covalent, (c) coordinate. In addition to these,
weak bonds like hydrogen bonds and Van der Waal’s interactions are
also present in molecules.
76 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure NEET
IONIC OR ELECTROVALENT BOND
This bond comes into existence by the transference of electrons between the participating atoms. The atom
losing electron gets converted into cation while the other atom gaining electron changes into anion. The electrostatic
force of attraction which holds the oppositely charged ions is termed as electrovalent bond. The number of
electrons lost or gained by the atom is known as its electrovalency.
z The necessary conditions for forming stable ionic bond are
(i) Low ionisation energy of element forming cation.
(ii) High electron affinity of element forming anion.
(iii) High lattice energy resulting from the formation of crystal by close packing of gaseous ions of
opposite charges.
z Electrovalency : It is defined as number of electron lost or gained by an atom e.g. Na has electrovalency
1, Mg has 2. It is equal to their valence electrons respectively.
Characteristics of Ionic Compounds
z These are hard and brittle crystalline solids with high melting and boiling points.
z They consist of ions held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction in the solid state and hence do not
conduct electricity. When fused (in molten state) or in aqueous solution they behave as good conductors
of electricity because ions become free to move and carry current.
z They are soluble in polar solvents like water but are insoluble in nonpolar solvents like CCl4, CS2, benzene
etc.
FAZAN’S RULE
In ionic bond, some covalent character is introduced because of the tendency of the cation to polarise the
anion. In fact cation attracts the electron cloud of the anion and pulls electron density between the two nuclei.
+ +
Cation Anion Polarised

Electron cloud
of anion
According to Fazan’s rule, the magnitude of covalent character in the ionic bond depends upon the extent
of polarisation caused by cation. In general,
z Smaller the size of cation, larger is its polarizing power.
z Larger the anion, more will be its polarizability.
The extent of polarisation will also be favoured by
z More charge on cation and anion.
z Presence of a non polar solvent
z Cation with an electronic configuration other than noble gas.
LATTICE ENTHALPY
It is the amount of energy released when gaseous cation and anion are brought closer from infinity to form 1 mole
of ionic compound.
Factors affecting lattice enthalpy
z The charges on the ions : Larger the magnitude of charge on the ions higher is the value of lattice
enthalpy.
z The radius of the ions : Smaller the size of ions, more will be the value of lattice enthalpy.
NEET Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 77
COVALENT BOND
z This bond is formed by the mutual sharing of electrons between the participating atoms of same or
different elements. Depending upon the number of electrons shared by each atom in bond formation, a
single, double or triple bond may result. The number of electrons contributed by an atom for sharing is
known as its covalency.
z Covalency : It is defined as number of electron shared e.g. hydrogen has covalency 1, oxygen has 2,
nitrogen has 3.
z Formation of covalent bonds between atoms of different elements e.g., H2O , CCl4, etc.
H O H  O
—
(a)
H— H
– – –
2e 8e 2e
H atoms attain a duplet of electrons and O the octet, here O has 2 lone pairs
8e–
Cl 8e
Cl
(b) 8e– Cl C Cl  Cl—C—Cl
–
8e
Cl Cl
–
8e
Each of the four Cl atoms along with the C atom attains octet of electrons, here each Cl atom
has 3 Ione pairs.
z Multiple covalent bonds
(a) O O  O —
— O (Oxygen molecule)
– –
8e 8e
H H
H H
(b) C C  C —
— C (ethene molecule)
H H
H 8e –
8e
–
H
N N  —
N —
—N (Nitrogen molecule)
(c)
–
8e 8e–
Characteristics of Covalent Compounds
z Under normal conditions they are generally liquids and gases. They have low melting and boiling points
and are soluble in nonpolar solvents, insoluble in polar solvents and do not conduct electricity even in
fused or dissolved state. They exhibit isomerism because of the rigid and directional nature of the covalent
bond.
Polar and non-polar covalent bonds. If a covalent bond is formed between similar atoms, the shared pair
of electrons lies almost in the centre and electron cloud is uniformly distributed around the two atoms. Such
a covalent bond is called non-polar covalent bond. On the other hand, if a covalent bond is formed between
the different atoms then the shared pair is displaced towards the more electronegative atom causing greater
concentration of electron density around the more electronegative atom. Such a covalent bond develops some
ionic character and is called polar covalent bond.
+ –
e.g., [H : Cl]  H—Cl
A polar covalent bond

The bonding electrons are attracted
more strongly by Cl than by H.
e.g., Cl : Cl  Cl – Cl
A nonpolar covalent bond
Octet Rule
Atoms of various elements tend to gain, lose or share valance electrons during the formation of molecules
such that there are eight electrons or octet in their valence shells.
Limitations of octet rule
z Formation of compounds with electron deficient atoms
Li Cl F Be F Cl B Cl
Cl
In LiCl, Li atom has only 2 electrons; in BeF2, Be atom has four electrons and in BCl3 the boron atom
has only six electrons in its outer shell. Other such compounds are AlCl3, BF3, BeH2 etc.
z Formation of super octet molecules like PCl5, SF6 and IF7
In a number of compounds, there are more than eight valence electrons around the central atom. This
is termed as super octet or the expanded octet.
Cl Cl F F
F F F F
P S F I F
Cl Cl F F
Cl F F F
10 electrons around 12 electrons around 14 electrons around
the P atom the S atom I atom
z Formation of compounds of xenon

Octet rule says that noble gases are inert, but Xe and Kr take part in bonding and form compounds with
elements like fluorine and oxygen such as XeF2, XeF4, XeOF2, XeOF4, KrF2 etc.
z Formation of odd-electron molecules
The octet rule is not satisfied for all the atoms in certain molecules which have odd number of electrons
e.g., nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2).
+ –
N=O O = N —O
z This theory does not account for the shape of molecules.
EXERCISE
1. Which of the following molecule has no dative bond?
(1) CO (2) CO32
(3) SO24 (4) All of these
2. In which of the following molecule, central atom has more than 8 electrons in outermost orbit?
(1) SO3 (2) SO2
(3) P2O5 (4) All of these
3. The total number of lone pair present in XeF4 is
(1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 16
4. Which of the following molecule has triple bond?
(1) O2 (2) N2
(3) P4 (4) S8
5. Most favourable conditions for electrovalent bonding are
(1) Low ionisation potential of one atom and high electron affinity of the other atom
(2) High electron affinity and high ionisation potential of both the atoms
(3) Low electron affinity and low ionisation potential of both the atoms
(4) High ionisation potential of one atom and low electron affinity of the other atom
6. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends on
(1) Charge on the ion only (2) Size of the ion only
(3) Packing of the ion only (4) Charge and size of the ion
7. The formula of the compound is A2B5. The number of electrons in the outermost orbits of A and B respectively
are
(1) 6 and 3 (2) 5 and 6
(3) 5 and 2 (4) 2 and 3
8. Which shows the highest lattice energy?
(1) RbF (2) CsF
(3) NaF (4) KF
DIPOLE MOMENT
The extent of polar character in a covalent bond is represented by dipole moment (μ). It is defined as the
product of the magnitude of charge developed on any of the atom and the distance between the atoms. In
general, the molecules having μ = 0 are called nonpolar molecules. Molecules having μ > 0 are called polar
molecules.
z For a diatomic molecule the dipole moment of the molecule is the same as that of the bond dipole.
z For a polyatomic molecule, the dipole moment is the resultant of the vectors representing various bond
moments.
z The dipole moment helps to predict whether a molecule is polar or non polar.
z A molecule may contain polar covalent bonds but its dipole moment may be zero if it is a symmetrical
molecule.
z The dipole moment helps to predict geometry of molecules.
Dipole moment :  = e × d where e is partial charge and d is the distance between combining atoms.
The unit of dipole moment is debye. 1 debye = 1 ×10–18 e.s.u cm = 3.33 × 10–30 c-m.
Cl F
Cl F F F
Cl
P O C O
B
F F,
Cl , F F,
Cl F
=0 =0 =0 =0
.. .. ..
..
O N N
H H, H H, F F
 = 1.85 D H F
 = 1.47 D  = 0.23 D
Note:
Actual dipole moment of bond
% ionic character of bond = × 100
Dipole moment of pure ionic bond
Type of Example Dipole

Shape
Molecule moment, µ(D)
Molecule (AB)
HF 1.91 linear
HCl 1.03 linear
HBr 0.79 linear
HI 0.38 linear
H2 0 linear
Molecule (AB2)
H2O 1.85 bent
H2S 0.95 bent
CO2 0 linear
Molecule (AB3)
NH3 1.47 trigonal-pyramidal
NF3 0.23 trigonal-pyramidal
BF3 0 trigonal-planar
Molecule (AB4)
CH4 0 tetrahedral
CHCl3 1.04 tetrahedral
CCl4 0 tetrahedral
COORDINATE OR DATIVE BOND
z In this type of combination both the electrons needed for sharing are
H F
..
contributed only by one atom. The atom which contributes the pair of
electrons (lone pair) is known as donor and the atom which accepts these
H N B F
electrons is called acceptor. The coordinate bond is usually represented by
an arrow pointing towards the acceptor. e.g., H F
z Coordinate bond is found in the compounds like SO2, SO3, O3, NH4+, H3O+,
NH4Cl, SO42– and H2SO4 etc.
Characteristics of coordinate compounds

z These are usually insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. They usually do not conduct
electricity. The mpt and bpt. of these compounds are higher than covalent compounds but lesser than
the ionic compounds. The coordination bond is directional so these compounds exhibit isomerism.
z Examples of the compounds in which all the three ionic, covalent and dative bonds are present are:
CuSO4, NH4X, K4[Fe(CN)6] and [Cu(NH3)4]SO4.
FORMAL CHARGE
Formal charge on an atom is the difference between the number of valence electrons is an isolated atom
(i.e., free atom) and the number of electrons assigned to that atom in a Lewis structure. It is expressed as
Total number of Total number of non

valence electrons in – bonding (lone)
Formal charge (F.C.) the free atom electrons
on an atom in a Lewis =
Structure Total number of bonding
–1/2 (shared) electrons
1
or Formal charge = V  L  S
2
The counting is based on the assumption, that the atom in the molecule possess one electron of each shared
pair and both the electrons of a lone pair.
Example : Calculate the formal charge on S in following structure

O
S
–
HO O
O
Solution : Total number of valence electrons in free S atom = 6
Total number of non bonded electrons = 0
Total number of shared electrons = 8
1 
 Formal charge = 6 – 0 –   8 = + 2
2 
THE VALENCE SHELL ELECTRON PAIR REPULSION (VSEPR) THEORY

This theory helps in explaining the shapes of simple covalent molecules. According to this theory the various
electron pairs (bond pairs as well as lone pairs) around central atom orient themselves in space as far away
as possible so as to have minimum repulsive interactions and maximum stability. This leads to the definite
arrangement of the atoms bonded directly to the central atom. The molecules in which the central atom is
surrouned by same kind of atoms and only bond pairs possesses a regular geometry. If this condition is
not fulfilled the molecule possesses irregular geometry.
The table given shows the arrangement of electron pairs about a central atom A (without any lone pairs) and
geometries of some molecules/ions of the type AB.
Geometry of Molecules in which the Central Atom has No Lone Pair of Electrons
Number of Arrangement of Molecular Examples

electron pairs electron pairs geometry
180°
A B—A—B BeCl2, HgCl2
2
Linear Linear
B
120°
A A BF3
3
B B
Trigonal planar Trigonal planar
109.5°
A CH4, NH4
+
4 A B B
B
Tetrahedral Tetrahedral
B
90°
B B PCl5
5 A A
120°
B
Trigonal bipyramidal Trigonal bipyramidal
B
90°
B
B
6 90° A A SF6
B B
B
Octahedral Octahedral
B
B
7 IF7
A B A
B
B
Pentagonal Bipyramidal Pentagonal Bipyramidal
Shape (geometry) of Some Simple Molecules/Ions with Central Ions having
One or More Lone Pairs of Electrons(E)
Molecule No. of No. of Arrangement of
Shape Examples
type bonding pairs lone pairs electron pairs
AB2E 2 1 Bent SO2, O3

A
B B
Trigonal planar
AB3E 3 1 A Trigonal pyramidal NH3

B B
B
Tetrahedral
AB2E2 2 2 Bent H2O

A
(V-shaped)
B
B
Tetrahedral
B
AB4E 4 1 B See-saw SF4
A
B
B
Trigonal
bi-pyramidal
B
AB3E2 3 2 A Distorted ClF3
B
T-shape
B
Trigonal
bi-pyramidal
B
B B
AB5E 5 1 A Square pyramid BrF5
B B
Octahedral
B B
AB4E2 4 2 A Square planar XeF4
B B
Octahedral
The table given below shows the shape of simple molecules containing bond pair and lone pair. This table
explains the reasons for the distortions in the geometry of the molecule here A is the central atom, B is
surrounding atom and E is lone pair.
Molecule No. of No. of Arrangement Shape Reason for the

type bond lone pairs of electron shape acquired
pairs
AB2E 4 1 Bent Theoretically th e shape

should have been triangular
S S planar but actually it is found
O O O O to be bent or v-shaped. The
119.5° reason being the lone pair-bond
pair repulsion is much more as
compared to the bond pair-bond
pair repulsion. So the angle is
reduced to 119.5° from 120°.
N
AB3E 3 1 H Trigonal Had there been a bp in place
H 107° pyramidal of lp the shape would have
been tetrahedral but one lone
H pair is present and due to the
repulsion between lp-bp (which
is more than bp-bp repulsion)
the angle between bond pairs is
reduced to 107° from 109.5°.
N
H
H
H
AB2E2 2 2 Bent The shape should have been

O tetrahedral if there were all bp
but two lp are present so the
104.5° shape is distorted tetrahedral
H H or angular. The reason is lp-lp
repulsion is more than lp-bp
repulsion. Hence angle is
reduced to 104.5° from 109.5°.
H H
F F
AB4E 4 1 (a) F S F S See- In (a) the lp is present at axial
F saw position so there are three lp-bp
F repulsion at 90°. In (b) the lp is in
F
F an equatorial position, and there
are two lp-bp repulsions. Hence,
F F arrangement (b) is more stable.
F
The shape shown in (b) is
F
(b) S S d e s c r ib e d a s a d i s t o r t e d
F tetrahedron, a folded square or
F a see-saw.
F
F
(More stable)
Molecule No. of No. of Arrangement Shape Reason for the

type bond lone pairs of electron shape acquired
pairs
AB3E2 3 2 F T-shape The lp are at

F equatorial position so
there are less lp-bp
Cl F Cl F repulsion.
F
F
B
AB2E3 3 Linear Example
2
XeF2
A
– –
I3 , Br3
B –
ICl2
Linear
VALENCE BOND THEORY (VBT)
z Covalent bonds are formed by overlap of atomic orbitals, each of which contains one electron of
opposite spin.
z Each of the bonded atoms maintains its own atomic orbitals, but the electron pair in the overlapping
orbitals is shared by both atoms.
z The greater the amount of orbital overlap, the stronger the bond. This leads to a directional character
to the bond when other than s orbitals involved.
Energy consideration of covalent bond : Attractive Electron cloud
When two hydrogen atoms H A and H B with
respective electrons eAand eB approach each
other, following attractive and repulsive forces
start operating Repulsive
Nucleus
z It is found that attractive forces is more than a
repulsive forces which results in decrease in
(HA) Attractive (HB)
energy, so the potential energy of system
decreases.
z The minimum energy point corresponds to critical distance between two nuclei, when maximum lowering
of energy takes place. This distance is called bond length e.g. in H–H, bond length is 74 pm.
HH (too close)
+
H H (too far)
0
Energy
H–H
–
Bond length
(74 pm) Internuclear distance
Bond dissociation energy: It is the energy required to dissociate 1 mole of molecules into constituting atoms
e.g. H2(g) 2H(g) – 436 kJ
Overlapping of Atomic Orbitals

The formation of covalent bonds is best explained by a new approach according to which sharing of electron
is possible only with overlapping of orbitals. According to this concept, the formation of covalent bond involves
the overlapping of half filled atomic orbitals of the atoms participating in bonding. The atomic orbitals undergoing
overlapping must have electrons with opposite spin.
The covalent bond formed by the axial or end to end overlapping of atomic orbitals is called sigma bond.
On the other hand, the covalent bond formed by sidewise or lateral overlap of the orbitals is called Pi () bond.
It may be noted that
z All single bonds are sigma bonds.
z Multiple bonds contain one sigma bond () only, the other bonds are pi() bonds.
z -bond is never formed alone. First a -bond is formed and then -bond formation may take place.
Strength of  and -bonds:

 bond strength : s - s < s - p < p - p
 bond strength : 2p - 2p > 2p - 3p > 3p - 3p
EXERCISE
9. Polarisation is the distortion of the shape of an anion by the cation. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) Maximum polarisation is done by a cation of high charge
(2) A large cation is likely to bring large degree of polarisation
(3) A smaller anion is likely to undergo a high degree of polarisation
(4) Minimum polarisation is done by a cation of small size
10. The most covalent halide is
(1) AlF3 (2) AlCl3
(3) AlBr3 (4) AlI3
11. Which one of the following has pyramidal shape?
(1) NH3 (2) SiF4
(3) H2O (4) BF3
12. Which one of the following molecules are formed by p-p overlapping?
(1) Cl2 (2) HCl
(3) H2O (4) NH3
13. A molecule possessing dipole moment is
(1) CH4 (2) H2O
(3) BF3 (4) CO2
14. Which of the following compound of group-14 elements would you expect to be most ionic in character?
(1) CCl4 (2) SiCl4
(3) PbCl2 (4) PbCl4
15. The type of bonds present in NH4Cl are
(1) Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate (2) Only ionic
(3) Only covalent (4) Covalent and coordinate
HYBRIDISATION
z It is a hypothetical phenomenon that is introduced to explain the shapes of molecules. It is a process

of intermixing of orbitals with slightly different energies so as to redistribute their energies giving another
set of orbitals (hybrid orbitals) with same energy, size, and shape.
z The hybrid orbitals form stronger bonds as compared to the pure atomic orbitals. Depending upon the
type of orbitals used, the hybridisation may be divided into following categories.
Hybrid Type of molecule and Examples

state of Number Number Arrangement
Value of Shape A = Central atom
central of SA of LP of SA and LP
X B = SA
atom (geometry) L = Lone pair
2 sp 2 0 Linear Linear AB2 BeF2, CO2, CS2, NO2

+
3 0 Trigonal Trigonal AB3 –

BF3, AlCl3, SO3, NO3 , CO3
2–
2 Planar Planar
3 sp –
2 1 Do Bent AB2L SO2, PbCl2, SnCl2,NO2
4 0 Tetrahedral Tetrahedral AB4 2–

CH4, SiCl4, SO4 , ClO4
–
4 sp
3
3 1 Do Pyramidal AB3L NH3, NF3, PH3, PCl3, H3O
+
2 2 Do Bent AB 2L2 H2O, NH2–
5 0 Trigonal Trigonal PCl5, PF5, SbCl5

AB5
bipyramidal bipyramidal
5 sp3d 4 1 Do See-saw AB4L SF4, TeF4
3 2 Do T-shape AB 3L2 ClF3, BrF3
– –
2 3 Do Linear AB 2L3 XeF2, I3 , Br3
6 0 Octahedral Octahedral AB6 SF6, SeF6

6 sp3d2
5 1 Do AB5L IF5, BrF5
4 2 Do Square planar AB 4L2 XeF4
HYDROGEN BOND
It is the force of attraction that exists between the hydrogen atom covalently bonded to highly electronegative
atom (N or F or O) in a molecule and the electronegative atom of the same or neighbouring molecule. the
bond is represented by a dotted line as shown below.
..... H – F ..... H – F ..... H – F .....
The hydrogen bond is of two types, inter molecular (formed between H atom of one molecule with
electronegative atom of neighbouring molecule) and Intra molecular (formed between H atom and
electronegative atom of the same molecule).
z Intermolecular hydrogen bonding decreases the volatility and increases the viscosity and surface tension
of a substance.
z Order of strength of hydrogen bonding
H --------- F > H ---- O > H ----------- N
Energy 10 kcal/mole 7 kcal/mole 2.0 kcal/mole
z Because of hydrogen bonding water (H2O) has higher boiling point than that of H2S.
z Because of hydrogen bonding the boiling point of HF is higher than that of HCl.
z A few examples of molecules which form intramolecular hydrogen bonds are given as follows.
O O
N C
O O
H
H O
O N
O
o-nitrophenol o-nitrobenzoic acid
RESONANCE
When a molecule can be represented by more than one electronic arrangements none of which explains the
known properties of the compound, then, the actual structure is intermediate of the various electron
arrangements and is known as resonance hybrid.The various electronic arrangements are known as resonating
structures or canonical structures or contributing structures.
Example: Ozone (O3)
O O
O O O O
128 pm
Resonance hybrid: O
O O
117°
Some notable features of resonance are

z The contributing structures should not differ in atomic arrangemnt
z The contributing structures should have same number of unpaired electrons
z Hybrid structure is more stable than any of the resonating structure
z The difference between the energy of actual structure and most stable resonating form is termed as
resonance energy.
MOLECULAR ORBITAL THEORY

