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(Academic Session: 2023 - 2024)

ONLINE CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

Batch: NTL2P

Date: 14-05-2023 Paper Type: Minor Test-1

TG: @Chalnaayaaar
TEST SYLLABUS
Physics : Motion in a straight line, Basic Maths & Vector
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Chemistry : Mole Concept & Atomic Structure
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Biology : Structural organization in animals(Animal Tissue), Breathind and exchange of gases
& Human Reproduction
W

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 Hour 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
2. In this Test, subject Physics will consist of two sections (Physics A & Physics B). Physics A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
3 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
3. Subject Chemistry will consist of two sections (Chemistry A & Chemistry B). Chemistry A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
3 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. Subject Biology will consist of two sections (Biology A & Biology B). Biology A Section will consist of
70 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 30 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 20 questions out of these 30 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 20 questions, first
20 attempted questions will be considered for marking.

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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : Motion in a straight line, Basic Maths & Vector

SECTION-A 6. The value of sin 480° is :–

TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Attempt All 35 questions 1 √ 3
(1) (2)
2 2
1. The minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x + 1 is -
(3) 1 (4) √ 3
− −
(1) 1/5 (2) 2/5 2 2
(3) 4/5 (4) 3/5 7. IfA→ = 2^i + 3^j − k^ & → = 3^i − 2^j
B then
→⋅ B
A → will be :-
2. d x
(e cosx) = ?
dx (1) 0 (2) 0^i + 0^j
(1) ex(cosx + sinx) (2) ex(cosx – sinx)
(3) (1) & (2) both (4) None of these
(3) ex(sinx – cosx) (4) None
8. → + B|
If |A → = → + |B|
|A| → , then angle between A
→ and
3. dy
If y = √ 6x then, find :- → will be :-
dx B
6 √ 6 (1) 90° (2) 120°
(1) (2)
2 √x 2 √x
(3) 0° (4) 60°
(3) 2 √x (4) √ 6
6 9. Which of the following vectors is unit vector :-
4. Find the equation of line from the figure :- ^i ^j ^i ^j
k^
(1) − (2) + +
√ 2 √ 2 √ 3 √ 3 √ 3

(3) 3^i + 4^j (4) All

5
10. If → B
A, → & C →
are coplanar the which of the
following will always be zero :-
(1) → +B
A → −C
→ (2) → ×B
A →).C
→
(1) 6x + 8y = 15 (2) 4x + 3y = 18 (

(3) 2y + 6x = 7 (4) 3y + 4x = 24 (3) → +B

A → +C
→ (4) All of the above
5. Choose the correct option for the slope of the 11. Figure shows three vectors →a , →b and →c , where R is
below curve. the mid-point of PQ. The which of the following
relations is correct ?

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) First increases then decreases (1) →a + →b = 2 →c (2) →a + →b = →c

(4) First decreases then increases (3) →a − →b = 2 →c (4) →a − →b = →c

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12. Which of the following sets of concurrent forces 18. The velocity of a body depends on time
may be in equilibrium ? according to the equation v = 20 + 0.1 t2. The
(1) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 1N body is undergoing:-
(2) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 9N (1) Uniform acceleration
(3) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 6N (2) Uniform retardation
(4) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 =15N (3) Non-uniform acceleration
13. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the (4) Zero acceleration
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
top of the tower reaches the ground with a speed 2
3u. The height of the tower is : 19. If S = ut + 1 at2 then d s = ?
2 dt2
(1) 3u2/g (2) 4u2/g (1) U + at (2) U
(3) 6u2/g (4) 9u2/g (3) a (4) U + a
14. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 20. Velocity (in m/s) of a particle moving in a
6m above the ground. The third drop is leaving straight line is given by V = (t2 – 2t +1) :-
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the
ground. How far above the first drop touches List-
List-I
the ground. How far above the ground is the II
second drop at that instant : Velocity (in m/s) of particle at
(1) 1.25 m (2) 2.50 m (P) (1) 1
t = 3 sec is
(3) 3.75 m (4) 4.5 m Acceleration (in m/s2) of
A body dropped from a tower reaches the (Q) (2) 2
15. particle at t = 2 sec is
ground in 5 s. The height of the tower is about :
(Take g = 10 m/s2) Time when particle is at rest
(R) (3) 3
(1) 80 m (2) 125 m is (in second)
(3) 160 m (4) 40 m Magnitude of
16. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a average acceleration of
(S) (4) 4
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits particle in first one second is
the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 (in m/s2)
m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 300 m (2) 360 m Codes:-

(3) 340 m (4) 320 m P Q R S

17. If position is x = a + bt2 where a = 1 cm and b = (1) 3 2 4 1

3 cm/s2 then its instantaneous velocity at time t (2) 4 3 2 1
= 2 sec is :-
(1) 36 cm/s (2) 18 cm/s (3) 4 2 1 2
(3) 16 cm/s (4) 12 cm/s (4) 1 4 3 2

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21. For the motion of a particle acceleration-time 23. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. The
graph is shown in figure. The velocity time corresponding velocity-time graph is :
curve for the duration of 0–4 seconds is :

(1) (2)
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(3) (4)
(1)