Developed by Hund and Mulliken it suggests that in molecules electrons are present in new orbitals called
molecular orbitals and that they are not associated with the atoms. Important postulates of the theory are
as under
z Just like electrons of atoms are present in atomic orbitals, electrons of a molecule are present in
molecular orbitals.
z Molecular orbitals are formed by the combination of atomic orbitals of nearly equal energies.
z The number of molecular orbitals formed is equal to the number of combining atomic orbitals.
Half of these are called bonding molecular orbital (lower energy) while other half are called
antibonding molecular orbital (higher energy).
z Shapes of the molecular orbital depend on the shapes of combining atomic orbitals.
z Filling of electrons in various molecular orbital takes place according to Aufbau, Pauli and Hund’s rules
for the filling of atomic orbitals.
Linear Combination of Atomic Orbitals (LCAO)

z Molecular orbitals are formed by the linear combination of atomic orbitals i.e. the wave functions of
combining atomic orbitals may either be added or may be subtracted.
(MO) = A  B
(Bonding) = A + B
 (Antibonding) = A – B
z A wave possesses a crest and a trough. When orbitals approach in such a way that the crest falls over
the crest, a bonding molecular orbital is formed. When the crest of one wave falls over the through of
the other, an antibonding molecular orbital is formed.
z Probability of finding electrons in the bonding molecular orbital is always greater than that of sum of
probabilities in the atomic orbitals.
b2 = (A + B)2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB and
a2 = (A – B)2 = A2 + B2 – 2AB
z Bonding molecular orbital are designated as ,  while the notations for antibonding molecular orbital are
*, *.
z Bonding molecular orbitals are more stable while antibonding molecular orbitals are less stable.
Node
Subtractive – *s
combination
Additive + s
combination
(a)
Node
*2p
2p
(b)
Node
*2p
2p
(c)
Fig. (a) : s orbital forming s & *s, Fig. (b) : pz orbital forming 2pz &  * 2p z ,
Fig. (c) : px or py forming 2px / 2p y &  * 2px /  * 2p y
Conditions for the Formation of Molecular Orbitals– Combination of Atomic Orbitals

z Combining atomic orbitals should have nearly equal energies.
z Combining atomic orbitals must have proper orientations.
Types of Molecular Orbitals Formed
z Sigma Molecular Orbitals : When 1s atomic orbital combines with 1s or 2s combines with
2s, two sigma molecular orbitals are formed. They are marked as bonding () and antibonding (*)
molecular orbital.
z –Molecular Orbitals :When 2px combines with 2px (or 2py with 2py) two –molecular orbitals are formed
namely bonding () and antibonding (*)
Electronic Configuration, Bond Order for Diatomic Molecules
z Before representing the molecular orbital energy level diagram we must arrange various orbitals in the
order of increasing energy
1s <*1s < 2s < *2s < 2pz <2px = 2py < *2px = *2py < *2pz
z But the order of energy levels of 2pz and (2px = 2py) is reversed for molecular Carbon, Boron, Nitrogen
Bond Order
z Bond order is defined as half of the difference between the number of electrons present in the bonding
and the antibonding molecular orbital.
z Bond order (n) = 1/2 (Nb – Na)
z Molecule is stable only when bond order is positive. If the bond order is negative or zero the molecule does
not exist. It may have whole number as well as fractional values. Higher the value of bond order, greater
must be the stability of molecule or molecular ion. Further, higher the bond order, shorter the bond.
To elaborate certain examples are taken as under
(a) Hydrogen
H2 :  (1s)2 ; n = 1
H2 :  (1s)1 ; n = 1/2,

H2 :  (1s)2  * (1s1 ) ; n = 1/2
This indicates that both H2 and H2+ are stable and H2 is more stable than H2+. Both H2+ and H2–
should be paramagnetic also as they have a half filled molecular orbital.
(b) Helium.
He2 does not exist as is shown by configuration
He2 — [(1s)]2 [(1s)]2 ; n = 0
But He2+ may exist as its bond order will be positive
He2+ — [1s2(1s)]1 ; n = 1/2
Its stability and bond length is comparable to H2+.
(c) Nitrogen
N2 – [(1s)]2, [*(1s)]2, [(2s)]2, [*(2s)]2, [  (2p x ) ]2 = [  (2p y ) ]2, [  (2p z ) ]2 : n = 3.
High value of bond order (3) implies that it should have highest bond dissociation energy as
compared to all other diatomic molecules.
N2+ and N2– both exhibit bond order 2.5 and are found to be paramagnetic due to the presence of
one unpaired electron. Stability of these three is in the order
N2 > N2+  N2–
(d) Oxygen
O2– [(1s)]2, [*(1s)]2, [(2s)]2, [*(2s)]2, [ (2p z ) ]2, [ (2p x ) ]2 = [ (2p y ) ]2, [  * (2p x ) ]1 =[  * (2p y ) ]1
Bond order, n = 2
O2+ has bond order 2.5 as one electron is removed from the antibonding molecular orbital
O2– has bond order 1.5 as an additional electron is added to the antibonding molecular orbital
O22– has bond order 1.0 as two electrons are added to the two antibonding molecular orbital stability
order (and bond dissociation energy) of the four species are as under:
O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–
Bond distances are in the reverse order ; O2+ < O2 < O2– < O22–. Out of these four species O2,
O2+ and O2– are paramagnetic due to the presence of 2, 1, 1 unpaired electrons respectively while
O22– is diamagnetic as it has no unpaired electron.
(e) Fluorine
Total number of electrons in F2 molecule is 18 and so it resembles the configuration of O2– –
F2 — [(1s)]2, [*(1s)]2, [(2s)]2, [*(2s)]2, [ (2p z ) ]2, [ (2p x ) ]2 = [ (2p y ) ]2, [  * (2p x ) ]2 = [  * (2py ) ]2
Its bond order n is 1 and it should be diamagnetic due to the presence of all orbitals as fully
occupied.
(f) Neon
Ne2 does not exist as its bond order comes to be zero.
(g) NO+ = 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2pz2 2px2 = 2py2 *px0 = *2py0 *2pz0
10  4
B.O. = 3
2
2
(h) CO – [(1s)]2, [*(1s)]2, [(2s)]2, [*(2s)]2, [(2p x )]2 = [ (2p y )] , [(2pz )]2
B.O. = 3
EXERCISE
16. In the formation of ethylene molecule, the carbon atom makes use of
(1) sp3 hybridisation (2) sp2 hybridisation
(3) sp hybridisation (4) dsp2 hybridisation
17. On hybridisation of one s and one p-orbitals, we get
(1) Two mutually perpendicular hybrid orbitals (2) Two equivalent hybrid orbitals at 180°
(3) Four hybrid orbitals directed tetrahedrally (4) Three hybrid orbitals in the plane
18. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals in its bonding is
(1) PH3 (2) AsH3
(3) NH3 (4) CH3+
19. The Cl–C–Cl angle is 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethene and tetrachloromethane respectively will be about
(1) 109.5° and 90° (2) 120° and 109.5°
(3) 90° and 109.5° (4) 109.5° and 120°
20. The number of unpaired electrons in O2 molecule is
(1) Zero (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
21. The high boiling point of water is due to
(1) Its high specific heat (2) Hydrogen bonding between the molecules
(3) Weak dissociation of water molecules (4) Its high dietectric constant
22. Strongest hydrogen bonding is present in
(1) HF (2) HCl
(3) HBr (4) HI
23. Resonance structure of a molecule should not have
(1) Identical arrangements of atoms (2) Nearly same energy content
(3) The same number of paired electrons (4) Identical bonding
24. The pair of species with the same bond order is
(1) NO, CO (2) N2, O2
(3) O22–, B2 (4) O2+, NO+
25. During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
(1) * orbitals (2)  orbitals
(3) * orbitals (4)  orbitals
26. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them
(1) NO < O2– < C22– < He2+ (2) O2– < NO < C22– < He2+
(3) C22– < He2+ < O2– < NO (4) He2+ < O2– < NO < C22–

nt
me nment
sigAnssig
Assignment
As
Assignment
SECTION - A 8. In NO3 ion, the number of bond pairs of electrons
NCERT Based MCQs around nitrogen atom are [NCERT Pg. 115]
(1) 2 (2) 5
1. Which of the following options is/are true?
(3) 1 (4) 4
[NCERT Pg. 106]
9. In which of the following molecules/ions, all the
(1) Ionic bonds have non-directional nature bonds are not equal? [NCERT Pg. 108]
(2) Ionic bonds do not show any isomerism
(1) XeF4 (2) BF4○
(3) Generally, ionic compounds have high melting
points (3) C2H2 (4) SiF4
(4) All are true 10. Correct Lewis representation of O3 molecule is
2. Hypervalent species among the following is [NCERT Pg. 103]
[NCERT Pg. 105] +
O O
(1) BF3 (2) CO2 (1) (2)
O O O O
(3) SiF4 (4) XeF6
+ 2+
The ratio of -bond and -bond in tetracyano- O
(4) – O –
3.
(3) –
ethylene, C2(CN)4 is [NCERT Pg. 103] O O O O
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
11. Antibonding *2px molecular orbital is represented
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4 by [NCERT Pg. 128]
4. Covalency of chlorine atom after the excitation of
two electrons will be [NCERT Pg. 102] +
(1) + – (2)
–
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 7
+ –
5. Number of 120° bond angles present in BF3 is (3) (4) +
[NCERT Pg. 114] – +
(1) 4 (2) 5
12. The hybridisation state of central atom in SF6 is
(3) 2 (4) 3 [NCERT Pg. 125]
6. In PO34 ion, the average charge on the oxygen (1) sp3d 2
atoms is [NCERT Pg. 105]
(2) sp3d 3
(1) +1 (2) –1
(3) dsp2
(3) –0.75 (4) +0.75
(4) sp3
7. Bond order of S – O bond in SO24 is 13. The shape of ClF3 molecule is [NCERT Pg. 115]
[NCERT Pg. 109] (1) See-saw
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (2) Bent T-shape

(3) Bent (V-shaped)
4
(3) 3 (4) (4) Trigonal planar
3
14. Intramolecular H-bonding is shown by 5. An example of non-polar molecule is

[NCERT Pg. 132] (1) BF3 (2) ClF3
OH (3) PCl3 (4) SO2

NO2 6. The hybrid orbital used by chlorine atom in ClO2–
(i)
ion is
(1) sp3 (2) sp2
NO2
(3) sp (4) sp3d
(ii) 7. Of the following, the compound that obeys the
COOH octet rule is
(1) SO2 (2) BCl3
COOH
OH (3) PCl3 (4) SiF62–
(iii) 8. Bond order of carbon-carbon bond in benzene is
(1) 3 (2) 1.5
(1) Only (i)
(3) 2 (4) 4
(2) Both (ii) and (iii)
9. Shape of XeF4 is
(3) Both (i) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (1) Spherical (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
15. The compound possessing maximum covalent (3) Square planar (4) Tetrahedral
character among the following is 10. The planar molecule among the following is
[NCERT Pg. 112]
(1) BCl3 (2) SOCl2
(1) LiCl (2) NaCl
(3) NH3 (4) NF3
(3) CsCl (4) KCl
11. Bond angle in water molecules is 104.5° instead of
SECTION - B 109°28 mainly because of
Objective Type Questions (1) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion
1. Which of the following contain both ionic and (2) Bond pair-lone pair repulsion
covalent bonds? (3) Lone pair-lone pair replusion
(1) H2O (2) NaOH
(4) Bond pair-bond pair repulsion
(3) C6H5Cl (4) CO2
12. Percentage covalent character is higher in
2. Which of the following will have high lattice
energy? (1) NaF (2) NaCl
(1) LiCl (2) MgCl2 (3) NaBr (4) NaI

(3) NaCl (4) CsCl 13. The molecules BF3 and NF3 are both covalent
3. Compound having sp3d hybridisation is compounds, but BF3 is non-polar where as NF3 is
polar. The reason for this is
(1) BF3 (2) PF5
(1) B is a metal while nitrogen is a gas in
(3) SF6 (4) IF7
uncombined state
4. On hydridization of one s and one p orbitals we get
(2) B-F bonds are non-polar while N-F bonds are
(1) Two mutually perpendicular orbitals polar
(2) Two orbitals at 180o (3) BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal
(3) Four orbitals directed tetrahedrally
(4) Atomic size of boron is larger than that of
(4) Three orbitals in a plane Nitrogen
14. AlCl3 is covalent while AlF3 is ionic. This fact can 22. Polarisation is the distortion of the shape of an
be justified on the basis of anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which of the
following statements is correct?
(1) Valence bond theory (2) Crystal structure
(1) Maximum polarisation is brought about by a
(3) Lattice energy (4) Fajan rules
cation of high charge
15. The hydrocarbon with variety of hybridisation of (2) Minimum polarisation is brought about by a
carbon atom cation of low radius
(1) CH CH (2) (3) A large cation is likely to bring about a large
degree of polarisation
(3) (4) (4) A small anion is likely to undergo a large
degree of polarisation
16. Which of the following exists? 23. The acetone has
(1) KHF2 (2) KHCl2 (1) 9 sigma bond 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs
(3) KHBr2 (4) KHI2 (2) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs
17. Which one of the following statements is not true? (3) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair
(1) Ortho nitrophenol is intramolecularly hydrogen (4) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pairs
bonded monomer
24. In a regular octahedral molecule of SF6 the number
(2) Para and meta nitrophenol are intermolecularly of F–S–F bonds at 180° is
hydrogen bonded molecules (1) Four (2) Three
(3) Ortho hydroxy phenol is intramolecularly (3) Two (4) Six
hydrogen bonded molecules
25. The correct order of increasing C–O bond length of
(4) Water is intramolecularly hydrogen bonded CO, CO2, CO32– is
molecule
(1) CO32– < CO2 < CO (2) CO2 < CO32– < CO
18. Which molecule has the largest dipole moment?
(3) CO < CO32– < CO2 (4) CO < CO2 < CO32–
(1) HCl (2) HBr
26. A co-ordinate bond is formed when an atom in a
(3) Hl (4) HF molecule has
19. 1 Debye is equal to (1) NO unshared electrons
(1) 10–18 e.s.u. cm (2) All its valency shell electrons shared
(2) 10–10 e.s.u. cm (3) A single unshared electron
(3) 10–12 e.s.u. cm (4) One or more unshared electron pairs
(4) 10–15 e.s.u. cm 27. Which of the following species not exists?
20. The observed dipole moment of HCl is 1.03 D. (1) BF3 (2) NF3
Bond length is 1.275 Å then the percentage of (3) PF5 (4) NF5
ionic character is
28. H-bond is not present in
(1) 16.83% (2) 21%
(1) Glycerol (2) Water
(3) 30.72% (4) 14.21% (3) H2S (4) HF
21. The order of decreasing polarity in the compounds 29. Which one of the statements is not true for salicyl-
CaO, CsF, KCl, MgO is aldehyde?
(1) CaO > CsF > KCl > MgO (1) It is intra molecularly hydrogen bonded
(2) MgO > KCl > CaO > CsF (2) It is steam volatile
(3) KCl > CsF > MgO > CaO (3) Have higher solubilities in organic solvents
(4) CsF > KCl > CaO > MgO (4) Have high melting point and boiling points
30. Dipole moment is zero for which of the following 40. Linear combination of atomic orbitals gives rise to
pair of molecules? (1) Hybridized orbital (2) Molecular orbitals
(1) BF3, SO2 (2) BF3, CCl4 (3) Non bonding orbitals (4) -orbitals
(3) SO2, CHCl3 (4) CCl4, SO2 41. Which d-orbital is involved in sp3d hybridization?
+
31. In the formation of N2 from N2, the electron is
removed from a (1) d (2) d z 2
x2 y 2
(1)  orbital (3) dxy (4) dzx

(2)  orbital 42. Which of the following has least bond angle?
(3) * orbital (1) CH4 (2) BF3
(4) * orbital (3) H2O (4) NH3
32. Which sequence correctly describes relative bond 43. Which of the following is most stable?
strength of oxygen molecule, superoxide ion and
peroxide ion? (1) H2 (2) H2
(1) O2 < O2– < O22– (2) O2 > O2– > O22–
(3) H2 (4) H22
(3) O2 > O2– < O22– (4) O2 < O2– > O22–
33. Bond order of B2 and its magnetic property is 44. In which of the following, resonance is possible?
(1) 1 and Diamagnetic (2) 2 and Paramagnetic (1) CH4 (2) NH3
(3) 1 and Paramagnetic (4) 2 and Diamagnetic (3) O3 (4) O2
34. The highest bond order is in 45. Unit of dipole moment is
(1) O2 (2) N2+ (1) Cm (2) esu cm
(3) O2– (4) C2 (3) Debye (4) All of these
35. Which of these orbitals has two nodes? 46. The anion having highest polarizability is
(1) 1s (2) *2pz (1) F– (2) Cl–
(3) 2p x (4)  * 2p x (3) Br – (4) I–
36. The maximum number of 180° angles between bond 47. Consider the following statements
pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in I. Bond enthalpy increases as bond order
increases
(1) sp2 hybridisation (2) sp3d2 hybridisation
II. Bond length decreases as bond order
(3) dsp2 hybridisation (4) sp3d3 hybridisation increases
37. Highest energy molecular orbital occupied in case III. There is no effect of electronegativity on bond
of N2+ is energy
(1) 2pz (2)  * 2p z Select the correct statement(s)
(1) I & II
(3) 2p x (4)  * 2p y
(2) II & III
38. Molecular orbital not having any nodal plane is (3) I & III
(1) 2s (2) *2s (4) I, II & III
(3) 2py (4)  * 2p y 48. Electron deficient molecule is

(1) SiH4
39. Which of the following molecular species has
unpaired electron(s)? (2) H2S
(1) N2– (2) O2 (3) B2H6
(3) B2– (4) All of these (4) IF7
49. Match the column I and column II 4. Which of the following diatomic molecular species
Column I Column II has only  bonds according to Molecular Orbital
Theory? [NEET-2019]
(Molecule) (Dipole moment, D)
(1) O2 (2) N2
a. H2O (i) 0.23
(3) C2 (4) Be2
b. NH3 (ii) 1.91
5. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its
c. NF3 (iii) 1.85 structure in Column-II and assign the correct
d. HF (iv) 1.47 code: [NEET-2019]
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(ii), d(i) Column-I Column-II
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(iii), d(i) (a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
50. Which of the following would have maximum dipole (d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
moment? Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Cl Cl
Cl Cl (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (2)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Cl (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Cl 6. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pair of
Cl Cl Cl
(3) (4) electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is [NEET-2018]
(1) One (2) Two
Cl Cl
(3) Three (4) Four
SECTION - C 7. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an

ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
Previous Years Questions configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest
1. Which of the following is paramagnetic? formula for this compound is [NEET-2018]
[NEET-2019 (Odisha)] (1) Mg2X3 (2) MgX2

(3) Mg3X2 (4) Mg2X
(1) O2 (2) N2
8. Consider the following species :
(3) H2 (4) Li2
CN+, CN–, NO and CN
2. Which of the following is the correct order of dipole Which one of these will have the highest bond
moment? [NEET-2019 (Odisha)] order? [NEET-2018]
(1) H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3 (1) NO (2) CN–
(2) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O (3) CN (4) CN+
(3) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O 9. Which of the following pairs of compounds is
isoelectronic and isostructural? [NEET-2017]
(4) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O
(1) BeCl2, XeF2 (2) Tel2, XeF2
3. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s)
(3) IBr2 , XeF2 (4) IF3, XeF2
associated with CuSO4  5H2O is
10. The species, having bond angles of 120° is
[NEET-2019 (Odisha)] [NEET-2017]
(1) 5 (2) 3 (1) PH3 (2) CIF3
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) NCl3 (4) BCl3
11. Which one of the following pairs of species have 18. Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which
the same bond order? [NEET-2017] of the given statements is false? [NEET-2016]
(1) CO, NO (2) O2, NO+ (1) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than
(3) CN–, CO (4) N2, O2– the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
12. Which one of the following compounds shows the (2) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N –
presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond? H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond
[NEET-Phase-2-2016] angle in H2O are all greater than 90°
(1) H2O2 (3) The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger
(2) HCN than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
(3) Cellulose (4) The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller
(4) Concentrated acetic acid than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
13. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in 19. Decreasing order of stability of O2, O2–, O2+ and
NO2 , NO3 and NH4 respectively are O22– is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
[NEET-Phase-2-2016] (1) O2 > O2+ > O22– > O2–
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2, sp3 and sp (2) O2– > O22– > O2+ > O2
(3) sp, sp2 and sp3 (4) sp2, sp and sp3
(3) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–
14. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic
and isostructural? [NEET-Phase-2-2016] (4) O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+
20. In which of the following pairs, both the species are
(1) CO32 , NO3 (2) CIO3 , CO23 not isostructural? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(3) SO32, NO3 (4) CIO3 , SO32 (1) NH3, PH3

(2) XeF4, XeO4
15. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4
are [NEET-Phase-2-2016] (3) SiCl4, PCl4+
(1) Octahedral, sp3d2 (4) Diamond, silicon carbide
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d 21. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in
(3) Planar triangle, sp3d3 which of the following? [AIPMT-2015]
(4) Square planar, sp3d2 (1) NO3 (2) NO2

16. Among the following, which one is a wrong
statement? [NEET-Phase-2-2016] (3) NO2 (4) NO2
(1) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist
22. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has
(2) p-d bonds are present in SO2
[AIPMT-2015]
(3) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape H H2
H3C C O H3C C O
(4) I3 has bent geometry C C C C
17. Predict the correct order among the following. OH OC2H5 O OC2H5
[NEET-2016] (1) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
(1) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > (2) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
lone pair - lone pair (3) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
(2) lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > (4) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
bond pair - bond pair
23. Which of the following species contains equal
(3) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > number of - and -bonds? [AIPMT-2015]
lone pair - bond pair
(1) CH2(CN)2 (2) HCO3–
(4) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair >
lone pair - lone pair (3) XeO4 (4) (CN)2
24. The correct bond order in the following species is 31. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
[AIPMT-2015] [NEET-2013]
(1) SF4 (2) SiF4
(1) O2–  O2  O22 
(3) XeF4 (4) BF3
(2) O 2+ + –
2 < O2 < O2
32. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
[NEET-2013]
(3) O2+ – +
2 < O2 < O2 (1) O2– (2) CN–
(3) NO+ (4) CO
(4) O+2 < O2– < O22+
33. The pair of species with the same bond order is
25. Which of the following pairs of ions are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
isoelectronic and isostructural? [AIPMT-2015] (1) NO, CO (2) N2, O2
(1) ClO3 , SO32 (3) O22 , B2 (4) O2 , NO+
(2) CO32 , SO32 34. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by

(3) ClO3 , CO32 (1) O22 (2) O2
2 
(4) SO , NO
3 3 (3) O2 (4) O2
26. Which of the following options represents the 35. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural
correct bond order? [AIPMT-2015] (i.e. having the same shape and hybridization)?
(1) O2  O2  O2 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) [NF3 and BF3] (2) [BF4– and NH4+]
(2) O2  O2  O2
(3) [BCl3 and BrCl3] (4) [NH3 and NO3–]
(3) O2  O 2  O2 36. During change of O2 to O2 ion, the electron adds
on which one of the following orbitals?
(4) O2  O2  O2
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
27. The total number of -bond electrons in the (1) * orbitals (2) orbitals
following structure is [AIPMT-2015]
(3) * orbitals (4) orbitals
H3C H H H 37. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the
CH3 correct order in which the bond order is increasing
H3C in them [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
H2C H CH3 (1) NO < O2 < C22 < He2
(1) 16 (2) 4 (2) O2 < NO < C22 < He2

(3) 8 (4) 12 (3) C22 < He2 < O2 < NO
28. Which of the following molecules has the maximum
(4) He2 < O2 < NO < C22
dipole moment? [AIPMT-2014]
38. Which of the following has the minimum bond
(1) CO2 (2) CH4
length? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(3) NH3 (4) NF3
(1) O2 (2) O2
29. Which one of the following species has plane
(3) O2 (4) O22
triangular shape ? [AIPMT-2014]
39. The correct order of increasing bond length of
(1) N3 (2) NO3 C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is
(3) NO2 (4) CO2 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
30. Which one of the following molecules contains no (1) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C
 bond ? [NEET-2013] (2) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C
(1) H2O (2) SO2 (3) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H
(3) NO2 (4) CO2 (4) C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C
40. Which of the two ions from the list given below that 46. In which of the following molecules the central
have the geometry that is explained by the same atom does not have sp3 hybridization?
hybridization of orbitals NO2 , NO3 , NH2 , NH4 , [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
SCN– [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) CH4 (2) SF4
 
(1) NO and NH
2 2 (3) BF4– (4) NH+4
(2) NO2 and NO3 47. Some of the properties of the two species, NO3
and H3O+ are described below. Which one of them
(3) NH4 and NO3
is correct? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(4) SCN– and NH2 (1) Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom
41. Which of the following structures is the most preferred with different structures
and hence of lowest energy for SO3 ? (2) Isostructural with same hybridization for the
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011] central atom
|O| |O| (3) Isostructural with different hybridization for the
S S
central atom
(1) (2)
|
|O
|O
|
|O
|O|
|O
|
(4) Similar in hybridization for the central atom

|
with different structures

|O|
S S 48. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond
(3) (4)
|
|O
|O
|
|O
that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH

|O
|
|
42. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic to a gas? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
behaviours are noted below. Which of the following (1) Dipole-dipole interaction
presents the correct description?
(2) Covalent bonds
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(3) London dispersion force
(1) O2+, O2 – Both paramagnetic
(4) Hydrogen bonding
(2) O2, O22 – Both paramagnetic 49. According to MO theory which of the following lists
(3) O2–, O22 – Both diamagnetic ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing
bond order? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(4) O2 , O22 – Both paramagnetic (1) N22  N2  N2
43. Which one of the following species does not exist (2) N2  N22  N2
under normal conditions? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(3) N2  N22  N2
(1) Be2 (2) Be2
(3) B2 (4) Li2 (4) N2  N2  N22
44. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, 50. In which of the following molecules/ions BF3, NO2–,
the central atoms have sp2 hybridization? NH2– and H2O, the central atom is sp2 hybridized ?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) NO2 and NH3 (2) BF3 and NO2 (1) NH2 and H2O (2) NO2 and H2O
(3) BF3 and NO2 (4) NO2 and NH2

(3) NH2 and H2O (4) BF3 and NH2
51. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character
45. In which one of the following species the central
decreases in the order [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
atom has the type of hybridization which is not the
same as that present in the other three? (1) MF > MCl > MBr > M
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (2) MF > MCl > M > MBr
(1) SF4 (2) l–3 (3) M > MBr > MCl > MF
(3) SbCl3– (4) PCl5 (4) MCl > M > MBr > MF
52. Four diatomic species are listed below the different 58. The number of unpaired electrons in a
sequences. Which of these presents the correct order paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with
of their increasing bond order? atomic number 16 is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
(1) He2  O2  NO  C22
59. Which of the following species has a linear shape?
(2) O2  NO  C22  He2 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(3) NO  C22  O2  He2 (1) NO2 (2) SO2
(4) C22  He2  NO  O2
(3) NO2 (4) O3
53. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) consists of
60. The electronegativity difference between N and F is
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] greater than that between N and H yet the dipole
(1) 2 sigma and 1 pi bond moment of NH3 (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3
(0.2 D). This is because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(2) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(1) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and
(3) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds bond dipole are in the same direction
(4) 1 sigma and 1 pi bond (2) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are
54. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the in the same direction whereas in NF3 these
following triatomic species is are in opposite directions
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (3) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and
bond dipole are in opposite directions
(1) NO2 < NO2 < NO2
(4) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are
(2) NO2 < NO2 < NO2 in the opposite directions whereas in NF 3
these are in the same directions
(3) NO2 < NO2 < NO2 61. Which of the following molecules has trigonal
planar geometry? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(4) NO2 < NO2 < NO2
(1) IF3 (2) PCl3
55. The correct order of (C–O) bond length among CO,
(3) NH3 (4) BF3
CO32 , CO2 is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
62. Which of the following would have a permanent
(1) CO < CO2 < CO32 (2) CO2 < CO32 < CO dipole moment ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) BF3 (2) SiF4
(3) CO < CO32 < CO2 (4) CO32 < CO2 < CO
(3) SF4 (4) XeF4
56. In which of the following pairs, the two species are 63. The correct order in which the O – O bond length
iso-structural ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] increases in the following is
(1) BrO3 and XeO3 (2) SF4 and XeF4 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (2) O3 < H2O2 < O2
(3) SO32 and NO3 (4) BF3 and NF3
(3) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (4) O2 < H2O2 < O3
57. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
64. The correct sequence of increasing covalent
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] character is represented by
(1) The electron-deficient molecules can act as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
Lewis acids (1) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 (2) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
(2) The canonical structures have no real (3) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (4) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
existence 65. Which one of the following oxides is expected to
(3) Every AB5 molecule does in fact have square exhibit paramagnetic behaviour?
pyramid structure [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(4) Multiple bonds are always shorter than (1) CO2 (2) SO2
corresponding single bonds (3) CIO2 (4) SiO2
Questions asked prior to Medical Ent. Exams. 2005 74. In which of the following compound there is more
66. Which of the following species contains three bond than one kind of hybridization (sp, sp 2 , sp 3 ) for
pairs and two lone pairs around the central atom? carbon?
(1) CH2 = CH–CH = CH2
(1) NH2– (2) ClF3
(2) H–C  C–H
(3) H2O (4) BF3
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH3
67. Bond order of 2.5 is shown by
(4) CH3–CH = CH–CH3
(1) O22– (2) O2
75. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy?
(3) O2+ (4) O2–
(1) C–C (2) CC
68. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be
(3) C=C (4) C–H
considered to be hybridized to give three equivalent
sp2 orbitals. The total number of sigma () and pi 76. The structure and hybridization of Si(CH3)4 is
() bonds in ethene molecule is (1) Octahedral, sp3d (2) Tetrahedral, sp3
(1) 1 sigma () and 2 pi () bonds (3) Bent, sp (4) Trigonal, sp2
(2) 3 sigma () and 2 pi () bonds 77. The number of bonding electron pairs in N2 on the
(3) 4 sigma () and 1 pi () bonds basis of molecular orbital theory is
(4) 5 sigma () and 1 pi () bonds (1) 3 (2) 2
69. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (3) 5 (4) 4

78. Which compound is electron deficient?
(1) C22 (2) Na2O2
(1) NCl3 (2) BCl3
(3) NO2 (4) CO
(3) CCl4 (4) PCl5
70. The geometry of electron pairs around I in IF5 is 79. Which compound form polymer due to H-bond?
(1) Octahedral (1) H2S (2) NF3
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal (3) HF (4) HCl
(3) Square pyramidal 80. Cation and anion combines in a crystal to form
(4) Pentagonal planar following type of compound
71. In which of the following pair both the species have (1) Ionic (2) Metallic
sp3 hybridization? (3) Covalent (4) Dipole-dipole
(1) H2S, BF3 (2) SiF4, BeH2 81. Which compound has tetrahedral structure?
(3) NF3, H2O (4) NF3, BF3 (1) XeF4 (2) XeOF2
72. In the hydrocarbon (3) XeO2F2 (4) XeO4
CH3 82. In which of the following bond angle is maximum?
CH 3 – C  C – CH – C  CH (1) NH3 (2) PCl4+
6 5 4 3 2 1
(3) BCl3 (4) PCl6–
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are
83. In X – H ... Y, X and Y both are electronegative
in the following sequence
elements. Then
(1) sp3, sp2, sp (2) sp2, sp, sp3
(1) Electron density on X will increase and on H
(3) sp, sp3, sp (4) sp, sp2, sp3 will decrease
73. Which of the following molecule does not possess (2) In both electron density will increase
a permanent dipole moment?
(3) In both electron density will decrease
(1) CS2 (2) SO32–
(4) On X electron density will decrease and on H
(3) H2S (4) SO2 increases
84. Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, molecular 3. Which of the following is/are not a correct
orbital p x and p x overlap to form which of the statement?
following orbitals?
(1) The canonical structure of a molecule or
(1)  molecular orbital
species have no real existence
(2)  molecular orbital
(2) Multiple bonds are always shorter than
(3)  molecular orbital
corresponding single bonds
(4) No bond will form
85. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of (3) Every AB 5 type molecule have square
the hydrocarbon, pyramidal structure
CH3 CH3 (4) All of these
CH3 C CH CH CH C CH 4. In PO34 ion, number of bond pair and lone pair of

7 6 5 4 3 2 1
electrons on phosphorus atom respectively are
CH3
is in the following sequence (1) 5, 1
(1) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) 4, 1
(2) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3
(3) 3, 1
(3) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp
(4) 5, 0
(4) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
86. For two ionics solids CaO and KI, identify the 5. Which of the following pairs of molecular species
wrong statement among the following. is/are isostructural?
(1) CaO has high melting point (1) NH3 & NO3–
(2) Lattice energy of CaO is much larger than that
of KI (2) BF4– & NH4
(3) KI has high melting point (3) XeF2 & IF 2–
(4) KI is soluble in benzene
(4) Both (2) & (3)
87. Which of the following organic compounds has
same hybridization as its combustion product 6. Which one of the following molecules contain no
–(CO2)? -bond?
(1) Ethane (1) SO2
(2) Ethyne
(2) NO3–
(3) Ethene
(4) Ethanol (3) CO32 –
(4) H3O
SECTION - D
7. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?
NEET Booster Questions
1. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-orbitals (1) With increase in bond order of molecular
involved in sp3d2 hybridization is species, bond length decreases and bond
strength increases
(1) d xz & d x 2  y 2 (2) d x 2  y 2 & d z 2
(2) Electrons in antibonding molecular orbital
contribute to repulsion between the nuclei of
(3) d z 2 & d xz (4) d xy & d zx
two atoms of a molecule
2. The angle between the overlapping of one s-orbital (3) The bond energy of a diatomic molecule or
and one p-orbital at the internuclear axis is
species may increase or decrease when an
(1) 120º (2) 120º 28 electron is lost
(3) 180º (4) 109º 28 (4) All of these
8. Which of the following species is/are 16. Which of the following is/are incorrect about
paramagnetic? H-bonding?
(1) O2 (2) O2 (1) o–nitrophenol shows intramolecular H-bonding
(2) Intramolecular H-bonding is formed within same
(3) O2 (4) All of these molecule
9. The compound which contains ionic, covalent and (3) Three H-bonds are formed per molecule of H2O
co-ordinate bonds is in solid phase
(1) HCN (2) KOH (4) All of these
(3) NH4CN (4) K2CO3 17. The correct order of the (O–O) bond length in O2,
Na2O2 and O3 is
10. The hybridisation of nitrogen in is (1) O3 > Na2O2 > O2 (2) Na2O2 > O3 > O2
N (3) O2 > Na2O2 > O3 (4) O2 > O3 > Na2O2
| 18. Which of the following has maximum covalent
H
character?
(1) sp (2) sp2 (1) LiCl (2) BCl3
(3) sp3 (4) sp3d (3) BeCl2 (4) CCl4
11. Which of the following molecule is polar? 19. In which of the following ionisation processes the
bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour
(1) PF3Cl2 (2) PCl5
changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
(3) PCl3F2 (4) XeF4 (1) NO  NO (2) C2  C2
12. Which of the following species have both  and 
(3) Be2  Be2 (4) N2  N2
bond according to molecular orbital theory?
20. Intermolecular H-bonding is shown by
(1) N2 (2) B2
(1) NH3 (2) H2O
(3) C2 (4) All of these
(3) HF (4) All of these
13. Which of the following is written correctly about 21. Which of the following is correctly matched for
CO32 ion? hybridisation?
Column-I Column-II
(1) It shows bond order of 1.5
(2) It shows three equally contributing resonating (1) sp2
structures
(3) Formal charge on carbon in CO32 is +1
(4) It has trigonal pyramidal structure (2) sp
14. Which of the following units is possible for the

dipole moment?
(1) Centimetre
(2) Metre
(3) Debye (3) sp3d
(4) All of these
15. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(1) Shape of SF4 molecule is see-saw
(2) Geometry of XeF6 is pentagonal bipyramidal
(3) Shape of ClF3 is bent T-shape (4) sp3d2
(4) The hybridisation of nitrogen in nitric oxide is
sp3
22. Which of the following is correct molecular orbital 25. Arrange the following in the increasing order of
representation of *-molecular orbital? (C–O) bond length
Na2CO3  CO2
CO CO
+ (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (1) (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)
–
(2) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)
(3) (iv) < (iii) < (i) = (ii)
+ – (4) (iii) < (iv) < (i) = (ii)
26. Which of the following (*) marked atom have sp2
(2)
– + hybridisation?
*
(3) – + – CH2 CH CH2
*
N* N*
H
(4) + – – +
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23. Which of the following is representation of positive (1) (a) only

overlap?
(2) (a) & (c) only
(1) – + + – (3) (a) & (b) only
pZ pZ z-axis
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
27. (a) BeO < MgO ionic nature
+ –
(b) O2– < O22– Paramagnetic nature
(2) z-axis (c) C2H2 > C2H4 (C – H) bond energy
– + (d) NH2 > NH3 Bond angle

pX pX Incorrect match among the following is/are
(1) (a) & (d) only
(2) (b) & (c) only
+
(3) (c) & (d) only
+ (4) (b) & (d) only
z-axis
(3) s 28. Correct order of bond angle is
– (1) OF2 < H2O < NH3 < Cl2O
pX
(2) OF2 < NH3 < Cl2O < H2O
(4) All of these (3) OF2 < Cl2O < H2O < NH3
24. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (4) Cl2O < OF2 < H2O < NH3
(1) -bond does not affect the shape of the 29. Species having identical geometry are
molecule
(a) I3 , CO2 (b) NO3 , SO2
(2) Generally -bonds are present with -bond
(c) [XeF4] and SF6 (d) NO2, NO3
(3) -bond allows the free-rotation between the
bonded atoms (1) (b) & (c) only (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(4) -bond is less stable than -bond (3) (a), (c) & (d) (4) (a) only
30. Which molecule contains both polar and nonpolar Correct statements is/are
covalent bonds? (1) (b) & (d) only
(1) SO3 (2) NH3 (2) (a) & (d) only
(3) N2H4 (4) XeOF4 (3) (b) only
31. Number of nodal planes in  2p x orbital and 2pz (4) All are correct
orbital are respectively 36. Which of the given molecule contains ionic bond,
covalent bond and coordinate bond?
(1) 1, 1 (2) 1, 0
(1) Li2CO3
(3) 2, 0 (4) 2, 1
(2) KCl
32. In which of the following processes stability
increases on the basis of bond order? (3) NH4Cl
(4) HCN
(1) O2  O2
37. Which of the following molecules contain(s)
(2) CO  CO
p  d bond?

(3) N2  N2 (1) SO2
(4) Both (1) & (2) (2) SO3
33. In which of the following dipole moment of first (3) H3PO4
species is more than second?
(4) All of these
(a) PCl3F2 and PCl2F3
38. According to octet rule the compound which
OH OH contain ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds
NO2 (1) CaSO4
(b) ;
(2) NH4Cl
NO2 (3) NaNO3
(c) CH3Cl ; CH3Br (4) All of these
(d) NH3 ; NF3 39. Which of the following molecule is having least
(1) (a), (c) & (d) only ionic character?
(1) FeCl2
(2) (b), (c) & (d) only
(2) ZnCl2
(3) (c) & (d) only
(3) MgCl2
(4) (b) & (d) only
(4) NaCl
34. For the conversion
40. In PO43– ion, the effective charge on each oxygen
NH3 NO3 atom and P–O bond order respectively are
Correct statement(s) among the following is/are (1) –0.75, 1.25
(1) Lone pair on central atom decreases (2) –0.75, 1.0
(2) Percentage of s-character increases (3) –0.75, 0.6
(3) Bond angle increases (4) –3, 1.25
(4) All are correct 41. A certain diatomic molecule, AB has dipole
moment 1.6 D and the internuclear distance is
35. (a) HF has higher boiling point than HCl 100 pm. The percentage of electronic charge
(b) Acetic acid dimerises in benzene due to existing on more electronegative atom is
H-Bond (1) 33%
(c) C — C Bond order in benzene is 1.5 (2) 25%
(d)  2s orbital have high energy than  2p z in (3) 50%
CO molecule (4) 10%
Cl 47. The maximum number of 180° angle possible
42. Dipole moment of is 1.1 D hence between X-M-X bond for compounds with sp3d 2
and sp3d hybridisation respectively are
dipole moment of given compound will be (1) 3, 3
Cl (2) 3, 1
Cl (3) 1, 3
(4) 3, 0
Cl Cl 48. Incorrect statement regarding hybridization is
(1) 1.1 D (1) It is not possible for isolated atoms

(2) Number of hybrid orbital formed is same as the
(2) 4.4 D
number of orbitals combining
(3) 3.3 D (3) Only the half filled orbitals and fully filled
(4) 2.56 D orbitals can participate not the empty orbital
43. In the given structure of a compound, the correct (4) It is not a real physical process
various bond moments direction involving atoms
are shown as
49. In hybrid state of N atom is
(1) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3 N
(2) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3 H
(3) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3 (1) sp2

(2) sp3
(4) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3
(3) sp3d2
44. Which molecule contains both polar and nonpolar
(4) sp
covalent bond?
50. The shape of I3– is
(1) NH4+
(1) Linear
(2) HCl
(2) Bent
(3) CH4
(3) Pyramidal
(4) H2O2 (4) See saw
45. Which of the following is a polar molecule? 51. Number of angles of 109°28 is present in CCl4
(1) Para dichlorobenzene (1) 2
(2) Carbon tetrachloride (2) 4
(3) Tetrachloroethene (3) 6

(4) 8
(4) HO OH 52. Number of carbon atoms present in sp2 hybrid
state of given molecule?
46. Which of the following is correct for XeO2F2 and
PCl5? CH = CH—CH3
(1) Both have same hybridisation and shape
(2) Both have same hybridisation but different (1) 9
geometry (2) 8
(3) Both have different hybridisation but same shape (3) 3
(4) Both have same hybridisation but different shape (4) 2
53. In a regular trigonal bipyramidal MX5, the number 57. Which of the following is correct representation of
of X – M – X bonds at 90º is dipole moment of NH3 molecule?
(1) Six
(2) Two
N
(3) One
(1) H H
(4) Four H
resultant
54. Some of the properties of the two species, NO3–
and H3O+ are described below. Which one of them
is correct? N
(1) Dissimilar hybridization for the central atom (2) H H
with different structures H
resultant
(2) Isostructural with same hybridization for the
central atom
(3) Isostructural with different hybridization for the

central atom N
(4) Similar hybridization for the central atom with (3) H H

different structures H
resultant
55. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(4) NH3 being symmetrical will not show dipole
(1) Multiple bonds are always shorter than moment
corresponding single bonds 58. The ground state electronic configuration of valence
shell electrons in nitrogen molecule (N2) is written
(2) The electron-deficient molecules can act as
Lewis acids 2p 2y 
as kk, 2s 2 , *2s 2 ,  2
, 2p 2x . Hence the
(3) The canonical structures have no real existence  2p 
z
bond order in nitrogen molecule is
(4) Every AB5 molecules does in fact have square
pyramid structure (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 0 (4) 1
56. Arrange the following species in increasing order of
bond angle 59. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Bond order of NO is 2.5
NF3, NCl3, NBr3, NI3
II. Bond order of NO+ is 3.0
(1) NF3 < NCl3 < NBr3 < NI3
III. Bond order of O2 is 1.5
(2) NF3 < NBr3 < NI3 < NCI3 IV. Bond order of CO is 3.0
(3) NI3 < NBr3 < NCl3 < NF3 (1) I, II, III (2) II, III, IV
(4) NBr3 < NI3 < NF3 < NCl3 (3) I, II, IV (4) II, IV