24. A body starting from rest moving with uniform

acceleration has a displacement of 64 m in first 4
seconds. The acceleration of the body is :
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(2)
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
25. If a body starts from rest and travels 120 cm in
the 6th second, then what is the acceleration ?
(1) 0.20 ms–2 (2) 0.027 ms–2
(3) 0.218 ms–2 (4) 0.03 ms–2
(3)
26. A particle moving with constant acceleration
covers a distance of 30m in the 3rd second. It
covers a distance of 50m in the 5th second what
is the acceleration of the particle :
(1) 3 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
(4) (3) 8 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
27. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of
5 m/s in 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 m/s
Which of the graph represents the uniform northwards. The average acceleration in this time
22. acceleration :- interval is:
(1) (2) (1) 0
(2) 1
m/s2 towards north-west
√2
(3) (4) (3) 1
m/s2 towards north-east
√ 2
(4) √ 2 m/s2 towards north-west

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28. A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m 34. Which of following can be correct for any value
vertically upwards, what is its resultant
displacement from initial position :- of θ :-
(1) 10 2m
√ (2) 10m (1) sin θ = –2 (2) cos θ = 2
10 (3) tan θ = 1000 (4) All
(3) (4) 10 × 2m
√ 2
7^i + 4^j
29. A body is thrown upward and reaches its 35. Projection of vector ( ) on y-axis is :-
maximum height. At that position :- 5

(1) Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is (1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 4
5 5
also zero
SECTION-B
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(2) Its velocity is zero but its acceleration is
maximum
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(3) Its acceleration is minimum these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(4) Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
due to gravity questions will be considered for marking.
30. If a stone is released from a balloon rising with 36. ∫ ( x1/2 + x−1 + π) dx =
acceleration a at the instant when its velocity is
v, then immediately after release, the 1 − 12 3
acceleration and velocity of the stone are :- (1) x + ln x + C (2) 2x 2 + ln x + πx + C
2
(1) a (upward), v (upward) (3) 1 − 12 (4) 2 32
x − x−2 + C x + ln x + πx + C
2 3
(2) g (upward), v (upward)
37. In a triangle, shown in figure :-
(3) g (downward), v (upward)
(4) (g – a) (downward), v (upward)
31. A body starting from rest moves with constant
acceleration. The ratio of distance covered by
the body during the 5th sec to that covered in 5
sec is :-
(1) → +B
A → =C
→ (2) → +B
A → +C
→ = →0
(1) 9/25 (2) 3/5 (3) 25/9 (4) 1/25
(3) → +C
B → −A
→ = →0 (4) → +C
A → =B
→
32. A particle starts its motion from point A(1, 2, 3)
and finally reaches at points (8, 6, 7), then find 38. Two vectors A → and B→ are such that A
→ +B
→ =C
→ =
out magnitude of displacement :-
and A2 + B2 = C2. Which of the following
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6
statements, is correct ?
33. Which of the following represents uniformly
accelerated motion (1) → is parallel to B
A →

(1) t+a (2) t+a (2) → is anti-parallel to B

A →
x=√ x=
b b
(3) → is perpendicular to B
A →
(3) x+a (4)
t= √ x = √t + a
b (4) → and B
→ are equal in magnitude
A
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39. Free fall of an object (in vacuum) is a case of 44. A ball is dropped from some height. After
motion with : rebounding from the floor it ascends to the same
(1) uniform velocity height. Draw the velocity-time graph for the
given motion.
(2) uniform acceleration
(3) variable acceleration
(1) (2)
(4) constant moment
40. With what speed should a body be thrown
upwards so that the distance traversed in 5th
second and 6th second are equal :
TG: @Chalnaayaaar (3) (4)
(1) 5.84 ms–1 (2) 50 ms–1
(3) √ 98ms−1 (4) 100 ms–1
45. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed
41. If the velocity of a particle is varying as 60 m/s. Its speed after 8 seconds will be :-
1
V = Kt3 where K is constant and t is the time (1) Zero (2) 10 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4) 30 m/s
3
the acceleration is propotional to : 46. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km
(1) t° (2) t2 (3) t (4) t3 with constant speed of 2.5 km/hr and walks back
with a constant speed of 4 km/hr. His average
42. ∫ V dtgives :- (Where v = velocity, S = speed for round trip expressed in km/hr is
24 40 1
displacement, a = acceleration) (1) (2) (3) 3 (4)
13 13 2
(1) a (2) S (3) V2
(4) None 47. A truck travelling towards North with velocity
2 20 m/s turns East and travels at the same speed.
43. The velocity (v) versus time (t) graph of a The change in its velocity is-
particle moving along x-axis is as shown. (1) 20 2 m/s North-East
√

(2) 20 √ 2 m/s South-East

(3) 40 √ 2 m/s North-East
20
(4) m/s North-West
√ 2
The variation of position (x)-time (t) graph of If a particle is moving with uniform velocity, its
this particle is best shown by - 48.
acceleration is
(1) Infinite (2) Positive
(3) Negative (4) Zero
(1) (2) 49. A body starts from rest and has an acceleration
20 cm/sec2. What is the distance covered by the
body in first 8 sec.-
(1) 160 cm (2) 640 cm
(3) 1280 cm (4) 1640 cm
(3) (4) 50. The slope of straight line 3y = √ 3x + 3 is :-
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) √ 3 (4) 3
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√ 3 3
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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

Topic : Mole Concept & Atomic Structure

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

SECTION-A 59. Vapour density of oxygen gas is:

Attempt All 10 questions (1) 16 g/mL (2) 16
51. Which of the following contains least number of (3) 32g/mL (4) 32
Molecules ?
60. Number of neutrons presents in 18 mL water is-
(1) 1 g SO2 (2) 1 g of CO
(d = 1 gm/mL)
(3) 1 g O2 (4) 1 g of NH3
(1) 8NA (2) 4NA
52. Number of atoms in 24 g of He is :-
(3) 16NA (4) 10NA
(1) NA (2) 2 NA
61. Number of atoms present is 50 amu of hydrogen
(3) 4 NA (4) 6 NA is:-
53. Modern atomic weight scale is based on (1) 50 (2) 25
(1) H – 1 (2) C – 14
(3) 1 (4) None of these
(3) C – 13 (4) C – 12
62. The density of air is 0.001293 g ml–1. It's vapour
54. The ratio of atomicity of N2, H2 and P4 is
density is —
(1) 1 : 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 2 : 3
(1) 143 (2) 14.3
(3) 1 : 1 : 2 (4) 28 : 2 : 17
(3) 1.43 (4) 0.143
55. Mass of 1g molecule nitrogen is:
(1) 1g (2) 28g
63. The radius of nucleus of 13Al27 will be :-
[R0 = 1.33 × 10–15 m]
(3) 14g (4) 10g
A gas is found to have the formula (S2)X. It's (1) 1.2 × 10–15m (2) 2.7 × 10–15m
56.
vapour density is 128. Find the value of X :- (3) 10.8 × 10–15m (4) 4 × 10–15m
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 64. The volume of nucleus is about :-
57. 11 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume of (1) 10–4 times to that of an atom
STP. The gas is:-
(2) 10–15 times to that of an atom
(1) NO (2) N2O4
(3) 10–5 times to that of an atom
(3) CO (4) CO2
(4) 10–10 times to that of an atom
58. 1 amu is equal to :-
(1) Mass of one hydrogen atom 65. Sum of number of proton, electron and neutron

(2) Mass of one C–12 atom in 1 mol hydrogen gas is -

(3) 1/12 of mass of one C–12 atom (1) 1NA (2) 2NA

(4) 1.67 × 10–24 kg (3) 4NA (4) 6NA

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66. The vapour density of a hydrocarbon CnH2n is 74. Isoelectronic species are species having the same
28 then the value of n is :- number of electrons. Which of the following is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5 correct set of isoelectronic species :
67. Gram atomic weight of nitrogen is :- (1) Na+ K+ Mg+2 (2) K+ Ca+2 Mg+2
(1) 14 g (2) 14 amu (3) Na+ Mg+2 Ar (4) K+ Ca+2 S2– Ar
(3) 28 g (4) 28 amu 75. A 0.66 Kg ball is moving with a speed of 100
68. Number of orbitals and subshells in 3rd shell m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6
respectively × 10–34 Js)
(1) 9, 3 (2) 3, 9 (1) 6.6 × 10–34 m (2) 1 × 10–35 m
(3) 3, 3 (4) 9, 9 (3) 1 × 1032 m (4) 6.6 × 10–32 m
69. Orbital angular momentum of an electron is 76. In 4PX orbital, there is :-
h
√ 3 , then the number of orientations of this
π (1) one nodal plane and one spherical node
orbital in space
(2) one nodal plane and two spherical nodes
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) one nodal plane and zero spherical node
(3) 7 (4) 9
(4) no nodal plane and one spherical node
70. Radius of 2nd excited state of Li+2 :
77. Which two obritals are located along the axis,
(1) 0.529 Å (2) 1.58 Å
and not between the axis ?
(3) 2.67 Å (4) 1.2 Å
(1) dxy , dz 2 (2) dxy , pz
71. An element have three isotopes and their weight
are 11, 12, 13 unit and their percentage of (3) dyz , px (4) pz , dx2 −y 2

occurence in nature is 85, 10, 5 respectively then 78. M+2 has 20 protons then find number of
calculate the average atomic weight of element : electrons in M–3.
(1) 11.2 (2) 11.6 (1) 23 (2) 20 (3) 17 (4) 15
(3) 11.5 (4) 11.8 79. The actual molecular mass of chlorine is:
72. Which orbital is represented by ψ420 (1) 58.93 × 10–24 g
(1) 4dz2 (2) 4pz (2) 118.57 × 10–24 g
(3) 4s (4) 4f (3) 58.93 × 10–24 kg
73. Calculate the velocity of an electron in 2nd orbit (4) 118.57 × 10–24 kg
of He+ :- 80. Total number of atoms in 4.25 gm of NH3 is :-
(1) 2.18 × 108 cm/s (2) 2.18 × 106 cm/s (1) 4 NA (2) NA
(3) 4.36 × 108 cm/s (4) 8.72 × 106 cm/s (3) 2 NA (4) 4.25 NA