Chapter 3
Classification of Elements and

Periodicity in Properties
Chapter Contents
z Genesis of Periodic GENESIS OF PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION
Classification
z Dobereiner grouped elements in triads e.g. Li, Na, K or Cl, Br, I etc.
z Modern Periodic Table
z Nomenclature of Elements z Newland found that similar elements are repeated at 8th place. It
with atomic number > 100
happened when elements were arranged in the increasing order of their
z Classification of elements on
the basis of electronic atomic masses.
configuration
z Lother Mayer plotted a graph between atomic volume of elements
z Periodic Trends in Physical
Properties against their atomic weight. He found that similar elements occupied
z Electron Gain Enthalpy similar positions on the curve.
z Electronegativity z Mendeleev’s Periodic Law and Table: Mendeleev arranged all the
z Diagonal Relationship elements in order of their increasing atomic weights. A table which has
z Periodic Trends and Chemical been formed with the help of classification of elements is called periodic
Reactivity
table. The method of arranging similar elements in one group and
separating them from dissimilar element is called classification of
elements. Mendeleev prepared the table on the basis of his periodic law
called Mendeleev’s periodic law. According to which ‘‘the physical
and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their
atomic weights.’’
MODERN PERIODIC TABLE
It based on modern periodic law given by Moseley. The modern periodic

law is stated as “The properties of elements are periodic function of
their atomic number.”
56 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties NEET
Extended or Long form of Periodic Table
Representative elements Representative elements Noble gases

GROUP GROUP NUMBER
NUMBER 18
0
1 2
1 2 H 13 14 15 16 17 He
1 IA II A 1s 1 III A IV A VA VI A VII A 1s2
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be Transition elements B C N O F Ne
2
2s1 2s2 2 1 2 2 2
2s 2p 2s 2p 2s 2p
3 2 4 2 5 2
2s 2p 2s 2p 2s 2p
6
GROUP NUMBER
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Al Si P S Cl Ar
3 1 2 III B IV B VB VI B VII B VIII IB II B 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 5 2 6
3s 3s 3s 3p 3s 3p 3s 3p 3s 3p 3s 3p 3s 3p
PERIOD NUMBER
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
4
4s1 4s2 3 d 4 s 3 d 4 s 3d 4s 3 d 4 s 3 d 4 s 3d 4s 3d 4s 3 d 4 s 3d 4s 3d 4s 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s24p6
1 2 2 2 3 2 5 1 5 2 6 2 7 2 8 2 10 1 10 2 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 5
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
5 Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
5s1 5s2 4d 5s 4d 5s 4d 5s 4d 5s 4 d 5 s 4 d 5 s 4 d 5 s
1 2 2 2 4 1 5 1 5 2 7 1 8 1
4d10 4d 5s 4d 5s 5s25p1
10 1 10 2
5s25p2 5s25p3 5s 5p 5s 5p 5s25p6
2 4 2 5
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
6 Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
6s1 6s2 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 5d 6s 5d 6s 5d 6s 5d 6s 5d 6s 5d 6s 5d 6s 5d 6s 6s 6p 6s 6p 6s 6p 6s 6p 6s 6p 6s 26p6
1 2 14 2 2 3 2 4 2 5 2 6 2 7 2 9 1 10 1 10 2 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 5
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
7 Fr Ra Ac** Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
1 2
7s 7s 1
6d 7s
2
Inner transition elements
*Lanthanoids 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
n 0 –1
4f 5d 6s
2 Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
2 0 2 3 0 2 4 0 2 5 0 2 6 0 2 7 0 2 7 1 2 9 0 2 10 0 2 11 0 2 12 0 2 13 0 2 14 0 2 14 1 2
4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4 f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

**Actinoids Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
n 0–2 2
5 f 6d 7 s 0 2 2 2 1 2 3 1 2 4 1 2 6 0 2 7 0 2 7 1 2 9 0 2 10 0 2 11 0 2 12 0 2 13 0 2 14 0 2 14 1 2
5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s 5f 6d 7s
Long form of the Periodic Table of the Elements with their atomic numbers and ground state outer electronic configurations.
The groups are numbered 1-18 in accordance with the 1984 IUPAC recommendations. This notation replaces the old numbering
scheme of IA–VIIA, VIII, IB–VIIB and 0 for the elements.
NOMENCLATURE OF ELEMENT WITH ATOMIC NUMBER > 100

The IUPAC proposed a system for naming element with Z > 100.
z The name are derived by using roots for the three digits in the atomic number of the element and adding
the ending - ium. The roots for the numbers are:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
nil un bi tri quad pent hex sept oct enn
z In certain cases the names are shortened; for example, bi ium and tri ium are shortened to bium and
trium, and enn nil is shortened to ennil.
z The symbol for the element is made up from the first letters from the roots which make up the name.
The strange mixture of Latin and Greek roots has been chosen to ensure that the symbols are all different.
Though the names are written as a complete word, in the examples below a hyphen has been inserted between
each part of the name to make them more understandable. These hyphens should be omitted.
NEET Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 57
IUPAC nomenclature for the superheavy elements :
At. Atomic At. Atomic

Symbol Symbol
No. Name No. Name
101 un-nil -unium Unu 112 un-un-bium Uub
102 un-nil -bium Unb 113 un-un-trium Uut
103 un-nil -trium Unt 114 un-un-quadium Uuq
104 un-nil -quadium Unq 115 un-un-pentium Uup
105 un-nil -pentium Unp 116 un-un-hexium Uuh
106 un-nil -hexium Unh 117 un-un-septium Uus
107 un-nil -septium Uns 118 un-un-octium Uuo
108 un-nil -octium Uno 119 un-un-ennium Uue
109 un-nil -ennium Une 120 un-bi -nilium Ubn
110 un-un-nillium Uun 130 un-tri -nilium Utn
111 un-un-unnium Uuu 140 un-quad-nilium Uqn
150 un-pent-nilium Upn
Note : Hyphens have been put in the name for clarity. They should be omitted.
Example 1 : What would be the IUPAC name and symbol for the element with atomic number 120?
Solution : The root for 1, 2 and 0 are un, bi and nil respectively. Hence, the name becomes unbinilium and
the symbol is Ubn.
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS ON THE BASIS OF ELECTRONIC CONFIGURATION
On the basis of electronic configuration the elements can be classified into the following four types :
(i) s-block elements : These elements contain 1 or 2 electrons in s-subshell of outermost shell. Elements
of 1 and 2 group belong to this class. These elements enter into chemical reaction by losing valency
electrons so as to acquire noble gas configuration in the outermost orbit.
ns1 (group 1) ns2 (group 2)
(alkali metals) (alkaline earth metals)
These elements generally form electrovalent compounds and basic oxides.
(ii) p–block elements : These elements contain 1 to 6 electrons in the p–subshell of the outermost orbit
(ns2 np1–6). The elements belonging to 13th to 18th group are p-block elements. In these last electron
enters to the p-subshell. For example.
13 Boron (B) Z=5 1s2 2s2 2p1
14 Carbon (C) Z=6 1s2 2s2 2p2
15 Nitrogen (N) Z=7 1s2 2s2 2p3
16 Oxygen (O) Z=8 1s2 2s2 2p4
17 Fluorine (F) Z=9 1s2 2s2 2p5
The main characteristics of these elements are :
(a) The non-metallic character increases along a period from 13 to 17.
(b) They form covalent compounds among themselves but electrovalent compounds with s-block
elements.
(iii) d–block elements : These are called transition elements or ‘d’ block elements. The elements of group
3 to 12 belong to this class. Their general configuration can be represented as : (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2
General characteristics of transition (d–block) elements:
(a) They are metals, hard, malleable, ductile and possess high tensile strength.
(b) They are good conductors of heat and electricity.
(c) These elements exhibit variable valency.
(d) They generally form coloured compounds.
(e) These metals, their alloys and compounds possess marked catalytic activity.
(iv) f–block elements : They are inner transition or f-block elements. These elements are arranged in the
two rows at the bottom of the periodic table. In the first row, there are 14 elements from atomic number
58 to 71, known as Lanthanides or rare earth elements. The second row of elements from atomic number
90 to 103, known as actinides. Their general electronic configuration can be represented as
(n – 2) f 1–14 (n–1)d 0–1 ns2
They show most of the properties similar to each other since outermost and penultimate orbits are similar.
Their properties are similar to ‘d’ block elements.
EXERCISE
1. All the elements in a group in the periodic table have the same
(1) Atomic number (2) Electronic configuration
(3) Atomic weight (4) Number of electrons in the valence shell
2. Atomic number of element present in the third period and seventeenth group of periodic table
(1) 15 (2) 16
(3) 9 (4) 17
3. Chalcogen are elements of the group
(1) 17th (2) 15th
(3) 16th (4) 14th
4. Representative elements are elements of
(1) s-block (2) s-block and p-block
(3) d-block or transition elements (4) d-block and f-block
5. Which general electronic configuration of the element does not represent a non-metal?
(1) ns2, np4 (2) ns2, (n – 1)d1 – 10, np5
(3) ns1–2, (n – 1) d1–10 (4) ns2, (n – 1)d1 – 10, np1– 6
6. Number of groups in d-block
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 20
PERIODIC TRENDS IN PHYSICAL PROPERTIES
Atomic Radii
Atomic radius is the size of the atom of an element. Atomic radius is defined as “the distance from the centre
of the nucleus upto the centre of outermost electron”. It is measured in Angstrom unit (Å). It is not possible
to measure exact atomic radius as an atom is unstable and it cannot be isolated to get its radius. Moreover,
the exact position of the outermost electron is uncertain. The values for radii are obtained from x-ray
measurements. Following points are to be noted in this reference :
1. The size of an atom or ion decreases in a horizontal period as we move from left to right.
2. The atomic radius increases in a group with the rise in atomic number.
Atomic Radii/pm Across the Periods
Atom (Period II) Li Be B C N O F
Atomic radius 152 111 88 77 74 66 64
Atom (Period III) Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
Atomic radius 186 160 143 117 110 104 99
Atomic Radii/pm Down a Family
Atom Atomic Atom Atomic

(Group 1) Radius (Group 17) Radius
Li 152 F 64
Na 186 Cl 99
K 231 Br 114
Rb 244 I 133
Cs 262 At 140
3. A positive ion (cation) is smaller than the corresponding atom : A positive ion or cation is formed
by the loss of one or more electrons from an atom and the number of protons remains the same in the
nucleus. Thus the ratio of the positive charge in the nucleus to the number of electrons and that's why
effective nuclear charge increases. Hence the force of attraction of nucleus to the outer electrons
increases thus decreasing the size of cation. In case of alkali metals, the removal of an electron removes
the entire outermost shell.
4. A negative ion (anion) is bigger than the corresponding atom : In the formation of negative ion
(anion) one or more electron(s) are added to the atom. Thus results in the decrease of the value of
effective nuclear charge, which in turn decreases the force of attraction and increases the size of an
anion.
Note : Size of Iso-electronic ions : These are such cations or anions which carry the same number of
electrons. The size of such ions depends upon the effective nuclear charge. Greater the nucelar charge of
an ion, greater will be the force of attraction for same number of electrons. As a result, the size of the ion
decreases. For example
Element N O F Na Mg Al
Atomic size (pm) 74 66 64 186 160 143
Ion N3– O2– F– Na+ Mg2+ Al3+
Ionic size (pm) 171 140 136 95 72 57
Example 2 : Which of the following species will have the largest and the smallest size?
Mg, Mg2+, Al and Al3+.
Solution : Atomic radius decreases across the period. Here Mg and Al belong to the same period, so out
of these two, Mg will have the larger size.
Cation are smaller than their parent atoms due to higher effective nuclear charge. Among the
isoelectronic species, the one with a greater positive charge will have smaller radius. Hence, we
can say out of Mg, Mg2+, Al and Al3+ the largest size will be of Mg and smallest size is of Al3+.
Example 3 : On the basis of their positions in the periodic table which among the following will have the largest
atomic radii?
Be, N, O, Ne
Solution : Ne. van der Waals forces of attraction Ne has the largest size in its period. All the elements
belong to the same period. (For noble gases van der Waals radii is considered)
Ionisation Potential or Ionisation Energy

It may be defined as “the energy required to remove an electron from the outermost orbit of an isolated
gaseous atom in its ground state.” In an atom, the energy required to remove first electron from a gaseous
atom is called the first ionisation energy.
The energy required to remove one electron from a unipositive ion to form a bipositive ion is called second
ionisation energy. The second ionisation energy is always higher (more) than the first. This is due to the fact
that a unipositive ion left after the removal of one electron from the atom, the electrons are more firmly bound
to the nucelus than in the atom i.e. second electron has to be removed against the relative increase in nuclear
charge, hence more energy is needed to remove the second electron.
2500 He Ne
2000
Ar
–1
H/kJ mol
1500 Kr
Xe
1000
500
Li Na K Rb Cs
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Atomic number (Z)
Variation of first ionization enthalpies (iH) with atomic number for elements with Z = 1 to 60
Factors on which ionisation energy depends
(i) Greater the size of an atom, lesser will be the force of attraction of its nucleus for the valence electron.
(ii) Nuclear charge : Greater the magnitude of nuclear charge (along a period) greater will be the force of
attraction of the nucleus for the valence electrons.
(iii) Screening or Shielding effect : The effect of reduction of force of attraction by the electrons present
between nucleus and valence electrons is called screening effect. Greater the number of shells between
nucleus and valence electrons, lesser will be the electron nucleus attraction and lesser will be ionisation
potential. s > p > d > f is order of screening or shielding effect.
(iv) Penetration of sub-shells : Ionisation energy also depends upon the type i.e. s, p, d or f electrons
which are to be removed. s-electrons are closer to the nucleus (more penetrated towards nucleus) and
are more tightly held than p, d, or f electrons. Hence ionisation energy decreases in the order of
s > p > d > f.
The periodicity of ionisation energy in the light of above factors (in general) may be summarised
as follows:
Down a group : As we go down a group, the I.E. goes on decreasing.
Along a period : As we go from left to right in the periodic table the ionisation energy goes on
increasing.
Example 4 : The first ionization enthalpy (iH) values of the third period elements, Na, Mg and Si are
respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ/mol. Predict whether the first iH value for Al will be more close
to 575 or 760 kJ/mol. Justify your answer.
Solution : It will be more closer to 575 kJ/mol. The value for Al (1s22s22p63s23p1) should be lower than that
of Mg (1s22s22p63s2), because 3p-electrons in Al is effectively shielded by the electrons from the
nucleus by 3s-electrons.
ELECTRON GAIN ENTHALPY
Electron gain enthalpy can be defined as the “amount of energy associated with the gain of electrons by the
isolated gaseous atom”. It is represented by egH, measured in kJ/mol.
For example, X(g)  e   X (g)
First electron gain enthalpy generally exothermic in nature but other higher electron gain enthalpies are
endothermic in nature.
The magnitude of electron affinity is influenced by the following factors :
(i) Atomic radius : Electron affinity decreases as the atomic radius increases.
(ii) Nuclear charge : Electron affinity increases as the nuclear charge increases.
(iii) Screening effect : Electron affinity increases as the shielding or screening effect decreases.
Group
1 18
H He
– 73 2 13 14 15 16 17 + 48
Li Be B C N O F Ne
– 60 + 66 – 83 – 122 + 31 – 141 – 328 + 116
Na Values of eg H in kJ/mol S Cl Ar
– 53 – 200 – 349 + 96
K Se Br Kr
– 48 – 195 – 325 + 96
Rb Te I Xe
– 47 – 190 – 295 + 77
Cs Po At Rn
– 46 – 174 – 270 + 68
The periodic variation of this property is as follows :

(i) The electron affinity decreases in a group as seen in Cl, Br and I. F has lower electron affinity than Cl. Chlorine
has highest electron affinity. Fluorine has a very small size, so there is electron repulsion, causing into the
release of lesser amount of energy.
(ii) In a period, the electron affinity values generally increase on moving from left to right. Be, Mg and noble
gases have negative electron affinities. N and P have unexpected lower values of electron affinities due
to half filled p-orbitals.
Example 5 : Which of the following will have the most negative and the least negative electron gain enthalpy?
P, S, Cl, F. Explain your answer.
Solution : Electron gain enthalpy generally becomes more negative across a period as we move from left
to right within a group, electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative down the group. However
adding an electron to the 2p-orbital leads to greater repulsion than adding an electron to the larger
3p-orbital. Hence, the most negative electron gain enthalpy is of chlorine and the least negative
electron gain enthalpy is of phosphorus.
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
It may be defined as : “The tendency of an atom to attract shared electron pair towards itself in a molecule”.
The small atoms attract electrons more strongly than larger ones hence they are more electronegative.
The numerical value of electronegativity depends upon the ionisation potential and electron affinity. Higher ionisation
potential and higher electron affinity both imply higher electronegativity. To measure electronegativity an arbitrary
scale was developed by Linus Pauling which is known as electronegativity scale. On this scale flourine has
maximum electronegativity of 4.0 and Li has a value of 1.0.
The value of electronegativity show periodic variations as given below
z Generally in a group electronegativity decreases from top to bottom due to increase in size of atom.
F Cl Br I At
4.0 3.0 2.8 2.5. 2.2
z In a period electronegtativity increases from left to right
Li Be C N O F
1.0 1.5 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
Formulae to Determine Electronegativity
z Mulliken scale
IE  EA
Electronegativity in Mulliken scale 
2
z Pauling scale
Electronegativity difference between two atoms (A & B)  0.208 EA  B  E A  A  EB  B
(Bond energies are in kcal mol–1)

Mulliken scale
Electronegativity in pauling scale 
2.8
EXERCISE
7. Correct order of radii
(1) Na > Mg > Al (2) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
(3) I+ < I < I– (4) All of these
8. Which set of elements shows positive electron gain enthalpy?
(1) He, N, O (2) Ne, N, Cl
(3) O, Cl, F (4) N, He, Ne
9. Which of the following has the highest positive electron gain enthalpy?
(1) F (2) O–
(3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
10. Pick the incorrect statement about the factors affecting ionization energy
(1) Half filled or full filled atomic orbitals have high ionization energy
(2) More is the shielding of valence electrons more is the ionization energy
(3) Larger is the atomic radii lower is ionization energy
(4) Ionization enthalpy  effective nuclear charge
11. The correct order of first ionization potential among following elements, Be, B, C is
(1) B < Be < C (2) B = Be = C
(3) Be < C < B (4) Be < B < C
DIAGONAL RELATIONSHIP
First three elements of second period i.e., lithium, beryllium and boron show resemblance with the elements
of the next higher group of the third period i.e., with diagonally opposite elements. This is referred to as
diagonal relationship.
I II III IV
II Period Li Be B C
III period Na Mg Al Si
Thus lithium resembles with magnesium, beryllium with aluminium and boron with silicon due to same charge
over radius ratio.
PERIODIC TRENDS AND CHEMICAL REACTIVITY

Metallic character is exhibited by the elements situated at the extreme left and this character decreases across
the period i.e., non-metallic character goes on increasing and reaches its peak to the halogen group i.e., 17th
group. The chemical reactivity of metal can be best shown by its reaction with oxygen and halogen.
The normal oxides of the elements at the extreme left of the periodic table are most basic in nature. On the
other hand, the elements at the extreme right react with oxygen to form most acidic oxides. Oxides of the
elements in the centre are amphoteric or neutral. For example, Na2O is strongly basic whereas Cl2O7 is
strongly acidic. Al2O3, BeO, PbO, PbO2, SnO, SnO2, Ga2O3, Sb2O3, ZnO are amphoteric oxides while CO,
NO and N2O are neutral oxides.
Example 6 : Show by chemical reaction with water that Na2O is a basic oxide and Cl2O7 is an acidic oxide.
Solution : Na2O forms a strong base with water whereas Cl2O7 forms a strong acid with water.
Na2O  H2O  2NaOH
Sodiumhydroxide
Cl2 O7  H2O  2HClO4

Perchloric acid
Example 7 : Considering the atomic number and position in the periodic table, arrange the following elements
in the increasing order of metallic character: Si, Be, Mg, Na, P
Solution : Metallic character increases down a group and decreases in a period as we move from left to right.
Hence, the order of increasing metallic character is : P < Si < Be < Mg < Na.

nt
me nment
sigAnssig
Assignment
As
Assignment
8. The symbol of element with atomic number 105 is
SECTION - A
[NCERT Pg. 81]
NCERT Based MCQs (1) Uup (2) Unp
1. Correct order of ionic size is [NCERT Pg. 88] (3) Uuu (4) Unn
(1) S–2 > P–3 > Cl– (2) Cl– > P–3 > S–2 9. Which of the following elements show properties
that are characteristic of both metals and
(3) Cl– > S–2 > P–3 (4) P–3 > S–2 > Cl–
non-metals? [NCERT Pg. 95]
2. Element having highest 1st ionisation energy in
(1) Mg (2) S
the following is [NCERT Pg. 89]
(3) C (4) Si
(1) Na (2) Mg
10. Which of the following pairs of elements do not
(3) Al (4) He follow Newland’s law of octave? [NCERT Pg. 75]
3. Select the element of highest electronegativity in (1) Na, K (2) Ca, Sr
the following [NCERT Pg. 92] (3) F, Cl (4) O, S
(1) Li (2) Be 11. An element with atomic number 34 belongs to
[NCERT Pg. 85]
(3) B (4) N
(1) s-block (2) p-block
4. Select the element of positive electron gain
(3) d-block (4) f-block
enthalpy [NCERT Pg. 91]
12. The electronic configuration for the various elements
(1) Li (2) Na are given below
(3) P (4) He a. 1s22s22p5 b. 1s22s22p63s1
5. Electrovalency of Al in Al2O3 compound is c. 1s22s22p63s2 d. 1s22s22p6
[NCERT Pg. 93] From the above configurations, the correct order of
their ionisation energy will be [NCERT Pg. 89]
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) b < c < a < d (2) a < b < c < d
(3) 4 (4) 5
(3) b < c < d < a (4) d < a < c < b
6. Select the species of highest electronegativity
13. Metallic character is maximum for
[NCERT Pg. 92] [NCERT Pg. 95]
(1) Na (2) Na3+ (1) Na (2) Al
(3) Na2+ (4) Na+ (3) F (4) C

14. Which one of the following statement of the
7. An element, X has electronic configuration of
modern periodic table is incorrect?
2, 8, 8, 2. The incorrect statement(s) about this
element is/are [NCERT Pg. 83] [NCERT Pg. 82]
(1) The first period contains two elements
(i) It belongs to 10th group of the periodic table.
(2) p-block elements together with s-block
(ii) It has 20 neutrons.
elements are called representative elements
(iii) Its ionisation energy is higher than the element (3) Elements in the same group have similar
placed left to this in the same period but lower valence shell electronic configuration
than the element placed just above it.
(4) The d-block has 9 columns, because a
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii) maximum of 9 electrons can occupy all the
(3) Both (ii) & (iii) (4) Both (i) & (iii) orbitals in a d-subshell
15. The correct order for the mentioned property is 8. The elements whose atoms have three outer most
shells incomplete are called
[NCERT Pg. 95]
(1) s–block elements (2) p–block elements
(1) F– < O2– < S2– < Br– – Ionic radii
(3) f–block elements (4) d–block elements
(2) Li > Na > K – Electropositive 9. The ionic radii of S –2 and Te –2 are 1.84 and
character 2.21 Å respectively. The ionic radii of Se–2 is
(3) N > P > Sb > As – Electron affinity (1) 1.83 Å (2) 2.22 Å
(4) Sn > Ge > Si > C – Non-metallic (3) 4.5 Å (4) 2.02 Å
character 10. When a neutral atom is converted into a cation its
(1) Atomic weight increases
SECTION - B
(2) Atomic weight decreases
(3) Size increases
1. Modern periodic law is
(4) Size decreases
(1) The physical and chemical properties of the
11. The correct order of ionic radii is
elements are periodic function of their atomic
numbers (1) Fe > Fe++ > Fe+++
(2) The physical and chemical properties of the (2) O– – > O– > O+
elements depend upon the energy of the (3) I– > I > I+
electrons
(4) All of these
12. Of the following, which one is a correct statement?
elements are periodic function of their atomic
mass (1) Ionic radius of a metal is same as its atomic
radius
elements are periodic function of their density (2) The ionic radius of a metal is greater than its
2. The element with atomic number 31 belongs to atomic radius
which group and period respectively? (3) The atomic radius of a non-metal is more than
(1) 13, 4 (2) 14, 3 its ionic radius
(3) 4, 13 (4) 4, 8 (4) The ionic radius of a metal is less than its
atomic radius
3. Which of the following is correct order of metallic
character for Si, Be, Mg, Na and P? 13. Consider the iso-electronic series : K+, S2–, CI– and
Ca2+. The radii of the ions decreases as
(1) P < Si < Be < Na < Mg
(1) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2–
(2) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
(2) Cl– > S2– > K+ > Ca2+
(3) Na > Be > Mg > Be > P
(3) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
(4) Na > Si > Mg > Be > P
(4) K+ > Ca2+ > S2– > Cl–
4. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with
14. The element having lowest first ionization potential
(1) Mg (2) Al
among Sr, As, S and F is
(3) Li (4) Si
(1) Sr (2) As
5. Ce (z = 58) is a member of
(3) S (4) F
(1) s-block elements (2) p-block elements
15. The element having least difference in the values of
(3) d-block elements (4) f-block elements first and second ionization potential is
6. The least electronegative element has the following (1) Na (2) K
electronic configuration
(3) Li (4) Mg
(1) ns2np5 (2) ns2np4
16. The first four ionization energy values of an element
(3) ns2np3 (4) ns2np6 are 191, 578, 872 and 5962 kcal. The number of
7. Which of the following is a representative element? valence electrons in the element is
(1) Zn (2) Sr (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Cu (4) Fe (3) 3 (4) 4
17. Ionization potential of Na would be numerically the 28. The electronegativity of Be is almost same as
same as (1) Al (2) Mg
(1) Electron affinity of Na+ (3) Na (4) Li
(2) Electronegativity of Na+ 29. Which element has lowest electron affinity?
(3) Electron affinity of Ne (1) O (2) S
(4) Ionization potential of Mg (3) Se (4) Te
18. Which of the following configuration is associated 30. The correct order regarding second ionisation
with biggest jump between 2nd and 3rd 1E? potential is
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p2 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (1) N > C > B > Be
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (2) N > C > Be > B
19. The process requiring absorption of energy is (3) N > B > C > Be
(1) F  F— (2) H  H+ (4) Be > N > C > B
(3) Cl  Cl— (4) O  O—
20. Which of the following element has the lowest first SECTION - C
ionisation potential?
(1) Na (2) F
(3) Cs (4) I 1. Match the oxide given in column A with its property
given in column B [NEET-2019 (Odisha)]
21. If you are given Avogadro's number of atoms of a
gas 'X'. If half of the atoms are converted into X+(g) Column-A Column-B
by energy H. The IE of X per mole is
(i) Na2O (a) Neutral
2H (ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic
(1) 2H (2)
NA
(iii) N2O (c) Acidic
H (iv) Cl2O7 (d) Amphoteric
(3) H (4) N
A Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
22. Which of the following is most acidic in nature? (1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(1) SO3 (2) CO
(2) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(3) Al2O3 (4) P2O5
(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
23. Which of the following has positive electron gain
enthalpy? (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(1) Cl (2) S 2. For the second period elements the correct
(3) He (4) C increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is
24. Electronegativity of the following elements increases [NEET-2019]
in the order
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
(1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P
(3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C (2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
25. Which of the following has lowest ionisation energy? (3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(1) P3– (2) Cl– (4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
(3) S2– (4) K+ 3. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently.
26. Which of the following species has highest electron It will belong to which of the following family group
affinity? and electronic configuration? [NEET-2017]
(1) Li (2) O
(1) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5
(3) O– (4) N
(2) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2
27. Which element has the maximum electron affinity?
(1) Mg (2) Na (3) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4
(3) Al (4) S (4) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6
4. In which of the following options, the order of 10. The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among
arrangement does not agree with the variation of the following is electronic species are
property indicated against it? [NEET-2016] [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius) (1) Ca2+ > K+ > S2– > Cl–
(2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size) (2) Cl– > S2– > Ca2+ > K+
(3) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation (3) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
enthalpy)
(4) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– > S2–
(4) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain 11. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of
enthalpy) increasing atomic radii is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
5. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same (1) Mg < Ca < Cl < P (2) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
number of electrons. In which order do their radii
(3) P < Cl < Ca < Mg (4) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
increase? [AIPMT-2015]
12. Amongst the elements with following electronic
(1) K+ < Ar < Ca2+ (2) Ar < K+ < Ca2+
configurations, which one of them may have the
(3) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ (4) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar highest ionization energy?
6. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
represented ? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Ne [3s23p2] (2) Ar [3d104s24p3]
(1) H– > H+ > H (3) Ne [3s23p1] (4) Ne [3s23p3]
(2) Na+ > F– > O2– 13. Identify the correct order of the size of the following
(3) O2– > F– > Na+ [AIPMT(Prelims)-2007]
(4) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3– (1) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2–
7. Identify the wrong statement in the following (2) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (3) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–
(1) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one (4) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
moves down the first group of the periodic table
14. With which of the following configuration an atom
(2) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one has the lowest ionization enthalpy?
moves across from left to right in the 2nd period [AIPMT(Prelims)-2007]
of the periodic table
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p5
(3) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1
positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic
radius 15. Which one of the following arrangements represents
the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with
(4) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the
negative sign) of the given atomic species ?
negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic
radius [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
8. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if (1) Cl < F < S < O (2) O < S < F < Cl
E1 of Na = 5.1 eV? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (3) S < O < Cl < F (4) F < Cl < O < S
(1) +2.55 eV (2) +10.2 eV Questions asked prior to Medical Ent. Exams. 2005
(3) –5.1 eV (4) –10.2 eV 16. Which one of the following arrangements represents
the correct order of least negative to most negative
9. Which of the following represents the correct order
electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O?
of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative
sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl ? (1) Ca < Al < C < O < F
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (2) Al < Ca < O < C < F
(1) Cl < F < O < S (2) O < S < F < Cl (3) Al < O < C < Ca < F
(3) F < S < O < Cl (4) S < O < Cl < F (4) C < F < O < Al < Ca
17. The electronic configuration of an element is 25. Ionic radii are
1s2 2s2 2p 6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p2. What is the (1) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
atomic number of the element, which is just below
the above element in the periodic table? (2) Inversely proportional to square of effective
nuclear charge
(1) 36 (2) 49
(3) Directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
(3) 50 (4) 54
(4) Directly proportional to square of effective
18. Which of the following ion is the largest in size? nuclear charge
(1) K+ (2) Ca2+ 26. Four successive members of the first row transition
(3) Cl– (4) S–2 elements are listed below with their atomic
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have
19. The electronic configuration of inner transition the highest third ionisation enthalpy?
elements is
(1) Vanadium (Z = 23) (2) Chromium (Z = 24)
(1) ns1
(3) Manganese (Z = 25) (4) Iron (Z = 26)
(2) ns2np5nd10
27. The element with highest electronegativity will
(3) ns 0–2 (n – 1) d1–10 (n – 2) f1–14 belong to
(4) ns2 (n – 1) d0–1 (n – 2) f1–14 (1) Period 2, group 17 (2) Period 3, group 17
20. Which of the following has the smallest size? (3) Period 2, group 18 (4) Period 2, group 1
(1) Al3+ (2) F– 28. The first, second and third ionisation energies of Al
are 578, 1817 and 2745 kJ mol–1 respectively.
(3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
Calculate the energy required to convert all the atoms
21. Which one of the following is correct order of the of Al to Al+3 present in 270 mg of Al vapours
size of aluminium species?
(1) 5140 kJ (2) 51.40 kJ
(1) Al > Al+ > Al2+ (3) 2745 kJ (4) 514.0 kJ
(2) Al2+ > Al+ > Al 29. The size of ionic species is correctly given in the
(3) Al2+ = Al+ = Al order
(4) All of these (1) Na+ > Mg+2 > Cl+7 > Si4+
22. The first ionization potentials (eV) of N and O (2) Na+ > Mg+2 > Si4+ > Cl+7
respectively are (3) Cl+7 > Si+4 > Mg+2 > Na+
(1) 8.29, 8.29 (4) Cl+7 > Na+ > Mg+2 > Si+4
(2) 11.32, 11.32 30. Match the following, regarding nature of the oxides
(3) 8.29, 11.32 Column-I Column-II
(4) 11.32, 8.21 a. H2O (i) Basic
23. Correct order of I st ionization potential among b. Na2O (ii) Amphoteric

elements Be, B, C, N, O is c. ZnO (iii) Acidic
(1) B < Be < C < O < N d. SO3 (iv) Neutral
(2) B < Be < C < N < O (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Be < B < C < N < O (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) Be < B < C < O < N (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
24. An atom has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2, you will place it in which group of 31. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following
periodic table? ions?
(1) Fifth (2) Fifteenth (1) H+ (2) Li+
(3) Second (4) Third (3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
7. The formula of oxide of metal whose successive

SECTION - D
ionisation enthalpies are 10, 20, 50, 2000 kJ mol–1
NEET Booster Questions respectively
1. Electronic configuration of anion in sodium hydride (1) M2O
will be (2) M2O3
(1) 1s2 (3) MO
(2) 1s1 (4) MO2
(3) 1s0 8. Among group 16 elements, electron gain enthalpy

of which is least negative?
(4) 1s1 2s1
(1) O
2. Positive electron gain enthalpy is shown by (2) S
(1) Ne (3) Se
(2) O– (4) Te
(3) F 9. Electronic configuration of element with atomic
number 117 will be
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) [Rn]5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5
3. An element with E.C. [Xe] 4f14 5d7 6s2 belongs to
(2) [Rn]5f14 7s2 7p6 6d9
(1) 7th period (3) [Rn]7s2 7p6 6d10 5f13
(2) 9th group (4) [Rn]5f1 6d10 7s2 7p6
(3) 7th group 10. In atomic volume curve of Lothar Meyer ascending
portions are occupied by
(4) 5th period
(1) Alkali metals
4. Among the equations given below, H of which one
(2) Alkaline earth metals
is equal to IEI of Ba
(3) Transition elements
(1) Ba(g) + e–  Ba–(g)
(4) Halogens
(2) Ba(g)  Ba+(g) + e–
11. CO and NO are
(3) Ba(s)  Ba+(g) + e– (1) Neutral oxides
(4) Ba(g)  Ba+2(g) + 2e– (2) Acidic oxides
5. Maximum number of elements which can be (3) Basic oxides
placed in 7th period (4) Neutral and basic respectively
(1) 18 12. Which of the following sequences contains atomic
(2) 32 number of only representative elements?
(1) 3, 33, 53, 87
(3) 50
(2) 2, 10, 22, 36
(4) 86
(3) 7, 17, 25, 37, 48
6. Which of the given statements is correct?
(4) 10, 35, 57, 88
(1) The elements in which electrons are filled in 4f 13. Which of the following set of elements does not
orbitals called lanthanoids. belong to the same group, but resemble in
(2) The properties of elements are periodic function properties?
of atomic number. (1) Li and Mg
(3) Non metallic elements are less in number than (2) Be and Al
metallic elements in periodic table (3) B and Si
(4) All are correct (4) All of these
14. Symbol of element with atomic number 102 is (1) 170
(1) Unb (2) 172.4
(2) Und (3) 1.79
(3) Uub (4) 9.01
(4) Ubn 21. 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1 represents
15. s electrons in Ne are same in number as (1) Excited state of neon
(1) p electrons in O (2) Ground state of fluorine
(2) d electrons in Fe3+ (3) Excited state of fluorine
(3) d electrons in Cr (4) Excited state of sodium
(4) All of these 22. Long form of periodic table consists of
16. When a neutral atom is converted to cation, there (1) 7 periods and 18 groups
is (2) 6 periods and 7 groups
(1) A decrease in size (3) 7 groups and 18 periods
(2) An increase in size (4) 7 periods and 8 groups
(3) A decrease in atomic number 23. First ionisation energy of Mg is
(4) A decrease in mass number (1) More than Al
17. The number of naturally occurring p-block elements, (2) Less than Al
that are diamagnetic is (3) Equal to Al
(1) 11 (4) Zero
(2) 5 24. Most electropositive among halogens is
(3) 7 (1) F
(4) 6 (2) Cl
18. Nature of three oxides formed by A, B and C is (3) Br
acidic, basic and amphoteric. Give the sequence of
(4) I
their electronegativity
25. Incorrect electronic configuration is represented by
(1) A > C > B
(At. No.: Gd: 64, W: 74, Pd: 46, Mo: 42)
(2) A > B > C
(a) Gd  [Xe] 4f 7 5d 16s 2
(3) C > B > A
(b) W = [Xe] 4f 14, 5d 4, 6s 2
(4) B > A > C
(c) Pd = [Kr] 4d9, 5s1
19. The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p,
d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its (d) Mo = [Kr] 4d5, 5s1
outer shell electrons is (1) (a) only
(1) s > p > d > f (2) (b) and (c) only
(2) f > d > p > s (3) (c) only
(3) p < d < s > f (4) (a) & (d) only
(4) f > p > s > d 26. If each orbital contain 3 electrons then total
number of elements present in 5th period will be
20. First IE of Li is 5.4 eV atom–1 and electron affinity
of Cl is 3.61 eV atom –1 . What is H for the (1) 18
following reaction (in eV atom–1)? (2) 27
Li(g) + Cl(g)  Li+(g) + Cl–(g) (3) 32
(Resulting ions do not combine) (4) 36
27. (a) Be and Mg are alkaline earth metal 32. Correct order of 3rd ionisation energy of B, C, N
(b) K+ have larger radii than Ca2+ and O will be
(c) All d-block elements are transition elements (1) O > N > C > B
(d) H ion have larger size than F (2) O > C > N > B
Incorrect statements is/are (3) N > O > C > B
(1) (a), (c) & (d) (4) C > N > O > B
(2) (b) & (c) 33. Ca2+ is isoelectronic with
(3) (a) & (d) (1) Mg2+
(4) (a) & (c)
(2) Kr
28. (a) Cl 2 > F 2 > Br 2 > I 2  Bond-dissociation
(3) Ar
energy
(4) Na+
(b) S > Se > Te > O  Electron gain enthalpy
(–ve) 34. An atom of an element has electronic configuration
2, 8, 1. Which of the following statement is
(c) Ne  F  N  O  First ionisation energy
correct?
(d) CH  CH > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH 3 – CH 3 
(1) The valency of element is 7
Electronegativity of carbon.
The correct statements are (2) The element exists as a triatomic molecule
(1) (a) & (d) only (3) The element is metalloid
(2) (a) & (b) only (4) The element forms basic oxide
(3) (b), (c) & (d) only 35. The symbol of element with atomic number Z = 109
(4) (a), (b) & (c) only (1) Unp
29. Electron gain enthalpy of F is –328 kJ/mol. (2) Uns
Ionisation energy of F ion will be (IE1 of F is
(3) Uno
+1683 kJ/mol)
(4) Une
(1) +1683 kJ/mol
(2) +328 kJ/mol 36. Pd has exceptional electronic configuration of
4d10 5s0. It belong to
(3) –1628 kJ/mol
(1) 4th period, group 11 (2) 5th period, group 10
(4) +164 kJ/mol
(3) 6th period, group 9 (4) 3rd period, group 16
30. Correct statement(s) among the following is/are
(1) Second electron gain enthalpy is always 37. All elements in the third period have
endothermic (1) Three complete shells
(2) Electronegativity is the property of bonding (2) Three complete subshells
atoms
(3) Three valence electrons
(3) Al2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxide
(4) Three electrons less than octet
(4) All are correct
38. Which one of the following represents a d-block
31. Set representing the correct order of second
element?
ionisation potential is
(1) [Rn] 6d10 7s2 7p2
(1) K > Ca > Ba
(2) Ca > Ba > K (2) [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2
(3) Ba > K > Ca (3) [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2
(4) K > Ba > Ca (4) [Xe] 5d1 6s2
39. Which of the following set of atomic number 46. In which of the following pairs the radii of second
represents only representative elements? species is greater than that of first?
(1) 55, 12, 48, 53 (1) K, Ca
(2) 13, 23, 54, 83 (2) H, He
(3) 3, 33, 53, 87 (3) Mg+, Mg2+
(4) 22, 33, 55, 66 (4) O2–, O–
40. Which of the following pairs of atomic numbers 47. The successive ionization energies for element X is
represents elements belonging to the same group?
given below
(1) 11 and 20
IE1 : 250 kJ mol–1
(2) 12 and 30
IE2 : 820 kJ mol–1
(3) 13 and 31
IE3 : 1100 kJ mol–1
(4) 14 and 33
IE4 : 1400 kJ mol–1
41. Total number of elements present in 5th period of
modern periodic table is Find out the number of valence electrons for the
element X.
(1) 2
(1) 3
(2) 8
(2) 4
(3) 18
(4) 32 (3) 2
42. The electronegativity follows the order (4) 1
(1) F > O > Cl > Br 48. If you are given Avogadro’s number of atoms of a
gas ‘X’. If half of the atoms are converted into X(g)+
(2) F > Cl > Br > O
by energy H. The IE of X is
(3) O > F > Cl > Br
2H
(4) Cl > F > O > Br (1) NA
43. The correct order of shielding effect of s, p, d and
f orbitals is 2NA
(2)
(1) s > p > d > f H
(2) s < p < d > f H