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81. Which of the following will have highest mass:- 87. In a gaseous reaction of the type
(1) 1 mole H2 (2) 1 mole N2 aA + bB → cD + dD,
(3) 1 mole O2 (4) 1 mole CO2 Which statement is wrong?
82. Calculate the frequency of radiation having (1) a litre of A combines with b lite of B to
wavelength 1 Å ? given C and D
(1) 3 × 1018 Hz (2) a mole of A combines with b moles of B to
give C and D
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) a g of A combines with b g of B to give C
(3) 3 × 1018 cycles/sec.
and D
(4) All of the above (4) a molecules of A combines with b
83. Ist
If the velocity of an electron in orbit of H molecules of B to give C and D
atom is V, then what will be the velocity in 4th 88. The number of molecules at NTP in 1 ml of an
orbit of Be+3:-
ideal gas will be :
(1) V (2) V
4 (1) 6 × 1023 (2) 2.69 × 1019
(3) 16 V (4) 4 V
(3) 2.69 × 1023 (4) None of these
84. Which of the following having maximum value
89. Vapour density of a gas is 11.2, volume occupied
of frequency among electromagnetic wave ?
by 2.4g of this at STP will be-
(1) γ-ray (gama) (2) Infra red wave
(3) Radio wave (4) Visible rays (1) 11.2 L (2) 2.24 L

85. (3) 22.4 L (4) 2.4 L

Calculate the frequency of revolution having λ =
1200 pm 90. Number of neutron present in 1.7 gm of
(1) 0.25 × 10–18 (2) 0.25×1018 ammonia is :-
(3) 2.5×1018 (4) 2.5×10–18 (1) NA (2) (NA/10) × 4
SECTION-B (3) (NA/10) × 7 (4) NA × 10 × 7
This section will have 05 questions. Candidate 91. Find out the mass of 12 × 1023 molecules of O2
can choose to attempt any 03 questions out of gas
these 05 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 03 questions, first 03 attempted (1) 32 g (2) 16 g (3) 64 g (4) 8 g
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
questions will be considered for marking. 92. The wave number of the first emission line in the
86. For the reaction A + 2B —→ C, 8 mole of A Balmer series of H-Specturm is:
and 12 mole of B will produce :- (1) 3 (2) 9
R R
(1) 4 mole of C (2) 6 mole of C 4 400
(3) 5 (4) 7
(3) 5 mole of C (4) 12 mole of C R R
36 6
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93. Two particles A and B are in motion. If
wavelength associated with particle A is 5 × 10–
8
m, calculate the wavelength associated with
particle B. If its momentum is half of A.
97. If in Bohr's model, for unielectronic atom, time
period of revolution is represented as Tn,Z where
n represents shell no. and Z represents atomic
number then the value of T1,2 : T2,1 will be :-

(1) 5 × 10–8 m (2) 10–5 cm (1) 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 8

(3) 10–7 cm (4) 5 × 10–8 cm (3) 1: 1 (4) 1 : 32

94. In 8O16 if mass attributed to neutrons were 98. In Mn how many electron having n = 2, ℓ = 0 ?
doubled and the mass attributed to protons were (1) 2 (2) 8
halved, the atomic mass would become (3) 25 (4) 1
approximately :- 99. The number of electrons having ℓ + m = 2 in
(1) Halved (2) doubled manganese atom is :-
(3) Increased by 25% (4) Remain same (1) 5 (2) 4
95. An increasing order for the values of e/m for (3) 6 (4) 7
electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and (α) 100. If Δx = 2ΔP then value of ΔV is
particle is : (given ΔV uncertainity velocity of m mass
(1) e, p, n, α (2) n, α, p, e cotaining particle, ΔX = uncertainity in position)
(3) n, p, e, α (4) n, p, α, e (1) 1 √h
ΔV =
2m π
96. Number of oxygen atoms in 8 g of ozone is - (2) ΔV = 0
23
(1) 6.02 × 1023
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
(2) 6.02 × 10
1 h
2 (3) ΔV = √

2√2m π
(3) 6.02 × 1023 (4) 6.02 × 1023
3 6 (4) ΔV = ∞

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SUBJECT : BIOLOGY

Topic : Structural organization in animals(Animal Tissue), Breathind and exchange of gases &
Human Reproduction
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SECTION-A 105. Which one of the following is a possibility for

Attempt All 70 questions most of us regard to breathing, by making a
conscious effort ?
101. In which of the following disorders there is
(1) The lungs can be made empty force fully
difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to
breathing out all air from them
inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles?
(2) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen
(1) Emphysema (2) Asthma
(3) One can consciously breath in and breath
(3) Pleurisy (4) Tuberculosis out by contracting the diaphragm and EICM
102. Alveoli become enlarged and damaged with (4) One can breathe out air through eustachian
reduced surface area in heavy smokers. The tube by closing both the nose and the mouth
condition is called :- 106. Given below the figure shows schematic plan of
(1) Silicosis (2) Emphysema blood circulation in human in which some parts
are labelled by alphabates A, B, C and D. Select
(3) Asthma (4) Bronchitis the option in which labelled alphabate provides
103. When man inhales air with normal concentration wrong information?
of O2 along with carbon monoxide, he suffers
from suffocation because
(1) CO reacts with O2 reducing percentage of
O2 in the air
(2) Haemoglobin combines with CO instead of
with O2 and product can not dissociate
(3) CO direct affects the diaphragm and
intercostal muscles
(4) CO affects the nerves innervating the lungs
(1) A=Pulmonary artery :- It supplies
104. When you hold your breath, which of the
oxygenated blood to lungs.
following gas changes in blood would first lead
to the urge to breathe? (2) B=Vena cava :- It collects the deoxygenated
blood and drain into the right atrium.
(1) rising CO2 concentration
(3) C-Dorsal Aorta :- It supplies oxygenated
(2) falling CO2 concentration blood to body parts.
(3) rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration (4) D=Pulmonary vein :- It collects the
oxygenated blood from lungs and drain into
(4) falling O2 concentration
the left atrium.
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107. The figure given below shows a small part of
human lung where exchange of gases takes
place. In which of the options given below, the
parts labeled A, B, C or D are correctly
identified along with its function ?
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
110. What is correct about RBCs in human ?
(1) Curve–C is associated with low pH
(2) Curve–A is associated with low PCO2
(3) Curve–A is associated with HbA while
Curve–C is associated with HbF
(4) Curve–C is associated with venous blood
while
Curve–A is associated with arterial blood
(1) They do not carry CO2 at all

B : Red blood (2) 20-25% of CO2 is transported by RBC's

(1) transport of CO2 mainly
cell (3) They transport 99.5% of O2
C : Arterial (4) They transport about 80% oxygen only and
(2) passes oxygen to tissues the rest 20% of it is transported in dissolved
capillary
state in blood plasma.
A : alveolar main site of exchange
(3) 111. Which enzyme is present in RBCs to catalyse the
cavity of respiratory gases
given reactions ?
D : Capillary exchange of O2 and CO2 CO2 + H2 O ⇌ H2 CO3 ⇌ H + + HCO3 −
(4)
wall takes place here (1) Catalase
108. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the (2) Peroxidase
atmospheric air as compared to those in the
alveolar air? (3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) Carbonic anhydrase
(1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher
112. Inspiration occur if :-
(2) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
(1) Intrapulmonary pressure is more than
(3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher atmospheric pressure
(4) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser (2) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than
109. atmospheric pressure
(3) Intrapulmonary pressure is equal to
atmospheric pressure
(4) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than cellular
pressure
113. The structure which does not contribute to the
breathing movements in human ?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Ribs
Find out the wrong statement about above HbO2
dissociation curves ? (3) Larynx (4) Intercostal muscles
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114. Shape of diaphragm during expiration ? 117. Which of the following option gives correct
(1) Oblique information about the coverings of thoracic cage
(2) Dome shape on various surfaces :-
(3) Flat
Anterior Posterior Dorsal
(4) Inverted dome
Surface Surface Surface
115. In the given diagram, identify what is depicted
by A, B and C. Sternum
(1) Ribs Diaphragm
Choose the correct option. and Ribs
Clavicle
Sternum
(2) Diaphragm Bones and
and Ribs
Neck
Clavicle
Sternum Vertebral
(3) Bones and
and Ribs Column
Neck
(1) A - Air going out from lungs, B - Ribs and
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sternum relaxed, C - Volume of thorax Clavicle
Vertebral
increased (4) Bones and Diaphragm
Column
(2) A - Air entering lungs, B - Ribs and Neck
sternum relaxed, C - Volume of thorax
increased (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) A - Air entering lungs, B - Ribs and (3) 3 (4) 4

sternum raised, C - Volume of thorax 118. The function of tracheal cilia is to :-
increased
(1) Pass mucus out
(4) A - Air going out from lungs, B - Ribs and
sternum relaxed, C - Volume of thorax (2) Pass mucus in
decreased
(3) Pass air out
116. Which statement is correct ?
(4) Pass air in
(1) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar
ventilation. 119. The volume of thoracic cavity will not increase
(2) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar in which condition ?
ventilation. (1) Contraction of diaphragm
(3) Alveolar ventilation is more than (2) Contraction of external intercostal muscles
Pulmonary ventilation.
(3) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles
(4) Alveolar ventilation is less than Pulmonary
ventilation. (4) Flattening of diaphragm
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120. Match the following columns. 122. Match the column I and II, and choose the
Column I Column II correct combination from the options given :-
Total air, a person Column-I Column-II
Inspiratory can Help to stop substances
A 1 Adhering
capacity (IC) inspire after normal (a) (i) from leaking across a
expiration junction
tissue
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Maximal volume of
Perform cementing to
the air, a person can Gap
Expiratory (b) (ii) keep neighbouring cells
B 2 breath in after a junction
capacity (EC) together
forced
expiration Facilitate the cells to
Tight
Volume of the air (c) (iii) communicate with each
Functional junction
that other.
residual
C 3 will remain in lungs
capacity (1) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
after a normal
(FRC)
expiration (2) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
Total volume of air a (3) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
Vital capacity person can expire
D 4 (4) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
(VC) after
a normal inspiration 123. In thyroid follicle which type of epithelial tissue
is present :-
Codes :- (1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal
A B C D
(3) Transitional (4) Columnar
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 4 3 2 124. Which one of the following is not a character of
(3) 1 4 2 3 compound epithelium ?
(4) 4 1 3 2
(1) It is multilayered
121. Which of the following cannot be measured
(2) More protective than secretion and
using spirometer ?
absorption
(1) Residual volume
(3) The cover the dry surface of the skin like
(2) Expiratory reserve volume
epidermis
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Found in inner lining of blood vessels and
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume lymph vessels
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125. Select incorrect option about given diagram :- 130. Which fibres are present in maximum quantity in
vertebrates ?
(1) Collagen (2) Elastic
(3) Reticular (4) Both (2) & (3)
131. Histiocyte is a connective tissue cell which takes
(1) Cover inner lining of ducts of salivary part in:-
glands and pancreatic ducts (1) Fibre production (2) Matrix production
(2) Cover dry surface of skin (3) Phagocytosis (4) Secretion
(3) Main function is secretion and Absorption 132. Which among the following is not characteristic
of yellow fibres of connective tissue-
(4) Cover moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx
(1) Contain elastin
126. Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive
enzymes are secreted by :- (2) Fewer in number