(3) 2N
(3) s < p < d < f A
(4) s > p < d < f NA

(4)
44. Which of the following statement is incorrect? H
(1) The ionization potential of nitrogen is greater 49. Find the formula of halide of a metal whose
than that of oxygen successive ionization enthalpies are x, 2x, 5x,
100x kJ mol–1 respectively
(2) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater than
that of chlorine. (1) MX
(3) The ionization potential of Mg is greater than (2) MX2
aluminium (3) MX3
(4) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater than (4) M2X
that of chlorine
50. Which of the following equation represents first
45. Increase in atomic size down the group is due to
enthalpy of ionization ?
(1) Increase in number of orbit
(1) Hg(s)  Hg+(g) + e–
(2) Increase in number of protons and neutrons
(2) Hg(l)  Hg+(g) + e–
(3) Increase in number of protons
(3) Hg(g)  Hg+(g) + e–
(4) Increase in number of protons, neutrons and
electrons (4) Hg+(g)  Hg(g)2+ + e–
51. The energy required to convert all atoms present in 56. The electronic configuration having maximum
1.2 g magnesium to Mg2+ ions if IE, and IE2 of difference in first and second ionization energies is
magnesium are 120 kJ mol–1 and 240 kJ mol–1 (1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
respectively
(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
(1) 18 kJ
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
(2) 36 kJ
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(3) 360 kJ
57. The electronic configurations of the elements X, Y,
(4) 24 kJ
Z and J are given below. Which element has the
52. The process requiring absorption of energy is highest metallic character
(1) F  F– (1) X = 2, 8, 4
(2) H  H+ (2) Y = 2, 8, 8
(3) Cl  Cl– (3) Z = 2, 8, 8, 1
(4) O  O–
(4) J = 2, 8, 8, 7
53. The least electronegative element has the following
58. Element of highest second ionization energy is
electronic configuration
(1) Na
(1) ns2np5
(2) Al
(2) ns2np4
(3) Mg
(3) ns2np3
(4) Si
(4) ns2np6
54. Which of the following is correct order of metallic 59. Which of the following electronic configuration
character for Si, Be, Mg, Na and P? represent element of highest ionisation potential is
(1) P < Si < Be < Na < Mg (1) [Xe] 6s2
(2) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na (2) [Ar] 4s2 3d10
(3) Na > Be > Mg > Be > P (3) 1s2
(4) Na > Si > Mg > Be > P (4) [Rn] 7s2 6d1 5f14
55. With which of the following electronic configuration 60. Which of the following has maximum charge
an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy? density?
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (1) Se2–
(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (2) S2–
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (3) O2–
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (4) Te2–

Chapter 5
States of Matter
Chapter Contents
z Intermolecular Force (van INTERMOLECULAR FORCE (van der Waals Forces)
der Waals Forces)
These are the electrostatic forces of attraction that exist between
z Intermolecular Forces Versus an area of negative charge on one molecule and an area of
Thermal Energy positive on a second molecule. There are three types of van der
Waals forces or interactions.
z Gaseous State
(i) Dispersion forces or London forces
z Dalton’s Law of Partial
(ii) Dipole-Dipole forces
Pressures
(iii) Dipole-Induced Dipole forces
z Graham’s Law of Effusion /
(i) Dispersion Forces or London –  – –  –
Diffusion
Forces : (Associated with NON
z Kinetic Molecular Model of POLAR structures) These forces Original helium Original helium
atom (A) Non-polar atom (B) Non-polar
Gas - Kinetic Theory of are present in non-polar
Electron
Gases molecules like H2, O2 and N2 oscillation in
atom (A)
z Behaviour of Real Gases : and also in nonpolar monoatomic
Deviation from Ideal Gas molecules such as noble gases
– –  –  –
Behaviour like He, Ne, Ar etc., which exist
with intermolecular forces and no Distortion of electron Original helium
z Explanation for the bonding at all. density in atom A. atom (B)
Development of
Deviation from Ideal Gas momentarily
These interactions are also dipole
Behaviour
known as induced dipole Induction of
temporary dipole
z Equation of State for Real induced dipole interactions. in atom (B)
Gases (Van der Waals This type of force of attraction is

Equation) called London Force. – –  – – 
z Compressibility Factor London forces are attractive in
Temporary dipole Induced dipole
nature and the interaction (A) London (B)
z Liquefaction of Gases Forces
energy is inversely proportional
z Critical Constants to the sixth power of the distance between the two interacting
particles.
z Liquid State
1
Interaction energy ∝
r6
where r is the internuclear distance between the two interacting
particles.
110 States of Matter NEET
(ii) Dipole-Dipole Forces : (Associated with POLAR structures) Dipole-dipole forces operate between the
molecules which are though neutral but possess permanent dipole.
Polar Polar
Molecule Molecule
+ – + –
H Cl H Cl
Covalent Covalent
Bond Bond
Dipole-dipole
forces (interactions)
The interaction energy is dependent upon the distance between the polar molecules.
1
(a) Stationary polar molecules : (in solids) Interaction energy ∝
r3
1
(b) Rotating polar molecules : (like water) Interaction energy ∝
r6
(iii) Dipole-Induced Dipole Forces : (Between a polar and a non-polar molecule) This type of forces
operate between a polar molecule which has a permanent dipole and a non-polar molecule whose
electron density is symmetrical.
+ –
A B
Permanent dipole non-polar molecule

(a polar molecule)

–

+

+
–
A B
Permanent dipole Induced dipole in

(a polar molecule) a non-polar molecule
Fig. : Dipole : induced dipole interaction between

permanent dipole and induced dipole
1
Interaction energy ∝
r6
INTERMOLECULAR FORCES VERSUS THERMAL ENERGY

The three states of matter are the result of competition between molecular energy and thermal energy.
z Molecular attraction energy > thermal energy – Solid state
z Molecular attraction energy » thermal energy – Liquid state
z Molecular attraction energy < thermal energy – Gaseous state
NEET States of Matter 111
GASEOUS STATE : (GAS LAWS)
z Boyle’s Law : At constant temperature, the pressure of a fixed amount of gas varies inversely with the
Volume of gas.
1
P at constant n and T.
V P = 2.0 atm
P = 1.0 atm
Increase
Pressure
Boyle's Law representing
V = 1.0 L Pressure-Volume relation
Decrease
V = 0.5 L
Pressure
Graphical Representation
V PV 1/V logP
P P P log1/V
Example 1 : The pressure of gas A (PA) is 3.0 atm when it occupies 5 L of the volume. Calculate the final
pressure when it is compressed to 3 L volume at constant temperature.
Solution : Initial condition Final condition
V1 = 5 L V2 = 3 L
P1 = 3 atm P2 = ?
According to Boyle's law
P1 V1 = P2 V2
 3 × 5 = P2 × 3
53
 P2 = = 5 atm
3
Final pressure = 5 atm
1
z Charle’s Law : The volume of a given mass of a gas increases or decreases by of the volume
273.15
at 0°C for each degree rise or fall in temperature respectively, provided pressure is kept constant.
 V = V ⎛⎜1 + t ⎞ ⎛T⎞
t 0 ⎝ ⎟ = V0 ⎜ ⎟
273.15 ⎠ ⎝ T0 ⎠
Where V0 = Volume at 0°C
t = temperature in degree celsius
T = 273.15 + t = absolute temperature in Kelvin scale
So, Charle’s Law can be stated as, the volume occupied by a given mass of a gas is directly proportional
to the absolute temperature of the gas at constant pressure.
V  T at constant n and P.
1.0 atm
1.0 atm
Heat Charle's Law representing

V = 1.0 L
Volume-Temperature relation
V = 0.5 L Cool
T = 200 K T = 400 K
 t 
Vt  V0  1 
 273 
Graphical Representation [When n & P are constants]
V V/T logV V
Constant P & n
V0
–273°C 0°C T log T 1/T

t
Example 2 : At what temperature will a given mass of a gas occupy a volume of 200 L, if it occupies a volume
of 260 L at a temperature of 30°C, pressure remaining constant?
Solution : Initial Conditions Final Conditions
V1 = 200 L V2 = 260 L
T1 = ? T2 = 30°C (30 + 273) = 303 K
V1 V2
According to Charle's law T = T
1 2
200 260
 
T1 303
303  200
 T1 =
260
 T1 = 233 K
z Gay Lussac’s Law : Volume remaining constant, pressure exereted by a sample of gas is directly proportional
to absolute temperature.
P P P
PT = const.  1 = 2
T T1 T2
Graphical Representation
P
P T
at const. V & n at const. V & n
T T
Absolute temperature = °C + 273
Example 3 : The cylinder of propane gas at 25°C exerted a pressure of 10 atmosphere. When exposed to
sunlight it warmed up to 45°C. What pressure does the container now experience?
P1 P2
Solution : As volume of the container is constant. So, applying =
T1 T2
T1 = 25°C T2 = 45°C
= 25 + 273 = 45 + 273
= 298 K = 318 K
P1 = 10 atm P2 = ?
P1 × T2 10  318
P2 =  10.67 atm
T1 = 298
z Avogadro Law : The equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure
contain equal number of moles or molecules.
V  n (P and T constant); 1 mole of every gas at STP occupies volume = 22.4 L.
1.0 atm
1.0 atm
Add gas
Avogadro's Law representing
V = 44.8 L
Remove gas Volume-mole relation
V = 22.4L
n = 1 mol n = 2 mol
Example 4 : Calculate the value of proportionality constant k for 1 mole of a gas which occupies 22.4 L of
volume under the given conditions of temperature and pressure.
Solution : If n = 1, V = 22.4 L
V = kn
V
 k= = 22.4 L mol–1
n
z Ideal Gas Equation :

m PM m
PV = nRT, PV = RT,  PM = DRT  D = , PM = RT
M RT V
 P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2; PV/T = constant
where m is mass, M is molar mass, D is density, 'R' is gas constant, T is temperature in Kelvin.
Note : All the laws are followed when gas shows ideal behaviour.
z Numerical value of R: R = PV / nT
(1) R = (1 × 22.4)/(1 × 273) = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1
(2) R = (76 × 13.6 × 981) × 22400/(1 × 273) = 8.314 × 107 erg K–1 mol–1
(3) R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1
(4) R = 1.987 cal K–1 mol–1
Example 5 : 30 cm3 of a gas at 2.02 atm and 25°C was compressed to 15 cm3 at 35°C. Calculate the final
pressure of the gas.
Solution : P1 = 2.02 atm P2 = ?

V1 = 30 cm3 V2 = 15 cm3
T1 = 25°C T2 = 35°C
= 25 + 273 = 298 K = 35 + 273
= 308 K
P1 × V1 P2 × V2
Applying, combined gas law, =
T1 T2
P1 × V1 × T2 
P2 =
 V2 × T1 
 2.02  30  308
 P2 =
15  298
18664.8
 P2 = atm
4470
 P2 = 4.17 atm
Example 6 : A vessel of 5 litre capacity maintained at 27°C was filled with 16 g of O2 gas. Calculate the pressure
of the gas in atmospheres in the container.
Solution : Volume of gas = volume of container
V = 5 litre
T = 27°C
= 27 + 273
= 300 K
Given mass (m) = 16g
Molar mass of O2 = 32 g
m 16
n= = = 0.5 mol
M 32
Pressure (P) = ?
Applying ideal gas equation PV = nRT
R = 0.0821 litre atm K–1 mol–1
nRT
P=
V
0.5 × 0.0821× 300
= = 2.46 atm
5
Example 7 : Calculate the density of CO2 gas which has pressure 745 mm at 65°C.
Solution : Pressure = 745 mm
1 atm = 760 mm Hg
745
P= atm = 0.98 atm
760
T = 65°C = 65 + 273 = 338 K
R = 0.0821 litre atm K–1 mol–1
MCO2 = 44 g/mol
dRT
Applying formula M =
P
MP 44  0.98
d= =
RT 0.0821  338
d = 1.5 5 g /L
DALTON’S LAW OF PARTIAL PRESSURES

The total pressure exerted by a mixture of two or more non-reacting gases in a definite volume is equal to
the sum of individual pressures which each gas would exert if it occupies the same volume at a constant
temperature
P = p1 + p2 + p3 . . . .
Pgas = mole fraction of gas × Total pressure.
no. of moles of gas

= × Total pressure
Total no. of moles of all gases
Note : P (moist air) = P (dry gas) + P (H2O vapours)
P (dry gas) = P (moist air) – aq. tension.
Example 8 : 38.00 mL of moist nitrogen gas were collected at 27°C and 746.5 mm pressure. Calculate the
volume of the gas at 0°C and 760 mm pressure. (Aq. tension at 27°C is 26.5 mm).
Solution : Given conditions Final conditions
V1 = 38.0 mL V2 = ? mL
P1 = 746.5 – 26.5 = 720 mm P2 = 760 mm (P1 = Pressure of dry gas)
T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K T2 = 0 + 273 = 273 K
Applying the general gas equation:
P2 V2 P1V1 760  V2 720  38 760  38 273

 , i.e.,   V2    32.76 mL
T2 T1 273 300 300 760
Volume of nitrogen at 0°C and 760 mm pressure = 32.76 mL
Note carefully that in applying gas equation, pressure of dry gas is taken and not that of the
moist gas.
Example 9 : 400 mL of CO2 gas at 0.892 bar pressure and 800 mL of CH4 gas at 0.921 bar pressure are put
into a 2 L flask. Calculate the total pressure of the mixture, assuming temperature is kept constant.
Solution : Partial pressure of CO2 in the mixture
P1V1 = P2V2
P1 = 0.892 bar ; P2 = ?
V1 = 400 mL; V2 = 2L = 2000 mL ;
P1 V1 0.892  400
P2 =   0.178 bar  pCO2 
V2 2000
Partial pressure of CH4
P1V1 = P2V2
P1 = 0.921 bar P2 = ?
V1 = 800 mL V2 = 2L = 2000 mL
P1 × V1
P2 = V2
0.921  800
=  0.368 bar  pCH4 
2000
Total pressure of the mixture = pCO2 + pCH4
= 0.178 bar + 0.368 bar
Ptotal = 0.546 bar
GRAHAM’S LAW OF EFFUSION / DIFFUSION
z Diffusion is the ability of gas to spread and occupy the whole volume.
z Under identical conditions of temperature and pressure, the rate of effusion/diffusion of a gas is inversely
proportional to square root of its density.
z Rate of diffusion/effusion for two gases are related as
r1 V /t n t M2 d2
 1 1  1 1  
r2 V2 / t 2 n2 t 2 M1 d1
Where V = volume, t = time, M = molarmass, d = density, n = number of moles
Gas 1 Gas 2 Vacuum Gas
Pinhole
(a) Diffusion (b) Effusion
Example 10 : The volumes of ozone and chlorine diffusing during the same time are 35 ml and 29 ml respectively.
If the molecular weight of chlorine is 71. Calculate molecular mass of ozone.
r (O 3 ) M(Cl2 )
Solution : =
r(Cl2 ) M(O 3 )
Rate of diffusion in same time is proportional to volume diffused so
V (O 3 ) M(Cl2 )
=
V(Cl2 ) M(O 3 )
35 71 (35)2 71
=    M(O3) = 48.74
29 M(O 3 ) (29)2 M(O 3 )
Example 11 : A fluoride of phosphorous in gaseous state was found to diffuse 2.12 times more slowly than
nitrogen under similar conditions. Calculate the molecular mass and molecular formula of this
fluoride which contains one atom of phosphorous per molecule.
r(fluoride) M(N2 )
Solution : =
r(nitrogen ) M( fluoride)
1 28
= M(fluoride)
2.12
2
 1  28
  = M( fluoride )
 2.12 
M(fluoride) = 126
Further as the molecule contains one phosphorous atom 31 + 19 x = 126
 x = 5
So the formula of the compound must be PF5.
Example 12 : 1.40 L of an unknown gas requires 57 second to diffuse and the same volume of N2 gas takes
84 second to diffuse at the same temperature and pressure. What is the molecular mass of the
unknown gas?
r1 M2 V1 t 1 M2
Solution :  : =
r2 M1 V2 t2
M1
1.4 84 28
 =
57 1.4 M1
28 28
 Squaring both sides
19 M1
28  28 28 19  19
  M1   12.9
19  19 M1 28
Molecular mass of unknown gas = 12.9.
Example 13 : A vessel contains O2 and H2 in 2 : 1 molar ratio at 10 atm pressure then calculate ratio of their
rate of diffusion.
Solution : Ratio of pressure of O2 and H2 = molar ratio = 2 : 1
rO 2 PO 2 MH2

rH2 PH2 MO 2
2 2
=
1 32
2 1
= 
1 4
rO 2 1

rH2 2
rO2 : rH2  1 : 2
KINETIC MOLECULAR MODEL OF GAS - KINETIC THEORY OF GASES

Postulates
z A gas consists of tiny particles, either atoms or molecules, moving in random motion.
z The volume of the particle themselves is negligible compared with total volume of the gas, most of the
volume is empty space.
z There is no force of attraction or repulsions between particles.
z Collisions of the gas particles, either with other particles or with wall of container are elastic i.e. total kinetic
energy of the gas particles remains constant.
z The average kinetic energy of the colloiding molecules is directly proportional to its temperature.
z Based on Kinetic-Molecular Theory

1
PV  mN02
3
m = Mass of one molecule
N0 = Avogadro number
 = Root mean square velocity
3 3
K.E of n moles = nRT, for n = 1 K.E  RT
2 2
3 RT 3
Average K.E per molecule = 2 N  2 kT
0
Where, k = Boltzmann’s constant = 1.38 × 10–16 erg K–1 molecule–1
z Distribution of Molecular Speeds

3RT
(i) Root mean square velocity (rms) =
M
8RT
(ii) Average velocity(av) =
M
2RT
(iii) Most probable velocity (mp) =
M
Note : rms : av : mp : : 1.7 : 1.6 : 1.04 : : 1.224 : 1.128 : 1
Hence rms > av > mp
T = 200 K
Fraction of molecules
T = 600 K
T = 1000 K
0 2000 4000 6000 8000

Speed (m/s)
Molecular Speed at different temperature

(Maxwell Boltzmann Distribution Curve)
EXERCISE
1. Which one is correct? V
p1
(1) p1 > p2
(2) p1 < p2 p2
(3) p1 = p2
T
(4) All of these
2. The partial pressure of a dry gas is
(1) Less than that of wet gas (2) Greater than that of wet gas
(3) Equal to that of wet gas (4) None of these
3. A cylinder was filled with gaseous mixture containing CO and N2 (equal masses). The ratio of their partial
pressure in cylinder are
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
4. A gas in an open container is heated from 27°C to 127°C. The fraction of the original amount of gas remaining
in the container will be
3 1
(1) (2)
4 4
1 1
(3) (4)
2 8
5. A gas occupies 20 litre of volume under STP. What will be its volume if the pressure is increased four times,
keeping the temperature constant?
(1) 20 L (2) 80 L
(3) 5 L (4) 4 L
6. Density of a gas at 300 K and 210 torr is 0.434 gL–1. What is its molar mass?
(1) 14.78 g/mole (2) 73.43 g/mole
(3) 38.68 g/mole (4) 43.28 g/mole
7. The ratio of average speed of an O2 molecule to the rms speed of N2 molecule at the same temperature is
1/2 1/2
 3   7 
(1)   (2)  
 7   3 
1/2 1/2
 3   7 
(3)   (4)  3 
 7   
8. The ratio between rms speed of H2 at 50 K and that of O2 at 800 K is
(1) 4 (2) 2
1
(3) 1 (4)
4
9. Which of the following postulate of kinetic theory of gas is responsible for deviation from ideal behaviour?
(1) Kinetic energy of the gas molecules increase with increase in temperature
(2) Collisions among the gas molecules are perfectly elastic
(3) There is no forces of attraction or repulsion among gas molecules
(4) Molecules in a gas follow zig-zag path
10. What is average kinetic energy of 1 mole of SO2 at 300 K?
(1) 4578 J/mol (2) 3134 J/mol
(3) 3741 J/mol (4) 4173 J/mol
Example 14 : Calculate RMS and average velocity of nitrogen at NTP.