(1) Exocrine glands (2) Endocrine glands (3) Straight and branched

(3) Heterocrine glands (4) Compound glands (4) Provide toughness and strength
133. The excess of nutrients which are not used
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127. In all connective tissues, except ............, the immediately are converted into fats and stored in:-
cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin :- (1) Areolar tissue
(2) Adipose tissue
(1) Blood (2) Bone
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Cartilage (4) Areolar tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
128. Histamine secreting cells are found in :-
134. Which of the following connective tissue often
(1) Connective tissue (2) Lungs serves as a support framework for epithelium?
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue (1) Areolar tissue
129. Read the following (A-D) statements :- (2) Adipsoe tissue
A. Connective tissue are most abundant and widely (3) Dense regular connective tissue
distributed in the body of complex animals
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
B. They are named connective tissues because of
their special function of linking and supporting 135. Endoneurium, Epimysium, Perimysium,
Endomysium, respectively are :-
other tissues/organs of the body
C. They range from soft connective tissues to (1) Areolar C.T., Sheath of WFCT, Sheath of
WFCT, Areolar C.T.
specialised types, which include cartilage, bone,
adipose and blood (2) Sheath of WFCT, Areolar C.T., Areolar
D. The cells of connective tissue secrete modified C.T., Areolar C.T.
polysaccharides, which accumulate between cells (3) Areolar C.T., Sheath of WFCT, WFCT.,
and fibres and act as matrix Areolar C.T.
How many of the following statements are correct ? (4) Areolar connective tissue, Cord of WFCT,
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One Areolar C.T., Areolar C.T.
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136. Tendon, which attach skeletal muscle to bones 140. Identify the following figure :-
and ligaments which attach one bone to another TG: @Chalnaayaaar

are example of which tissue ?

(1) Loose connective tissue
(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(1) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) All of these
(2) Areoloar tissue
137. Which of the following is the example of white
fat? (3) Cartilage
(1) Endomysium (4) Dense regular connective tissue
(2) Panniculus Adiposus 141. Bone dissolving cells called :-
(3) Submucosa of trachea (1) Osteoblast (2) Osteocyte

(4) Epimysium (3) Osteoclast (4) Fibroblast

138. Tendons which connect bones to muscles are 142. Major inorganic component of bone _____:-
composed of ? (1) Ca3(PO4)2 (2) CaCO3
(1) YFCT (2) WFCT (3) Mg3(PO4)2 (4) KCl
(3) Bone (4) Cartilage 143. How many osteocyte found in lacunae of bone?
139. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a (1) 1–2 (2) 2–3 (3) 1–4 (4) Only 1
certain type of connective tissue. Identify the
144. Protein present in cartilage is
parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right
option about them (1) Cartilagin (2) Chondrin
(3) Ossein (4) Oesein
145. Mammalian pinna is supported by
(1) Hyaline cartilage
(2) Calcified cartilage
Part A Part B Part C Part D
(3) Elastic cartilage
Collagen
(1) Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell
fibres (4) White fibrous connective tissue
Collagen 146. Perichondrium is :-
(2) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast
fibres
(1) Adipose tissue
Collagen
(3) Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell (2) White fibrous connective tissue
fibres
Collagen (3) Yellow elastic tissue
(4) Mast cell Fibroblast Macrophage
fibres (4) Areolar connective tissue