3RT
Solution : u 
M
3  8.314  10 7  273
u= cms 1
28
u = 4.9 × 104 cm s–1
Average velocity = 0.9213 × RMS velocity
So average velocity = 4.51 × 104 cm s–1
Example 15 : Calculate RMS velocity of oxygen if 6.431 g of it occupies 5L at 750 mm Hg.

w
Solution : PV = RT
M
750 6.431
5   0.0821  T
760 32
T = 299.0514K
3  8.314  10 7  299.051
u=
32
u = 4.83 × 10 cm s–1
4
Example 16 : The average speed of ideal gas molecule at 27ºC is 0.3 ms–1. Calculate average speed at 927ºC.
8RT
Solution : v1 = M
8  R  300
v1 = 0.3 =
M
8R  1200
v2 = M
8R  1200 M 1200
v2/0.3 =  
M 8R  300 300
v2 = 0.6 ms–1
Example 17 : Calculate the temperature at which CO2 has the same RMS velocity as that of O2 at S.T.P.
3R  273
Solution : u(O2) =
32
3R  T
u(CO2) =
44
3R  273 3RT
Both are given to be equal 
32 44
T = 375.38 K
BEHAVIOUR OF REAL GASES : DEVIATION FROM IDEAL GAS BEHAVIOUR

In the previous sections, we studied about the behaviour of ideal gases.
Ideal gas : A gas which obeys the gas laws and the gas equation PV = nRT strictly at all temperatures
and pressures is said to be an ideal gas.
But actually the concept of ideal gas is hypothetical as there is no gas which practically is ideal. So,
the non-ideal gases are the real gases which are the actually existing gases which obey gas equation
approximately only under two conditions
(i) Low pressure
(ii) High temperature
EXPLANATION FOR THE DEVIATION FROM IDEAL GAS BEHAVIOUR

We studied the postulates of kinetic theory of gases which give the explanation for the gas laws and the
behaviour of gases. But the experimental observations points towards some of the faulty assumptions made
regarding the behaviour of gases. In order to explain deviations from ideal behaviour, it is necessary to modify
the kinetic theory of gases. So, following are the postulates which do not appear to hold good under all
conditions of temperature and pressure.
(i) Postulate 1 : The forces of attraction between gas molecules are zero.
Explanation for its objection : The above assumption is not valid at all pressures and temperature
values. This is because at high pressure and low temperature (kinetic energy decreases), the molecules
come close to each other. When the molecules are close to each other then the presence of intermolecular
forces cannot be ruled out. Generally we see that both attractive and repulsive forces operate between
the molecules.
Repulsive forces : Repulsive forces operate between the molecules at very high pressures when molecules
come very close to each other.
Attractive forces : At very close distance molecules repel each other. But at a suitable distance, forces
of attraction operate between the gas molecules.
Therefore, we can say that the intermolecular forces between the gas molecules are not negligible.
(ii) Postulate 2 : The volume occupied by the molecules themselves is negligibly small as compared
to the total volume occupied by the gas.
Explanation for its objection : When the pressure is high and the temperature is lowered to a large
extent then the total volume of the gas decreases because of decrease in the empty space between the
gas molecules. Whereas the volume of the individual gas molecule remains the same because the
molecules themselves are incompressible. Hence under such conditions the volume occupied by the gas
molecules will no longer be negligible in comparison to the total volume of the gas.
Therefore this postulate is invalid at high pressures and low temperatures.
EQUATION OF STATE FOR REAL GASES (van der Waals EQUATION)

Corrections of Deviations : The two faulty assumption or postulates have been identified. Now, there was
need of correcting these two assumptions. So, suitable corrections were made to the ideal gas equation to
make it applicable for real gases also. The ideal gas equation was modified by J.D. van der Waals by taking
into consideration the intermolecular forces and the volume occupied by the molecules. So, he introduced
two corrections.
(i) Pressure Correction (Correction due to intermolecular forces of attraction) : In the derivation of ideal
gas equation, it is assumed that there are no intermolecular forces of attraction. But as now we have
identified this faulty assumption, so there is need to incorporate results obtained from the intermolecular
force of attraction between the gas molecules.
Molecule in Molecules
midst of the vessel near the wall
No net force Net inward force
Fig. : Correction due to Molecular Attraction
For that let us take an example, molecule A when present in the midst of the vessel is attracted uniformly
by the other molecules from all the directions. So, there is no net attractive force of the molecules but
when this molecule approaches the wall of the vessel, then it only experiences attractive force from the
bulk molecules behind it. So, now the molecule strikes the wall of the vessel with a lower velocity as it
is dragged back by the other molecules. Therefore, the pressure exerted by the molecule now is lower
than it would have exerted if there was no force of attraction. In other words we can say that the pressure
exerted by a real gas is less than that exerted by an ideal gas. Therefore we need to add the pressure
correction term to make the ideal gas equation fit for real gases also.
an2
Pcorrected = P  ...(i)
V2
Here 'a' is van der Waals constant
Its value depends upon the intermolecular forces of attraction within the gas.
(ii) Volume Correction (Correction due to volume of gas molecules) : Ideal gas equation assumes
molecules to be point masses. But at high pressure we have learnt that the volume of the gas
molecules cannot be neglected in comparison to the volume of the container in which gas is kept.
So, volume correction is applied. ' V' term in the ideal gas equation is the volume of the vessel in
which gas molecules are free to move. But as the molecules themselves take up space, so, now
molecules instead of moving in volume 'V' are only restricted to volume (V – nb). nb is the volume
which is incompressible as molecules are impenetrable spheres.
Vcorrected  V  nb ...(ii)
where, b is van der Waals constant

n is number of moles of gas
van der Waal’s Equation
 a 
 P  2  (V  b) = RT for 1 mole of gas, a and b are called van der Waal’s constant.
 V 
 n2a 
 P  2  (V  nb) = nRT for n moles of a gas
 V 
Real gases approach ideal behaviour at high temperature and low pressure. At low temperature and high
pressure, volume occupied by the molecules is not negligible as compared to volume of the container. There
are inter molecular forces of attractions due to which the pressure exerted is less than that calculated from
gas laws.
Unit of 'a' is atm L2 mol–2, b is L mol–1.
z Significance of van der Waal’s constants : ‘a’ is the measure of intermolecular attractive forces among the
gas molecules. The gases having higher value of ‘a’ can be liquified more easily. Value of ‘b’ for any gas
indicates that the gas molecules are incompressible and gives an idea about molecular volume.
COMPRESSIBILITY FACTOR
Compressibility factor is the factor which decides the extent of deviation of real gases from the ideal gas
behaviour.
Compressibility factor 'Z' is defined as the ratio of product PV to nRT, mathematically
PV
Z=
nRT
A graph is plotted for different gases between compressibility factor and over a range of pressure.
1.8
N2
1.6
H2
1.4 O2 CH4
1.2 CO2
z = pV/nRT
Ideal gas
1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0
200 400 600 800 1000
p/bar
Fig. : Variation of Compressibility factor for some gases
Compressibility Factor Z Pressure Compressibility

(1) Z=1 All Normal
(2) Z 1 Low Negligible
(3) Z>1 High Difficult
(4) Z<1 Intermediate Easy
a
z Boyle's temperature Tb  . It is defined as the temperature at which real gases behave like ideal gases
bR
for a wide range of pressure.
LIQUEFACTION OF GASES
Liquefaction of gases is done under the following two conditions:

G
(i) Low temperature
(ii) High pressure S H
(i) Low Temperature : As the temperature of the 50°C

gas is lowered, the kinetic energy of the P3
D
31.1°C
molecules decreases. The volume occupied by Gas
the gas also decreases. At very low
Liquid TC
temperature molecules come very close to each 73
Pressure
E
other, later, on coming more closer they (PC)
ultimately change into the liquid state. 30.98°C
C 21.5°C (TC)
(ii) High Pressure : Increase in pressure brings the P2 B F
gaseous molecules closer and closer to one
another. So, this factor also helps in converting R 13.1°C
P1 Q
the gas into liquid.
Vapour + A
Ga
For each gas there is a certain temperature Liquid

s
P T
above which the gas cannot be liquefied
V3 V2 VC V1
however high pressure is applied. Therefore we
Volume
can say that the effect of temperature is more
Isotherms of Carbon dioxide at
important than that of the pressure.
various Temperatures
CRITICAL CONSTANTS
8a
z Critical temperature TC  . It is defined as the temperature above which a gas can not be liquified.
27 bR
a
z Critical pressure Pc  . It is defined as pressure to be applied to liquify a gas at critical
27 b2
temperature TC
z Critical volume Vc = 3b. It is defined as volume occupied by 1 mole of gas at TC and PC .
8 Vc Pc V
R  , b c
3 Tc 3
z Inversion temperature is a temperature below which if a gas is allowed to expand it causes cooling effect.
Above this temperature heating takes place. At this temperature neither heating, nor cooling.
This phenomenon is called Joule’s Thomson effect.
2a
Inversion temperature Ti  = 2Tb. Where Tb is Boyle's temperature.
bR
LIQUID STATE
Liquids have definite volume because the intermolecular forces are strong enough to keep the molecules
together, but not strong enough to give them a rigid packed structure. So, they assume the shape of the
container in which they are stored.
z Vapour pressure :
In a closed vessel when the rate of evaporation become equal to rate of condensation, i.e. equilibrium is
established, the pressure exerted by the vapours of liquid on its on surface is known as vapour pressure.
Evaporation and
condensation occurs
Closed vessel
The magnitude of vapour pressure depends upon the following points :
(a) Nature of Liquid
(b) Temperature of Liquid
Note : Increase in surface area has no effect on vapour pressure.
Boiling Point : Boiling point of the liquid is the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid
is equal to the atmospheric pressure.
Normal Boiling Point : The boiling points are reported at 1 atm.
e.g. Normal boiling point of water = 100°C
Standard Boiling Point : It is the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid is 1 bar.
e.g. Standard boiling point of water = 99.6°C
z Surface Tension :
Surface tension may be defined as the force acting per unit length perpendicular to the line drawn on the
surface of liquid.
It is denoted by Greek letter ''
Dimensions = kgs–2
S.I. Unit = Newton per metre (Nm–1)
C.G.S. Unit = Dynes per centimetre (dyne cm–1)
Surface tension is dependent upon two factors :
(a) Nature of liquid  intermolecular forces , surface tension 
(b) Temperature  temperature , surface tension 
z Viscosity :
Viscosity is defined as the internal resistance to flow in liquids which arises due to the internal friction between
the layers of liquid as they slip past one another while liquid flows.
V + dv
Area = A
dz V
Two parallel layers moving in a liquid

The force required to maintain the flow is given by,
Adv
F= η
dz
Where :  is coefficient of viscosity
Units of :
S.I. unit = newton second per square metre (N – s – m–2) = Pascal second (Pa s = 1 kg m–1s–1)
C.G.S. unit = Poise = 1 g cm–1s–1 = 10–1 kg m–1 s–1
z Factors on which viscosity depends :
(i) Intermolecular attractive forces: Greater the intermolecular forces of attraction greater is the viscosity.
Hydrogen bonding and van der Waals forces are strong enough to cause high viscosity. More viscous
liquids, flow slowly
(ii) Temperature : With the rise in temperature, the kinetic energy of the molecules increases. Molecules
with greater kinetic energy can overcome the intermolecular forces to slip past one another between the
layers. So, we can say that the viscosity of the liquids decreases with rise in temperature.
Glass is an extremely viscous liquid. Its many properties resemble solids also. But it is a liquid only which
possess the property of flow can be judged by measuring the thickness of window panes of old buildings.
These come thicker at the bottom than at the top.
EXERCISE
11. At critical temperature, pressure and volume. The compressibility factor (Z) is
8 5
(1) (2)
3 3
3 3
(3) (4)
5 8
12. The liquefaction behaviour of temporary gases like CO2 approaches that of N2, O2 (permanent gases) as we go,
(1) Below absolute zero
(2) Above absolute zero
(3) Above critical temperature
(4) Below critical temperature
13. The value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are x, y, z and c respectively, where
z > c > y > x. The gas which can most easily be liquified, is
(1) O2 (2) N2
(3) NH3 (4) CH4
(1) For H2 and He, z < 1, and molar volume at STP is less than 22.4 L
(2) For H2 and He, z < 1, and molar volume at STP is greater than 22.4 L
(3) For H2 and He, z > 1, and molar volume at STP is less than 22.4 L
(4) For H2 and He, z > 1, and molar volume at STP is greater than 22.4 L
(1) A real gas approaches ideal gas behaviour at low pressure and high temperature
(2) Liquification of a real gas is possible at low temperature and high pressure
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them
16. A real gas has critical temperature and critical pressure as 40°C and 10 atm respectively, then liquification of
gas is possible at
(1) 50°C and 8 atm (2) 45°C and 8 atm
(3) 25°C and 12 atm (4) 45°C and 12 atm
17. The ratio of Boyle’s temperature and critical temperature for a gas is
8 27
(1) (2)
27 8
1 2
(3) (4)
2 1
18. Which of the following increases with the increase in temperature in case of a liquid?
(1) Vapour pressure (2) Surface tension
(3) Viscosity (4) All of these
19. Liquids tend to rise or fall in capillary because of
(1) Boiling (2) Evaporation
(3) Surface tension (4) Viscosity
20. Which of the following is the unit of coefficient of viscosity?
(1) Ns m–2 (2) Pa s
(3) kg m–1s–1 (4) All of these

t
en
nm nment
ssigAssig
Assignment
Assignment
A
(1) V3 > V1 > V2 (2) V1 > V2 > V3

SECTION - A
(3) V2 > V1 > V3 (4) V3 > V2 > V1
NCERT Based MCQs 7. A mixture of N2 and CO2 at one atm pressure
1. A sample of ideal gas at 75°C and 2 atm pressure contains 56% by weight of N2. Partial pressure of
occupies 150 mL. The gas is cooled at constant N2 in the mixture will be [NCERT Pg. 146]
pressure so that volume is reduced to 85 mL. The (1) 0.56 atm (2) 0.44 atm
final temperature of the gas is [NCERT Pg. 145]
(3) 0.67 atm (4) 0.33 atm
(1) – 75.8°C (2) 197.2°C
8. Two flasks of capacity 1 L and 2 L contain gases,
(3) – 75.8 K (4) 42.5°C
A and B respectively at same temperature. If
2. The average kinetic energy for 5 moles of a ideal density of A is 2.5 g/L and that of B is 5 g/L and
monoatomic gas at 27°C is [NCERT Pg. 148] the molar mass of A is twice of that of B, then the
(1) 37.4 kJ (2) 12.5 kJ ratio of pressure exerted by gases (A : B) is
(3) 18.7 kJ (4) 30.2 kJ [NCERT Pg. 146]
3. The temperature at which real gases obey ideal gas (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
laws over an appreciable range of pressure is
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
known as [NCERT Pg. 152]
(1) Critical temperature 9. The incorrect statement for kinetic molecular theory
of gases is [NCERT Pg. 147]
(2) Inversion temperature
(1) Particles of a gas are always in random
(3) Standard boiling point motion
(4) Boyle’s temperature
(2) There exists forces of attraction between the
4. The value of van der Waals gas constant, a is particles of a gas at ordinary temperature and
highest for [NCERT Pg. 151] pressure
(1) NH3 (2) O2 (3) Collision of gas molecules are perfectly elastic
(3) N2 (4) He (4) Different particles in the gas may have different
5. At very high pressure, van der Waals gas equation speeds
for one mole of gas reduces to [NCERT Pg. 150]
10. S.I. unit for surface tension of a liquid is
RT a RT a
(1) P   (2) P   [NCERT Pg. 155]
V V2 V V2
(1) dyne cm–2 (2) Nm–2
RT RT
(3) P  (4) P  (3) Nm–1 (4) Nm
V b V b
11. The critical temperature of CO2 gas is 304 K. The
6. Consider following graph for a fixed mass of a gas
gas cannot be liquefied at [NCERT Pg. 153]
V1 V
2 (1) 160 K (2) 152 K
V3
(3) 183 K (4) 608 K
Pressure(P) 12. 8 g of helium and 4 g of hydrogen gas are present
in a closed vessel at 127°C. If pressure exerted by
the gas mixture is 4.1 atm then the volume of the
Temperature(K) container is [NCERT Pg. 145]
Correct relation between V1, V2 and V3 is (1) 32 L (2) 16 L
[NCERT Pg. 45] (3) 40 L (4) 24 L
13. A real gas tends to behave as an ideal gas at 4. 100 mL of O2 gas diffuses in 10 second 100 mL
of gas 'X' diffuses in 't' second. Gas 'X' and time 't'
[NCERT Pg. 151]
can be
(1) High temperature, high pressure
(1) H2, 2.5 s (2) SO2, 16 s
(2) Low temperature, high pressure
(3) CO, 10 s (4) He, 4 s
(3) High temperature, low pressure
5. A sample of gas at 1.2 atm and 27ºC is heated at
(4) Low temperature, low pressure constant pressure to 57ºC. Its final volume is found
14. Suppose a gas sample contains 3 × 10 23 to be 4.75 litre. What was its original volume?
molecules. Each 1/3rd of the molecules have speed (1) 4.32 litre (2) 5.02 litre
2 × 103 cm/s, 3 × 103 cm/s and 4 × 103 cm/s. The
rms speed (in cm/s) of gas sample will be (3) 4.22 litre (4) None of these
[NCERT Pg. 148] 6. To what temperature must a neon gas sample be

heated to double its pressure if the initial volume of
29  106 gas at 75ºC is decreased by 15.0%?
(1)
3 (1) 592 K (2) 492 K
11  106 (3) 542 K (4) 642 K

(2)
3 7. Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in
an empty container at 25ºC. The fraction of the total
(3) 3  106 pressure exerted by oxygen is
1 1
(4) 15  106 (1) (2)
2 3
2 1 273
(3) (4) 
SECTION - B 3 3 298
8. The partial pressure of hydrogen in a flask
containing 2 g H2 and 32 g SO2 is
1. A sample of gas occupies 10 L. under a pressure
(1) 1/16th of total pressure
of 1 atm. What will be its volume if the pressure
is increased to 2 atm? Assuming that temperature (2) 1/9th of total pressure
of the gas sample does not change. (3) 2/3rd of total pressure
(1) 2 L (4) 1/8th of total pressure
(2) 5 L 9. Which mixture of gases at room temperature does
(3) 10 L not obey Dalton's law of partial pressure?
(4) 1 L (1) NO2 and O2 (2) NH3 and HCl
2. I, II, III are three isotherms respectively at T1, T2 (3) CO and CO2 (4) SO2 and SO3
and T3. Temperature will be in order 10. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given
temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular
weight of X is
P
I (1) 64.0 (2) 32.0
II
III
V (3) 4.0 (4) 8.0
(1) T1 = T2 = T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3 11. A bottle of dry ammonia and a bottle of dry
hydrogen chloride connected through a long tube
(3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T1 > T2 = T3
are opened simultaneously at both ends, the white
3. A gas at a pressure of 5 atm is heated from 0° to ammonium chloride ring first formed will be
1
546°C and simultaneously compressed to rd of (1) At the centre of the tube
3
its original volume. Hence final pressure is (2) Near the hydrogen chloride bottle
(1) 10 atm (2) 45 atm (3) Near the ammonia bottle
(3) 30 atm (4) 5 atm (4) Throughout the length of the tube
12. He and Ar are monoatomic gases and their atomic 20. At what temperature the RMS velocity of oxygen
weights are 4 and 40 respectively. Under similar will be same as that of methane at 27ºC?
conditions He will diffuse through semi-permeable (1) 54ºC (2) 327 K
membrane
(3) 600 K (4) 573 K
(1) 3.16 times as fast as Ar
21. If pressure of a fixed quantity of a gas is increased
(2) 7.32 times as fast as Ar 4 times keeping the temperature constant, the
(3) 1.58 times as fast as Ar r.m.s. velocity will be
(4) 10 times as fast as Ar (1) 4 times (2) 2 times
13. A vessel has 6 g of oxygen at a pressure P and 1
(3) Same (4) times
temperature 400 K. A small hole is made in it so 2
that O2 leaks out. How much O2 leaks out if the 22. What is the ratio of the average molecular kinetic
pressure is P/2 and temperature 300 K? energy of UF6 to that of H2 both at 300 K?
(1) 5 g (2) 4 g (1) 1 : 1 (2) 349 : 2
(3) 2 g (4) 3 g (3) 2 : 349 (4) None of these
14. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to 23. T c and P c of gas are 400 K and 41 atm.
(1) Mean kinetic energy per unit volume respectively. The Vc is
(2) Half of the mean kinetic energy per unit volume 400R 150R
(1) (2)
(3) Two thirds of mean kinetic energy per unit 41 41
volume 41R
(3) (4) None of these
400
(4) One third of mean kinetic energy per unit
volume 24. Boyle’s temperature Tb is equal to
15. When there can be more deviation in the behaviour a a

(1) (2)
of a gas from the ideal gas equation PV = nRT b bR
(1) At high temperature and low pressure 2a a
(3) (4)
(2) At low temperature and high pressure bR 2bR
25. The weight of 11.2 litres of CO2 at S.T.P. would be
(3) At high temperature and high pressure
(1) 88 gm (2) 44 gm
(4) At low temperature and low pressure
(3) 32 gm (4) 22 gm
16. The total kinetic energy in joules of the molecules
in 8 g of methane at 27°C is 26. The stopcock connecting two bulbs of volume 5
litres and 10 litres containing an ideal gas at 9 atm
(1) 3741.30 J (2) 935.3 J and 6 atm respectively is opened. What is the final
(3) 1870.65 J (4) 700 J pressure in the two bulbs if the temperature
remians constant?
17. The density of neon will be highest at
(1) 15 atm (2) 7 atm
(1) STP (2) 0°C and 2 atm
(3) 12 atm (4) 21 atm
(3) 273°C and 1 atm (4) 273°C and 2 atm
27. A 500 ml container has 15 × 1012 molecules of an
18. In van der Waal’s equation of state for a ideal gas. How many molecules will occupy 100 ml
non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for at same temperature and pressure?
intermolecular forces is
(1) 3 × 1012 (2) 75 × 1012
(1) V – 1 (2) RT
(3) 7.5 × 1012 (4) 15 × 1012
 a 
P  V 2 
(3) (4) (RT)–1 28. At what temperature will O2 have the same density
as N 2 at 0°C, assuming pressure remains
19. Van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ has the dimensions of constant?
(1) Mol L–1 (2) atm L2 mol–2 (1) 39°C (2) 39 K
(3) L mol–1 (4) atm L mol–2 (3) 273 K (4) 312°C
29. Boiling point of inert gas due to 4. Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are
(1) Hydrogen bond placed in a container with a pin-hole through which
both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen
(2) London force escapes in the time required for one-half of the
(3) Dipole-dipole attraction hydrogen to escape? [NEET-2016]
(4) Covalent bonds 1

(1)
30. A special gas mixture used in bacterial growth 2
chamber contains 1% by weight of CO2 and 99%
of O2. What is the partial pressure (in atm) of each 1
gas at a total pressure of 0.977 atm? (2)
8
(1) PO2  0.970 atm; PCO2  0.1 atm

1
(3)
PO2  0.970 atm; PCO2  0.00711 atm 4
(2)
3
(3) PO2  0.1atm; PCO2  0.9 atm (4)
8
(4) Can't predict
5. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most
likely to obey the ideal gas law at [Re-AIPMT-2015]
SECTION - C (1) High temperatures and high pressures
Previous Years Questions (2) Low temperatures and low pressures
1. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 (3) High temperatures and low pressures
percent smaller than that for an ideal gas under the (4) Low temperatures and high pressures
same conditions. The correct option about the gas
6. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been
and its compressibility factor (Z) is : [NEET-2019]
taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27C
(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant gases H2 : O2 : methane would be [AIPMT-2014]
(3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant (1) 8 : 16 : 1 (2) 16 : 8 : 1
(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant (3) 16 : 1 : 2 (4) 8 : 1 : 2
2. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation 7. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in
corresponds to [NEET-2018] which of the following pairs [NEET-2013]
(1) Density of the gas molecules (1) Cl2 and CCl4 (2) HCl and He atoms
(2) Volume of the gas molecules (3) SiF4 and He atoms (4) H2O and alcohol
(3) Forces of attraction between the gas 8. Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected
molecules from [NEET-2013]
(4) Electric field present between the gas (1) N2(g)
molecules
(2) CH4(g)
3. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 and
CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, (3) NH3(g)
which one of the following gases is most easily (4) H2(g)
liquefied? [NEET-2018]
9. A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse out
(1) NH3 as helium. Its molecular mass will be
(2) H2 [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(3) CO2 (1) 27 u (2) 36 u
(4) O2 (3) 64 u (4) 9 u
10. For real gases van der Waals equation is written as 15. The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a
2 0.03 m 3 vessel at 129C is (Atomic masses :
 an 
 p  V 2  (V – nb) = n RT, where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van
C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
  [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
der Waals constants. Two sets of gases are :
(1) 215216 Pa (2) 13409 Pa
(I) O2, CO2, H2 and He
(3) 41648 Pa (4) 31684 Pa
(II) CH4, O2 and H2
16. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates
The gases given in set-I in increasing order of 'b' and that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
gases given in set-II in decreasing order of 'a', are
arranged below. Select the correct order from the (1) Number of the molecules of gas increases
following : [AIPMT (Mains)-2012] (2) Kinetic energy of molecules decreases
(1) (I) He < H2 < CO2 < O2 (II) CH4 > H2 > O2 (3) Pressure of the gas increases
(2) (I) O2 < He < H2 < CO2 (II) H2 > O2 > CH4 (4) Kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
(3) (I) H2 < He < O2 < CO2 (II) CH4 > O2 > H2 17. The surface tension of which of the following liquid is
(4) (I) H2 < O2 < He < CO2 (II) O2 > CH4 > H2 maximum? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
11. By what factor does the average velocity of a (1) H2O (2) C6H6
gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (3) CH3OH (4) C2H5OH
(in kelvin) is doubled? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
Questions asked Prior to Medical Ent. Exams. 2005
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.0
18. What is the density of N2 gas at 227°C and 5.00
(3) 2.8 (4) 4.0
atm pressure ? (R = 0.0821 atm K–1 mol–1)
12. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal
(1) 0.29 g/ml
mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the
mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial (2) 1.40 g/ml
pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is (3) 2.81 g/ml
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (4) 3.41 g/ml
(1) 1 atm (2) 0.5 atm 19. Equal weight of CH 4 and H 2 are mixed in a
(3) 0.8 atm (4) 0.98 atm container at 25°C. Fraction of total pressure
exerted by methane is
13. Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse
through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds 1
(1)
respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. 2
Molecular mass of B will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] 1
(2)
(1) 25.00 u 3
(2) 50.00 u 1
(3)
(3) 12.25 u 9
(4) 6.50 u
8
14. A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15C (4)
9
and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the
surface where the temperature is 25C and the 20. 50 ml of hydrogen diffuses out through a small hole
pressure is 1.0 bar what will happen to the volume of of a vessel, in 20 minutes. The time taken by
the bubble ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] 40 ml of oxygen to diffuse out is
(1) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70 (1) 32 minutes
(2) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5 (2) 64 minutes
21. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27°C to 27. Which of the following statements is wrong for gases?
927°C. The root mean square speed of the gas (1) Confined gas exerts uniform pressure on the
(1) Remains same walls of its container in all directions
(2) Volume of the gas is equal to volume of container
927 confining the gas
(2) Gets times
27
(3) Gases do not have a definite shape and volume
(3) Gets halved
(4) Mass of a gas cannot be determined by weighing
(4) Gets doubled a container in which it is enclosed
22. An ideal gas, obeying kinetic theory of gases 28. Average molar kinetic energy of CO and N2 at same
cannot be liquefied, because temperature is
(1) It solidifies before becoming a liquid (1) KE1 = KE2

(2) KE1 > KE2
(2) Forces acting between its molecules are
negligible (3) KE1 < KE2
(3) Its critical temperature is above 0°C (4) Can’t say any thing. Both volumes are not given
29. The beans are cooked earlier in pressure cooker
(4) Its molecules are relatively small in size
because
23. Which of the following mixture of gases does not (1) Boiling point increases with increasing pressure
obey Dalton’s Law of partial pressure?
(2) Boiling point decreases with increasing pressure
(1) Cl2 and SO2
(3) Extra pressure of pressure cooker softens the
(2) CO2 and He beans
(3) O2 and CO2 (4) Internal energy is not lost while cooking in
pressure cooker
(4) N2 and O2
30. van der Waal’s real gas acts as an ideal gas, at
24. 0.24 g of a volatile substance, upon vapourisation, which conditions?
gives 45 ml vapour at NTP. What will be the vapour
(1) High temperature, low pressure
density of the substance?
(2) Low temperature, high pressure
(1) 95.93
(3) High temperature, high pressure
(2) 59.73
(4) Low temperature, low pressure
(3) 95.39
31. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond
(4) 5.993 that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH
to a gas?
25. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas, per
molecule in S.I. units, at 25°C will be (1) London dispersion force
(2) Hydrogen bonding
(1) 6.17 × 10–20 J
(3) Dipole-dipole interaction
(2) 7.16 × 10–20 J
(4) Convalent bonds
(3) 61.7 × 10–21 J
(4) 6.17 × 10–21 J
SECTION - D
26. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry
oxygen was collected. If the temperature is NEET Booster Questions
constant, what volume will the oxygen occupy at
1. In the ideal gas equation, the gas constant ‘R’ has
760 mm pressure?
the value of
(1) 569 ml (1) 8.314 JK–1 mol–1
(2) 365 ml (2) 2 cal K–1 mol–1
(3) 265 ml (3) 0.0821 atm LK–1 mol–1
(4) 621 ml (4) All of these
2. In the following graph 6. Equal volume of two gases ‘A’ & ‘B’ diffuse through
a porous pot in 40 and 10 seconds respectively. If
P1 the molar mass of ‘A’ is 100, then calculate the
P2 molar mass of gas ‘B’.
Volume
P3 (1) 10 g/mol (2) 8.5 g/mol
(3) 6.25 g/mol (4) 4 g/mol
7. If both gases NH3 and HCl are released at the
Temperature
same time then white precipitate will be formed
The correct order of pressure is near the point ______ shown in figure
(1) P1 > P2 > P3
(2) P1 < P2 < P3 NH3
HCl
(3) P3 > P1 > P2 A B C
(4) P2 > P3 > P1
(1) A
3. The order of temperature from given Maxwell (2) B
Boltzman distribution curves of a gas at three
different temperatures (3) C
(4) Precipitate will not be formed
Fraction of molecule
8. How will the viscosity of liquid be affected by the

T1 increase in temperature?
N T2
T3 (1) Decreases
N
(2) Increases
(3) No effect
C1 C2 C3 (4) First increases then decreases

Molecular speed 9. Which of the following graph is/are correct?
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3
(3) T1 = T2 = T3 (4) T1 < T3 < T2
4. Which is/are correct statement according to kinetic Internuclear distance
PE
molecular theory of gases? (1)
(1) There is no force of attraction or repulsion
between gas molecules at ordinary
temperature and pressure
(2) Actual volume of gas molecules is negligible in Real gas
Pressure
comparison to the total volume of the gas

Ideal gas
(3) Their collisions are perfectly elastic (2)
(4) All of these

Volume
5. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) 2 moles of each H2 and O2 have same volume H2
at same temperature and pressure
Z Ideal gas
(2) Rate of diffusion of H2 will be more than rate
of diffusion of O2 at the same temperature (3)
He
(3) Normal boiling point of water is 100ºC P
(4) All of these (4) Both (1) & (2)
10. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal 16. According to kinetic theory of gases the root mean
moles of N2 and O2 at room temperature. If total square speed is directly proportional to
pressure of the gaseous mixture was found to be (T = temperature in kelvin)
1 atm, then partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in
(1) T (2) T2
the gaseous mixture is
(1) 0.6 atm 1
(3) T (4)
T
(2) 1 atm
(3) 0.5 atm 17. Which of the following is correct for Charle’s law?
(4) 0.9 atm
11. The compressibility factor (Z) for an ideal gas is
V
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (1)
(3) 1 (4)  1
T
12. Critical temperature (TC) of the gas is equal to
9a 8a
(1) 27Rb (2) 27Rb
(2) P
V
a 27 a
(3) (4)
27b2 Rb
13. Which of the following gas will have highest value

of critical temperature (TC)? (3) V
T
(1) He (2) H2
(3) NH3 (4) C3H8
14. Which of the following graph represent Boyle’s law?
(4) V
T
log P P
(1) (2) 18. The value of absolute temperature at which ice
starts melting is
log V V (1) 1°C (2) 273 K
(3) 373 K (4) –273 K
19. What should be the value of final temperature so
P P that 1 L gas becomes 2.5 L at constant pressure
(3) (4) if initial temperature was 300 K?
(1) 550 K (2) 650 K
1 V
V (3) 750 K (4) 850 K
15. At moderate pressure, the compressibility factor for 20. Density of a gas ‘d’ is
1 mole of gas can be given by (1) d  P (at const. T)
 RTV   a  1
(1) 1    (2) 1    (2) d  (at const. P)
 a   RTV  T
 Pb   a  (3) d  M (at const. P and T)

(3) 1    (4) 1   
 RT   RTV  (4) All of these
21. What is the ratio of volume of 1 mole of nitrogen 27. Surface tension is
gas to 16 g oxygen gas at STP? (1) Intensive property
(1) 1 : 0.5 (2) Temperature independent
(2) 1 : 0.92 (3) Property of gas only
(3) 0.92 : 1 (4) Extensive properties
(4) 0.98 : 1 28. A spherical balloon of 21 cm diameter is to be filled

up with H2 at NTP from a cylinder containing the
22. If the value of excluded volume of O2 is 5.2 cm3 gas at 20 atm at 27°C. The cylinder can hold
then its critical volume will be 2.82 litre of water. The number of balloons that can
be filled up
(1) 1.73 cm3
(1) 11
(2) 15.6 cm3
(2) 10
(3) 5.2 cm3
(3) 8
(4) 10.6 cm3
(4) 1
23. Two gases H2 and O2 effuse from two different 29. 4 g argon (Atomic mass = 40) in a bulb at a
containers having same pressure and temperature. temperature of T K has a pressure P atm. When the
If the ratio of area of cross section of hole is 1 : bulb was placed in hot bath at a temperature 50°C
2 then the ratio of rate of effusion will be more than the first one, 0.8 g of gas had to be removed
(1) 8 : 1 to get the original pressure. T is equal to
(1) 510 K
(2) 2 : 1
(2) 200 K
(3) 1 : 4
(3) 100 K
(4) 4 : 1
(4) 73 K
24. If the critical temperature of a gas is 300 K then 30. A flask containing air (open to atmosphere) is
the ratio of its inversion and Boyle’s temperature heated from 300 K to 500 K. Then percentage of
will be air escaped to the atmosphere is
(1) 2 : 1 (1) 20
(2) 1 : 2 (2) 40
(3) 1 : 4 (3) 60
(4) 4 : 1 (4) 80
31. Air contains 23% oxygen and 77% nitrogen by
25. The ratio of Vrms of O2 and VMP of SO2 at room
weight. The percentage of O2 by volume is
temperature will be
(1) 28.1
(1) 3 :1 (2) 20.7
(2) 1: 2 (3) 21.8

(4) 23.0
(3) 1 : 2
32. When the temperature of certain sample of a gas
(4) 2 : 1 is changed from 30°C to 606 K and its pressure is
26. Volatility and vapour pressure will be lowest for reduced to half, the volume of gas changes from V
to V2. The value of V is
(1) C2H5OH
(1) 2 dm3
(2) CH3OH (2) 4 dm3
(3) H2O (3) 8 dm3
(4) CH3  O CH3 (4) Unpredictable
33. A gas in a vessel is heated in such a way that its 38. For a given mass of a gas, if pressure is reduced to
pressure and volume both become two times. The half and temperature is increased two times then
temperature of the gas expressed in Kelvin scale the final volume would become (V = initial volume)
becomes
V
(1) Half (1)
4
(2) Becomes two times (2) 2V2
(3) Becomes 2/3rd of its original value (3) 6V
(4) Becomes four times (4) 4V
34. Which of the following has maximum number of 39. Three lines at three different values of constant
molecules? pressure are given, which of the following relation is
correct?
(1) 2.7 g of NH3
(2) 1 L SO2 at STP

P1 P2 P3
(3) 2 L of Cl2 at STP T
(4) 0.1 mol of H2S
35. The mixture of three gases X, Y and Z is enclosed in

a closed vessel at constant temperature. Molecular
weight of X is the highest and that of Y is the least. V/T
When equilibrium is established the
(1) P1 = P2 = P3
(1) Gas X will be more at bottom
(2) P1 > P2 > P3
(2) Gas Y will be more at top
(3) P3 > P2 > P1
(3) Gas X, Y, Z are homogeneously present
(4) Can’t predicted
(4) Gas Y will be more at bottom
40. At constant volume, pressure and temperature are
36. Density of gaseous mixture A and B from percentage related as (T0 = STP temp.)
volume is given as
 t 
(1) Pt  P0  1  (t = °C)
dA dB  273 
(1) dmix  
(%A) (%B)
T0
(2) Pt  P0 (T = in K)
(2) dmix  d A  (%A)  dB  (%B) T
 273  t 
d  (%A)  dB  (%B) (3) P0  Pt  
(3) dmix  A  273 
100
(4) All of these
d A  dB 41. The slope of the graph between log P and log V at
(4) dmix 
100 constant temperature for a given mass of a gas is
37. Which of the following is incorrect for pressure units? (1) +1

(2) –1
(1) 1 atmosphere is equal to 1.01325 bar
1
(2) 1.01325 bar is equal to 0.875 atmosphere (3)
T
(3) 1.01325 × 105 Pa is equal to 1.01325 bar
1
(4) 1 atmosphere is equal to 1.01325 × 105 kg m–1 s–2 (4)
n
42. Equal mass of H2, He and CH4 are mixed in empty m1 m2
container at 300 K, when total pressure is 2.6 atm. (1) 
u12 u2
The partial pressure of H2 in the mixture is
(1) 0.5 atm (2) m1u1  m 2u2
(2) 1.6 atm m1 m2

(3) 
(3) 0.8 atm u1 u2
(4) 0.2 atm

(4) m1u12  m2u22
43. At STP 16 mL of O2 diffused through a porous
48. Correct statement
partition in t seconds. What volume of CO2 will diffuse
in the same time and under the same conditions? (1) At constant temperature, the KE of all the gas
molecules is the same
(1) 13.65 mL
(2) At constant temperature, averge KE of gas
(2) 10.5 mL
molecules remain constant but KE of individual
(3) 20.2 mL molecule may differ
(4) 224.8 mL (3) At constant temperature, the KE is greater for

heavier gas molecules
44. The density of gas A is twice that of gas B at the
same temperature. The molecular weight of gas B (4) At constant temperature, the KE is less for
is thrice that of A. The ratio of pressure acting on heavier gas molecules
A and B will be 49. Molar mass of certain gas A is half that of B. If rms
(1) 6 : 1 speed of molecules of A at certain temperature is
200 ms–1. The rms speed of B at the temperature
(2) 7 : 8 half that of A will be
(3) 2 : 5 (1) 200 ms–1
(4) 1 : 4 (2) 100 ms–1
45. In what ratio by mass, the gases CO and (3) 300 ms–1
2 butene (C4H8) be mixed in a vessel so that they
cause same partial pressures? (4) 400 ms–1
(1) 1 : 1 50. A sample of gas contains N1 molecules and the

total kinetic energy at –123°C is E1 ergs. Another
(2) 2 : 1 sample of gas at 27°C has total kinetic energy as
2E1 ergs. Assuming gases to be ideal, the number
(3) 1 : 2
of gas molecules in the second sample will be
(4) 1 : 3
(1) N1
46. The rate of diffusion of a gas having molecular weight
(2) N1/2
just double of hydrogen gas is 30 ml s–1. The rate of
diffusion of hydrogen gas will be (3) 2N1
(1) 42.42 ml s–1 (4) 4N1
(2) 60 ml s–1 51. At constant volume for a fixed number of a moles

of a gas, the pressure of the gas increases with
(3) 120 ml s–1 the rise in temperature due to
(4) 21.21 ml s–1 (1) Increase in average molecular speed
47. The molecular velocities of two gases at the same (2) Increase in rate of collisions amongst
temperature are u1 and u2 and their molar masses
(3) Increase in molecular attraction
are m1 and m2 respectively. Which of the following
expressions are correct? (4) Increase in mean free path
52. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at 57. van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ and ‘b’ are related with
constant pressure varies with density as _____ respectively
(1) d2 (1) Attractive force and bond energy of molecules
(2) d (2) Attractive force and volume of molecules
(3) d (3) Volume and repulsive force of molecules
1 (4) Shape and repulsive force of molecules

(4)
d 58. At high temperature and low pressure van der Waal’s
53. Which of the following is not correct in case of kinetic equation can be expressed as
theory of gases?  a 
(1)  P  2  (V – b)  RT
(1) Gases are made up of small particles of neglible  V 
size as compared to container size
 a 
(2) The molecules are in random motion always (2)  P  2  V  RT
 V 
(3) When molecules Collide they lose energy
(3) P(V – b) = RT
(4) When the gas is heated, the average kinetic
energy of gas molecules increase (4) PV = RT
54. If the ratio of CP and CV for a gas is 1.4. The number 59. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability
of atoms present in 11.2 litre of it at STP is of the gas?
(1) 6.02 × 1023 (1) H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2
(2) 1.2 × 1023 (2) H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2
(3) 3.01 × 1023 (3) CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2
(4) 12.04 × 1023 (4) CO2 < CH4 < H2 < N2
55. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at
60. The Critical temperature, Boyle’s temperature and
STP. Therefore,
Inversion temperature respectively are given as
(1) V > 22.4 L
a 8a 2a
(2) V < 22.4 L (1) , ,
Rb 27Rb Rb
(3) V = 22.4 L
(4) V = 44.8 L 8a a 2a
(2) , ,
56. Temperature at which gas behave ideally over a wide 27Rb Rb Rb
range of pressure is called as
(1) Boyle’s temperature 8a a 2a
(3) , ,
(2) Inversion temperature Rb Rb Rb
(3) Critical temperature

a a 2a
(4) , ,
(4) Kraft temperature Rb 27Rb Rb


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Aakash Modules Chemistry-01

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Chapter 1

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Some Basic Concepts

Example 1 : Express the following numbers to four significant figures.

Example 2 : What is the sum of 3.368 kg and 2.02 kg?

LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION

CaCO3  CO2  CaO

Hence, x = 10 g – 4.4 g = 5.6 g

Law of Constant Composition (Proust 1799)

Gay Lussac’s Law of Combining Volumes

AVERAGE ATOMIC MASS

Solution : Let % abundance of N-14 isotope = x

Then % abundance of N-15 isotope = (100 – x)

14x  (100  x)15

Gram atomic mass

z 1 amu = 1.66 × 10-24 g ∵ 6.022 × 1023 amu = 1 g

Example 7 : Calculate mass of one atom of nitrogen in gram.

Example 8 : Calculate the actual mass of a water molecule in gram.

Example 9 : Calculate the number of molecules in 1 ml of O2 at NTP.

Solution : 22400 ml of O2 at NTP contains = 6.022 × 1023 molecules

Number of oxygen atoms = Number of formula units × 3

= 3.0 × 3 × 1022 [because one unit has 3 oxygen atom]

Charge = 3.0 × 1022 × 3.2 × 10–19

= 9.6 × 103 coulomb

Example 11 : Calculate the mass of 2.5 g atom of oxygen.

Solution : Molecular mass of HCl = 36.5

Mass of substance (x)

No. of moles of solute 10 mol

5.3 / 106 0.05

Mole fraction (X) :

Mol. wt. of Acid

Mol. wt.of Base

Mol. wt.of salt 106

Mol. wt. of acid salt 84

Methods of determining Eq. wt.

Mass of metal Eq.wt.of metal E

(2) Oxide method

Mass of metal Eq. wt. of metal E

(3) Chloride method

Mass of metal Eq. wt. of metal E

(4) Double decomposition method

Mass of AB Eq. wt. of AB Eq. wt. of A  Eq. wt. of B

 Normality equation N1V1 = N2V2 where, V1 and V2 taken in ml or cc.

Law of Chemical Equivalence

z Strength of solution is defined as amount of solute dissolved per litre of solution.

Example 22 : Find the percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate (CaCO3).

EMPIRICAL AND MOLECULAR FORMULA

z Relationship between Empirical Formula and Molecular Formula

Solution : Calculation of empirical formula

Atomic Constant No. of Sample Simplest whole

 Empirical formula is CH3

Molecular formula = Empirical formula × 2

Element Percentage Atomic weight Relative No. of atoms Ratio

C 54.54 12 54.54/12 = 4.53 4.53

Empirical formula C2H4O

Empirical formula weight = 44

NA molecules NA molecules 2NA molecules

2NA atoms 2NA atoms 4NA atoms

(M.wt.)H2 (M.wt.)Cl2 2 × (M.wt.)HCl

2H2  O2  2H2 O

Again, 4 g of H2 produce H2O = 36 g

(3) 50% (4) 80% (1) 18 mL of water

SECTION - C (1) The ratio of chemical species to each other in

(1) 6.026 × 1022 (1) CH4O