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147. The epithelium of _____ of nephron in the 153. During menstrual cycle which hormone attains
kidney has microvilli :- two peaks ?
(1) PCT (2) DCT (1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen
(3) HL (4) Collecting duct (3) FSH (4) LH
148. In the given four statements, select the options 154. Which structures differentiate tertiary follicle
which includes all the incorrect ones :- from secondary follicle ?
(a) Secretory duct is present in endocrine glands (1) Presence of oocyte
and secretes hormones (2) Presence of theca externa
(b) Mammary glands are apocrine glands
(c) Sweat glands are holocrine in nature (3) Presence of theca interna
(d) Salivary glands are unicellular glands (4) Presence of antrum
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d 155. Clevage are repeated mitotic division which start
(3) a, c, d (4) b, d in zygote at :-
(1) Uterus (2) Fimbrial
149. Mechanism of breathing vary among different
groups of animals depending mainly on their : (3) Infundibulum (4) Isthmus
(a) Habits
156. Thickness of uterine wall maximum will be, on
(b) Habitats which day of menstrual cycle approximately ?
(c) Levels of organisation
(d) Demand of situation (1) 14th day (2) 10th day
(1) a and b (2) b and c (3) 28th day (4) 23th day
(3) b, c and d (4) a, c and d 157. Identify A, B, C and D and choose the option
showing correct correlation of them :-
150. Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is TG: @Chalnaayaaar
called :-
(1) Semination (2) Spermiation
(3) Ejaculation (4) Insemination
151. Which accessory sex gland in human being is
unpaired ?
(1) Bartholin's gland (2) Seminal vesicle Single gland secretion of
Seminal
(3) Cowper gland (4) Prostate gland (1) which enter directly in
vesicle
urethra
152. The edges of infundibulum posses finger like
projections called fimbriae which helps in :- (2) Prostate Paired gland
gland
(1) Collection of sperms
Which carries both urine
(3) Vas deferens
(2) To faciliate implantation and semen
(3) To pass nutrition towards ovum Ejaculatory Receives secretion of
(4)
duct seminal vesicle
(4) Collection of ovum after ovulation
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158. First polar body is released during oogenesis ?
(1) Before birth
(2) After completion of meiosis-I
(3) At the time of fertilisation
(4) At the time of formation of haploid ovum
159. Colostrum is:
(1) The milk produced during the initial few
days of lactation
(2) The secretion of bartholin glands
(3) The liquid filled around the foetus
(4) Seretion for the lubrication of penis
160. The second meiotic division in secondary oocyte
completes:
(1) In fetal stage of female
(2) At the start of puberty
(3) After entry of sperms into oocyte
(4) Second meiotic division never completes in
human females
161. Lack of menstruation :-
(1) May be indicative of pregnancy
(2) May be due to stress
(3) may be due to poor health
(4) All
162. How much percent of total sperms ejaculated by
a human male during a coitus must show
vigorous motility, for normal fertility ?
(1) 60% atleast (2) 40% atleast
(3) 24% atleast (4) 50% atleast
163. Which of the following layers of wall of the
uterus exhibits strong contractions during
delivery of baby ?
(1) Outermost layer (2) Middle layer
(3) Innermost layer (4) None of these
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164. In breast of human female, an alveoli opens
into:-
(1) Mammary tubule (2) Mammary duct
(3) Mammary ampulla (4) Lactiferous duct
165. Which of the following set is not included in
external genitalia of female :-
(1) Clitoris, Vestibule, Hymen
(2) Hymen, Labia minora, vaginal opening
(3) Labia majora, clitoris, mons pubis
(4) Fallopian tube, cervix, vagina.
166. Each secondary spermatocyte after second
meiotic division produces :-
(1) Two haploid spermatids
(2) Two diploid spermatids
(3) Four haploid spermatids
(4) Four diploid spermatids
167. Secretory phase of menstrual cycle is also
known as :-
(1) Luteal phase or pre-ovulatory phase
(2) Follicular phase or progesteronic phase
(3) Estrogenic phase or proliferative phase
(4) Progesteronic phase or luteal phase
168. In human, which of the following has no role in
transport of sperms ?
(1) Epididymis (2) Ejaculatory duct
(3) Ureter (4) Vasa efferentia
169. Perivitelline space is present :-
(1) Between zona pellucida and corona radiata
(2) Between zona pellucida and plasma
membrane of oocyte
(3) Between acellular and cellular egg
membranes
(4) Between corona radiata and plasma
membrane of sperm
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170. Identify the hormone, which do not attain peak 174. In the gives below schematic diagram Identify A,
before ovulation (during menstrual cycle) ? B, C, D :-
(1) FSH (2) LH
(3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
SECTION-B TG: @Chalnaayaaar

This section will have 30 questions. Candidate

can choose to attempt any 20 questions out of
these 30 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 20 questions, first 20 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
171. Identify the structure shown below as well as the
related right place of its occurrence in the human
and select the right option for two together.
175. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Structure Site of occurrence
Graafian follicle Ovary
(2) Ovum Fallopian tube
(3) Blastula Uterine cavity
(1) A-LH, B-sertoli cell, C-FSH, D-Leydig cell
(2) A-LH, B-Leydig cell, C-FSH, D-sertoli cell
(3) A-FSH, B-sertoli cell, C-LH, D-Leydig cell
(4) A-FSH, B-Leydig cell, C-LH, D-sertoli cell
correct option.
Statement A: The ploidy level of the cells
constituting corona radiata is double that of the
egg cells (ovum) surrounded by them.
Statement B: The meiosis II is completed upon
entry of sperm in the perivitelline space.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct

(4) Morula Fallopian tube
172. How many of the following structures are
present only in male?
Vas deferens, Ejaculatory duct, Urethra,
Seminiferous tubule, Epididymis, Bartholin's
gland, Corpus luteum, Tubuli recti.
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Five (4) Seven
173. Read the following statements :
(a) It is a tiny finger like structure
(b) It is homologus to penis
(c) It lies at the upper junction of two labia
minora
In the above sentence 'it' refers to :
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
176. Statement-I :- The embryo with 8 to 16
blastomeres is called as blastocyst.
Statement-II :- The blastomeres in the blastocyst
are arranged into outer layer as inner cell mass
and inner layer as trophoblast.
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect

(1) Hymen (2) Fourchette (3) Only Statement I is correct

(3) Clitoris (4) Prepuce (4) Only Statement II is correct
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177. Match the column-A with column-B 179. Identify the W,X,Y and Z in the schematic
Column-I Column-II representation of menstrual cycle:
Liberation of sperm
A. (i) Spermiation
from testes
Liberation of semen
B. (ii) Insemination
from male body
Sperms released from
C. the seminiferous (iii) Semination
tubules
Transfer of sperm
D. into the femal genital (iv) Ejaculation
tract
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) W X Y Z
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) Menstrual Secretory Follicular
(1) Ovulation
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) phase phase phase
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) Luteal Secretory Follicular
(2) Ovulation
178. Read the following statements carefully. phase phase phase
The .......(A)...... present on the inside wall of Luteal Menstrual Follicular
.......(B)....... multiply by .....(C)...... division. A (3) Ovulation
......(D)....... completes the .......(E)....... division phase phase phase
leading to formation of two equal, haploid cells Proliferative Menstrual Secretory
called .......(F)....... .
TG: @Chalnaayaaar (4) Ovulation
phase phase phase
Which one of the following options gives the
correct filling of A, B, C, D, E and F? 180. Which of the following can moderate the
functions of respiratory rhythm centre ?
(1) Pneumotoxic centre
(2) Chemo sensitive area
(3) Chemo sensitive centre
(4) Dorsal respiratory group
181. What percentage of CO2 is transported by RBC ?
(1) 70% (2) 20-25%
(3) 7% (4) 97%
182. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
amount of CO2 to the alveoli is :-
(1) 5 ml (2) 20 ml (3) 4 ml (4) 25 ml
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183. The figure given below shows the mechanism of
breathing. Identify the stages (X) of breathing
explained & A, B and C marked in the figure :-
(1) X–Expiration, A–Raised, B–Decreased, C–
Relaxed
(2) X–Inspiration, A–Raised, B–
Decreased, C–Relaxed
(3) X–Expiration, A–Raised, B–Increased, C–
Contracted
(4) X–Inspiration, A–Raised, B–Increased, C–
Contracted
184. Abdominal breathing refers to :-
(1) Normal breathing (2) Fast breathing
(3) Forcefull breathing (4) Thoracic breathing
185. If the diaphragm of human is punctured, by an
accident then breathing will :-
(1) Decreased (2) Increased
(3) Stopped (4) Not affected
186. In the given statements choose the odd one :-
(1) Thoracic chamber is anatomically an air-
tight chamber
(2) Any change in volume of the thoracic
cavity is reflected in the lung (pulmonary)
cavity
(3) The inner pleural membrane is in close
contact with thoracic lining
(4) The inner pleural membrane is in cotact
with the lung surface
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187. Vital capacity is represented by ?
(1) IRV + TV
(2) TV + ERV – IRV
(3) TV + IRV + ERV
(4) TV + IRV – ERV
188. Which of the following is incorrect for the
cuboidal epithelium ?
(1) It is composed of cube like cells
(2) It is commonly found in parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and
absorption
(4) It is found in lining of stomach and intestine
189. Inner lining of of blood vessels and lymph
vessels have :-
(1) Simple coloumnar epithelium
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium
190. Read the following five statements [A–E] :-
(A) It forms the lining of the cavities of alveoli
of lungs
(B) It forms the lining of wet surface like buccal
cavity and oesophagus
(C) It occurs in the ducts of sweat glands
(D) It forms the lining of salivary glands and
sweat glands
(E) It is a loose connective tissue
Which of the above are associated with simple
epithelial tissue ?
(1) A and D (2) B and C
(3) C and A (4) D and E
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191. Example of unicellular gland is :-
(1) Mucous secreting goblet cell
(2) Oil secreting sebaceous glandular cell
(3) Lysozyme secreting paneth cell
(4) Both (1) & (3)
192. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
labelling :-
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
(1) 'a'-unicellular glandular epithelium like
goblet cells of alimentary canal
'b'-multicellular glandular epithelium like
salivary gland
(2) 'a'-unicellular glandular epithelium like
salivary gland
'b'-multicellular glandular epithelium like
goblet cells of alimentary canal
(3) 'a'-multicelluar glandular epithelium like
salivary gland
'b'-unicellular glandular epithelium like
goblet cells of alimentary canal
(4) 'a'-multicellular glandular epithelium like
goblet cells of alimentary canal
'b'-unicellular glandular epithelium like
salivary glandNCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 102
193. Fibroblast cell is a connective tissue cell, the
function of which is :-
(1) Phagocytic (2) Absorption
(3) Antibody
(4) Matrix production
production
194. Which of the following cells of connective
tissue secrete antibodies?
(1) Mast cells (2) Reticular cells
(3) Adipose cells (4) Plasma cells
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195. Choose the correctly matched pair for connective
tissue :
(1) Areolar tissue – loose connective tissue
(2) Cartilage – loose connective tissue
(3) Tendon – Specialised connective tissue
(4) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
196. Brown fat produce :-
(1) More energy than normal fat
(2) Less energy than normal fat
(3) Same energy to normal fat
(4) No energy
197. Following diagram is an example of :-
(1) Epithelial tissue
(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Dense connective tissue
(4) Specialized connective tissue
198. Which of the following statement is not a
function of bone ?
(1) Weight bearing
(2) Production of blood cells
(3) Interact with skeletal muscles
(4) Decrease body weight in humans
199. Difference between bone and cartilage is
(1) Haversian canal (2) Blood vessel
(3) Volkmann canal (4) All of these
200. Matrix of cartilage produced by :-
(1) Chondrocytes (2) Chondro clasts
(3) Osteocytes (4) Histiocytes
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